Page Range | 69999-70318 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 70317 - German-American Day, 2016 | |
81 FR 70315 - Presidential Determination on Refugee Admissions for Fiscal Year 2017 | |
81 FR 70311 - Presidential Determination on Foreign Governments' Efforts Regarding Trafficking in Persons | |
81 FR 70171 - Sunshine Act Meeting; National Science Board | |
81 FR 70111 - Sunshine Act Notice | |
81 FR 70136 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 70108 - Water Street Land, LLC; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing With the Commission, Intent To Waive Scoping, Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests, Ready for Environmental Analysis, and Soliciting Comments, Terms and Conditions, and Recommendations, and Establishing an Expedited Schedule for Processing | |
81 FR 70257 - Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement for the Coachella Valley-San Gorgonio Pass Rail Corridor Service: Riverside, San Bernardino, Orange, and Los Angeles Counties, CA | |
81 FR 70191 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 70264 - Reports, Forms, and Recordkeeping Requirements | |
81 FR 70085 - Notice of October 19, 2016 Advisory Committee on Voluntary Foreign Aid Meeting | |
81 FR 70260 - Environmental Impact Statement for the Long Bridge Project in Washington, DC | |
81 FR 70128 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 70139 - Notice of Quarterly Report (October 1, 2013-December 31, 2014) | |
81 FR 70014 - Update to Product Lists | |
81 FR 70279 - Joint Biomedical Laboratory Research and Development and Clinical Science Research and Development Services Scientific Merit Review Board Amended; Notice of Meetings | |
81 FR 70085 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
81 FR 70191 - Privacy Act of 1974: Revised System of Records | |
81 FR 70269 - Reports, Forms, and Record Keeping Requirements | |
81 FR 70113 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request for a Modified OGE Form 450 Executive Branch Confidential Financial Disclosure Report | |
81 FR 70112 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Proposed Collection; Comment Request for a Modified OGE Form 201 Ethics in Government Act Access Form | |
81 FR 70200 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Depository Trust Company; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Relating to Processing of Transactions in Money Market Instruments | |
81 FR 70018 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Butte County Air Quality Management District | |
81 FR 70065 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Butte County Air Quality Management District | |
81 FR 70130 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Application for Temporary Protected Status, Form I-821; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 70110 - 2017 Safer Choice Partner of the Year Awards Program | |
81 FR 70038 - Mandestrobin; Pesticide Tolerances | |
81 FR 70109 - Farm, Ranch, and Rural Communities Committee Teleconference | |
81 FR 70092 - Wooden Bedroom Furniture From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Preliminary Determination of No Shipments in Part; 2015 | |
81 FR 70103 - Announcement of an Open Meeting | |
81 FR 70091 - Certain Lined Paper Products From India: Preliminary Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; Calendar Year 2014 | |
81 FR 70229 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Application for A, G, or NATO Visa | |
81 FR 70229 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Adoptive Family Relief Act Refund Application | |
81 FR 70230 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Nonimmigrant Treaty Trader/Investor Application | |
81 FR 70278 - Agency Information Collection (Expanded Access to Non-VA Care Through the Veterans Choice Program) | |
81 FR 70247 - Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Impact Statement for a Proposed Highway Project in Los Angeles County, California | |
81 FR 70094 - Executive-Led Power Technologies Trade Mission to the United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia, March 12-16, 2017 | |
81 FR 70088 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comments Request-Assessment of the Barriers That Constrain the Adequacy of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) Allotments | |
81 FR 70074 - Listing Endangered or Threatened Species; 90-Day Finding on a Petition To List the Pacific Bluefin Tuna as Threatened or Endangered Under the Endangered Species Act | |
81 FR 70013 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; James River, Isle of Wight and Newport News, VA | |
81 FR 70108 - Dynegy Estero Bay Wave Park, LLC; Notice of Surrender of Preliminary Permit | |
81 FR 70105 - GreenGenStorage LLC; Notice of Preliminary Permit Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Competing Applications | |
81 FR 70108 - Dynegy Point Estero Wave Park, LLC; Notice of Surrender of Preliminary Permit | |
81 FR 70106 - California American Water, Southern Division; Notice of Preliminary Determination of a Qualifying Conduit Hydropower Facility and Soliciting Comments and Motions To Intervene | |
81 FR 70107 - Moriah Hydro Corporation; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests | |
81 FR 70105 - Lower Village Hydroelectric Associates, L.P., Sugar River Power LLC; Notice of Application for Transfer of License and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 70134 - Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee Findings and Recommendations Regarding Cultural Items for the Wiyot Tribe, California | |
81 FR 70133 - Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee Findings and Recommendations Regarding Human Remains and Associated Funerary Objects for the Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico | |
81 FR 70004 - List of Approved Spent Fuel Storage Casks: Holtec International HI-STORM 100 Cask System; Certificate of Compliance No. 1014, Amendment No. 10 | |
81 FR 70248 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 70090 - Boundary Description and Final Map for Skagit Wild and Scenic River, Mt. Baker-Snoqualmie National Forest, Washington | |
81 FR 70172 - In the Matter of Southern Nuclear Operating Co., Inc.; Edwin I. Hatch Nuclear Plant, Unit Nos. 1 and 2 | |
81 FR 70134 - Meeting of the CJIS Advisory Policy Board | |
81 FR 70130 - John H. Chafee Coastal Barrier Resources System; Availability of Draft Maps for Louisiana, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 70118 - Sunscreen Innovation Act: Section 586C(c) Advisory Committee Process; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 70119 - Sunscreen Innovation Act: Withdrawal of a 586A Request or Pending Request; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 70136 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Air Act | |
81 FR 70190 - Tennessee Valley Authority, Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2 | |
81 FR 70100 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 70101 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Workshop | |
81 FR 70100 - South Atlantic Fishery Management Council; Public Hearing | |
81 FR 70251 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 70102 - Defense Health Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 70172 - Notice of Correction | |
81 FR 70172 - Withdrawal of Notice | |
81 FR 70104 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Accrediting Agencies Reporting Activities for Institutions and Programs | |
81 FR 70253 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 70273 - Port Performance Freight Statistics Working Group | |
81 FR 70080 - International Fisheries; Tuna and Tuna-Like Species in the Eastern Pacific Ocean; Silky Shark Fishing Restrictions and Fish Aggregating Device Data Collection and Identification | |
81 FR 70171 - Notice of Information Collection | |
81 FR 70135 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Toxic Substances Control Act | |
81 FR 70087 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 70111 - Notice of Termination; 10498 AztecAmerica Bank; Berwyn, Illinois | |
81 FR 70112 - Notice of Termination; 10492 DuPage National Bank; West Chicago, Illinois | |
81 FR 70112 - Notice of Termination; 10490 Bank of Jackson County; Graceville, Florida | |
81 FR 70111 - Notice of Termination; 10281 Independent National Bank, Ocala, Florida | |
81 FR 70111 - Notice of Termination; 10159 Valley Capital Bank, N.A., Mesa, Arizona | |
81 FR 70135 - Notice of Lodging Proposed Consent Decree | |
81 FR 70120 - Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose Test Systems for Over-the-Counter Use; Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
81 FR 70122 - Blood Glucose Monitoring Test Systems for Prescription Point-of-Care Use; Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
81 FR 70256 - Agency Request for Emergency Processing of Collection of Information by the Office of Management and Budget; Railworthiness Directive for Certain Railroad Tank Cars Equipped With Bottom Outlet Valve Assembly and Constructed by American Railcar Industries and ACF Industries | |
81 FR 70210 - Terra Income Fund 6, Inc., et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 70226 - Investment Company Act of 1940; Release No. 32302/October 4, 2016 | |
81 FR 70198 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change to Rule 22.3, Continuing Options Market Maker Registration, of Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc. | |
81 FR 70222 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) Options Facility | |
81 FR 70205 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change to Rule 22.3, Continuing Options Market Maker Registration | |
81 FR 70214 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule To Adopt Participant Fees on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) Options Facility | |
81 FR 70224 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Make Non-Controversial Amendments to Its Rules | |
81 FR 70216 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Investors Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rules To Implement the Quoting and Trading Provisions of the Tick Size Pilot Program and To Describe Related Changes to IEX System Functionality | |
81 FR 70207 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Nasdaq Rule 7046 | |
81 FR 70226 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 7.16P | |
81 FR 70067 - Hazardous Materials: Revisions to Hazardous Materials Grants Requirements (RRR) | |
81 FR 70273 - Hazardous Materials: Proposed Termination of EX Classification Approval EX1987030326 | |
81 FR 70117 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 70260 - Final Notice on Updates to the Uniform System of Accounts (USOA) and Changes to the National Transit Database (NTD) Reporting Requirements | |
81 FR 70126 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 70125 - Office of the Director, Office of Science Policy, Office of Biotechnology Activities; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 70128 - National Institute of Allergy And Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 70125 - National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 70124 - National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH); Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 70126 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 70127 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 70126 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 70097 - Draft 2016 Marine Mammal Stock Assessment Reports | |
81 FR 70102 - Information Collection; Submission for OMB Review, Comment Request | |
81 FR 70089 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 70101 - Marine Mammals; File No. 20658 | |
81 FR 70100 - Marine Mammals; File No. 19669 | |
81 FR 70276 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Assistance Center Improvements Project Committee | |
81 FR 70274 - Unblocking of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons Pursuant To Executive Order 13288, Executive Order 13391, and Executive Order 13469 | |
81 FR 70275 - Open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Joint Committee | |
81 FR 70275 - Open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Special Projects Committee | |
81 FR 70277 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee | |
81 FR 70277 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8038, 8038-G, and 8038-GC | |
81 FR 70275 - Open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Communications Project Committee | |
81 FR 70276 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Toll-Free Phone Line Project Committee | |
81 FR 70276 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Tax Forms and Publications Project Committee | |
81 FR 70115 - Privacy Act of 1974 | |
81 FR 70116 - Privacy Act of 1974, CMS Computer Match No. 2016-14, HHS Computer Match No. 1608 | |
81 FR 70114 - Notice of Meetings | |
81 FR 70228 - National Small Business Development Center Advisory Board | |
81 FR 70227 - Florida Disaster #FL-00118 | |
81 FR 70228 - Florida Disaster #FL-00119 | |
81 FR 70231 - Grant Guideline, Notice | |
81 FR 70029 - Protection of Stratospheric Ozone: Determination 32 for Significant New Alternatives Policy Program | |
81 FR 70066 - Approval of Missouri's Air Quality Implementation Plans, Operating Permits Program, and 112(l) Plan; Construction Permits Required | |
81 FR 70112 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 70025 - Approval of Missouri's Air Quality Implementation Plans, Operating Permits Program, and 112(l) Plan; Construction Permits Required | |
81 FR 70064 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; District of Columbia; Revision of Regulations for Sulfur Content of Fuel Oil | |
81 FR 70020 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; District of Columbia; Revision of Regulations for Sulfur Content of Fuel Oil | |
81 FR 70067 - Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Procurement of Commercial Items (DFARS Case 2016-D006); Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 70090 - High Pressure Steel Cylinders From the People's Republic of China: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
81 FR 70060 - Retrospective Review of Existing Regulations-A Focus on Burden Reduction; Request for Public Input | |
81 FR 70175 - Biweekly Notice; Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving No Significant Hazards Considerations | |
81 FR 70043 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Removal of Solidago albopilosa (White-haired Goldenrod) From the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Plants | |
81 FR 70062 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (Formerly Known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Airplanes | |
81 FR 70011 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 70282 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Proposed Threatened Species Status for Sideroxylon reclinatum ssp. austrofloridense (Everglades Bully), Digitaria pauciflora (Florida Pineland Crabgrass), and Chamaesyce deltoidea ssp. pinetorum (Pineland Sandmat) and Endangered Species Status for Dalea carthagenensis var. floridana (Florida Prairie-Clover) | |
81 FR 70065 - Approval of Nebraska's Air Quality Implementation Plans | |
81 FR 70023 - Approval of Nebraska's Air Quality Implementation Plans | |
81 FR 69999 - General Administrative Policy for Non-Assistance Cooperative Agreements |
Agricultural Research Service
Food and Nutrition Service
Forest Service
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
Fish and Wildlife Service
National Park Service
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Federal Transit Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Agricultural Research Service, (ARS), Research, Education, and Economics (REE), Department of Agriculture (USDA).
Final rule.
This final rule amends ARS regulations and adopts the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) guidance entitled, “Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards,” as the uniform guidance within the REE mission area on the use, award, and administration of non-assistance cooperative agreements awarded pursuant to National Agricultural Research, Extension, and Teaching Policy Act of 1977. It thereby gives regulatory effect to the OMB guidance.
This final rule is effective October 11, 2016.
Kim Hicks, 301-504-1141, or
Section 1424 of the Food Security Act of 1985, Public Law 99-198, amended Section 1472(b) of the National Agricultural Research, Extension, and Teaching Policy Act of 1977 (7 U.S.C. 3318(b)) to authorize the Secretary to use a cooperative agreement as a legal instrument reflecting a relationship between the Secretary and a State cooperative institution, State department of agriculture, college, university, other research or educational institution or organization, Federal or private agency or organization, individual, or any other party, if the Secretary determines (a) the objectives of the agreement will serve a mutual interest of the parties to the agreement in agricultural research, extension, and teaching activities, including statistical reporting; and (b) all parties will contribute resources to the accomplishment of those objectives.
The cooperative agreements authorized by 7 U.S.C. 3318(b) have been determined to be neither procurement nor assistance in nature and, therefore, not subject to the provisions of Federal Grant and Cooperative Agreement Act of 1977 or the OMB Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards codified at 2 CFR part 200. Many of the standards and provisions of the OMB grants management circulars were adopted in whole or in part in 7 CFR part 550. Subparts A through D of Part 550, consisting of sections 550.1 through 550.62, included specific provisions of Federal assistance regulations and cost principles because they embody principles of good management and sound financial stewardship important to all Federal assistance and non-assistance awards.
Although the non-assistance cooperative agreements described in this rule are substantially different than the Federal assistance-type cooperative agreements used by most Federal awarding agencies, as a matter of good business practice REE is amending 7 CFR part 550 to adopt 2 CFR part 200, “Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards,” (78 FR 78589) published on December 26, 2013, as supplemented by this part, and to update and streamline the existing REE administrative requirements applicable to non-assistance cooperative agreements. This rulemaking will reduce administrative burden for non-Federal entities receiving Federal funds under non-assistance cooperative agreements while reducing the risk of waste, fraud, and abuse. Accordingly, proper use of these non-assistance cooperative agreements promote and facilitate partnerships between the REE Agency and the Cooperator in support of research, extension, and education projects of mutual benefit to each party.
Agricultural research, Non-assistance, Procedural rules, Research, Science, Technology.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of Agriculture, REE, revises 7 CFR part 550 to read as follows:
Section 1472(b) of the National Agricultural Research, Extension, and Teaching Policy Act of 1977, as amended (7 U.S.C. 3318(b)).
(a)
(b)
As used in this part:
(1) The First Morrill Act—The Land Grant Institutions.
(2) The Second Morrill Act—The 1890 Institutions, including Tuskegee University.
(3) The Hatch Act of March 2, 1887 (24 Stat. 440-442, as amended; 7 U.S.C. 361a-361i)—The State Agricultural Experiment Stations.
(4) The Smith-Lever Act of May 8, 1914 (38 Stat. 372-374, as amended; 7 U.S.C. 341-349)—The State Extension Services.
(5) The McIntire-Stennis Cooperative Forestry Act; 16 U.S.C. 582a
(6) Public Law 95-113, Section 1430—A college or university having an accredited college of veterinary medicine or a department of veterinary science or animal pathology or similar unit conducting animal health and disease research in a State Agricultural Experiment Station.
(7) Public Law 95-113, Section 1475(b), as added by Public Law 97-98, section 1440—Colleges, universities, and Federal laboratories having a demonstrated capacity in aquaculture research.
(8) Public Law 95-113, section 1480, as added by Public Law 97-98, section 1440—Colleges, universities, and Federal laboratories having a demonstrated capacity of rangeland research.
This part applies to all REE non-assistance cooperative agreements awarded under the authority of 7 U.S.C. 3318(b).
REE Agencies may enter into a non-assistance cooperative agreements with eligible entities to further research, extension, or teaching programs in the food and agricultural sciences. Eligible entities are any State agricultural experimental station, State cooperative extension service, any college or university, other research or education institution or organization, Federal or private agency or organization, an individual, or other party, either foreign or domestic.
REE Agencies may enter into non-assistance cooperative agreements, as authorized by this part, without regard to any requirements for competition specified in 2 CFR 200.202 and 200.206. (7 U.S.C. 3318(e)).
REE Agencies may enter into non-assistance cooperative agreements for a period not to exceed five years. (7 U.S.C. 3318(c)).
The REE Agency must document all parties' interest in the project. Mutual interest exists when all parties benefit in the same qualitative way from the objectives of the award. If one party to the non-assistance cooperative agreement would independently have an interest in the project, which is shared by the other party, and all parties contribute resources to obtain the end result of the project, mutual interest exists.
This part does not apply to:
(a) USDA Federal Financial Assistance agreements subject to 2 CFR parts 400 and 415;
(b) Procurement contracts or other agreements subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) or the Agriculture Acquisition Regulation (AgAR); or
(c) Agreements providing loans or insurance directly to an individual.
This part supersedes and takes precedence over any individual REE regulations and directives dealing with executed and administered non-assistance cooperative agreements entered into under the delegated authority of 7 U.S.C. 3318(b). This part may only be superseded, in whole or in part, by a specifically worded Federal
In lieu of 2 CFR 200.201 through 200.204, 200.206, and 200.306, this section establishes project development, resource contributions, indirect cost reimbursement, and tuition remission provisions for non-assistance cooperative agreements.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(i) Cooperator resource contributions must meet all of the following criteria:
(A) Are verifiable from the Cooperator's records;
(B) Are not included as contributions for any other Federal award;
(C) Are necessary and reasonable for accomplishment of project or program objectives;
(D) Are allowable under 2 CFR part 200, subpart E;
(E) Are not paid by the Federal government under another Federal award, except where the Federal statute authorizing a program specifically provides that Federal funds made available for such program can be applied to cooperator resource contributions of other Federal programs;
(F) Conform to other provisions of this Part, as applicable.
(ii) Cooperator's share of contributions to the project may include:
(A) Unrecovered indirect costs, including indirect costs of the cooperator's resource contributions. Unrecovered indirect cost means the difference between the amount charged to the award and the amount which could have been charged to the award under the cooperator's approved negotiated indirect cost rate.
(B) Values for cooperator's contributions of services and property, established in accordance with 2 CFR 200.434. If the REE Agency authorizes the cooperator to donate buildings or land for construction/facilities acquisition projects or long term use, the value of the donated property for cooperator contributions must be the lesser of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B)(
(
(
(C) Volunteer services furnished by third-party professional and technical personnel, consultants, and other skilled and unskilled labor, if the service is an integral and necessary part of an approved project or program. Rates for third-party volunteer services must be consistent with those paid for similar work by the cooperator. In those instances in which the required skills are not found in the cooperator, rates must be consistent with those paid for similar work in the labor market in which the cooperator competes for the kind of services involved. In either case, paid fringe benefits that are reasonable, necessary, allocable, and otherwise allowable may be included in the valuation. (Refer to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H) of this section for more on third-party in-kind contributions.)
(D) Donated employee services furnished by third-party organization. These services must be valued at the employee's regular rate of pay plus an amount of fringe benefits that is reasonable, necessary, allocable, and otherwise allowable, and indirect costs at either the third-party organization's approved federally negotiated indirect cost rate, or, a rate in accordance with 2 CFR 200.414(d), provided these services employ the same skill(s) for which the employee is normally paid. Where donated services are treated as indirect costs, indirect cost rates will separate the value of the donated services so that reimbursement for the donated services will not be made. (Refer to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H) of this section for more on third-party in-kind contributions.)
(E) Donated property from third parties, which may include such items as office supplies, laboratory supplies, or workshop and classroom supplies. Value assessed to donated property included in the cooperator contributions must not exceed the fair market value of the property at the time of the donation. (Refer to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(H) in this section for more on third-party in-kind contributions.)
(F) Third-party-donated equipment, buildings and land. The method used for determining cooperator contributions for which title passes to the cooperator may differ according to the purpose of the Award, if paragraph
(
(
(G) The value of donated property must be determined in accordance with the usual accounting policies of the cooperator, with the following qualifications:
(
(
(
(
(H) For third-party in-kind contributions, the fair market value of these goods and services must be documented and to the extent feasible supported by the same methods used internally by the cooperator.
(c)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(2) The Cooperator must maintain written standards of conduct covering conflicts of interest and governing the performance of their employees engaged in the selection, award and administration of contracts, and any subawards.
(a) The Cooperator is responsible and accountable for the performance and conduct of all its employees assigned to the project. REE Agencies do not have authority to supervise cooperator employees nor engage in the employer/employee relationship.
(b) The Cooperator PI must:
(1) Work jointly with the Agency PI on developing the project statement of work and budget;
(2) Assure that technical project performance and financial status reports are timely submitted in accordance with the terms and conditions of the award;
(3) Advise the Agency PI of any issues that may affect the timely completion of the project (award);
(4) Assure that appropriate acknowledgements of support are included in all publications and audiovisuals, in accordance with § 550.119 of this part;
(5) Assure that inventions are appropriately reported, in accordance with § 550.124 of this part;
(6) Upon request, provide the Agency a project plan for use during external peer reviews; and
(7) When appropriate, work with the Agency PI to prepare findings for peer-reviewed publication in scientific journals, and make presentations/talks to shareholders, etc.
The Cooperator is responsible for employer/employee relations such as personnel, performance, and time management issues. The Cooperator is solely responsible for the administrative supervision of its employees, even when its employees are working in Agency facilities.
Cooperator employees, while engaged in work at REE facilities, will abide by the Agency's standard operating procedures with regard to the maintenance of laboratory notebooks, dissemination of information, equipment operation standards, facility access, hours of work, Federal agency required training, and the Rules and Regulations Governing Conduct on Federal Property (41 CFR part 102-74, subpart C). Cooperator employees will also undergo any background investigations/clearances, and submit to any health monitoring medical surveillance requirements associated with the REE facility where they will work.
Unless otherwise stated in the agreement, the funding period will begin on the start date of the period of performance specified on the Award Face Sheet.
Reimbursement is the standard method of payment for non-assistance cooperative agreements. All payments to the Cooperator will be made in U.S. dollars by Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT), utilizing the Cooperator's DUNS number and current SAM registration information. The method of payment will be identified on the Award Face Sheet and includes:
(a)
(b)
(1) Total dollar amount requested for reimbursement itemized by approved budget categories, including the indirect cost rate for the award, when applicable.
(2) Name, phone number, email address, and the Cooperator's financial contact, should the ADO or Agency PI have any invoice questions.
(a)
(b)
(1) The length of additional time required to complete project objectives and a justification for the extension;
(2) A summary of progress to date (a copy of the most recent progress report is acceptable provided the information is current); and,
(3) Signature of the Authorized Representative and the Principal Investigator requesting the extension. Any request received by the ADO that does not meet this requirement will be returned for the necessary signature(s).
(c)
(d)
(a)
(2) When specified in the award, program income can be used towards fulfilling the cooperator's resource contributions for the same award.
(b)
(c)
Upon request of the REE Agency, Cooperators may be required to provide documentation in support of peer review activities, and Cooperator's personnel may be requested to participate in peer review forums to assist the REE Agency with their reviews.
In addition to 2 CFR 415.2, “Acknowledgement of USDA Support on Publications and Audiovisuals,” the Cooperator must adhere to the following:
(a) The REE Agency acknowledgment of support must read: “This material is based upon work supported by the Department of Agriculture, (type Agency name) under Agreement No. (type the Federal Award Identification Number (FAIN) here).”
(b) All material described in 2 CFR 415.2 must also contain the following disclaimer unless the publication or audiovisual is formally cleared by the REE Agency: “Any opinions, findings, conclusion, or recommendations expressed in this publication are those of the author(s) and do not necessarily reflect the view of the Department of Agriculture.”
(c) Any public or technical information related to work carried out under a non-assistance cooperative agreement must be submitted by the developing party to the other for advice and comment. Information released to the public must describe the contributions of both parties to the work effort. In the event of a dispute, a separate publication or audiovisual may be made with effective statements of acknowledgment and disclaimer.
(d) The Cooperator must submit to the Agency PI copies of all final publications and audiovisuals resulting from the research conducted under the non-assistance cooperative agreement.
(e) REE Agencies and the Federal Government shall enjoy a royalty-free, nonexclusive, and irrevocable right to reproduce, publish, or otherwise use, and to authorize others to use, for Federal purposes any materials developed in conjunction with a non-assistance cooperative agreement or contract under such a cooperative agreement.
Press releases or other forms of public notification for a broad public audience will be submitted to the REE Agency for review, prior to release to the public. The REE Agency will be given the opportunity to review, in advance, all written press releases and any other written information (including web content postings) to be released to the public by the Cooperator, and require changes as deemed necessary, if the material mentions by name the REE Agency, or the USDA, or any REE or USDA employee or research unit or location.
The Cooperator will not refer in any manner to the USDA or any REE Agency in connection with the use of the results of the award, without prior specific written authorization by the REE Agency. Information obtained as a result of the award will be made available to the public in printed or other forms by the REE Agency at its discretion. The Cooperator will be given due credit for its cooperation in the project. Prior approval is required.
Title to equipment and supplies and other tangible personal property will vest in the Cooperator as described in 2 CFR 200.313 and 200.314, unless otherwise specified in the award. (7 U.S.C. 3318(d))
The Cooperator must submit financial reports at the interval required by the REE Agency, as identified on the Award Face Sheet, and may submit financial reports to the ADO electronically (refer to 2 CFR 200.335 Methods for collection, transmission, and storage of information).
(a) The OMB-approved SF-425, “Federal Financial Report,” may be
(b) Financial reporting due dates:
(1) Quarterly and semi-annual reports are due no later than 30 calendar days after the reporting period.
(2) Annual reports are due no later than 90 days following the end of the award anniversary date (
(c) Final financial report:
(1) Requests for extensions must be submitted to the ADO.
(2) Regardless of Agency-provided extensions for submission of the final financial report, funds will not be available for any drawdowns/payments that exceed statutory limits, as well as any expiring appropriations.
(a)
(1) The performance report must follow the format of the Government wide Research Performance Progress Report, and must include the information described in 2 CFR 200.328(b)(2)(i) through (iii). (2) The final performance report covers the entire period of performance of the award, and must describe progress made during the entire timeframe of the project.
(b)
(c)
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Direct final rule; comment responses.
On May 31, 2016, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) confirmed the effective date of May 31, 2016, for the direct final rule that was published in the
The comment responses are available on October 11, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0270 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Robert MacDougall, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-5175; email:
On March 14, 2016 (81 FR 13265), the NRC published a direct final rule amending its regulations in § 72.214 of title 10 of the
The NRC received four comment submissions with 22 individual comments on the companion proposed rule (81 FR 13295; March 14, 2016). Electronic copies of these comments can be obtained from the Federal Rulemaking Web site,
(1) The comment opposes the rule and provides a reason sufficient to require a substantive response in a notice-and-comment process. For example, a substantive response is required when:
(a) The comment causes the NRC staff to reevaluate (or reconsider) its position or conduct additional analysis;
(b) The comment raises an issue serious enough to warrant a substantive response to clarify or complete the record; or
(c) The comment raises a relevant issue that was not previously addressed or considered by the NRC staff.
(2) The comment proposes a change or an addition to the rule, and it is apparent that the rule would be ineffective or unacceptable without incorporation of the change or addition.
(3) The comment causes the NRC staff to make a change (other than editorial) to the rule, CoC, or Technical Specifications (TSs).
The NRC determined that none of the comments submitted on the direct final rule met any of these criteria and confirmed the effective date of May 31, 2016, for the direct final rule on May 31, 2016 (81 FR 34241). The comments either were already addressed by the NRC staff's preliminary safety evaluation report (SER) (ADAMS Accession No. ML15331A309) for this rulemaking, were beyond the scope of this rulemaking, or were already addressed in a previous rulemaking. The NRC did not make any changes to the direct final rule as a result of the public comments. However, in Section II, “Public Comment Analysis,” of this document, the NRC is taking this opportunity to respond to the comments in an effort to clarify information about the 10 CFR part 72 CoC rulemaking process.
For rulemakings amending or revising a CoC, the scope of the rulemaking is limited to the specific changes in the applicant's request for the amendment or amendment revision. Therefore, comments about the system or spent fuel storage in general that are not applicable to the changes requested are outside the scope of this rulemaking. Comments about details of the particular system subject to the rulemaking that do not address the rulemaking's specific proposed changes have already been resolved in prior rulemakings. Persons who have concerns about prior rulemakings and the resulting final rules may consider the NRC's process for petitions for rulemaking under 10 CFR 2.802. Additionally, safety concerns about any NRC-regulated activity may be reported to the NRC in accordance with the guidance posted on the NRC's Web site at
The following paragraphs summarize each individual comment followed by the NRC response.
When the NRC first approves a CoC for a particular storage cask design, the CoC is based on a postulated generic spent fuel design using a composite of fuel characteristics and engineered features of the DSS. Important fuel characteristics include the level of the uranium enrichment in the fuel pellets and their burnup time in the reactor. Fuel assembly variables include the composition of the alloys used in the fuel cladding and assembly hardware; the diameter, number, and length of the fuel rods; and the spacing between them. These fuel characteristics and assembly design variables affect the overall heat load that the cask and multipurpose canister (MPC) holding the fuel assemblies inside the cask must be able to withstand, with a conservative margin of safety, to maintain their integrity for long-term storage under normal, off-normal, and accident conditions. The residual heat and level of uranium burnup in the spent fuel, and the spacing of the fuel in the assemblies, in turn affect the number of fuel assemblies that can be loaded into the MPC, which must have internal components tailored to maintain the configuration of the fuel in the canister. Burnup also affects the composition and physical configuration of the neutron-absorbing materials arranged around the assemblies within the MPC. Each of these considerations must be evaluated with each fuel design to ensure the long-term performance of the overall cask system with an adequate margin of safety.
Fuel and fuel assembly designs have evolved since each storage cask design was originally certified by the NRC. Contemporary fuel assembly designs now differ in several important respects from the generic designs postulated for the casks' original CoCs. To save costs and reduce worker exposures to radiation, for example, many contemporary assembly designs are optimized for fuel with higher enrichment levels to stay in the reactor's core to “burn,” or fission, a larger fraction of uranium for a longer period. This produces fewer spent fuel assemblies per unit of power generated. It also stretches out the time between re-fuelings, when workers need to remove the reactor's head to load new fuel assemblies, off-load used ones, and rearrange partially-burned assemblies to maintain the efficiency of the overall fuel burnup within the reactor core. To accommodate the changes in fuel enrichment, fuel cladding materials, and fuel assembly materials and configurations, a similar evolution is continuing in MPC componentry, including neutron-absorbing alloys and other materials, so that casks can safely accept evolving fuel designs.
Therefore, the nine amendments to CoC No. 1014, like amendments to other CoCs, each represent an NRC safety finding about the vendor's analysis of proposed measures to adapt the cask to a new fuel design for long-term storage. The nine amendments, and the tenth issued in May 2016, are not the product of trial and error, nor of the incremental application of QA, which must be applied in a safety-graded fashion to all aspects of cask design, fabrication, loading, and deployment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
As the commenter pointed out, there was a radiation release to the environment at SONGS in January 2012. This comment too is about an issue beyond the scope of this rulemaking. The commenter can obtain more information about the release, which was well below allowable limits, in Southern California Edison's (SCE) report to the NRC on the incident (ADAMS Accession No. ML12090A153), and a report by the NRC Office of the Inspector General (ADAMS Accession No. ML14276A478).
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The commenter's description of Holtec's product as a “
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC has a safety hotline that members of the public can use to report any identified public safety risk, such as may be associated with any decommissioning action. The hotline number is 1-800-695-7403. Note that a call during normal business hours (7:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Eastern Time) will automatically be directed to the NRC Regional Office for the caller's geographical area. If the call is placed after normal business hours, or can't be
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
This commenter also stated that with the applicant's proposed changes in the composition of alloy material in MPC componentry, stakeholders have concerns about the accuracy of predicted helium pressure limits for the MPC in underground installations where closed loop forced helium dehydration (FHD) is mandatory for drying MPCs with one or more HBF assemblies or a higher heat load.
The commenter also expressed concerns about the accuracy of predicted helium pressure limits for the MPC where closed loop forced FHD is mandatory for drying MPCs with one or more HBF assemblies or a higher heat load. The comment does not explain the basis for the commenter's concern about the predicted pressure limit for drying. This limit was established to provide an ample safety margin against both inadequate pressure for thorough drying and excessive pressure that could result in damage to the spent fuel or other hardware. To maintain this margin, helium pressure limits are controlled during FHD operations at all times. During FHD drying, the MPC's inlet (drain port) and exit (vent port) each have calibrated pressure-indicating devices that show inlet and outlet pressure during drying operations. Trained operators use the helium regulator in accordance with the site's procedures to ensure that the 75-psi limit is not exceeded.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC addressed a similar comment about the ability of HI-
• Cask storage pads and areas have been designed to adequately support the static and dynamic loads of the stored casks, considering potential amplification of earthquakes through soil-structure interaction, and soil liquefaction potential or other soil instability due to vibratory ground motion; and
• The independent spent fuel storage installation at the reactor site where the casks will be located will meet the requirements of 10 CFR 72.104 to ensure that radiation doses beyond the reactor's controlled area do not exceed 0.25 mSv (25 mrem) to the whole body, 0.75 mSv (75 mrem) to the thyroid, and 0.25 mSv (25 mrem) to any other critical organ, and are further controlled to a level as low as is reasonably achievable.
The seismic design levels of the HI-STORM 100 Cask System CoC are acceptable for most areas in the continental United States. For locations with potential for seismic activity beyond those analyzed for this system, additional NRC evaluations and certifications may be required before the system may be used in those locations.
Similarly, although the design levels of the HI-STORM 100 Cask System CoC for flooding are also acceptable for most areas in the continental United States—again depending on site-specific analyses—the NRC staff previously evaluated the impacts of flooding during the review of the initial certification for the HI-STORM Flood/Wind (FW) System. In its March 28, 2011, SER for the initial certification of the HI-STORM FW MPC Storage System (see Sections 4.8.2 and 7.3.1 of ADAMS Accession No. ML103020151), the NRC staff considered both full and partial flooding for both the vertical and horizontal positions for the MPC. The NRC staff found that the fully flooded condition would produce the highest reactivity in the spent fuel, and that the fully flooded model for safety evaluations “is acceptable and applicable to all of the assembly configurations that are to be stored in the HI-STORM FW MPC Storage system,” including damaged fuel configurations. In its March 28, 2011, SER, the NRC staff also noted the system's design measures to limit the rise in fuel cladding temperature under the most adverse flood event (one with a water level just high enough to block the MPC overpack's air convection inlet duct). The changes requested in Amendment No. 10 to CoC No. 1014 do not affect the NRC's prior flooding evaluation for the initial certification of this system.
In addition, under 10 CFR 72.212(b)(6), before using the general license, the reactor licensee must review the Safety Analysis Report (SAR) referenced in the CoC or amended CoC and the NRC's SER evaluating the SAR to determine whether the reactor site parameters, including analyses of earthquake intensity, tornado missiles, and flooding, are enveloped by the cask design bases considered in these reports. Like those for seismic activity, the flooding and tornado missile design levels of the HI-STORM 100 Cask System CoC are acceptable for most areas in the continental United States. For locations with potential for flooding or tornado activity beyond those analyzed for this system, additional NRC evaluations and certifications may be required before the system may be used in those locations.
Therefore, the ability of a particular cask system to protect additional spent fuel types against postulated natural disasters is required to be subject to rigorous analyses, both generic and site-specific, before the fuel can be loaded at any given site. If the design basis of the HI-STORM 100 Cask System CoC No. 1014, Amendment No. 10, cannot be shown to envelop a particular site's parameters, Holtec or another vendor would need to obtain NRC certification for another system meeting the design specifications of the subject spent fuel before it could be loaded for dry storage.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The proposed increase in manganese content from 1.2 percent to 1.5 percent maintains, if not improves, the toughness properties of the SA-516 Grade 70 steel used in the HI-STORM 100 Cask System overpack. The NRC's preliminary SER for Amendment No. 10 to CoC No. 1014 analyzed this proposed
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
Concerning the commenter's statement about the need for an up-to-date measurement device, the NRC has not specifically required the use of hot-wire anemometer or any other airflow measurement technology. The applicant may propose the use of any technology it believes will measure airflow with sufficient accuracy and reliability. The NRC is not aware of any basis to prohibit the use of hot-wire anemometer technology for measuring airflow or temperature.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The [MPC] confinement boundary includes the MPC shell, the bottom baseplate, the MPC lid (including the vent and drain port cover plates), the MPC closure ring, and the associated welds. . . . The MPC lid (with the vent and drain port cover plates welded to the lid) and closure ring are welded to the upper part of the MPC shell at the loading site. This provides redundant sealing of the confinement boundary. . . . The redundant closures of the MPC satisfy the requirements of 10 CFR 72.236(e) for redundant sealing of confinement systems.
The MPC's confinement design has multiple related purposes. The confinement design ensures that potentially contaminated air is contained within the MPC and that the MPC remains filled with helium coolant, so that the MPC can fulfill a third purpose: to keep outside air from contacting the spent nuclear fuel for the licensed life of the system.
In addition to the redundant barriers to airborne radiation leakage in the design of the HI-STORM 100 MPC and cask system, there are procedural requirements to ensure that the system and its components function in operation as designed. In accordance with the CoC itself (ADAMS Accession No. ML15331A307), the design, purchase, fabrication, assembly, inspection, testing, operation, maintenance, repair, and modification of all structures, systems, and components that are important to safety, both for the MPC and the system as a whole, must be conducted in accordance with a Commission-approved quality assurance program that satisfies the applicable requirements of 10 CFR part 72, subpart G.
The CoC also requires that when the MPC shell is welded to its baseplate, the fabricator must perform a helium leak test of the MPC weld's confinement using a helium mass spectrometer. This weld leakage test must include the base metals of the MPC shell and baseplate. Another helium leak test must be performed on the base metal of the fabricated MPC lid. Then, in the field, a helium leak test must be performed on the vent and drain port confinement welds and cover plate base metal before the loaded MPC can be emplaced within the concrete overpack. All MPC confinement boundary leakage rate tests must be performed in accordance with ANSI N14.5 to “leaktight” criteria. If the user detects a leakage rate exceeding the acceptance criteria, the user must determine the area of leakage and repair it to meet ASME Code Section III, Subsection NB requirements. The affected area must then be re-tested until the leakage rate acceptance criterion is met.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC disagrees with the comment. The NRC's preliminary SER evaluated Holtec's supporting thermal analysis for Amendment No. 10 to CoC No. 1014 and found that the HI-STORM 100 Cask System certification “continues to be designed with a heat-removal capability having verifiability and reliability consistent with its importance to safety.” The SER also found that spent fuel cladding continues to be protected against thermal degradation leading to gross ruptures, and other cask component temperatures continue to be maintained below the allowable limits for the accidents evaluated.
There has been no refusal to test the cask system's heat removal capacity. The CoC language has been revised to require CoC No. 1014, Amendment No. 10, users to submit thermal validation test and analysis results in a letter report to the NRC within 180 days of either the user's loading of the first cask or undertaking the first spent fuel transfer operation with a cask fabricated to Amendment No. 10 specifications. The revised condition also states, however, that for casks of the same system type, users may document in their 10 CFR 72.212 report a previously performed test and analysis that has demonstrated adequate validation of the analytic thermal methods. The NRC will evaluate whether this previous test and analysis continues to demonstrate adequate validation of thermal analysis methods in light of the uncertainty of airflow measurements at the previously-specified locations.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
As to the comment that documents relevant to this rulemaking were not “attached . . . in an orderly, clear manner,” the NRC followed its normal process of providing the ADAMS accession numbers to referenced documents so that interested persons may obtain access to the documents. If the commenter was referring instead to the table of references provided in the
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
The NRC made no changes to the rule as a result of this comment.
In summary, the NRC did not receive any comments that warranted withdrawal of the direct final rule. Therefore, none of these comments required a change in the rule's effective date of May 31, 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900 and -900ER series airplanes. This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that certain fastener locations in the window corner surround structure are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This AD requires repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections for cracking in certain fastener locations in the window corner surround structure, and repair if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking around certain fastener locations that could cause multiple window corner skin cracks, which could result in rapid decompression and consequent loss of structural integrity of the airplane.
This AD is effective November 15, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of November 15, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Gaetano Settineri, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6577; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900 and -900ER series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Boeing and the Airline Pilots Association, International supported the content of the NPRM.
Aviation Partners Boeing stated that accomplishing the supplemental type certificate (STC) ST00830SE does not affect compliance with the actions specified in the NPRM.
We agree with the commenter. We have redesignated paragraph (c) as (c)(1) and added a new paragraph (c)(2) to this AD to state that installation of STC ST00830SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this final rule. Therefore, for airplanes on which STC ST00830SE is installed, a “change in product” alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval request is not necessary to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR 39.17.
Southwest Airlines (SWA) asked for clarification that the Boeing ODA identified in paragraph (i)(3) of the proposed AD can provide an AMOC for any “repair, modification, or alteration” that includes the authority to approve existing repairs in the inspection area that inhibit accomplishment of the AD requirements as terminating action to paragraph (g) of the proposed AD. SWA also asked if the ODA has the authority to provide alternative inspection procedures for repaired areas where the inspection in paragraph (g) of the proposed AD cannot be accomplished. Additionally, SWA asked that we clarify that the Boeing ODA identified in paragraph (i)(3) of the proposed AD is able to issue an AMOC to the proposed AD for an existing repair at the S-14 lap joint (where the location of the repair inhibits accomplishing the initial inspection), provided the repair was approved by any FAA designation authority, and there is a minimum of three fastener rows above and below the lap joint. SWA stated that neither Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015, nor the NPRM clearly state how to address existing repairs that prevent
We agree with the commenter that clarification of the extent of the authority of the Boeing ODA is necessary. The Boeing ODA has the authority to evaluate existing repairs and provide alternative inspection programs in the repaired area, including authority to approve alternative inspections as AMOCs if needed.
We infer that SWA is also asking if the Boeing ODA can issue a global AMOC for the referenced repair at the S-14 lap joint. The Boeing ODA does not have the authority to approve global AMOCs. In addition, we have not received any information from Boeing that defines such a repair that would be considered for a global AMOC. If Boeing provides supporting data, we will evaluate the data to determine if that repair and any associated inspections provide an acceptable level of safety for such an AMOC. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We have determined that the end level effect of the unsafe condition in the NPRM should be changed to more closely match the service information. Therefore, we have changed“. . . reduced structural integrity” to“. . . loss of structural integrity” in the
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015. The service information describes procedures for HFEC inspections and repair for cracking in certain fastener locations in the window corner surround structure. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 1,528 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective November 15, 2016.
None.
(1) This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900 and -900ER series airplanes, certificated in any category.
(2) Installation of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST00830SE (
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that certain fastener locations in the window corner surround structure are subject to widespread fatigue damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking around certain fastener locations that could cause multiple window corner skin cracks, which could result in rapid decompression and consequent loss of structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015: Do an external high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection for cracking of the skin around the fastener locations at the upper forward and lower aft corners of each window between station (STA) 360 and STA 540, as applicable, and at the lower forward and upper aft corners of each window between STA 727 and STA 887, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015. Repeat the inspection thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015. If any crack is found during any inspection, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015, specifies to contact Boeing for repair instructions, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Gaetano Settineri, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6577; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1351, dated July 8, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of temporary deviation from regulations; Cancellation.
The Coast Guard is canceling the temporary deviation concerning the James River Bridge (US17) across the James River, mile 5.0, at Isle of Wight and Newport News, VA. The deviation was necessary to perform bridge maintenance and repairs, which have been completed. The deviation allowed the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
The temporary deviation published on September 16, 2016, in the
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0866] is available at
If you have questions on this cancelation, call or email Mr. Hal R. Pitts, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6222, email
On September 16, 2016, we published a temporary deviation entitled “Drawbridge Operation Regulation; James River, Isle of Wight and Newport News, VA” in the
On September 26, 2016, The Virginia Department of Transportation, that owns and operates the James River Bridge (US17), across the James River, mile 5.0, at Isle of Wight and Newport News, VA, notified the Coast Guard that repairs had been completed on September 24, 2016, and that the temporary deviation was no longer needed.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The Commission is updating the product lists. This action reflects a publication policy adopted by Commission order. The referenced policy assumes periodic updates. The updates are identified in the body of this document. The product lists, which are re-published in their entirety, include these updates.
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6800.
This document identifies updates to the market dominant and the competitive product lists, which appear as 39 CFR Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 3020—Market Dominant Product List and 39 CFR Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3020—Competitive Product List, respectively. Publication of the updated product lists in the
1. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 20 (MC2016-158 and CP2016-229) (Order No. 3414), added July 6, 2016.
2. Priority Mail Contract 228 (MC2016-157 and CP2016-228) (Order No. 3415), added July 6, 2016.
3. Priority Mail Express Contract 38 (MC2016-161 and CP2016-232) (Order No. 3416), added July 7, 2016.
4. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 10 (MC2016-160 and CP2016-231) (Order No. 3417), added July 7, 2016.
5. Priority Mail Contract 229 (MC2016-159 and CP2016-230) (Order No. 3418), added July 7, 2016.
6. Priority Mail Contract 214 (MC2016-131 and CP2016-167) (Order No. 3419), added July 8, 2016.
7. Priority Mail Contract 230 (MC2016-162 and CP2016-235) (Order No. 3425), added July 13, 2016.
8. Priority Mail Contract 231 (MC2016-163 and CP2016-236) (Order No. 3426), added July 13, 2016.
9. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 21 (MC2016-165 and CP2016-239) (Order No. 3437), added July 19, 2016.
10. Priority Mail Express Contract 39 (MC2016-164 and CP2016-238) (Order No. 3438), added July 19, 2016.
11. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 22 (MC2016-166 and CP2016-240) (Order No. 3439), added July 19, 2016.
12. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 23 (MC2016-167 and CP2016-241) (Order No. 3440), added July 19, 2016.
13. First-Class Package Service Contract 58 (MC2016-170 and CP2016-248) (Order No. 3452), added August 1, 2016.
14. First-Class Package Service Contract 59 (MC2016-171 and CP2016-249) (Order No. 3453), added August 1, 2016.
15. Priority Mail Express Contract 40 (MC2016-169 and CP2016-247) (Order No. 3454), added August 1, 2016.
16. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 24 (MC2016-173 and CP2016-252) (Order No. 3464), added August 15, 2016.
17. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 25 (MC2016-174 and CP2016-253) (Order No. 3465), added August 15, 2016.
18. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 30 (MC2016-175 and CP2016-254) (Order No. 3466), added August 15, 2016.
19. Inbound Market Dominant Registered Service Agreement 1 (MC2016-168 and R2016-6) (Order No. 3471), added August 17, 2016.
20. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 26 (MC2016-177 and CP2016-256) (Order No. 3476), added August 23, 2016.
21. First-Class Package Service Contract 60 (MC2016-176 and CP2016-255) (Order No. 3477), added August 23, 2016.
22. Priority Mail Contract 233 (MC2016-179 and CP2016-258) (Order No. 3478), added August 23, 2016.
23. Priority Mail Express Contract 41 (MC2016-180 and CP2016-259) (Order No. 3479), added August 23, 2016.
24. Priority Mail Contract 234 (MC2016-181 and CP2016-260) (Order No. 3480), added August 23, 2016.
25. Priority Mail Contract 232 (MC2016-178 and CP2016-257) (Order No. 3481), added August 24, 2016.
26. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 31 (MC2016-182 and CP2016-262) (Order No. 3483), added August 25, 2016.
27. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 27 (MC2016-183 and CP2016-263) (Order No. 3485), added August 25, 2016.
28. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 28 (MC2016-184 and CP2016-264) (Order No. 3486), added August 25, 2016.
29. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 33 (MC2016-186 and CP2016-267) (Order No. 3503), added September 9, 2016.
30. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 32 (MC2016-185 and CP2016-266) (Order No. 3504), added September 9, 2016.
31. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 34 (MC2016-187 and CP2016-268) (Order No. 3508), added September 9, 2016.
32. Priority Mail Contract 236 (MC2016-191 and CP2016-274) (Order No. 3512), added September 14, 2016.
33. Priority Mail Contract 237 (MC2016-192 and CP2016-275) (Order No. 3513), added September 14, 2016.
34. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 30 (MC2016-189 and CP2016-272) (Order No. 3514), added September 14, 2016.
35. Priority Mail Contract 235 (MC2016-190 and CP2016-273) (Order No. 3515), added September 14, 2016.
36. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 29 (MC2016-188 and CP2016-271) (Order No. 3516), added September 14, 2016.
37. Priority Mail Contract 238 (MC2016-193 and CP2016-276) (Order No. 3522), added September 20, 2016.
38. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 31 (MC2016-194 and CP2016-277) (Order No. 3523), added September 20, 2016.
39. First-Class Package Service Contract 61 (MC2016-195 and CP2016-278) (Order No. 3524), added September 20, 2016.
40. First-Class Package Service Contract 63 (MC2016-198 and CP2016-282) (Order No. 3529), added September 23, 2016.
41. Priority Mail Contract 239 (MC2016-199 and CP2016-283) (Order No. 3533), added September 23, 2016.
42. First-Class Package Service Contract 62 (MC2016-197 and CP2016-281) (Order No. 3534), added September 23, 2016.
43. Global Expedited Package Services 7 Contracts (MC2016-196 and CP2016-280) (Order No. 3542), added September 27, 2016.
The following negotiated service agreements have expired and are being deleted from the Competitive Product List:
1. Priority Mail Contract 60 (MC2013-54 and CP2013-70) (Order No. 1773).
2. Priority Mail Contract 61 (MC2013-55 and CP2013-73) (Order No. 1790).
3. Priority Mail Contract 62 (MC2013-56 and CP2013-74) (Order No. 1784).
4. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 14 (MC2013-58 and CP2013-79) (Order No. 1831).
5. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 26 (MC2016-56 and CP2016-71) (Order No. 2990).
6. Parcel Select Contract 5 (MC2012-34 and CP2012-42) (Order No. 1416).
7. Parcel Select Contract 7 (MC2013-59 and CP2013-80) (Order No. 1832).
8. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 5 (MC2015-57 and CP2015-85) (Order No. 2560).
The following market test has expired and is being deleted from the Competitive Product List:
1. International Merchandise Return Service Non-Published Rates (MT2013-2) (Order No. 1806).
Administrative practice and procedure, Postal Service.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Postal Regulatory Commission amends chapter III of title 39 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
39 U.S.C. 503; 3622; 3631; 3642; 3682.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve a revision to the Butte County Air Quality Management District (BCAQMD) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). This revision concerns emissions of particulate matter (PM) from open burning. We are approving a local rule that regulates these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
This rule is effective on December 12, 2016 without further notice, unless the EPA receives adverse comments by November 10, 2016. If we receive such comments, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0367 at
Kevin Gong, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3073,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
This action addresses BCAQMD Rule 300, “Open Burning Requirements, Prohibitions and Exemptions” as amended by the district on August 27, 2015 and submitted to the EPA on March 11, 2016 by the California Air Resources Board.
On April 19, 2016, the EPA determined that the submittal for BCAQMD Rule 300 met the completeness criteria in 40 CFR part 51 Appendix V, which must be met before formal EPA review.
The EPA promulgated a limited approval of an earlier version of Rule 300 into the SIP on July 8, 2015 (80 FR 38966). The EPA also simultaneously promulgated a limited disapproval because two provisions in the rule provided discretion to the District Air Pollution Control Officer (APCO) to independently interpret the SIP without explicit and replicable procedures within the rule.
PM, including PM equal to or less than 2.5 microns in diameter (PM
BCAQMD Rule 300 controls PM emissions by establishing requirements on when and how to conduct various types of open burning activities, including but not limited to agricultural burning, non-agricultural burning (such as land use conversion), and residential burning. The EPA finalized a limited approval of a previous version of this rule because it is largely consistent with applicable CAA requirements. However, the EPA simultaneously promulgated a limited disapproval of the rule for two instances of APCO discretion that did not meet CAA requirements for enforceability. BCAQMD's 2015 rule revision corrects the two deficiencies identified in our previous action. The EPA's technical support document (TSD) has more information about this rule.
SIP rules must be enforceable (see CAA section 110(a)(2)), must not interfere with applicable requirements concerning attainment and reasonable further progress or other CAA requirements (see CAA section 110(l)), and must not modify certain SIP control requirements in nonattainment areas without ensuring equivalent or greater emissions reductions (see CAA section 193).
Generally, SIP rules must implement Reasonably Available Control Measures (RACM) in moderate PM nonattainment areas (see CAA sections 172(c)(1) and 189(a)(1)(C)). BCAQMD regulates the Chico nonattainment area, which was classified as “nonattainment” for the 2006 24-hour PM
Guidance and policy documents that we use to evaluate enforceability, revision/relaxation and rule stringency requirements for the applicable criteria pollutants include the following:
We believe this rule is consistent with the relevant policy and guidance regarding enforceability and SIP relaxations. The TSD has more information on our evaluation.
The TSD describes additional rule revisions that we recommend for the next time the local agency modifies the rule but are not currently the basis for rule disapproval.
As authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is fully approving the submitted rule because we believe it fulfills all relevant requirements.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the BCAQMD rule described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by December 12, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the Proposed Rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Part 52, Chapter I, Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(423) * * *
(i) * * *
(G) * * *
(
(474) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) Butte County Air Quality Management District
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to the District of Columbia state implementation plan (SIP). The revision pertains to the update of the District of Columbia Municipal Regulations (DCMR) to lower the sulfur content of fuel oil. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This rule is effective on December 12, 2016 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse written comment by November 10, 2016. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0199 at
Asrah Khadr, (215) 814-2071, or by email at
On January 20, 2016, the District of Columbia (the District) through the District of Columbia Department of Energy and Environment submitted a revision to the District's SIP. The SIP revision consists of revisions to the DCMR for sulfur content of fuel oil which is used for combustion. The revisions to the DCMR reduce the sulfur content of fuel oil that can be combusted within the District and prohibit the combustion of certain higher sulfur content fuel oils.
The combustion of fuel oil which contains sulfur leads to emissions of fine particulate matter (PM
The SIP revision consists of revisions to the DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20. These revisions to the DCMR reduce the allowable sulfur content of fuel oils that are used in oil-burning combustion units in the District. These revisions require that the sulfur content of number 2 (No. 2) fuel oil be no greater than 500 parts per million (ppm); the sulfur content of No. 4 fuel oil be no greater than 2,500 ppm; and prohibit the use of No. 5 and heavier fuel oils in the District. Additionally, beginning July 1, 2018, the sulfur content of No. 2 fuel can be no greater than 15 ppm. Any fuel oil stored by the ultimate consumer in the District prior to the applicable compliance date may be used after the applicable compliance date. The revisions also include changes to reporting and recordkeeping requirements related to the use and storage of the aforementioned fuel oils. Definitions for terminology which relate to reporting and recordkeeping requirements were added.
The updates to Chapter 1 include amendments to the definitions of American Standards of Testing Materials (ASTM) and distillate oil. The revision to Chapter 5 includes updates to the sampling and testing practices for fuel oils. The amended Chapter 5 regulations require the use of various ASTM methods for the sampling of petroleum; an ASTM standard for the determination of fuel oil grade; and various ASTM methods for the determination of sulfur content in fuel oil. Chapter 8 includes the revised sulfur content for No. 2 and No. 4 fuel oils and prohibits combustion of No. 5 and heavier fuel oils in the District. Chapter 8 also includes the aforementioned compliance provision and definitions related to reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
By reducing the sulfur in fuel oils, sulfur oxide emissions and PM
EPA is approving revisions to the DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20 as meeting the requirements of the CAA in section 110 with limits on sulfur content in fuels to be combusted within the District. EPA is approving the amendments to the District's regulations for fuel oil sulfur limits for combustion units. EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because EPA views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comment. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of today's
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully Federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update of the SIP compilation.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by December 12, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to the State Implementation Plan (SIP) for the State of Nebraska as submitted on March 6, 2014, and July 14, 2014. This action will amend the SIP to include revisions to title 129 of the Nebraska Air Quality Regulations, chapter 4, “Ambient Air Quality Standards”; chapter 19, “Prevention of Significant Deterioration of Air Quality”; and chapter 22, “Incinerators; Emission Standards”. This amendment makes the state regulation consistent with the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for particulate matter 10 micrometers or less (PM
This direct final rule will be effective December 12, 2016, without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by November 10, 2016. If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2016-0556, to
Greg Crable, Environmental Protection
Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to EPA. This section provides additional information by addressing the following:
EPA is approving revisions into the SIP to include amendments to title 129 of the Nebraska Air Quality Regulations as they apply to chapter 4, “Ambient Air Quality Standards”; chapter 19, “Prevention of Significant Deterioration of Air Quality”; and chapter 22, “Incinerators; Emission Standards”. Chapter 4 is amended making it consistent with the Federal standards found at 40 CFR part 50, in regards to the NAAQS for all six criteria air pollutants, as of July 14, 2014. The amendments submitted on March 6, 2014, make formatting and grammatical corrections to chapters 19 and 22. For additional information on the revisions to chapter 4, 19 and 22 see the detailed discussion table in the docket.
The state submittal has met the public notice requirements for SIP submissions in accordance with 40 CFR 51.102. The submittal also satisfied the completeness criteria of 40 CFR part 51, appendix V. In addition, the revision meets the substantive SIP requirements of the CAA, including section 110 and implementing regulations.
EPA is approving the state's request submitted on July 14, 2014, to revise the SIP to include revisions to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards for all six criteria pollutants consistent with the Federal standards, as of the date of the state's submittal. Per the state's March 6, 2014, submittal EPA is also approving minor formatting and grammatical corrections to chapters 19 and 22.
We are publishing this direct final rule without a prior proposed rule because we view this as a noncontroversial action and anticipate no adverse comment. EPA does not anticipate adverse comment because the revisions to the existing rules are routine and consistent with the Federal regulations, thereby, strengthening the SIP. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of this
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Nebraska Regulations described in the direct final amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the State implementation plan, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully Federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update to the SIP compilation.
Under the Clean Air Act (CAA), the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by December 12, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, EPA amends 40 CFR part 52 as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to Missouri's State Implementation Plan (SIP), Operating Permits Program, and 112(l) Plan. The April 6, 2016, request from Missouri revises fees for permitting services provided by the air quality program, including construction permit applications and operating permit applications. Missouri also removed the basic operating permit requirement in their “Operating Permits” rule for incinerators with emissions less than the de minimis levels. While EPA has never approved the basic operating permit program into Missouri's SIP or Missouri's Operating Permits Program, one statement on incinerators in the approved SIP and Operating Permits Program is removed by the submission. This statement applied the “Operating Permits” rule to all incinerators within the State. Any permittees with incinerators already required to have either Intermediate State Operating Permits or part 70 Operating Permits will still have the same permitting requirements. This revision does not exempt any incinerators from appropriate permitting. Likewise, any future permittees with incinerators under the former version of the SIP and Operating Permits Program would have required either an Intermediate State Operating Permit or a part 70 Operating Permit will still have the same
This direct final rule will be effective December 12, 2016, without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by November 10, 2016. If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2016-0571, to
Jed D. Wolkins, Environmental Protection Agency, Air Planning and Development Branch, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219 at 913-551-7588, or by email at
Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to EPA. This section provides additional information by addressing the following:
The submission from Missouri revises 10 CSR 10-6.060, Construction Permits Required, and 10 CSR 10-6.065, Operating Permits. Missouri's revisions increase fees for permitting services provided by the air quality program, including construction permit applications and operating permit applications. Missouri also removed the basic operating permit requirement, under 10 CSR 10-6.065, for incinerators with emissions less than the de minimis levels. While EPA has never approved the basic operating permit program into the Missouri's SIP or Missouri's Operating Permits Program, one statement on incinerators, 10 CSR 6.065(1)(B), in the approved SIP and Operating Permits Program is removed by the submission. This statement applied 10 CSR 10-6.065 to all incinerators within the State. Any Permittees with incinerators already required to have either Intermediate State Operating Permits or part 70 Operating Permits will still have the same permitting requirements. This revision does not exempt any incinerators from appropriate permitting. Likewise, any future permittees with incinerators under the former version of the SIP and Operating Permits Program would have required either an Intermediate State Operating Permits or a part 70 Operating Permits will still have the same permitting requirement under the revised SIP and Operating Permits Program. Finally the submission from Missouri makes non-substantive style changes.
The revisions increase the fees charged for construction and operating permits. After stakeholder outreach, Missouri has increased fees in order to ensure that the department can continue to provide services and to keep the Air program solvent. The De minimis, the Minor, and the Temporary/Pilot construction permit filing fees increased from one hundred dollars ($100) to two hundred fifty dollars ($250). The New Source Review (NSR), the Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD), the Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAP), and the Initial Plantwide applicability limit (PAL) construction permit filing fees increased from one hundred dollars ($100) to five thousand dollars ($5,000). The Renewal PAL construction permit filing fee increased from one hundred dollars ($100) to two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The Portable Source Relocation Request construction permit filing fee increased from two hundred dollars ($200) to three hundred dollars ($300). The processing fees for all types of construction permits, except the Portable Source Relocation Request, increased from fifty dollars per hour ($50/hr) to seventy-five dollars per hour ($75/hr). The initial and renewal Intermediate State Operating Permit and part 70 Operating Permit filing fees increased from a flat one hundred dollar ($100) fee to a variable fee based on number of units and additional complexity. The operating permit filing fees have a cap of six thousand dollars ($6,000).
Specifically, revisions in the SIP add new fee tables within the following rule sections:
• 10 CSR 10-6.060(10)—Permit Fees and Amendments;
• 10 CSR 10-6.065(5)—Intermediate State Operating Permits; and
• 10 CSR 10-6.065(6)—Part 70 Operating Permits.
Revisions in the SIP amend the following rules to reference the new fee tables as follows:
• 10 CSR 10-6.060(4)—Portable Equipment;
• 10 CSR 10-6.060(10)(A)—Permit Fees and Amendments; and
• 10 CSR 10-6.060(12)(A)—Appendix A, Permit Review Procedures.
Revision in the SIP remove the blanket applicability of operating permits to incinerators as follows:
• 10 CSR 10-6.065(1)(B)—Applicability, Incinerators.
Revisions in the SIP also make non-substantive style changes throughout.
Details of Missouri's SIP revisions can be found in the Technical Support Document located in this docket.
The initial and renewal Intermediate State Operating Permit and part 70 Operating Permit filing fees increased from a flat one hundred dollar ($100) fee to a variable fee based on number of units and additional complexity. The filing fee has a cap of six thousand dollars ($6,000).
Revisions in part 70 add new fee tables within the following rule sections:
• 10 CSR 10-6.065(5)—Intermediate State Operating Permits; and
• 10 CSR 10-6.065(6)—Part 70 Operating Permits.
Revision in the SIP remove the blanket applicability of operating permits to incinerators as follows:
• 10 CSR 10-6.065(1)(B)—Applicability, Incinerators.
Revisions in the SIP also make non-substantive style changes throughout.
Details of Missouri's part 70 revisions can be found in the Technical Support Document located in this docket.
Missouri's submission indicated that the revisions made to 10 CSR 10-6.065 “include any revisions necessary to retain 112(l) approval under the Clean Air Act.” The John S. Seitz Memo of April 13, 1993, titled “Title V Program Approval Criteria for Section 112 Activities,” provides guidance on revisions to state Title V programs and how they intersect with section 112 requirements. It states, “As for part 70 program revisions, no formal amendment to the initial title V program should typically be needed with respect to section 112 requirements taking effect after the effective date of the program. The State's up-front commitment and demonstrations (
The state submission has met the public notice requirements for SIP submissions in accordance with 40 CFR 51.102. The State of Missouri provided the rule changes for public notice on September 29, 2016. The State of Missouri held a public hearing on the rule changes on October 29, 2016. The submission also satisfied the completeness criteria of 40 CFR part 51, appendix V. In addition, as explained above and in more detail in the technical support document which is part of this docket, the revision meets the substantive SIP requirements of the CAA, including section 110 and implementing regulations.
We are publishing this direct final rule without a prior proposed rule because we view this as a noncontroversial action and anticipate no adverse comment. The Missouri conducted outreach with stakeholders prior to proposing the rule changes; and, conducted public notice on the rule changes. The Missouri received substantive comments on one topic, the fee for PAL renewal. Missouri revised the fee based on those comments. Based on the rulemaking history, we do not anticipate adverse comments. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of this
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Missouri Construction Permit Required Rule, 10 CSR 10-6.060, and Operating Permit Rule, 10 CSR 10-6.065. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the State implementation plan, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully Federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update to the SIP compilation.
Under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), this action is not a “significant regulatory action” and therefore is not subject to review under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011). This action is also not subject to Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001). This action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and imposes no additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. Accordingly, the Administrator certifies that this rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
This action also does not have Federalism implications because it does not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999). Thus Executive Order 13132 does not apply to this action. This action merely approves a state rule implementing a Federal standard, and does not alter the relationship or the distribution of power and responsibilities established in the CAA. This rulemaking also is not subject to Executive Order 13045, “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state rule implementing a Federal standard.
In reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. In this context, in the absence of a prior existing requirement for the State to use voluntary consensus standards (VCS), EPA has no authority to disapprove a state submission for failure to use VCS. It would thus be inconsistent with applicable law for EPA when it reviews a state submission,
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by December 12, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this rule for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of this
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Intergovernmental relations, Operating permits, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, EPA amends 40 CFR parts 52 and 70 as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
42 U.S.C. 7401
(gg) The Missouri Department of Natural Resources submitted revisions to Missouri rule 10 CSR 10-6.065, “Operating Permits” on April 6, 2016. We are approving this rule except for Section (4) which relates to the State Basic Operating Permits; Subparagraph (2)(A)2.A.; Subparagraph(2)(A)2.B.; and the words “except that” in Paragraph (2)(A)2. The state effective date is March 30, 2016. This revision is effective December 12, 2016.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Determination of acceptability.
This determination of acceptability expands the list of acceptable substitutes pursuant to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) Significant New Alternatives Policy (SNAP) program. This action lists as acceptable additional substitutes for use in the refrigeration and air conditioning sector and fire suppression and explosion protection sectors.
This determination is effective on October 11, 2016.
EPA established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118 (continuation of Air Docket A-91-42). All electronic documents in the docket are listed in the index at
Gerald Wozniak by telephone at (202) 343-9624, by email at
For more information on the Agency's process for administering the SNAP program or criteria for the evaluation of substitutes, refer to the initial SNAP rulemaking published in the
This action presents EPA's most recent decision to list as acceptable several substitutes in the refrigeration and air conditioning and fire suppression and explosion protection sectors. New substitutes are:
• R-448A in retail food refrigeration—refrigerated food processing and dispensing equipment;
• R-449A in retail food refrigeration—refrigerated food processing and dispensing equipment;
• R-449B in several refrigeration end-uses; and
•
For copies of the full list of acceptable substitutes for ozone depleting
The sections below discuss each substitute listing in detail. Appendix A contains tables summarizing today's listing decisions for these new substitutes. The statements in the “Further Information” column in the tables provide additional information, but are not legally binding under section 612 of the Clean Air Act (CAA). In addition, the “Further Information” column may not include a comprehensive list of other legal obligations you may need to meet when using the substitute. Although you are not required to follow recommendations in the “Further Information” column of the table to use a substitute consistent with section 612 of the CAA, some of these statements may refer to obligations that are enforceable or binding under federal or state programs other than the SNAP program. In many instances, the information simply refers to standard operating practices in existing industry standards and/or building codes. When using these substitutes, EPA strongly encourages you to apply the information in this column. Many of these recommendations, if adopted, would not require significant changes to existing operating practices.
You can find submissions to EPA for the substitutes listed in this document, as well as other materials supporting the decisions in this action, in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118 at
R-448A, marketed under the trade name Solstice® N-40, is a weighted blend of 26 percent HFC-32, which is also known as difluoromethane (CAS Reg. No. 75-10-5); 26 percent HFC-125, which is also known as 1,1,1,2,2-pentafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 354-33-6); 21 percent HFC-134a, which is also known as 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 811-97-2); 20 percent HFO-1234yf, which is also known as 2,3,3,3-tetrafluoroprop-1-ene (CAS Reg. No 754-12-1); and 7 percent HFO-1234ze(E), which is also known as
You may find the redacted submission in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118 at
EPA previously listed R-448A as an acceptable refrigerant in a number of other refrigeration and air conditioning end-uses (
The American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) has established Workplace Environmental Exposure Levels (WEELs) of 1,000 ppm as an 8-hr time-weighted average (TWA) for HFC-32, HFC-125, and HFC-134a; 500 ppm for HFO-1234yf; and 800 ppm for HFO-1234ze(E), the components of R-448A. The manufacturer of R-448A recommends an acceptable exposure limit (AEL) of 890 ppm on an 8-hour TWA for the blend. EPA anticipates that users will be able to meet the AIHA WEELs and manufacturer's AEL, and address potential health risks by following requirements and recommendations in the manufacturer's safety data sheet (SDS), in the American Society for Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) Standard 15, and other safety precautions common to the refrigeration and air conditioning industry.
R-448A's GWP of about 1,390 is comparable to or lower than that of HFC-134a with a GWP of 1,430 and a number of HFC blends in this end-use. R-448A's GWP of about 1,390 is higher than those of some other acceptable substitutes in this end-use, including ammonia vapor compression with a secondary loop, CO
Flammability and toxicity risks are comparable to or lower than flammability and toxicity risks of other available substitutes in the same end-use. Flammability risks are low, as discussed above. Toxicity risks can be minimized by use consistent with the AIHA WEELs, ASHRAE 15 and other industry standards, recommendations in the SDS, and other safety precautions common in the refrigeration and air conditioning industry.
EPA finds R-448A acceptable in the end-use listed above, because the overall environmental and human health risk posed by R-448A is lower than or comparable to the risks posed by other available substitutes in the same end-use.
R-449A, marketed under the trade name Opteon® XP 40, is a weighted blend of 24.3 percent HFC-32, which is also known as difluoromethane (CAS Reg. No. 75-10-5); 24.7 percent HFC-125, which is also known as 1,1,1,2,2-pentafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 354-33-6); 25.7 percent HFC-134a, which is also known as 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 811-97-2); and 25.3 percent HFO-1234yf, which is also known as 2,3,3,3-tetrafluoroprop-1-ene (CAS Reg. No. 754-12-1).
You may find the redacted submission in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118 at
EPA previously listed R-449A as an acceptable refrigerant in a number of other refrigeration and air conditioning end-uses (
The AIHA has established WEELs of 1,000 ppm as an 8-hr TWA for HFC-32, HFC-125, and HFC-134a; and 500 ppm for HFO-1234yf, the components of R-449A. The manufacturer of R-449A recommends an AEL of 830 ppm on an 8-hour TWA for the blend. EPA anticipates that users will be able to meet each of the AIHA WEELs and the manufacturer's AEL and address potential health risks by following requirements and recommendations in the SDS, in ASHRAE 15, and other safety precautions common to the refrigeration and air conditioning industry.
R-449A's GWP of about 1,400 is comparable to or lower than that of HFC-134a with a GWP of 1,430 and a number of HFC blends in this end-use. R-449A's GWP of about 1,400 is higher than those of some other acceptable substitutes in this end-use, including ammonia vapor compression with a secondary loop, CO
EPA finds R-449A acceptable in the end-use listed above, because the overall environmental and human health risk posed by R-449A is lower than or comparable to the risks posed by other available substitutes in the same end-use.
R-449B, marketed under the trade name Forane® 449B, is a weighted blend of 25.2 percent HFC-32, which is also known as difluoromethane (CAS Reg. No. 75-10-5); 24.3 percent HFC-125, which is also known as 1,1,1,2,2-pentafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 354-33-6); 27.3 percent HFC-134a, which is also known as 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 811-97-2); and 23.2 percent HFO-1234yf, which is also known as 2,3,3,3-tetrafluoroprop-1-ene (CAS Reg. No. 754-12-1).
You may find the redacted submission in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-
The AIHA has established WEELs of 1,000 ppm as an 8-hr TWA for HFC-32, HFC-125, and HFC-134a; and 500 ppm for HFO-1234yf, the components of R-449B. The manufacturer of R-449B recommends an AEL of 865 ppm on an 8-hour TWA for the blend. EPA anticipates that users will be able to meet each of the AIHA WEELs and the manufacturer's AEL and address potential health risks by following requirements and recommendations in the SDS, in ASHRAE 15, and other safety precautions common to the refrigeration and air conditioning industry.
For commercial ice machines, many substitutes listed as acceptable have comparable or higher GWPs than R-449B's GWP of about 1,410, such as HFC-134a, R-404A, R-448A, R-449A, and other HFC refrigerant blends, with GWPs ranging from 1,390 to approximately 3,990; other substitutes listed as acceptable substitutes for commercial ice machines have a lower GWP including ammonia absorption, ammonia vapor compression, Stirling cycle, propane,
In refrigerated transport, many substitutes listed as acceptable have comparable or higher GWPs than R-449B's GWP of about 1,410, such as HFC-134a, R-404A, R-448A, R-449A, and other HFC refrigerant blends, with GWPs ranging from 1,390 to approximately 3,990; other substitutes listed as acceptable substitutes for refrigerated transport have a lower GWP including R-450A, R-513A, CO
R-449B's GWP of about 1,410 is comparable to or lower than that of HFC-134a and a number of HFC and HFC/HFO blends in retail food refrigeration—refrigerated food processing and dispensing equipment. R-449B's GWP of about 1,410 is higher than those of some other acceptable substitutes in new retail food refrigeration—refrigerated food processing and dispensing equipment, including ammonia vapor compression with a secondary loop, CO
R-449B's GWP of about 1,410 is comparable to or lower than a number of other substitutes listed as acceptable in retail food refrigeration—supermarket systems and remote condensing units, including HFC-134a, R-407A, R-448A, R-449A, and other HFC refrigerant blends, with GWPs ranging from 1,390 to approximately 2,110. R-449B's GWP of about 1,410 is higher than the GWP of some other acceptable substitutes in retail food refrigeration-supermarket refrigeration systems and remote condensing units, including CO
R-449B's GWP of about 1,410 is comparable to the GWP of substitutes listed as acceptable for retail food refrigeration-low-temperature stand-alone equipment, including the HFO/HFC blends R-448A and R-449A with GWPs of 1,390 and 1,400, HFC-134a with a GWP of 1,430, as well as other HFC blends. R-449B's GWP of about 1,410 is higher than the GWP of some other listed substitutes in this end-use, including CO
Flammability and toxicity risks are comparable to or lower than flammability and toxicity risks of other available substitutes in the same end-use. Flammability risks are low, as discussed above. Toxicity risks can be minimized by use consistent with the AIHA WEELs, ASHRAE 15 and other industry standards, recommendations in the SDS, and other safety precautions common in the refrigeration and air conditioning industry.
EPA finds R-449B acceptable in the end-uses listed above, because the overall environmental and human health risk posed by R-449B is lower than or comparable to the risks posed by other available substitutes in the same end-uses.
You may find the redacted submission in Docket item EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118-0285 in Docket EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118 at
We have previously listed
To assess potential health risks from exposure to this substitute, EPA considered both occupational and end-user exposure. We evaluated potential risks from chronic occupational exposure, such as during manufacture, installation, and servicing. The AIHA has established a WEEL of 800 ppm for
During installation or servicing of Solstice® FS total flooding systems, if the proper instructions on system installation and servicing included in manuals for the Solstice® FS systems and relevant industry standards (
NFPA 2001 provides that in the case of accidental release in normally occupied spaces, required engineering controls as specified in NFPA 2001 should be employed to limit personnel exposure to clean agent discharges. Specifically, audible and visual pre-discharge alarms and a 30-60 second time delay should be employed within the protected space to indicate the operation of the system and pending discharge to ensure egress for all personnel prior to activation.
EPA's evaluation indicates that the use of Solstice® FS is not expected to pose a significant toxicity risk to personnel or the general population. In addition, the risks it may pose after exposure are common to many total flooding agents, including those already listed as acceptable under SNAP for this same end-use. EPA evaluated the risks associated with potential exposures to Solstice® FS during production operations as well as in the case of an inadvertent discharge of the system during maintenance activities on the fire extinguishing system. EPA's review of the human health impacts of Solstice® FS, including the summary of available toxicity studies, is in the docket for this action (EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0118).
Protective gloves and tightly sealed goggles should be worn for installation and servicing activities, to protect workers in any event of potential discharge of the proposed substitute, accidental or otherwise. Filling or servicing operations should be performed in well-ventilated areas.
• In the case that Solstice® FS is inhaled, person(s) should be immediately removed and exposed to fresh air; if breathing is difficult, person(s) should seek medical attention.
• Eye wash and quick drench facilities should be available. In case of ocular exposure, person(s) should immediately flush the eyes, including under the eyelids, with water for 15 minutes; should frostbite occur, affected areas should be rinsed with lukewarm water, and medical attention should be sought if irritation develops or persists.
• In the case of dermal exposure, the SDS recommends that person(s) should immediately wash the affected area with water and remove all contaminated clothing to avoid irritation; should frostbite occur, bathe (do not rub) the affected area with lukewarm, no hot, water. If water is not available, cover the affected area with a clean soft cloth; and medical attention should be sought if irritation develops or persists.
• Although unlikely, in case of ingestion of Solstice® FS, the person(s) should drink a cup of water, if fully conscious, and consult a physician immediately.
• Manufacturing space should be equipped with engineering controls, specifically an adequate exhaust ventilation system, to effectively mitigate potential occupational exposure.
• Employees responsible for chemical processing should wear the appropriate personnel protective equipment (PPE), such as protective gloves, tightly sealed goggles, protective work clothing, and suitable respiratory protection in case of accidental release or insufficient ventilation.
• All spills should be cleaned up immediately in accordance with good industrial hygiene practices.
• Training for safe handling procedures should be provided to all employees that would be likely to handle containers of the agent or extinguishing units filled with the agent.
• This agent should be used in accordance with the safety guidelines in the latest edition of the NFPA 2001 Standard for Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems.
• Safety features that are typical of total flooding systems such as pre-discharge alarms, time delays, and system abort switches should be provided, as directed by applicable OSHA regulations and NFPA standards.
The toxicity risks due to inhalation exposure are common to many total flooding agents, including those already listed as acceptable under SNAP for this same end-use, such as C6-perfluoroketone. Solstice® FS is nonflammable, as are all other available total flooding agents.
EPA finds Solstice® FS acceptable in the end-use listed above, because the overall environmental and human health risk posed by Solstice® FS is lower than or comparable to the risks posed by other available substitutes in the same end-use.
Section 612 of the CAA requires EPA to develop a program for evaluating alternatives to ozone-depleting substances. EPA refers to this program as the Significant New Alternatives Policy (SNAP) program. The major provisions of section 612 are:
Section 612(c) requires EPA to promulgate rules making it unlawful to replace any class I substance (CFC, halon, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform, methyl bromide, hydrobromofluorocarbon, and chlorobromomethane) or class II substance (HCFC) with any substitute that the Administrator determines may present adverse effects to human health or the environment where the Administrator has identified an alternative that (1) reduces the overall risk to human health and the environment, and (2) is currently or potentially available.
Section 612(c) requires EPA to publish a list of the substitutes unacceptable for specific uses and to publish a corresponding list of acceptable alternatives for specific uses. The list of “acceptable” substitutes is found at
Section 612(d) grants the right to any person to petition EPA to add a substance to, or delete a substance from, the lists published in accordance with section 612(c). The Agency has 90 days to grant or deny a petition. Where the Agency grants the petition, EPA must publish the revised lists within an additional six months.
Section 612(e) directs EPA to require any person who produces a chemical substitute for a class I substance to notify the Agency not less than 90 days before new or existing chemicals are introduced into interstate commerce for significant new uses as substitutes for a class I substance. The producer must also provide the Agency with the producer's unpublished health and safety studies on such substitutes.
Section 612(b)(1) states that the Administrator shall seek to maximize the use of federal research facilities and resources to assist users of class I and II substances in identifying and developing alternatives to the use of such substances in key commercial applications.
Section 612(b)(4) requires the Agency to set up a public clearinghouse of alternative chemicals, product substitutes, and alternative manufacturing processes that are available for products and manufacturing processes which use class I and II substances.
On March 18, 1994, EPA published the initial SNAP rule (59 FR 13044) which established the process for
Section 612 of the CAA requires EPA to list as acceptable those substitutes that do not present a significantly greater risk to human health and the environment as compared with other substitutes that are currently or potentially available.
Under the SNAP regulations, anyone who plans to market or produce a substitute to replace a class I substance or class II substance in one of the eight major industrial use sectors must provide the Agency with notice and the required health and safety information on the substitute at least 90 days before introducing it into interstate commerce for significant new use as an alternative (40 CFR 82.176(a)). While this requirement typically applies to chemical manufacturers as the entity likely to be planning to introduce the substitute into interstate commerce,
The Agency has identified four possible decision categories for substitute submissions: Acceptable; acceptable subject to use conditions; acceptable subject to narrowed use limits; and unacceptable (40 CFR 82.180(b)).
After reviewing a substitute, the Agency may make a determination that a substitute is acceptable only if certain conditions in the way that the substitute is used are met to minimize risks to human health and the environment. EPA describes such substitutes as “acceptable subject to use conditions.” Entities that use these substitutes without meeting the associated use conditions are in violation of EPA's SNAP regulations (40 CFR 82.174(c)).
For some substitutes, the Agency may permit a narrowed range of use within an end-use or sector. For example, the Agency may limit the use of a substitute to certain end-uses or specific applications within an industry sector. The Agency generally requires a user of a substitute subject to narrowed use limits to demonstrate that no other acceptable substitutes are available for their specific application.
The section 612 mandate for EPA to prohibit the use of a substitute that may present risk to human health or the environment where a lower risk alternative is available or potentially available
As described in this document and elsewhere, including the initial SNAP rule published in the
In contrast, EPA publishes “notices of acceptability” or “determinations of acceptability,” to notify the public of substitutes that are deemed acceptable with no restrictions. As described in the preamble to the rule initially implementing the SNAP program (59 FR 13044; March 18, 1994), EPA does not believe that rulemaking procedures are necessary to list alternatives that are acceptable without restrictions because such listings neither impose any sanction nor prevent anyone from using a substitute.
Many SNAP listings include “comments” or “further information” to provide additional information on substitutes. Since this additional information is not part of the regulatory decision, these statements are not binding for use of the substitute under the SNAP program. However, regulatory requirements so listed are binding under other regulatory programs (
For copies of the comprehensive SNAP lists of substitutes or additional information on SNAP, refer to EPA's Ozone Depletion Web site at:
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of S-2200 (here after referred to within this document as mandestrobin) in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Valent U.S.A., Corporation requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective October 11, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before December 12, 2016, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0285, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0285 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before December 12, 2016. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0285, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA lowered the requested tolerance levels for grape, raisin. Tolerances for juice and dried fruit are not required. At this time, EPA is not granting a tolerance for rapeseed crop group 20A. The reason for these changes is explained in Unit IV.C.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for mandestrobin including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with mandestrobin as follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
The main target organs for mandestrobin toxicity in all mammalian species tested are the liver and gall bladder with effects ranging from hepatocyte hypertrophy and increased liver weight (usually considered not adverse in the absence of corroborative hepatic enzyme changes or histopathology) to centrilobular degeneration, hepatocyte and bile duct pigmentation, periductular inflammation and gall stones. Dogs were more sensitive to the adverse liver effects than rats; mice showed only non-adverse liver effects.
Thyroid effects were observed in rats (increased weight, follicular cell hypertrophy, decreased serum hormone levels) at higher doses than early signs of liver effects suggesting that effects in the thyroid may be secondary to liver effects.
Gonadal effects were observed at higher doses than the liver effects, and were more evident in dogs (immature prostate and/or testes, low sperm count, immature ovaries, decrease uterus weight) but equivocal and/or not adverse in rats. Gonadal effects did not affect the reproductive capacity of rats.
No developmental effects were observed in rats or rabbits, and no adverse reproductive, immunotoxic, or neurotoxic effects were observed in any of the studies. No adverse effects were
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the toxic effects caused by mandestrobin as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for mandestrobin used for human risk assessment is shown in Table 1.
1.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the First Index Reservoir Screening Tool (FIRST) and Pesticide Root Zone Model Ground Water (PRZM GW), the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of mandestrobin for chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments are estimated to be 38 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 3.9 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 38 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
4.
EPA has not found mandestrobin to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and mandestrobin does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that mandestrobin does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicity database for the mandestrobin tolerances being established is complete.
ii. There is no indication that mandestrobin is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that mandestrobin results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to mandestrobin in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by mandestrobin.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 19,000 for adults and 2,900 for children 1-2 years old. Because EPA's level of concern for mandestrobin is a MOE of 100 or below, these MOEs are not of concern.
4.
5.
6.
Adequate enforcement methodology (RM-48C-2A, which uses high performance liquid chromatography with tandem mass spectrometry (HPLC/MS-MS)) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established a MRL for mandestrobin.
Based on an analysis of residue levels from crop field trials, EPA is establishing a tolerance for grape, raisin at 7 ppm, rather than the requested level of 10 ppm. The highest average field trial (HAFT) for grape and the processing factor for raisins supports a 7 ppm tolerance.
The petitioner requested tolerances for juice and dried fruit covered under crop subgroup 13-07F, small fruit. The available processing data for grape, the representative commodity for subgroup 13-07F, indicates that residues in juice will be covered by the tolerance being established for subgroup 13-07F. At this time, the Agency is not aware of any dried commodities derived from crops in subgroup 13-07F other than raisin, for which the Agency is establishing a separate tolerance, as indicated in the paragraph above.
After the petitioner submitted its petition for tolerances on subgroup 13-07G, it withdrew its request to include cranberry; therefore, the Agency is only establishing tolerances for subgroup 13-07G, except cranberry.
At this time, EPA is not establishing a tolerance for rapeseed subgroup 20A. The full three year freezer storage stability data (OPPTS guideline number 860.1380) for crop field trial data are needed to support tolerances. These data are required since samples from crop field trials are often stored for a number of years prior to analysis. Therefore, it is a requirement to ensure that the residues that are found multiple years later are actually representative of the residues that would be found on the day of harvest. This ensures that the Agency has set a tolerance high enough to cover residues expected in/on the commodity of interest. Accordingly, EPA has not made a determination with regard to this petitioned-for tolerance at this time.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of mandestrobin, 2-[(2,5-dimethylphenoxy)methyl]-α-methoxy-N-methylbenzeneacetamide, in or on berry, low growing, subgroup 13-07G, except cranberry at 3.0 ppm; fruit, small vine climbing, except fuzzy kiwifruit, subgroup 13-07F at 5.0 ppm; grape, raisin at 7.0 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerances in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule and notice of availability of final post-delisting monitoring plan.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are removing the plant
This rule is effective on November 10, 2016.
This final rule and the PDM plan are available on the Internet at
Virgil Lee Andrews, Jr., Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Kentucky Ecological Services Field Office, 330 West Broadway, Suite 265, Frankfort, KY 40601; telephone (502) 695-0468. Individuals who are hearing-impaired or speech-impaired may call the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339 for TTY assistance 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
This document contains: (1) A final rule to remove
The Service listed
When the recovery plan for
Currently, 117 extant occurrences of
Over the past 12 years, the Service has worked closely with the Kentucky State Nature Preserves Commission (KSNPC) and DBNF on the management and protection of the species. Management activities have included trail diversion (away from
Considering the number of stable, self-sustaining, protected occurrences, the management and protection of habitats provided by DBNF's LRMP and the new cooperative management agreement, and the lack of significant threats to the species or its habitats, we conclude that
We reviewed the best available scientific and commercial information pertaining to the five threat factors for white-haired goldenrod. All 4 peer reviewers and 7 of 10 public commenters supported the proposed action to delist white-haired goldenrod. Our results are summarized as follows:
• We consider
• The species has met all recovery criteria as outlined in the Recovery Plan (there is a sufficient number of distinct, stable, self-sustaining, and adequately protected occurrences).
Please refer to the proposed rule to remove
It is our intent to discuss in this final rule only those topics directly relevant to the removal of
The following section contains information updated from that presented in the proposed rule.
Braun (1942, pp. 1-4) described
Typical herbaceous associates of this plant include roundleaf catchfly (
When the Recovery Plan was completed in 1993, 90 extant occurrences were known (Service 1993, p. 2), containing an estimated 45,000 stems (Service 1993, p. 2). All of these locations were situated within the proclamation boundary of the DBNF, and 69 occurrences (approximately 76 percent) were located on Federal lands. The remaining occurrences (21) were located on private property. Rather than try to determine what constituted a population, the Recovery Plan (Service 1993, p. 1) used “occurrence,” defining it as a “discrete group of plants beneath a single rock shelter or on a single rock ledge.” In making this definition, the Service (1993, p. 6) explained that pollinators (bees and syrphid flies) likely carried pollen between rock shelters and may even move between adjacent ravines. If there were sufficient gene flow between occurrences via pollinators, clusters of nearby rock shelters or adjacent ravines could comprise a population. However, without additional research, it was impossible to determine the species' actual population boundaries.
Subsequently, the KSNPC completed surveys in 1996, 1999, 2002, 2004, and 2005 (White and Drozda 2006, pp. 124-128; KSNPC 2010, p. 4), and these surveys documented an increase in the number of
During their 2-year range wide survey, KSNPC (2010, p. 6) documented a total of 116 extant occurrences, producing ranks with the following categorical results: A-rank (11 occurrences), B (26), C (25), and D (54) (see table 1). The remaining 25 occurrences were considered to be historical, extirpated, or could not be relocated (failed to find). The goldenrod's range has been searched extensively by KSNPC and of the 116 extant occurrences, only 6 were located on private land, with the remainder located on the DBNF. There is limited private ownership in the area where this plant occurs and the species' habitat as described above has only been located in a few privately-owned occurrences and nowhere else that has been surveyed. For all extant occurrences, 79 (68 percent) were considered to be stable, including ranks of A (10 occurrences), B (21), C (18), and D (30). Stability was estimated through comparisons of historical and more recent survey data. Occurrences were considered “stable” if no change was detected in their general rank/status over the course of monitoring, stem numbers increased over the course of monitoring, and/or slight decreases in stem numbers could be attributed to natural climatic variation. Ranks were based on population size and perceived viability, habitat condition, and degree of threat. For all stable occurrences, KSNPC reported an average monitoring period of 10.2 years and an average of 3.6 monitoring events for each occurrence. Also, the level or degree of recreational impact is based on KSNPC's assessment of recreational use and threats from that use at each occurrence. For those sites where the degree of impact was higher, more stems were required to achieve a higher rank (
For the remaining extant occurrences, 31 were considered to be declining and 6 were of unknown status. For the declining occurrences, ranks included B (5 occurrences), C (4), and D (22). For the unknown occurrences, ranks included A (1 occurrence), C (3), and D (2). Occurrences were considered to be declining if a negative change was detected in the general rank/status over the course of monitoring and/or there was a greater than 30 percent decline in stem count. Unknown status meant surveys of that occurrence were not performed more than once or prior surveys could not be compared to more recent surveys due to discrepancies in survey methodology.
KSNPC and the Service completed additional surveys from June to October 2013 at 30 widely separated occurrences, resulting in the discovery of one new occurrence and revised status information for two unknown occurrences (USFWS 2014, entire). Combining these results with occurrence totals reported by KSNPC (2010, 24 pp.), there are now 81 stable occurrences with the following categorical results: A (11 occurrences), B (22), C (18), and D (30) (table 2). The average monitoring period increased from 10.2 to 11.1 years, with an average of 3.7 monitoring events for each occurrence. The total number of stems now stands at 174,357, compared to 45,000 when the Recovery Plan was completed.
In summary, considering recent survey efforts by KSNPC and the Service (KSNPC 2010, entire; USFWS 2014, entire), the following conditions exist for white-haired goldenrod:
(1) A total of 117 extant occurrences are known. Of these, 81 occurrences are considered to be stable with the following categorical results: A (11 occurrences), B (22), C (18), and D (30). As of 2015, the average monitoring period per occurrence was 11.1 years, with an average of 3.7 monitoring events for each occurrence.
(2) Fifty-one of the 81 stable occurrences (all A-, B-, and C-ranked occurrences) are considered to be self-sustaining as defined by the Recovery Plan. These occurrences are considered to be self-sustaining because there is evidence of successful reproduction and the number of stems is stable or increasing.
(3) Forty-six of the 51 stable, self-sustaining occurrences are adequately protected as defined by the recovery plan (species is legally protected, has received adequate physical protection, and is assured of all required management).
(4) The total number of stems now stands at approximately 174,000, and the 46 secure, self-sustaining occurrences contain approximately 131,000 stems, or about 75 percent of the species' total number.
Recovery plans may be revised to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new, substantive information becomes available. The recovery plan identifies site-specific management actions that will achieve recovery of the species, measurable criteria that set a trigger for review of the species' status, and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans are intended to establish goals for long-term conservation of listed species and define criteria that are designed to indicate when the substantial threats facing a species have been removed or reduced to such an extent that the species may no longer need the protections of the Act.
There are many paths to accomplishing recovery of a species, and recovery may be achieved without all criteria being fully met. For example, one or more criteria may be exceeded while other criteria may not yet be accomplished. In that instance, we may determine that the threats are minimized sufficiently and the species is robust enough to delist. In other cases, recovery opportunities may be discovered that were not known when the recovery plan was finalized. These opportunities may be used instead of methods identified in the recovery plan. Likewise, information on the species may be discovered that was not known at the time the recovery plan was finalized. The new information may change the extent to which criteria need to be met for recognizing recovery of the species. Recovery of a species is a dynamic process requiring adaptive management that may, or may not, fully follow the guidance provided in a recovery plan.
(1) Protect existing occurrences;
(2) Continue inventories;
(3) Conduct studies on life history and ecological requirements;
(4) Maintain plants and seeds
(5) Provide the public with information.
Three of five recovery actions (1, 2, and 5) have been accomplished. Completion of the remaining actions (3
The Service entered into a cooperative agreement with KSNPC in 1986, under section 6 of the Act, for the conservation of endangered and threatened plant species. This agreement has provided a mechanism for KSNPC to acquire Federal funds that have supported much of the recovery work described here. The Commonwealth of Kentucky and other partners have also provided matching funds under this agreement that have assisted in the species' recovery.
The Recovery Plan states that an occurrence will be “adequately protected” when it is legally protected, has received adequate physical protection, and is assured of all required management (USFWS 1993, 40 pp.). Based on these criteria, we consider a total of 46 A-, B-, or C-ranked occurrences on the DBNF to be adequately protected. We base our decision regarding their level of protection on the location of these occurrences (all are in DNBF ownership, and many are in remote locations not visited by the public); trends in occurrence data gathered by KSNPC, DBNF, and the Service; observations about threats reported by KSNPC (2010, pp. 5-18); conservation actions described in DBNF's Land and Resource Management Plan (LRMP); and information in our files concerning specific DBNF conservation actions, such as trail closure, placement of signs, and fencing. We have chosen to exclude five, stable, self-sustaining occurrences from the list of “protected” occurrences because they are in private ownership, and no conservation agreement or plan is in place to ensure their long-term protection.
The species' primary threat has been identified as ground disturbance and trampling associated with recreational activities (
Signs or fencing were placed and have been maintained at a total of 21 occurrences identified as being impacted in the past, and DBNF personnel continue to visit these sites annually, checking the condition of signs and fencing and making repairs as needed. To guard against future impacts, the DBNF and KSNPC have proposed the addition of new or expanded fencing at five occurrences. As stated below in this recovery section, this new and expanded fencing is included as a conservation action in the Service's signed cooperative management agreement with DBNF and KSNPC (USFWS August 2016).
Monitoring results show that implementation of the LRMP, including specific conservation actions described above (fencing and sign placement), have had a positive effect on the species (KSNPC 2010, 24 pp.). Specifically, it has been demonstrated that disturbance from trampling, camping, and rock climbing is low at remote occurrences, and impacts have been reduced at more visited sites. The number of stems has remained stable or increased at 20 of 21 occurrences (95 percent) where fencing or informational signs have been added. For all extant occurrences on the DBNF, 75 (68 percent) of 111 extant occurrences are considered stable to increasing, and we consider 46 occurrences to be self-sustaining (A-, B-, or C-ranked occurrences that are stable and reproducing). Based on all these factors, we consider this recovery action to be complete.
There were 90 extant occurrences of
This recovery action is incomplete (not all subactivities have been addressed completely) but significant progress has been made. Since publication of the Recovery Plan (Service 1993), studies of the species' life history and ecological requirements have included Esselman (1995, pp. 5-10), Esselman and Crawford (1997, pp. 246-251), White and Drozda (2006, p. 125), KSNPC (2010, p. 5), and Nieves and Day (2014, pp. 1-12). Esselman (1995, pp. 5-10) and Esselman and Crawford (1997, pp. 246-251) studied the ancestry of
During field surveys between 1996 and 2009, KSNPC collected occurrence information throughout the species' range, recording such information as stem count, patch size, percent vegetative versus sexual reproduction, recreational disturbance (ranked from low to high), other perceived threats, and general habitat condition (White and Drozda 2006, p. 125; KSNPC 2010, p. 5). In its 2-year range-wide study,
Nieves and Day (2014, pp. 1-12) conducted a preliminary assessment of the microclimatic and pedological (soil) conditions of 10 rock shelters inhabited by the species. They documented significant differences between the inside of rock shelters and the surrounding environment with respect to temperature and relative humidity (habitats inside rock shelters were wetter and more humid) but no significant differences with respect to soil characteristics (macronutrients and acidity/alkalinity (pH)). Most of the rock shelters they investigated were easterly or northerly facing, but their small sample size prevents any significant conclusions with respect to the importance of sunlight and solar radiation.
Under recovery action 3.0, two of seven subactivities remain to be completed—the use of quantitative, permanent plots (3.1) and determination of specific habitat requirements (3.3). Permanent plots have not been established, but the species' known occurrences have been visited and evaluated repeatedly (average of 3.6 times) since completion of the recovery plan. These visits have allowed us to evaluate the species' status and track the number of stems and flowers. The purpose of recovery subactivity 3.1 was to evaluate demography, and we believe the visits and work done in cooperation with KSNPC provided enough population data on this plant for us to propose delisting it without establishing permanent plots. The species' specific habitat requirements (
The majority of recovery subactivities (3.2, 3.4-3.7) have been addressed; information has been gained regarding the species' life history and ecological requirements; and the species' status has improved since publication of the recovery plan. We were able to obtain the intended information identified in recovery subactivity 3.3 (analyze habitat requirements) through implementation of other actions. Although the need to conduct subactivity 3.3 has been removed with positive progress in this plant's recovery program, we intend throughout post-delisting monitoring to continue to work closely with researchers as they learn more about this species and its habitat.
Seeds and plants of
The KSNPC and DBNF have prepared several species factsheets and signs that have been posted at gas stations, restaurants, kiosks, and trailheads throughout the Red River Gorge. These signs are intended to educate Red River Gorge visitors about the species and its threats. Signs about
The Recovery Plan states that
The criteria for delisting
Currently, there are 117 extant occurrences. As described above, an occurrence is defined as a “discrete group of plants beneath a single rock shelter or on a single rock ledge,” and each occurrence is considered “geographically distinct” as described in the recovery criteria. We currently consider 81 (69 percent) of the 117 extant
(1) The number of stems at these occurrences has been stable or increasing over an average monitoring period of 11.1 years;
(2) these natural occurrences contain a relatively high number of stems (range of 797-9,200);
(3) the estimated viability of these occurrences ranges from fair to excellent;
(4) the threat level at these occurrences is generally low (average recreational impact of 2.5 or less on a scale of 1 (low impact) to 5 (high)); and
(5) the observed reproduction (flowering stems) at these occurrences has been relatively high, averaging 75-90 percent of stems in nearly all cases (KSNPC 2010, p. 10).
We consider these occurrences to be adequately protected because of their location (all are located on DBNF land); trends in occurrence data gathered by KSNPC, DBNF, and the Service; observations about threats reported by KSNPC (2010, pp. 5-18); conservation actions described in DBNF's LRMP; and information in our files concerning specific DBNF conservation actions, such as trail closure, placement of signs, and fencing. We do not consider the stable, D-ranked occurrences (total of 30) to be self-sustaining, primarily due to their poor estimated viability and the low number of stems (fewer than 300) observed at these sites. However, due to the existence of 46 geographically distinct, self-sustaining occurrences, we conclude that we have met and exceeded the criterion of 40 geographically distinct, self-sustaining occurrences.
While we consider only 46 out of the 117 total extant occurrences to currently be secure (adequately protected) and self-sustaining (approximately 39 percent of the total occurrences), these occurrences contain the majority of the total number of stems of the species. The total number of stems now stands at approximately 174,000, and the 46 secure, self-sustaining occurrences contain approximately 131,000 stems, or about 75 percent of the species' total number. If we consider the five additional self-sustaining occurrences located on private property, the total number of stems increases to 140,500 stems, or about 81 percent of the species' total number. While the remaining 65 occurrences on DBNF are not currently considered self-sustaining, all of these occurrences will continue to receive protection and management under DBNF's LRMP and we expect, based on the past 10 years of monitoring, their status will likely remain stable or continue to improve.
With respect to protection, 111 of 117 extant occurrences (95 percent) occur on the DBNF and receive management and protection through DBNF's LRMP (USFS 2004, pp. 1.1-1.10). As specified in the LRMP,
Since the species was listed, we have worked closely with KSNPC and DBNF on the management and protection of
(1) Maintenance of current fencing;
(2) installation and maintenance of fencing at five new occurrences;
(3) evaluation of trail diversion, rerouting, or closure at 39 occurrences identified by KSNPC (2010, entire);
(4) placement of new informational signs at occurrences with high visitation;
(5) monitoring of extant occurrences;
(6) protection of extant occurrences through DBNF patrols; and
(7) continuation of education and outreach efforts. The cooperative management agreement will remain in place until August 2022.
In summary, most major recovery actions are complete, and significant
In the proposed rule published September 1, 2015 (80 FR 52717), we requested that all interested parties submit written comments on the proposal by November 2, 2015. We also contacted appropriate Federal and State agencies, scientific experts and organizations, and other interested parties and invited them to comment on the proposal. Legal notices inviting general public comment were published in the Lexington Herald-Leader and Louisville Courier Journal. We reopened the comment period on February 26, 2016 (81 FR 9798), in order to conduct peer review and provide interested parties an additional opportunity to comment on the proposed rule and draft post-delisting monitoring plan. We requested that all interested parties submit written comments by March 28, 2016.
During both comment periods for the proposed rule, we received a total of 14 comment letters or statements directly addressing the proposed action. These included 4 comment letters from peer reviewers and 10 comment letters from the general public that are posted on Federal docket no. FWS-R4-ES-2014-0054. All 4 peer reviewers and 7 of 10 public commenters supported the proposed action to delist white-haired goldenrod. Three public commenters objected to the proposed action.
Several public commenters simply expressed opposition to or support for the proposed delisting of
In accordance with our peer review policy, which was published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we solicited expert opinion on the proposed rule and the draft post-delisting monitoring plan from four knowledgeable, independent individuals with scientific expertise that includes familiarity with
Section 4(b)(5)(A)(ii) of the Act states that the Secretary must give actual notice of a proposed regulation under section 4(a) to the State agency in each State in which the species is believed to occur, and invite the comments of such agency. Section 4(i) of the Act directs that the Secretary will submit to the State agency a written justification for his or her failure to adopt regulations consistent with the agency's comments or petition. The Service submitted the proposed regulation to KNSPC, the State agency responsible for the conservation of listed plants in Kentucky. KSNPC's chief botanist provided peer review of the proposed rule.
We reviewed all comments received from the peer reviewers for substantive issues and new information regarding the delisting of white-haired goldenrod. Peer reviewer comments are addressed in the following summary.
We have considered all comments and information received during both comment periods for the proposed rule to delist white-haired goldenrod. In this final rule, we have made only minor changes based on comments received during the public comment period. We received supplementary information from DBNF on seed germination, seedling viability, and the potential threat posed by fungal infection. These details have been incorporated into this final rule.
Section 4 of the Act and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for listing species, reclassifying species, or removing species from listed status. We may determine that a species is an endangered or threatened species because of one or more of the five factors described in section 4(a)(1) of the Act:
(A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range;
(B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes;
(C) disease or predation;
(D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or
(E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.
We must consider these same five factors in delisting a species.
A recovered species is one that no longer meets the Act's definition of endangered or threatened. Determining whether the status of a species has improved to the point that it can be delisted or downlisted requires consideration of same five categories of threats identified above. This analysis is an evaluation of both the threats currently facing the species and the threats that are reasonably likely to affect the species in the foreseeable future following the delisting and the removal of the Act's protections.
The following analysis examines all five factors currently affecting or that are likely to affect
The final rule to list
Habitat disturbance and trampling associated with recreational activities (camping, hiking, and rock climbing) and archaeological looting in the past have posed a significant threat to the species. The Red River Gorge is a popular recreational area (Taylor pers. comm. 2013). Many trails and recreational areas within the Gorge are located near
According to the DBNF, impacts from archaeological looting are now infrequent, and these activities no longer pose a significant threat to
Occurrences located in areas with more frequent visitor use, typically areas near DBNF and user-defined trails, generally have suffered more severe habitat disturbance and trampling in the past. Site protection and habitat management efforts by DBNF, working cooperatively with KSNPC and the Service, have helped to reduce the magnitude of threats at these sites. These occurrences have benefited from their location on the DBNF and management and protective actions provided under DBNF's LRMP (USFS 2004, pp. 1.1-1.10), which prevents general land disturbance and prohibits or limits logging and other DBNF-defined activities near cliffline habitats. The LRMP also protects rock shelters from vandalism and forbids removal of threatened and endangered species from these areas (see details in
The DBNF monitors these sites and protects them as needed through law enforcement efforts, construction of fences, trail diversion, and placement of signs. To protect occurrences from trampling, fire-building, and digging, signs have been posted at all entry points to the Red River Gorge asking visitors not to remove or disturb historical resources and providing visitors with biological and status information on
Monitoring results show that implementation of DBNF's LRMP and the completion of additional conservation actions such as fencing and sign placement have had a positive effect on the species, the number of stems has increased, and the level of
Additional evidence that conservation actions have had a positive effect on the species is the relatively low recreational impacts observed by KSNPC (2010, pp. 13-14) at the majority of DBNF occurrences. Recreational impacts have been assessed by KSNPC since the mid-1990s (White and Drozda 2006, pp. 124-125; KSNPC 2010, pp. 13-14). Their qualitative ranking scheme estimates the percent disturbance of available habitat and uses a scale of 1 (little or no impact) to 5 (high impact, greater than 50 percent of available habitat disturbed) to produce a disturbance rank. Based on recent evaluations by KSNPC (KSNPC 2010, 40 pp.; White pers. comm. 2014), 70 occurrences (60 percent) are classified as low impact (rank of 1-2), 8 occurrences (7 percent) are classified as medium impact (rank of 3), and 39 occurrences (33 percent) are classified as high impact (rank of 4-5). Overall, 67 percent of DBNF's occurrences are considered to be exposed to low to medium recreational impacts. KSNPC (2010, p. 14) also noted that they did not observe many new recreational impacts during their surveys in 2008 and 2009. Most of the documented recreational impacts such as established trails, permanent structures within rock shelters (couches, chairs, fire pits), and camp sites had been in place since before
The six occurrences on privately owned lands currently do not benefit from any formal protection or management and, therefore, could face higher magnitude threats (
Both the final rule to list
The listing rule for
Populations of
Specific actions that DBNF has taken under the LRMP include measures to reduce impacts of recreational activities to
The species is listed as endangered by the State of Kentucky (KSNPC 2005), but this designation conveys no legal protection to occurrences located on private property. Consequently, occurrences on privately owned land could face higher magnitude threats (
Other natural or manmade factors were first identified as a threat to
Some surveys and status assessments of
We do not have data that specifically address the effects of climate change with regard to invasive species attributes such as distribution or range and the relation to white haired goldenrod. There are some data showing that more common aggressive invasive species like kudzu (
The hemlock woolly adelgid (
Potential impacts that may be associated with low genetic variability such as inbreeding depression, reduced fitness, or reduced adaptive capacity (ability to respond to and adapt to changing conditions) have been identified as a potential threat to other listed plant species, but we have no information suggesting that low genetic variability affects
Some
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) concluded that warming of the climate system is unequivocal (IPCC 2014, p. 3). Effects associated with changes in climate have been observed including changes in arctic temperatures and ice, widespread changes in precipitation amounts, ocean salinity, and wind patterns and aspects of extreme weather including droughts, heavy precipitation, heat waves, and the intensity of tropical cyclones (IPCC 2014, p. 4). Species that are dependent on specialized habitat types, limited in distribution, or at the extreme periphery of their range may be most susceptible to the impacts of climate change (Byers and Norris 2011, p. 17; Anacker and Leidholm 2012, p. 2). However, while continued change is certain, the magnitude and rate of change is unknown in many cases. The magnitude and rate of change could be affected by many factors (
There is evidence that some terrestrial plant populations have been able to adapt and respond to changing climatic conditions (Franks et al. 2013, entire). Both plastic (phenotypic change such as leaf size or phenology) and evolutionary (shift in allelic frequencies) responses to changes in climate have been detected. Both can occur rapidly and often simultaneously (Franks
To generate future climate projections across the range of white-haired goldenrod, one tool we used was the National Climate Change Viewer (NCCV), a climate-visualization Web site tool developed by the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) that allows the user to visualize climate projections at the State, county, and watershed level (Adler and Hostetler 2013, entire;
Using the NCCV and assuming the more extreme Representative Concentration Pathways (RCP) greenhouse gas emission scenario (RCP 8.5), in which greenhouse gas emissions continue to rise unchecked through the end of the century leading to an equivalent radiative forcing of 8.5 Watts m
To evaluate the vulnerability of
While the Index calculates anticipated increases or declines in populations of individual species, it also accommodates inherent uncertainties about how species respond within their ecological contexts. The CCVI generated a vulnerability rating of “extremely vulnerable” to “highly vulnerable” for white-haired goldenrod, suggesting that the species' abundance and/or range extent could change substantially or possibly disappear by 2050 (Young et al. 2015, p. 44). Factors influencing the species' high vulnerability were its poor movement/dispersal ability, its connection with uncommon geologic features, and its unique hydrological niche (humid, shaded rock shelters). Byers and Norris (2011, p. 16) completed a CCVI for plants in an
Although the CCVI model (Young et al. 2015, entire) suggested that
Additionally, Phillips (2010, entire) found that efforts to predict responses to climate change and to interpret both modern and paleoclimate indicators are influenced by several levels of potential amplifiers, which can either increase or exaggerate climate impacts, and/or filters, which reduce or mute impacts. He notes that climate forcings (factors that drive or “force” the climate system to change such as the energy output of the sun, volcanic eruptions, or changes in greenhouse gases) are partly mediated by ecological, hydrological, and other processes that may amplify or filter impacts on surface processes and landforms. For example, resistance or resilience of geomorphic systems may minimize the effects of changes. Thus, a given geomorphic response to climate could represent amplification and/or filtering (Phillips 2010, p. 571). Due to white-haired goldenrod's habitat specificity in rock shelters and cliff overhangs, the effects of climate change are likely muted or diminished due to this species' specific habitat conditions.
Based on observations of climatic conditions over a period of 25 years (KSNPC (2010, p. 13), there is some biological and historical evidence to suggest that
Although climate change is almost certain to affect terrestrial habitats in the Red River Gorge region of Kentucky (Adler and Hostetler 2013, entire), there is uncertainty about the specific effects of climate change on white-haired goldenrod. Currently, we have no evidence that climate change effects observed to date have had any adverse impact on
The primary factors that led to white-haired goldenrod's listing under the Act were its limited range and habitat threats associated with ground disturbance and trampling caused by unlawful archaeological activities and recreational activities such as camping, hiking, and rock climbing. Other factors included the inadequate protection of occurrences on the DBNF and potential minor vegetational changes in forests surrounding
Based on our assessment of factors potentially impacting the species and its habitat, the species' improved status (a
Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533), and its implementing regulations at 50 CFR part 424, set forth the procedures for adding species to and removing species from the Federal Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants. An assessment of the need for a species' protection under the Act is based on whether a species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so because of any of five factors as required by section 4(a)(1) of the Act. We conducted a review of the status of this species and assessed the five factors to evaluate whether
In considering what factors might constitute threats, we must look beyond the mere exposure of the species to the factor to determine whether the exposure causes actual impacts to the species. If there is exposure to a factor, but no response, or only a positive response, that factor is not a threat. If there is exposure and the species responds negatively, the factor may be a threat and we then attempt to determine how significant the threat is. If the threat is significant, it may drive, or contribute to, the risk of extinction of the species such that the species warrants listing as endangered or threatened as those terms are defined by the Act. This determination does not necessarily require empirical proof of a threat. The combination of exposure and some corroborating evidence of how the species is likely impacted could suffice. The mere identification of factors that could impact a species negatively is not sufficient to compel a finding that listing is appropriate; we require evidence that these factors are operative threats that act on the species to the point that the species meets the definition of an endangered species or threatened species under the Act.
During our analysis, we did not identify any factors that reach a magnitude that threaten the continued existence of the species. Significant impacts at the time of listing that could have resulted in the extirpation of all or parts of populations have been eliminated or reduced since listing, and we do not expect any of these conditions to substantially change post-delisting and into the foreseeable future. We conclude that the previously recognized impacts to
Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is in danger of extinction or likely to become so throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Having determined that
The procedure for analyzing whether any portion is an SPR is similar, regardless of the type of status determination we are making. The first step in our analysis of the status of a species is to determine its status throughout all of its range. If we determine that the species is in danger of extinction, or likely to become endangered in the foreseeable future throughout all of its range, we list the species as an endangered species or threatened species and no SPR analysis will be required. If the species is neither in danger of extinction nor likely to become so throughout all of its range, as we have found here, we next determine whether the species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so throughout a significant portion of its range. If it is, we will continue to list the species as an endangered species or threatened species, respectively; if it is not, we conclude that listing the species is no longer warranted.
When we conduct an SPR analysis, we first identify any portions of the species' range that warrant further consideration. The range of a species can theoretically be divided into portions in an infinite number of ways. However, there is no purpose in analyzing portions of the range that have no reasonable potential to be significant or in analyzing portions of the range in which there is no reasonable potential for the species to be endangered or threatened. To identify only those portions that warrant further consideration, we determine whether substantial information indicates that: (1) The portions may be “significant” and (2) the species may be in danger of extinction there or likely to become so within the foreseeable future. Depending on the biology of the species, its range, and the threats it faces, it might be more efficient for us to address the significance question first or the status question first. Thus, if we determine that a portion of the range is not “significant,” we do not need to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened there; if we determine that the species is not endangered or threatened in a portion of its range, we do not need to determine if that portion is “significant.” In practice, a key part of the determination that a species is in danger of extinction in a significant portion of its range is whether the threats are geographically concentrated in some way. If the threats to the species are affecting it uniformly throughout its range, no portion is likely to have a greater risk of extinction, and thus would not warrant further
If we identify any portions that may be both (1) significant and (2) endangered or threatened, we engage in a more detailed analysis to determine whether these standards are indeed met. The identification of an SPR does not create a presumption, prejudgment, or other determination as to whether the species in that identified SPR is endangered or threatened. We must go through a separate analysis to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened in an SPR. To determine whether a species is endangered or threatened throughout an SPR, we will use the same standards and methodology that we use to determine if a species is endangered or threatened throughout its range.
Depending on the biology of the species, its range, and the threats it faces, it may be more efficient to address the “significant” question first, or the status question first. Thus, if we determine that a portion of the range is not “significant,” we do not need to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened there; if we determine that the species is not endangered or threatened in a portion of its range, we do not need to determine if that portion is “significant.”
Applying the process described above, in considering delisting
We next examined whether any threats are geographically concentrated in some way that would indicate the species could be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so, in that area. Through our review of potential threats, we identified some areas where
We also evaluated whether the occurrences that are not considered self-sustaining could be considered a significant portion of the species' range. We have determined that 46 secure and self-sustaining occurrences presently are distributed throughout the species' range, which accounted for more than 75 percent of the total stems estimated to exist in 2013. Of the remaining 71 extant occurrences, the 6 occurrences on private lands are not considered secure (but all 6 have been shown to be stable, and 5 have been shown to be self-sustaining). These occurrences were discussed above.
The remaining 65 occurrences are on DBNF land, and thus protected, but currently are not considered self-sustaining. Some of these occurrences have a status of declining or their status is unknown, while others are considered not self-sustaining primarily due to poor estimated viability and low number of stems observed. These occurrences could be at greater risk of extinction due to vulnerability to demographic and environmental stochasticity because of their smaller population sizes. These 65 occurrences, along with the 6 occurrences on private lands, account for the remaining 25 percent of the total stems estimated to exist in 2013. The threats to these occurrences from recreational activities are being managed and are not different from the threats affecting the 46 secure, self-sustaining occurrences.
Because these 46 occurrences exhibit stable or increasing trends, contain a relatively high number of stems, have fair to excellent viability, and exhibit relatively high reproductive rates, we expect these occurrences to persist into the future. While most of the remaining occurrences also receive protections and are not at immediate risk of extirpation, their lower population sizes and poorer viability put them at a greater risk of extirpation. However, while these occurrences may have a greater potential to become extirpated due to demographic or environmental stochasticity, the loss of some or all of those occurrences would not cause the species in the remainder of its range to be in danger of extinction or likely to become so.
In conclusion, we have determined that none of the existing or potential threats, either alone or in combination with others, are likely to cause
Section 4(g)(1) of the Act requires us, in cooperation with the States, to implement a monitoring program for not less than 5 years for all species that have been delisted due to recovery. Post-delisting monitoring (PDM) refers to
In August 2016, the Service finalized a final PDM plan in cooperation with DBNF and KSNPC (Service 2016, entire). The Plan:
(1) Summarizes the species' status at the time of delisting;
(2) Defines thresholds or triggers for potential monitoring outcomes and conclusions;
(3) Lays out frequency and duration of monitoring;
(4) Articulates monitoring methods including sampling considerations;
(5) Outlines data compilation and reporting procedures and responsibilities; and
(6) Provides a post-delisting monitoring implementation schedule including timing and responsible parties.
We will post the final PDM plan and any future revisions if necessary on our national Web site (
This final rule revises 50 CFR 17.12 by removing
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175, and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. We have determined that no tribal lands or interests are affected by this rulemaking action.
A complete list of all references cited in this final rule is available at
The primary author of this rule is Dr. Michael A. Floyd in the Service's Kentucky Fish and Wildlife Service Office (see
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
Office of the General Counsel, DHS.
Notice of Retrospective Review Initiative and request for comments.
The Department of Homeland Security (Department or DHS) is seeking comments from the public on specific existing significant DHS regulations that the Department should consider as candidates for streamlining or repeal. These efforts will help us ensure that DHS satisfies its statutory obligations and achieves its regulatory objectives without imposing unwarranted costs.
DHS is seeking this input pursuant to the process identified in DHS's Final Plan for the Retrospective Review of Existing Regulations. According to the Final Plan, DHS will initiate its retrospective review process, on a three-year cycle, by seeking input from the public. Input that will be most helpful to DHS is input that identifies specific regulations and includes actionable data supporting the nomination of specific regulations for retrospective review.
Written comments are requested on or before November 10, 2016 Late-filed comments will be considered to the extent practicable.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number DHS-2016-0072, through the
Charlotte Skey, Senior Regulatory Economist, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Department of Homeland Security. Email:
Interested persons are invited to comment on this notice by submitting written data, views, or arguments using the method identified in the
On January 18, 2011, the President issued E.O. 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” to ensure that Federal regulations seek more affordable, less intrusive means to achieve policy goals and that agencies give careful consideration to the benefits and costs of those regulations. 76 FR 3821. The Executive Order required each Executive Branch agency to develop a preliminary plan to periodically review its existing regulations to determine whether any regulations should be modified, streamlined, expanded, or repealed so as to make the agency's regulatory program more effective or less burdensome in achieving its regulatory objectives.
DHS's approach to conducting retrospective review focuses on public openness and transparency and on the critical role of public input in conducting retrospective review. To that end, DHS published a notice and request for comments in the
On August 22, 2011, DHS issued its Final Plan for the Retrospective Review of Existing Regulations (Final Plan or DHS Final Plan). The DHS Final Plan is available online at
DHS continually evaluates its regulatory program for rules that are candidates for retrospective review; DHS does so through legally mandated retrospective review requirements (
DHS's mission is to ensure a homeland that is safe, secure, and resilient against terrorism and other hazards. The Department carries out its mission through the Office of the Secretary and its components, including the following operational components: U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Federal Emergency Management Agency, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, U.S. Secret Service, and Transportation Security Administration.
Leading a unified national effort, DHS has five core missions: (1) Prevent terrorism and enhance security; (2) secure and manage our borders; (3) enforce and administer our immigration laws; (4) safeguard and secure cyberspace; and (5) ensure resilience to disasters. To further these areas, DHS has responsibility for a broad range of regulations. For example, to secure and manage our borders, DHS regulates people and goods entering and exiting the United States. DHS, to combat terrorism, regulates aviation security, high-risk chemical facilities, and infrastructure protection. DHS also issues regulations to administer immigration and citizenship benefits as well as regulations covering maritime safety and environmental protection. Finally, DHS promulgates a wide range of regulations concerning disaster preparedness, response, and recovery.
A central tenet of the DHS Final Plan is the critical and essential role of public input in driving and focusing DHS retrospective review. Because the impacts and effects of a regulation tend to be widely dispersed in society, members of the public—especially the regulated entities of rulemakings—are likely to have useful information, data, and perspectives on the benefits and burdens of existing DHS regulations. Given this importance of public input, the primary factor for regulation selection in DHS retrospective review is public feedback.
This notice contains a list of questions, the answers to which will assist DHS in identifying those regulations that may be streamlined or repealed in order to reduce burden. DHS encourages public comment on these questions and seeks any other data commenters believe are relevant to DHS's retrospective review efforts. The DHS Final Plan provides instruction on the type of feedback that is most useful to the Department.
DHS will afford significantly greater weight to feedback that identifies
We highlight a few of those points here, noting that comments that will be most useful to DHS are those that are guided by the below principles. Commenters should consider these principles as they answer and respond to the questions in this notice.
• For this notice, DHS is focusing on reducing the burdens of its regulations and is not seeking comment on actions that might increase the net cost of the DHS regulatory program.
• Commenters should identify, with specificity, the regulation at issue, providing the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) cite where available.
• Commenters should provide, in as much detail as possible, an explanation why a regulation should be streamlined or repealed in order to reduce burdens, as well as specific suggestions of ways the Department can better achieve its regulatory objectives.
• Commenters should provide specific data that document the costs, burdens, and benefits of existing requirements. Commenters might also address how DHS can best obtain and consider accurate, objective information and data about the costs, burdens, and benefits of existing regulations and whether there are existing sources of data that DHS can use to evaluate the post-promulgation effects of its regulations over time.
• Particularly where comments relate to a rule's costs or benefits, comments will be most useful if there are data and experience under the rule available to ascertain the rule's actual impact. For that reason, we encourage the public to emphasize those rules that have been in effect for a sufficient amount of time to warrant a fair evaluation.
• Comments that rehash debates over recently issued rules will be less useful.
We provide the below nonexhaustive list of questions to assist members of the public in the formulation of comments, and we do not intend it to restrict the issues that commenters may address:
(1) Are there regulations that simply make no sense or have become unnecessary, ineffective, or ill-advised and, if so, what are they? Are there regulations that can simply be repealed without impairing the Department's regulatory programs and, if so, what are they?
(2) Are there regulations that have become outdated and, if so, how can DHS modernize them to accomplish our regulatory objectives at a lower cost?
(3) Are there regulations that are still necessary, but have not operated as well as expected such that a modified, stronger, or slightly different approach is justified?
(4) Does the Department currently collect information that it does not need or use effectively to achieve regulatory objectives?
(5) Are there regulations that are unnecessarily complicated or that DHS could streamline to achieve regulatory objectives in more efficient ways? If so, how can DHS make them less complicated and/or more streamlined?
(6) Are there regulations that have been overtaken by technological developments? Can DHS leverage new technologies to streamline or do away with existing regulatory requirements?
(7) Are there any Departmental regulations that are not tailored to impose the least burden on society, consistent with achieving statutory obligations and regulatory objectives?
(8) How can the Department best obtain and consider accurate, objective information and data about the costs, burdens, and benefits of existing regulations? Are there existing sources of data the Department can use to evaluate the post-promulgation effects of regulations over time?
(9) Are there regulations that are working well that minimize burden and that DHS can use as a model for other DHS regulatory programs?
(10) Are there any regulations that create difficulty because of duplication, overlap, or inconsistency of requirements?
The Department issues this notice solely for information and program planning purposes. Responses to this notice do not bind DHS to any further actions related to the response.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model C-212 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by multiple reports of damaged and cracked rudder torque tube shafts. This proposed AD would require repetitive general visual and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections of the inner rudder torque tube shaft for cracks, deformation, and damage; repetitive detailed inspections, and HFEC inspections if necessary, of the inner and outer rudder torque tube shaft for cracks, deformation, and damage; and corrective actions if necessary. This proposed AD also provides a modification which terminates the repetitive inspections. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct damaged and cracked rudder torque tube shafts, which could lead to structural failure of the affected rudder torque tube shaft and possible reduced control of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 25, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus Defense and Space, Services/Engineering Support, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone: +34 91 585 55 84; fax: +34 91 585 31 27; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Shahram Daneshmandi, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1112; fax: 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA 2016-0052, dated March 14, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model C-212 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Occurrences were reported of finding a damaged and cracked rudder torque tube shaft, Part Number (P/N) 212-46237-01. Subsequent investigation determined that this damage occurred after parking of the aeroplane during a heavy wind gust, without having set the flight control surfaces in locked position.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to structural failure of the affected rudder torque tube shaft, possibly resulting in reduced control of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, EADS-CASA issued Alert Operators Transmission (AOT) AOT-C212-27-0001 to provide inspection instructions, and Service Bulletin (SB) SB-212-27-0058 providing modification instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires repetitive inspections of the affected rudder torque tube shaft, and introduces an optional modification [replacement], which constitutes terminating action for those repetitive inspections.
This proposed AD would require repetitive general visual and HFEC inspections of the inner rudder torque tube shaft for cracks, deformation, and damage; repetitive detailed inspections, and HFEC inspections if necessary, of the inner and outer rudder torque tube shaft for cracks, deformation, and damage; a general visual inspection to verify rudder alignment if necessary; and corrective actions if necessary. Repetitive inspections are done depending on conditions (wind conditions, gust lock engagement, and rudder deviation) identified in Airbus Defense & Space Alert Operators Transmission AOT-C212-27-0001, dated July 15, 2015. Damage may include bulging, dents, peeled paint, or visible corrosion. Corrective actions include replacement of the rudder torque tube shaft with a new rudder torque tube shaft and repair. The optional terminating action includes replacement of the rudder torque tube shaft with an improved rudder torque tube shaft. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We reviewed the following EADS CASA service information.
• EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-212-27-0058, dated April 25, 2014. This service information describes procedures for replacement of the rudder torque tube shaft with an improved rudder torque tube shaft.
• Airbus Defense & Space Alert Operators Transmission AOT-C212-27-
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 49 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions and parts cost specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 25, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Defense and Space S.A (formerly known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Model C-212-CB, C-212-CC, C-212-CD, C-212-CE, C-212-CF, C-212-DF, and C-212-DE airplanes, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight controls.
This AD was prompted by multiple reports of damaged and cracked rudder torque tube shafts. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct damaged and cracked rudder torque tube shafts, which could lead to structural failure of the affected rudder torque tube shaft and possible reduced control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For airplanes equipped with a rudder torque tube shaft having part number (P/N) 212-46237-01: Do the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD.
(1) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD; do general visual, detailed, and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections of the inner and outer surfaces of the rudder torque tube shaft, as applicable, for cracks, deformation, and damage, in accordance with the instructions of Airbus Defense & Space Alert Operators Transmission AOT-C212-27-0001, dated July 15, 2015.
(2) Thereafter, before further flight after the conditions identified in paragraph 3.1.1.1 of Airbus Defense & Space Alert Operators Transmission AOT-C212-27-0001, dated July 15, 2015, do the applicable inspections identified for each condition.
If, during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any crack, deformation, or damage is found, before further flight do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with Airbus Defense & Space Alert Operators Transmission AOT-C212-27-0001, dated July 15, 2015. Where Airbus Defense & Space Alert Operators Transmission AOT-C212-27-0001, dated July 15, 2015, specifies to contact Airbus for corrective action: Before further flight, accomplish corrective actions in accordance with paragraph (k)(2) of this AD.
Modification of an airplane by replacing the rudder torque tube shaft P/N 212-46237-01 with an improved part, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of EADS-CASA Service Bulletin SB-212-27-0058, dated April 25, 2014, constitutes terminating action for the inspections required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD for the modified airplane.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Military All Operator Letter (AOL) AOL-212-037, Revision 01, dated April 11, 2014.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA 2016-0052, dated March 14, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Defense and Space, Services/Engineering Support, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone: +34 91 585 55 84; fax: +34 91 585 31 27; email:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) proposes to approve the state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the District of Columbia for the purpose of updating the District of Columbia Municipal Regulations (DCMR) to lower the sulfur content of fuel oil. In the Final Rules section of this
Comments must be received in writing by November 10, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0199 at
Asrah Khadr, (215) 814-2071, or by email at
For further information, please see the information provided in the direct final action, with the same title, that is located in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a revision to the Butte County Air Quality Management District (BCAQMD) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). This revision concerns particulate matter (PM) emissions from open burning. We are proposing to approve a local rule to regulate these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
Any comments on this proposal must arrive by November 10, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0367 at
Kevin Gong, EPA Region IX, (415) 972 3073,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA. This proposal addresses BCAQMD Rule 300, “Open Burning, Requirements, Prohibitions and Exemptions.” In the Rules and Regulations section of this issue of the
We do not plan to open a second comment period, so anyone interested in commenting should do so at this time. If we do not receive adverse comments, no further activity is planned. For further information, please see the direct final action.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) proposes to approve the State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Nebraska. This action will amend the SIP to include revisions to Title 129 of the Nebraska Air Quality Regulations, Chapter 4, “Ambient Air Quality Standards”; Chapter 19, “Prevention of Significant Deterioration of Air Quality”; and Chapter 22, “Incinerators; Emission Standards”. This amendment makes the state regulation consistent with the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for particulate matter 10 micrometers or less (PM
Comments must be received by November 10, 2016
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2016-0556, to
Greg Crable, Environmental Protection Agency, Air Planning and Development Branch, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219 at 913-551-7391, or by email at
This document proposes to take action on the State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Nebraska. We have published a direct final rule approving the State's SIP revision (s) in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the State Implementation Plan (SIP), the Operating Permit Program, and the 112(l) plan submitted on April 6, 2016, by the State of Missouri. In the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Written comments must be received by November 10, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2016-0571, to
Jed D. Wolkins, Environmental Protection Agency, Air Planning and Development Branch, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219 at 913-551-7588, or by email at
This document proposes to take action on the SIP and Operating Permit Program revisions submitted by the state of Missouri for 10 CSR 10-6.060, “Construction Permits Required”, and 10 CSR-6.065, “Operating Permits”. We have published a direct final rule approving the State's SIP and Operating Permit Program revisions in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Intergovernmental relations, Operating permits, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Proposed rule; extension of comment period.
DoD is proposing to amend the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement sections of the National Defense Authorization Acts for Fiscal Years 2013 and 2016 relating to commercial item acquisitions. The comment period on the proposed rule is extended 30 days.
The comment period for the proposed rule published on August 11, 2016 (81 FR 53101), is extended. Comments are due by November 10, 2016.
Submit comments identified by DFARS Case 2016-D006, using any of the following methods:
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Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Mr. Mark Gomersall, telephone 571-372-6099.
On August 11, 2016, DoD published a proposed rule in the
The comment period for the proposed rule is extended 30 days, from October 11, 2016, to November 10, 2016, to provide additional time for interested parties to comment on the proposed DFARS changes.
Government procurement.
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
PHMSA proposes to revise its regulations pertaining to the Hazardous Materials grants program to incorporate the Office of Management and Budget's Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, and to implement new requirements set forth by the Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act of 2015. PHMSA invites all interested persons to provide comments regarding these intended revisions.
Comments must be received by December 12, 2016. To the extent possible, PHMSA will consider late-filed comments as a final rule is developed.
You may submit comments by identification of the docket number PHMSA-2015-0272 (HM-209A) using the following methods:
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Lisa O'Donnell, Outreach, Training and Grants Division, Office Hazardous Materials Safety, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey
This proposed rule revises 49 CFR part 110 pertaining to the Hazardous Materials grants program to incorporate the Office of Management and Budget's Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (2 CFR 200), and to implement new requirements set forth by the Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act of 2015 (Pub.L. 114-94—December 4, 2015).
PHMSA's Hazardous Materials grants program is comprised of four grants: Hazardous Materials Emergency Preparedness (HMEP) grants; Supplemental Public Sector Training (SPST) grants; Hazardous Materials Instructor Training (HMIT) grants; and the new Hazardous Materials Community Safety (HMCS) grants. Except for the HMCS grants, the HMEP, SPST, and HMIT grants are funded by registration fees collected from hazardous materials (hazmat) shippers and carriers who offer for transportation or transport certain hazmat in intrastate, interstate, or foreign commerce in accordance with 49 CFR part 107, subpart G.
As a result of the implementation of 2 CFR part 200 and the FAST Act, the current regulations for the Hazardous Materials grants are outdated. The following describes each of the hazmat grants, new requirements for Federal awards, and the gaps in current regulations (49 CFR part 110).
The HMEP grant was established in 1990 by the Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act (HMTUSA), Public Law 101-615. In 1993, PHMSA's predecessor, the Research and Special Programs Administration, began issuing grants to assist States, Territories, and Indian tribes to carry out emergency preparedness and training activities to ensure communities could effectively respond to transportation incidents involving hazmat. The HMEP grant award amount prior to 2009 was $12.8 million; award amounts thereafter were increased to $21.8 million.
The Hazardous Materials Transportation Act Amendments of 1993, which among other changes, established the SPST grant to increase the number of hazardous materials training instructors available to conduct hazardous materials response training for individuals with a statutory responsibility to respond to hazardous materials accidents and incidents. From 2002 through 2008, the SPST grant authorization amount was $250,000. In fiscal year 2008, the SPST grant authorization amount was increased to $1 million annually.
The Hazardous Materials Transportation Safety and Security Reauthorization Act of 2005, which among other changes, established the HMIT grant for training instructors to train hazardous materials employees. Instructors trained under this program are able to offer training to hazardous materials employees at locations in close proximity to the employees' places of employment. Since its inception in 2008, the HMIT grant program has awarded approximately $4 million in grant funds annually to nonprofit organizations.
On December 4, 2015, President Obama signed into law the FAST Act, which among other changes, established the HMCS grant to nonprofit organizations for: (1) Conducting national outreach and training programs to assist communities in preparing for and responding to accidents and incidents involving the transportation of hazardous materials, including Class 3 flammable liquids by rail; and (2) training State and local personnel responsible for enforcing the safe transportation of hazardous materials, including Class 3 flammable liquids. Unlike the other three grants, which are funded through a shipper and carrier hazardous materials registration fee program, the HMCS grant funding source is up to $1 million in Congressional appropriations. PHMSA anticipates awarding two HMCS grants for the first time in fiscal year 2017.
On December 19, 2013, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) published guidance that streamlined the Federal government's guidance on Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal awards. This final guidance, located in 2 CFR part 200, supersedes and simplifies requirements from various OMB circulars and 49 CFR part 18. All Federal grants issued on or after December 26, 2014, were required to comply with these requirements.
The regulations in 49 CFR part 110 pertaining to Hazardous Materials grants have neither been updated to include reference to the HMIT, SPST, and HMCS grants to nonprofit entities, nor have they been updated to reflect the streamlined guidance for Federal awards found in 2 CFR part 200.
PHMSA proposes to revise the regulations pertaining to Hazardous Materials grants in 49 CFR part 110 to bring it into alignment with the currently applicable Federal law and regulation (
This NPRM affects the following entities, as listed in Table 1:
PHMSA seeks comments from interested stakeholders on this proposed rulemaking. PHMSA proposes the following substantive revisions:
• Revise § 110.1 to comport with 2 CFR part 200 provisions regarding payments to non-Federal entities. 2 CFR 200.305 states that non-Federal entities other than states “must be paid in advance, provided it maintains or demonstrates the willingness to maintain both written procedures that minimize the time elapsing between the transfer of funds and disbursement by the non-Federal entity, and financial management systems that meet the standards for fund control and accountability as established in this Part” (
• Allow for grantees to incur pre-award expenditures at their own risk in § 110.50, Disbursement of Federal funds.
PHMSA proposes the following additional revisions:
• Revise § 110.1 to refer to nonprofit organizations. Currently, HMIT, SPST, and HMCS grant programs, where nonprofit organizations are eligible applicants, are not referenced in the regulations.
• Revise § 110.5 to refer to nonprofit organizations and replace reference to 49 CFR with reference to 2 CFR part 200.
• Revise § 110.10 to amend the title to read “Administering Hazardous Materials Grants” and to add “Territories” and “nonprofit organizations.”
• Revise § 110.20 to change the preamble language to refer to 2 CFR part 200; revise the definitions for “Indian tribe” and “Associate Administrator”; add definitions for “Nonprofit organization,” “Public sector employee,” “Tribal Emergency Planning Committee,” and “Tribal Emergency Response Commission”; and delete the definition for “Indian country.”
• Amend § 110.30 to revise paragraph (a) and remove paragraphs (b) and (c) to update how applicants submit grant applications to PHMSA.
• Amend the heading of § 110.40 by adding the terminology “Hazardous Materials Emergency Preparedness Grant” and update the wording in paragraphs (a) and (b).
• Revise the requirements in §§ 110.10, 110.20, 110.30, 110.70, 110.80, 110.90, 110.100, and 110.110 by updating the sections to refer to 2 CFR part 200 and making other editorial changes.
• Revise the requirements in § 110.30 by removing reference to corresponding with PHMSA by mail.
• Revise the requirements in § 110.70 by removing reference to financial management systems and advances.
• Revise the requirements in § 110.90 by removing the examples of project manager requirements, which have a significant impact on the planning and training activities.
• Revise the requirements in § 110.120 to update how to report deviations.
• Revise the requirements in § 110.130 referring to disputes by updating the titles of the PHMSA Hazardous Materials grants staff and changing the dispute resolution officer from the Administrator to the Associate Administrator to expedite dispute resolutions should disputes occur.
This NPRM is published under the authority of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law, 49 U.S.C. 5101
This NPRM is considered a non-significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and the Regulatory Policies and Procedures of the Department of Transportation (44 FR 11034) as it does not materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; rather, it revises regulations to comply with current Federal statute and guidance and PHMSA policies and procedures.
Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) supplements and reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review that were established in Executive Order 12866 of September 30, 1993. Executive Order 13563, issued January 18, 2011, notes that our nation's current regulatory system must protect not only public health, welfare, safety, and our environment but also promote economic growth, innovation, competitiveness, and job creation. Further, this executive order urges government agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public. In addition, Federal agencies are asked to periodically review existing significant regulations; retrospectively analyze rules that may be outmoded, ineffective, insufficient, or excessively burdensome; and modify, streamline, expand, or repeal regulatory requirements in accordance with what has been learned.
Executive Order 13610 (“Identifying and Reducing Regulatory Burdens”), issued May 10, 2012, urges agencies to conduct retrospective analyses of existing rules to examine whether they remain justified and whether they should be modified or streamlined in light of changed circumstances, including the rise of new technologies.
Together, these three Executive Orders require agencies to regulate in the “most cost-effective manner,” to make a “reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs,” and to develop regulations that “impose the least burden on society.”
PHMSA has evaluated the Hazardous Materials Grants regulations and has determined that they are outmoded and, in part, excessively burdensome. The current regulations are out-of-date, as they refer to obsolete regulations, and have been superseded by 2 CFR part 200. We propose updating the 49 CFR part 110 to reflect current Federal statute and guidance and PHMSA policies and procedures. PHMSA welcomes public comments on potential costs and benefits of this regulatory action.
This proposed rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132 (“Federalism”) and the President's memorandum on “Preemption” published in the
The Federal hazardous materials transportation law, 49 U.S.C. 5101-5128, contains an express preemption provision (49 U.S.C. 5125 (b)) that preempts State, local, and Indian tribe requirements on the following subjects:
(1) The designation, description, and classification of hazardous materials;
(2) The packing, repacking, handling, labeling, marking, and placarding of hazardous materials;
(3) The preparation, execution, and use of shipping documents related to hazardous materials and requirements related to the number, contents, and placement of those documents;
(4) The written notification, recording, and reporting of the unintentional release in transportation of hazardous material; and
(5) The design, manufacture, fabrication, marking, maintenance, recondition, repair, or testing of a packaging or container represented, marked, certified, or sold as qualified for use in transporting hazardous material.
This proposed rule pertains to entities responsible for all the covered subject areas above. If adopted as final, this rule will preempt any State, local, or Indian tribe, requirements concerning these subjects unless the non-Federal requirements are “substantively the same” as the Federal requirements. Furthermore, this proposed rule is necessary to update, clarify, and provide relief from regulatory requirements.
The Federal hazardous materials transportation law provides at § 5125(b)(2) that, if DOT issues a regulation concerning any of the covered subjects, they must determine and publish in the
This NPRM has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13175 (“Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments”). Because this NPRM does not significantly or uniquely affect the communities of the Indian tribal governments and does not impose substantial direct compliance costs, the funding and consultation requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
PHMSA currently has an approved information collection under OMB Control Number 2137-0586, entitled “Hazardous Materials Public Sector Training & Planning Grants,” with an expiration date of June 29, 2019. This NPRM may result in a minimal increase in the time spent to apply, maintain, and close out a grant application cycle; however, this minimal increase is not sufficient enough to necessitate the
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, no person is required to respond to an information collection unless it has been approved by OMB and displays a valid OMB control number. 5 CFR 1320.8(d) requires that PHMSA provide interested members of the public and affected agencies an opportunity to comment on information and recordkeeping requests.
PHMSA requests comments on any information collection and recordkeeping burdens associated with the proposed changes under this proposed rule.
Requests for a copy of this information collection should be directed to Steven Andrews or T. Glenn Foster, Office of Hazardous Materials Standards (PHH-12), Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, Telephone (202) 366-8553.
Address written comments to the Dockets Unit as identified in the
A regulation identifier number (RIN) is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this action with the Unified Agenda.
This proposed rule does not impose unfunded mandates under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995. It does not result in costs of $155 million or more, adjusted for inflation, to either State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector in any one year, and is the least burdensome alternative that achieves the objective of the rule. As such, PHMSA has concluded that the NPRM does not require an Unfunded Mandates Act analysis.
The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321-4347), and implementing regulations by the Council on Environmental Quality (40 CFR part 1500) require Federal agencies to consider the consequences of Federal actions and prepare a detailed statement on actions that significantly affect the quality of the human environment.
This NPRM would revise the regulations pertaining to Hazardous Materials Grants to reflect current Federal statute and guidance and PHMSA policies and procedures. PHMSA believes the proposed revisions present little or no environmental impact on the quality of the human environment because rather than involving the transportation of hazardous materials, the changes update processes and procedures related to grants. Therefore, PHMSA has initially determined that the implementation of the proposed rule will not have any significant impact on the quality of the human environment.
In addition, PHMSA sought comment from the following modal partners:
• Federal Aviation Administration
• Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
• Federal Railroad Administration
• United States Coast Guard
PHMSA did not receive any adverse comments on the amendments proposed in this NPRM from these Federal Agencies.
PHMSA welcomes any views, data, or information related to environmental impacts that may result if the proposed requirements are adopted, as well as possible alternatives and the environmental impacts.
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement in the
Under Executive Order 13609 (“Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation”), agencies must consider whether the impacts associated with significant variations between domestic and international regulatory approaches are unnecessary or may impair the ability of American business to export and compete internationally. In meeting shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues, international regulatory cooperation can identify approaches that are at least as protective as those that are or will be adopted in the absence of such cooperation. International regulatory cooperation can also reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements.
Similarly, the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing any standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. For purposes of these requirements, Federal agencies may participate in the establishment of international standards, so long as the standards have a legitimate domestic objective, such as providing for safety, and do not operate to exclude imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards.
PHMSA participates in the establishment of international standards in order to protect the safety of the American public. We have assessed the effects of the proposed rule, and find that it will not cause unnecessary obstacles to foreign trade. Accordingly, this NPRM is consistent with Executive Order 13609 and PHMSA's obligations under the Trade Agreement Act, as amended.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs Federal agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless doing so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
Executive Order 13211 (“Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use”) requires Federal agencies to prepare a Statement of Energy Effects for any “significant energy action” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001). Under the Executive Order, a “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency (normally published in the
PHMSA has evaluated this action in accordance with Executive Order 13211. See the environmental assessment section for a more thorough discussion of environmental impacts and the supply, distribution, or use of energy. PHMSA has determined that this action will not have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Consequently, PHMSA has determined that this regulatory action is not a “significant energy action” within the meaning of Executive Order 13211.
Disaster assistance, Education, Grant programs—environmental protection, Grant programs—Indians, Hazardous materials transportation, Hazardous substances, Indians, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
In consideration of the foregoing, 49 CFR chapter I is proposed to be amended as follows:
49 U.S.C. 5101-5128; 49 CFR 1.97.
This part sets forth procedures for grants to States, Territories, Indian Tribes, and nonprofit organizations to support emergency planning and training to respond to hazardous materials emergencies, particularly those involving transportation. These grants may also be used to enhance the implementation of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986 (42 U.S.C. 11001).
(a) This part applies to:
(1) States and Indian tribes and contains the program requirements for public sector grants to support hazardous materials emergency planning and training efforts; and
(2) Nonprofit organizations for grants to support training programs for public sector hazardous materials emergency responders or hazardous materials employees.
(b) The requirements contained in 2 CFR part 200 “Uniform Administrative Requirements for Grants and Cooperative Agreements,” apply to grants issued under this Part.
(c) Copies of standard forms and OMB circulars referenced in this Part are available at
This part applies to States, Territories, Indian tribes and nonprofit organizations.
Unless defined in this part, all terms defined in 49 U.S.C. 5102 are used in their statutory meaning and all terms defined in 2 CFR part 200 with respect to administrative requirements for grants, are used as defined therein. Other terms used in this part are defined as follows:
(a)
(b) [Reserved]
(c) [Reserved]
Eligible applicants may receive funding for the following activities:
(a) To develop, improve, and implement emergency plans required under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, as well as exercises that test the emergency plan. To enhance emergency plans to include hazard analysis, as well as response procedures for emergencies involving transportation of hazardous materials.
(b) To determine flow patterns of hazardous materials within a State, between a State and another State or Tribal lands, and develop and maintain a system to keep such information current.
(c) To determine the need for regional hazardous materials emergency response teams.
(d) To assess local response capabilities.
(e) To conduct emergency response drills and exercises associated with emergency preparedness plans.
(f) To provide for technical staff to support the planning effort.
(g) To train public sector employees to respond to accidents and incidents involving the transportation of hazardous material.
(h) To determine the number of public sector employees employed or used by a political subdivision who need the proposed training and to select courses consistent with national consensus standards or the National Curriculum.
(i) To deliver comprehensive preparedness and response training to public sector employees, which may include design and delivery of preparedness and response training to meet specialized needs, and financial assistance for trainees and for the trainers, if appropriate, such as tuition, travel expenses to and from a training facility, and room and board while at the training facility.
(j) To deliver emergency response drills and exercises associated with training, a course of study, and tests and evaluation of emergency preparedness plans.
(k) To pay expenses associated with training by a person (including a department, agency, or instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof, a territory, or an Indian Tribe) and activities necessary to monitor such training including, but not limited to examinations, critiques, and instructor evaluations.
(l) To maintain staff to manage the training effort designed to result in increased benefits, proficiency, and rapid deployment of local and regional responders.
(m) For additional activities the Associate Administrator deems appropriate to implement the scope of work for the proposed plan or project and approved in the grant.
(a)
(2) A grantee may, at its own risk, incur pre-award costs to cover costs up to 90 days before the beginning date of the initial budget period of a new or renewal award if such costs are necessary to conduct the project, and would be allowable under the grant if awarded.
(3) The incurrence of pre-award costs in anticipation of a competing or non-competing award imposes no obligation on PHMSA for any of the following reasons:
(i) the absence of appropriations;
(ii) if an award is not subsequently made; or
(iii) if an award is made for a lesser amount than the grantee anticipated.
(b) Payment may not be made for a project plan unless approved in the grant award.
(1) Payments to recipients shall follow the Federal guidelines outlined at 2 CFR § 200.305.
(2) If a recipient agency seeks additional funds, the supplemental amendment request will be evaluated on the basis of needs, performance, and availability of funds. An existing grant is not a commitment of future Federal funding.
(a) Recipients must expend and account for grant funds in accordance with the standards for financial and program management of Federal grants outlined at 2 CFR 200.302.
(b) To be allowable, costs must be eligible, reasonable, necessary, and allocable to the approved project in accordance with 2 CFR part 200, subpart E, Cost Principles, and included in the grant award. Recipients are responsible for obtaining audits in accordance with
Recipients must use procurement procedures and practices that adhere to applicable State laws and regulations and Federal requirements as specified in the procurement standards of 2 CFR part 200, as well as the Department of Transportation exception outlined at 2 CFR 1201.317, as applicable.
(a)
(b)
(2) All required performance reports will be listed in the terms and conditions of the Notice of Grant Award.
(3) Financial reporting must be supplied using Standard Form 425 Federal Financial Report and submitted in accordance with the terms and conditions of the grant award.
(c)
If a recipient fails to comply with any term of an award (whether stated in a Federal statute or regulation, an assurance, a State plan or application, a notice of award, or elsewhere) a noncompliance action may be taken as specified in 2 CFR 200.338 through 200.342. The recipient will have the opportunity to object and provide information and documentation challenging the suspension or termination action, in accordance with 2 CFR 200.341. Costs incurred by the recipient agency during a suspension or after termination of an award are not allowable unless the Associate Administrator authorizes it in writing. Grant awards may also be terminated in whole or in part with the consent of the recipient at any agreed upon effective date, or by the recipient upon written notification.
The Associate Administrator will close out the award upon determination that all applicable administrative actions and all required work of the grant are complete in accordance with 2 CFR part 200. The project manager must submit all financial, performance, and other reports required as a condition of the grant, within 90 days after the expiration or termination of the grant. This time frame may be extended by the Associate Administrator for cause.
Recipient agencies may request a deviation from the non-statutory provisions of this part. The Associate Administrator will respond to such requests in writing. If appropriate, the decision will be included in the grant agreement. Request for deviations from this part 110 must be submitted to: the Grants Chief at
Disputes should be resolved at the lowest level possible, beginning with the Grants Specialist, the Grants Team Lead, and the Grants Chief. If an agreement cannot be reached, the Associate Administrator will serve as the dispute resolution official, whose decision will be final.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
90-day petition finding, request for information, and initiation of status review.
We, NMFS, announce a 90-day finding on a petition to list the Pacific bluefin tuna (
Scientific and commercial information pertinent to the petitioned action must be received by December 12, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by “Pacific Bluefin Tuna Petition (NOAA-NMFS-2016-0100),” by either of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal. Go to
•
Electronic copies of the petition and other materials are available on the NMFS West Coast Region Web site at
On June 20, 2016, we received a petition from the Center for Biological Diversity (CBD), on behalf of 13 other co-petitioners, to list the Pacific bluefin tuna as threatened or endangered under the ESA and to designate critical habitat concurrently with its listing. The petition includes general biological information about Pacific bluefin tuna including its taxonomy, range and distribution, the physical and biological characteristics of its habitat, population status and trends, and factors contributing to the species' decline. CBD contends that “Pacific bluefin tuna are severely overfished, and overfishing continues, making extinction a very real risk.” The petitioner presents information in the petition on the abundance of the species relative to unfished levels and the fishing rates from 2011-2013 which “were up to three times higher than commonly used reference point for overfishing.” The petitioner also presents information on the level of harvest of juvenile Pacific bluefin tuna and what it characterizes as a species in which “reproduction is currently supported by just a few adult age classes that will soon disappear due to old age.” Copies of the petition are available upon request (see
Section 4(b)(3)(A) of the ESA of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
Under the ESA, a listing determination may address a species, which is defined to also include subspecies and, for any vertebrate species, any DPS that interbreeds when mature (16 U.S.C. 1532(16)). A joint NMFS-U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) (jointly, “the Services”) policy clarifies the agencies' interpretation of the phrase “distinct population segment” for the purposes of listing, delisting, and reclassifying a species under the ESA (61 FR 4722; February 7, 1996). A species, subspecies, or DPS is “endangered” if it is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range, and “threatened” if it is likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range (ESA sections 3(6) and 3(20), respectively, 16 U.S.C. 1532(6) and (20)). Pursuant to the ESA and our implementing regulations, we determine whether species are threatened or endangered based on any one or a combination of the following five section 4(a)(1) factors: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; and (E) any other natural or manmade factors affecting the species' existence (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(1), 50 CFR 424.11(c)).
ESA-implementing regulations issued jointly by the Services (50 CFR 424.14(b)) define “substantial information” in the context of reviewing a petition to list, delist, or reclassify a species as the amount of information that would lead a reasonable person to believe that the measure proposed in the petition may be warranted. In evaluating whether substantial information is contained in a petition, the Secretary must consider whether the petition: (1) Clearly indicates the administrative measure recommended and gives the scientific and any common name of the species involved; (2) contains detailed narrative justification for the recommended measure, describing, based on available information, past and present numbers and distribution of the species involved and any threats faced by the species; (3) provides information regarding the status of the species over all or a significant portion of its range; and (4) is accompanied by the appropriate supporting documentation in the form of bibliographic references, reprints of pertinent publications, copies of reports or letters from authorities, and maps (50 CFR 424.14(b)(2)).
At the 90-day finding stage, we evaluate the petitioners' request based upon the information in the petition including its references and the information readily available in our files. We do not conduct additional research, and we do not solicit information from parties outside the agency to help us in evaluating the petition. We will accept the petitioners' sources and characterizations of the information presented if they appear to be based on accepted scientific principles, unless we have specific information in our files that indicates the petition's information is incorrect, unreliable, obsolete, or otherwise irrelevant to the requested action. Information that is susceptible to more than one interpretation or that is contradicted by other available information will not be dismissed at the 90-day finding stage, so long as it is reliable and a reasonable person would conclude it supports the petitioners' assertions. In other words, conclusive information indicating the species may meet the ESA's requirements for listing is not required to make a positive 90- day finding. We will not conclude that a lack of specific information alone necessitates a negative 90-day finding if a reasonable person would conclude
To make a 90-day finding on a petition to list a species, we evaluate whether the petition presents substantial scientific or commercial information indicating the subject species may be either threatened or endangered, as defined by the ESA. First, we evaluate whether the information presented in the petition, along with the information readily available in our files, indicates that the petitioned entity constitutes a “species” eligible for listing under the ESA. Next, we evaluate whether the information indicates that the species faces an extinction risk that is cause for concern; this may be indicated in information expressly discussing the species' status and trends, or in information describing impacts and threats to the species. We evaluate any information on specific demographic factors pertinent to evaluating extinction risk for the species (
Information presented on impacts or threats should be specific to the species and should reasonably suggest that one or more of these factors may be operative threats that act or have acted on the species to the point that it may warrant protection under the ESA. Broad statements about generalized threats to the species, or identification of factors that could negatively impact a species, do not constitute substantial information indicating that listing may be warranted. We look for information indicating that not only is the particular species exposed to a factor, but that the species may be responding in a negative fashion. We then assess the potential significance of that negative response.
Many petitions identify risk classifications made by nongovernmental organizations, such as the International Union on the Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the American Fisheries Society, or NatureServe, as evidence of extinction risk for a species. Risk classifications by such organizations or made under other Federal or state statutes may be informative, but such classification alone will not alone provide sufficient basis for a positive 90-day finding under the ESA. For example, as explained by NatureServe, their assessments of a species' conservation status do “not constitute a recommendation by NatureServe for listing under the U.S. Endangered Species Act” because NatureServe assessments “have different criteria, evidence requirements, purposes and taxonomic coverage than government lists of endangered and threatened species, and therefore these two types of lists should not be expected to coincide” (
Pacific bluefin tuna are a pelagic, highly migratory species occupying coastal and open ocean areas up to depths of 200 meters (m). They are primarily found in subtropical and temperate waters of the North Pacific Ocean, ranging from East Asia to the west coast of North America. In the western Pacific they are most abundant between Sakhalin Island and the Philippines, but have been reported as far south as Australia and New Zealand. In the central part of the Pacific Ocean, Pacific bluefin tuna have been caught in fisheries both north and south of the equator (Bayliff 1994). In the eastern Pacific, they have been documented from Alaska to South America, but they typically range from the southern tip of Baja California, Mexico, and Point Conception, California (Bayliff 1994).
Of the bony fishes, tuna are unique for their high metabolic rate and in their ability to maintain body temperatures several degrees higher than the surrounding water (Collette & Nauen 1983). The Atlantic and Pacific bluefin tuna were once considered to be subspecies of the Northern bluefin tuna, but are now considered separate species on the basis of genetic and morphological differences (Collette 1999). Pacific bluefin tuna are one of the cold-water group of tunas which have been able to extend their feeding ranges into the colder ocean waters of the temperate zone (Collette 1999).
Pacific bluefin tuna spawning occurs in two areas of the western Pacific. They spawn between the Philippines and the Ryukyu Islands in April, May, and June, and in Japanese coastal waters of the Sea of Japan in July and August (Schaefer 2001; Tanaka
Pacific bluefin tuna tend to migrate north along the Japanese and Korean coasts in the summer, and south in the winter (Inagake
Pacific bluefin tuna fisheries in the eastern Pacific are managed by the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC), and fisheries in the western and central Pacific are managed by the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC). Five countries harvest these fish but Japan catches the majority of Pacific bluefin tuna, followed by Mexico, the United States, Korea and Chinese Taipei (ISC 2014). Based on genetic information and spawning distribution, the Pacific bluefin tuna is managed as a single stock. Research surveys have caught larval, postlarval, and early juvenile Pacific bluefin tuna in the western Pacific Ocean, but not in the eastern Pacific Ocean, leading to the conclusion that there is a single stock of Pacific bluefin tuna in the North Pacific Ocean (IATTC 2014).
The petition contains information on the species, including the taxonomy,
In the following sections, we evaluate the information provided in the petition, as well as other pertinent information readily available in our files, to determine if the petition presents substantial scientific or commercial information indicating that an endangered or threatened listing may be warranted as a result of any of the ESA section 4(a)(1) factors. If it does, then we will make a positive finding on the petition and conduct a review of the species range-wide. Below, we summarize the information presented in the petition and in our files on the status of the species and the ESA section 4(a)(1) factors that may be affecting the species' risk of extinction, and determine whether a reasonable person would conclude that an endangered or threatened listing may be warranted as a result of any of these factors.
The International Scientific Committee (ISC), the scientific body that informs the Northern Committee to the WCPFC, uses fishery-specific catch-and-effort data from Japanese and Taiwanese fisheries to derive estimates of abundance for Pacific bluefin tuna. The ISC models generate annual estimates of total biomass, spawning stock biomass, and recruitment for each year beginning with 1952. Although there have been fisheries for Pacific bluefin tuna since at least the beginning of the 20th century in the eastern Pacific Ocean, and for several centuries in the western Pacific Ocean, the data prior to 1952, especially from the western Pacific Ocean, are of relatively poor quality (ISC 2016). For this reason, abundance estimates for Pacific bluefin tuna begin with the 1952 fishing season.
The ISC uses an age-structured model, based on catch, size-composition, and catch-per-unit of effort data, to derive estimates of biomass. Catch of Pacific bluefin tuna is recorded as metric tons of fish and biomass is likewise expressed in metric tons. The ISC model indicates that although the total biomass fluctuated throughout the assessment period (1952 through 2014), it began to steadily decline in 1996, leveling off in 2010 (ISC 2016). During the stock assessment period, the total biomass reached a peak of 209,075 metric tons in 1960 and a low of 29,347 in 1983. The estimated total biomass of Pacific bluefin tuna for 2014 is 35,817 metric tons.
The petition and the information in our files indicate that the abundance of Pacific bluefin tuna which are old enough to spawn (spawning stock biomass) has diminished to just 2.6 percent of its unfished biomass and less than one-third of what it was 20 years ago (ISC 2016). The unfished spawning stock biomass can roughly be defined as the theoretical spawning stock biomass without fishing and assuming no environmental or density-dependent effects. The ISC estimated the spawning stock biomass for the year 2014 was 16,557 metric tons and the unfished biomass to be approximately 636,807.
The ISC also estimates the productivity to be relatively stable throughout the modeling period. Recruitment estimates for the most recent years can be highly uncertain due to limited information on the cohorts. However, the ISC (2016) estimated that recruitment in 2014 was relatively low and the average for the last 5 years appears to be below the long-term average. The petitioners assert that 97.6 percent of all Pacific bluefin tuna caught are between 0 and 2 years of age and that the population is supported by just a few adult age classes. The petitioners further assert that along with the dwindling number of adults, in 2014, the Pacific bluefin tuna population produced the second lowest number of juvenile fish since 1952.
The petitioners contend that Pacific bluefin tuna are at risk of extinction throughout their range due to water pollution, marine debris, oil and gas development, wind energy development, and prey depletion. The petitioners assert that Pacific bluefin tuna habitat is threatened by pollution in the form of mercury, persistent organic pollutants, plastics, radiation nuclides from Fukushima, oil spills, oil and gas development related waste products, and waste from aquaculture projects. The petitioners note that a recent study by Lowenstein
Petitioners also raised concerns about persistent organic pollutants. Persistent organic pollutants are absorbed by organisms at the base of the food chain and accumulated in the fatty tissues of consumers, becoming more concentrated as they work their way up the food chain. This process is known as biomagnification and can pose risks to predators, like bluefin tuna, which are at the top of the food chain. The petitioners cite various examples of studies that have documented biomagnification in similar species and the risks to the health of the organism. As an example, studies of Atlantic bluefin tuna in the Mediterranean found unusually high levels of female proteins in males of the species (Storelli
The petitioners also raise concerns about pollution from aquaculture projects, calling attention to a proposed project off the coast of San Diego, California. Waste from aquaculture operations can include excess fish feed, dead fish, fish feces, and chemicals used to control disease and parasites (
The petitioners assert that Pacific bluefin tuna may be susceptible to entanglement by marine debris and ingestion of plastic particles. Most of the reports of fish entangled in marine debris are from lost fishing gear (NOAA 2014). The petitioners note that because of the properties of plastic, small plastic pellets tend to accumulate persistent organic pollutants and contribute to the
Oil and gas development can affect water quality through acute and chronic spills and discharge of produced water and drilling muds. The petitioners assert that the direct impacts of oil spills include behavioral alteration, suppressed growth, induced or inhibited enzyme systems and other molecular effects, physiological responses, reduced immunity to disease and parasites, histopathological lesions and other cellular effects, tainted flesh, and mortality (Holdway 2002). The petitioners further assert that oil spills can exert indirect effects on wildlife through reduction of key prey species, impacting wildlife species and ecosystems for decades (Peterson
The petitioners briefly describe the potential harm from wind-energy development, citing interference with migration, feeding, and collisions or entanglements during construction and operation as the primary issues.
The final issue raised by the petitioners related to Pacific bluefin tuna habitat is prey depletion. The petitioners assert that commercial fisheries for forage fish and squid have diminished the quality of Pacific bluefin tuna habitat in the California Current Large Marine Ecosystem. The petitioners further note that the fishery for market squid has increased five-fold in the last three decades (Vojkovich 1998; CDFW 2014) and the fishery for sardines was recently closed because of a 91 percent decline in abundance since 2007 (Hill
The petitioners assert that the primary threat to the Pacific bluefin tuna is from overutilization by commercial and recreational fisheries. A common practice in fisheries management is to define biological reference points for abundance of adult fish and limit harvest levels to maintain the stock at or above the biological reference points. The fisheries commissions have not established biological reference points for Pacific bluefin tuna. However, the ISC compared the 2011-2013 estimated fisheries mortalities to standard reference points (targets for fishing effort and abundance of the population) and found that if those points were used to manage Pacific bluefin tuna, overfishing would be occurring or just at the threshold and the stock would be considered overfished (ISC 2016). The management implications of the most recent stock assessment are that the stock is at very low levels and the fishing mortality is higher than any reasonable reference point (Maunder 2016).
The petitioners assert that the vast majority of the Pacific bluefin tuna catch are juvenile fish and the population is supported by a dwindling number of adult tuna. According to the petitioners, nearly 98 percent of all Pacific bluefin tuna caught are between 0 and 2 years of age and the population is supported by just a few adult age classes. Furthermore, the majority of Pacific bluefin tuna landed in the Western Pacific are juveniles caught in or around their nursery grounds. In the Eastern Pacific, 90 percent of the catch is estimated to be 1 to 3 years of age (IATTC 2014).
The petitioners also assert that industrial fishing fleets are targeting adult Pacific bluefin on their spawning grounds, and that this is widely recognized as an unsustainable practice. In support of this assertion, the petitioners provide information about fisheries management for Atlantic bluefin tuna. The International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas established regulations in 1982 which prohibit directed fishing on bluefin tuna in their Gulf of Mexico spawning grounds.
The petitioners assert that along with the dwindling number of adults, in 2014, the Pacific bluefin tuna population produced the second lowest number of juvenile fish since 1952. The ISC (2016) estimated that recruitment in 2014 was relatively low and the average for the last 5 years appears to be below the long-term average. Two out of the last three recruitments are the lowest levels observed since 1980 (Maunder 2016).
The petitioners assert that the existing international, regional, and national regulations do not adequately protect the Pacific bluefin tuna. The regional fisheries management organizations, the IATTC and the WCPFC have adopted management measures for Pacific bluefin tuna, but these measures may not be adequate to end overfishing. The petitioner's primary concern with the existing regulatory mechanisms is the absence of science-based biological reference points and a mandatory limit on the aggregate international catch of Pacific bluefin tuna. As noted above, the petitioners contend that Pacific bluefin tuna are at or below what should be considered a threshold for overfished.
The IATTC staff recommended that commercial catches in 2014 be limited to an amount below 3,154 metric tons, which was the estimated commercial catch in the Eastern Pacific in 2013, and that the noncommercial catches in 2014 be limited below 221 metric tons, which is based on the same method that was applied to commercial catch to determine that recommended limit (IATTC 2014a). The petitioners note that instead of using common scientific reference points, the IATTC staff recommended catch limits based on the previous year's total catch. The petitioners also note that despite recommendations from staff, the IATTC decided to set total commercial catches for 2015 and 2016 at 6,600 metric tons, for an effective annual catch of 3,300 metric tons in each year.
In 2014, WCPFC adopted a rebuilding plan designed to rebuild the stock to the historical median of 42,592 metric tons within 10 years (WCPFC 2014a). Estimated catches of Pacific bluefin tuna were high from 1929 to 1940 with a peak catch of approximately 47,635 metric tons in 1935 (ISC 2014). However, the WCPFC uses the year 1952 as the first year in its calculations for the historical median. The petitioners argue that the chosen historical median equates to just 6.4 percent of the historical unfished level, well below the commonly recommended rebuilding target of 20-40 percent of unfished levels for species such as bluefin tuna (Restrepo
The petitioners assert that U.S. regulations for domestic Pacific bluefin tuna fisheries are not adequate to prevent extinction. They argue that the United States has not taken adequate
Since 2010, U.S. recreational catch has been significantly higher than U.S. commercial catch in all but one year, and accounts for the majority of the U.S. landings. In recent years, NMFS reduced the bag limit for recreational fisheries from 10 to 2 fish per day. The petitioners argue that the bag limit does not provide an absolute limit on recreational catch because (1) the fishery is open access, meaning there is no limit on the number of fishermen who can participate in the fishery, and (2) there is no limit on the number of trips each fisherman can take. Therefore, they feel the bag limits do not provide a reliable mechanism for limiting recreational catch and preventing overfishing.
The petition contends that climate change and its associated ocean impacts threaten the continued existence of Pacific bluefin tuna. Climate change is increasing ocean temperatures and surface ocean acidity, and decreasing dissolved oxygen levels. Water temperature is believed to be one of the factors which influence spawning success of Pacific bluefin tuna. The petitioners assert that climate change and its associated influence on the distribution of ocean temperatures may disrupt both migration and spawning success for Pacific bluefin tuna. The success of Pacific bluefin tuna spawning and hatching, as well as larval survival, are believed to be closely linked to water temperature. The petitioners note that Kimura
The petitioners assert that although research on ocean acidification's direct effects on tuna is in its infancy, preliminary experiments hatching yellowfin tuna eggs in ocean water of varying pH, including current and predicted near future ocean pH (6.9, 7.3, 7.7, and 8.1), showed that decreasing pH (
The petitioners assert that climate change will decrease dissolved oxygen levels in the ocean and influence the range of suitable habitat for Pacific bluefin tuna. The petitioners also assert that scientists have already documented reduced oxygen levels in Pacific bluefin tuna habitat—in waters off Japan, and the California Current (Bograd
After reviewing the information contained in the petition, as well as information readily available in our files, and based on the above analysis, we conclude the petition presents substantial scientific information indicating the petitioned action of listing the Pacific bluefin tuna as threatened or endangered may be warranted. Therefore, in accordance with section 4(b)(3)(B) of the ESA and NMFS' implementing regulations (50 CFR 424.14(b)(2)), we will commence a status review of the species. During our status review, we will first determine whether the species is in danger of extinction (endangered) or likely to become so (threatened) throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Within 12 months of the receipt of the petition (June 20, 2017), we will make a finding as to whether listing the species as endangered or threatened is warranted as required by section 4(b)(3)(B) of the ESA.
As a result of this 90-day finding, we commence a status review of the Pacific bluefin tuna to determine whether listing the species is warranted. To ensure that our review of Pacific bluefin tuna is informed by the best available scientific and commercial information, we are opening a 60-day public comment period to solicit information to support our status review and 12-month finding.
Specifically, we request information regarding: (1) Species abundance; (2) species productivity; (3) species distribution or population spatial structure; (4) patterns of phenotypic, genotypic, and life history diversity; (5) habitat conditions and associated limiting factors and threats; (6) ongoing or planned efforts to protect and restore the species and their habitats; (7) information on the adequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms, whether protections are being implemented and whether they are proving effective in conserving the species; (8) data concerning the status and trends of identified limiting factors or threats; (9) information on targeted harvest (commercial and recreational) and bycatch of the species; (10) other new information, data, or corrections including, but not limited to, taxonomic or nomenclatural changes and improved analytical methods for evaluating extinction risk; and (11) information concerning the impacts of environmental variability and climate change on survival, recruitment, distribution, and/or extinction risk.
In addition to the above requested information, we are interested in any information concerning protective efforts that have not yet been fully implemented or demonstrated effectiveness. Our consideration of conservation measures, regulatory mechanisms, and other protective efforts will be guided by the Services “Policy for Evaluation of Conservation Efforts When Making Listing Decisions” (PECE Policy; 68 FR 15100; March 28, 2003). The PECE Policy establishes criteria to ensure the consistent and adequate evaluation of formalized conservation efforts when making listing decisions under the ESA. This policy may also guide the development of conservation efforts that sufficiently improve a species' status so as to make listing the species as threatened or endangered unnecessary. Under the PECE Policy the adequacy of conservation efforts is evaluated in terms of the certainty of their implementation, and the certainty of their effectiveness. Criteria for evaluating the certainty of implementation include whether: The necessary resources available; the necessary authority is in place; an agreement formalized (
We request that all information be accompanied by: (1) Supporting documentation such as maps, bibliographic references, or reprints of pertinent publications; and (2) the submitter's name, address, and any association, institution, or business that the person represents.
The complete citations for the references used in this document can be obtained by contacting NMFS (See
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16. U.S.C. 1531
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes regulations under the Tuna Conventions Act to implement provisions of two Resolutions adopted by the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC) in 2016: Resolution C-16-01 (
Comments on the proposed rule and supporting documents must be submitted in writing by November 10, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0106, by any of the following methods:
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Copies of the draft Regulatory Impact Review and other supporting documents are available via the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Rachael Wadsworth, NMFS, West Coast Region, 562-980-4036.
The United States is a member of the IATTC, which was established under the 1949 Convention for the Establishment of an Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission. In 2003, the IATTC adopted the Convention for the Strengthening of the IATTC Established by the 1949 Convention between the United States of America and the Republic of Costa Rica (Antigua Convention). The Antigua Convention entered into force in 2010. The United States acceded to the Antigua Convention on February 24, 2016. The full text of the Antigua Convention is available at:
The IATTC consists of 21 member nations and four cooperating non-member nations and facilitates scientific research into, as well as the conservation and management of, tuna and tuna-like species in the IATTC Convention Area. The IATTC Convention Area is defined as waters of the eastern Pacific Ocean (EPO) within the area bounded by the west coast of the Americas and by 50° N. latitude, 150° W. longitude, and 50° S. latitude. The IATTC maintains a scientific research and fishery monitoring program and regularly assesses the status of tuna, sharks, and billfish stocks in the EPO to determine appropriate
As a Party to the Antigua Convention and a member of the IATTC, the United States is legally bound to implement decisions of the IATTC. The Tuna Conventions Act (16 U.S.C. 951
In 2013, the IATTC adopted Resolution C-13-04 (
In 2016, the IATTC adopted Resolution C-16-06 in response to concerns for the stock status of the silky shark in the EPO. The IATTC scientific staff has provided conservation recommendations for the silky shark since 2012, and Resolution C-16-06 is consistent with the advice that the IATTC scientific staff provided in 2016. The main objective of Resolution C-16-06 is to restrict retention of silky sharks on purse seine vessels and to restrict incidental catch of silky sharks on longline vessels in the IATTC Convention Area. U.S. commercial fishing vessels in the EPO do not target silky shark; they are caught incidentally and primarily discarded.
This proposed rule would implement provisions of Resolutions C-16-01 and C-16-06, described above, for U.S. commercial fishing vessels that fish for tuna or tuna-like species in the IATTC Convention Area. This proposed rule includes four elements: Two elements regarding FADs and two elements regarding silky shark.
The first element would require the owner or operator of a U.S. purse seine vessel to ensure characters of a unique code be marked indelibly on each fish aggregating device (FAD) deployed or modified on or after January 1, 2017. The vessel owner or operator would be required to select one of the following two options for the unique code for each FAD: (1) Obtain a unique code from NMFS West Coast Region that NMFS has obtained from the IATTC Secretariat, as specified in Annex I of Resolution C-16-01 or (2) use an existing unique identifier associated with the FAD (
The vessel owner or operator would be required to ensure the characters for the unique code be at least 5 centimeters in height on the upper portion of the attached radio or satellite buoy in a location that does not cover the solar cells used to power the equipment. For FADs without attached radio or satellite buoys, the characters would be required to be marked indelibly on the uppermost or emergent top portion of the FAD. In other words, the vessel owner or operator would be required to ensure the marking is durable and will not fade or be erased (
The second element would require the vessel owner or operator of a FAD that is deployed on or after January 1, 2017, to record and submit information about the FAD to the address specified by the Highly Migratory Species (HMS) Branch. The HMS Branch is defined as NMFS West Coast Region, Suite 4200, 501 W. Ocean Blvd., Long Beach, CA 90802. In accordance with Annex I of Resolution C-16-01, nine data fields would be required to be recorded and submitted: (1) Position; (2) date; (3) hour; (4) FAD unique identifier; (5) FAD type (
The third element would prohibit the crew, operator, and owner of a commercial purse seine fishing vessel of the United States used to fish for tuna or tuna-like species from retaining on board, transshipping, storing, or landing any part or whole carcass of a silky shark that is caught in the Convention Area. U.S. purse seiners do not target silky sharks; they are caught incidentally and are primarily discarded. The impacts of these proposed regulations to purse seine vessels are described in the Classification section below.
The fourth element would require the crew, operator, and owner of a commercial longline fishing vessel of the United States to limit the retention of silky sharks caught in the IATTC Convention Area to a maximum of 20% by weight of the total catch of fish during any fishing trip that occurred in whole or in part in the IATTC Convention Area. Although Resolution C-16-06 provides that the “bycatch” of silky shark be restricted, NMFS proposes to use the term “retained catch” in these proposed regulations.
U.S. longline vessels fishing in the IATTC Convention Area do not target, and infrequently catch, silky shark. Data from 2008 to 2015 show that any incidentally caught silky shark are released, and almost all are released alive. Silky shark are commonly
The NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the Tuna Conventions Act and other applicable laws, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
NMFS is amending the supporting statement for the Pacific Tuna Fisheries Logbook Office of Management and Business (OMB) Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) requirements (OMB Control No. 0648-0148) to include the data collection requirements for FADs as described in the preamble. NMFS estimates the public reporting burden for this collection of information to average 10 minutes per form, time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. NMFS requests any comments on the addition of the FAD data collection form to the PRA package, including whether the paperwork would unnecessarily burden any vessel owners and operators. Public comment is sought regarding: Whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Send comments on these or any other aspects of the collection of information to the
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. All currently approved NOAA collections of information may be viewed at:
Regarding the elements of the proposed rule pertaining to silky shark; there are no new collection-of-information requirements associated with this action that are subject to the PRA, and existing collection-of-information requirements still apply under the following Control Numbers: 0648-0593 and 0648-0214. Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, and no person shall be subject to penalty for failure to comply with, a collection-of-information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection-of-information displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget control number.
An Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) was prepared as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act to analyze whether the proposed rule to implement provisions of Resolutions C-16-01 and C-16-06 adopted by the IATTC in 2016 would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The IRFA is being published to aid the public in commenting upon NMFS conclusion that the proposed actions will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
As described previously in the
On December 29, 2015, NMFS issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the U.S. Small Business Administration's (SBA) current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry for all NMFS rules, subject to the RFA, published after July 1, 2016.
NMFS has reviewed the analyses prepared for this regulatory action in light of the new size standard. All of the entities directly regulated by this regulatory action are commercial finfish fishing businesses. The new standard results in fewer commercial finfish businesses being considered small.
The entities that would be affected by the proposed action are (1) U.S. purse seine vessels that use FADs to fish for tuna or tuna-like species in the IATTC Convention Area, and (2) U.S. purse seine and longline vessels that catch silky shark.
As of July 2016, there are 15 large purse seine vessels (with at least 363 metric tons of fish hold volume) listed on the IATTC Regional Vessel Register. The number of U.S. large purse seine vessels on the IATTC Regional Vessel Register has increased substantially in the past two years due to negotiations regarding the South Pacific Tuna Treaty (SPTT) and the interest expressed by vessel owners that typically fish in the WCPO in relocating to the EPO. However, parties reached agreement in principle on changes to the SPTT in June 2016. U.S. large purse seine vessels fishing in the EPO primarily land yellowfin, skipjack, and bigeye tuna. Estimates of ex-vessel revenues for large U.S. purse seine vessels fishing in the IATTC Convention Area from 2005 to 2014 have been confidential and may not be publicly disclosed because of the small number of vessels in the fishery. However, in 2015, thirteen large purse seine vessels fished either exclusively in the EPO or fished in both the EPO and WCPO, and so information for 2015 is not confidential.
For large purse seine vessels that fished exclusively in the EPO in 2015, ex-vessel price information specific to the individual vessels are not available to NMFS because these vessels did not land on the U.S. West Coast and the cannery receipts are not available through the IATTC. However, estimates for large purse seine vessels based in the WCPO that fish in both the EPO and WCPO may be used as a proxy for U.S. large purse seine vessels. The number of these U.S. purse seine vessels is approximated by the number with WCPFC Area Endorsements, which are
There are two components to the U.S. tuna purse seine fishery in the EPO: (1) Large purse seine vessels with at least 363 metric tons of fish hold volume (size class 6 vessels) that typically have been based in the western and central Pacific Ocean (WCPO), and (2) coastal purse seine vessels with smaller fish hold volume that are based on the U.S. West Coast. Because only the large purse seine vessels fish with FADs and incidentally catch silky shark in the EPO, the proposed action is not expected to impact the coastal purse seine vessels. U.S. purse seiners do not target silky sharks in the EPO. Since 2005, the best available data from observers show that the incidental catches of silky shark are primarily discarded; however, a small percentage has been landed in the past ten years. For example, in 2015, a year in which more than three large purse seine vessels fished in the EPO, about 3% of the total catches of silky shark were landed and the rest were discarded either dead or alive. Since at least 2005, the observer coverage rate on class size 6 vessels in the EPO has been 100 percent.
As of August 2016, the IATTC Regional Vessel Register lists 158 U.S. longline vessels that have the option to fish in the IATTC Convention Area. The majority of these longline vessels possess Hawaii Longline Limited Access Permits (issued under 50 CFR 665.13). Under the Hawaii longline limited access program, no more than 164 permits may be issued. In addition, there are U.S. longline vessels based on the U.S. West Coast, some of which operate solely under the Pacific HMS permit. U.S. West Coast-based longline vessels operating under the Pacific HMS permit fish primarily in the EPO and are currently restricted to fishing with deep-set longline gear outside of the U.S. West Coast EEZ. These vessels primarily target tuna species with a small percentage of swordfish and other highly migratory species taken incidentally.
There have been less than three West Coast-based vessels operating under the HMS permit since 2005; therefore, landings and ex-vessel revenue are confidential. However, the number of Hawaii-permitted longline vessels that have landed in West Coast ports has increased from one vessel in 2006 to 14 vessels in 2014. In 2014, 621 mt of highly migratory species were landed by Hawaii permitted longline vessels with an average ex-vessel revenue of approximately $247,857 per vessel. For the longline fishery, the ex-vessel value of catches by the Hawaii longline fleet in 2012 was about $87 million. With 129 active vessels in that year, per-vessel average revenues were about $0.7 million, well below the $11 million threshold for finfish harvesting businesses. NMFS considers all longline vessels, for which data is non-confidential, that catch silky sharks in the IATTC Convention Area to be small entities for the purposes of the RFA.
U.S. longline vessels fishing in the IATTC Convention Area, whether under the Hawaii Longline Limited Access Permit or the Pacific HMS permit, do not target silky shark and all those caught incidentally are released. From 2008 to 2015, logbook records recorded by vessel owners and operators of U.S. longline vessels fishing in the IATTC Convention Area showed a total of four silky sharks caught and released on four separate trips. During this same time period, observers did not record any catch of silky shark on longline vessels using shallow-set gear. The observer data for the Hawaii deep-set longline fishery showed a
NMFS considered a “No Action” alternative to the proposed action. Under the “No Action” alternative, the vessel owners and operators of large purse seine vessels would not mark FADs or collect data on FAD activities. In addition, large purse seine vessels would not need to release silky sharks caught in the EPO and there would be no restrictions on catch on longline vessels. Under this alternative, the United States would not implement Resolutions C-16-01 and C-16-06 and would not satisfy international obligations as a Party to the Antigua Convention.
Because the proposed action implements Resolutions C-16-01 and C-16-06 as agreed to by the United States, there are also not any possible additional alternatives that would be consistent with U.S obligations as a party to the Antigua Convention.
This IRFA was developed for this action using NMFS' small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard is used in place of the U.S. SBA current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry. NMFS has reviewed the analyses prepared for this action in light of the $11 million standard. Under this size standard, the entities for which the proposed action on FADs applies are considered large and small business. However, disproportional economic effect between small and large businesses is not expected; there will be only minimal additional time burden for owners and operators of large purse seine vessels to ensure characters of a unique code be marked indelibly on their FADs and to record data for FAD activities. And while the large purse seine vessels impacted by the proposed actions with respect to treatment of silky sharks would be required to release all silky sharks, U.S. purse seine vessels do not target silky sharks, and primarily release those caught incidentally. However, there may be some modifications to the fishing practices of these large and small entities to release all catch of silky sharks.
NMFS considers the longline vessels for which the proposed action on silky shark applies to be small entities and the large purse seine vessels to also be large and small entities. U.S. longline vessels fishing in the EPO do not target silky shark and release all those incidentally caught. U.S. longline vessels only occasionally catch a small amount of silky sharks on fishing trips in the EPO; therefore, this proposed action is not expected to impact the fishing practices of these longline vessels.
Thus, these proposed actions are not expected to substantially change the typical fishing practices of affected vessels. In addition, any impact to the income of U.S. vessels would be minor. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the proposed action is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Management of commercial fisheries must comply with a number of international agreements, domestic laws, and Fisheries Management Plans. These include, but are not limited to, the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, the High Seas Fishing Compliance Act, the Marine Mammal Protection Act, the Endangered Species Act, the National Environmental Policy Act, the Paperwork Reduction Act, and the Coastal Zone Management Act. NMFS strives to ensure consistency among the regulations with relevant agencies. The proposed rule would not conflict with any other statutes or regulations, Federal or otherwise.
Fish, Fisheries, Fishing, Fishing vessels, International organizations, Marine resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 300 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 951
(ee) Fail to ensure characters of a unique code are marked indelibly on a FAD deployed or modified on or after January 1, 2017 in accordance with § 300.25 (h).
(ff) Fail to record and report data on interactions or activities on FADs as required in § 300.25 (i).
(gg) Use a commercial purse seine fishing vessel of the United States to retain on board, transship, store, or land any part or whole carcass of a silky shark (
(hh) Use a U.S. longline vessel to catch silky shark in contravention of § 300.27 (f).
(h)
(1) For each FAD deployed or modified on or after January 1, 2017, in the IATTC Convention Area, the vessel owner or operator must either: obtain a unique code from HMS Branch; or use an existing unique identifier associated with the FAD (
(2) U.S. purse seine vessel owners and operators shall ensure the characters of the unique code or unique identifier be marked indelibly at least 5 centimeters in height on the upper portion of the attached radio or satellite buoy in a location that does not cover the solar cells used to power the equipment. For FADs without attached radio or satellite buoys, the characters shall be on the uppermost or emergent top portion of the FAD. The vessel owner or operator shall ensure the marking is visible at all times during daylight. In circumstances where the on-board observer is unable to view the code, the captain or crew shall assist the observer (
(i)
(e)
(f)
United States Agency for International Development.
Notice of meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Advisory Committee on Voluntary Foreign Aid (ACVFA).
The Advisory Committee on Voluntary Foreign Aid (ACVFA) brings together USAID and private voluntary organization officials, representatives from universities, international nongovernment organizations, U.S. businesses, and government, multilateral, and private organizations to foster understanding, communication, and cooperation in the area of foreign aid.
USAID Administrator Gayle Smith will make opening remarks, followed by panel discussions among ACVFA members and USAID leadership on global development trends. The full meeting agenda will be forthcoming on the ACVFA Web site at
The meeting is free and open to the public. Registration information will be forthcoming on the ACVFA Web site at
Jayne Thomisee,
United States Agency for International Development
New system of records notice.
Pursuant to the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) is issuing new public notice for a system of records entitled “USAID-32 Reasonable Accommodation Records”. This action is necessary to meet the requirements of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 522a(e)(4), to publish in the
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 522a(e)(4) and (11), the public is given a 30-day period in which to comment. Therefore, any comments must be received on or before November 10, 2016. Unless comments are received that would require a revision, this altered system of records will become effective on November 10, 2016.
You may submit comments:
•
•
•
The USAID Privacy Office at United States Agency for International Development, Bureau for Management, Office of the Chief Information Officer, Information Assurance Division, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20523; or via email at
The Reasonable Accommodation Records system covers USAID reasonable accommodation activities related to current and former USAID employees and applicants. The Rehabilitation Act requires USAID to provide reasonable accommodation to qualified applicants and employees with disabilities if known or requested, unless the accommodation would impose undue hardship on USAID. Reasonable accommodations provide modifications or adjustments to: (1) The job application process that enables a qualified applicant with a disability to enjoy equal employment opportunities available to persons without disabilities; (2) the work environment; and/or (3) the manner in which a position is customarily performed. The Reasonable Accommodation Records system allows USAID to collect, use, maintain, and disseminate the records needed to process, manage, and resolve reasonable accommodation requests. Records include the requests, documentation related to the request, disposition of the requests, and reasonable accommodations provided by USAID.
Reasonable Accommodation Records.
Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, United States Agency for International Development (USAID), 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20523-2120.
Individuals who are current or former USAID employees and applicants, and who have requested reasonable accommodation under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended.
This system of records contains information or documents compiled during the reasonable accommodation request process. These records may contain names, employment status, addresses, email addresses, telephone
This system is established and is maintained pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 301, Departmental Regulations; the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 791; E.O. 13164—Requiring Federal Agencies To Establish Procedures To Facilitate the Provision of Reasonable Accommodation; and E.O. 13548, Increasing Federal Employment of Individuals with Disabilities
The purpose of this system is to allow USAID to collect and maintain records on applicants and employees with disabilities who requested or received reasonable accommodation by the Agency as required by the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act of 2008 (ADAAA). This system is maintained for the purpose of processing, deciding, and implementing requests for reasonable accommodation made by USAID employees and applicants. The purpose of this system is also to track and report the processing of requests for reasonable accommodation Agency-wide to comply with applicable law and regulations and to preserve and maintain the confidentiality of medical information.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), all or a portion of the records contained in this system of records may be disclosed outside USAID as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
(1) To the Department of Justice, (including United States Attorney Offices), or other appropriate Federal Government agency conducting litigation or in proceedings before any court, adjudicative or administrative body, when it is necessary to the litigation and one of the following is a party to the litigation or has an interest in such litigation (1) USAID or any component thereof; (2) any employee of USAID in his/her official capacity; (3) any employee of USAID in his/her individual capacity where DOJ or USAID has agreed to represent the employee; or (4) the United States or any agency thereof, is a party to the litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and USAID determines that the records are both relevant and necessary to the litigation and the use of such records is compatible with the purpose for which USAID collected the records.
(2) To a congressional office from the record of an individual in response to an inquiry from that congressional office made at the request of the individual to whom the record pertains.
(3) To the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) or other federal government agencies pursuant to records management inspections being conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
(4) To an agency, organization, or individual for the purpose of performing audit or oversight operations as authorized by law, but only such information as is necessary and relevant to such audit or oversight function.
(5) To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) USAID suspects or has confirmed that the security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has been compromised; (2) the Agency has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed compromise there is a risk of harm to economic or property interests, identity theft or fraud, or harm to the security or integrity of this system or other systems or programs (whether maintained by USAID or another agency or entity) or harm to the individual that rely upon the compromised information; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with USAID's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
(6) To contractors and their agents, grantees, experts, consultants, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for USAID, when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to this system of records. Individuals provided information under this routine use is subject to the same Privacy Act requirements and limitations on disclosure as are applicable to USAID officers and employees.
(7) To an appropriate federal, state, or local law enforcement agency or other appropriate authority charged with investigating or prosecuting a violation or enforcing or implementing a law, rule, regulation, or order, where a record, either on its face or in conjunction with other information, indicates a violation or potential violation of law, which includes criminal, civil, or regulatory violations and such disclosure is proper and consistent with the official duties of the person making the disclosure.
(8) To a court, magistrate, or administrative tribunal in the course of presenting evidence, including disclosures to opposing counsel or witnesses in the course of civil discovery, litigation, or settlement negotiations or in connection with criminal law proceedings or in response to a subpoena from a court of competent jurisdiction.
(9) To another federal agency or commission with responsibility for labor or employment relations or other issues, including equal employment opportunity and reasonable accommodation issues, when that agency or commission has jurisdiction over reasonable accommodation.
(10) To appropriate third parties contracted by USAID to facilitate mediation or other dispute resolution procedures or programs.
(11) To a Federal agency or entity that requires information relevant or related to a reasonable accommodation decision and/or its implementation.
(12) To medical personnel and first responders, to meet a bona fide emergency, including medical emergencies.
(13) To attorneys, union representatives, or other persons designated by USAID employees in writing to represent them in a grievance, complaint, appeal, or litigation case.
(14) To an authorized appeal grievance examiner, formal complaints examiner, administrative judge, equal employment opportunity investigator, arbitrator or other duly authorized official engaged in investigation or settlement of a grievance, complaint, or appeal filed by an employee.
(15) To labor organization officials when such information is relevant to personnel policies affecting employment conditions and necessary for exclusive representation by the labor organization.
Records in this system are stored on paper and/or electronic form; and are maintained in locked cabinets and/or user-authenticated, password-protected systems.
Records are retrieved by the names of the individuals about whom they are maintained and/or the number assigned to the accommodation request. In the case of electronic databases, information may be retrieved by other identifying search terms.
Information in this system is safeguarded in accordance with applicable laws, rules and policies, including the Agency's automated directive system (ADS). In general, records are maintained in buildings with restricted access. The required use of password protection identification features and other system protection methods also restrict access. Access to records is restricted to those authorized USAID personnel and authorized contractors who have an official need in the performance of their official duties.
Records are retained and disposed of in accordance with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's Policy Guidance on Executive Order 13164: Establishing Procedures to Facilitate the Provision of Reasonable Accommodation, Directives Transmittal Number 915.003, October 20, 2000; and in accordance with the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) General Records Schedule 1, Civilian Personnel Records, Item 24, Reasonable Accommodation Request Records.
Reasonable Accommodation Program Manager, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, United States Agency for International Development, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20523-2120.
Same as Record Access Procedures.
Under the Privacy Act, individuals may request access to records about themselves. If an agency or a person, who is not the individual who is the subject of the records, requests access to records about an individual, the written consent of the individual who is the subject of the records is required.
Requesters may submit requests for records under the Privacy Act: (1) By mail to the USAID FOIA Office, Bureau for Management, Office of Management Services, Information and Records Division, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Room 2.07C-RRB, Washington, DC 20523-2701; (2) via Facsimile to 202-216-3070; (3) via email to
Requesters using 1 through 4 may provide a written statement or may complete and submit USAID Form 507-1, Freedom of Information/Privacy Act Record Request Form, which can be obtained: (a) On the USAID Web site at
In addition, requesters using 1 through 4 must include proof of identity information by providing copies of two (2) source documents that must be notarized by a valid (un-expired) notary public. Acceptable proof-of-identity source documents include: An unexpired United States passport; Social Security Card (both sides); unexpired United States Government employee identity card; unexpired driver's license or identification card issued by a state or United States possession, provided that it contain a photograph; certificate of United States citizenship; certificate of naturalization; card showing permanent residence in the United States; United States alien registration receipt card with photograph; United States military card or draft record; or United States military dependent's identification card.
Requesters using 1 through 4 must also provide a signed and notarized statement that they are the person named in the request; that they understand that any falsification of their statement is punishable under the provision of 18 U.S.C. 1001 by a fine, or by imprisonment of not more than five years or, if the offense involves international or domestic terrorism (as defined in section 2331), imprisonment of not more than eight years, or both; and that requesting or obtaining records under false pretenses is punishable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3) as a misdemeanor and by a fine of not more than $5,000.
Requesters using 5 must provide such personal identification as is reasonable under the circumstances to verify the requester's identity, including the following: An unexpired United States passport; Social Security Card; unexpired United States Government employee identity card; unexpired driver's license or identification card issued by a state or United States possession, provided that it contain a photograph; certificate of United States citizenship; certificate of naturalization; card showing permanent residence in the United States; United States alien registration receipt card with photograph; United States military card or draft record; or United States military dependent's identification card.
Individuals seeking to contest or amend records maintained on himself or herself must clearly and concisely state that information is being contested, and the proposed amendment to the information sought. Requests to amend a record must follow the Record Access Procedures above.
Sources of records include individuals who have requested reasonable accommodation and supporting documentation from USAID officials, employees, and agents, and/or healthcare professionals involved in the reasonable accommodation request, response, and implementation process.
None.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the
Comments regarding this information collection received by November 10, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), USDA.
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This is a new collection for the purpose of assessing the individual, household, and the environmental factors that limit the adequacy of the SNAP allotment.
Written comments must be received on or before December 12, 2016.
Comments may be sent to: Rosemarie Downer, Food and Nutrition Service/U.S. Department of Agriculture, 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1014, Alexandria, VA 22302. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of (703) 305-2576 at (703) 305-2129 or via email to
All written comments will be open for public inspection at the Office of the Food and Nutrition Service during regular business hours (8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. Monday through Friday) at 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1014, Alexandria, Virginia 22302.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.
Requests for additional information or copies of this information collected should be directed to Rosemarie Downer at (703) 305-2129.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden on the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) has examined the current SNAP benefit and has raised several concerns about its adequacy. The IOM committee recommended that FNS assess the individual, household, and the environmental factors that limit the adequacy of the current SNAP allotment. To this end, FNS is conducting a survey followed by in-depth interviews with SNAP participants. The data collection activities to be undertaken subject to this notice include:
•
•
See the table below for estimated total annual burden for each type of respondent.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the
Comments regarding this information collection received by November 10, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC, 20503. Commentors are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of availability.
In accordance with section 3(b) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act, the USDA Forest Service, Washington Office, transmitted the final map and perimeter boundary description of the Skagit Wild and Scenic River to Congress.
The boundaries and classification of the Skagit Wild and Scenic River shall not become effective until ninety (90) days after they have been forwarded to the President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives. In accordance with Section 3(b) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (82 Stat. 906 as amended; 16 U.S.C. 1274), the detailed perimeter boundary description and final map were forwarded on July 21, 2016.
Documents may be viewed at USDA Forest Service, Yates Federal Building, 201 14th Street SW., Washington, DC 20250; at the Supervisors Office of the Mt. Baker-Snoqualmie National Forest, 2930 Wetmore Ave., Suite 3A, Everett, WA 98201; and at the USDA Forest Service Region 6 Regional Office at 1220 SW. 3rd Ave., Portland, OR 97204.
Information may be obtained by contacting the following office: Mt. Baker-Snoqualmie National Forest, 2930 Wetmore Ave., Suite 3A, Everett, WA 98201, 425-783-6000,
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The Skagit Wild and Scenic River boundary is available for review at the following offices: USDA Forest Service, Wilderness and Wild and Scenic Rivers, 1601 N. Kent Street, Plaza C, Suite 4110B, Rosslyn, VA 22209; USDA Forest Service Pacific Northwest Region, 1220 SW. Third Avenue, Portland, OR 97204.
The Skagit Wild and Scenic River was added to the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System (Pub. L. 95-625) on November 10, 1978. As specified by law, the boundary will not be effective until ninety (90) days after Congress receives the transmittal.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce (Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on high pressure steel cylinders (steel cylinders) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) for the period of review June 1, 2015, through May 31, 2016.
Effective October 11, 2016.
Matthew Renkey, AD/CVD Operations,
On June 15, 2016, Norris Cylinder Company (Petitioner) submitted a request for administrative review of the antidumping duty order on steel cylinders from the PRC for a single company, Beijing Tianhai Industry Co., Ltd. (BTIC).
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party or parties that requested a review withdraw(s) the request within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation of the requested review. As noted above, all parties withdrew their requests for administrative reviews within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation. No other parties requested an administrative review of the order. Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), we are rescinding this review in its entirety.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of steel cylinders from the PRC. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of this notice of rescission of administrative review.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the countervailing duty (CVD) order on certain lined paper products from India. The period of review (POR) is January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, and the review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, Goldenpalm Manufacturers PVT Ltd. (Goldenpalm). We preliminarily determine that Goldenpalm received countervailable subsidies during the POR.
Effective October 11, 2016.
John Conniff, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-1009.
The product covered by this administrative review is certain lined paper products from India. For a full description of the scope of this order see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
The Department is conducting this CVD administrative review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we preliminarily determine that there is a subsidy (
The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically
The Department preliminarily determines that the following net subsidy rate exists for the period January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014:
The Department will disclose to parties to this proceeding the calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results within five days of the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must do so within 30 days of publication of these preliminary results by submitting a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, filed electronically using ACCESS. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number; the number of participants; and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, we will inform parties of the scheduled date for the hearing which will be held at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and location to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Unless the deadline is extended pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act, the Department will issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of issues raised in any written briefs, within 120 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results.
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review. We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of review.
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, the Department also intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties, in the amount shown above, for the company shown above, on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. For all non-reviewed firms, we will instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the most recent company-specific or all-others rate applicable to the company, as appropriate. These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
These preliminary results of review are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213 and 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
In response to requests from interested parties, the Department of Commerce (“the Department”) is conducting the eleventh administrative review (“AR”) of the antidumping duty order on wooden bedroom furniture (“WBF”) from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”). The period of review (“POR”) is January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015. This AR covers 18 companies. The Department has preliminarily determined that seven of the 18 companies, including the sole mandatory respondent, have not established their entitlement to a separate rate and are part of the PRC-wide entity. The Department has also preliminarily determined that the remaining 11 companies had no reviewable transactions during the POR. We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Effective October 11, 2016.
Patrick O'Connor, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0989.
After initiating this review with respect to 141 companies or company groupings,
The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (“ACCESS”). ACCESS is available to registered users at
The product covered by the order is wooden bedroom furniture, subject to certain exceptions.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”) and 19 CFR 351.213. For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary results of review,
Because U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) did not provide any information contradicting the claims of the 11 companies under review which claimed to have made no shipments, the Department preliminarily determines that these 11 companies did not have any reviewable transactions during the POR.
As noted above, Nantong Wangzhuang did not respond to the Department's antidumping duty questionnaire. Therefore, the Department preliminarily determines that Nantong Wangzhuang did not establish its eligibility for separate rate status. In addition, six other companies for which a review was requested failed to provide separate rate applications or certifications.
Interested parties are invited to comment on the preliminary results and may submit case briefs and/or written comments, filed electronically using ACCESS, within 30 days of the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii). Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, will be due five days after the due date for case briefs, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(d). Parties who submit case or rebuttal briefs in this review are requested to submit with each argument a statement of the issue, a summary of the argument not to exceed five pages, and a table of statutes, regulations, and cases cited, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2).
Any interested party may request a hearing within 30 days of publication of this notice.
Unless extended, the Department intends to issue the final results of this AR, which will include the results of its analysis of issues raised in any briefs received, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act.
Upon issuing the final results of this review, the Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this review for shipments of the subject merchandise from the PRC entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by sections 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For previously investigated or reviewed PRC and non-PRC exporters that received a separate rate in a prior segment of this proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the existing exporter-specific rate; (2) for all PRC exporters of subject merchandise that have not been found to be entitled to a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be the rate for the PRC-wide entity, which is 216.01 percent; and (3) for all non-PRC exporters of subject merchandise which have not received their own rate, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the PRC exporter that supplied that non-PRC exporter.
These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties. We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213.
International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice.
The United States Department of Commerce (DOC), International Trade Administration (ITA), is organizing an executive-led Power Technologies Trade Mission to the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Saudi Arabia (KSA) on March 12-16, 2017. The purpose of the trade mission is to introduce U.S. firms to KSA and UAE's expanding power technology sector, which seeks to procure power equipment, distribution, power grid, as well as spare parts, and equipment with a focus on the renewable sector, and also to assist those U.S. firms in pursuing export opportunities in this sector, by helping new-to-market companies learn about the KSA and UAE energy markets and make initial contacts, and by supporting U.S. companies already doing business in the KSA and UAE to widen and deepen their business interests.
The UAE is a federation of the seven emirates of Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Dubai, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah, Sharjah and Umm Al-Quwain. The generation, transmission and distribution of electricity in the UAE is dominated by three water and power authorities owned by each of the individual emirates: Abu Dhabi Water and Electricity Authority (ADWEA), Dubai Electricity and Water Authority (DEWA) and Sharjah Electricity and Water Authority, and by a federal authority that operates in the smaller northern emirates (FEWA).
In Abu Dhabi, ADWEA has established a long-term program for the privatization of the electricity sector and a number of independent water and power producers have been established as joint-venture arrangements between ADWEA and various international power companies as Build—Operate—Own projects. The Dubai government is also promoting private investment in its electricity generation sector, and recently passed legislation allowing the private sector to participate in electricity generation by establishing project companies and by collaborating with third parties.
Per the UAE Ministry of Energy, the total generated electricity in 2014 was 116, 528 GWH and consumption was about 111.685 GWH. Rapid economic and demographic growth over the past decade is pushing the UAE's electricity grid close to its limits. The UAE currently relies primarily on natural gas, but it is also adding nuclear, renewable, and coal-fired electricity generating capacity. To support its economic diversification and sustainable development, the UAE plans to meet a significant portion of its energy needs using renewable sources. According to statements made by Energy Minister Suhail Al Mazrouei in January 2016, the UAE plans to increase its target for power generation from clean energy to 30 percent by 2030, with at least 25 percent of the country's electricity generated from both nuclear and solar.
Below is information on various sub-sectors of the power sector in the UAE.
The Saudi Electricity Company (SEC) is the largest producer of electricity in the KSA with current available generation capacity of around 58 GW. Other producers include the Saline Water Conversion Corporation (SWCC), SABIC, MARAFIQ and Saudi Aramco. For the medium term, the Saudi Arabia Electricity and Cogeneration Regulatory Authority (ECRA) allow Saudi Aramco to sell excess electricity it produces back to the SEC. ECRA also projected that the Kingdom would need to invest approximately USD 140 billion through 2020 to increase SEC generation capacity to 71 GW, in which it is projected that the country will have sufficient generating capacity to meet demand. SEC plans to increase electricity generating capacity to 120 GW by 2032.
The KSA continues to experience population growth, greater industrial diversification led by the development of petrochemical and financial cities, high demand for air conditioning, and subsidized electricity rates. As a result, the KSA requires additional production capacity of 4 GW generation capacity to come on line
The mission will help participating firms and associations or organizations gain market insights, make industry contacts, implement business strategies, and advance specific projects, with the goal of increasing U.S. exports of products and services to KSA and UAE. New opportunities exist as a result of demand approaching capacity and recent legislation that will allow private sector participation in the electricity sector. The focus of this mission is on renewable energy and not nuclear energy.
Specifically, the mission will provide U.S. participants with first-hand market information, site visits, one-on-one meetings with potential business partners, and meetings with relevant government entities in the UAE and KSA. The mission will include participants from leading U.S. companies that provide state-of-the-art generation, transmission and distribution equipment. Participants will meet key power sector contacts in the UAE and KSA, and gain insights on relevant export opportunities. Participants will have the opportunity to explore contacts with local firms and distributors active in the UAE and KSA who are seeking to procure power equipment, distribution, power grid, as well as spare parts, equipment. Target sub-sectors of the power sector holding high potential for U.S. exporters include: Solar, Wind, Smart Electrical Engineering, Grid and Smart Metering.
Trade mission delegates will participate in a five-day program, including roundtables and policy meetings with officials in UAE and KSA. The delegates will also have networking opportunities to meet face-to-face with decision maker officials, potential strategic partners, local firms, industry experts and distributor systems integrators.
(All day group bus transportation included.)
(All day group bus transportation included.)
(All day group bus transportation included.)
(All day group bus transportation included.)
(Group bus transportation to official events only, included.)
Traded Mission concludes.
All parties interested in participating in the trade mission must complete and submit an application package for consideration by the Department of Commerce (DOC). All applicants will be evaluated, staggered comparative, on their ability to meet certain conditions and best satisfy the selection criteria as outlined below. A minimum of 12 and a maximum of 15 companies will be selected to participate from the applicant pool.
After a firm or trade association/organization has been selected to participate in the event, a payment to the Department of Commerce in the form of a participation fee is required. The participation fee for the trade mission will be
All interested firms and associations may register via the following link:
The mission fee does not include any personal travel expenses such as lodging, most meals, local ground transportation (except for transportation to and from meetings, and airport transfers during the mission), and air transportation. Participants will, however, be able to take advantage of U.S. Government rates for hotel rooms. Electronic visas are required to participate on the mission, which are easily obtainable online. Applying for and obtaining such visas will be the responsibility of the mission participant. Government fees and processing expenses to obtain such visas are not included in the participation fee. However, the Department of Commerce will provide instructions to each participant on the procedures required to obtain necessary business visas. Further, U.S. Trade Mission members participate in the trade mission and undertake mission-related travel at their own risk. The nature of the security situation in a given foreign market at a given time cannot be guaranteed. The U.S. Government does not make any representations or guarantees as to the safety or security of participants. The U.S. Department of State issues U.S. Government international travel alerts and warnings for U.S. citizens available at
Trade mission recruitment will be conducted in an open and public manner, including, posting on the Commerce Department trade mission calendar and other Internet Web sites, email, press releases to general and trade media, notices by industry trade associations and other multiplier groups, and publicity at industry meetings, symposia, conferences, and trade shows. Recruitment for the trade mission will begin immediately and conclude no later than December 31, 2016. The Department of Commerce will review applications and inform applicants of selection decisions periodically during the recruitment period. All applications received subsequent to an evaluation date will be considered at the next evaluation. However, applications received after December 31, 2016, will be considered only if space and scheduling constraints permit.
An applicant must sign and submit a completed application and supplemental application materials, including adequate information on the company's products and/or services, primary market objectives, and goals for participation. If an incomplete application form is submitted or the information and material submitted does not demonstrate how the applicant satisfies the participation criteria, the Department of Commerce may reject the application, request additional information, or take the lack of information into account when evaluating the application. Each applicant must also:
• Identify whether the products and services it seeks to export through the mission are either produced in the United States, or, if not, marketed under the name of a U.S. firm and have at least 51% U.S. content. In cases where the U.S. content does not exceed 50%, especially where the applicant intends to pursue investment in major project opportunities, the following factors, may be considered in determining whether the applicant's participation in the Trade Mission is in the U.S. national interest:
○ U.S. materials and equipment content;
○ U.S. labor content;
○ Contribution to the U.S. technology base, including conduct of research and development in the United States;
○ Repatriation of profits to the U.S. economy;
○ Potential for follow-on business that would benefit the U.S. economy;
A trade association/organization applicant must certify to the above for all of the companies it seeks to represent on the mission.
An applicant must also certify that:
• The export of its goods, software, technology, and services would be in
• It has identified any matter pending before any bureau or office of the Department of Commerce;
• It has identified any pending litigation (including any administrative proceedings) to which it is a party that involves the Department of Commerce;
• It and its affiliates (1) have not and will not engage in the bribery of foreign officials in connection with its involvement in this Mission, and (2) maintain and enforce a policy that prohibits the bribery of foreign officials.
• Suitability of the company's products or services to the market. Please note: this mission will not include nuclear power technologies given the imbalance of this sub-sector in UAE and Saudi Arabia.
• Applicant's potential for business in the target countries, including likelihood of exports resulting from the mission.
• Consistency of the applicant's goals and objectives with the stated scope of the mission. Balance of company size, sector or subsector, and location may also be considered during the review process. Referrals from political organizations and any documents containing references to partisan political activities (including political contributions) will be removed from an applicant's submission and not considered during the selection process.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
NMFS reviewed the Alaska, Atlantic, and Pacific regional marine mammal stock assessment reports (SARs) in accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act. SARs for marine mammals in the Alaska, Atlantic, and Pacific regions were revised according to new information. NMFS solicits public comments on the draft 2016 SARs.
Comments must be received by January 9, 2017.
The 2016 draft SARs are available in electronic form via the Internet at
Copies of the Alaska Regional SARs may be requested from Marcia Muto, Alaska Fisheries Science Center, NMFS, 7600 Sand Point Way, NE BIN 15700, Seattle, WA 98115-0070.
Copies of the Atlantic, Gulf of Mexico, and Caribbean Regional SARs may be requested from Elizabeth Josephson, Northeast Fisheries Science Center, 166 Water St., Woods Hole, MA 02543.
Copies of the Pacific Regional SARs may be requested from Jim Carretta, Southwest Fisheries Science Center, 8604 La Jolla Shores Drive, La Jolla, CA 92037-1508.
You may submit comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0101, by any of the following methods:
Shannon Bettridge, Office of Protected Resources, 301-427-8402,
Section 117 of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) (16 U.S.C. 1361
The MMPA requires NMFS and FWS to review the SARs at least annually for strategic stocks and stocks for which significant new information is available, and at least once every three years for non-strategic stocks. The term “strategic stock” means a marine mammal stock: (A) For which the level of direct human-caused mortality exceeds the potential biological removal level; (B) which, based on the best available scientific information, is declining and is likely to be listed as a threatened species under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) within the foreseeable future; or (C) which is listed as a threatened species or endangered species under the ESA. NMFS and the FWS are required to revise a SAR if the status of the stock has changed or can be more accurately determined. NMFS, in conjunction with the Alaska, Atlantic, and Pacific independent Scientific Review Groups
NMFS solicits public comments on the draft 2016 SARs.
On September 8, 2016, NMFS published a final rule revising the listing status of humpback whales under the ESA (81 FR 62259). We divided the globally listed endangered species into 14 distinct population segments (DPSs), removed the species-level listing, and in its place, listed four DPSs as endangered and one DPS as threatened. Based on their current statuses, the remaining nine DPSs did not warrant listing.
With regard to depleted determinations for species removed from the ESA, the ESA listing rule states, “The language and structure of the MMPA's definition of depleted lead NMFS to the conclusion that a species or stock that is designated as depleted solely on the basis of its ESA listing status would cease to qualify as depleted under the terms of that definition if it is no longer listed. Therefore, a species or stock that is removed from the list of threatened and endangered species loses its depleted status when removed from the list . . . Humpback whales were considered to be depleted species-wide under the MMPA solely on the basis of the species' ESA listing. Therefore, upon the effective date of the rule, humpback whales that are listed as threatened or endangered will retain depleted status under the MMPA and humpback whales that are not listed as threatened or endangered will lose depleted status under the MMPA. However, we note that the DPSs established in this final rule that occur in waters under the jurisdiction of the United States do not necessarily equate to the existing MMPA stocks for which Stock Assessment Reports (SARs) have been published in accordance with section 117 of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1386). Following publication of this rule, we will conduct a review of humpback whale stock delineations in waters under the jurisdiction of the United States to determine whether any stocks should be realigned in light of the ESA DPSs established herein. Until such time as the MMPA stock delineations are reviewed, because we cannot manage one portion of a stock as depleted and another portion as not depleted under the MMPA, we will treat existing MMPA stocks that fully or partially coincide with a listed DPS as depleted and stocks that do not fully or partially coincide with a listed DPS as not depleted for management purposes. Therefore, in the interim, we will treat the Western North Pacific, Central North Pacific, and California/Oregon/Washington stocks as depleted because they partially or fully coincide with ESA-listed DPSs, and we will treat the Gulf of Maine and American Samoa stocks as no longer depleted because they do not coincide with any ESA-listed DPS. Any changes in stock delineation or MMPA section 117 elements (such as Potential Biological Removal (PBR) or strategic status) will be reflected in future stock assessment reports, and the Scientific Review Groups and the public will be provided opportunity to review and comment.”
In response to this revision to the humpback whale listing status, NMFS is currently evaluating the humpback whale stock delineations and whether we can align the stocks with the DPSs. This does not affect the stock delination for the current SARs, but will be reflected in future reports once the evaluation is complete.
In the Alaska region, SARs for 19 Alaska stocks (13 “strategic,” 6 “non-strategic”) were updated. All stocks were reviewed and the following stocks were revised for 2016: Steller sea lion, western U.S.; Steller sea lion, eastern U.S.; northern fur seal, eastern Pacific; bearded seal, Alaska; ringed seal, Alaska; beluga whale, Cook Inlet; killer whale, AT1 Transient; killer whale, eastern North Pacific Alaska resident; killer whale, eastern North Pacific Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, and Bering Sea Transient; harbor porpoise, Southeast Alaska; harbor porpoise, Gulf of Alaska; harbor porpoise, Bering Sea; sperm whale, North Pacific; humpback whale, Western North Pacific; humpback whale, Central North Pacific; fin whale, Northeast Pacific; right whale, Eastern North Pacific; bowhead whale, Western Arctic; narwhal, unidentified stock. Information on the remaining Alaska region stocks can be found in the final 2015 reports (Muto
Most revisions to the Alaska SARs included updates of abundance and/or M/SI estimates, including revised abundance estimates for both the western and eastern U.S. Steller sea lion stocks; northern fur seal, eastern Pacific; beluga whale, Cook Inlet; bearded seal, Alaska; ringed seal, Alaska; and fin whale, Northeast Pacific stocks. The following SARs include the abundance estimates from partial surveys as the N
The eastern U.S. stock of Steller sea lion changed in status from “strategic” to “non-strategic.” This status change is consistent with the recent humpback whale ESA listing final rule (81 FR 62259; September 8, 2016), which states that in the case of a species or stock that achieved its depleted status solely on the basis of its ESA status, the species or stock would cease to qualify as depleted under the terms of the definition set forth in MMPA section 3(1), if the species or stock is no longer listed as threatened or endangered. NMFS took the opportunity during the public comment period related to that rule to clarify our interpretation that loss of depleted status is automatic at the time of a delisting if the sole basis for the species or stocks' depleted status was an ESA listing. As a result, the eastern Steller sea lion is now considered to be not depleted and no longer qualifies as a strategic stock (as human-caused mortality or serious injury does not exceed PBR). The draft 2016 SAR reflects these changes and, accordingly, the PBR has been recalculated (using a recovery factor appropriate for a non-strategic stock) and increased from 1,645 to 2,498.
In the Atlantic region (including the Atlantic Ocean, Gulf of Mexico, and U.S. territories in the Caribbean), 18 reports for 44 stocks were updated. Of the updated stocks, 32 stocks are “strategic,” and 12 are “non-strategic.”
All stocks were reviewed and reports for the following strategic stocks were revised for 2016: North Atlantic right whale, Western Atlantic; humpback whale, Gulf of Maine; fin whale, Western North Atlantic (WNA); sei whale, Nova Scotia; short-finned pilot whale, WNA; and 27 Gulf of Mexico bay, sound, and estuary common bottlenose dolphin stocks. Two stocks, the WNA stocks of short-finned and long-finned pilot whales, changed from “non-strategic” to “strategic” this year
Reports for the following non-strategic stocks were revised for 2016: Minke whale, Canadian east coast; Risso's dolphin, WNA; Atlantic white-sided dolphin, WNA; short-beaked common dolphin, WNA; harbor porpoise, Gulf of Maine/Bay of Fundy; harbor seal, WNA; gray seal, WNA; rough-toothed dolphin, Northern Gulf of Mexico; pygmy sperm whale, WNA; dwarf sperm whale, WNA; and common bottlenose dolphin, WNA offshore. Information on the remaining Atlantic region stocks can be found in the final 2015 reports (Waring
Most revisions to the Atlantic SARs included updates of abundance and/or M/SI estimates. New abundance estimates are available for the North Atlantic right whale, Western Atlantic; minke whale, Canadian east stock; short-beaked common dolphin, WNA stock; and common bottlenose dolphin, Sarasota Bay, Little Sarasota Bay. The following common bottlenose dolphin, Gulf of Mexico bay, sound, and estuary stocks no longer have usable abundance and/or PBR estimates because the survey data on which they are based are more than eight years old and no longer considered unreliable (per NMFS Guidelines for Assessing Marine Mammal Stocks): Choctawhatchee Bay; St. Joseph Bay; St. Vincent Sound, Apalachicola Bay, St. George Sound; Waccasassa Bay, Withalacoochee Bay, Crystal Bay; St. Joseph Sound, Clearwater Harbor; Tampa Bay; Estero Bay; Chokoloskee Bay, Ten Thousand Islands, Gullivan Bay; Whitewater Bay; and Florida Keys (Bahia Honda to Key West).
As a result of the humpback whale ESA listing rule (81 FR 62259; September 8, 2016), the Gulf of Maine stock of humpback whales is no longer considered ESA listed or depleted. In the previous SAR, the recovery factor was 0.1 because this stock was listed as an endangered species under the ESA. In the draft 2016 SAR, the recovery factor was revised to 0.5, the default value for stocks of unknown status relative to OSP. Values other than the defaults for any stock should usually not be used without the approval of the regional Scientific Review Group, and scientific justification for the change should be provided in the SAR. As the listing change occurred after the February 2016 SRG Meeting, NMFS has applied the default recovery factor of 0.5 to the draft 2016 SAR. As a result, the PBR increased from 2.7 to 13. Human-caused mortality and serious injury is now below PBR, and the stock has changed from “strategic” to “non-strategic.” The Atlantic SRG will discuss the recovery factor for this stock at its February 2017 meeting.
Abundance estimates for the minke whale Canadian east stock and short-beaked common dolphin WNA stock are substantially lower than what was reported in the 2015 SARs. This is because the new estimates exclude data from the 2007 Canadian Trans-North Atlantic Sighting Survey, as they were more than eight years old. Thus, the revised estimates for these stocks should not be interpreted as a decline in abundance of these stocks, as previous estimates are not directly comparable to the new estimates.
In the Pacific region (waters along the west coast of the United States, within waters surrounding the main and Northwestern Hawaiian Islands (NWHI), and within waters surrounding U.S. territories in the Western Pacific), SARs were revised for 23 stocks under NMFS jurisdiction (8 “strategic” and 15 “non-strategic” stocks). All stocks were reviewed and reports for the following “strategic” stocks were revised for 2016: Hawaiian monk seal; killer whale, Eastern North Pacific Southern Resident; false killer whale, Main Hawaiian Islands (MHI) Insular; false killer whale, Hawaii Pelagic; humpback whale, California/Oregon/Washington (CA/OR/WA); fin whale, CA/OR/WA; sei whale, Eastern North Pacific; and Guadalupe fur seal, Mexico to California. Reports for the following “non-strategic” stocks were revised for 2016: False killer whale, NWHI; harbor porpoise, Washington inland waters; Dall's porpoise, CA/OR/WA; Pacific white-sided dolphin, CA/OR/WA; Risso's dolphin, CA/OR/WA; common bottlenose dolphin, California Coastal; common bottlenose dolphin, CA/OR/WA Offshore; striped dolphin, CA/OR/WA; short-beaked common dolphin, CA/OR/WA; long-beaked common dolphin, California; Northern right whale dolphin, CA/OR/WA; short-finned pilot whale, CA/OR/WA; pygmy sperm whale, CA/OR/WA; dwarf sperm whale, CA/OR/WA; and minke whale, CA/OR/WA. Information on the remaining Pacific region stocks can be found in the final 2015 reports (Carretta
Several abundance estimates for Pacific stocks were changed in the draft 2016 reports following the application of a new approach for estimating the
A new methodology was applied to bycatch estimated for some coastal Pacific stocks. Recent work shows that estimates of carcass recovery (0.25, 95 percent confidence interval = 0.20−0.33) for an extremely-coastal dolphin population suggests that observed anthropogenic mortality values of dolphins in this region derived from strandings should be corrected to account for unobserved mortality (Carretta
Additional stocks with updated abundance and/or M/SI estimates include: Harbor porpoise, Washington inland waters; Guadalupe fur seal, Mexico to California; Hawaiian monk seal; killer whale, Eastern North Pacific Southern Resident; humpback whale, CA/OR/WA; sei whale, Eastern North Pacific; false killer whale, Hawaii pelagic; false killer whale, MHI Insular; and false killer whale, NWHI.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public hearing.
The South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a public hearing via webinar pertaining to Amendment 30 to the Coastal Migratory Fishery Management Plan (FMP) for the Gulf of Mexico and Atlantic Region. The amendment addresses alternatives for changing the recreational fishing year for Atlantic cobia (Georgia through New York).
The public hearing will be held via webinar on Tuesday, October 25, 2016.
Kim Iverson, Public Information Officer, SAFMC; phone: (843) 571-4366 or toll free (866) SAFMC-10; fax: (843) 769-4520; email:
The public hearing will be conducted via webinar accessible via the internet from the Council's Web site at
This amendment includes one action to modify the recreational fishing year for Atlantic cobia. In combination with the proposed changes to slow the rate of recreational harvest in Framework Amendment 4, the action in Amendment 30 is expected to reduce the likelihood of exceeding the annual catch limit and triggering accountability measures before the most popular time to recreationally fish for Atlantic cobia (May through September), and also to provide fair access to the Atlantic cobia resource for all participants.
During the webinar, Council staff will present an overview of the amendment and will be available for informal discussions and to answer questions via webinar. Members of the public will have an opportunity to go on record to record their comments for consideration by the Council.
The hearing is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Recreational Advisory Panel to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Wednesday, October 26, 2016 at 10 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Hilton Garden Inn, Four Home Depot Drive, Plymouth, MA 02360; phone: (508) 830-0200.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Recreational Advisory Panel will discuss Framework Adjustment 56—Specifications and Management Measures. They will also discuss recreational measures and draft impact analysis and make recommendations to the Groundfish Committee. They will discuss preliminary FY2016 data, if available. Other business will be discussed as necessary.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of permit.
Notice is hereby given that a permit has been issued to Chicago Zoological Society [Michael J. Adkesson, D.V.M., Responsible Party], 3300 South Golf Rd., Brookfield, Illinois 60513 to receive, import, and export specimens from South American fur seal (
The permit and related documents are available for review upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation
Shasta McClenahan or Jennifer Skidmore, (301) 427-8401.
On August 29, 2016, notice was published in the
The applicant will receive, import, and export biological samples taken for scientific research that continues the long term evaluation and monitoring of pinniped population health at the Punta San Juan reserve and marine protected area in Peru. The permit is valid through October 1, 2021.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that Joseph Wilson, 1st Augustine's Yard, Gaunts Lane, Bristol, BS1 5DE, United Kingdom, has applied in due form for a permit to conduct commercial or educational photography of killer (
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before November 10, 2016.
These documents are available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Amy Hapeman or Shasta McClenahan, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant proposes to film killer and minke whales in McMurdo Sound and the Ross Sea for the production of a documentary film for Disneynature studio. Up to 60 killer and minke whales per year could be targeted and disturbed during aerial filming. The permit is requested for two years.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public workshop.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Pacific Council) is sponsoring a workshop to review methods used to reconstruct historical groundfish catches off Washington, Oregon, and California. The workshop is open to the public.
The Historical Catch Reconstruction Workshop will commence at 1 p.m. PST, Tuesday, November 1, 2016 and continue until 5:30 p.m. or as necessary to complete business for the day. The workshop will reconvene on Wednesday, November 2 and Thursday, November 3, starting at 8:30 a.m. PST each day and continuing as necessary to complete business for the day.
The Historical Catch Reconstruction Workshop will be held at the Sheraton Portland Airport Hotel, Garden A-B Room, 8235 NE Airport Way, Portland, OR 97220; telephone: (503) 281-2500.
Mr. John DeVore, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2413.
The purpose of the Historical Catch Reconstruction Workshop is to review proposed methods for reconstructing the historical catches of groundfish off Washington, Oregon, and California. Data stewards and others who are familiar with catch accounting systems will participate in the workshop. Recommended methods for reconstructing historical groundfish catches will be made available for use in groundfish stock assessments in 2017 and beyond. Public comments during the workshop will be received from attendees at the discretion of the chair.
Although non-emergency issues not identified in the workshop agenda may come before the workshop participants for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt at (503) 820-2425 at least 10 days prior to the workshop date.
Corporation for National and Community Service.
Notice.
The Corporation for National and Community Service (CNCS) has submitted a public information collection request (ICR) entitled September 11th Day of Service and Remembrance (September 11) and Martin Luther King Jr Day of Service (MLK) Application Instructions for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35). Copies of this ICR, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by calling the Corporation for National and Community Service, Patti Stengel, at 202-606-6745 or email to
Comments may be submitted, identified by the title of the information collection activity, within November 10, 2016.
Comments may be submitted, identified by the title of the information collection activity, to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: Ms. Sharon Mar, OMB Desk Officer for the Corporation for National and Community Service, by any of the following two methods within 30 days from the date of publication in the
(1)
(2)
The OMB is particularly interested in comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of CNCS, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Propose ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Propose ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
A 60-day Notice requesting public comment was published in the
Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Defense Health Board (DHB) will take place.
Defense Health Headquarters (DHHQ), Pavilion Salons B-C, 7700 Arlington Blvd., Falls Church, Virginia 22042 (escort required; see guidance in
The Acting Executive Director of the Defense Health Board is CAPT Juliann Althoff, 7700 Arlington Boulevard, Suite 5101, Falls Church, Virginia 22042, (703) 681-6653, Fax: (703) 681-9539,
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
Additional information, including the agenda and electronic registration, is
The purpose of the meeting is to provide progress updates on specific taskings before the DHB. In addition, the DHB will receive information briefings on current issues or lessons learned related to military medicine, health policy, health research, disease/injury prevention, health promotion, and health care delivery.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102-3.165 and subject to availability of space, the Defense Health Board meeting is open to the public from 9:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. on November 1, 2016. The DHB anticipates receiving progress updates from the Health Care Delivery Subcommittee on the pediatric health care services tasking, Public Health Subcommittee on its review of improving Defense Health Program medical research processes, and a subset of the Board on the Deployment Health Centers review. In addition, the DHB anticipates receiving information briefings on Pediatric Care in the Military Health System; the DHB history and the vision for the DHB; a Defense Suicide Prevention Office update; and a DHB Scholars Presentation to honor the innovative research being conducted in the Military Health System and to celebrate the efforts of early career investigators. Any changes to the agenda can be found at the link provided in this
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b, and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102-3.165 and subject to availability of space, this meeting is open to the public. Seating is limited and is on a first-come basis. All members of the public who wish to attend the public meeting must contact Ms. Kendal Brown at the number listed in the section
Individuals requiring special accommodations to access the public meeting should contact Ms. Kendal Brown at least five (5) business days prior to the meeting so that appropriate arrangements can be made.
Any member of the public wishing to provide comments to the DHB may do so in accordance with section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 41 CFR 102-3.105(j) and 102-3.140, and the procedures described in this notice.
Individuals desiring to provide comments to the DHB may do so by submitting a written statement to the DHB Designated Federal Officer (DFO) (see
If the written statement is not received at least five (5) business days prior to the meeting, the DFO may choose to postpone consideration of the statement until the next open meeting.
The DFO will review all timely submissions with the DHB President and ensure they are provided to members of the DHB before the meeting that is subject to this notice. After reviewing the written comments, the President and the DFO may choose to invite the submitter to orally present their issue during an open portion of this meeting or at a future meeting. The DFO, in consultation with the DHB President, may allot time for members of the public to present their issues for review and discussion by the Defense Health Board.
U.S. Department of Education, President's Advisory Commission on Educational Excellence for African Americans.
Announcement of an open meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and agenda of the meeting of the President's Advisory Commission on Educational Excellence for African Americans (PACEEAA). The notice also describes the functions of the PACEEAA. Notice of the meeting is required by § 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and is intended to notify the public of its opportunity to attend. Due to challenges associated with assembling the quorum required to carry out necessary functions prior to the end of the administration, and to ensure the availability and attendance of the chair to lead the meeting, this meeting notice is submitted late.
The PACEEAA meeting will be held October 10, 2016 from 9:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m. EST at Mason & Rook Hotel, 1430 Rhode Island Ave NW., Washington, DC 20005.
Monique Toussaint.
9:00 a.m.-11:00 a.m. EST PACEEAA Updates and Initiative Resources
11:00 a.m.-12:30 p.m. EST Policy, Program, and Transition Updates
12:30 p.m.-1:30 p.m. EST PACEEAA Member Deliberation & Discussion
1:00 p.m.-3:30 p.m. EST PACEEAA Led Engagements
3:30 p.m. EST Remarks from Secretary John King
4:00 p.m. EST Adjournment
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
PACEEEAA—Executive Order 13621, dated July 26, 2012 and extended by Executive Order 13708 dated September 30, 2015.
Office of Postsecondary Education (OPE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a new information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before November 10, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Herman Bounds, 202-453-6128.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
On September 15, 2016, Lower Village Hydroelectric Associates, L.P. (transferor) and Sugar River Power LLC (transferee) filed an application for the transfer of license of the Lower Village Project No. 9088. The project is located on the Sugar River in Sullivan County, New Hampshire.
The applicants seek Commission approval to transfer the license for the Lower Village Project from Lower Village Hydroelectric Associates, L.P. to Sugar River Power LLC.
Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, and protests: 30 days from the date that the Commission issues this notice. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
On July 19, 2016, GreenGenStorage LLC filed an application for a preliminary permit, pursuant to section 4(f) of the Federal Power Act (FPA), proposing to study the feasibility of the Mokelumne Pumped Storage Project, to be located on the North Fork Mokelumne River, Bear River, and Cole Creek, in Amador and Calaveras County, California. The sole purpose of a preliminary permit, if issued, is to grant the permit holder priority to file a license application during the permit term. A preliminary permit does not authorize the permit holder to perform any land-disturbing activities or otherwise enter upon lands or waters owned by others without the owners' express permission.
The project concept envisions the construction of a pumped storage generating facility consisting of: (1) The existing Salt Springs Reservoir (part of PG&E's currently licensed Mokelumne River Project No. 137) as the lower pool; (2) an upper reservoir using either the existing Upper Bear or Lower Bear River reservoirs (also part of PG&E's Mokelumne River Project); (3) a 16,000-foot to 20,000-foot power tunnel connecting the upper reservoir, pump turbines, and the lower reservoir; (4) an underground powerhouse containing the pump-turbines and motor-generators; (5) an approximately 3,000-foot-long transmission line; and (6) appurtenant facilities. GreenGenStorage states that based on preliminary analyses, the project would have from one to three 380-megawatt generating units and an average annual electricity production of between 523 and 742 gigawatt-hours. GreenGenStorage plans to conduct studies to help further refine the range of suitable generation capabilities and other project characteristics.
Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, competing applications (without notices of intent), or notices of intent to file competing applications: 60 days from the issuance of this notice. Competing applications and notices of intent must meet the requirements of 18 CFR 4.36.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, notices of intent, and competing applications using the Commission's eFiling system at
More information about this project, including a copy of the application, can be viewed or printed on the “eLibrary” link of Commission's Web site at
On September 28, 2016, the California American Water, Southern Division filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), as amended by section 4 of the Hydropower Regulatory Efficiency Act of 2013 (HREA). The proposed Highland Tank Pressure Reducing Valve Modernization Project would have an installed capacity of 177 kilowatts (kW) and would be located in the Highland Tank Pressure Reducing Station on an existing 24-inch-diameter water supply pipe. The project would be located near the City of San Diego in San Diego County, California.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all of the criteria shown in the table below.
The deadline for filing motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
Anyone may submit comments or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210 and 385.214. Any motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline date for the particular proceeding.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedures require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. This application has been accepted for filing, but is not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
l. The proposed project consists of: (1) An upper reservoir located within the upper portion of the mine between elevations 495 and 1,095 feet above mean seal level (msl), with a surface area of 4 acres and a storage capacity of 2,448 acre-feet; (2) a lower reservoir in the lower portion of the mine between elevations −1,075 and −1,555 feet msl, with a surface area of 5.1 acres and a storage capacity of 2,448 acre-feet; (3) a 14-foot-diameter and 2,955-foot-long upper reservoir shaft connecting the upper reservoir to the high-pressure penstock located below the powerhouse chamber floor; (4) a 14-foot-diameter and 2,955-foot-long lower reservoir shaft connecting the lower reservoir and the lower reservoir ventilation tunnel; (5) two 6-foot-diameter emergency evacuation shafts located between the powerhouse chamber and the electrical equipment chamber; (6) a 25-foot-diameter main shaft extending 2,955 feet from the surface down to the powerhouse chamber; (7) 15-foot-diameter high- and low-pressure steel penstocks embedded beneath the powerhouse chamber floor; (8) a 320-foot-long by 80-foot-wide powerhouse chamber, containing 100 reversible pump-turbine units, each with a nameplate generating capacity of 2.4 megawatts; (9) a 274-foot-long by 36-foot-wide underground electrical equipment chamber adjacent to the powerhouse chamber; (10) an inclined electrical tunnel connecting the electrical equipment chamber to a new 115-kilovolt (kV) substation constructed adjacent to an existing single circuit 115-kV transmission line located about one horizontal mile from the underground powerhouse chamber; and (11) appurtenant facilities. The project would operate as a closed-loop system to meet energy demands and grid control requirements. The project would have an average annual generation of 421 gigawatt-hours (GWh). The average pumping power used by the project would be 554 GWh.
m. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Register online at
n. Any qualified applicant desiring to file a competing application must submit to the Commission, on or before the specified intervention deadline date, a competing development application, or a notice of intent to file such an application. Submission of a timely notice of intent allows an interested person to file the competing development application no later than 120 days after the specified intervention deadline date. Applications for preliminary permits will not be accepted in response to this notice.
A notice of intent must specify the exact name, business address, and telephone number of the prospective applicant, and must include an unequivocal statement of intent to submit a development application. A notice of intent must be served on the applicant(s) named in this public notice.
Anyone may submit a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
When the application is ready for environmental analysis, the Commission will issue a public notice requesting comments, recommendations, terms and conditions, or prescriptions.
All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “PROTEST” or “MOTION TO INTERVENE,” “NOTICE OF INTENT TO FILE COMPETING APPLICATION,” or “COMPETING APPLICATION;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of
Take notice that Dynegy Estero Bay Wave Park, LLC, permittee for the proposed Estero Bay Wave Park Project, has requested that its preliminary permit be terminated. The permit was issued on October 28, 2014, and would have expired on November 1, 2017.
The preliminary permit for Project No. 14585 will remain in effect until the close of business, November 3, 2016. But, if the Commission is closed on this day, then the permit remains in effect until the close of business on the next day in which the Commission is open.
Take notice that Dynegy Point Estero Wave Park, LLC, permittee for the proposed Point Estero Wave Park Project, has requested that its preliminary permit be terminated. The permit was issued on October 28, 2014, and would have expired on November 1, 2017.
The preliminary permit for Project No. 14584 will remain in effect until the close of business, November 3, 2016. But, if the Commission is closed on this day, then the permit remains in effect until the close of business on the next day in which the Commission is open.
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, and recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. This application has been accepted for filing and is now ready for environmental analysis.
l. The proposed Natick Pond Dam Hydroelectric Project would consist of: (1) An existing 265-foot-long granite block dam with a 19.3-foot-high, 166-foot-long spillway; (2) an existing 58-foot to 125.3-foot-wide, 1-foot- to 28-foot-deep earth embankment; (3) an existing 44-foot-long, 4-foot- to 20-foot-high south granite block training wall; (4) an existing 1,244-foot-long, 18-foot- to 41.25-foot-high granite block and cobble stone north training wall; (5) an existing 4-foot-wide, 6-foot-high granite
m. Due to the applicant's close coordination with federal and state agencies during the preparation of the application, completed studies during pre-filing consultation, and agency recommended preliminary terms and conditions, we intend to waive scoping and expedite the exemption process. Based on a review of the application, resource agency consultation letters including the preliminary 30(c) terms and conditions, and comments filed to date, Commission staff intends to prepare a single environmental assessment (EA). Commission staff determined that the issues that need to be addressed in its EA have been adequately identified during the pre-filing period, which included a public scoping meeting and site visit, and no new issues are likely to be identified through additional scoping. The EA will consider assessing the potential effects of project construction and operation on geology and soils, aquatic, terrestrial, threatened and endangered species, recreation and land use, aesthetic, and cultural and historic resources.
n. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
o. Any qualified applicant desiring to file a competing application must submit to the Commission, on or before the specified intervention deadline date, a competing development application, or a notice of intent to file such an application. Submission of a timely notice of intent allows an interested person to file the competing development application no later than 120 days after the specified intervention deadline date. Applications for preliminary permits will not be accepted in response to this notice.
A notice of intent must specify the exact name, business address, and telephone number of the prospective applicant, and must include an unequivocal statement of intent to submit a development application. A notice of intent must be served on the applicant(s) named in this public notice.
Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “PROTEST”, “MOTION TO INTERVENE”, “NOTICE OF INTENT TO FILE COMPETING APPLICATION,” “COMPETING APPLICATION,” “COMMENTS,” “REPLY COMMENTS,” “RECOMMENDATIONS,” or “TERMS AND CONDITIONS;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, recommendations, terms and conditions or prescriptions must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed in the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of Public Advisory Committee Teleconference.
Under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, EPA gives notice of a teleconference meeting of the Farm, Ranch, and Rural Communities Committee (FRRCC). The FRRCC is a policy-oriented committee that provides policy advice, information, and recommendations to the EPA Administrator on a range of environmental issues and policies that are of importance to agriculture and rural communities.
The Farm, Ranch, and Rural Communities Committee will hold a public teleconference on October 27th, 2016 from 2:00 p.m. until 4:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time.
The meeting will be held at the U.S. EPA North Building, 1200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 2317, Washington, DC 20004.
Lena Ferris, Acting Designated Federal Officer,
Members of the public wishing to gain access to the teleconference, make brief oral comments, or provide a written statement to the FRRCC must contact Lena Ferris, Acting Designated Federal Officer, at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is seeking applications for the 2017 Safer Choice Partner of the Year Awards. In 2015, EPA developed the Partner of the Year Awards to recognize Safer Choice stakeholders who have advanced the goals of the Pollution Prevention Act and the Safer Choice program by reducing pollution at its source through safer chemistry. At the 2017 Partner of the Year Awards, as at the two prior awards, Safer Choice will recognize stakeholder organizations from five broad categories: Formulators/Product Manufacturers of both Consumer and Institutional/Industrial (I/I) products, Purchasers and Distributors, Retailers, Supporters (
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are a Safer Choice program partner or stakeholder. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
The full Safer Choice Partner of the Year Awards announcement and award application materials can be found at:
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0785, is available at
EPA is seeking applications for the 2017 Safer Choice Partner of the Year Awards. In 2015, EPA developed the Partner of the Year Awards to recognize Safer Choice stakeholders who have advanced the goals of the Pollution
The award application and instructions are available at
15 U.S.C. 2601
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Thursday, October 13, 2016, 1:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
Jacqueline A. Berrien Training Center on the First Floor of the EEOC Office Building, 131 M Street NE., Washington, DC 20507.
The meeting will be open to the public.
Please telephone (202) 663-7100 (voice) and (202) 663-4074 (TTY) at any time for information on these meetings. The EEOC provides sign language interpretation and Communication Access Realtime Translation (CART) services at Commission meetings for the hearing impaired. Requests for other reasonable accommodations may be made by using the voice and TTY numbers listed above.
Bernadette B. Wilson, Acting Executive Officer on (202) 663-4077.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10498 AztecAmerica Bank, Berwyn, Illinois (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of AztecAmerica Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective October 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10281 Independent National Bank, Ocala, Florida (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Independent National Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective October 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10159 Valley Capital Bank, N.A., Mesa, Arizona (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Valley Capital Bank, N.A. (Receivership Estate); the
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective October 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10492 DuPage National Bank, West Chicago, Illinois (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of DuPage National Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective October 01, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10490 Bank of Jackson County, Graceville, Florida (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Bank of Jackson County (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective October 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than November 1, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis (David L. Hubbard, Senior Manager) P.O. Box 442, St. Louis, Missouri 63166-2034. Comments can also be sent electronically to
1.
B. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
1.
Office of Government Ethics (OGE).
Notice of request for agency and public comments.
After this first round notice and public comment period, the U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE) plans to submit a proposed modified OGE Form 201 Ethics in Government Act access form to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval of a three-year extension under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The OGE Form 201 is used by persons requesting access to executive branch public financial disclosure reports and other covered records.
Written comments by the public and agencies on this proposed extension are invited and must be received by December 12, 2016.
Comments may be submitted to OGE, by any of the following methods:
Brandon Steele at the U.S. Office of Government Ethics; telephone: 202-482-9209; TTY: 800-877-8339; FAX: 202-482-9237; Email:
OGE is proposing modifications to the automated version of the OGE Form 201, available only through the OGE Web site at
OGE also intends to update the maximum civil monetary penalty for improperly obtaining or using a public financial disclosure report on both the automated and nonautomated versions of the form, in accordance with 5 CFR 2634.703.
Office of Government Ethics (OGE).
Notice of request for agency and public comments.
After this first round notice and public comment period, the Office of Government Ethics (OGE) plans to submit a modified OGE Form 450 Executive Branch Confidential Financial Disclosure Report to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval of a three-year extension under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments by the public and agencies on this proposed extension are invited and must be received by December 12, 2016.
Comments may be submitted to OGE, by any of the following methods:
Brandon Steele at the U.S. Office of Government Ethics; telephone: 202-482-9209; TTY: 800-877-8339; FAX: 202-482-9237; Email:
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), HHS.
Notice of five AHRQ subcommittee meetings.
The subcommittees listed below are part of AHRQ's Health Services Research Initial Review Group Committee. Grant applications are to be reviewed and discussed at these meetings. Each subcommittee meeting will commence in open session before closing to the public for the duration of the meeting. These meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with 5 U.S.C. App. 2 section 10(d), 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4), and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6).
See below for dates of meetings:
1. Healthcare Safety and Quality Improvement Research (HSQR)
2. Health Care Research and Training (HCRT)
3. Health System and Value Research (HSVR)
4. Healthcare Effectiveness and Outcomes Research (HEOR)
5. Healthcare Information Technology Research (HITR)
(Below specifics where each meeting will be held)
Gaithersburg Marriott Washingtonian Center, 9751 Washingtonian Blvd., Gaithersburg, MD 20878.
The Even Hotel, 1775 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20857.
(To obtain a roster of members, agenda or minutes of the non-confidential portions of the meetings.)
Mrs. Bonnie Campbell, Committee Management Officer, Office of Extramural Research Education and Priority Populations, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857, Telephone (301) 427-1554.
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2), AHRQ announces meetings of the scientific peer review groups listed above, which are subcommittees of AHRQ's Health Services Research Initial Review Group Committees. Each subcommittee meeting will commence in open session before closing to the public for the duration of the meeting. The subcommittee meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in 5 U.S.C. App. 2 section 10(d), 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4), and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Agenda items for these meetings are subject to change as priorities dictate.
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
Notice of Computer Matching Program.
In accordance with the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, this notice announces the establishment of a Computer Matching Program that CMS plans to conduct with the Peace Corps (PC).
The public should send comments to: CMS Privacy Act Officer, Division of Security, Privacy Policy & Governance, Information Security & Privacy Group, Office of Enterprise Information, CMS, Room N l-24-08, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244-1850. Comments received will be available for review at this location, by appointment, during regular business hours, Monday through Friday from 9:00 a.m.-3:00 p.m., Eastern Time zone.
Lindsey Murtagh, Center for Consumer Information and Insurance Oversight, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Phone: (301) 492-4106, E-Mail:
The Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (Public Law (Pub. L.) 100-503), amended the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) by describing the manner in which computer matching involving Federal agencies could be performed and adding certain protections for individuals applying for and receiving Federal benefits. Section 7201 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-508) further amended the Privacy Act regarding protections for such individuals. The Privacy Act, as amended, regulates the use of computer matching by Federal agencies when records in a system of records are matched with other Federal, state, or local government records. It requires Federal agencies involved in a CMP to:
1. Negotiate written agreements with the other agencies participating in the matching programs;
2. Obtain the Data Integrity Board approval of the match agreements;
3. Furnish detailed reports about matching programs to Congress and OMB;
4. Notify applicants and beneficiaries that the records are subject to matching; and,
5. Verify match findings before reducing, suspending, terminating, or denying an individual's benefits or payments.
Computer Matching Agreement between the Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services and the Peace Corps for the “Verification of Eligibility for Minimum Essential Coverage Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Through a Peace Corps Health Benefits Plan.”
Unclassified.
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), and the Peace Corps (PC).
Sections 1411 and 1413 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-148), as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-152) (collectively, the ACA) require the Secretary of HHS to establish a program for applying for and determining eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions and authorize use of secure, electronic interfaces and an on-line system for the verification of eligibility.
The Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (CMPPA) (Public Law 100-503), amended the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and requires the parties participating in a matching program to execute a written agreement specifying the terms and conditions under which the matching will be conducted. CMS has determined that status verification checks to be conducted through the CMS Data Services Hub (Hub) by agencies administering insurance affordability programs using data provided in bulk by PC through a security transfer data protocol to CMS constitute a “computer matching program” as defined in the CMPPA.
The purpose of the Computer Matching Agreement is to establish the terms, conditions, safeguards, and procedures under which the Peace Corps will provide records, information, or data to CMS for verifying eligibility for Minimum Essential Coverage through a Peace Corps Health Benefits Plan. The data will be used by CMS in its capacity as a Federally-facilitated Exchange, and agencies administering insurance affordability programs that will receive the results of verifications using PC data obtained through the CMS Data Services Hub.
Data will be matched for the purpose of verifying an Applicant or Enrollee's eligibility for PC Health Benefit Plans that constitute minimum essential coverage as defined in § 5000A(f) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 5000A, as amended by § 1501 of the ACA.
The Peace Corps maintains the following SORN to support this data matching program: “Peace Corps Manual Section 897, Attachment B, PC-17 Volunteer Applicant and Service Records System.” Routine Use (i) is used “to verify active or former Volunteer service”—supports disclosure to CMS.
CMS maintains the following SORN to support this data to support this data matching program: “Health Insurance Exchanges Program (HIX)”, CMS System No. 09-70-0560, originally published at 78 FR 8538 (Feb. 6, 2013), and last amended at 78 Federal Register, 63211 (October 23, 2013).
The CMP will become effective no sooner than 40 days after the report of the matching program is sent to OMB, 30 days after a copy of the matching agreement is transmitted to Congress, or 30 days after publication in the
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of Computer Matching Program (CMP).
In accordance with the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, this notice announces the establishment of a CMP that CMS plans to conduct with the Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Lindsey Murtagh, Center for Consumer Information and Insurance Oversight, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Phone: (301) 492-4106, E-Mail:
The Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (Public Law (Pub. L) 100-503), amended the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) by describing the manner in which computer matching involving Federal agencies could be performed and adding certain protections for individuals applying for and receiving Federal benefits. Section 7201 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-508) further amended the Privacy Act regarding protections for such individuals. The Privacy Act, as amended, regulates the use of computer matching by Federal agencies when records in a system of records are matched with other Federal, state, or local government records. It requires Federal agencies involved in computer matching programs (CMP) to:
1. Negotiate written agreements with the other agencies participating in the matching programs;
2. Obtain the Data Integrity Board approval of the match agreements;
3. Furnish detailed reports about matching programs to Congress and OMB;
4. Notify applicants and beneficiaries that the records are subject to matching; and,
5. Verify match findings before reducing, suspending, terminating, or denying an individual's benefits or payments.
This matching program meets the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended.
“Computer Matching Agreement between the Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services and the Office of Personnel Management For The Verification of Eligibility For Minimum Essential Coverage Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Through an Office of Personnel Management Health Benefits Plan.”
Unclassified.
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), and the Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Sections 1411 and 1413 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-148), as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-152) (collectively, the ACA) require the Secretary of HHS to establish a program for applying for and determining eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions and authorize use of secure, electronic interfaces and an on-line system for the verification of eligibility.
The Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (CMPPA) (Public Lawl00-503), amended the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and requires the parties participating in a matching program to execute a written agreement specifying the terms and conditions under which the matching will be conducted. CMS has determined that status verification checks to be conducted through the CMS Data Services Hub (Hub) by agencies administering applicable State health subsidy programs using the Enterprise Human Resources Integration Data Warehouse (EHRIDW) Status File provided to CMS by OPM constitute a “computer matching program” as defined in the CMPPA.
The purpose of the Computer Matching Agreement is to establish the terms, conditions, safeguards, and procedures under which OPM will provide records, information, or data to CMS for verifying eligibility for Minimum Essential Coverage through an OPM Federal Employees Health Benefits Plan. The data will be used by CMS in its capacity as a Federally-facilitated Exchange, and agencies administering applicable State health subsidy programs that will receive the results of verifications using OPM data obtained through the CMS Data Services Hub.
Data will be matched for the purpose of verifying an Applicant or Enrollee's eligibility for OPM Federal Employees Health Benefit Plans that constitute minimum essential coverage as defined in 5000A(f) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 5000A, as amended by 1501 of the ACA.
The CMP will be conducted with data maintained by CMS in the Health Insurance Exchanges (HIX) Program, CMS System No. 09-70-0560, as amended. The system is described in
The OPM System of Records for this matching program is titled “General Personnel Records” (OPM/GOVT-1), published at 77
The CMP will become effective no sooner than 40 days after the report of the matching program is sent to 0MB, 30 days after a copy of the matching agreement is transmitted to Congress, or 30 days after publication in the
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by December 12, 2016.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
1.
2.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Sunscreen Innovation Act: Section 586C(c) Advisory Committee Process.” This guidance explains the process by which FDA intends to carry out the section of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Sunscreen Innovation Act (SIA), which governs the convening of advisory committees to provide recommendations on requests submitted under the SIA regarding nonprescription sunscreen active ingredients and the number of requests to be considered per meeting. The recommendations in this guidance apply to 586A requests submitted under the FD&C Act and to pending requests as defined by the SIA that seek a determination from FDA on whether a nonprescription sunscreen active ingredient, or a combination of nonprescription sunscreen active ingredients, is generally recognized as safe and effective (GRASE) for use under specified conditions and should be included in the over-the-counter (OTC) sunscreen drug monograph. The SIA describes specific circumstances under which FDA is not required to convene or submit requests to the Nonprescription Drugs Advisory Committee (NDAC). We are issuing this guidance pursuant to the SIA, which directs FDA to issue guidance on four topics, including the topic discussed in this guidance. This guidance finalizes the draft guidance on the same topic issued on November 23, 2015.
Submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Kristen Hardin, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 5443, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 240-402-4246.
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Sunscreen Innovation Act: Section 586C(c) Advisory Committee Process.” This guidance provides background information on the sunscreen OTC monograph process, as well as on the Agency's intended process for convening the NDAC. It also recommends procedures for sponsors of 586A requests (submitted under section 586A of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360fff-1)) and for sponsors of pending requests (as defined by section 586(6) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360fff (6))) to follow in requesting an NDAC meeting. This guidance also explains how FDA intends to process these requests and describes the factors the Agency may consider in determining whether and when to refer such requests to the NDAC.
This guidance finalizes the draft guidance that was issued under the same title on November 23, 2015 (see 80 FR 72972), and reflects FDA's consideration of public comments on the draft guidance. The draft guidance and related public comments are publicly available in Docket No. FDA-2015-D-3990. In addition to minor editorial changes, we have clarified the information in section III of the guidance on when to submit a request for an NDAC meeting.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on the process by which the Agency will carry out section 586C(c) of the SIA (21 U.S.C. 360fff-3). It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the guidance at either
This guidance contains collections of information that are exempt from the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA). Section 586D(a)(1)(C) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C 360fff-4(a)(1)(C)) states that the PRA shall not apply to collections of information made for purposes of guidance under section 586D(a).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Sunscreen Innovation Act: Withdrawal of a 586A Request or Pending Request.” This guidance provides recommendations for the process for withdrawing a 586A request submitted under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Sunscreen Innovation Act (SIA), and withdrawing a pending request, as defined by the SIA. The recommendations in this guidance apply to 586A requests and pending requests that seek a determination from FDA of whether a nonprescription sunscreen active ingredient, or a combination of nonprescription sunscreen active ingredients, is generally recognized as safe and effective (GRASE) for use under specified conditions and should be included in the over-the-counter (OTC) sunscreen drug monograph. We are issuing this guidance under the SIA, which directs FDA to issue guidance on various topics, including guidance on the process by which a request under section 586A or a pending request is withdrawn. This guidance finalizes the draft guidance issued on November 23, 2015.
Submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Kristen Hardin, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 5443, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 240-402-4246.
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Sunscreen Innovation Act; Withdrawal of a 586A Request or Pending Request.” This guidance provides background information on the sunscreen OTC monograph process and the new procedures under the SIA (21 U.S.C. 360fff), for reviewing 586A requests (requests made under section 586A of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360fff-1)) and pending requests for nonprescription sunscreen active ingredients (the SIA process). This guidance provides recommendations for the general withdrawal process for 586A requests and pending requests. At certain stages of the SIA process, a sponsor who submitted the 586A request or pending request might seek to have it withdrawn, or a request may be withdrawn due to the sponsor's failure to act on the request and failure to respond to communications from FDA. This guidance addresses the expected effect of a withdrawal on key phases of the SIA process, including withdrawals made prior to or after the initial eligibility determination, the submission of safety and efficacy data, the filing determination, or the GRASE determination. This guidance also discusses the submission of a new 586A request for the same sunscreen ingredient for which a 586A or pending request had been previously submitted and withdrawn.
This guidance finalizes the draft guidance that was issued under the same title on November 23, 2015 (see 80 FR 72970), and reflects FDA's consideration of public comments on the draft guidance. The draft guidance and related public comments are publicly available in Docket No. FDA-2015-D-4012. In addition to minor editorial changes, we have clarified the use of publicly available data and information submitted to the docket as it pertains to the withdrawal process.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on the withdrawal of 586A requests and pending requests under the SIA. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the guidance at either
This guidance contains collections of information that are exempt from the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA). Section 586D(a)(1)(C) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C 360fff-4(a)(1)(C)) states that the PRA shall not apply to collections of information made for purposes of guidance under section 586D(a).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the guidance entitled “Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose Test Systems for Over-the-Counter Use.” This document describes studies and criteria that FDA recommends be used when submitting premarket notifications (510(k)s) for self-monitoring blood glucose test systems (SMBGs) intended for over-the-counter (OTC) home use by lay-users.
Submit either electronic or written comments on this guidance at any time. General comments on Agency guidance documents are welcome at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public submit, the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Leslie Landree, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4623, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6147.
This document describes studies and criteria that FDA recommends be used when submitting 510(k)s for SMBGs which are for OTC home use by lay users. FDA intends for this document to serve as a guide for manufacturers in conducting appropriate performance studies and preparing 510(k)s for these device types. This document is not meant to address blood glucose monitoring test systems (BGMSs) which are intended for prescription point-of-care use in professional healthcare settings (
Historically, FDA has not recommended different types of information in 510(k)s for BGMSs used by healthcare professionals as compared to SMBGs intended for home use by lay users. However, it has become increasingly clear that these different use settings have distinct intended use populations with unique characteristics that can impact device design specifications, and that manufacturers should take these unique characteristics into account when designing their devices. In order to distinguish between FDA recommendations for prescription-use BGMSs, which are intended for use in point-of-care professional healthcare settings, and SMBGs intended for use for self-monitoring by lay users, the Agency is issuing two separate guidances for: (1) Prescription use blood glucose meters, for use in point-of-care professional healthcare settings and (2) OTC SMBG devices intended for home use for self-monitoring by lay persons. FDA believes that in making this distinction, SMBGs can be better designed to meet the needs of their intended use populations, thereby providing greater safety and efficacy. While FDA recommends that the information described in this guidance be included in premarket submissions for SMBGs, submissions containing alternative information may be sufficient if able to demonstrate
In the
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose Test Systems for Over-the-Counter Use.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations and guidance. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807 subpart E have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR 801 and 21 CFR 809.10 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 820 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0073; and the collections of information in the guidance document “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0756.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the guidance entitled “Blood Glucose Monitoring Test Systems for Prescription Point-of-Care Use.” This document describes studies and criteria that FDA recommends be used when submitting premarket notifications (510(k)s) for blood glucose monitoring systems (BGMSs) which are for prescription point-of-care use in professional healthcare settings. FDA intends for this document to serve as a guide for manufacturers in conducting appropriate performance studies and preparing 510(k)s for these device types.
Submit either electronic or written comments on this guidance at any time. General comments on Agency guidance documents are welcome at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public submit, the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Leslie Landree, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, Bldg. 66, Rm. 4623, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6147.
This document describes studies and criteria that FDA recommends be used when submitting 510(k)s for BGMSs which are for prescription point-of-care use in professional settings. FDA intends for this document to serve as a guide for manufacturers in conducting appropriate performance studies and preparing 510(k)s for these device types. This document is not meant to address self-monitoring blood glucose test systems (SMBGs) for over-the-counter (OTC) home use by lay-users. Elsewhere in this issue of the
Historically, FDA has not recommended different types of information in 510(k)s for BGMSs used by healthcare professionals as compared to SMBGs intended for home use by lay-users. However, it has become increasingly clear that these different use settings have distinct intended use populations with unique characteristics that can impact device design specifications, and that manufacturers should take these unique characteristics into account when designing their devices. In order to distinguish between FDA recommendations for prescription-use blood glucose meters, which are intended for use in point-of-care professional healthcare settings, and SMBG devices intended for home use for self-monitoring by lay-persons, the Agency is issuing two separate guidances for (i) BGMSs intended for use in point-of-care professional healthcare settings, and (ii) SMBGs intended for home use for self-monitoring by lay-users. FDA believes that in making this distinction, BGMSs can be better designed to meet the needs of their intended use populations, thereby providing greater safety and efficacy.
Because BGMSs are used in professional healthcare settings, they are more likely to be used on multiple patients. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have expressed concern over the possibility that blood glucose meters can transmit bloodborne pathogens if these devices are contaminated with blood specimens and shared between users without effective cleaning, disinfecting, and appropriate infection control measures. This document describes certain design features and capacity for cleaning and disinfection to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens.
In addition, concerns have been raised citing the inability of currently cleared BGMSs to perform effectively in professional healthcare settings because these devices have not been adequately evaluated in some of the populations in which they are being used. Patients in professional healthcare settings are often fundamentally different than lay-users using these devices at home. Patients in professional healthcare settings can be acutely ill and medically fragile and are more likely to present physiological and pathological factors that could interfere with glucose measurements relative to lay-users. Errors in BGMSs accuracy can lead to incorrect insulin dosing, which, when combined with other factors, can lead to increased episodes of hypoglycemia. For hospitalized patients who may be seriously ill, glucose meter inaccuracies could further increase risk to health. This document describes studies that can be conducted to demonstrate BGMS performance for devices intended to be used in diverse professional healthcare settings on subjects in various states of health. While FDA recommends that the information described in this guidance be included in premarket submissions for BGMSs, submissions containing alternative information may be sufficient if able to demonstrate substantial equivalence to a legally marketed predicate device.
In the
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Blood Glucose Monitoring Test Systems for Prescription Point-of-Care Use.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations and guidance. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807 subpart E have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR 801 and 21 CFR 809.10 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 820 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0073; the collections of information in the guidance document “Recommendations: Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0598; and the collections of information in the guidance document “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0756.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of an Interagency Autism Coordinating Committee (IACC or Committee) meeting.
The purpose of the IACC meeting is to discuss business, agency updates, and issues related to autism spectrum disorder (ASD) research and services activities. The Committee will discuss the 2016-2017 update of the IACC Strategic Plan. The meeting will be open to the public and will be accessible by webcast and conference call.
For IACC Public Comment guidelines please see:
A limited number of slots for oral comment are available, and in order to ensure that as many different individuals are able to present throughout the year as possible, any given individual only will be permitted to present oral comments once per calendar year (2016). Only one representative of an organization will be allowed to present oral comments in any given meeting; other representatives of the same group may provide written comments. If the oral comment session is full, individuals who could not be accommodated are welcome to provide written comments instead. Comments to be read or presented in the meeting must not exceed 250 words or 3 minutes, but a longer version may be submitted in writing for the record. Commenters going beyond the 250 word or 3 minute time limit in the meeting may be asked to conclude immediately in order to allow other comments and presentations to proceed on schedule.
Any interested person may submit written public comments to the IACC prior to the meeting by emailing the comments to
In the 2009 IACC Strategic Plan, the IACC listed the “Spirit of Collaboration” as one of its core values, stating that, “We will treat others with respect, listen to diverse views with open minds, discuss submitted public comments, and foster discussions where participants can comfortably offer opposing opinions.” In keeping with this core value, the IACC and the NIMH Office of Autism Research Coordination (OARC) ask that members of the public who provide public comments or participate in meetings of the IACC also seek to treat others with respect and consideration in their communications and actions, even when discussing issues of genuine concern or disagreement.
Individuals wishing to participate in person or by using these electronic services and who need special assistance, such as captioning of the conference call or other reasonable accommodations, should submit a request to the Contact Person listed on this notice at least five days prior to the meeting.
Meeting schedule subject to change.
Information about the IACC is available on the Web site:
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the meeting of the National Science Advisory Board for Biosecurity (NSABB).
Under authority 42 U.S.C. 217a, Section 222 of the Public Health Service Act, as amended, the Department of Health and Human Services established the National Science Advisory Board for Biosecurity (NSABB) to provide advice regarding federal oversight of dual use research—defined as legitimate biological research that generates information and technologies that could be misused to pose a biological threat to public health and/or national security.
The toll-free teleconference line will be open to the public at 11:30 a.m. to allow time for operator-assisted check-in. Persons planning to participate in the teleconference may also pre-register online via the link provided below or by calling Palladian Partners, Inc. (Contact: Ida Donner at 301-273-2838). Pre-registration will close at 12:00 p.m. Eastern on November 1, 2016. After that time, attendees may register their information with the teleconference operator upon dialing into the meeting. Individuals who plan to participate and need special assistance should submit a request to the contact person listed on this notice by October 28.
In addition, interested persons may file written comments at any time with the Board via an email sent to
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, NIEHS.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in section 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH SCIENCES, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until November 10, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Coastal Barrier Resources Act (CBRA) requires the Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) to review the maps of the John H. Chafee Coastal Barrier Resources System (CBRS) at least once every 5 years and make any minor and technical modifications to the boundaries of the CBRS as are necessary to reflect changes that have occurred in the size or location of any CBRS unit as a result of natural forces. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service) has conducted this review and has prepared draft revised maps for 14 CBRS units in Louisiana, all units in Puerto Rico, and all units in the U.S. Virgin Islands. The
To ensure consideration, the Service must receive written comments by November 10, 2016.
Mail comments to Katie Niemi, Coastal Barriers Coordinator, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Ecological Services Program, 5275 Leesburg Pike, MS: ES, Falls Church, VA 22041, or send comments by electronic mail (email) to
Katie Niemi, Coastal Barriers Coordinator; (703) 358-2071 (telephone); or
Background information on the CBRA (16 U.S.C. 3501
For information on how to access the draft revised maps, see Availability of Draft Maps and Related Information.
This notice fulfills a requirement under the CBRA (16 U.S.C. 3503(f)(3)) that the Secretary publish a notice in the
The Service's review of 14 CBRS units in Louisiana, all units in Puerto Rico, and all units in the U.S. Virgin Islands resulted in a set of 65 draft revised maps, dated July 8, 2016, depicting a total of 121 CBRS units. The set of maps includes 31 maps for 14 CBRS units located in Louisiana; 28 maps for 70 CBRS units located in Puerto Rico; and 6 maps for 37 CBRS units located in the U.S. Virgin Islands. The Service's review of these areas found a total of 41 CBRS units that require modifications due to natural changes in the size or location of the units since they were last mapped.
Following the close of the comment period on the date listed in the
Below is a summary of the changes depicted on the draft revised maps.
The Service's review found 6 of the 14 CBRS units in Louisiana that are included in this review (Units LA-03P, LA-04P, LA-05P, LA-07, LA-08P, LA-09, LA-10, S01, S01A, S02, S08, S09, S10, and S11) to have changed due to natural forces.
The remaining seven Louisiana CBRS units not included in this review (Units LA-01, LA-02, S03, S04, S05, S06, and S07) were remapped and referenced in notices the Service published in the
LA-03P: CHANDELEUR ISLANDS UNIT. A portion of the western boundary of the unit has been moved westward to account for the migration of the Chandeleur Islands and to include associated shoals within the unit. In some places, the boundary has been generalized due to a lack of remaining features in the area.
LA-05P: MARSH ISLAND/RAINEY UNIT. The northern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for wetland erosion along Vermilion Bay and West Cote Blanche Bay. The eastern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for wetland erosion along East Cote Blanche Bay. Due to the significant rate of erosion in this area, some of the boundaries have been generalized.
LA-10: CALCASIEU PASS UNIT. A portion of the northern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for wetland erosion along West Cove. Due to the significant rate of erosion in this area, some of the boundaries have been generalized.
S01: BASTIAN BAY COMPLEX. Portions of the eastern and northern boundaries of the unit have been modified and generalized due to wetland loss along Bay Jacques, Fleur Pond, Pipeline Canal, Scofield Bay, and Shell Island Bay. The western boundary coincident with Unit S01A has been moved eastward to account for accretion at the eastern end of an unnamed island between Bay Joe Wise and the Gulf of Mexico.
S01A: BAY JOE WISE COMPLEX. The eastern boundary coincident with Unit S01 has been moved eastward to account for accretion at the eastern end of an unnamed island between Bay Joe Wise and the Gulf of Mexico. The western boundary of the unit has been modified to account for the northward migration of an unnamed island between Bay Cheniere Ronquille and the Gulf of Mexico.
S10: MERMENTAU RIVER UNIT. A portion of the eastern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for shoreline erosion along the Gulf of Mexico near Beach Prong. The southern boundary of the excluded area at the western end of the unit has been modified to account for shoreline erosion along the Gulf of Mexico.
The Service's review found 22 of the 70 CBRS units in Puerto Rico to have changed due to natural forces. Maps for the following CBRS units in Puerto Rico are depicted on U.S. Geological Survey topographic quadrangles instead of aerial imagery: PR-07 PR-09P, PR-10, PR-45P, PR-49P, PR-61, PR-63P, PR-64P, and PR-65P.
PR-07: LAGUNA AGUAS PRIETAS UNIT. A portion of the excluded area boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline along Laguna Aguas Prietas and the Atlantic Ocean.
PR-09P: RIO FAJARDO UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-10: PUNTA BARRANCAS UNIT. The northern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-16P: PUERTO DEL MANGLAR UNIT. A portion of the eastern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface.
PR-17P: ENSENADA SOMBE UNIT. A portion of the western boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along the shoreline of Ensenada Sombe. Portions of the northeastern boundary were modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline of an unnamed ponding area.
PR-18P: CAYO ALGODONES UNIT. A portion of the northern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along an unnamed channel. A portion of the northeastern boundary has been modified to account for natural changes that have
PR-40: PUNTA TUNA UNIT. A portion of the northwestern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-41: RIO MAUNABO UNIT. The western lateral boundary of the unit has been extended to clarify the extent of the unit. No modifications were made to the boundaries of this unit as a result of changes due to natural forces.
PR-45P: BAHIA DE JOBOS UNIT. A portion of the northwestern landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves of Mar Negro.
PR-49P: PUNTA AGUILA UNIT. A portion of the northwestern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline along an unnamed bay.
PR-55: ISLA DEL FRIO UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline along the Caribbean Sea.
PR-56: PUNTA CABULLONES UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-61: ENSENADA LAS PARDAS UNIT. The landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-63P: CAYO DON LUIS UNIT. The northeastern portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along the shoreline of an unnamed ponding area.
PR-64P: BAHIA MONTALVA UNIT. A portion of the northeastern landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along the shoreline of Bahia Montalva. Portions of the northwest and northeast landward boundary have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves. Portions of the excluded area boundary have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface along Isla Matei.
PR-65P: ISLA CUEVA/GUAYACAN UNIT. Portions of the northeastern and northwestern landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-66: CABO ROJO UNIT. A portion of the northeastern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline of an unnamed lake.
PR-67P: BAHIA DE BOQUERON UNIT. A portion of the northwestern landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline along Laguna Guaniquilla. A portion of the southeastern boundary has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along the shoreline of an island located in the channel of Caño Boquerón.
PR-69: PUNTA CARENERO UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface.
PR-83: TORTUGUERO UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface. Portions of the boundary have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along the shoreline of Laguna Tortuguero.
PR-84: PUNTA GARZA UNIT. A portion of the western boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the mangroves.
PR-86P: PUNTA SALINAS UNIT. A portion of the northern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the shoreline along Bahía Toa.
PR-87: PUNTA VACIA TALEGA UNIT. A portion of the southwestern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of Canal Blasina. A portion of the southern boundary has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface.
The Service's review found 13 of the 37 CBRS units in the U.S. Virgin Islands to have changed due to natural forces.
VI-01: RUST UP TWIST UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to reflect natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface. The western lateral boundary has been extended offshore to clarify the extent of the unit.
VI-02: SALT RIVER BAY UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to reflect natural changes that have occurred in the wetland/fastland interface.
VI-03: ALTONA LAGOON UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to reflect natural changes that have occurred in the wetland/fastland interface.
VI-06: ROBIN BAY UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline along an unnamed salt pond.
VI-09: KRAUSE LAGOON UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to reflect natural changes that have occurred in the wetland/fastland interface. The eastern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred along Krause Lagoon Channel.
VI-10: LONG POINT UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for shoreline erosion along Long Point Bay.
VI-11: WESTEND SALTPOND UNIT. A portion of the northeastern boundary of the unit has been modified to account for shoreline erosion along Westend Saltpond.
VI-11P: WESTEND SALTPOND UNIT. Offshore boundaries have been added at the western end of the unit to clarify the extent of the unit. The eastern lateral boundary has been extended offshore to clarify the extent of the unit. No modifications were made to the boundaries of this unit as a result of changes due to natural forces.
VI-12P: CINNAMON BAY UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to account for shoreline erosion along Cinnamon Bay.
VI-13P: MAHO BAY UNIT. A portion of the landward boundary of the unit has been modified to reflect natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the wetland/fastland interface.
VI-15P: LEINSTER BAY UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for shoreline erosion along Leinster Bay and natural changes that have occurred in the wetland/fastland interface.
VI-19P: RAM HEAD UNIT. Lateral offshore boundaries have been added to the eastern and western ends of the unit to clarify the extent of the unit. No modifications were made to the boundaries of this unit as a result of changes due to natural forces.
VI-27: LIMESTONE BAY UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit were modified to reflect natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the marsh adjacent to Limestone Bay.
VI-29: MAGENS BAY UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline along Magens Bay.
VI-32: VESSUP BAY UNIT. An offshore boundary has been added to the unit in Vessup Bay to clarify the extent of the unit. No modifications were made to the boundaries of this unit as a result of changes due to natural forces.
VI-34: JERSEY BAY UNIT. Portions of the landward boundary of the unit have been modified to account for natural changes that have occurred in the configuration of the shoreline and wetland/fastland interface. The eastern lateral boundary has been extended offshore to clarify the extent of the unit.
The CBRA requires consultation with the appropriate Federal, State, and local officials on the proposed CBRS boundary modifications to reflect changes that have occurred in the size or location of any CBRS unit as a result of natural forces (16 U.S.C. 3503(c)). We invite interested Federal, State, and local officials to review and comment on the draft maps for 14 CBRS units in Louisiana, all units in Puerto Rico, and all units in the U.S. Virgin Islands. The Service is specifically notifying the following stakeholders concerning the availability of the draft maps and opportunity to provide comments on the
Federal, State, and local officials may submit written comments and accompanying data to the individual and location identified in the
The draft maps and digital boundary data can be accessed and downloaded from the Service's Web site:
Interested parties may also contact the Service individual identified in the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
National Park Service, Interior.
Findings and recommendations.
The National Park Service is publishing this notice as part of its administrative responsibilities pursuant to the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA or the Act). The recommendations, findings, and actions in this notice are advisory only and are not binding on any person and may be admissible in any action brought under section 15 of the Act. The Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee (Review Committee) finds there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between certain Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and the Kewa Pueblo, New Mexico, Pueblo of San Felipe, New Mexico, and Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico. The Review Committee recommends that the Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico, take the lead in repatriation and reburial of the human remains.
The Review Committee meeting transcript containing the proceedings and Review Committee deliberation and findings is available online at
The recommendations, findings, and actions of the Review Committee are advisory only and not binding on any person. These advisory findings and recommendations do not necessarily represent the views of the National Park Service or Secretary of the Interior. The National Park Service and the Secretary of the Interior have not taken a position on these matters.
The Review Committee was established by Section 8 of the Act, and is an advisory body governed by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C., App. Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3006(d), any records and findings made by the Review Committee relating to the identity or cultural affiliation of any cultural items and the return of such items may be admissible in any action brought under section 15 of the Act (25 U.S.C. 3013).
At its July 13, 2016, public meeting in Missoula, MT, the Review Committee heard a request from the Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico, as an affected party. The Pueblo of Santa Ana requested a finding of fact and the facilitation of a resolution of a dispute before the Review Committee and asked that the Review Committee consider the cultural affiliation and most appropriate claimant for human remains and associated funerary objects under the control of the American Museum of Natural History (AMNH).
In 1914, human remains representing, at minimum, 37 individuals and 3 associated funerary objects were removed from Pueblo San Pedro Viejo, in Bernalillo County, NM, during excavations sponsored by the AMNH. AMNH has determined that there is a relationship of shared group identity (cultural affiliation) that can be reasonably traced between these Native American human remains and associated funerary objects and Kewa Pueblo, New Mexico, Pueblo of San Felipe, New Mexico, and Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico.
The AMNH published its determination of cultural affiliation in a Notice of Inventory Completion in the
The Pueblo of Santa Ana disputes AMNH's determination that the Kewa Pueblo, New Mexico, and the Pueblo of
Such finding of fact and facilitation of the resolution of this dispute between the Pueblo of Santa Ana and AMNH are the express responsibilities of the Review Committee under the provisions of Act at 25 U.S.C. 3006(c)(3) and (4). The Designated Federal Officer and the Review Committee Chair agreed that the Review Committee would consider the request at a public meeting held on July 13, 2016, in Missoula, MT.
(a) Agreed with AMNH's determination that there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and associated funerary objects removed from Pueblo San Pedro Viejo and the Kewa Pueblo, New Mexico, Pueblo of San Felipe, New Mexico, and Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico; and
(b) recommended that “the Pueblo of Santa Ana take the lead in repatriation and reburial.”
National Park Service, Interior.
Findings and recommendations.
The National Park Service is publishing this notice as part of its administrative responsibilities pursuant to the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA or the Act). The recommendations, findings, and actions in this notice are advisory only and are not binding on any person and may be admissible in any action brought under section 15 of the Act. The Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Review Committee (Review Committee) finds that certain items meet the definition of “sacred objects” but do not meet the definition of “objects of cultural patrimony” under the Act and its implementing regulations.
The Review Committee meeting transcript containing the proceedings and Review Committee deliberation and findings is available online at
The recommendations, findings, and actions of the Review Committee are advisory only and not binding on any person. These advisory findings and recommendations do not necessarily represent the views of the National Park Service or Secretary of the Interior. The National Park Service and the Secretary of the Interior have not taken a position on these matters.
The Review Committee was established by Section 8 of the Act, and is an advisory body governed by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C., App. Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3006(d), any records and findings made by the Review Committee relating to the identity or cultural affiliation of any cultural items and the return of such items may be admissible in any action brought under section 15 of the Act (25 U.S.C. 3013).
At its July 14, 2016, public meeting in Missoula, MT, the Review Committee heard a request from the Wiyot Tribe, California, as an affected party. The Wiyot Tribe requested a finding of fact and the facilitation of a resolution of a dispute before the Review Committee and asked that the Review Committee consider the identity of cultural items under the control of the Phoebe A. Hearst Museum of Anthropology, University of California Berkeley (PHMA).
In April 2014, the Wiyot Tribe submitted a written request for the repatriation of two sets of shamanic regalia, claimed as both sacred objects and objects of cultural patrimony and culturally affiliated with the Wiyot Tribe. On February 25, 2015, PHMA denied the Wiyot Tribe's claim to the items as objects of cultural patrimony and/or sacred objects under NAGPRA. On December 9, 2015, after the Wiyot Tribe provided additional documentation to support its claim, PHMA upheld its determination that the items were not eligible for repatriation under NAGPRA. On February 23, 2016, the Wiyot Tribe appealed PHMA's determination through the University of California Office of the President (UCOP) and on June 7, 2016, UCOP upheld PHMA's determination that the items do not meet the NAGPRA definition of sacred objects or objects of cultural patrimony.
The Wiyot Tribe disputes PHMA's determination that the items do not meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and/or sacred objects. The Wiyot Tribe requested that the Review Committee review the record, first make a finding of fact on the identity of the items, and then, if necessary, make a recommendation to the parties on resolving the dispute.
Such finding of fact and facilitation of the resolution of this dispute between the Wiyot Tribe and PHMA are the express responsibilities of the Review Committee under the provisions of the Act at 25 U.S.C. 3006(c)(3) and (4). The Designated Federal Officer and the Review Committee Chair agreed that the Review Committee would consider the request at a public meeting held on July 14, 2016, in Missoula, MT.
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), DOJ.
Meeting notice.
The purpose of this notice is to announce the meeting of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Advisory Policy Board (APB). The CJIS APB is a federal advisory committee established pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA). This meeting announcement is being published as required by Section 10 of the FACA.
The APB will meet in open session from 8:30 a.m. until 5 p.m., on December 7-8, 2016.
The meeting will take place at the Phoenix Convention Center, 100 North Third Street, Phoenix, AZ 85004, telephone (602) 262-6225.
Inquiries may be addressed to Ms. Jillana L. Plybon; Management Program Assistant; CJIS Training and Advisory Process Unit, Resources Management Section; FBI CJIS Division, Module C2, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306-0149; telephone (304) 625-5424, facsimile (304) 625-5090.
The FBI CJIS APB is responsible for reviewing policy issues and appropriate technical and operational issues related to the programs administered by the FBI's CJIS Division, and thereafter, making appropriate recommendations to the FBI Director. The programs administered by the CJIS Division are the Next Generation Identification, Interstate Identification Index, Law Enforcement Enterprise Portal, National Crime Information Center, National Instant Criminal Background Check System, National Incident-Based Reporting System, National Data Exchange, and Uniform Crime Reporting.
This meeting is open to the public. All attendees will be required to check-in at the meeting registration desk. Registrations will be accepted on a space available basis. Interested persons whose registrations have been accepted may be permitted to participate in the discussions at the discretion of the meeting chairman and with approval of the Designated Federal Officer (DFO). Any member of the public may file a written statement with the Board. Written comments shall be focused on the APB's current issues under discussion and may not be repetitive of previously submitted written statements. Written comments should be provided to Mr. R. Scott Trent, DFO, at least seven (7) days in advance of the meeting so that the comments may be made available to the APB for their consideration prior to the meeting.
Anyone requiring special accommodations should notify Mr. Trent at least seven (7) days in advance of the meeting.
In accordance with Departmental Policy, 28 CFR 50.7, notice is hereby given that a proposed Consent Decree in
This proposed Consent Decree concerns a complaint filed by the United States against Defendants Idlewild Acres, LLC and Peter M. Wild, pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 1319(b) and (d), to obtain injunctive relief from and impose civil penalties against the Defendants for violating the Clean Water Act by discharging pollutants without a permit into waters of the United States. The proposed Consent Decree resolves these allegations by requiring the Defendants to restore the impacted areas and to pay a civil penalty.
The Department of Justice will accept written comments relating to this proposed Consent Decree for thirty (30) days from the date of publication of this Notice. Please address comments to Phillip R. Dupré, Trial Attorney, United States Department of Justice, Environment and Natural Resources Division, Environmental Defense Section, Post Office Box 7611, Washington, DC 20044, and refer to
The proposed Consent Decree may be examined at the Clerk's Office, United States District Court for the District of Massachusetts, 1 Courthouse Way, Suite 2300, Boston, MA 02210. In addition, the proposed Consent Decree may be examined electronically at
On September 28, 2016, a proposed consent decree was lodged with the United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit against Sears Home Improvement Products, Inc., (“SHIP”) alleging violations of Sections 402(c) and 406(b) of Title IV of the Toxic Substances Control Act (“TSCA”), 15 U.S.C. 2682(c) and 2686(b), and the regulations promulgated thereunder. The complaint alleged that home renovations undertaken by SHIP's contractors did not comply with requirements to document activities related to lead based paint at various locations throughout the country. The proposed consent decree requires SHIP to implement procedures that will help ensure compliance with TSCA's requirements and pay a civil penalty of $400,000.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice
Please enclose a check or money order for $10.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
On October 4, 2016, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Northern District of Iowa in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit under the Clean Air Act. The United States' Complaint names NGL Crude Logistics, LLC (f/k/a Gavilon, LLC) and Western Dubuque Biodiesel, LLC as defendants. The United States' Complaint seeks retirement of approximately 36 million Renewable Identification Numbers (RINs) and civil penalties.
The proposed Consent Decree requires Western Dubuque Biodiesel, LLC to pay a $6 million civil penalty to resolve the civil claims alleged in the Complaint against Western Dubuque Biodiesel, LLC through the date of lodging. The proposed Consent Decree does not resolve the United States' claims against NGL Crude Logistics, LLC.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $8.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
The Legal Services Corporation's Board of Directors and its six committees will meet October 16-18, 2016. On Sunday, October 16, the first meeting will commence at 12:30 p.m., Mountain Standard Time (MST), with the meeting thereafter commencing promptly upon adjournment of the immediately preceding meeting. On Monday, October 17, the first meeting will commence at 8:15 a.m., MST, with the next meeting commencing promptly upon adjournment of the immediately preceding meeting. On Tuesday, October 18, the first meeting will commence at 9:00 a.m., MST, it will be followed by the closed session meeting of the Board of Directors which will commence promptly upon adjournment of the prior meeting.
The Hotel Andaluz, 125 2nd Street NW., Albuquerque, New Mexico 87102.
Unless otherwise noted herein, the Board and all committee meetings will be open to public observation. Members of the public who are unable to attend in person but wish to listen to the public proceedings may do so by following the telephone call-in directions provided below.
• Call toll-free number: 1-866-451-4981;
• When prompted, enter the following numeric pass code: 5907707348
• Once connected to the call, your telephone line will be
• To participate in the meeting during public comment press #6 to “UNMUTE” your telephone line, once you have concluded your comments please press *6 to “MUTE” your line.
Open, except as noted below.
A verbatim written transcript will be made of the closed session of the Board, Institutional Advancement Committee, and Audit Committee. The transcript of any portions of the closed sessions falling within the relevant provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) and (10), will not be available for public inspection. A copy of the General Counsel's Certification that, in his opinion, the closing is authorized by law will be available upon request.
Katherine Ward, Executive Assistant to the Vice President & General Counsel, at (202) 295-1500. Questions may be sent by electronic mail to
Non-confidential meeting materials will be made available in electronic format at least 24 hours in advance of the meeting on the LSC Web site, at
LSC complies with the American's with Disabilities Act and Section 504 of the 1973 Rehabilitation Act. Upon request, meeting notices and materials will be made available in alternative formats to accommodate individuals with disabilities. Individuals who need other accommodations due to disability in order to attend the meeting in person or telephonically should contact Katherine Ward, at (202) 295-1500 or
Millennium Challenge Corporation.
Notice.
The Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC) is reporting for the fiscal year (FY) quarters October 1, 2013 to December 31, 2014, on assistance provided under section 605 of the Millennium Challenge Act of 2003 (22 U.S.C. 7701
As used in MCC's disclosures under section 605 of the Act:
• “Total Obligation” for listed Compacts includes both “Compact Implementation Funding” under section 609(g) of the Act as well as funding under section 605 of the Act.
• “Disbursements” are cash outlays rather than expenditures.
• “Measures” are the same Key Performance Indicators that MCC reports each quarter. The Key Performance Indicators may change over time to more accurately reflect compact implementation progress. The unit for these measures is “a number of” unless otherwise indicated.
• “Program Administration and Control” funds are used to pay items such as salaries, rent, and the cost of office equipment, as well as audit and oversight agent fees.
• “Pending Subsequent Reports” amounts represent disbursements made to the Compact permitted account that will be allocated to individual projects in subsequent quarters and reported as such in subsequent quarterly reports. The “Cumulative Disbursements” amount for “Pending Subsequent Reports” represents the balance of such outlays remaining at the end of the reporting period.
• Closed Compacts do not have any quarterly disbursements; however, they are included in the report if deobligations took place during the reporting period. Closed Compacts include: Armenia, Benin I, Burkina Faso, Cabo Verde I, El Salvador I, Georgia I, Ghana I, Honduras, Lesotho I, Madagascar, Mali, Mongolia I, Morocco I, Mozambique, Namibia, Nicaragua, Tanzania and Vanuatu.
• Unless otherwise indicated, all programs and projects were solicited.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
(16-074).
Notice of information collection.
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)).
All comments should be submitted within 30 calendar days from the date of this publication.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments regarding the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 7th Street NW., Washington, DC 20543. Attention: Desk Officer for NASA.
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to Frances Teel, NASA PRA Clearance Officer, NASA Headquarters, 300 E Street SW., JF000, Washington, DC 20546,
This collection provides a means by which NASA contractors can voluntarily and confidentially report any safety concerns or hazards pertaining to NASA programs, projects, or operations.
The current, paper-based reporting system ensures the protection of a submitter's anonymity and secure submission of the report by way of the U.S. Postal Service.
Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of NASA, including whether the information collected has practical utility; (2) the accuracy of NASA's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection. They will also become a matter of public record.
The National Science Board's Committee on Honorary Awards, pursuant to NSF regulations (45 CFR part 614), the National Science Foundation Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 1862n-5), and the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), hereby gives notice of the scheduling of a teleconference for the transaction of National Science Board business, as follows:
October 13, 2016 from 1:00-2:00 p.m. EDT.
(1) Committee Chair's opening remarks; (2) Review and discuss candidates for the 2017 National Science Board Honorary Awards—the Vannevar Bush Award and the NSB Public Service Award.
Closed.
This meeting will be held by teleconference at the National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22230. Please refer to the National Science Board Web site
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).
Notice.
The NTSB is withdrawing a notice of the SES Performance Review Board to be published in the
Emily T. Carroll, Chief, Human Resources Division, Office of Administration, National Transportation Safety Board, 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594-0001, (202) 314-6233.
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).
Notice; correction.
The NTSB published a notice of the SES Performance Review Board in the
Emily T. Carroll, Chief, Human Resources Division, Office of Administration, National Transportation Safety Board, 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594-0001, (202)314-6233.
In the
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).
Notice; correction.
The NTSB published a notice of the SES Performance Review Board in the
Emily T. Carroll, Chief, Human Resources Division, Office of Administration, National Transportation Safety Board, 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594-0001, (202) 314-6233.
In the
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Confirmatory order; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a confirmatory order (Order) to revise the Edwin I. Hatch Nuclear Plant Unit Nos. 1 and 2 (Hatch) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 805 License Amendment Request submittal date of October 4, 2016 to April 4, 2018. This new submittal date extends enforcement discretion until April 4, 2018, and supports the Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc. (the licensee) continued progress in activities related to the transition to NFPA 805.
The confirmatory order was issued on October 3, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0209 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Gerald Gulla, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-001; telephone: 301-415-2872, email:
The text of the Order is attached.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc. (SNC, the licensee) is the holder of Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-57 and NPF-5 issued by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) pursuant to Part 50 of title 10 of the
In a letter dated October 4, 2013 (Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) Accession No. ML13280A299), SNC notified the U. S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) of its intent to adopt National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 805, “Performance Based Standard for Fire Protection for Light Water Reactor Electric Generating Plants, 2001 Edition,” at HNP in accordance with 10 CFR 50.48(c). In this October letter, SNC committed to commence its transition to the performance-based standard in the last quarter of 2013, and submit its license amendment request (LAR) approximately 36 months after the transition start date, which would be October 4, 2016.
On July 12, 2011, the NRC published in the
In a letter dated December 2, 2013 (ADAMS Accession No. ML13322B259), the NRC staff acknowledged SNC October 4, 2013, letter of intent to adopt NFPA 805 and approved enforcement discretion for 36 months starting on October 4, 2013.
On February 24, 2012, NRC staff issued SECY-12-0031, “Enforcement Alternatives for Sites that Indicate Additional Time Required to Submit Their License Amendment Requests to Transition to 10 CFR 50.48(c) National Fire Protection Association Standard 805.” In SECY-12-0031, the NRC staff identified enforcement alternatives for licensees that indicate additional time is required to submit their LAR to transition to NFPA 805. SECY-12-0031 describes three possible scenarios if delays occur. In Scenario A.1, licensees may request to change the submittal schedule by substituting one site for another. In Scenario A.2, the NRC staff could issue a confirmatory order that would extend enforcement discretion if the licensee provides adequate justification. In Scenario B, the licensee does not submit an acceptable LAR by its scheduled date and does not meet the alternatives described in Scenario A.1 or A.2.
In a public meeting on June 21, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16179A186), between the NRC and SNC, the licensee described its progress for transitioning HNP to NFPA 805. SNC also informed the NRC that an extension of the schedule for its LAR submittal is needed to allow appropriate development of its Fire Probabilistic Risk Assessment (FPRA) model. In a letter dated July 6, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16188A341), SNC requested to extend its LAR submittal date 18 months from October 4, 2016, to April 4, 2018, in accordance with Scenario A.2 of SECY-12-0031.
In the July 6, 2016 letter, SNC provided the justification for revising the LAR submittal date. The extension is necessary to complete development of the FPRA model, to allow appropriate coordination and implementation of design modifications at HNP, and to incorporate those modifications into the fire PRA that support the NFPA 805 transition. The NRC staff reviewed the SNC's letter that discussed its NFPA 805 transition progress, physical modifications, monitoring program, LAR status, and major project milestones supporting submittal of the NFPA 805 LAR in April 2018.
The NRC has determined that, based on the above, the HNP NFPA 805 enforcement discretion along with the LAR submittal date should be extended. This Order is being issued to revise the HNP NFPA 805 LAR submittal date from October 4, 2016, to April 4, 2018. This new submittal date supports SNC's continued progress in activities related to the transition to NFPA 805, as described in their letter dated July 6, 2016.
SNC may, at any time, cease its transition to NFPA 805 and comply with HNP's existing licensing basis and the regulations set forth in 10 CFR 50.48, as applicable. As indicated in the Enforcement Policy, if SNC decides not to complete the transition to 10 CFR 50.48(c), it must submit a letter stating its intent to retain its existing licensing basis and withdraw its letter of intent to comply with 10 CFR 50.48(c). If SNC fails to meet the new LAR submittal date and fails to comply with its existing licensing basis, the NRC will take appropriate enforcement action, consistent with its Enforcement Policy.
On September 22, 2016, SNC consented to issuing this Order, as described in Section V below. SNC further agreed that this Order will be effective upon issuance and that it has waived its rights to a hearing.
Based on the licensee's current status, scheduled key activities, and planned modifications, the NRC has determined that the licensee has provided adequate justification for its commitment given in Section V, and, thus, for the extension of enforcement discretion. Because the licensee will continue to perform modifications to reduce current fire risk in parallel with the development of its NFPA 805 LAR, the NRC staff finds this acceptable to ensure public health and safety. Based on the above and SNC's consent, this Order is effective upon issuance.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 103, 161b, 161i, 161o, 182, and 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 2.202, “Orders,” it is hereby ordered that license nos. DPR-57 and NPF-5 are modified as follows:
A. SNC will submit an acceptable license amendment request for Edwin I. Hatch Nuclear Plant, Unit Nos. 1 and 2, to adopt NFPA Standard 805 by no later than April 4, 2018.
B. SNC will continue to receive enforcement discretion until April 4, 2018. If the NRC finds that the license amendment request is not acceptable, the NRC will take steps consistent with the Enforcement Policy.
The Director of the Office of Enforcement, in consultation with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, may, in writing, relax or rescind any of the above conditions upon demonstration by the licensee of good cause.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR 2.309, any person adversely affected by this Order, other than SNC, may request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance date of this Order. Where good cause is shown, consideration will be given to extending the time to request a hearing. A request for extension of time must be directed to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and include a statement of good cause for the extension.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007), as amended by 77 FR 46562; August 3, 2012 (codified in pertinent part at 10 CFR part 2, subpart C). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least ten (10) days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene through the EIE. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is available to the public at
If a person other than the licensee requests a hearing, that person shall set forth with particularity the manner in which his interest is adversely affected by this Order and shall address the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 2.309(d) and (f).
If a hearing is requested by a person whose interest is adversely affected, the Commission will issue a separate Order designating the time and place of any hearings, as appropriate. If a hearing is held, the issue to be considered at such hearing shall be whether this Order should be sustained.
In the absence of any request for hearing, or written approval of an extension of time in which to request a hearing, the provisions specified in Section V above shall be final 30 days after issuance of this Order without further order or proceedings. If an extension of time for requesting a hearing has been approved, the provisions specified in Section V shall be final when the extension expires if a hearing request has not been received.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Biweekly notice.
Pursuant to Section 189a. (2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is publishing this regular biweekly notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued, and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This biweekly notice includes all notices of amendments issued, or proposed to be issued, from September 13, 2016 to September 26, 2016. The last biweekly notice was published on September 27, 2016.
Comments must be filed by November 10, 2016. A request for a hearing must be filed by December 12, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Kay Goldstein, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1506, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0207, facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0207, facility name, unit number(s), application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
II. Notice of Consideration of Issuance of Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses and Proposed No Significant Hazards Consideration Determination
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in § 50.92 of title 10 of the
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1).
The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by December 12, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene (hereinafter “petition”), and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a petition. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF). Additional guidance on PDF submissions is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
The Commission will issue a notice or order granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition, designating the issues for any hearing that will be held and designating the Presiding Officer. A notice granting a hearing will be published in the
For further details with respect to these license amendment applications, see the application for amendment which is available for public inspection in ADAMS and at the NRC's PDR. For additional direction on accessing information related to this document, see the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment institutes a new administrative program TS for the establishment, implementation, and maintenance of a Diesel Fuel Oil Testing Program. The specifics of this program will be contained in a licensee-controlled document. The current TS SR for evaluating new and stored diesel fuel oil and the cleaning of the fuel oil storage tanks will be relocated to this program. The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standard references pertaining to new and stored fuel oil will be relocated to the aforementioned program; however, requirements to perform testing in accordance with applicable ASTM standards are retained in the TS. Requirements to perform surveillances of both new and stored diesel fuel oil are also retained in the TS. Evaluations of future changes to the licensee-controlled document will be conducted pursuant to the requirements of 10 CFR 50.59. A more rigorous testing of water and sediment content is added to the “clear and bright” test used to establish the acceptability of new fuel oil for use prior to its addition to the fuel oil storage tanks. Additionally, an exception to RG 1.137 is proposed to allow for the performance of new fuel oil sampling offsite. These changes will not affect nor degrade the ability of the emergency diesel generators (DGs) to perform their specified safety functions as the diesel fuel oil continues to be properly evaluated.
The proposed changes do not adversely affect accident initiators or precursors nor alter the design assumptions, conditions, and configuration of the facility or the manner in which the plant is operated and maintained. The proposed changes do not alter or prevent the ability of structures, systems or components from performing their intended function to mitigate the consequences on an initiating event with the assumed acceptance limits. The proposed changes do not affect the source term, containment isolation, or radiological release assumptions used in evaluating the radiological consequences of an accident previously evaluated. Further, the proposed changes do not increase the types and amounts of radioactive effluent that may be released offsite, nor significantly increase individual or cumulative occupational or public radiation exposure.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment institutes a new administrative program TS for the establishment, implementation, and maintenance of a Diesel Fuel Oil Testing Program, of which the current TS SR for evaluating new and stored diesel fuel oil and the cleaning of the fuel oil storage tanks are relocated, including pertinent ASTM standard references. A more rigorous testing of water and sediment content is added to the “clear and bright” test used to establish the acceptability of new fuel oil for use prior to its addition to the fuel oil storage tanks. Additionally, an exception to RG 1.137 is proposed to allow for the performance of new fuel oil sampling offsite. These changes do not alter the way any structure, system, or component functions and does not modify the manner in which the plant is operated. The requirements retained in the TS continue to require testing of the diesel fuel oil to ensure the proper functioning of the DGs.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment institutes a new administrative program TS for the establishment, implementation, and maintenance of a Diesel Fuel Oil Testing Program, the specifics of which will be contained in a licensee-controlled document. The current TS SR for evaluating new and stored diesel fuel oil and the cleaning of the fuel oil storage tanks will be relocated to this program, along with the pertinent ASTM standard references. Changes to the licensee-controlled document are performed in accordance with the provisions of 10 CFR 50.59, thereby providing an effective level of regulatory control and ensures that diesel fuel oil testing is conducted such that there is no significant reduction in a margin of safety.
A more rigorous testing of water and sediment content is added to the “clear and bright” test used to establish the acceptability of new fuel oil for use prior to its addition to the fuel oil storage tanks. Additionally, an exception to RG 1.137 is proposed to allow for the performance of new fuel oil sampling offsite. The margin of safety provided by the DGs is unaffected by the proposed changes since there continue to be TS requirements to ensure fuel oil is of the appropriate quality and reliability for emergency DG use. The proposed changes provide the flexibility needed to improve fuel oil sampling and analysis methodologies, while maintaining sufficient controls to preserve the current margins of safety.
Based on the above, Duke Energy concludes that the proposed amendment does not involve a significant hazards consideration under the standards set forth in 10 CFR 50.92, and, accordingly, a finding of “no significant hazards consideration” is justified.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc., Docket No. 50-333, James A. FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant, Oswego County, New York
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or
Response: No.
The proposed amendment to the TS involves the extension of the JAF [James A. FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant] Type A containment test interval to 15 years and the extension of the Type C test interval to 75 months. The current Type A test interval of 120 months (10 years) would be extended on a permanent basis to no longer than 15 years from the last Type A test. The current Type C test interval of 60 months for selected components would be extended on a performance basis to no longer than 75 months. Extensions of up to nine months (total maximum interval of 84 months for Type C tests) are permissible only for non-routine emergent conditions. The proposed extension does not involve either a physical change to the plant or a change in the manner in which the plant is operated or controlled. The containment is designed to provide an essentially leak tight barrier against the uncontrolled release of radioactivity to the environment for postulated accidents. As such, the containment and the testing requirements invoked to periodically demonstrate the integrity of the containment exist to ensure the plant's ability to mitigate the consequences of an accident, and do not involve the prevention or identification of any precursors of an accident. The change in dose risk for changing the Type A test frequency from three-per-ten years to once-per-fifteen-years, measured as an increase to the total integrated plant risk for those accident sequences influenced by Type A testing, is 0.0087 person rem/year. EPRI [Electric Power Research Institute] Report No. 1009325, Revision 2-A states that a very small population dose is defined as an increase of ≤ 1.0 person-rem per year, or ≤ 1% of the total population dose, whichever is less restrictive for the risk impact assessment of the extended ILRT intervals. The results of the risk assessment for this amendment meet these criteria. Moreover, the risk impact for the ILRT extension when compared to other severe accident risks is negligible. Therefore, this proposed extension does not involve a significant increase in the probability of an accident previously evaluated.
As documented in NUREG-1493, Type B and C tests have identified a very large percentage of containment leakage paths, and the percentage of containment leakage paths that are detected only by Type A testing is very small. The JAF Type A test history supports this conclusion.
The integrity of the containment is subject to two types of failure mechanisms that can be categorized as: (1) Activity based, and; (2) time based. Activity based failure mechanisms are defined as degradation due to system and/or component modifications or maintenance. Local leak rate test requirements and administrative controls such as configuration management and procedural requirements for system restoration ensure that containment integrity is not degraded by plant modifications or maintenance activities. The design and construction requirements of the containment combined with the containment inspections performed in accordance with ASME [American Society of Mechanical Engineers] Section Xl, the Maintenance Rule, and TS requirements serve to provide a high degree of assurance that the containment would not degrade in a manner that is detectable only by a Type A test. Based on the above, the proposed extensions do not significantly increase the consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
The proposed amendment also deletes exceptions previously granted to allow one time extensions of the ILRT test frequency for JAF. These exceptions were for activities that would have already taken place by the time this amendment is approved; therefore, their deletion is solely an administrative action that has no effect on any component and no impact on how the unit is operated.
Therefore, the proposed change does not result in a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment to the TS involves the extension of the JAF Type A containment test interval to 15 years and the extension of the Type C test interval to 75 months. The containment and the testing requirements to periodically demonstrate the integrity of the containment exist to ensure the plant's ability to mitigate the consequences of an accident do not involve any accident precursors or initiators. The proposed change does not involve a physical change to the plant (
The proposed amendment also deletes exceptions previously granted to allow one time extensions of the ILRT test frequency for JAF. These exceptions were for activities that would have already taken place by the time this amendment is approved; therefore, their deletion is solely an administrative action that does not result in any change in how the unit is operated.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment to TS 5.5.6 involves the extension of the JAF Type A containment test interval to 15 years and the extension of the Type C test interval to 75 months for selected components. This amendment does not alter the manner in which safety limits, limiting safety system set points, or limiting conditions for operation are determined. The specific requirements and conditions of the TS Containment Leak Rate Testing Program exist to ensure that the degree of containment structural integrity and leak-tightness that is considered in the plant safety analysis is maintained. The overall containment leak rate limit specified by TS is maintained.
The proposed change involves only the extension of the interval between Type A containment leak rate tests and Type C tests for JAF. The proposed surveillance interval extension is bounded by the 15-year ILRT Interval and the 75-month Type C test interval currently authorized within NEI 94-01, Revision 3-A. Industry experience supports the conclusion that Type B and C testing detects a large percentage of containment leakage paths and that the percentage of containment leakage paths that are detected only by Type A testing is small. The containment inspections performed in accordance with ASME Section Xl, TS and the Maintenance Rule serve to provide a high degree of assurance that the containment would not degrade in a manner that is detectable only by Type A testing. The combination of these factors ensures that the margin of safety in the plant safety analysis is maintained. The design, operation, testing methods and acceptance criteria for Type A, B, and C containment leakage tests specified in applicable codes and standards would continue to be met, with the acceptance of this proposed change, since these are not affected by changes to the Type A and Type C test intervals.
The proposed amendment also deletes exceptions previously granted to allow one time extensions of the ILRT test frequency for JAF. These exceptions were for activities that would have already taken place by the time this amendment is approved; therefore, their deletion is solely an administrative action and does not change how the unit is operated and maintained. Thus, there is no reduction in any margin of safety.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration. Based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes would not take effect until CPS has permanently ceased operation and entered a permanently defueled condition. The proposed changes would revise the CPS TS by deleting or modifying certain portions of the TS administrative controls described in Section 5.0 of the TS that are no longer applicable to a permanently shutdown and defueled facility.
The proposed changes do not involve any physical changes to plant structures, systems, and components (SSCs) or the manner in which SSCs are operated, maintained, modified, tested, or inspected. The proposed changes do not involve a change to any safety limits, limiting safety system settings, limiting control settings, limiting conditions for operation, surveillance requirements, or design features.
The deletion and modification of provisions of the facility administrative controls do not affect the design of SSCs necessary for safe storage of spent irradiated fuel or the methods used for handling and storage of such fuel in the Spent Fuel Pool (SFP). The proposed changes are administrative in nature and do not affect any accidents applicable to the safe management of spent irradiated fuel or the permanently shutdown and defueled condition of the reactor.
In a permanently defueled condition, the only credible accidents are the Fuel Handling Accident (FHA), Postulated Radioactive Releases Due to Liquid Radwaste Tank Failures, and Cask Drop Accident. Other accidents such as Loss of Coolant Accident, Loss of Feedwater, and Reactivity and Power Distribution Anomalies will no longer be applicable to a permanently defueled reactor plant.
The probability of occurrence of previously evaluated accidents is not increased, since extended operation in a permanently defueled condition will be the only operation allowed, and therefore, bounded by the existing analyses. Additionally, the occurrence of postulated accidents associated with reactor operation is no longer credible in a permanently defueled reactor. This significantly reduces the scope of applicable accidents.
The proposed changes in the administrative controls do not affect the ability to successfully respond to previously evaluated accidents and do not affect radiological assumptions used in the evaluations. The proposed changes narrow the focus of nuclear safety concerns to those associated with safely maintaining spent nuclear fuel. These changes remove the implication that CPS can return to operation once the final certification required by 10 CFR 50.82(a)(1)(ii) is submitted to the NRC. Any event involving safe storage of spent irradiated fuel or the methods used for handling and storage of such fuel in the SFP would evolve slowly enough that no immediate response would be required to protect the health and safety of the public or station personnel. Adequate communications capability is provided to allow facility personnel to safely manage storage and handling of irradiated fuel. As a result, no changes to radiological release parameters are involved. There is no effect on the type or amount of radiation released, and there is no effect on predicted offsite doses in the event of an accident.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequence of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to delete and/or modify certain TS administrative controls have no impact on facility SSCs affecting the safe storage of spent irradiated fuel, or on the methods of operation of such SSCs, or on the handling and storage of spent irradiated fuel itself. The proposed changes do not result in different or more adverse failure modes or accidents than previously evaluated because the reactor will be permanently shut down and defueled and CPS will no longer be authorized to operate the reactor.
The proposed changes will continue to require proper control and monitoring of safety significant parameters and activities. The proposed changes do not result in any new mechanisms that could initiate damage to the remaining relevant safety barriers in support of maintaining the plant in a permanently shutdown and defueled condition (
The proposed changes do not alter the protection system design or create new failure modes. The proposed changes do not involve a physical alteration of the plant, and no new or different kind of equipment will be installed. Consequently, there are no new initiators that could result in a new or different kind of accident.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes involve deleting and/or modifying certain TS administrative controls once the CPS facility has been permanently shutdown and defueled. As specified in 10 CFR 50.82(a)(2), the 10 CFR 50 license for CPS will no longer authorize operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor vessel following submittal of the certifications required by 10 CFR 50.82(a)(1). As a result, the occurrence of certain design basis postulated accidents are no longer considered credible when the reactor is permanently defueled. The only remaining credible accidents are the FHA, the Postulated Radioactive Releases Due to Liquid Radwaste Tank Failures, and the Cask Drop Accident. The FHA is the limiting Chapter 15 dose event for CPS in its decommissioned state.
The proposed changes do not adversely affect the inputs or assumptions of any of the design basis analyses that impact the FHA. The proposed changes are limited to those portions of the TS administrative controls that are not related to the safe storage and maintenance of spent irradiated fuel.
These proposed changes do not directly involve any physical equipment limits or parameters. The requirements that are proposed to be revised and/or deleted from the CPS TS are not credited in the existing accident analysis for the remaining applicable postulated accidents; therefore, they do not contribute to the margin of safety associated with the accident analysis. Certain postulated DBAs [design-basis accidents] involving the reactor are no longer possible because the reactor will be permanently shut down and defueled and CPS will no longer be authorized to operate the reactor.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change eliminates Technical Specifications (TS) Section 5.5.6 and 5.5.7, “Inservice Testing Program,” for Duane Arnold and Point Beach, respectively, and eliminates TS Section 6.8.4.i, “Inservice Testing Program” for St. Lucie Units 1 and 2. The proposed change eliminates the requirements regarding [IST] from TS 4.0.5 in the Seabrook and Turkey Point TS. Most requirements in the [IST] Program are removed, as they are duplicative of requirements in the ASME OM [American Society of Mechanical Engineers Operation and Maintenance] Code, as clarified by Code Case OMN-20, “Inservice Test Frequency.” The remaining requirements related to the IST Program are eliminated because the NRC has determined their inclusion in the TS is contrary to regulations. A new defined term, “Inservice Testing Program,” is added to the TS, which references the requirements of 10 CFR 50.55a(f).
Performance of [IST] is not an initiator to any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of occurrence of an accident is not significantly affected by the proposed change. Inservice test frequencies under Code Case OMN-20 are equivalent to the current testing period allowed by the TS with the exception that testing frequencies greater than 2 years may be extended by up to 6 months to facilitate test scheduling and consideration of plant operating conditions that may not be suitable for performance of the required testing. The testing frequency extension will not affect the ability of the components to mitigate any accident previously evaluated as the components are required to be operable during the testing period extension. Performance of inservice tests utilizing the allowances in OMN-20 will not significantly affect the reliability of the tested components. As a result, the availability of the affected components, as well as their ability to mitigate the consequences of accidents previously evaluated, is not affected.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change does not alter the design or configuration of the plant. The proposed change does not involve a physical alteration of the plant; no new or different kind of equipment will be installed. The proposed change does not alter the types of [IST] performed. In most cases, the frequency of [IST] is unchanged. However, the frequency of testing would not result in a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated since the testing methods are not altered.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change eliminates some requirements from the TS in lieu of requirements in the ASME Code, as modified by use of Code Case OMN-20. Compliance with the ASME Code is required by 10 CFR 50.55a. The proposed change also allows inservice tests with frequencies greater than 2 years to be extended by 6 months to facilitate test scheduling and consideration of plant operating conditions that may not be suitable for performance of the required testing. The testing frequency extension will not affect the ability of the components to respond to an accident as the components are required to be operable during the testing period extension. The proposed change will eliminate the existing TS allowance to defer performance of missed inservice tests up to the duration of the specified testing frequency, and instead will require an assessment of the missed test on equipment operability. This assessment will consider the effect on margin of safety (equipment operability). Should the component be inoperable, the TS provide actions to ensure that the margin of safety is protected. The proposed change also eliminates a statement that nothing in the ASME Code should be construed to supersede the requirements of any TS. The NRC has determined that statement to be incorrect. However, elimination of the statement will have no effect on plant operation or safety.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change revises TS Chapter 5, “Administrative Controls,” Section 5.5, “Programs and Manuals,” by eliminating the “Inservice Testing Program” specification. Most requirements in the IST Program are removed as they are duplicative of requirements in the ASME OM Code, as clarified by Code Case OMN-20, “Inservice Test Frequency.” The remaining requirements in the Section 5.5 IST Program are eliminated because the NRC has determined their inclusion in the TS is contrary to the regulations. A new defined term, “Inservice Testing Program,” is added to the TS, which references the requirements of 10 CFR 50.55a(f).
Performance of inservice testing is not an initiator to any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of occurrence of an accident is not significantly affected by the proposed change. Inservice test frequencies under Code Case OMN-20
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change does not alter the design or configuration of the plant. The proposed change does not involve a physical alteration of the plant; no new or different kind of equipment will be installed. The proposed change does not alter the types of inservice testing performed. In most cases, the frequency of inservice testing is unchanged. However, the frequency of testing would not result in a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated since the testing methods are not altered.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change eliminates some requirements from the TS in lieu of requirements in the ASME Code, as modified by use of Code Case OMN-20. Compliance with the ASME Code is required by 10 CFR 50.55a. The proposed change also allows inservice tests with frequencies greater than 2 years to be extended by 6 months to facilitate test scheduling and consideration of plant operating conditions that may not be suitable for performance of the required testing. The testing frequency extension will not affect the ability of the components to respond to an accident as the components are required to be operable during the testing period extension. The proposed change will eliminate the existing TS SR 3.0.3 allowance to defer performance of missed inservice tests up to the duration of the specified frequency, and will instead require an assessment of the missed test on equipment operability. This assessment will consider the effect on a margin of safety (equipment operability). Should the component be inoperable, the TS provide actions to ensure that the margin of safety is protected. The proposed change also eliminates a statement that nothing in the ASME Code should be construed to supersede the requirements of any TS. The NRC has determined that statement to be incorrect. However, elimination of the statement will have no effect on plant operation or safety.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to the location and dimensions of the protective plate continues to provide sufficient space surrounding the containment recirculation screens for debris to settle before reaching the screens as confirmed by an evaluation demonstrating that the protective plate continues to fulfill its design function of preventing debris from reaching the screens. In addition, the increase to the minimum IRWST screen size reinforces the ability of the screens to perform their design function with the increased RNS maximum flowrate proposed. The proposed changes do not adversely affect any accident initiating component, and thus the probabilities of the accidents previously evaluated are not affected. The affected equipment does not adversely affect the ability of equipment to contain radioactive material. Because the proposed change does not affect a release path or increase the expected dose rates, the potential radiological releases in the UFSAR accident analyses are unaffected.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed activity to change the location and dimensions of the protective plate above the containment recirculation screens, to change the minimum IRWST screen size, and to increase the maximum RNS flowrate through the IRWST and CR screens does not alter the method in which safety functions are accomplished. The analyses demonstrate that the screens are able to perform accident, and no new failure modes are introduced by the proposed change.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change to the design does not change any of the codes or standards to which the IRWST screens, containment recirculation screens, and containment recirculation screen protective plate are designed as documented in the UFSAR. The containment recirculation screen protective plate continues to prevent debris from reaching the CR screens, and the IRWST and CR screens maintain their ability to block debris while at the proposed increase in RNS maximum flowrate.
No safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed changes.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The increase in head pressure by the proposed change to the fire protection system (FPS) motor-driven and diesel-driven fire pumps maintains compliance with National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard NFPA-14, S
These changes have no adverse impact on the support, design, or operation of mechanical and fluid systems. The response of systems to postulated accident conditions is not adversely affected by the proposed changes. There is no change to the predicted radioactive releases due to normal operation or postulated accident conditions. Consequently, the plant response to previously evaluated accidents is not impacted, nor does the proposed change create any new accident precursors.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes do not affect the operation of any systems or equipment that may initiate a new or different kind of accident, or alter any SSC such that a new accident initiator or initiating sequence of events is created. The proposed changes to the fire pump performance specifications and fire pump fuel day tank volume do not affect any safety-related equipment, nor do they add any new interface to safety-related SSCs. No system or design function or equipment qualification is affected by this change. The changes do not introduce a new failure mode, malfunction, or sequence of events that could affect safety or safety-related equipment.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes maintain compliance with the applicable Codes and Standards, thereby maintaining the margin of safety associated with these SSCs. The proposed changes do not alter any applicable design codes, code compliance, design function, or safety analysis. Consequently, no safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed change, thus the margin of safety is not reduced.
Because no safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by these changes, no margin of safety is reduced.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change removes an administrative note added by Amendment No. 192. The administrative control applied by Amendment No. 192 was issued to prevent or reduce the risk for drainage of the Reactor Water Storage Tank (RWST) when aligned to the non-safety, non-seismic purification system. The station has implemented a modification that qualifies the interconnection of the RWST to the purification system. The installed design prevents the RWST being drained below the current Technical Specifications minimum volume requirement due to a failure in the non-safety purification system. The RWST will continue to perform its safety function and the overall system performance has not been affected [by] this proposed amendment. Assumptions previously made in evaluating the consequences of the accident are not altered, and the consequences of the accident are not increased. Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated. The Purification Loop supports the Spent Fuel System and is not credited for safe shutdown of the plant or accident mitigation. Therefore, the proposed change has insignificant impact on the probability and consequences of an accident previously evaluated. A combination of design and administrative controls ensure that the Purification Loop maintains RWST boron concentration and water volume requirements whenever the contents of the RWST are processed through the system. The RWST is operated under System Operating Procedure for the Spent Fuel Cooling System and is protected by maintaining the isolation valve for the lower return line locked closed in modes 1 through 4.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of
Response: No.
The proposed change does not introduce a new or different accident previously evaluated. The station implemented a qualified design that prevents the RWST from being drained below the current TS 3.5.4.a minimum volume requirement. The proposed change does not alter the design requirements of the RWST or any Structure, System or Component or its function during accident conditions. The changes do not alter assumptions made in the safety analysis and the current TS LCO are maintained. The Purification Loop supports the Spent Fuel System and is not credited for safe shutdown of the plant or accident mitigation. The proposed change removes a note added by Amendment No. 192 that applied an administrative control to manage the risk of a postulated RWST drainage scenario by the purification system.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change removes a note added by Amendment No. 192. The proposed change does not alter the safety limits, limiting safety system settings or limiting conditions for operation of the RWST. The modification preserved the current licensing and design bases of the RWST, therefore the margin of safety for the RWST are not affected. The proposed changes do not adversely affect systems that respond to safely shutdown the plant and to maintain the plant in a safe shutdown condition. The Purification Loop supports the Spent Fuel System and is not credited for safe shutdown of the plant or accident mitigation.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The Safety Limit Minimum Critical Power Ratio (SLMCPR) ensures that 99.9% of the fuel rods in the core will not be susceptible to boiling transition during normal operation or the most limiting postulated design-basis transient event. The new SLMCPR values preserve the existing margin to the onset of transition boiling; therefore, the probability of fuel damage is not increased as a result of this proposed change. The determination of the revised HNP Unit 2 SLMCPRs has been performed using NRC-approved methods of evaluation. These plant-specific calculations are performed each operating cycle and may require changes for future cycles. The revised SLMCPR values do not change the method of operating the plant; therefore, they have no effect on the probability of an accident, initiating event, or transient:
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes result only from a specific analysis for the HNP Unit 2 core reload design. These changes do not involve any new or different methods for operating the facility. No new initiating events or transients result from these changes.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The new SLMCPRs have been calculated using NRC-approved methods of evaluation with plant and cycle-specific input values for the fuel and core design for the upcoming cycle of operation. The SLMCPR values ensure that 99.9% of the fuel rods in the core will not be susceptible to boiling transition during normal operation or the most limiting postulated design-basis transient event. The operating MCPR limit is set appropriately above the safety limit value to ensure adequate margin when the cycle-specific transients are evaluated. Accordingly, the margin of safety is maintained with the revised values.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment would add an Interim Amendment Request process to Condition 2.0.(1) of the Vogtle 3 and 4 COLs [combined licenses] to allow construction to continue, at SNC's [Southern Nuclear Operating Company] own risk, in emergent conditions, where a non-conforming condition that has little or no safety significance is discovered and the work activity cannot be adjusted. The Interim Amendment Request process would require SNC to submit a Nuclear Construction Safety Assessment which (1) identifies the proposed change; (2) evaluates whether emergent conditions are present; (3) evaluates whether the change would result in any material decrease in safety; and (4) evaluates whether continued construction would make the non-conforming condition irreversible. Only if the continued construction would have no material decrease in safety would the NRC issue a determination that construction could continue pending SNC's initiation of the COL-ISG-025 PAR [preliminary amendment request]/LAR [license amendment request] process. The requirement to include a Nuclear Construction Safety Assessment ensures that the proposed amendment would not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated. If the continued construction would result a material decrease in safety, then continued construction would not be authorized.
The proposed amendment does not modify the design, construction, or operation of any plant structures, systems, or components (SSCs), nor does it change any procedures or method of control for any SSCs. Because the proposed amendment does not change the design, construction, or operation of any SSCs, it does not adversely affect any design function as described in the Updated Final Safety Analysis Report.
The proposed amendment does not affect the probability of an accident previously evaluated. Similarly, because the proposed amendment does not alter the design or operation of the nuclear plant or any plant SSCs, the proposed amendment does not represent a change to the radiological effects of an accident, and therefore, does not involve an increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment would add an Interim Amendment Request process to Condition 2.0.(1) of the Vogtle 3 and 4 COLs to allow construction to continue, at SNC's own risk, in emergent conditions, where a non-conforming condition that has little or no safety significance is discovered and the work activity cannot be adjusted. The Interim Amendment Request process would require SNC to submit a Nuclear Construction Safety Assessment which (1) identifies the proposed change; (2) evaluates whether emergent conditions are present; (3) evaluates whether the change would result in any material decrease in safety; and (4) evaluates whether continued construction would make the non-conforming condition irreversible. Only if the continued construction would have no material decrease in safety would NRC issue a determination that construction could continue pending SNC's initiation of the COL-ISG-025 PAR/LAR process.
The proposed amendment is not a modification, addition to, or removal of any plant SSCs. Furthermore, the proposed amendment is not a change to procedures or method of control of the nuclear plant or any plant SSCs. The proposed amendment only adds a new screening process and does not change the design, construction, or operation of the nuclear plant or any plant operations.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from an accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment would add an Interim Amendment Request process to Condition 2.0.(1) of the Vogtle 3 and 4 COLs to allow construction to continue, at SNC's own risk, in emergent conditions, where a non-conforming condition that has little or no safety significance is discovered and the work activity cannot be adjusted. The Interim Amendment Request process would require SNC to submit a Nuclear Construction Safety Assessment which (1) identifies the proposed change; (2) evaluates whether emergent conditions are present; (3) evaluates whether the change would result in any material decrease in safety; and (4) evaluates whether continued construction would make the non-conforming condition irreversible. Only if the continued construction would have no material decrease in safety would the NRC issue determination that construction could continue pending SNC's initiation of the COL-ISG-025 PAR/LAR process.
The proposed amendment is not a modification, addition to, or removal of any plant SSCs. Furthermore, the proposed amendment is not a change to procedures or method of control of the nuclear plant or any plant SSCs. The proposed amendment does not alter any design function or safety analysis. Consequently, no safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed amendment, thus the margin of safety is not reduced. The only impact of this activity is the addition of an Interim Amendment Request process.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change to the roles of the qualified data processing system (QDPS) and safety-related displays, as well as the change to add Division A and Division D of the main control room (MCR) safety-related displays to the listing of PMS equipment, as identified in Combined License (COL) Appendix C (and plant-specific Tier 1) Table 2.5.2-1 and Updated Final Safety Analysis Report (UFSAR) Table 3.11-1 and 3l.6-2 do not alter any accident initiating component/system failure or event, thus the probabilities of the accidents previously evaluated are not affected.
The proposed changes do not adversely affect safety-related equipment or a radioactive material barrier, and this activity dos not involve the containment of radioactive material.
The radioactive material source terms and release paths used in the safety analysis are unchanged, thus the radiological releases in the UFSAR accident analysis are not affected.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change to the roles of the QDPS and safety-related displays, as well as the change to add Division A and Division D of the MCR safety-related displays to the listing of PMS equipment, as identified in COL Appendix C (and plant-specific Tier 1) Table 2.5.2-1 and UFSAR Table 3.11-1 and 3l.6-2 does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated. The proposed changes do not alter the design or capability of any sensors which provide input to the QDPS. The functionality of the QDPS to process the input obtained from sensors into data to be sent to the safety displays is not affected by the proposed changes. The proposed changes do not affect any functions performed by the safety displays, nor do the proposed changes affect the capability of the safety displays to display the data received from the QDPS.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
There is no safety-related structure, system or component (SSC) or function adversely affected by the proposed change to the roles of the QDPS and safety-related displays, nor by the change to add Division A and Division D of the MCR safety-related displays to the listing of Protection and Safety Monitoring System (PMS) equipment. The proposed changes do not alter the mechanisms by which system components are actuated or controlled. Because no safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed changes, no margin of safety is reduced.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to revise plant-specific Tier 1, COL Appendix C, and [Updated Final Safety Analysis Report (UFSAR)] information concerning details of the IDS, specifically the addition of seven Class 1E fuse isolation panels at the interconnection of the non-Class 1E IDS battery monitors and Class 1E IDS circuits, are necessary to conform to Regulatory Guide 1.75 Rev. 2 (consistent with UFSAR Appendix 1A exceptions) and IEEE 384-1981 to prevent a fault on non-Class 1E circuits or equipment from degrading the operation of Class 1E IDS circuits and equipment below an acceptable level. The proposed changes do not adversely affect the design functions of the IDS, including the Class 1E battery banks and the battery monitors.
These proposed changes to revise plant-specific Tier 1, COL Appendix C, and UFSAR information concerning details of the IDS, specifically the addition of seven Class 1E fuse isolation panels at the interconnection of the non-Class 1E IDS battery monitors and Class 1E IDS circuits as described in the current licensing basis do not have an adverse effect on any of the design functions of any plant systems. The proposed changes do not adversely affect any plant electrical system and do not affect the support, design, or operation of mechanical and fluid systems required to mitigate the consequences of an accident. There is no change to plant systems or the response of systems to postulated accident conditions. There is no change to the predicted radioactive releases due to postulated accident conditions. The plant response to previously evaluated accidents or external events is not adversely affected, nor do the proposed changes create any new accident precursors.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to revise plant-specific Tier 1, COL Appendix C, and UFSAR information concerning details of the IDS, specifically the addition of seven Class 1E fuse isolation panels at the interconnection of the non-Class 1E IDS battery monitors and Class 1E IDS circuits, are necessary to conform to Regulatory Guide 1.75 Rev. 2 (consistent with UFSAR Appendix 1A exceptions) and IEEE 384-1981 to prevent a fault on non-Class 1E circuits or equipment from degrading the operation of Class 1E IDS circuits and equipment below an acceptable level. The proposed changes do not adversely affect any plant electrical system and do not adversely affect the design function, support, design, or operation of mechanical and fluid systems. The proposed changes do not result in a new failure mechanism or introduce any new accident precursors. No design function described in the UFSAR is adversely affected by the proposed changes.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
There is no safety-related [structure, system, and component (SSC)] or function adversely affected by the proposed change to add IDS fuse isolation panels to non-Class 1E IDS battery monitors and Class 1E IDS circuits. No safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed changes and no margin or safety is reduced.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
As indicated in the UFSAR Subsection 3H.5.1.2, the wall at column line 7.3 is a shear wall that connects the shield building and the nuclear island exterior wall at column line I. Deviations were identified in
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The reduction of the provided versus required vertical reinforcing steel does not change the performance of the affected portion of the auxiliary building. As demonstrated by the continued conformance to the applicable codes and standards governing the design of the structures, the wall withstands the same effects as previously evaluated. There is no change to the design function of the wall, and no new failure mechanisms are identified as the same types of accidents are presented to the wall before and after the change.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change of the provided versus required vertical reinforcing steel, identified in UFSAR Table 3H.5-5, is not a significant reduction in the margin of safety. For the south face of the Vogtle Unit 3 column line 7.3 wall, the provided minimum steel for wall section 11 for the vertical reinforcement from the wall segment of elevation 82'-6” to 100'-0” is decreased from 3.12 in
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment does not change the fuel handling processes, the fuel handling equipment, or require alteration of the plant fuel storage systems. The amendment places a restriction on use of the new fuel storage vaults, requiring that new fuel be placed only in the spent fuel pool racks. Because no changes to fuel handling equipment, fuel storage systems, or fuel handling processes are involved, the proposed amendment does not increase the probability or consequences of a fuel handling accident.
Therefore, the proposed change does not increase the probability or consequences of a previously evaluated accident.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed modification to the Technical Specifications does not require changes to the plant hardware or alter the operating characteristics of any plant system. As a result, no new failure modes are being introduced. Therefore, the change does not introduce a new or different kind of accident from those previously evaluated.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change to TS 4.3.1.2 ensures that the criticality margins of safety for fuel storage are maintained, by excluding the new fuel storage vault as an approved fuel storage location. The change restricts the storage of new fuel to the spent fuel pool racks, which are fully analyzed from a criticality standpoint. The change does not physically alter the fuel storage systems, or modify fuel storage requirements in such a way as to degrade the margins of criticality safety.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change conservatively imposes additional operational controls on the highest capacity flow path of PG to the Reactor Coolant System (RCS). These controls are currently credited in the boron dilution analysis in Refueling Shutdown and Cold Shutdown modes. The proposed change extends these controls into Intermediate and Hot Shutdown modes. As such, the change will provide defense against rapid reactivity insertions due to boron dilution events and reduce the probability of boron dilution events. The proposed change will have no impact on normal operating plant releases and will not increase the predicted radiological consequences of accidents postulated in the UFSAR [Updated Final Safety Analysis Report]. The proposed change makes no physical modifications and does not change plant design.
Therefore, neither the probability of occurrence nor the consequences of any accident previously evaluated is significantly increased.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change is an extension of existing operational controls on PG flow to the RCS to include additional operating modes. The change precludes high flow rate boron dilutions in Intermediate and Hot Shutdown modes similar to the current TS requirement in Refueling and Cold Shutdown modes. It does not affect the operation of the emergency boration function of the Chemical and Volume Control System (CVCS).
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously analyzed.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change provides defense against rapid reactivity insertions to potential boron dilution events in shutdown operating modes and reduces the probability of boron dilution events. As such, it increases the margin of safety for the boron dilution event.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
During the period since publication of the last biweekly notice, the Commission has issued the following amendments. The Commission has determined for each of these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or combined license, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
Unless otherwise indicated, the Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments. If the Commission has prepared an environmental assessment under the special circumstances provision in 10 CFR 51.22(b) and has made a determination based on that assessment, it is so indicated.
For further details with respect to the action see (1) the applications for amendment, (2) the amendment, and (3) the Commission's related letter, Safety Evaluation and/or Environmental Assessment as indicated. All of these items can be accessed as described in the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
The amendments also made the following administrative changes: (1) Deletion of the information regarding the performance of containment visual inspections as required by Regulatory Position C.3, as the containment inspections are addressed in TS Surveillance Requirement 3.6.1.1, and (2) deletion of the information regarding the performance of the next Catawba Nuclear Station, Unit 1, Type A test no later than November 13, 2015, and the next Catawba Nuclear Station, Unit 2, Type A test no later than February 6, 2008, as both Type A tests have already occurred.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated September 12, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated September 26, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated September 13, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in an SE dated September 16, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated September 15, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated September 14, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in an SE dated September 19, 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; withdrawal by applicant.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has granted the request of Tennessee Valley Authority (the licensee) to withdraw its application dated July 3, 2013, for a proposed amendment to DPR-77 and DPR-79. The proposed amendment would have revised Units 1 and 2 Technical Specification
October 11, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2014-0045 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Andrew Hon, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-8480, email:
The NRC has granted the request of Tennessee Valley Authority (the licensee) to withdraw its July 3, 2013, application (ADAMS Accession No. ML13199A281) for proposed amendment to Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-77 and DPR-79 issued to the licensee for operation of the Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2, located in Hamilton County, Tennessee.
The licensee requested to revise Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2 Technical Specification
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
October 10, 17, 24, 31, November 7, 14, 2016.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of October 10, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of November 7, 2016.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of November 14, 2016.
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Notice of a revised system of records.
The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) is revising a system of records in its inventory of record systems subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended.
The revisions will be effective without further notice forty (40) calendar days from the date of this publication, unless we receive comments that result in a contrary determination.
Send written comments to the Program Manager for the Freedom of Information and Privacy Act office, National Background Investigations Bureau, 1137 Branchton Road, PO Box 618, Boyers, Pennsylvania 16018.
Program Manager, Freedom of Information and Privacy Act office,
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended, OPM, National Background Investigations Bureau is revising the Personnel Investigations Records (OPM/Central-9) system of records. The records in this system may be used to provide investigatory information for determinations concerning whether an individual is or continues to be suitable or fit for Government employment or military service; eligible for logical and physical access to federally controlled facilities and information systems; eligible to hold a sensitive position (including but not limited to eligibility for access to classified information); fit to perform work for or on behalf of the Government as an employee of a contractor; qualified for Government service; qualified to perform contractual services for the Government; and loyal to the United States. The system is also used to document such determinations.
OPM is revising OPM/Central-9, Personnel Investigations Records, by adding two categories of individuals, namely, individuals who are applicants or employees of the District of Columbia Public Schools, and individuals about whom OPM has provided an adjudication advisory opinion at the request of another Federal agency's adjudication or security office.
OPM is updating and adding categories of records to ensure consistency with the Federal Investigative Standards. Specifically, OPM is amending record category “a” to acknowledge that under the Federal Investigative Standards, OPM/Central-9 may include civil and criminal fingerprint histories, bureau of vital
OPM is revising the language in the already existing purposes and adding new purposes for which the records are used. The revisions to existing purposes and new purposes are consistent with the purpose for which the records were originally collected, as described above. The revised language clarifies that background investigations include investigations related to military service; that the authority for OPM to use the data for personnel research is 5 U.S.C. 1103(a)(8); and that initiatives to make background investigations more effective and efficient may be undertaken either by OPM or by the Office of the Director of National Intelligence. The new purposes are for supporting legally-authorized homeland security, law enforcement, intelligence, and insider threat detection and prevention activities.
OPM is updating the system's authority citation; adding an explanation of procedures for agencies holding decentralized segments of OPM/Central-9; adding new routine uses and revising the language in the already existing routine uses; updating the safeguards for records in the system; defining new requirements for notification, access, and amendment procedures; revising the record source categories; revising language in the section on exempted records; and, adding language reserving the right to assert exemptions for records received from another agency that could be properly claimed by that agency in responding to a request and to refuse access to information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding. Additionally, OPM is noting two edits in the Security Classification and Amendment Procedures sections to correct verbiage that is misquoted online in the
Specifically regarding the addition of new routine uses and revision of existing routine uses, OPM is making the following revisions:
• To eliminate unnecessary duplication, OPM combined four existing routine uses related to background investigations, adjudications, employment, and contracting (formerly routine uses a, b, c, and g) into three routine uses (a, e, and aa), while making clarifying changes to their text.
• OPM has incorporated, as routine uses l through q, the text of six routine uses from the OPM Prefatory Statement of Routine Uses for Internal and Central Systems of Records, which we previously incorporated only by reference. We revised one of these routine uses—related to disclosure of information for equal employment opportunity (EEO) activities—to eliminate obsolete text related to certain compliance matters, and to add text related to matters for which the records may be used (in processing Federal-sector EEO complaints).
• OPM has revised the language of an existing routine use (now routine use b) to permit release of records to any element of the U.S. intelligence community for use in intelligence activities for the purpose of protecting United States national security interests.
• OPM has added a new routine use x for release of records to insider threat, counterintelligence, and counterterrorism officials, consistent with E.O. 13587 of October 7, 2011.
• OPM has revised an existing routine use and added an additional routine use (now routine uses j and k) for release of records in connection with data breach detection, prevention, and remediation, based on new Office of Management and Budget guidance.
• OPM has added routine uses r and s for release of records to an agency Office of Inspector General for investigations of misconduct or fraud and the performance of audit authorities under the Inspector General Act of 1978.
• OPM has added routine use t for release of records related to unemployment claims.
• OPM has added routine use u for the release of records to appropriately-cleared individuals to determine whether information is or should be classified.
• OPM has added two routine uses (v and w) for release of records to the Director of National Intelligence consistent with section 3001 of the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004, and E.O. 13467 of June 30, 2008.
• OPM has added routine use y for the release of records to Federal, State, local, tribal, foreign, or other public authority in the event of a natural or manmade disaster.
• OPM has added routine use z for the release of records to Federal, State, and local government agencies, if necessary, to obtain information from them which will assist OPM in its responsibilities as an authorized Investigation Service Provider to evaluate and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of background investigation methodologies.
• OPM has eliminated, as obsolete, application to this system of records of one prefatory routine use (routine use 6) related to statistical studies.
• OPM has eliminated, as obsolete, former routine use i, for furnishing information to the Office of Management and Budget in connection with the coordination and clearance of private relief legislation.
• Former routine uses e, f, j, k, and l have been renumbered as routine uses c, d, g, h, and i.
OPM notes that individuals seeking records of investigations performed by other investigative agencies, which have their own systems of records, should contact those agencies instead of the Office of Personnel Management.
Depending on the purpose of the investigation, the Executive Orders (E.O.s) 9397, 10450, 10577, 10865, 12333, 12968, and 13467, as amended; E.O.s 13488 and 13549; 5 U.S.C. 1103, 1302, 1303, 1304, 3301, 7301, 9101, and 11001; 22 U.S.C. 272b, 290a, and 2519; 31 U.S.C. 1537; 42 U.S.C. 1874(b)(3), 2165, 2201, and 20132; 50 U.S.C. 3341; Public Law 108-136; 5 CFR parts 2, 5, 731, 732, 736, and 1400; and Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 (HSPD 12).
The probable or potential effect on individual privacy is limited. Additional routine uses of the information have been added which are still consistent with the purpose for which we collect the information. Records in OPM/Central-9 continue to be restricted to individuals who have undergone the appropriate background investigation and have a need to know in order to perform their official duties or to recipients as is consistent with the conditions of disclosures under the Privacy Act to include the routine uses published in the System of Records Notice.
Personnel Investigations Records
None for the system. However, records within the system may have national security/foreign policy classifications up through Top Secret.
a. National Background Investigations Bureau (NBIB), P.O. Box 618, 1137 Branchton Road, Boyers, PA 16018-0618.
b. Records may be maintained in various NBIB field offices, including the Personnel Investigations Center, 601 10th Street, Fort Meade, MD, for limited periods of time. These records would include investigative and administrative records, including files and duplicate records or records which extract information from the main files. This is necessary to assist field offices in their day to day operations. Investigative activities conducted by field offices are reported to NBIB headquarters at one or more stages of the background investigation process. Upon completion of activities to include fieldwork, quality review, and/or adjudicative action, documents are returned to NBIB headquarters or destroyed in accordance with the published retention schedule.
c.
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a. Civilian and military applicants and Federal employees or employees of government contractors, experts, instructors, and consultants to Federal programs who undergo a personnel background investigation for the purpose of determining suitability for government employment, fitness for appointment to an excepted service position, fitness to perform work under a Government contract, eligibility to serve in a national security sensitive position, acceptance or retention in the armed forces, eligibility for access to classified information, and/or eligibility for logical or physical access to a federally controlled facility or information technology system.
b. Individuals who are current or former employees or applicants for employment with International Organizations.
c. Individuals considered for assignment as representatives of the Federal Government in volunteer programs.
d. Individuals who are neither applicants nor employees of the Federal Government, but who are or were involved in Federal programs under a co-operative assignment or under a similar agreement.
e. Individuals who are neither applicants nor employees of the Federal Government, but who are or were involved in matters related to the administration of the merit system.
f. State, Local, Tribal and Private Sector partners identified by Federal sponsors for eligibility to access classified information in support of homeland defense initiatives.
g. Individuals who are applicants or employees of the District of Columbia Public Schools.
h. Individuals about whom OPM has provided an adjudication advisory opinion at the request of another Federal agency's adjudication or security office.
a. Records containing the following information about the individual investigated may be maintained: Name, former names, and aliases; date and place of birth; Social Security Number; height; weight; hair and eye color; gender; mother's maiden name; current and former home addresses, phone numbers, and email addresses; employment history; military record information; selective service registration record; residential history; education and degrees earned; names of associates and references with their contact information; citizenship; passport information; criminal history record information; criminal or civil fingerprint history information; civil court actions; bureau of vital statistics records; publicly available electronic information; prior and current security clearance and investigative information, including information from the U.S. Intelligence Community; mental health history; records related to drug and/or alcohol use; financial record information; information from the Internal Revenue Service pertaining to income tax returns; credit reports; the name, date and place of birth, Social Security Number, citizenship information, criminal history, and prior security clearance and investigative information for spouse or cohabitant; the name and marriage information for current and former spouse(s); the citizenship, name, date and place of birth, and address for relatives; information on foreign contacts and activities; association records; information on loyalty to the United States; and other agency reports furnished to OPM in connection with the background investigation process, and other information developed from above.
b. Summaries of personal and third party interviews conducted during the course of the background investigation.
c. Correspondence relating to adjudication matters and results of suitability decisions in cases adjudicated by the OPM in accordance with 5 CFR part 731.
d. Records of personnel background investigations conducted by other Federal agencies.
e. Records of adjudicative and credentialing decisions by other Federal agencies, including clearance determinations and/or indicators that polygraph(s) were administered.
f. Records of electronic investigative forms completed by the subject and/or submitted to other Federal Agencies that utilize the Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-QIP) system.
This system does not include agency records of a personnel investigative nature that do not come to OPM
Depending on the purpose of the investigation, Executive Orders (E.O.s) 9397, 10450, 10577, 10865, 12333, 12968, and 13467, as amended; E.O.s 13488 and 13549; 5 U.S.C. 1103, 1302, 1303, 1304, 3301, 7301, 9101, and 11001; 22 U.S.C. 272b, 290a, 2519; 31 U.S.C. 1537; 42 U.S.C. 1874(b)(3), 2165, 2201, and 20132; 50 U.S.C. 3341; Public Law 108-136; 5 CFR parts 2, 5, 731, 732, 736, and 1400; and Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 (HSPD 12).
The records in this system may be used to provide investigatory information for determinations concerning whether an individual is or continues to be suitable or fit for Government employment or military service; eligible for logical and physical access to federally controlled facilities and information systems; eligible to hold a sensitive position (including but not limited to eligibility for access to classified information); fit to perform work for or on behalf of the Government as an employee of a contractor; qualified for Government service; qualified to perform contractual services for the Government; and loyal to the United States. The system is also used to document such determinations.
To otherwise comply with mandates and Executive Orders.
The records may be used to locate individuals for personnel research conducted under 5 U.S.C. 1103(a)(8).
The records may be used by OPM and the Office of the Director of National Intelligence to streamline and make more effective and efficient the investigations and adjudications processes generally.
The records may be used in support of legally authorized U.S. homeland security, law enforcement, intelligence and/or insider threat program functions to identify whether an individual poses a terrorism, foreign intelligence, and/or insider threat to the United States.
The records may be used in support of Executive Order 13549 and related implementing directives supporting homeland security matters.
The records may be used to assist in legally authorized intelligence activities, including threat analyses and damage assessments.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act, all or a portion of the records of information contained in this system may be disclosed outside OPM as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3). OPM provides a report of investigation to an agency only for a specified purpose, as described in this Notice. Internal agency review of the record, for the purpose it was given to the recipient agency or another purpose described in this Notice, is permissible. Any other disclosure requires OPM's consent as described in the
a. To designated officers and employees of agencies, offices, and other establishments in the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the Federal Government or the Government of the District of Columbia having a need to investigate, evaluate, or make a determination regarding loyalty to the United States; qualifications, suitability, or fitness for Government employment or military service; eligibility for logical or physical access to federally-controlled facilities or information systems; eligibility for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position; qualifications or fitness to perform work for or on behalf of the Government under contract, grant, or other agreement; or access to restricted areas.
b. To an element of the U.S. Intelligence Community as identified in E.O. 12333, as amended, for use in intelligence activities for the purpose of
c. To any source from which information is requested in the course of an investigation, to the extent necessary to identify the individual, inform the source of the nature and purpose of the investigation, and to identify the type of information requested.
d. To the appropriate Federal, state, local, tribal, foreign, or other public authority responsible for investigating, prosecuting, enforcing, or implementing a statute, rule, regulation, or order where OPM becomes aware of an indication of a violation or potential violation of civil or criminal law or regulation.
e. To an agency, office, or other establishment in the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of the Federal Government in response to its request, in connection with its current employee's, contractor employee's, or military member's retention; loyalty; qualifications, suitability, or fitness for employment; eligibility for logical or physical access to federally-controlled facilities or information systems; eligibility for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position; qualifications or fitness to perform work for or on behalf of the Government under contract, grant, or other agreement; or access to restricted areas.
f. To provide information to a congressional office from the record of an individual in response to an inquiry from the congressional office made at the request of that individual. However, the investigative file, or parts thereof, will only be released to a congressional office if OPM receives a notarized authorization or signed statement under 28 U.S.C. 1746 from the subject of the investigation.
g. To disclose information to contractors, grantees, or volunteers performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or job for the Federal Government.
h. For agencies that use adjudicative support services of another agency, at the request of the original agency, the results will be furnished to the agency providing the adjudicative support.
i. To provide criminal history record information to the FBI, to help ensure the accuracy and completeness of FBI and OPM records.
j. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) OPM suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) OPM has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, the agency (including its information systems, programs and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with OPM's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
k. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when OPM determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the agency (including its information systems, programs and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
l. To disclose information to another Federal agency, to a court, or a party in litigation before a court or in an administrative proceeding being conducted by a Federal agency, when the Government is a party to the judicial or administrative proceeding. In those cases where the Government is not a party to the proceeding, records may be disclosed if a subpoena has been signed by a judge.
m. To disclose information to the National Archives and Records Administration for use in records management inspections.
n. To disclose information to the Department of Justice, or in a proceeding before a court, adjudicative body, or other administrative body before which OPM is authorized to appear, when:
(1) OPM, or any component thereof; or
(2) Any employee of OPM in his or her official capacity; or
(3) Any employee of OPM in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice or OPM has agreed to represent the employee; or
(4) The United States, when OPM determines that litigation is likely to affect OPM or any of its components;is a party to litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and the use of such records by the Department of Justice or OPM is deemed by OPM to be relevant and necessary to the litigation, provided, however, that the disclosure is compatible with the purpose for which records were collected.
o. For the Merit Systems Protection Board—To disclose information to officials of the Merit Systems Protection Board or the Office of the Special Counsel, when requested in connection with appeals, special studies of the civil service and other merit systems, review of OPM rules and regulations, investigations of alleged or possible prohibited personnel practices, and such other functions,
p. To disclose information to an agency Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) office or to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission when requested in connection with investigations into alleged or possible discrimination practices in the Federal sector, or in the processing of a Federal-sector EEO complaint.
q. To disclose information to the Federal Labor Relations Authority or its General Counsel when requested in connection with investigations of allegations of unfair labor practices or matters before the Federal Service Impasses Panel.
r. To another Federal agency's Office of Inspector General when OPM becomes aware of an indication of misconduct or fraud during the applicant's submission of the standard forms.
s. To another Federal agency's Office of Inspector General in connection with its inspection or audit activity of the investigative or adjudicative processes and procedures of its agency as authorized by the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended, exclusive of requests for civil or criminal law enforcement activities.
t. To a Federal agency or state unemployment compensation office upon its request in order to adjudicate a claim for unemployment compensation benefits when the claim for benefits is made as the result of a qualifications, suitability, fitness, security, identity credential, or access determination.
u. To appropriately cleared individuals in Federal agencies, to determine whether information obtained in the course of processing the background investigation is or should be classified.
v. To the Office of the Director of National Intelligence for inclusion in its Scattered Castles system in order to facilitate reciprocity of background investigations and security clearances within the intelligence community or assist agencies in obtaining information required by the Federal Investigative Standards.
w. To the Director of National Intelligence, or assignee, such information as may be requested and relevant to implement the responsibilities of the Security Executive Agent for personnel security,
x. To Executive Branch Agency insider threat, counterintelligence, and counterterrorism officials to fulfill their responsibilities under applicable Federal law and policy, including but not limited to E.O. 12333, 13587 and the National Insider Threat Policy and Minimum Standards.
y. To the appropriate Federal, State, local, tribal, foreign, or other public authority in the event of a natural or manmade disaster. The record will be used to provide leads to assist in locating missing subjects or assist in determining the health and safety of the subject. The record will also be used to assist in identifying victims and locating any surviving next of kin.
z. To Federal, State, and local government agencies, if necessary, to obtain information from them which will assist OPM in its responsibilities as the authorized Investigation Service Provider in conducting studies and analyses in support of evaluating and improving the effectiveness and efficiency of the background investigation methodologies.
aa. To an agency, office, or other establishment in the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of the Federal Government in response to its request, in connection with the classifying of jobs, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by the requesting agency, to the extent that the information is relevant and necessary to the requesting agency's decision on the matter.
Records are maintained in paper format in file folders, on microfilm, as digital images, on computer tapes, and in electronic databases such as the Personnel Investigations Processing System, the Central Verification System, and the e-QIP system.
Records are retrieved by the name, Social Security Number, unique case serial number and/or other unique identifier of the individual on whom they are maintained.
Paper files are stored in a locked filing cabinet or a secure facility with an intrusion alarm system. Microfilm is secured in a facility with an intrusion system. Electronic records are maintained on secure servers in a limited access room with a keyless cipher lock and/or smart card reader. All employees who have a need to access the information are required to have the appropriate investigation consistent with the risk and sensitivity designation of that position, and the investigation must be favorably adjudicated or an interim access be granted before they are allowed access to the records.
The U.S. Postal Service and other postal providers are used to transmit hard copy records sent to and from field offices. Information that is transmitted electronically from field offices is encrypted.
Investigative files and the computerized data bases which show the scheduling or completion of an investigation are retained for 16 years from the date of closing or the date of the most recent investigative activity, whichever is later, except for investigations involving potentially actionable issue(s), which will be maintained for 25 years from the date of closing or the date of the most recent investigative activity.
The digital capture of a fingerprint card set is forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, and the card is destroyed when it is verified that the digital copy was accurately captured and transferred.
Hard copy records are destroyed by shredding and recycling, and computerized records are destroyed by electronic erasure.
Director, National Background Investigations Bureau, U.S. Office of Personnel Management, P.O. Box 618, 1137 Branchton Road, Boyers, PA 16018.
Specific materials in this system have been exempted from Privacy Act provisions at 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1), regarding providing an accounting of disclosures to the data subject, access to and amendment of records, and maintaining in its records only such information that is relevant and necessary. The section of this notice titled Systems Exempted from Certain Provisions of the Act indicates the kinds of material exempted and the reasons for exempting them from access.
Individuals wishing to learn whether this system contains information about them or wishing to request access to their record should contact: FOI/PA, Office of Personnel Management, National Background Investigations Bureau, P.O. Box 618, 1137 Branchton Road, Boyers, PA 16018-0618, in writing. Written requests must contain the following information:
a. Full name.
b. Date and place of birth.
c. Full Social Security Number.
d. Any available information regarding the type of record involved.
e. The address to which the record information should be sent.
f. Two forms of acceptable identity source documents.
g. An original notarized statement or an unsworn declaration in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
An attorney or other persons acting on behalf of an individual must provide written authorization from that individual for the representative to act on the individual's behalf. The written authorization must also include an original notarized statement or an unsworn declaration in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
Individuals requesting access must also comply with OPM's Privacy Act regulations regarding verification of identity and access to records (5 CFR part 297).
A detailed list of acceptable identity source documents can be found on the OPM Web site at
Specific materials in this system have been exempted from Privacy Act provisions at 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1), regarding providing an accounting of disclosures to the data subject, access to and amendment of records, and maintaining in its records only such information that is relevant and necessary. The section of this notice titled Systems Exempted from Certain Provisions of the Act indicates the kinds of material exempted and the reasons for exempting them from amendment.
Individuals wishing to request amendment to their non-exempt records should contact the Federal Investigations Processing Center in writing. Requests should be directed only to the OPM National Background Investigations Bureau, whether the record sought is in the primary system or in an agency's decentralized segment.
a. Full name.
b. Date and place of birth.
c. Full Social Security Number.
d. The precise identification of the records to be amended.
e. The identification of the specific material to be deleted, added, or changed.
f. A statement of the reasons for the request, including all available material substantiating the request.
g. The address to which correspondence should be sent.
h. Two forms of acceptable identity source documents.
i. An original notarized statement or an unsworn declaration in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
An attorney or other person acting on behalf of an individual must provide written authorization from that individual for the representative to act on the individual's behalf. The written authorization must also include an original notarized statement or an unsworn declaration in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
Individuals requesting amendment must also comply with OPM's Privacy Act regulations regarding verification of identity and amendment of records (5 CFR part 297).
A detailed list of acceptable identity source documents can be found on the OPM Web site at
Where an agency retains the decentralized copy of the investigative report provided by OPM, requests for access to or amendment of such reports will be forwarded to the OPM National Background Investigations Bureau for processing.
Information contained in this system of records is obtained from:
a. Electronic and paper applications, personnel and security forms or other information completed or supplied by the individual, and the results of personal contacts with the individual.
b. Investigative and other record material furnished by Federal agencies, including notices of personnel actions.
c. By personal investigation, written inquiry, or computer linkage from sources such as employers, educational institutions, references, neighbors, associates, police departments, courts, credit bureaus, medical records, probation officials, prison officials, and other sources, including publically available information such as newspapers, magazines, periodicals, and public posts on social media.
OPM has claimed that all information in these records that meets the criteria stated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(k) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) is exempt from the requirements of the Privacy Act that relate to providing an accounting of disclosures to the data subject, access to and amendment of records, and maintaining in its records only such information that is relevant and necessary. (5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), and (e)(1)).
This system may contain the following types of exempt information:
1. Properly classified information subject to the provisions of section 552(b)(1), which references matters that are “(A) specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and (B) are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order.” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
2. “[I]nvestigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection (j)(2) of [5 U.S.C. 552a]: Provided, however, [t]hat if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit that he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be provided to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to the effective date of this section, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence[.]” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
3. Information “maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to section 3056 of title 18 [of the U.S. Code].” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3).
4. Material that is “required by statute to be maintained and used solely as a statistical record.” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
5. “[I]nvestigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information . . . .” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5). Materials may be exempted only to the extent that release of the material to the individual whom the information is about “would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence or, prior to [September 27, 1975, furnished information to the Government] under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.” Id.
6. Testing and examination materials, compiled during the course of a personnel investigation, that are “used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service,” when disclosure of the material “would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process.” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6).
7. Evaluation materials, compiled during the course of a personnel investigation, that are used to determine potential for promotion in the armed services can be exempted to the extent that the disclosure of the data “would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence or, prior to [September 27, 1975,] under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.” 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7).
These exemptions are codified by regulation in 5 CFR 297.501(b)(5). In addition, under 5 CFR 297.501(c), OPM reserves the right to assert exemptions for records received from another agency that could be properly claimed by that agency in responding to a request; and to refuse access to information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding. Under this regulation OPM may assert exemption (j)(1) on behalf of an agency authorized to assert it.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is proposing to make a modification to Exchange Rule 22.3, Continuing Options Market Maker Registration, to remove the provision of the rule that requires termination of a Member's Options Market Maker registration in an option series if the Options Market Maker fails to enter quotations in the series within five business days after the Options Market Maker's registration in the series becomes effective.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rule 22.3 to remove subparagraph (c), which currently requires the Exchange to terminate a firm's Options Market Maker registration if it does not enter quotations in an option series in which it is registered within five business days after the Options Market Maker's registration in the series becomes effective. Currently, the Exchange surveils whether a newly registered Options Market Maker enters quotations in the series within five business days of registration. If an Options Market Maker does not, the Exchange is required by Exchange Rule 22.3(c) to automatically deregister the Options Market Maker in that series. The Exchange views Exchange Rule 22.3(c) as largely duplicative of other Exchange Rules and excessively rigid in view of other Exchange Rules that allow the Exchange discretion and flexibility in determining an appropriate remedy.
Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) provides that Options Market Makers are expected to “maintain active markets” in all series in which they are registered. Both Rule 22.3(c) and Rule 22.5(a)(6) impose an obligation upon registered Options Market Maker to maintain active markets. The main difference is that Exchange Rule 22.3(c) applies only to the first five days that an Options Market Maker is registered, whereas Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) applies during the first five days and continues for as long as the Options Market Maker is registered in a series. The Exchange believes that there is no benefit to imposing stricter quoting obligations on a newly registered Options Market Maker than those imposed on existing registered Options Market Makers. Instead, in the Exchange's view, the requirement to maintain active markets should be the same from when an Options Market Maker first registers as any time after registration.
The Exchange notes that it will continue to be permitted to deregister a registered Options Market Maker under Exchange Rule 22.2(b) if it is found that the Options Market Maker has failed in its obligation to maintain active markets under Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) or fails its obligation to provide continuous two-sided quotes under Rule 22.6(d).
The Exchange currently conducts surveillance to monitor and enforce compliance with the “active markets” provision of Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) for all Options Market Makers. A registered Options Market Maker is subject to the Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) surveillance for the entire time the Options Market Maker is registered, including the first five days covered by Exchange Rule 22.3(c). If a registered Options Market Maker is found by surveillance not to be maintaining active markets in the option series in which it is registered, the Exchange will determine the appropriate course of action against such Options Market Maker. The Exchange may take actions of escalating severity against the offending Options Market Maker from an informal warning up to deregistering the Options Market Maker in the options in which it fails to maintain active markets or bringing formal action.
On the other hand, current Exchange Rule 22.3(c) is non-discretionary and its enforcement can lead to potentially arbitrary results, as it does not permit the Exchange to consider the facts and circumstances of each case in enforcing the rule. While as a general matter an Options Market Maker should enter quotations in a series in which it is registered as soon as practicable, experience has shown that many factors can affect when a newly registered Options Market Maker will be in a position to begin entering quotations. Further, as discussed above [sic], Exchange Rule 22.6(d) contemplates certain acceptable periods of inactivity. Just as the Exchange is provided discretion to enforce all Options Market Maker obligations under Exchange Rule 22.2(b), the Exchange believes that it should be afforded the same discretion to evaluate the facts and circumstances of each case in which an Options
Finally, other national options exchanges do not require automatic deregistration of a registered Options Market Maker from an options series when the Options Market Maker fails to submit a quote within the first five days of registration. Other exchanges allow considerably more discretion in determining the appropriate remedy for a registered Options Market Maker that fails its quoting obligations. For example, neither the Chicago Board Options Exchange (“CBOE”), nor the Miami International Securities Exchange (“MIAX”), nor NYSE Arca, Inc. Options (“NYSE Arca”), has a requirement to automatically deregister an options market maker if it fails in its quoting or other obligations within five days of registration. Instead, each of the above exchanges appears to rely on a rule substantively identical to Exchange Rule 22.2(b) that gives the respective exchange discretion as to the appropriate remedy for Options Market Makers that do not meet their obligations.
The Exchange, therefore, proposes to amend Exchange Rule 22.3 to remove subparagraph (c) and to enforce its Options Market Maker “active market” obligations with the remedies permitted in Exchange Rule 22.2(b) and Exchange Rule 22.5(c).
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(1)
Additionally, the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change does not introduce any burden on competition, but rather, removes the automatic deregistration requirement of Exchange Rule 22.3(c) to allow the Exchange to apply the obligation to maintain active markets to all registered Options Market Makers equally.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The proposed rule change would establish a change in the processing of transactions in money market instruments (“MMI”) that are processed in DTC's MMI Program (“MMI Securities”) by modifying (i) the DTC Rules, By-laws and Organization Certificate (“Rules”),
In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The clearing agency has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this proposed rule change is to (i) mitigate risk to DTC and Participants relating to intra-day reversals of processed MMI Obligations in the event of an IPA's RTP with respect to maturing obligations (“Maturing Obligations”)
When an Issuer issues MMI Securities at DTC, the IPA for that Issuer sends issuance instructions to DTC electronically, which results in crediting the applicable MMI Securities to the DTC Account of the IPA. These MMI Securities are then Delivered to the Accounts of applicable Participants that are purchasing the Issuance in accordance with their purchase amounts. These purchasing Participants typically include broker/dealers or banks, acting as custodians for institutional investors. The IPA Delivery instructions may be free of payment or, most often, Delivery Versus Payment. Deliveries of MMI are processed pursuant to the same Rules and the applicable Procedures
When MMI Securities mature, the Maturity Presentment process is initiated automatically by DTC on maturity date, starting at approximately 6:00 a.m. Eastern Time (“ET”), for Delivery of matured MMI Securities from the applicable DTC Participants' Accounts to the applicable IPA Accounts. This automated process electronically sweeps all maturing positions of MMI Securities from Participant Accounts and debits the Settlement Account of the applicable IPA for the amount of the Maturing Obligations for Presentments for the Acronym and credits the Settlement Accounts of the Deliverers. In accordance with the Rules, payment is due from the IPA for settlement to the extent, if any, that the IPA has a Net Debit Balance in its Settlement Account at end-of-day.
With regard to DTC net settlement, MMI Issuers and IPAs commonly consider the primary source of payments for Maturing Obligations of MMI Securities to be funded by the proceeds of Issuances of the same Acronym by that Issuer on the same Business Day. Because Presentments are currently processed automatically at DTC, IPAs have the option to refuse to pay for Maturing Obligations to protect against the possibility that an IPA may not be able to fund settlement because it has not received funds from the relevant Issuer. An IPA that refuses payment for a Presentment (
Under the current Rules, the effect of an RTP is to instruct DTC to reverse all processed Deliveries of that Acronym, including Issuances, related funds credits and debits, and Presentments. This late day reversal of processed (but not yet settled) transactions may override DTC's risk management controls (
Currently, to mitigate the risks associated with an RTP, DTC Rules and the Settlement Guide provide for the LPNC risk management control. DTC withholds credit intra-day from each Participant that has a Presentment in the amount of the aggregate of the two largest credits with respect to an Acronym. The LPNC is not included in the calculation of the Participant's Collateral Monitor or its Net Debit Balance. This provides protection in the event that MMI Obligations are reversed by DTC as a result of an RTP.
DTC's Rules and Procedures relating to settlement processing for the MMI Program
The proposed rule change would amend the Rules and the Settlement Guide to eliminate provisions for intra-day reversals of processed MMI Obligations based on an IPA's RTP or Issuer insolvency. In addition, the proposed rule change would amend the Distributions Guide to make changes to text relating to the processing of Income Presentments so that it is consistent with the changes proposed in the Settlement Guide in that regard, as more fully described below.
Pursuant to the proposed rule change, DTC would no longer automatically process Presentments (and Issuances and related deliveries). Rather, except as noted below, DTC would only process these transactions after an acknowledgment (“MMI Funding Acknowledgment”) is made by the IPA to DTC whereby either: (i) The value of
DTC anticipates that the proposed rule change would generally maintain the volume of transactions processed today in terms of the total number and value of transactions that have passed position and risk controls throughout the processing day. However, because of the requirement for the IPA to provide an MMI Funding Acknowledgement prior to processing of an Acronym, the reason why transactions do not complete during the processing day would shift. It is expected that the value and volume of MMI transactions recycling for risk management controls during the late morning and afternoon time periods would be reduced as a result of MMI transactions being held outside of the processing system awaiting an MMI Funding Acknowledgement decision. The non-MMI transactions and fully funded MMI transactions would also likely have a reduction in blockage from risk management controls as a result of the elimination of the LPNC control. The elimination of the LPNC control would no longer withhold billions of dollars of settlement credits until 3:05 p.m. ET as it does today, which would in turn permit these transactions to complete earlier in the day.
An IPA would make an MMI Funding Acknowledgment using a new Decision Making Application (“DMA”). When an MMI Funding Acknowledgement has occurred, it would constitute the IPA's instruction to DTC to attempt to process transactions in the Acronym. At this point, if the IPA has acknowledged that it would fully fund the Acronym, then the transactions would be sent to the processing system and attempted against position and risk management controls. If the IPA provides an MMI Funding Acknowledgement for only partial funding of the entire amount of Presentments for an Acronym, DTC would test risk management controls of Deliverers and Receivers with respect to that Acronym to determine whether risk management controls would be satisfied by all Deliverers and Receivers of the Acronym and determine whether all parties maintain adequate position to complete the applicable transactions,
As indicated above, if partial funding from the IPA is necessary, then transactions would be routed to MMI Optimization. Generally, in MMI Optimization, all Deliverers and Receivers of the Acronym must satisfy risk management controls and delivering Participants must hold sufficient position, in order for the transactions in that Acronym to be processed. However, as long as the Issuances that can satisfy Deliverer and Receiver risk controls for that Acronym are equal to or greater than the Maturing Presentments of that Acronym, the applicable transactions (
If there is no MMI Funding Acknowledgment for the IPA for an Acronym for which Maturing Obligations are due by 3:00 p.m. ET on that day and/or DTC is aware that the Issuer of an Acronym is insolvent (“Acronym Payment Failure”), then DTC would not process transactions in the Acronym.
In the event of an Acronym Payment Failure, DTC would (i) prevent further issuance and maturity activity for the Acronym in DTC's system, (ii) prevent Deliveries of MMI Securities of the Acronym on failure date and halt all activity in that Acronym, (iii) set the Collateral Value of the MMI Securities in the Acronym to zero for purposes of calculating the Collateral Monitor of any affected Participant, and (iv) notify Participants of the Acronym Payment Failure. Notification would be made through a DTC broadcast through the current process.
Notwithstanding the occurrence of an Acronym Payment Failure, the IPA would remain liable for funding pursuant to any MMI Funding Acknowledgment previously provided for that Business Day.
A “Temporary Acronym Payment Failure” with respect to Income Presentments would occur when an IPA notifies DTC that it temporarily refuses to pay Income Presentments for the Acronym (typically due to an Issuer's inability to fund Income Presentments on that day). A Temporary Acronym Payment Failure would only be initiated if there are no Maturity Presentments, Principal Presentments and/or Reorganization Presentments on that Business Day. DTC expects the Issuer and/or IPA to resolve such a situation by the next Business Day. In the event of a Temporary Acronym Payment Failure, DTC would (i) temporarily devalue to zero all of the Issuer's MMI Securities for purposes of calculating the Collateral Monitor, unless and until the IPA acknowledges funding with respect to the Income Payments on the following Business Day, (ii) notify Participants of the delayed payment through a DTC broadcast as is the current process today, and (iii) block from DTC's systems all further Issuances and maturities by that Issuer for the remainder of the Business Day on which notification of the Temporary Payment Failure was received by DTC.
An IPA would not be able to avail itself of a Temporary Acronym Payment Failure for the same Acronym on consecutive Business Days.
Also, in light of the proposed elimination of intra-day reversals of processed MMI Obligations, DTC would also eliminate the RVPNA control. The RVPNA control is provided for in the
DTC would amend the text of Rule 1 (Definitions), Rule 9(A) (Transactions in Securities and Money Payments), Rule 9(B) (Transactions in Eligible Securities), Rule 9(C) (Transactions in MMI Securities), the Settlement Guide and the Distributions Guide to reflect the proposed changes described above. Specifically:
(i) Rule 1 would be amended to:
a. Delete the definition of LPNC; and
b. Add a cross-reference to indicate that the terms MMI Funding Acknowledgment and MMI Optimization would be defined in Section 1 of Rule 9(C).
(ii) Rule 9(A) would be amended to add text providing that an instruction to DTC from a Participant for Delivery Versus Payment of MMI Securities pursuant to Rule 9(C) shall not be effective unless and until applicable conditions specified in Rule 9(C) as set forth below have been satisfied.
(iii) Rule 9(B) would be amended to:
a. Eliminate text referencing the LPNC;
b. Eliminate the provision precluding DTC from acting on an instruction for Delivery of MMI Securities subject of an Incomplete Transaction if the instruction involves a Free Delivery, Pledge or Release of Securities or a Delivery, Pledge or Release of Securities substantially undervalued; and
c. Add text providing that an instruction to DTC from a Participant for Delivery Versus Payment of MMI Securities pursuant to Rule 9(C) shall not be effective unless and until the applicable conditions specified in Rule 9(C) described below have been satisfied.
(iv) Rule 9(C) would be amended to:
a. Add the definitions of MMI Funding Acknowledgment and MMI Optimization to reflect the meaning of these terms as described above;
b. Add text that Delivery Versus Payment of MMI Securities would be affected in accordance with Rules 9(A), 9(B) and the Settlement Guide in addition to Rule 9(C);
c. Add text indicating that instructions by a Presenting Participant for a Presentment or Delivery of MMI Securities would be deemed to be given only when any applicable MMI Funding Acknowledgment has been received by DTC;
d. Remove conditions and references relating to reversals of processed MMI Obligations;
e. Set forth conditions for the processing of Presentments, including:
i. The requirement for the IPA to provide an MMI Funding Acknowledgment, except in the case where the aggregate amount of Issuances exceeds Presentments;
ii. Satisfaction of risk management controls and RAD;
iii. That an instruction to DTC with respect to an Issuance or Presentment shall become effective upon satisfaction of the provisions described in i. and ii. immediately above;
iv. That DTC shall comply with an effective instruction;
v. That the IPA acknowledges and agrees that DTC would process instructions with respect to Issuances and Presentments as described above and that the IPA's obligations in this regard are irrevocable; and
vi. That if the IPA notifies DTC in writing of its insolvency, or if DTC otherwise has notice, or if the IPA issues a Payment Refusal for the Acronym, then the IPA would not be required to acknowledge its obligations and DTC would not be required to process any further instructions with respect to the applicable Acronym;
f. Eliminate references to MMI Securities being devalued in the event of an RTP because in the event of any payment failure by the IPA, DTC would then revert to the Acronym Payment Failure Process described below; and
g. Delete a reference indicating that DTC's Failure to Settle Procedure includes special provisions for MMI Securities.
(v) The Settlement Guide would be amended to:
a. Delete the description of, and all references and provisions related to, LPNC;
b. Delete: (A) The definition of RVPNA, (B) a provision that transactions for MMI Securities that are deemed RVPNA would recycle pending release of the LPNC control at 3:05 p.m. ET, and (C) a note that MMI Securities received versus payment are not allowed to be freely moved until the LPNC control is released;
c. Add a description of “Unknown Rate” to provide for a placeholder in the Settlement Guide for references to an interest rate where payment of interest by an IPA to Receivers is scheduled but the interest rate to be paid is not known at the time;
d. Change the heading of the section currently named “Establishing Your Net Debit Cap” to “Limitation of Participant Net Debit Caps by Settling Banks” to reflect the context of that section more specifically;
e. Revise the Settlement Processing Schedule to:
i. Add a cutoff time of 2:30 p.m. ET for an IPA to replace the Unknown Rate with a final interest rate and state that the IPA must successfully transmit the final rate to DTC before 2:30 p.m. ET;
ii. Add a cutoff time of 2:55 p.m. ET after which Issuances and Presentments cannot be processed on the given Business Day because the conditions described above for processing of MMI Obligations have not been met;
iii. Remove a reference for a cutoff relating to reversals of MMI Obligations since reversals would no longer occur as described above;
iv. Define 3 p.m. ET as the cutoff time for any required MMI Funding Acknowledgements to be received in order for DTC to be able to process for a given Acronym that day;
v. Add at cutoff time of 3 p.m. ET for an IPA to notify DTC of a Temporary Acronym Payment Failure;
vi. Delete a reference to the release of LPNC controls as LPNC would no longer exist; and
vii. Clarify that a 3:10 p.m. ET cutoff after which CNS transactions that cannot be completed would be dropped from the system, also applies to valued transactions in non-MMI Securities and fully paid for and secondary MMI Deliveries or Maturity Presentments;
f. Add a section describing MMI Processing to include a description of MMI Funding Acknowledgments and the MMI Optimization process as described above;
g. Revise the section referencing provisions for “Issuer Failure Processing” to instead describe Acronym Payment Failure Processing and Temporary Acronym Payment Failure Process, as these processes are described above, since the contingencies
h. Remove a duplicate reference to the DTC contact number for Participants/IPAs to call in the event of an Acronym Payment Failure;
i. Remove the description of the “MMI IPA MP Pend” process which was designed to allow IPAs to minimize the impact of potential reversals of processed MMI Obligations; as such reversals would no longer occur; and
j. Change the name of the section named “Calculating Your Net Debit Cap” to “Calculation of Participant Net Debit Caps”.
(vi) The Distributions Guide would be amended to (i) delete language reflecting that Income Presentments are processed at the start-of-day, and (ii) add a brief description of the processing of Presentments as proposed above and provide a cross-reference to the Settlement Guide relating to MMI settlement processing.
(vii) The proposed rule change would also make technical and clarifying changes to the texts of the Rules and Settlement Guide for consistency throughout the texts in describing the concepts and terms set forth above, make corrections to grammar and spacing and edit text to provide for enhanced readability.
The proposed rule change would be implemented in phases whereby Acronyms would be migrated to be processed in accordance with the proposed rule change over a period of five months beginning in November 2016 and with all Acronyms expected to be implemented by the end of March 2017, except for the implementation of the elimination of the Rule and Settlement Guide provisions relating to RVPNA which elimination would not occur until all other aspects of the proposed rule change are implemented with respect to all Acronyms. DTC would announce phased implementation dates for proposed rule change via Important Notice upon all applicable regulatory approval by Commission.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
Rule 17Ad-22(d)(12) promulgated under the Act
DTC does not believe that the proposed rule change would have any adverse impact, or impose any burden, on competition. Moreover, because the proposed rule change improves the efficiency of intraday processing and settlement finality at DTC, for MMI transactions and others, the proposed rule change may have a positive effect on competition among DTC Participants, including IPAs.
Although the proposed rule change imposes a new requirement on IPAs, to provide an MMI Funding Acknowledgment under the proposed rule, any burden on the IPAs in making these determinations and taking these actions is justified by the elimination of late day reversals, improving settlement finality for all Participants engaged in MMI transactions. Moreover, the change was requested by the IPA community and DTC believes, based upon discussion with its IPA Participants, that there is no differential effect among IPA Participants due to his additional requirement, thus imposing no burden on competition.
The elimination of the LPNC further improves efficiency of intraday processing at DTC for all transactions, including MMI transactions, by eliminating liquidity blockages due to the withholding of credits under the LPNC control; this improved efficiency should also foster competition.
DTC has not solicited and does not intend to solicit comments regarding the proposed rule change. DTC has not received any unsolicited written comments from interested parties. To the extent DTC receives written comments on the proposed rule change, DTC will forward such comments to the Commission. DTC has conducted industry outreach with respect to the proposal including discussion with industry associations and IPAs.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
The proposal shall not take effect until all regulatory actions required with respect to the proposal are completed.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
(
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange filed a proposal to make a modification to Exchange Rule 22.3, Continuing Options Market Maker Registration, to remove the provision of the rule that requires termination of a Member's Options Market Maker registration in an option series if the Options Market Maker fails to enter quotations in the series within five business days after the Options Market Maker's registration in the series becomes effective.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rule 22.3 to remove subparagraph (c), which currently requires the Exchange to terminate a firm's Options Market Maker registration if it does not enter quotations in an option series in which it is registered within five business days after the Options Market Maker's registration in the series becomes effective. Currently, the Exchange surveils whether a newly registered Options Market Maker enters quotations in the series within five business days of registration. If an Options Market Maker does not, the Exchange is required by Exchange Rule 22.3(c) to automatically deregister the Options Market Maker in that series. The Exchange views Exchange Rule 22.3(c) as largely duplicative of other Exchange Rules and excessively rigid in view of other Exchange Rules that allow the Exchange discretion and flexibility in determining an appropriate remedy.
Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) provides that Options Market Makers are expected to “maintain active markets” in all series in which they are registered. Both Rule 22.3(c) and Rule 22.5(a)(6) impose an obligation upon registered Options Market Maker to maintain active markets. The main difference is that Exchange Rule 22.3(c) applies only to the first five days that an Options Market Maker is registered, whereas Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) applies during the first five days and continues for as long as the Options Market Maker is
The Exchange notes that it will continue to be permitted to deregister a registered Options Market Maker under Exchange Rule 22.2(b) if it is found that the Options Market Maker has failed in its obligation to maintain active markets under Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) or fails its obligation to provide continuous two-sided quotes under Rule 22.6(d).
The Exchange currently conducts surveillance to monitor and enforce compliance with the “active markets” provision of Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) for all Options Market Makers. A registered Options Market Maker is subject to the Exchange Rule 22.5(a)(6) surveillance for the entire time the Options Market Maker is registered, including the first five days covered by Exchange Rule 22.3(c). If a registered Options Market Maker is found by surveillance not to be maintaining active markets in the option series in which it is registered, the Exchange will determine the appropriate course of action against such Options Market Maker. The Exchange may take actions of escalating severity against the offending Options Market Maker from an informal warning up to deregistering the Options Market Maker in the options in which it fails to maintain active markets or bringing formal action.
On the other hand, current Exchange Rule 22.3(c) is non-discretionary and its enforcement can lead to potentially arbitrary results, as it does not permit the Exchange to consider the facts and circumstances of each case in enforcing the rule. While as a general matter an Options Market Maker should enter quotations in a series in which it is registered as soon as practicable, experience has shown that many factors can affect when a newly registered Options Market Maker will be in a position to begin entering quotations. Further, as discussed above [sic], Exchange Rule 22.6(d) contemplates certain acceptable periods of inactivity. Just as the Exchange is provided discretion to enforce all Options Market Maker obligations under Exchange Rule 22.2(b), the Exchange believes that it should be afforded the same discretion to evaluate the facts and circumstances of each case in which an Options Market Maker is not active in a series within the first five days of registration and determine the appropriate remedy.
Finally, other national options exchanges do not require automatic deregistration of a registered Options Market Maker from an options series when the Options Market Maker fails to submit a quote within the first five days of registration. Other exchanges allow considerably more discretion in determining the appropriate remedy for a registered Options Market Maker that fails its quoting obligations. For example, neither the Chicago Board Options Exchange (“CBOE”), nor the Miami International Securities Exchange (“MIAX”), nor NYSE Arca, Inc. Options (“NYSE Arca”), has a requirement to automatically deregister an options market maker if it fails in its quoting or other obligations within five days of registration. Instead, each of the above exchanges appears to rely on a rule substantively identical to Exchange Rule 22.2(b) that gives the respective exchange discretion as to the appropriate remedy for Options Market Makers that do not meet their obligations.
The Exchange, therefore, proposes to amend Exchange Rule 22.3 to remove subparagraph (c) and to enforce its Options Market Maker “active market” obligations with the remedies permitted in Exchange Rule 22.2(b) and Exchange Rule 22.5(c).
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(1)
Additionally, the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change does not introduce any burden on competition, but rather, removes the automatic deregistration requirement of Exchange Rule 22.3(c) to allow the Exchange to apply the obligation to maintain active
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Nasdaq is proposing to amend proposed [sic] Nasdaq Rule 7046 (Nasdaq Trading Insights) by adding the corresponding fee for the optional Nasdaq Trading Insights product.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at
In its filing with the Commission, Nasdaq included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Nasdaq Rule 7046 (Nasdaq Trading
Upon request by a potential subscribing firm, Nasdaq will provide the Nasdaq Trading Insights product for a 14-day period at no charge. This waiver may be provided only once per firm. A firm will be charged the monthly fee rate listed in Nasdaq Rule 7046(b)(2) if it does not cancel by the conclusion of the trial offer and the fee will not be pro-rated.
The monthly fee rates set forth in Nasdaq Rule 7046(b), as well as in the chart below, will apply to a firm that subscribes to the Nasdaq Trading Insights product. The monthly fee will be based on the number of ports the firm is subscribing to within the Nasdaq Trading Insights product and in no case will the Nasdaq Trading Insights fees be pro-rated. The fees for the Nasdaq Trading Insights product will be in accordance with the following table.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
In adopting Regulation NMS,
[E]fficiency is promoted when broker-dealers who do not need the data beyond the prices, sizes, market center identifications of the NBBO and consolidated last sale information are not required to receive (and pay for) such data. The Commission also believes that efficiency is promoted when broker-dealers may choose to receive (and pay for) additional market data based on their own internal analysis of the need for such data.
By removing unnecessary regulatory restrictions on the ability of exchanges to sell their own data, Regulation NMS advanced the goals of the Act and the principles reflected in its legislative history. If the free market should determine whether proprietary data is sold to BDs at all, it follows that the price at which such data is sold should be set by the market as well.
Moreover, fee liable data products such as the Nasdaq Trading Insights product are a means by which exchanges compete to attract order flow, and this proposal simply adds the relevant fee structure into an Exchange rule. To the extent that exchanges are successful in such competition, they earn trading revenues and also enhance the value of their data products by increasing the amount of data they are able to provide. Conversely, to the extent that exchanges are unsuccessful, the inputs needed to add value to data products are diminished. Accordingly, the need to compete for order flow places substantial pressure upon exchanges to keep their fees for both executions and data reasonable.
The fee structure for the Nasdaq Trading Insights product, including the 14-day trial offer, also reflects an equitable allocation and will not be unfairly discriminatory because it is a voluntary product designed to ensure that the amount of the charge is tailored to the specific port usage patterns of the subscriber. Thus, for example, a subscriber's monthly charge for receiving access to the Nasdaq Trading Insights product for five ports is $1,500, while a subscriber's monthly charge for receiving access to the Nasdaq Trading Insights product for 26 ports is $3,500. The range of fee options further ensures that subscribers are not charged a fee that is inequitably disproportionate to the use that they make of the product. Additionally, the 14-day trial offer provides a potential subscriber an opportunity to try the product before signing on to receive it for a fee.
The proposal would not permit unfair discrimination because the Nasdaq Trading Insights product will be available to all interested market participants opting to subscribe, regardless of whether they take advantage of the 14-day trial offer, and will help to protect a free and open market by continuing to provide additional non-core data (offered on an optional basis for a fee) to the marketplace and by providing investors with greater choices.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed fee structure is designed to ensure a fair and reasonable use of Exchange resources by allowing the Exchange to recoup costs while continuing to offer its data products at competitive rates to firms.
The market for data products is extremely competitive and firms may freely choose alternative venues and data vendors based on the aggregate fees assessed, the data offered, and the value provided. The Nasdaq Trading Insights product is part of the existing market for proprietary market data products that is currently competitive and inherently contestable because there is fierce competition for the inputs necessary to the creation of proprietary data and strict pricing discipline for the proprietary products themselves. Numerous exchanges compete with each other for listings, trades, and market data itself, providing virtually limitless opportunities for entrepreneurs who wish to produce and distribute their own market data. This proprietary data is produced by each individual exchange, as well as other entities, in a vigorously competitive market.
Transaction execution and proprietary data products are complementary in that market data is both an input and a byproduct of the execution service. In fact, market data and trade execution are a paradigmatic example of joint products with joint costs. The decision whether and on which platform to post an order will depend on the attributes of the platform where the order can be posted, including the execution fees, data quality and price, and distribution of its data products. Without trade executions, exchange data products cannot exist. Moreover, data products are valuable to many end users only insofar as they provide information that end users expect will assist them or their customers in making trading decisions.
The costs of producing market data include not only the costs of the data distribution infrastructure, but also the costs of designing, maintaining, and operating the exchange's transaction execution platform and the cost of regulating the exchange to ensure its fair operation and maintain investor confidence. The total return that a trading platform earns reflects the revenues it receives from both products and the joint costs it incurs. Moreover, the operation of the exchange is characterized by high fixed costs and low marginal costs. This cost structure is common in content and content distribution industries such as software, where developing new software typically requires a large initial investment (and continuing large investments to upgrade the software), but once the software is developed, the incremental cost of providing that software to an additional user is typically small, or even zero (
Competition among trading platforms can be expected to constrain the aggregate return each platform earns from the sale of its joint products, but different platforms may choose from a range of possible, and equally reasonable, pricing strategies as the means of recovering total costs. Nasdaq pays rebates and credits to attract orders, charges relatively low prices for market information and charges relatively high prices for accessing posted liquidity. Other platforms may choose a strategy of paying lower liquidity rebates to attract orders, setting relatively low prices for accessing posted liquidity, and setting relatively high prices for market information. Still others may provide most data free of charge and rely exclusively on transaction fees to recover their costs. Finally, some platforms may incentivize use by providing opportunities for equity ownership, which may allow them to charge lower direct fees for executions and data.
In this environment, there is no economic basis for regulating maximum prices for one of the joint products in an industry in which suppliers face competitive constraints with regard to the joint offering. Such regulation is unnecessary because an “excessive” price for one of the joint products will ultimately have to be reflected in lower prices for other products sold by the firm, or otherwise the firm will experience a loss in the volume of its sales that will be adverse to its overall profitability. In other words, an increase in the price of data will ultimately have to be accompanied by a decrease in the cost of executions, or the volume of both data and executions will fall.
The proposed charges for the Nasdaq Trading Insights product are designed to ensure a fair and reasonable use of Exchange resources by allowing the Exchange to recoup costs and ease administrative burden while continuing to offer its data products at competitive rates to firms.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of application for an order under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act permitting certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d) and 57(a)(4) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Applicants request an order to permit a business development company (“BDC”) and certain closed-end investment companies to co-invest in portfolio companies with each other and with affiliated investment funds.
Terra Income Fund 6, Inc. (“Terra 6”), Terra Secured Income Fund, LLC (“TSIF”), Terra Secured Income Fund 2, LLC (“TSIF 2”), Terra Secured Income Fund 3, LLC (“TSIF 3”), Terra Secured Income Fund 4, LLC (“TSIF 4”), Terra Secured Income Fund 5, LLC (“TSIF 5”), Terra Property Trust, Inc. (“Terra REIT”), Terra Secured Income Fund 5 International (“Terra International”), and Terra Income Advisors, LLC (“Terra Income Advisors”), on behalf of itself and its successors.
The application was filed on April 29, 2015 and amended on November 3, 2015, May 11, 2016 and September 14, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on October 31, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F St. NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Bruce D. Batkin, 805 Third Avenue, 8th Floor, New York, NY 10022.
Kay-Mario Vobis, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6728, or Mary Kay Frech, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Chief Counsel's Office, Division of Investment Management).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Terra 6 is a Maryland corporation organized as a closed-end management investment company that has elected to be regulated as a BDC within the meaning of section 2(a)(48) of the Act.
2. Each of TSIF, TSIF 2, TSIF 3, TSIF 4 and TSIF 5 is organized as a Delaware limited liability company and would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(5)(C) of the Act. Each of TSIF, TSIF 2, TSIF 3, TSIF 4 and TSIF 5 was formed to originate, fund, acquire and structure real estate-related loans, including mezzanine loans, first and second mortgage loans, subordinated mortgage loans, bridge loans, preferred equity investments and other loans related to high quality commercial real estate in the United States. TSIF, TSIF 2, TSIF 3 and TSIF 4 currently exist as wholly-owned subsidiaries of TSIF 5.
3. Terra REIT is a Maryland corporation that intends to qualify to be taxed as a REIT and would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(5)(C) of the Act. Terra REIT exists as a wholly-owned subsidiary of TSIF 5 and holds the portfolio assets of each of TSIF, TSIF 2, TSIF 3, TSIF 4 and TSIF 5.
4. Terra International is a Cayman Islands exempted company and would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) of the Act. Terra International was formed to acquire real estate-related loans, including mezzanine loans, first and second mortgage loans, subordinated mortgage loans, bridge loans and other loans
5. Terra Income Advisors, a Delaware limited liability company, is registered with the Commission as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”) and serves as investment adviser to Terra 6 and Terra International, as well as TSIF 5 and its wholly-owned subsidiaries TSIF, TSIF 2, TSIF 3, TSIF 4, and Terra REIT.
6. Applicants seek an order (“Order”) to permit one or more Regulated Funds
7. Applicants state that a Regulated Fund may, from time to time, form one or more Wholly-Owned Investment Subs.
8. When considering Potential Co-Investment Transactions for any Regulated Fund, the applicable Adviser will consider only the Objectives and Strategies, investment policies, investment positions, capital available for investment, and other pertinent factors applicable to that Regulated Fund. The Regulated Funds' Advisers expect that any portfolio company that is an appropriate investment for a Regulated Fund should also be an appropriate investment for one or more other Regulated Funds and/or one or more Affiliated Funds, with certain exceptions based on available capital or diversification.
9. Other than pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as provided in conditions 7 and 8, and after making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the Adviser will present each Potential Co-Investment Transaction and the proposed allocation to the directors of the Board eligible to vote under section 57(o) of the Act (“Eligible Directors”), and the “required majority,” as defined in section 57(o) of the Act (“Required Majority”)
10. With respect to the pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments provided in conditions 7 and 8, a Regulated Fund may participate in a pro rata disposition or Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if, among other things: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition or Follow-On Investment, as the case may be; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved that Regulated Fund's participation in pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund. If the Board does not so approve, any such disposition or Follow-On Investment will be submitted to the Regulated Fund's Eligible Directors. The Board of any Regulated Fund may at any time rescind, suspend or qualify its approval of pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments with the result that all dispositions and/or Follow-On Investments must be submitted to the Eligible Directors.
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will have a financial interest in any Co-Investment Transaction, other than through share
12. Applicants also represent that if an Adviser or its principals, or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with an Adviser or its principals, and the Affiliated Funds (collectively, the “Holders”) own in the aggregate more than 25% of the outstanding voting shares of a Regulated Fund (the “Shares”), then the Holders will vote such Shares as required under condition 14. Applicants believe this condition will ensure that the Non-Interested Directors will act independently in evaluating the Co-Investment Program, because the ability of the Advisers or the Principals to influence the Non-Interested Directors by a suggestion, explicit or implied, that the Non-Interested Directors can be removed will be limited significantly. Applicants represent that the Non-Interested Directors will evaluate and approve any such independent third party, taking into account its qualifications, reputation for independence, cost to the shareholders, and other factors that they deem relevant.
1. Section 57(a)(4) of the Act prohibits certain affiliated persons of a BDC from participating in joint transactions with the BDC or a company controlled by a BDC in contravention of rules as prescribed by the Commission. Under section 57(b)(2) of the Act, any person who is directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with a BDC is subject to section 57(a)(4). Applicants submit that each of the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds could be deemed to be a person related to each Regulated Fund in a manner described by section 57(b) by virtue of being under common control. Section 57(i) of the Act provides that, until the Commission prescribes rules under section 57(a)(4), the Commission's rules under section 17(d) of the Act applicable to registered closed-end investment companies will be deemed to apply to transactions subject to section 57(a)(4). Because the Commission has not adopted any rules under section 57(a)(4), rule 17d-1 also applies to joint transactions with Regulated Funds that are BDCs. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act are applicable to Regulated Funds that are registered closed-end investment companies.
2. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit affiliated persons of a registered investment company from participating in joint transactions with the company unless the Commission has granted an order permitting such transactions. In passing upon applications under rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the company's participation in the joint transaction is consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
3. Applicants state that in the absence of the requested relief, the Regulated Funds would be, in some circumstances, limited in their ability to participate in attractive and appropriate investment opportunities. Applicants believe that the proposed terms and conditions will ensure that the Co-Investment Transactions are consistent with the protection of each Regulated Fund's shareholders and with the purposes intended by the policies and provisions of the Act. Applicants state that the Regulated Funds' participation in the Co-Investment Transactions will be consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and on a basis that is not different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
Applicants agree that the Order will be subject to the following conditions:
1. Each time an Adviser considers a Potential Co-Investment Transaction for an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund that falls within a Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies, the Regulated Fund's Adviser will make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for such Regulated Fund in light of the Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances.
2. (a) If the Adviser deems a Regulated Fund's participation in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction to be appropriate for the Regulated Fund, it will then determine an appropriate level of investment for the Regulated Fund.
(b) If the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable Adviser to be invested by the applicable Regulated Fund in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, collectively, in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participating party's capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each. The applicable Adviser will provide the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund with information concerning each participating party's available capital to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the Regulated Fund's investments for compliance with these allocation procedures.
(c) After making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the applicable Adviser will distribute written information concerning the Potential Co-Investment Transaction (including the amount proposed to be invested by each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund) to the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund for their consideration. A Regulated Fund will co-invest with one or more other Regulated Funds and/or one or more Affiliated Funds only if, prior to the Regulated Fund's participation in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, a Required Majority concludes that:
(i) The terms of the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, including the consideration to be paid, are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Fund and its shareholders and do not involve overreaching in respect of the Regulated Fund or its shareholders on the part of any person concerned;
(ii) the Potential Co-Investment Transaction is consistent with:
(A) The interests of the shareholders of the Regulated Fund; and
(B) the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies;
(iii) the investment by any other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds would not disadvantage the Regulated Fund, and participation by the Regulated Fund would not be on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds; provided that, if any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund itself, gains the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors or the right to have a board observer or any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company, such event shall not be interpreted to prohibit the Required Majority from reaching the conclusions required by this condition (2)(c)(iii), if:
(A) the Eligible Directors will have the right to ratify the selection of such director or board observer, if any;
(B) the applicable Adviser agrees to, and does, provide periodic reports to the Regulated Fund's Board with respect to the actions of such director or the information received by such board observer or obtained through the exercise of any similar right to
(C) any fees or other compensation that any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund or any affiliated person of any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund receives in connection with the right of an Affiliated Fund or a Regulated Fund to nominate a director or appoint a board observer or otherwise to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will be shared proportionately among the participating Affiliated Funds (who each may, in turn, share its portion with its affiliated persons) and the participating Regulated Funds in accordance with the amount of each party's investment; and
(iv) the proposed investment by the Regulated Fund will not benefit the Advisers, the Affiliated Funds or the other Regulated Funds or any affiliated person of any of them (other than the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction), except (A) to the extent permitted by condition 13, (B) to the extent permitted by sections 17(e) or 57(k) of the Act, as applicable, (C) indirectly, as a result of an interest in the securities issued by one of the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction, or (D) in the case of fees or other compensation described in condition 2(c)(iii)(C).
3. Each Regulated Fund has the right to decline to participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction or to invest less than the amount proposed.
4. The applicable Adviser will present to the Board of each Regulated Fund, on a quarterly basis, a record of all investments in Potential Co-Investment Transactions made by any of the other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds during the preceding quarter that fell within the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies that were not made available to the Regulated Fund, and an explanation of why the investment opportunities were not offered to the Regulated Fund. All information presented to the Board pursuant to this condition will be kept for the life of the Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.
5. Except for Follow-On Investments made in accordance with condition 8,
6. A Regulated Fund will not participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction unless the terms, conditions, price, class of securities to be purchased, settlement date, and registration rights will be the same for each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund. The grant to an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund, of the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have an observer on the board of directors or similar rights to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will not be interpreted so as to violate this condition 6, if conditions 2(c)(iii)(A), (B) and (C) are met.
7. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of an interest in a security that was acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed disposition at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to participation by each Regulated Fund in the disposition.
(b) Each Regulated Fund will have the right to participate in such disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to the participating Affiliated Funds and Regulated Funds.
(c) A Regulated Fund may participate in such disposition without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition; (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in such dispositions on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application); and (iii) the Board of the Regulated Fund is provided on a quarterly basis with a list of all dispositions made in accordance with this condition. In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such disposition solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(d) Each Affiliated Fund and each Regulated Fund will bear its own expenses in connection with any such disposition.
8. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund desires to make a Follow-On Investment in a portfolio company whose securities were acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including the amount of the proposed Follow-On Investment, by each Regulated Fund.
(b) A Regulated Fund may participate in such Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in Follow-On Investments on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application). In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(c) If, with respect to any Follow-On Investment:
(i) The amount of the opportunity is not based on the Regulated Funds' and the Affiliated Funds' outstanding investments immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and
(ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable Adviser to be invested by each Regulated Fund in the Follow-On Investment, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the participating Affiliated Funds in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the opportunity; then the amount invested by each such party will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each.
(d) The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this condition will be considered a Co-
9. The Non-Interested Directors of each Regulated Fund will be provided quarterly for review all information concerning Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions, including investments made by other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, so that the Non-Interested Directors may determine whether all investments made during the preceding quarter, including those investments that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, comply with the conditions of the Order. In addition, the Non-Interested Directors will consider at least annually the continued appropriateness for the Regulated Fund of participating in new and existing Co-Investment Transactions.
10. Each Regulated Fund will maintain the records required by section 57(f)(3) of the Act as if each of the Regulated Funds were a BDC and each of the investments permitted under these conditions were approved by the Required Majority under section 57(f) of the Act.
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will also be a director, general partner, managing member or principal, or otherwise an “affiliated person” (as defined in the Act) of an Affiliated Fund.
12. The expenses, if any, associated with acquiring, holding or disposing of any securities acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction (including, without limitation, the expenses of the distribution of any such securities registered for sale under the Securities Act) will, to the extent not payable by the Advisers under their respective investment advisory agreements with Affiliated Funds and the Regulated Funds, be shared by the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds in proportion to the relative amounts of the securities held or to be acquired or disposed of, as the case may be.
13. Any transaction fee
14. If the Holders own in the aggregate more than 25% of the Shares of a Regulated Fund, then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party when voting on (1) the election of directors; (2) the removal of one or more directors; or (3) any other matter under either the Act or applicable State law affecting the Board's composition, size or manner of election.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule to adopt Participant Fees on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become operative on October 1, 2016. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule for trading on BOX to establish two Participant Fees; a
First, the Exchange proposes to adopt a Participant Fee of $1,500 per month, applicable to all BOX Participants. Currently, the Exchange does not assess BOX Participants a fee to access its options market. The Exchange believes the Participant Fee is competitive with fees at other option exchanges.
Next, the Exchange proposes to adopt a one-time Initiation Fee of $2,500 which will be assessed to all new BOX Participants upon their initial connection to the options market, so the Exchange can recoup some of the costs associated with processing and preparing technology in order for the new BOX Participant to be able to trade on BOX. The Exchange's proposed one-time Initiation Fee is similar to and generally lower than one time application fees in place at other options exchanges.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange's proposal to adopt a BOX Options Participant Fee of $1,500 per month is reasonable because the Exchange is seeking to recoup costs related to membership administration. The proposed fee is competitive with similar fees at other options exchanges.
The Exchange also believes that its one-time Initiation Fee of $2,500 is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. As described above, the one-time Initiation Fee is comparable to other similar fees in place at other options exchanges and is designed to cover costs associated with processing and preparing technology in order for a Participant to begin trading on BOX. The Exchange believes that the Initiation Fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory, as it will be assessed uniformly to each new BOX Options Participant, regardless of Participant type.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited.
In terms of intra-market competition, the Exchange's proposal to adopt a BOX Options Participant Fee of $1,500 per month and a one-time Initiation Fee of $2,500 does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange would uniformly assess the same Participant Fees to each BOX Options Participant. If the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose Participants. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
IEX is filing with the Commission a proposed rule change to adopt rules under IEX Rule 11.340 to implement the quoting and trading provisions of the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program submitted to the Commission pursuant to Rule 608 of Regulation NMS
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statement may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to establish rules to require its members to comply with the requirements of the Plan, which is designed to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stocks of small capitalization companies. The Exchange proposes changes to its rules for a two-year pilot period that coincides with the Pilot Period for the Plan, which is currently scheduled as a two-year pilot to begin on October 3, 2016.
On August 25, 2014, NYSE Group, Inc., on behalf of BATS Exchange, Inc., BATS Y-Exchange, Inc., Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., EDGA Exchange, Inc., EDGX Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”), NYSE MKT LLC, and NYSE Arca, Inc. (collectively “Participants”), filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the
Proposed paragraph (d) of Rule 11.340 describes the changes to System functionality necessary to implement the Plan. The Exchange believes that all of the proposed changes are designed to directly comply with the Plan and to assist the Exchange in meeting its regulatory obligations thereunder.
The Plan will include stocks of companies with $3 billion or less in market capitalization, an average daily trading volume of one million shares or less, and a volume weighted average price of at least $2.00 for every trading day. The Plan will consist of a control group of approximately 1,400 Pilot Securities and three test groups with 400 Pilot Securities in each selected by a stratified sampling.
The Plan also contains requirements for the collection and transmission of data to the Commission and the public. A variety of data generated during the Plan will be released publicly on an aggregated basis to assist in analyzing the impact of wider tick sizes on smaller capitalization stocks.
The Plan requires the Exchange to establish, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to comply with the applicable quoting and trading requirements specified in the Plan.
Proposed paragraph (a)(1) of Rule 11.340 would establish the following defined terms:
• “Plan” means the Tick Size Pilot Plan submitted to the Commission pursuant to Rule 608(a)(3) of Regulation NMS under the Act.
• “Pilot Test Groups” means the three test groups established under the Plan, consisting of 400 Pilot Securities each, which satisfy the respective criteria established by the Plan for each such test group.
• Trade-at Intermarket Sweep Order” (“TA ISO”) would mean a limit order for a Pilot Security that meets the following requirements:
(i) When routed to a Trading Center, the limit order is identified as a TA ISO; and
(ii) Simultaneously with the routing of the limit order identified as a TA ISO, one or more additional limit orders, as necessary, are routed to execute against the full size of any protected bid, in the case of a limit order to sell, or the full displayed size of any protected offer, in the case of a limit order to buy, for the Pilot Security with a price that is better than or equal to the limit price of the limit order identified as a TA ISO Sweep Order. These additional routed orders also must be marked as TA ISOs or Intermarket Sweep Order (“ISO).
• Paragraph (a)(1)(E) would provide that all capitalized terms not otherwise defined in this rule shall have the meanings set forth in the Plan, Regulation NMS under the Act, or Exchange rules, as applicable.
Proposed Paragraph (a)(2) would state that the Exchange is a Participant in, and subject to the applicable requirements of, the Plan; proposed Paragraph (a)(3) would require members to establish, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to comply with the applicable requirements of the Plan, which would allow the Exchange to enforce compliance by its members with the provisions of the Plan, as required pursuant to Section II(B) of the Plan.
In addition, Paragraph (a)(4) would provide that Exchange systems would not display, quote or trade in violation of the applicable quoting and trading requirements for a Pilot Security specified in the Plan and this proposed rule, unless such quotation or transaction is specifically exempted under the Plan. Although not required or prohibited by the Plan, the Exchange proposes to apply the quoting and trading requirements during the Pre-Market Hours and Post-Market Hours trading sessions,
The Exchange also proposes to add Rule 11.340(a)(5) to provide for the treatment of Pilot Securities that drop below a $1.00 value during the Pilot Period.
The Exchange proposes Rules 11.340(c)(1)-(3), which would require members to comply with the specific quoting and trading obligations for each Pilot Test Group under the Plan. With regard to Pilot Securities in Test Group One, proposed Rule 11.340(c)(1) would provide that no member may display, rank, or accept from any person any displayable or non-displayable bids or offers, orders, or indications of interest in increments other than $0.05. However, orders priced to trade at the midpoint of the National Best Bid and National Best Offer (“NBBO”) or Best Protected Bid and Best Protected Offer (“PBBO”) and orders entered in a Participant-operated retail liquidity program
With regard to Pilot Securities in Test Group Two, proposed Rule 11.340(c)(2)(A) would provide that such Pilot Securities would be subject to all of the same quoting requirements as described above for Pilot Securities in Test Group One, along with the applicable quoting exceptions. In addition, proposed Rule 11.340(c)(2)(B) would provide that, absent one of the listed exceptions in proposed 11.340(c)(2)(C) enumerated below, no member may execute orders in any Pilot Security in Test Group Two in price increments other than $0.05. The $0.05 trading increment would apply to all trades, including Brokered Cross Trades.
Paragraph (2)(C) would set forth further requirements for Pilot Securities in Test Group Two. Specifically, members trading Pilot Securities in Test Group Two would be allowed to trade in increments less than $0.05 under the following circumstances:
(i) Trading may occur at the midpoint between the NBBO or PBBO;
(ii) Retail Investor Orders may be provided with price improvement that is at least $0.005 better than the PBBO.
(iii) Negotiated Trades may trade in increments less than $0.05; and
(iv) Execution of a customer order to comply with Rule 10.160
Paragraph (3)(A)-(3)(C) would set forth the requirements for Pilot Securities in Test Group Three. Members quoting or trading such Pilot Securities would be subject to all of the same quoting and trading requirements as described above for Pilot Securities in Test Group Two, including the quoting and trading exceptions applicable to Pilot Securities in Test Group Two. In addition, proposed Paragraph (3)(D) would provide for an additional prohibition on Pilot Securities in Test Group Three referred to as the “Trade-at Prohibition.”
Proposed Rule 11.340(c)(3)(D)(iii) would allow members to execute a sell order for a Pilot Security in Test Group Three at the price of a Protected Bid or execute a buy order for a Pilot Security in Test Group Three at the price of a Protected Offer if any of the following circumstances exist:
a. The order is executed as agent or riskless principal by an independent trading unit, as defined under Rule 200(f) of Regulation SHO,
Independent trading unit aggregation is available if traders in an aggregation unit pursue only the particular trading objective(s) or strategy(s) of that aggregation unit and do not coordinate that strategy with any other aggregation unit. Therefore, a Trading Center cannot rely on quotations displayed by that broker dealer from a different independent trading unit. As an example, an agency desk of a broker-dealer cannot rely on the quotation of a proprietary desk in a separate independent trading unit at that same broker-dealer.
b. The order is executed by an independent trading unit, as defined under Rule 200(f) of Regulation SHO, of a Trading Center within a Member that has a displayed quotation for the account of that Trading Center on a principal (excluding riskless principal)
c. The order is of Block Size
A. an aggregation of non-block orders; or
B. broken into orders smaller than Block Size prior to submitting the order to a Trading Center for execution;
d. The order is a Retail Investor Order executed with at least $0.005 price improvement;
e. The order is executed when the Trading Center displaying the Protected Quotation that was traded at was experiencing a failure, material delay, or malfunction of its systems or equipment;
f. The order is executed as part of a transaction that was not a “regular way” contract;
g. The order is executed as part of a single-priced opening, reopening, or closing transaction on the Exchange;
h. The order is executed when a Protected Bid was priced higher than a Protected Offer in the Pilot Security in Test Group Three;
i. The order is identified as a TA ISO;
j. The order is executed by a Trading Center that simultaneously routed TA ISO or ISOs to execute against the full displayed size of the Protected Quotation that was traded at:
k. The order is executed as part of a Negotiated Trade;
l. The order is executed when the Trading Center displaying the Protected Quotation that was traded at had displayed, within one second prior to execution of the transaction that constituted the Trade-at, a Best Protected Bid or Best Protected Offer, as applicable, for the Pilot Security in Test Group Three with a price that was inferior to the price of the Trade-at transaction;
m. The order is executed by a Trading Center which, at the time of order receipt, the Trading Center had guaranteed an execution at no worse than a specified price (a “stopped order”), where:
A. The stopped order was for the account of a customer;
B. The customer agrees to the specified price on an order-by-order basis; and
C. The price of the Trade-at transaction was, for a stopped buy order, equal to or less than the National Best Bid in the Pilot Security in Test Group Three at the time of execution or, for a stopped sell order, equal to or greater than the National Best Offer in the Pilot Security in Test Group Three at the time of execution, as long as such order is priced at an acceptable increment;
To illustrate the application of the stopped order exemption as it currently operates under Rule 611 of Regulation NMS and as it is currently proposed for Trade-at, assume the National Best Bid is $10.00 and another protected quote is at $9.95. Under Rule 611 of Regulation NMS, a stopped order to buy can be filled at $9.95 and the firm does not have to send an ISO to access the protected quote at $10.00 since the price of the stopped order must be lower than the National Best Bid. For the stopped order to also be executed at $9.95 and satisfy the Trade-at requirements, the Trade-at exception would have to be revised to allow an order to execute at the price of a protected quote which, in this case, could be $9.95.
Based on the fact that a stopped order would be treated differently under the Rule 611 of Regulation NMS exception than under the Trade-at exception in the Plan, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate to amend the Trade-at stopped order exception in the Plan to ensure that the application of this exception would produce a consistent result under both Regulation NMS and the Plan. Therefore, the Exchange proposes in this proposed Rule 11.340(c)(3)(D)(iii)m. to allow a transaction to satisfy the Trade-at requirement if the stopped order price, for a stopped buy order, is equal to or less than the National Best Bid, and for a stopped sell order, is equal to or greater than the National Best Offer, as long as such order is priced at an acceptable increment. The Commission granted NYSE an exemption from Rule 608(c) related to this provision.
n. The order is for a fractional share of a Pilot Security in Test Group Three, provided that such fractional share order was not the result of breaking an order for one or more whole shares of a Pilot Security in Test Group Three into orders for fractional shares or was not otherwise effected to evade the requirements of the Trade-at Prohibition or any other provisions of the Plan; or
o. The order is to correct a bona fide error, which is recorded by the Trading Center in its error account.
Accordingly, the Exchange is proposing to exempt certain transactions to correct bona fide errors in the execution of customer orders from the
As with the corresponding exception under Rule 611 of Regulation NMS, the bona fide error would have to be evidenced by objective facts and circumstances, the Trading Center would have to maintain documentation of such facts and circumstances and record the transaction in its error account. To avail itself of the exemption, the Trading Center would have to establish, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to address the occurrence of errors and, in the event of an error, the use and terms of a transaction to correct the error in compliance with this exemption. Finally, the Trading Center would have to regularly surveil to ascertain the effectiveness of its policies and procedures to address errors and transactions to correct errors and take prompt action to remedy deficiencies in such policies and procedures.
A. The inaccurate conveyance or execution of any term of an order including, but not limited to, price, number of shares or other unit of trading; identification of the security; identification of the account for which securities are purchased or sold; lost or otherwise misplaced order tickets; short sales that were instead sold long or vice versa; or the execution of an order on the wrong side of a market:
B. The unauthorized or unintended purchase, sale, or allocation of securities, or the failure to follow specific client instructions;
C. The incorrect entry of data into relevant systems, including reliance on incorrect cash positions, withdrawals, or securities positions reflected in an account; or
D. A delay, outage, or failure of a communication system used to transmit market data prices or to facilitate the delivery or execution of an order.
Finally, Proposed Rule 11.340 (c)(3)(D)(iv) would prevent members from breaking an order into smaller orders or otherwise effecting or executing an order to evade the requirements of the Trade-at Prohibition or any other provisions of the Plan.
Proposed paragraph (d) of Rule 11.340 would set forth the Exchange's specific procedures for handling, executing, repricing and displaying certain orders and modifiers applicable to Pilot Securities. Unless otherwise indicated, paragraph (d) of Rule 11.340 would apply to orders in all three Test Group Pilot Securities, but not to Pilot Securities included in the Control Group.
The Exchange is proposing to adopt new Rule 11.340(d)(1) to make it clear that it will not accept an order in a Test Group Pilot Security that is not entered in the Pilot's minimum increment of $0.05, applied to all orders that require a price and do not otherwise qualify for an exemption to the $0.05 minimum price increment required by the Plan. The provision will also clarify that IEX will use the $0.05 minimum price increment when the System reprices an order, including when it rounds a derived price up or down.
The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (d)(2) to Rule 11.340 to specify that it will accept TA ISOs in all securities, and that TA ISOs must be designated as IOC, may not be Minimum Quantity Orders and do not route. If a TA ISO is entered in a security that is not in Test Group Three, it will be treated as an ISO in accordance with Rule 11.190(b)(12). The Exchange believes that accepting TA ISOs in all securities will reduce complexity for Members.
In order to facilitate compliance with the Plan, paragraph (d)(3) of Rule 11.340 would provide that Order Price Collars and Restraints, as specified in Rule 11.190(f), that are not in the permissible trading price increment for the security will be rounded down (in the case of an order to buy) or up (in the case of an order to sell) to the nearest price in the permissible trading price increment for that security. The Exchange believes that rounding, as described, will facilitate its compliance with the requirements of the Plan.
As proposed, paragraph (d)(4) specifies that the Exchange does not operate a retail liquidity program, but that if IEX receives an order from a Member that is identified as a Retail Investor Order or a retail liquidity providing order, IEX will accept such order if it is in a permissible increment, but will disregard identification as a Retail Investor Order or a retail liquidity providing order.
As proposed, subparagraph (d)(5) of Rule 11.340 describes how the Exchange will handle certain types of orders in Pilot Securities in Test Group Three to avoid possible execution on the Exchange of a non-displayed order at the price of a Protected Quote in a Test Group Three Pilot Security unless the incoming order otherwise qualifies for an exception to the Trade-at prohibition.
Currently, pursuant to Rule 11.230(a)(4), an incoming or active order to sell (buy) may trade with non-displayed orders to buy (sell) at the price of protected bids (offers) without routing to such protected bids (offers). Subparagraph (d)(5)(A) provides that an incoming or active order to sell (buy) will trade with displayed orders to buy (sell) and route, if consistent with the terms of the order, to protected bids (offers) before trading with non-displayed orders at the same price. After trading or routing, or both, any remaining balance of an incoming order will trade with any non-displayed orders at the same price, so long as the incoming order has satisfied all same price Protected Quotations or an exception applies. This provision thus enables the Exchange to comply with the Trade-at restriction of the Plan by providing for satisfaction of Protected Quotations before executing non-displayed orders at the same price.
Similarly, subparagraph (d)(5)(B) of Rule 11.340 specifies that an ISO to buy (sell) will not trade with non-displayed interest to sell (buy) that is the same price as the protected offer (bid) unless the limit price of such ISO is higher (lower) than the price of the protected offer (bid), or another exception applies. This would be permitted under the Trade-at Prohibition because to enter an ISO to buy (sell) at a price higher (lower) than the protected offer (protected bid), the entering firm would have been required to simultaneously route limit orders to execute against the full size of the protected offer (protected bid).
Rule 11.340(5)(C) specifies how the Exchange will handle certain non-displayed orders to assure that such orders would not trade at the price of a Protected Quotation. A non-displayed order is an order that is not displayed on the Exchange, and may be a market order, limit order or pegged order. Pegged orders must be non-displayed. Reserve Orders are orders with a displayed and non-displayed portion.
Currently, a non-displayed order is eligible to trade with a resting order on the Order Book on entry or to post to the Order Book and trade with an incoming order, depending on market conditions and the terms of each such order.
Accordingly, to prevent non-displayed resting buy (sell) orders from executing at the price of a Protected Offer (Bid), subparagraph (d)(5)(C) provides that, if after being posted to the Order Book, the NBBO or PBBO changes so that such a non-displayed order will no longer be executable at its posted price due to the requirements of Regulation NMS or the Plan, as applicable, the non-displayed order will be repriced consistent with subparagraph (d)(5)(C) and IEX Rule 11.190(h).
The provisions of subparagraphs (d)(5)(C)(i) and (ii) describe the manner in which nondisplayed orders will function when the order's booked price is locked or crossed by the PBBO. These provisions change the manner in which nondisplayed limit and midpoint peg orders function. For Discretionary Peg orders and primary peg orders, the provision modifies existing functionality whereby such orders are subject to repricing with reference to the NBBO so that in Test Group Three, such orders will reprice with reference to the PBBO as well.
Specifically, subparagraph (d)(5)(C)(i) provides that a non-displayed resting buy (sell) order (including the non-displayed portion of a reserve order) will not execute at the price of a Protected Bid (Offer) on an away trading center unless the incoming order qualifies for an exception to the Trade-at Prohibition.
Subparagraph (d)(5)(c)(ii) provides that a non-displayable order (including the non-displayed portion of a reserve order) that, at the time of entry, could not be executed at its full limit price, adjusted by applicable peg instructions, if any, market conditions and all applicable rules and regulations, will be repriced and ranked by the System on the Order Book non-displayed pursuant to the Midpoint Price Constraint at the current Midpoint Price (“Permitted Non-Displayed Group 3 Book Price”). In situations where the resulting price for a buy (sell) order is equal to the lowest Protected Offer (highest Protected Bid), the Permitted Non-Displayed Group 3 Book Price will be equal to one (1) MPV below (above) the lowest Protected Offer (highest Protected Bid). Non-displayed orders (including non-displayed portions of reserve orders) resting on the Order Book whose booked price becomes locked or crossed by the PBBO will be re-priced by the System at a Permitted Non-Displayed Group 3 Book Price. To reflect increases (declines) in the lowest Protected Offer (highest Protected Bid), the System will continue to re-price a resting non-displayed buy (sell) order to be equal to the higher (lower) of the order's limit price or a Permitted Non-Displayed Group 3 Book Price.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to specify how it will implement the Block Size exception to the Trade-at prohibition. Specifically, pursuant to subparagraph (d)(5)(D) of Rule 11.340, the Exchange will utilize the Block Size exception under the following circumstances: If a non-routable order is of at least Block Size and the resulting execution upon entry against the Order Book is for at least Block Size, or a routable order of at least Block Size is sent to the Order Book and the resulting execution upon entry is for at least Block Size.
IEX believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
Furthermore, the Exchange is a Participant under the Plan and subject, itself, to the provisions of the Plan. The proposed rule change ensures that the Exchange's systems would not display or execute trading interests outside the requirements specified in such Plan. The proposal would also help allow market participants to continue to trade NMS Stocks within quoting and trading requirements that are in compliance with the Plan, with certainty on how certain orders and trading interests would be treated. This, in turn, will help encourage market participants to continue to provide liquidity in the marketplace.
IEX does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange in meeting its regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The proposed changes are being made to establish, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to comply with the trading and quoting requirements specified in the Plan, of which other equities exchanges are also Participants. Other competing national securities exchanges are subject to the same trading and quoting requirements specified in the Plan, and must take the same steps that the Exchange has to conform its existing rules to the requirements of the Plan. Therefore, the proposed changes would not impose any burden on competition, while providing certainty of treatment and execution of trading interests on the Exchange to market participants in NMS Stocks that are acting in compliance with the requirements specified in the Plan.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
The Exchange has requested that the SEC waive the 30-day operative period. The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow the Exchange to implement the proposed rules immediately thereby preventing delays in the implementation of the Plan. The Commission notes that the Plan is scheduled to start on October 3, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing with the Commission.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule to amend the Fee Schedule [sic] on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become operative on October 1, 2016. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule for trading on BOX. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to revise certain qualification thresholds and fees in Section I.B.2 of the BOX Fee Schedule, the BOX Volume Rebate (“BVR”).
Under the current BVR, the Exchange offers a tiered per contract rebate for all Public Customer PIP Orders and COPIP orders of 100 contracts and under that do not trade solely with their contra order. Percentage thresholds are calculated on a monthly basis by totaling the Participant's PIP and COPIP volume submitted to BOX, relative to the total national Customer volume in multiply-listed options classes.
The current per contract rebate for Participants in PIP and COPIP Transactions under the BVR is:
The Exchange proposes to adjust certain BVR percentage thresholds and fees within the BVR. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to eliminate Tier 4 and adjust the percentage thresholds in Tier 5 to “1.000% and Above.” The Exchange then proposes to renumber Tier 5 to Tier 4. The quantity submitted will continue to be calculated on a monthly basis by totaling the Participant's PIP and COPIP volume submitted to BOX, relative to the total national Customer volume in multiply-listed options classes. Additionally, the Exchange proposes to decrease the fee [sic] in the revised Tier 4 for PIP transactions to $0.11 from $0.12.
The new BVR set forth in Section I.B.2 of the BOX Fee Schedule will be as follows:
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5)of the Act,
The Exchange believes the proposed amendments to the BVR in Section I.B.2 of the BOX Fee Schedule are reasonable, equitable and non-discriminatory. The BVR was adopted to attract Public Customer order flow to the Exchange by offering these Participants incentives to submit their PIP and COPIP Orders to the Exchange and the Exchange believes it is appropriate to now amend the BVR. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to amend the BVR, as all Participants have the ability to qualify for a rebate, and rebates are provided equally to qualifying Participants. Finally, the Exchange believes it is reasonable and appropriate to continue to provide incentives for Public Customers, which will result in greater liquidity and ultimately benefit all Participants trading on the Exchange.
BOX believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to adjust the monthly Percentage Thresholds of National Customer Volume in Multiply-Listed Options Classes and their applicable rebates. The volume thresholds and rebates are meant to incentivize Participants to direct order flow to the Exchange to obtain the benefit of the rebate, which will in turn benefit all market participants by increasing liquidity on the Exchange. Other exchanges employ similar incentive programs;
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange is simply proposing to revise certain qualification thresholds and fees in Section I.B. of the BOX Fee Schedule. The Exchange believes that the volume
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to make non-controversial amendments to its rules. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend Rule 7130(a) to clarify that the BOX HSVF is no longer provided to market participants at no cost. The BOX HSVF is a proprietary product that provides: (i) Trades and trade cancelation information; (ii) best-ranked price level to buy and the best-ranked price level to sell; (iii) instrument summaries (including information such as high, low, and last trade price and traded volume); (iv) the five best limit prices for each option instrument; (v) request for Quote messages;
The Exchange recently amended its fees to establish a $750.00 per month fee for receiving the HSVF.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In particular, the proposed change simply reflects the recent amendments to the BOX Fee Schedule.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On September 8, 2016, the Commission issued a notice (Investment Company Act Release No. 32254) of its intention to rescind, at the request of Advisors Series Trust and Orinda Asset Management, LLC, pursuant to section 38(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”), a prior order issued to Advisors Series Trust and Orinda Asset Management, LLC under section 6(c) of the Act that granted an exemption from section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements (Investment Company Act Release No. 30065 (May 21, 2012)) (the “Prior Order”).
The notice gave interested persons an opportunity to request a hearing and stated that an order rescinding the Prior Order would be issued unless a hearing was ordered. No request for a hearing has been filed.
Accordingly,
By the Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.16P. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.16P (Short Sales). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.16P(f)(5)(G) regarding the treatment of an Intermarket Sweep Order (“ISO”)
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would promote just and equitable principles of
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed change is not designed to address any competitive issue but rather to make amendments to the manner in which ISOs are handled during a Short Sale Period.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of FLORIDA (FEMA-4280-DR), dated 09/28/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 09/28/2016, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 148868 and for economic injury is 148870.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of FLORIDA (FEMA-4280-DR), dated 09/28/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 09/28/2016, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 148888 and for economic injury is 148898.
U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA).
Notice of open Federal Advisory Committee meetings.
The SBA is issuing this notice to announce the location, date, time and agenda for the 1st quarter meetings of the National Small Business Development Center (SBDC) Advisory Board.
The meetings for the 1st quarter will be held on the following dates:
These meetings will be held via conference call.
The meeting is open to the public however advance notice of attendance is requested. Anyone wishing to be a listening participant must contact Monika Nixon by fax or email. Her contact information is Monika Nixon, Program Specialist, 409 Third Street SW., Washington, DC 20416, Phone 202-205-7310, Fax 202-481-5624, email,
Additionally, if you need accommodations because of a disability or require additional information, please contact Monika Nixon at the information above.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), SBA announces the meetings of the National SBDC Advisory Board. This Board provides advice and counsel to the SBA Administrator and Associate Administrator for Small Business Development Centers.
The purpose of these meetings is to discuss following issues pertaining to the SBDC Advisory Board:
Notice of request for public comment and submission to OMB of proposed collection of information.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
Submit comments directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) up to November 10, 2016.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Andrea Lage, who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The Adoptive Family Relief Act (Pub. L. 114-70) amended Section 221(c) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1201(c), to allow for the waiver or refund of certain immigrant visa fees for a lawfully adopted child, or a child coming to the United States to be adopted by a United States citizen, subject to criteria prescribed by the Secretary of State. Over 350 American families have successfully adopted children from the Democratic Republic of the Congo. However, since September 25, 2013, they have not been able to bring their adoptive children home to the United States because the Democratic Republic of the Congo suspended the issuance of “exit permits” for these children. As the permit suspension drags on, however, American families are repeatedly paying visa renewal and related fees, while also continuing to be separated from their adopted children.
The waiver or refund provides support and relief to American families seeking to bring their adoptive children home to the United States from the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and families in similar situations. This form collects information to determine the extra visa renewal fees these families have paid and refund them in accordance with the Adoptive Family Relief Act.
The collection is hosted on the Department of State's Web site and is printed and filled out by the individual, and submitted by mail or in person to the Consular Section where the adoption case was originally processed.
Notice of request for public comment and submission to OMB of proposed collection of information.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
Submit comments directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) up to November 10, 2016.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Andrea Lage, who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The Department of State uses Form DS-1648 to solicit information from applicants for a renewal of an A, G, or NATO visa, excluding A-3, G-5, and NATO-7 classifications. INA 101(a)(15)(A) and (G) and 22 CFR 41.12 and 41.25 describe the criteria for these nonimmigrant visa classifications.
The DS-1648 is submitted electronically to the Department via the Internet. The applicant will be instructed to print a confirmation page displaying a bar coded record locator, which will be scanned by Department of State staff at the time of processing.
Notice of request for public comment and submission to OMB of proposed collection of information.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
Submit comments directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) up to November 10, 2016.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Andrea Lage, who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
Section 101(a)(15)(E) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(E), provides nonimmigrant status for a national of a country with which the United States maintains an appropriate treaty of commerce and navigation who is coming to the United States to: (i) Carry on substantial trade, including trade in services or technology, principally between the United States and the treaty country; or (ii) develop and direct the operations of an enterprise in which the national has invested, or is actively in the process of investing. Form DS-156E is completed by foreign nationals seeking nonimmigrant treaty trader/investor visas to the United States. The Department uses the DS-156E to elicit information necessary to determine a foreign national's visa eligibility.
After completing Form DS-160, Online Nonimmigrant Visa Applicant,
State Justice Institute.
Grant Guideline for FY 2017.
This Guideline sets forth the administrative, programmatic, and financial requirements attendant to Fiscal Year 2017 State Justice Institute grants.
October 11, 2016.
Jonathan Mattiello, Executive Director, State Justice Institute, 11951 Freedom Drive, Suite 1020, Reston, VA 20190, 571-313-8843,
Pursuant to the State Justice Institute Act of 1984 (42 U.S.C. 10701,
The following Grant Guideline is adopted by the State Justice Institute for FY 2017.
SJI was established by State Justice Institute Authorization Act of 1984 (42 U.S.C. 10701
• Direct a national program of financial assistance designed to assure that each citizen of the United States is provided ready access to a fair and effective system of justice;
• Foster coordination and cooperation with the federal judiciary;
• Promote recognition of the importance of the separation of powers doctrine to an independent judiciary; and
• Encourage education for judges and support personnel of state court systems through national and state organizations.
To accomplish these broad objectives, SJI is authorized to provide funding to state courts, national organizations which support and are supported by state courts, national judicial education organizations, and other organizations that can assist in improving the quality of justice in the state courts. SJI is supervised by a Board of Directors appointed by the President, with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Board is statutorily composed of six judges; a state court administrator; and four members of the public, no more than two of the same political party.
Through the award of grants, contracts, and cooperative agreements, SJI is authorized to perform the following activities:
A. Support technical assistance, demonstrations, special projects, research and training to improve the administration of justice in the state courts;
B. Provide for the preparation, publication, and dissemination of information regarding state judicial systems;
C. Participate in joint projects with federal agencies and other private grantors;
D. Evaluate or provide for the evaluation of programs and projects to determine their impact upon the quality of criminal, civil, and juvenile justice and the extent to which they have contributed to improving the quality of justice in the state courts;
E. Encourage and assist in furthering judicial education; and,
F. Encourage, assist, and serve in a consulting capacity to state and local courts in the development, maintenance, and coordination of criminal, civil, and juvenile justice programs and services.
SJI is authorized by Congress to award grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts to the following entities and types of organizations:
A.
B.
C.
1. The principal purpose or activity of the applicant is to provide education and training to state and local judges and court personnel; and
2. The applicant demonstrates a record of substantial experience in the field of judicial education and training.
D.
1. Provided that the objectives of the project can be served better, the Institute is also authorized to make awards to:
a. Nonprofit organizations with expertise in judicial administration;
b. Institutions of higher education;
c. Individuals, partnerships, firms, corporations (for-profit organizations must waive their fees); and
d. Private agencies with expertise in judicial administration.
2. SJI may also make awards to state or local agencies and institutions other than courts for services that cannot be adequately provided through nongovernmental arrangements (42 U.S.C. 10705(b)(3)).
E.
SJI is prohibited from awarding grants to federal, tribal, and international courts.
SJI is offering six types of grants in FY 2017: Project Grants, Technical Assistance (TA) Grants, Curriculum Adaptation and Training (CAT) Grants, Partner Grants, Strategic Initiatives Grants (SIG) Program, and the Education Support Program (ESP).
The SJI Board of Directors has established Priority Investment Areas for grant funding. SJI will allocate significant financial resources through grant-making for these Priority Investment Areas (in no ranking order):
• Language Access and the State Courts—improving language access in the state courts through remote interpretation (outside the courtroom), interpreter certification, and courtroom services (plain language forms, Web sites, etc.).
• Self-Represented Litigation—promoting court-based self-help centers,
• Reengineering to Improve Court Services and Performance—Assisting courts with the process of reengineering, regionalization or centralization of services, structural changes, improving performance, and reducing cost to taxpayers while providing access to justice.
• Remote Technology—supporting the innovative use of technology to improve the business operations of courts and enhance services outside the courtroom. This includes videoconferencing, online access, educational services, and remote court proceedings.
• Human Trafficking and the State Courts—Through the Human Trafficking and the State Courts Collaborative, addressing the impact of federal and state human trafficking laws on the state courts, and the challenges faced by state courts in dealing with cases involving trafficking victims and their families.
• Guardianship, Conservatorship, and Elder Issues—assisting courts in improving and increasing use of court-based volunteer attorney programs.
• Juvenile Justice—innovative projects that have no other existing or potential funding sources (federal, state, or private) that will advance best practices in handling dependency and delinquency cases; promote effective court oversight of juveniles in the justice system; address the impact of trauma on juvenile behavior; assist the courts in identification of appropriate provision of services for juveniles; and address juvenile re-entry.
• Fines, Fees, and Bail Practices—Assisting courts in taking a leadership role in reviewing fines, fees, and bail practices to ensure processes are fair and access to justice is assured; implementing alternative forms of sanction; developing processes for indigency review; and transparency, governance, and structural reforms that promote access to justice, accountability, and oversight. Projects that address this Priority Investment Area will inform the work of the Conference of Chief Justices/Conference of State Court Administrators (CCJ/COSCA) National Task Force on Fines, Fees, and Bail Practices.
Project Grants are intended to support innovative education and training, research and evaluation, demonstration, and technical assistance projects that can improve the administration of justice in state courts locally or nationwide. Project Grants may ordinarily not exceed $300,000. Examples of expenses not covered by Project Grants include the salaries, benefits, or travel of full-or part-time court employees. Grant periods for Project Grants ordinarily may not exceed 36 months.
Applicants for Project Grants will be required to contribute a cash match of not less than 50 percent of the total cost of the proposed project. In other words, grant awards by SJI must be matched at least dollar for dollar by grant applicants. Applicants may contribute the required cash match directly or in cooperation with third parties. Prospective applicants should carefully review Section VI.8. (matching requirements) and Section VI.16.a. (non-supplantation) of the Guideline prior to beginning the application process. Funding from other federal departments or agencies may not be used for cash match. If questions arise, applicants are strongly encouraged to consult SJI.
As set forth in Section I., SJI is authorized to fund projects addressing a broad range of program areas. Funding will not be made available for the ordinary, routine operations of court systems.
TA Grants are intended to provide state or local courts, or regional court associations, with sufficient support to obtain expert assistance to diagnose a problem, develop a response to that problem, and implement any needed changes. TA Grants may not exceed $50,000. Examples of expenses not covered by TA Grants include the salaries, benefits, or travel of full-or part-time court employees. Grant periods for TA Grants ordinarily may not exceed 12 months. In calculating project duration, applicants are cautioned to fully consider the time required to issue a request for proposals, negotiate a contract with the selected provider, and execute the project.
Applicants for TA Grants will be required to contribute a
CAT Grants are intended to: (1) Enable courts or national court associations to modify and adapt model curricula, course modules, or conference programs to meet states' or local jurisdictions' educational needs; train instructors to present portions or all of the curricula; and pilot-test them to determine their appropriateness, quality, and effectiveness, or (2) conduct judicial branch education and training programs, led by either expert or in-house personnel, designed to prepare judges and court personnel for innovations, reforms, and/or new technologies recently adopted by grantee courts. CAT Grants may not exceed $30,000. Examples of expenses not covered by CAT Grants include the salaries, benefits, or travel of full-or part-time court employees. Grant periods for CAT Grants ordinarily may not exceed 12 months.
Applicants for CAT Grants will be required to contribute a match of not less than 50 percent of the grant amount requested, of which 20 percent must be cash. In other words, an applicant seeking a $30,000 CAT grant must provide a $15,000 match, of which up to $12,000 can be in-kind and not less than $3,000 must be cash. Funding from other federal departments and agencies may not be used for cash match. CAT Grant application procedures can be found in section IV.C.
Partner Grants are intended to allow SJI and federal, state, or local agencies or foundations, trusts, or other private entities to combine financial resources in pursuit of common interests. SJI and its financial partners may set any level for Partner Grants, subject to the entire amount of the grant being available at the time of the award. Grant periods for Partner Grants ordinarily may not exceed 36 months.
Partner Grants are subject to the same cash match requirement as Project Grants. In other words, grant awards by SJI must be matched at least dollar-for-dollar. Partner Grants are initiated and coordinated by SJI and its financial partner. More information on Partner Grants can be found in section IV.D.
The Strategic Initiatives Grants (SIG) program provides SJI with the flexibility to address national court issues as they occur, and develop solutions to those problems. This is an innovative approach where SJI uses its expertise and the expertise and knowledge of its grantees to address key issues facing state courts across the United States.
The funding is used for grants or contractual services, and is handled at the discretion of the SJI Board of
The Education Support Program (ESP) is intended to enhance the skills, knowledge, and abilities of state court judges and court managers by enabling them to attend out-of-state, or to enroll in online, educational and training programs sponsored by national and state providers that they could not otherwise attend or take online because of limited state, local, and personal budgets. An ESP award only covers the cost of tuition up to a maximum of $1,000 per award. ESP application procedures can be found in section IV.E.
An application for a Project Grant must include an application form; budget forms (with appropriate documentation); a project abstract and program narrative; a disclosure of lobbying form, when applicable; and certain certifications and assurances (see below). See
The application form requests basic information regarding the proposed project, the applicant, and the total amount of funding requested from SJI. It also requires the signature of an individual authorized to certify on behalf of the applicant that the information contained in the application is true and complete; that submission of the application has been authorized by the applicant; and that if funding for the proposed project is approved, the applicant will comply with the requirements and conditions of the award, including the assurances set forth in Form D.
An application from a state or local court must include a copy of Form B signed by the state's chief justice or state court administrator. The signature denotes that the proposed project has been approved by the state's highest court or the agency or council it has designated. It denotes further that, if applicable, a cash match reduction has been requested, and that if SJI approves funding for the project, the court or the specified designee will receive, administer, and be accountable for the awarded funds.
Applicants must submit a Form C. In addition, applicants must provide a detailed budget narrative providing an explanation of the basis for the estimates in each budget category (see subsection A.4. below).
If funds from other sources are required to conduct the project, either as match or to support other aspects of the project, the source, current status of the request, and anticipated decision date must be provided.
This form lists the statutory, regulatory, and policy requirements with which recipients of Institute funds must comply.
Applicants other than units of state or local government are required to disclose whether they, or another entity that is part of the same organization as the applicant, have advocated a position before Congress on any issue, and to identify the specific subjects of their lobbying efforts (see section VI.A.7.).
The abstract should highlight the purposes, goals, methods, and anticipated benefits of the proposed project. It should not exceed 1 single-spaced page.
The program narrative for an application may not exceed 25 double-spaced pages. The pages should be numbered. This page limit does not include the forms, the abstract, the budget narrative, and any appendices containing resumes and letters of cooperation or endorsement. Additional background material should be attached only if it is essential to impart a clear understanding of the proposed project. Numerous and lengthy appendices are strongly discouraged.
The program narrative should address the following topics:
The applicant should include a clear, concise statement of what the proposed project is intended to accomplish. In stating the objectives of the project, applicants should focus on the overall programmatic objective (
The applicant must describe how the proposed project addresses one or more Priority Investment Areas. If the project does not address one or more Priority Investment Areas, the applicant must provide an explanation why not.
If the project is to be conducted in any specific location(s), the applicant should discuss the particular needs of the project site(s) to be addressed by the project and why those needs are not being met through the use of existing programs, procedures, services, or other resources.
If the project is not site-specific, the applicant should discuss the problems that the proposed project would address, and why existing programs, procedures, services, or other resources cannot adequately resolve those problems. In addition, the applicant should describe how, if applicable, the project will be sustained in the future through existing resources.
The discussion should include specific references to the relevant literature and to the experience in the field. SJI continues to make all grant reports and most grant products available online through the National Center for State Courts (NCSC) Library and Digital Archive. Applicants are required to conduct a search of the NCSC Library and Digital Archive on the topic areas they are addressing. This search should include SJI-funded grants, and previous projects not supported by SJI. Searches for SJI grant reports and other state court resources begin with the NCSC Library section. Applicants must discuss the results of their research; how they plan to incorporate the previous work into their proposed project; and if the project will differentiate from prior work.
(1)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2)
The applicant should present a detailed management plan, including the starting and completion date for each task; the time commitments to the project of key staff and their responsibilities regarding each project task; and the procedures that would ensure that all tasks are performed on time, within budget, and at the highest level of quality. In preparing the project time line, Gantt Chart, or schedule, applicants should make certain that all project activities, including publication or reproduction of project products and their initial dissemination, would occur within the proposed project period. The management plan must also provide for the submission of Quarterly Progress and Financial Reports within 30 days after the close of each calendar quarter (
Applicants should be aware that SJI is unlikely to approve a limited extension of the grant period without strong justification. Therefore, the management plan should be as realistic as possible and fully reflect the time commitments of the proposed project staff and consultants.
The program narrative in the application should contain a description of the product(s) to be developed (
(1)
Applicants proposing to develop web-based products should provide for sending a notice and description of the document to the appropriate audiences to alert them to the availability of the Web site or electronic product (
Three (3) copies of all project products should be submitted to SJI, along with an electronic version in HTML or PDF format. Discussions of final product dissemination should be conducted with SJI prior to the end of the grant period.
(2)
The curricula and other products developed through education and training projects should be designed for use by others and again by the original participants in the course of their duties.
(3)
(4)
An applicant that is not a state or local court and has not received a grant from SJI within the past three years should indicate whether it is either a national non-profit organization
The applicant should include a summary of the training and experience of the key staff members and consultants that qualify them for conducting and managing the proposed project. Resumes of identified staff should be attached to the application. If one or more key staff members and consultants are not known at the time of the application, a description of the criteria that would be used to select persons for these positions should be included. The applicant also should identify the person who would be responsible for managing and reporting on the financial aspects of the proposed project.
Applicants that have not received a grant from SJI within the past three years should include a statement describing their capacity to administer grant funds, including the financial systems used to monitor project expenditures (and income, if any), and a summary of their past experience in administering grants, as well as any resources or capabilities that they have that would particularly assist in the successful completion of the project.
Unless requested otherwise, an applicant that has received a grant from SJI within the past three years should describe only the changes in its organizational capacity, tax status, or financial capability that may affect its capacity to administer a grant.
If the applicant is a non-profit organization (other than a university), it must also provide documentation of its 501(c) tax-exempt status as determined by the Internal Revenue Service and a copy of a current certified audit report. For purposes of this requirement, “current” means no earlier than two years prior to the present calendar year.
If a current audit report is not available, SJI will require the organization to complete a financial capability questionnaire, which must be signed by a certified public accountant. Other applicants may be required to provide a current audit report, a financial capability questionnaire, or both, if specifically requested to do so by the Institute.
Non-governmental applicants must submit SJI's Disclosure of Lobbying Activities Form E, which documents whether they, or another entity that is a part of the same organization as the applicant, have advocated a position before Congress on any issue, and identifies the specific subjects of their lobbying efforts.
If the cooperation of courts, organizations, agencies, or individuals other than the applicant is required to conduct the project, the applicant should attach written assurances of cooperation and availability to the application, or send them under separate cover. Letters of general support for a project are also encouraged.
In addition to Project Grant applications, the following section also applies to Technical Assistance and Curriculum Adaptation and Training grant applications.
The budget narrative should provide the basis for the computation of all project-related costs. When the proposed project would be partially supported by grants from other funding sources, applicants should make clear what costs would be covered by those other grants. Additional background information or schedules may be attached if they are essential to obtaining a clear understanding of the proposed budget. Numerous and lengthy appendices are strongly discouraged.
The budget narrative should cover the costs of all components of the project and clearly identify costs attributable to the project evaluation.
The applicant should set forth the percentages of time to be devoted by the individuals who would staff the proposed project, the annual salary of each of those persons, and the number of work days per year used for calculating the percentages of time or daily rates of those individuals. The applicant should explain any deviations from current rates or established written organizational policies. No grant funds or cash match may be used to pay the salary and related costs for a current or new employee of a court or other unit of government because such funds would constitute a supplantation of state or local funds in violation of 42 U.S.C. 10706(d)(1); this includes new employees hired specifically for the project. The salary and any related costs for a current or new employee of a court or other unit of government may only be accepted as in-kind match.
For non-governmental entities, the applicant should provide a description of the fringe benefits provided to employees. If percentages are used, the authority for such use should be presented, as well as a description of the elements included in the determination of the percentage rate.
The applicant should describe the tasks each consultant would perform, the estimated total amount to be paid to each consultant, the basis for compensation rates (
Transportation costs and per diem rates must comply with the policies of the applicant organization. If the applicant does not have an established travel policy, then travel rates must be consistent with those established by the federal government. The budget narrative should include an explanation of the rate used, including the components of the per diem rate and the basis for the estimated transportation expenses. The purpose of the travel should also be included in the narrative.
Grant funds may be used to purchase only the equipment necessary to demonstrate a new technological application in a court or that is otherwise essential to accomplishing the objectives of the project. In other words, grant funds cannot be used strictly for the purpose of purchasing equipment. Equipment purchases to support basic court operations will not be approved. The applicant should describe the equipment to be purchased or leased and explain why the acquisition of that equipment is essential to accomplish the project's goals and objectives. The narrative should clearly identify which
The applicant should provide a general description of the supplies necessary to accomplish the goals and objectives of the grant. In addition, the applicant should provide the basis for the amount requested for this expenditure category.
Construction expenses are prohibited.
Anticipated postage costs for project-related mailings, including distribution of the final product(s), should be described in the budget narrative. The cost of special mailings, such as for a survey or for announcing a workshop, should be distinguished from routine mailing costs. The bases for all postage estimates should be included in the budget narrative.
Anticipated costs for printing or photocopying project documents, reports, and publications should be included in the budget narrative, along with the bases used to calculate these estimates.
Indirect costs are only applicable to organizations that are not state courts or government agencies. Recoverable indirect costs are limited to no more than 75 percent of a grantee's direct personnel costs,
Applicants should describe the indirect cost rates applicable to the grant in detail. If costs often included within an indirect cost rate are charged directly (
a. Every applicant must submit an original and one copy, by mail, of the application package consisting of Form A; Form B, if the application is from a state or local court, or a Disclosure of Lobbying Form (Form E), if the applicant is not a unit of state or local government; Form C; the Application Abstract; the Program Narrative; the Budget Narrative; and any necessary appendices.
Letters of application may be submitted at any time. However, applicants are encouraged to review the grant deadlines available on the SJI Web site. Receipt of each application will be acknowledged by letter or email.
b. Applicants submitting more than one application may include material that would be identical in each application in a cover letter. This material will be incorporated by reference into each application and counted against the 25-page limit for the program narrative. A copy of the cover letter should be attached to each copy of the application.
Applicants for TA Grants may submit an original and one copy, by mail, of a detailed letter describing the proposed project, as well as a Form A—State Justice Institute Application; Form B—Certificate of State Approval from the State Supreme Court, or its designated agency; and Form C—Project Budget in Tabular Format (see
Although there is no prescribed form for the letter, or a minimum or maximum page limit, letters of application should include the following information:
a.
The discussion should include specific references to the relevant literature and to the experience in the field. SJI continues to make all grant reports and most grant products available online through the National Center for State Courts (NCSC) Library and Digital Archive. Applicants are required to conduct a search of the NCSC Library and Digital Archive on the topic areas they are addressing. This search should include SJI-funded grants, and previous projects not supported by SJI. Searches for SJI grant reports and other state court resources begin with the NCSC Library section. Applicants must discuss the results of their research; how they plan to incorporate the previous work into their proposed project; and if the project will differentiate from prior work.
b.
The applicant must describe the tasks the consultant will perform, and how would they be accomplished. In addition, the applicant must identify which organization or individual will be hired to provide the assistance, and how the consultant was selected. If a consultant has not yet been identified, what procedures and criteria would be used to select the consultant (applicants are expected to follow their jurisdictions' normal procedures for procuring consultant services)? What specific tasks would the consultant(s) and court staff undertake? What is the schedule for completion of each required task and the entire project? How would the applicant oversee the project and provide guidance to the consultant, and who at the court or regional court association would be responsible for coordinating all project tasks and submitting quarterly progress and financial status reports?
If the consultant has been identified, the applicant should provide a letter from that individual or organization documenting interest in and availability for the project, as well as the consultant's ability to complete the assignment within the proposed time frame and for the proposed cost. The consultant must agree to submit a detailed written report to the court and SJI upon completion of the technical assistance.
c.
Applicants must follow the same guidelines provided under Section IV.A. A completed Form C—Project Budget,
The budget narrative should provide the basis for all project-related costs, including the basis for determining the estimated consultant costs, if compensation of the consultant is required (
Recipients of TA Grants must maintain appropriate documentation to support expenditures.
Letters of application should be submitted according to the grant deadlines provided on the SJI Web site.
If the support or cooperation of agencies, funding bodies, organizations, or courts other than the applicant would be needed in order for the consultant to perform the required tasks, written assurances of such support or cooperation should accompany the application letter. Letters of general support for the project are also encouraged. Support letters may be submitted under separate cover; however, they should be received by the same date as the application.
Applicants must submit an original and one copy, by mail, of a detailed letter as well as a Form A—State Justice Institute Application; Form B—Certificate of State Approval; and Form C—Project Budget, Tabular Format (see
Although there is no prescribed format for the letter, or a minimum or maximum page limit, letters of application should include the following information.
(1)
The applicant must provide the title of the curriculum that will be adapted, and identify the entity that originally developed the curriculum. The applicant must also address the following questions: Why is this education program needed at the present time? What are the project's goals? What are the learning objectives of the adapted curriculum? What program components would be implemented, and what types of modifications, if any, are anticipated in length, format, learning objectives, teaching methods, or content? Who would be responsible for adapting the model curriculum? Who would the participants be, how many would there be, how would they be recruited, and from where would they come (
(2)
The applicant should explain why state or local resources are unable to fully support the modification and presentation of the model curriculum. The applicant should also describe the potential for replicating or integrating the adapted curriculum in the future using state or local funds, once it has been successfully adapted and tested. In addition, the applicant should describe how, if applicable, the project will be sustained in the future through existing resources.
(3)
(4)
(1)
The discussion should include specific references to the relevant literature and to the experience in the field. SJI continues to make all grant reports and most grant products available online through the National Center for State Courts (NCSC) Library and Digital Archive. Applicants are required to conduct a search of the NCSC Library and Digital Archive on the topic areas they are addressing. This search should include SJI-funded grants, and previous projects not supported by SJI. Searches for SJI grant reports and other state court resources begin with the NCSC Library section. Applicants must discuss the results of their research; how they plan to incorporate the previous work into their proposed project; and if the project will differentiate from prior work.
The applicant should describe the court reform or initiative prompting the need for training. The applicant should also discuss how the proposed training will help the applicant implement planned changes at the court, and why state or local resources are not sufficient to fully support the costs of the required training. In addition, the applicant should describe how, if applicable, the project will be sustained in the future through existing resources.
(2)
If the trainer has been identified, the applicant should provide a letter from that individual or organization documenting interest in and availability for the project, as well as the trainer's ability to complete the assignment within the proposed time frame and for the proposed cost.
(3)
Applicants must also follow the same guidelines provided under Section IV.A. Applicants should attach a copy of budget Form C and a budget narrative that describes the basis for the computation of all project-related costs and the source of the match offered.
For curriculum adaptation requests, applicants should allow at least 90 days between the Board meeting and the date of the proposed program to allow sufficient time for needed planning. Letters of support for the project are also encouraged. Applicants are encouraged to call SJI to discuss concerns about timing of submissions.
SJI and its funding partners may meld, pick and choose, or waive their application procedures, grant cycles, or grant requirements to expedite the award of jointly-funded grants targeted at emerging or high priority problems confronting state and local courts. SJI may solicit brief proposals from potential grantees to fellow financial partners as a first step. Should SJI be chosen as the lead grant manager, Project Grant application procedures will apply to the proposed Partner Grant.
Applicants may not receive more than one ESP award in a two-year fiscal year period unless the course specifically assumes multi-year participation, such as a certification program or a graduate degree program in judicial studies in which the applicant is currently enrolled (neither exception should be taken as a commitment on the part of the SJI Board of Directors to approve serial ESP awards). If the course assumes multi-year participation, awards will be limited to one per fiscal year. Attendance at annual or mid-year meetings or conferences of a state or national organization does not qualify as an out-of-state educational program for the ESP, even though it may include workshops or other training sessions.
The ESP only covers the cost of tuition up to a maximum of $1,000 per award, per course. Awards will be made for the exact amount requested for tuition. Funds to pay tuition in excess of $1,000, and other cost of attending the program such as travel, lodging, meals, materials, transportation to and from airports (including rental cars) must be obtained from other sources or borne by the ESP award recipient. Applicants are encouraged to check other sources of financial assistance and to combine aid from various sources whenever possible. An ESP award is not transferable to another individual. It may be used only for the course specified in the application unless the applicant's request to attend a different course that meets the eligibility requirements is approved in writing by SJI.
a.
b.
SJI does not submit the names of ESP award recipients to educational organizations, nor provide the funds to the educational organization. SJI also does not provide the funding directly to the applicant's court. ESP funds are provided as reimbursements directly to the recipient.
a.
b.
Applications may be submitted at any time but will be reviewed on a quarterly basis. This means ESP awards will be on a “first-come, first-considered” basis. The dates for applications to be received by SJI for consideration in FY 2015 are November 1, February 1, May 1, and August 1. These are
SJI staff will answer inquiries concerning application procedures.
a. Project Grant applications will be rated on the basis of the criteria set forth below. SJI will accord the greatest weight to the following criteria:
(1) The soundness of the methodology;
(2) The demonstration of need for the project;
(3) The appropriateness of the proposed evaluation design;
(4) If applicable, the key findings and recommendations of the most recent evaluation and the proposed responses to those findings and recommendations;
(5) The applicant's management plan and organizational capabilities;
(6) The qualifications of the project's staff;
(7) The products and benefits resulting from the project, including the extent to which the project will have long-term benefits for state courts across the nation;
(8) The degree to which the findings, procedures, training, technology, or other results of the project can be transferred to other jurisdictions;
(9) The reasonableness of the proposed budget; and,
(10) The demonstration of cooperation and support of other agencies that may be affected by the project.
b. In determining which projects to support, SJI will also consider whether the applicant is a state court, a national court support or education organization, a non-court unit of government, or other type of entity eligible to receive grants under SJI's enabling legislation (see section II.); the availability of financial assistance from other sources for the project; the amount of the applicant's match; the extent to which the proposed project would also benefit the federal courts or help state courts enforce federal constitutional and legislative requirements; and the level of appropriations available to SJI in the current year and the amount expected to be available in succeeding fiscal years.
TA Grant applications will be rated on the basis of the following criteria:
a. Whether the assistance would address a critical need of the applicant;
b. The soundness of the technical assistance approach to the problem;
c. The qualifications of the consultant(s) to be hired or the specific criteria that will be used to select the consultant(s);
d. The commitment of the court or association to act on the consultant's recommendations; and,
e. The reasonableness of the proposed budget.
SJI also will consider factors such as the level and nature of the match that would be provided, diversity of subject matter, geographic diversity, the level of appropriations available to SJI in the current year, and the amount expected to be available in succeeding fiscal years.
CAT Grant applications will be rated on the basis of the following criteria:
(1) The goals and objectives of the proposed project;
(2) The need for outside funding to support the program;
(3) The appropriateness of the approach in achieving the project's educational objectives;
(4) The likelihood of effective implementation and integration of the modified curriculum into ongoing educational programming; and,
(5) Expressions of interest by the judges and/or court personnel who would be directly involved in or affected by the project.
(1) Whether the training would address a critical need of the court or association;
(2) The soundness of the training approach to the problem;
(3) The qualifications of the trainer(s) to be hired or the specific criteria that will be used to select the trainer(s);
(4) The commitment of the court or association to the training program; and
(5) The reasonableness of the proposed budget.
SJI will also consider factors such as the reasonableness of the amount requested; compliance with match requirements; diversity of subject matter, geographic diversity; the level of appropriations available to SJI in the current year; and the amount expected to be available in succeeding fiscal years.
The selection criteria for Partner Grants will be driven by the collective priorities of SJI and other organizations and their collective assessments regarding the needs and capabilities of court and court-related organizations. Having settled on priorities, SJI and its financial partners will likely contact the courts or court-related organizations most acceptable as pilots, laboratories, consultants, or the like.
ESP awards are only for programs that either: (1) Enhance the skills of judges and court managers; or (2) are part of a graduate degree program for judges or court personnel. Awards are provided on the basis of:
a. The date on which the application and concurrence (and support letter, if required) were sent (“first-come, first-considered”);
b. The unavailability of state or local funds, or funding from another source to cover the costs of attending the program, or participating online;
c. The absence of educational programs in the applicant's state addressing the topic(s) covered by the educational program for which the award is being sought;
d. Geographic balance among the recipients;
e. The balance of ESP awards among educational providers and programs;
f. The balance of ESP awards among the types of courts and court personnel (trial judge, appellate judge, trial court administrator) represented; and
g. The level of appropriations available to SJI in the current year and the amount expected to be available in succeeding fiscal years.
The postmark or courier receipt will be used to determine the date on which the application form and other required items were sent.
SJI's Board of Directors will review the applications competitively. The Board will review all applications and decide which projects to fund. The decision to fund a project is solely that of the Board of Directors. The Chairman of the Board will sign approved awards on behalf of SJI.
The Board will review the applications competitively. The Board will review all applications and decide which projects to fund. The decision to fund a project is solely that of the Board of Directors. The Chairman of the Board will sign approved awards on behalf of SJI.
A committee of the Board of Directors will review ESP applications quarterly. The committee will review the applications competitively. The
SJI's internal process for the review and approval of Partner Grants will depend on negotiations with fellow financiers. SJI may use its procedures, a partner's procedures, a mix of both, or entirely unique procedures. All Partner Grants will be approved by the Board of Directors.
Unless a specific request is made, unsuccessful applications will not be returned.
SJI will send written notice to applicants concerning all Board decisions to approve, defer, or deny their respective applications. For all applications (except ESP applications), if requested, SJI will convey the key issues and questions that arose during the review process. A decision by the Board to deny an application may not be appealed, but it does not prohibit resubmission of a proposal in a subsequent funding cycle.
With the exception of those approved for ESP awards, applicants have 30 days from the date of the letter notifying them that the Board has approved their application to respond to any revisions requested by the Board. If the requested revisions (or a reasonable schedule for submitting such revisions) have not been submitted to SJI within 30 days after notification, the approval may be rescinded and the application presented to the Board for reconsideration. In the event an issue will only be resolved after award, such as the selection of a consultant, the final award document will include a Special Condition that will require additional grantee reporting and SJI review and approval. Special Conditions, in the form of incentives or sanctions, may also be used in other situations.
The State Justice Institute Act contains limitations and conditions on grants, contracts, and cooperative agreements awarded by SJI. The Board of Directors has approved additional policies governing the use of SJI grant funds. These statutory and policy requirements are set forth below.
No funds made available by SJI may be used to support or conduct training programs for the purpose of advocating particular non-judicial public policies or encouraging non-judicial political activities (42 U.S.C. 10706(b)).
If the qualifications of an employee or consultant assigned to a key project staff position are not described in the application or if there is a change of a person assigned to such a position, the recipient must submit a description of the qualifications of the newly assigned person to SJI. Prior written approval of the qualifications of the new person assigned to a key staff position must be received from the Institute before the salary or consulting fee of that person and associated costs may be paid or reimbursed from grant funds.
Recipients of SJI grants must provide for an annual fiscal audit which includes an opinion on whether the financial statements of the grantee present fairly its financial position and its financial operations are in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (see section VII.I. for the requirements of such audits).
Budget revisions among direct cost categories that: (a) Transfer grant funds to an unbudgeted cost category, or (b) individually or cumulatively exceed five percent of the approved original budget or the most recently approved revised budget require prior SJI approval (see section VIII.A.1.).
Personnel and other officials connected with SJI-funded programs must adhere to the following requirements:
a. No official or employee of a recipient court or organization shall participate personally through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, the rendering of advice, investigation, or otherwise in any proceeding, application, request for a ruling or other determination, contract, grant, cooperative agreement, claim, controversy, or other particular matter in which SJI funds are used, where, to his or her knowledge, he or she or his or her immediate family, partners, organization other than a public agency in which he or she is serving as officer, director, trustee, partner, or employee or any person or organization with whom he or she is negotiating or has any arrangement concerning prospective employment, has a financial interest.
b. In the use of SJI project funds, an official or employee of a recipient court or organization shall avoid any action which might result in or create the appearance of:
(1) Using an official position for private gain; or
(2) Affecting adversely the confidence of the public in the integrity of the Institute program.
c. Requests for proposals or invitations for bids issued by a recipient of Institute funds or a subgrantee or subcontractor will provide notice to prospective bidders that the contractors who develop or draft specifications, requirements, statements of work, and/or requests for proposals for a proposed procurement will be excluded from bidding on or submitting a proposal to compete for the award of such procurement.
If any patentable items, patent rights, processes, or inventions are produced in the course of SJI-sponsored work, such fact shall be promptly and fully reported to SJI. Unless there is a prior agreement between the grantee and SJI on disposition of such items, SJI shall determine whether protection of the invention or discovery shall be sought.
a. Funds awarded to recipients by SJI shall not be used, indirectly or directly, to influence Executive Orders or similar promulgations by federal, state or local agencies, or to influence the passage or defeat of any legislation by federal, state or local legislative bodies (42 U.S.C. 10706(a)).
b. It is the policy of the Board of Directors to award funds only to support applications submitted by organizations that would carry out the objectives of their applications in an unbiased manner. Consistent with this policy and the provisions of 42 U.S.C. 10706, SJI will not knowingly award a grant to an applicant that has, directly or through an entity that is part of the same organization as the applicant, advocated a position before Congress on the specific subject matter of the application.
All grantees other than ESP award recipients are required to provide a match. A match is the portion of project costs not borne by the Institute. Match includes both cash and in-kind contributions. Cash match is the direct outlay of funds by the grantee or a third party to support the project. In-kind match consists of contributions of time and/or services of current staff members, new employees, space, supplies, etc., made to the project by the
Under normal circumstances, allowable match may be incurred only during the project period. When appropriate, and with the prior written permission of SJI, match may be incurred from the date of the Board of Directors' approval of an award. The amount and nature of required match depends on the type of grant (see section III.).
The grantee is responsible for ensuring that the total amount of match proposed is actually contributed. If a proposed contribution is not fully met, SJI may reduce the award amount accordingly, in order to maintain the ratio originally provided for in the award agreement (see section VII.D.1.). Match should be expended at the same rate as SJI funding.
The Board of Directors looks favorably upon any unrequired match contributed by applicants when making grant decisions. The match requirement may be waived in exceptionally rare circumstances upon the request of the chief justice of the highest court in the state or the highest ranking official in the requesting organization and approval by the Board of Directors (42 U.S.C. 10705(d)). The Board of Directors encourages all applicants to provide the maximum amount of cash and in-kind match possible, even if a waiver is approved. The amount and nature of match are criteria in the grant selection process (see section V.B.1.b.).
Other federal department and agency funding may not be used for cash match.
No person may, on the basis of race, sex, national origin, disability, color, or creed be excluded from participation in, denied the benefits of, or otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program or activity supported by SJI funds. Recipients of SJI funds must immediately take any measures necessary to effectuate this provision.
No recipient may contribute or make available SJI funds, program personnel, or equipment to any political party or association, or the campaign of any candidate for public or party office. Recipients are also prohibited from using funds in advocating or opposing any ballot measure, initiative, or referendum. Officers and employees of recipients shall not intentionally identify SJI or recipients with any partisan or nonpartisan political activity associated with a political party or association, or the campaign of any candidate for public or party office (42 U.S.C. 10706(a)).
(1) Recipients of SJI funds must acknowledge prominently on all products developed with grant funds that support was received from the SJI. The “SJI” logo must appear on the front cover of a written product, or in the opening frames of a multimedia product, unless another placement is approved in writing by SJI. This includes final products printed or otherwise reproduced during the grant period, as well as re-printings or reproductions of those materials following the end of the grant period. A camera-ready logo sheet is available on SJI's Web site:
(2) Recipients also must display the following disclaimer on all grant products: “This [document, film, videotape, etc.] was developed under [grant/cooperative agreement] number SJI-[insert number] from the State Justice Institute. The points of view expressed are those of the [author(s), filmmaker(s), etc.] and do not necessarily represent the official position or policies of the State Justice Institute.”
(3) In addition to other required grant products and reports, recipients must provide a one page executive summary of the project. The summary should include a background on the project, the tasks undertaken, and the outcome. In addition, the summary should provide the performance metrics that were used during the project, and how performance will be measured in the future.
(1) SJI's mission is to support improvements in the quality of justice and foster innovative, efficient solutions to common issues faced by all courts. SJI has recognized and established procedures for supporting research and development of grant products (
(2) Applicants should disclose their intent to sell grant-related products in the application. Grantees must obtain SJI's prior written approval of their plans to recover project costs through the sale of grant products. Written requests to recover costs ordinarily should be received during the grant period and should specify the nature and extent of the costs to be recouped, the reason that such costs were not budgeted (if the rationale was not disclosed in the approved application), the number of copies to be sold, the intended audience for the products to be sold, and the proposed sale price. If the product is to be sold for more than $25, the written request also should include a detailed itemization of costs that will be recovered and a certification that the costs were not supported by either SJI grant funds or grantee matching contributions.
(3) In the event that the sale of grant products results in revenues that exceed the costs to develop, produce, and disseminate the product, the revenue must continue to be used for the authorized purposes of SJI-funded project or other purposes consistent with the State Justice Institute Act that have been approved by SJI (see section VII.F.).
Except as otherwise provided in the terms and conditions of a SJI award, a recipient is free to copyright any books, publications, or other copyrightable materials developed in the course of a SJI-supported project, but SJI shall reserve a royalty-free, nonexclusive and irrevocable right to reproduce, publish, or otherwise use, and to authorize others to use, the materials for purposes consistent with the State Justice Institute Act.
All products and, for TA and CAT grants, consultant and/or trainer reports (see section VI.B.1 & 2) are to be completed and distributed (see below) not later than the end of the award period, not the 90-day close out period. The latter is only intended for grantee final reporting and to liquidate obligations (see section VII.J.).
In addition to the distribution specified in the grant application, grantees shall send:
(1) Three (3) copies of each final product developed with grant funds to
(2) An electronic version of the product in HTML or PDF format to SJI.
No grant funds may be obligated for publication or reproduction of a final product developed with grant funds without the written approval of SJI. Grantees shall submit a final draft of each written product to SJI for review and approval. The draft must be submitted at least 30 days before the product is scheduled to be sent for publication or reproduction to permit SJI review and incorporation of any appropriate changes required by SJI. Grantees must provide for timely reviews by the SJI of Web site or other multimedia products at the treatment, script, rough cut, and final stages of development or their equivalents.
All products prepared as the result of SJI-supported projects must be originally-developed material unless otherwise specified in the award documents. Material not originally developed that is included in such products must be properly identified, whether the material is in a verbatim or extensive paraphrase format.
No funds made available by SJI may be used directly or indirectly to support legal assistance to parties in litigation, including cases involving capital punishment.
a. Recipients of SJI funds other than ESP awards must submit Quarterly Progress and Financial Status Reports within 30 days of the close of each calendar quarter (that is, no later than January 30, April 30, July 30, and October 30). The Quarterly Progress Reports shall include a narrative description of project activities during the calendar quarter, the relationship between those activities and the task schedule and objectives set forth in the approved application or an approved adjustment thereto, any significant problem areas that have developed and how they will be resolved, and the activities scheduled during the next reporting period. Failure to comply with the requirements of this provision could result in the termination of a grantee's award.
b. The quarterly Financial Status Report must be submitted in accordance with section VII.G.2. of this Guideline. A final project Progress Report and Financial Status Report shall be submitted within 90 days after the end of the grant period in accordance with section VII.J.1. of this Guideline.
Upon request, grantees must make available for secondary analysis backup files containing research and evaluation data collected under an SJI grant and the accompanying code manual. Grantees may recover the actual cost of duplicating and mailing or otherwise transmitting the data set and manual from the person or organization requesting the data. Grantees may provide the requested data set in the format in which it was created and analyzed.
Except as provided by federal law other than the State Justice Institute Act, no recipient of financial assistance from SJI may use or reveal any research or statistical information furnished under the Act by any person and identifiable to any specific private person for any purpose other than the purpose for which the information was obtained. Such information and copies thereof shall be immune from legal process, and shall not, without the consent of the person furnishing such information, be admitted as evidence or used for any purpose in any action, suit, or other judicial, legislative, or administrative proceedings.
Human subjects are defined as individuals who are participants in an experimental procedure or who are asked to provide information about themselves, their attitudes, feelings, opinions, and/or experiences through an interview, questionnaire, or other data collection technique. All research involving human subjects shall be conducted with the informed consent of those subjects and in a manner that will ensure their privacy and freedom from risk or harm and the protection of persons who are not subjects of the research but would be affected by it, unless such procedures and safeguards would make the research impractical. In such instances, SJI must approve procedures designed by the grantee to provide human subjects with relevant information about the research after their involvement and to minimize or eliminate risk or harm to those subjects due to their participation.
Each application for funding from a state or local court must be approved, consistent with state law, by the state supreme court, or its designated agency or council. The supreme court or its designee shall receive, administer, and be accountable for all funds awarded on the basis of such an application (42 U.S.C. 10705(b)(4)). See section VII.B.2.
To ensure that SJI funds are used to supplement and improve the operation of state courts, rather than to support basic court services, SJI funds shall not be used for the following purposes:
a. To supplant state or local funds supporting a program or activity (such as paying the salary of court employees who would be performing their normal duties as part of the project, or paying rent for space which is part of the court's normal operations);
b. To construct court facilities or structures.
c. Solely to purchase equipment.
After providing a recipient reasonable notice and opportunity to submit written documentation demonstrating why fund termination or suspension should not occur, SJI may terminate or suspend funding of a project that fails to comply substantially with the Act, the Guideline, or the terms and conditions of the award (42 U.S.C. 10708(a)).
At the conclusion of the project, title to all expendable and nonexpendable personal property purchased with SJI funds shall vest in the recipient court, organization, or individual that purchased the property if certification is made to and approved by SJI that the property will continue to be used for the authorized purposes of the SJI-funded project or other purposes consistent with the State Justice Institute Act. If such certification is not made or SJI disapproves such certification, title to all such property with an aggregate or individual value of $1,000 or more shall vest in SJI, which will direct the disposition of the property.
Recipients of TA and CAT Grants must comply with the requirements
Recipients of TA Grants must submit to SJI one copy of a final report that explains how it intends to act on the consultant's recommendations, as well as two copies of the consultant's written report.
Recipients of CAT Grants must submit one copy of the agenda or schedule, outline of presentations and/or relevant instructor's notes, copies of overhead transparencies, power point presentations, or other visual aids, exercises, case studies and other background materials, hypotheticals, quizzes, and other materials involving the participants, manuals, handbooks, conference packets, evaluation forms, and suggestions for replicating the program, including possible faculty or the preferred qualifications or experience of those selected as faculty, developed under the grant at the conclusion of the grant period, along with a final report that includes any evaluation results and explains how the grantee intends to present the educational program in the future, as well as two copies of the consultant's or trainer's report.
1. ESP award recipients are responsible for disseminating the information received from the course to their court colleagues locally and, if possible, throughout the state
Recipients also must submit to SJI a certificate of attendance from the program and a copy of the notice of any funding received from other sources. A state or local jurisdiction may impose additional requirements on ESP award recipients.
2. To receive the funds authorized by an ESP award, recipients must submit an ESP Payment Request (Form ESP-3) together with a paid tuition statement from the program sponsor.
ESP Payment Requests must be submitted within 90 days after the end of the course, which the recipient attended.
3. ESP recipients are encouraged to check with their tax advisors to determine whether an award constitutes taxable income under federal and state law.
The compliance requirements for Partner Grant recipients will depend upon the agreements struck between the grant financiers and between lead financiers and grantees. Should SJI be the lead, the compliance requirements for Project Grants will apply, unless specific arrangements are determined by the Partners.
The purpose of this section is to establish accounting system requirements and offer guidance on procedures to assist all grantees, sub-grantees, contractors, and other organizations in:
1. Complying with the statutory requirements for the award, disbursement, and accounting of funds;
2. Complying with regulatory requirements of SJI for the financial management and disposition of funds;
3. Generating financial data to be used in planning, managing, and controlling projects; and
4. Facilitating an effective audit of funded programs and projects.
All grantees receiving awards from SJI are responsible for the management and fiscal control of all funds. Responsibilities include accounting for receipts and expenditures, maintaining adequate financial records, and refunding expenditures disallowed by audits.
a. Each application for funding from a state or local court must be approved, consistent with state law, by the state supreme court, or its designated agency or council.
b. The state supreme court or its designee shall receive all SJI funds awarded to such courts; be responsible for assuring proper administration of SJI funds; and be responsible for all aspects of the project, including proper accounting and financial record-keeping by the subgrantee. These responsibilities include:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
The grantee is responsible for establishing and maintaining an adequate system of accounting and internal controls and for ensuring that an adequate system exists for each of its sub-grantees and contractors. An acceptable and adequate accounting system:
1. Properly accounts for receipt of funds under each grant awarded and the expenditure of funds for each grant by category of expenditure (including matching contributions and project income);
2. Assures that expended funds are applied to the appropriate budget category included within the approved grant;
3. Presents and classifies historical costs of the grant as required for budgetary and evaluation purposes;
4. Provides cost and property controls to assure optimal use of grant funds;
5. Is integrated with a system of internal controls adequate to safeguard the funds and assets covered, check the accuracy and reliability of the accounting data, promote operational
6. Meets the prescribed requirements for periodic financial reporting of operations; and
7. Provides financial data for planning, control, measurement, and evaluation of direct and indirect costs.
Accounting for all funds awarded by SJI must be structured and executed on a “Total Project Cost” basis. That is, total project costs, including SJI funds, state and local matching shares, and any other fund sources included in the approved project budget serve as the foundation for fiscal administration and accounting. Grant applications and financial reports require budget and cost estimates on the basis of total costs.
Matching contributions should be applied at the same time as the obligation of SJI funds. Ordinarily, the full matching share must be obligated during the award period; however, with the written permission of SJI, contributions made following approval of the grant by the Board of Directors, but before the beginning of the grant, may be counted as match. If a proposed cash or in-kind match is not fully met, SJI may reduce the award amount accordingly to maintain the ratio of grant funds to matching funds stated in the award agreement.
All grantees must maintain records that clearly show the source, amount, and timing of all matching contributions. In addition, if a project has included, within its approved budget, contributions which exceed the required matching portion, the grantee must maintain records of those contributions in the same manner as it does SJI funds and required matching shares. For all grants made to state and local courts, the state supreme court has primary responsibility for grantee/sub-grantee compliance with the requirements of this section (see subsection B.2. above).
All financial records, including supporting documents, statistical records, and all other information pertinent to grants, sub-grants, cooperative agreements, or contracts under grants, must be retained by each organization participating in a project for at least three years for purposes of examination and audit. State supreme courts may impose record retention and maintenance requirements in addition to those prescribed in this section.
The retention requirement extends to books of original entry, source documents supporting accounting transactions, the general ledger, subsidiary ledgers, personnel and payroll records, canceled checks, and related documents and records. Source documents include copies of all grant and sub-grant awards, applications, and required grantee/sub-grantee financial and narrative reports. Personnel and payroll records shall include the time and attendance reports for all individuals reimbursed under a grant, sub-grant or contract, whether they are employed full-time or part-time. Time and effort reports are required for consultants.
The three-year retention period starts from the date of the submission of the final expenditure report.
Grantees and sub-grantees are expected to see that records of different fiscal years are separately identified and maintained so that requested information can be readily located. Grantees and sub-grantees are also obligated to protect records adequately against fire or other damage. When records are stored away from the grantee's/sub-grantee's principal office, a written index of the location of stored records should be on hand, and ready access should be assured.
Grantees and sub-grantees must give any authorized representative of SJI access to and the right to examine all records, books, papers, and documents related to an SJI grant.
Records of the receipt and disposition of project-related income must be maintained by the grantee in the same manner as required for the project funds that gave rise to the income and must be reported to SJI (see subsection G.2. below). The policies governing the disposition of the various types of project-related income are listed below.
A state and any agency or instrumentality of a state, including institutions of higher education and hospitals, shall not be held accountable for interest earned on advances of project funds. When funds are awarded to sub-grantees through a state, the sub-grantees are not held accountable for interest earned on advances of project funds. Local units of government and nonprofit organizations that are grantees must refund any interest earned. Grantees shall ensure minimum balances in their respective grant cash accounts.
The grantee/sub-grantee may retain all royalties received from copyrights or other works developed under projects or from patents and inventions, unless the terms and conditions of the grant provide otherwise.
Registration and tuition fees may be considered as cash match with prior written approval from SJI. Estimates of registration and tuition fees, and any expenses to be offset by the fees, should be included in the application budget forms and narrative.
If the sale of products occurs during the project period, the income may be treated as cash match with the prior written approval of SJI. The costs and income generated by the sales must be reported on the Quarterly Financial Status Reports (Form F) and documented in an auditable manner. Whenever possible, the intent to sell a product should be disclosed in the application or reported to SJI in writing once a decision to sell products has been made. The grantee must request approval to recover its product development, reproduction, and dissemination costs as specified in section VI.A.11.b.
Other project income shall be treated in accordance with disposition instructions set forth in the grant's terms and conditions.
The procedures and regulations set forth below are applicable to all SJI grant funds and grantees.
a.
b.
Failure of the grantee to submit required financial and progress reports may result in suspension or termination of grant payments.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transportation and per diem rates must comply with the policies of the grantee. If the grantee does not have an established written travel policy, then travel rates must be consistent with those established by the federal government. SJI funds may not be used to cover the transportation or per diem costs of a member of a national organization to attend an annual or other regular meeting, or conference of that organization.
Indirect costs are only applicable to organizations that are not state courts or government agencies. These are costs of an organization that are not readily assignable to a particular project but are necessary to the operation of the organization and the performance of the project. The cost of operating and maintaining facilities, depreciation, and administrative salaries are examples of the types of costs that are usually treated as indirect costs. Although SJI's policy requires all costs to be budgeted directly, it will accept indirect costs if a grantee has an indirect cost rate approved by a federal agency. However, recoverable indirect costs are limited to no more than 75 percent of a grantee's direct personnel costs (salaries plus fringe benefits).
(1) A copy of an indirect cost rate agreement or allocation plan approved for a grantee during the preceding two years by any federal granting agency on the basis of allocation methods substantially in accord with those set forth in the applicable cost circulars must be submitted to SJI.
(2) Where flat rates are accepted in lieu of actual indirect costs, grantees may not also charge expenses normally included in overhead pools,
Each recipient of a Project Grant must provide for an annual fiscal audit. This requirement also applies to a state or local court receiving a sub-grant from the state supreme court. The audit may be of the entire grantee or sub-grantee organization or of the specific project funded by the Institute. Audits conducted using generally accepted auditing standards in the United States will satisfy the requirement for an annual fiscal audit. The audit must be conducted by an independent Certified Public Accountant, or a state or local agency authorized to audit government agencies.
Timely action on recommendations by responsible management officials is an integral part of the effectiveness of an audit. Each grantee must have policies and procedures for acting on audit recommendations by designating officials responsible for: (1) Follow-up, (2) maintaining a record of the actions taken on recommendations and time schedules, (3) responding to and acting on audit recommendations, and (4) submitting periodic reports to SJI on recommendations and actions taken.
Ordinarily, SJI will not make a subsequent grant award to an applicant that has an unresolved audit report involving SJI awards. Failure of the grantee to resolve audit questions may also result in the suspension or termination of payments for active SJI grants to that organization.
Within 90 days after the end date of the grant or any approved extension thereof (see subsection J.2. below), the following documents must be submitted to SJI by grantees (other than ESP award recipients):
a.
b.
Upon the written request of the grantee, SJI may extend the close-out period to assure completion of the grantee's close-out requirements. Requests for an extension must be submitted at least 14 days before the end of the close-out period and must explain why the extension is necessary and what steps will be taken to assure that all the grantee's responsibilities will be met by the end of the extension period.
All requests for programmatic or budgetary adjustments requiring Institute approval must be submitted by the project director in a timely manner (ordinarily 30 days prior to the implementation of the adjustment being requested). All requests for changes from the approved application will be carefully reviewed for both consistency with this Grant Guideline and the enhancement of grant goals and objectives. Failure to submit adjustments in a timely manner may result in the termination of a grantee's award.
The following grant adjustments require the prior written approval of SJI:
1. Budget revisions among direct cost categories that (a) transfer grant funds to an unbudgeted cost category or (b) individually or cumulatively exceed five percent (5%) of the approved original budget or the most recently approved revised budget (see section VII.H.1.d.).
2. A change in the scope of work to be performed or the objectives of the project (see subsection D. below).
3. A change in the project site.
4. A change in the project period, such as an extension of the grant period and/or extension of the final financial or progress report deadline (see subsection E. below).
5. Satisfaction of special conditions, if required.
6. A change in or temporary absence of the project director (see subsections F. and G. below).
7. The assignment of an employee or consultant to a key staff position whose qualifications were not described in the application, or a change of a person assigned to a key project staff position (see section VI.A.2.).
8. A change in or temporary absence of the person responsible for managing and reporting on the grant's finances.
9. A change in the name of the grantee organization.
10. A transfer or contracting out of grant-supported activities (see subsection H. below).
11. A transfer of the grant to another recipient.
12. Pre-agreement costs (see section VII.I.2.a.).
13. The purchase of automated data processing equipment and software (see section VII.H.1.b.).
14. Consultant rates (see section VII.I.2.c.).
15. A change in the nature or number of the products to be prepared or the manner in which a product would be distributed.
All grantees must promptly notify SJI, in writing, of events or proposed changes that may require adjustments to the approved project design. In requesting an adjustment, the grantee must set forth the reasons and basis for the proposed adjustment and any other information the program manager determines would help SJI's review.
If the request is approved, the grantee will be sent a Grant Adjustment signed by the SJI Executive Director. If the request is denied, the grantee will be sent a written explanation of the reasons for the denial.
Major changes in scope, duration, training methodology, or other significant areas must be approved in advance by SJI. A grantee may make minor changes in methodology, approach, or other aspects of the grant to expedite achievement of the grant's objectives with subsequent notification to SJI.
A request to change or extend the grant period must be made at least 30 days in advance of the end date of the grant. A revised task plan should accompany a request for an extension of the grant period, along with a revised budget if shifts among budget categories will be needed. A request to change or extend the deadline for the final financial report or final progress report must be made at least 14 days in advance of the report deadline (see section VII.J.2.).
Whenever an absence of the project director is expected to exceed a continuous period of one month, the plans for the conduct of the project director's duties during such absence must be approved in advance by the Institute. This information must be provided in a letter signed by an authorized representative of the grantee/sub-grantee at least 30 days before the departure of the project director, or as soon as it is known that the project director will be absent. The grant may be terminated if arrangements are not approved in advance by SJI.
If the project director relinquishes or expects to relinquish active direction of the project, SJI must be notified immediately. In such cases, if the grantee/sub-grantee wishes to terminate the project, SJI will forward procedural instructions upon notification of such intent. If the grantee wishes to continue the project under the direction of another individual, a statement of the candidate's qualifications should be sent to SJI for review and approval. The grant may be terminated if the qualifications of the proposed individual are not approved in advance by SJI.
No principal activity of a grant-supported project may be transferred or contracted out to another organization without specific prior approval by SJI. All such arrangements must be formalized in a contract or other written agreement between the parties involved. Copies of the proposed contract or agreement must be submitted for prior approval of SJI at the earliest possible time. The contract or agreement must state, at a minimum, the activities to be performed, the time schedule, the policies and procedures to be followed, the dollar limitation of the agreement, and the cost principles to be followed in determining what costs, both direct and indirect, will be allowed. The contract or other written agreement must not affect the grantee's overall responsibility for the direction of the project and accountability to SJI.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Notice of intent.
The FHWA, on behalf of the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans), is issuing this notice to advise the public that a Draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) will be prepared for proposed highway improvements on Interstate 605 (I-605) and State Route 60 (SR-60). The limits of the Interstate 605 (I-605) and State Route 60 (SR-60) Improvement Project (Project) will traverse the cities of Baldwin Park, El Monte, City of Industry, Pico Rivera, South El Monte, Whittier, and unincorporated Los Angeles County. Improvements on I-605 are proposed from south of Slauson Avenue to the I-605/Interstate 10 (I-10) Interchange, and improvements on SR-60 are proposed from Santa Anita Avenue to east of Turnbull Canyon Road. A Project Study Report-Project Development Study (PSR-PDS) for the Project was approved in December 2015 (not attached).
Ronald Kosinski, Deputy District Director, Division of Environmental Planning, District 7, 100 South Main Street, Suite 100, Los Angeles, CA 90012, (213) 897-0703.
Effective July 1, 2007, the FHWA assigned, and Caltrans assumed, environmental responsibilities for this Project pursuant to 23 United States Code (U.S.C.) 327.
Caltrans will prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the proposed Project. The purpose of the Project is to reduce congestion, improve freeway operations, improve and enhance safety, and improve local and system interchange operations. The Project proposes widening along southbound and northbound I-605 and the addition of one mixed flow lane (a standard freeway lane where vehicles with any number of occupants can drive anytime) along westbound SR-60 within the Project limits. The Project will also include the addition of auxiliary lanes, where necessary (lanes used to separate entering, exiting, or weaving traffic from through traffic). Improvements to local streets and interchanges would be required as part of the Project. Interchanges that would be affected include the I-605/Slauson Avenue Interchange, I-605/Washington Boulevard Interchange, I-605/Whittier Boulevard Interchange, I-605/Beverly Boulevard Interchange, I-605/Rose Hills Road Interchange, I-605/Peck Road Interchange, I-605/SR 60 Interchange, I-605/Valley Boulevard Interchange, and SR 60/Peck Road Interchange.
The following five Project alternatives are under consideration.
In this alternative, there would be no reconstruction or improvements to I-605 or SR-60. I-605 within the Project limits would continue to have four mixed flow lanes that are 11-feet wide, with 2-foot-wide median shoulders, plus one high-occupancy vehicle (HOV) lane and a 1-foot-wide HOV buffer.
Alternative 2 would meet Caltrans' Highway Design Manual standards for travel lanes and shoulders. This alternative includes adding one mixed flow lane on southbound and northbound I-605 and widening all lanes to 12 feet, for a total of five, 12-foot-wide mixed flow lanes. The 2-foot-wide median shoulders would be widened to 10 feet, and the 1-foot-wide HOV buffer would be widened to four feet. One 12-foot-wide mixed flow lane would also be added on westbound SR-60. Right-of-Way (ROW) acquisitions would be required to accommodate the proposed improvements and to meet Caltrans' Highway Design Manual standards.
Alternative 3 includes many of the design elements identified in Alternative 2; however, this alternative includes features that do not meet Caltrans' Highway Design Manual standards to reduce ROW acquisitions. On I-605, only two of the five mixed flow lanes would be 12-feet wide, as the remaining three lanes would be 11-feet wide. The 2-foot-wide median shoulders would be widened to 10 feet, and the 1-foot-wide HOV buffer would be widened to two feet.
Alternative 4 includes many of the same design elements identified in Alternative 2; however, this alternative includes features that do not meet Caltrans' Highway Design Manual standards to reduce ROW acquisitions. Like Alternative 2, this alternative includes five mixed flow lanes on I-605, but only one mixed flow lane would be 12-feet wide, which is added to the outside travel lane. The remaining portion of the highway, consisting of the four 11-foot-wide mixed flow lanes, the 2-foot-wide median shoulders, and 1-foot-wide HOV buffer, would not be improved as part of this alternative.
The TSM/TDM Alternative would add transportation system and demand management techniques to existing features within the Project limits. Improvements that may be included as part of this alternative are additional ramp metering, improved signal timing, increased transit service, improved signage, development of rideshare/carpool programs, and installation of intelligent transportation systems.
Build Alternatives 2 through 4 may include may include additional design variations, which provide optional lane use (general purpose, HOV), optional on and off ramp modifications, and other operational improvements. Build
Analysis supporting the Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) will determine the improvements necessary to meet the existing and future transportation needs in the corridor.
The following permits/approvals may be required to construct the Project:
Caltrans will be holding public scoping meetings to provide an overview of the Project, summarize the environmental process, and receive input regarding the environmental issues and the suggested scope and content of the EIS. These meetings will include separate agency and public scoping. One round of three meetings will be held on November 1st through November 3rd. Please refer to the table below for meeting details:
Letters describing the proposed action and soliciting comments will be sent to appropriate Federal, State, and Participating Agencies; tribal governments and local agencies and private organizations and citizens who have previously expressed or are known to have interest in this proposal. The Draft EIS is anticipated to be available for public and agency review and comment in mid-2019. Public meetings will be held in study area communities during the public and agency review and comment period. In addition, public hearings will be held for the Project. Public notice will be given for the time and place of the public meetings and hearings. The Draft EIS will be available for public and agency review and comment prior to the public hearings.
To ensure that the full range of issues related to this proposed action is addressed and all significant concerns are identified, comments and suggestions are invited from all interested parties. Comments or questions about this proposed action and the EIS should be directed to Caltrans at the address provided above. (Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Number 20.205, Highway Planning and Construction. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities apply to this program.)
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 18 individuals for exemption from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals to qualify as drivers of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before November 10, 2016. All comments will be investigated by FMCSA. The exemptions will be issued the day after the comment period closes.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0207 using any of the following methods:
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•
•
•
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” FMCSA can renew exemptions at the end of each 2-year period. The 18 individuals listed in this notice have each requested such an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting an exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Akshar, 22, has had amblyopia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, Joshua Akshar has sufficient visual acuity and field of vision to perform the driving tasks to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Akshar reported that he has driven straight trucks for 3 years, accumulating 10,200 miles. He holds a Class B CDL from New York. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Allen, 52, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my medical opinion that he has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Allen reported that he has driven straight trucks for 8 years, accumulating 320,000 miles, tractor-trailer combinations for 25 years, accumulating 2 million miles, and buses for 1 year, accumulating 2,600 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Arkansas. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and one conviction for a moving violation in a CMV; he exceeded the speed limit by 10 miles per hour (mph).
Mr. Brooks, 21, has had amblyopia in his right eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/100, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my opinion that his vision will enable him to safely operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Brooks reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 3 years, accumulating 24,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Mississippi. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Broux, 49, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/25, and in his left eye, 20/50. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, Mr. Broux's vision is sufficient to operate a commercial motor vehicle.” Mr. Broux reported that he has driven straight trucks for 11 years, accumulating 143,000 miles. He holds a Class BM1 CDL from California. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Dannenmann, 50, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/25, and in his left eye, 20/60. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my professional opinion Mr [
Mr. Dorbert, 58, has had exotropia in his right eye due to amblyopia since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/40, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Visual ability and acuity are stable and sufficient to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Dorbert reported that he has driven buses for 6 years, accumulating 61,500 miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Ellsworth, 44, has hypoexotropia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/40. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, Mr. Ellsworth has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle, with his optical correction.” Mr. Ellsworth reported that he has driven straight trucks for 14 years, accumulating 364,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from North Carolina. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Frisch, 48, has had complete loss of vision in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I believe he has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks that require operating a commercial or passenger vehicle.” Mr. Frisch reported that he has driven straight trucks for 15 years,
Mr. Gallant, 68, has had a retinal detachment in his right eye since 1992. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/200, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my opinion that his vision and ocular health should not [sic] prevent him from being able to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Gallant reported that he has driven straight trucks for 22 years, accumulating 2.34 million miles. He holds a Class B CDL from South Carolina. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Grum, 45, has amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/100, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion I feel John has more than sufficient vision to continue to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Grum reported that he has driven straight trucks for 20 years, accumulating 600,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 20 years, accumulating 1 million miles. He holds a Class AM CDL from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Hendren, 28, has had amblyopia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Since Mr. Hendren's visual fields are much greater than the required field in each eye, he should be considered visually competent to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Hendren reported that he has driven straight trucks for 9 years, accumulating 142,659 miles. He holds an operator's license from South Carolina. His driving record for the last 3 years shows one crash; he was cited for spillage of load/improper load secure.
Mr. Kadolph, 63, has a macular scar in his left eye since 1952. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “In short, the history and examination was consistent with a history of very early cataract formation along with a macular scar rendering decreased central visual acuity with no changes in the peripheral vision in both eyes . . . In regards to his exam, again everything has been unchanged and he should be strongly considered for a waiver for this CDL as nothing has been altered here in the last many years.” Mr. Kadolph reported that he has driven straight trucks for 45 years, accumulating 45,000 miles, tractor-trailer combinations for 24 years, accumulating 120,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. May, 36, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Jay's vision is sufficient to drive a commercial vehicle.” Mr. May reported that he has driven straight trucks for 11 years, accumulating 5,500 miles, tractor-trailer combinations for 11 years, accumulating 495,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Colorado. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Neal, 49, has had optic atrophy in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/100, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my medical opinion that Mr. Neal has sufficient vision to perform safe driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Neal reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 26 years, accumulating 2.6 million miles. He holds an operator's license from Michigan. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Paloskey, 56, has retinal scar in his left eye due to an electromagnetic foreign body in 1984. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/80. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, Edward P. Paloskey Jr [
Mr. Parker, 44, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/50, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, Mr. Parker has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks assigned to him to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Parker reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 16 years, accumulating 80,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Louisiana. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Stewart, 57, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/60, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated that Mr. Stewart does have sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial motor vehicle. Mr. Stewart reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 32 years, accumulating 3.58 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Vargas, 28, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/15, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Mr. Vargas does meet the visual standards to drive legally and there is sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Vargas reported that he has driven straight trucks for 4 years, accumulating 74,080 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 2 years, accumulating 14,580 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Massachusetts. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 12 individuals for exemption from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals to qualify as drivers of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before November 10, 2016. All comments will be investigated by FMCSA. The exemptions will be issued the day after the comment period closes.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0209 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” FMCSA can renew exemptions at the end of each 2-year period. The 12 individuals listed in this notice have each requested such an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting an exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Andersen, 81, has a prosthetic left eye due to a traumatic incident in 2011. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/25, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “Mr. Andersen functions well with activities of daily living including but not limited to sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Andersen reported that he has driven straight trucks for 64 years, accumulating 30 million miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 58 years, accumulating 5.6 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from California. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Bawden, 71, has had amblyopia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/300. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my professional opinion, the scotoma in his left eye is so small that he can safely operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Bawden reported that he has driven straight trucks for 7 years, accumulating 21,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 43 years, accumulating 3.2 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Illinois. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Ewing, 47, has had complete loss of vision in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in 1999. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, I do believe that Mr. [
Mr. Fischer, 52, has a corneal scar in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in 2013. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/15, and in his left eye, count fingers. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “I believe Mr. Fischer is capable to return to work as a commercial driver despite the vision impairment of the left eye.” Mr. Fischer reported that he has driven straight trucks for 33 years, accumulating 495,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Missouri. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Helberg, 26, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/100. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, his condition will not affect his ability to safely operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Helberg reported that he has driven straight trucks for 4 years, accumulating 240,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from North Dakota. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Keener, 58, has had strabismus in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is hand motion, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, Mr. Keener has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Keener reported that he has driven straight trucks for 30 years, accumulating 360,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. McLaurin, 69, has had a retinal scar in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/400, and in his left eye, 20/30. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “In conclusion, it is my opinion that the ophthalmic findings in the above gentleman's right eye are chronic and stable and do not seem to significantly impact his capacity to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. McLaurin reported that he has driven buses for 19 years, accumulating 141,246 miles. He holds a Class CB CDL from Delaware. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Raml, 37, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/400. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I feel that Jason has sufficient vision to safely operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Raml reported that he has driven straight trucks for 25 years, accumulating 75,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 12 years, accumulating 85,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Robinson, 59, has had a prosthetic left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “If correctable to 20/20 in the right eye and 150 degree field of vision satisfies your requirements to be able to operate a commercial vehicle, then Alfred L. Robinson meets those requirements.” Mr. Robinson reported that he has driven straight trucks for 15 years, accumulating 135,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 15 years, accumulating 180,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Arkansas. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Smith, 52, has had a prosthetic right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is no light perception, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I certify that in Dr. Timothy Wilson's medical opinion, Jerry L. Smith has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Smith reported that he has driven straight trucks for 15 years, accumulating 450,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 15 years, accumulating 450,000 miles. He holds a Class A M2 CDL from Virginia. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Tate, 39, has a prosthetic left eye due to a traumatic incident in 2007. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my opinion that he has sufficient vision to safely perform the driving tasks required to
Mr. Zielinski, 69, has age related macular degeneration in his right eye since 2006. The visual acuity in his right eye is counting fingers, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion, Larry Zielinski has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Zielinski reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 45 years, accumulating 1.8 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Oregon. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 20 individuals for exemption from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals to qualify as drivers of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before November 10, 2016. All comments will be investigated by FMCSA. The exemptions will be issued the day after the comment period closes.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0208 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” FMCSA can renew exemptions at the end of each 2-year period. The 20 individuals listed in this notice have each requested such an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting an exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Aukes, 57, has had amblyopia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/400. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my professional medical opinion I believe Randal Aukes has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Aukes reported that he has driven straight trucks for 35 years, accumulating 35,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 35 years, accumulating 3.85 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Minnesota. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Baker, 37, has a prosthetic left eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my opinion that Mr. Baker has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Baker reported that he has driven straight trucks for 13 years, accumulating 650 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 13 years, accumulating 1.95 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Kansas. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Blackwell, 59, has had glaucoma in his right eye due to a retinal detachment since 2009. The visual acuity in his right eye is no light perception, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I certify that in my medical opinion, Mr [
Mr. Bowser, 62, has had a macular scar in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in 1966. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/400, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I feel Gerald is more than capable to drive a commercial vehicle efficiently concerning his visual capability.” Mr. Bowser reported that he has driven straight trucks for 43 years, accumulating 645,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 10 years, accumulating 250,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Ms. Brown, 55, has had amblyopia in her right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in her right eye is 20/300, and in her left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, her optometrist stated, “Visually evaluated I feel that this patient is able to perform the tasks required to operate a commercial motor vehicle due to the full visual field in each eye and ability to achieve 20/20-1 in the left eye” Ms. Brown reported that she has driven straight trucks for 4 years, accumulating 50,000 miles. She holds an operator's license from Ohio. Her driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Cullen, 71, has complete loss of vision in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in 1968. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/25, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I believe Mr. Cullen has sufficient vision to perform his job and driving tasks required to drive a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Cullen reported that he has driven straight trucks for 50 years, accumulating 15,000 miles, buses for 10 years, accumulating 15,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from New Jersey. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Davis, 49, has corneal scarring in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is hand motion, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Based on these test results, it is my opinion that Mr. Davis possesses sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Davis reported that he has driven straight trucks for 33 years, accumulating 429,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 33 years, accumulating 660,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Oregon. His driving record for the last 3 years shows one crash, to which he did not contribute and for which he was not cited, and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Dougherty, 55, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/50. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Based on this it is my professional opinion that Mr. Dougherty has adequate activities to visually perform the driving tasks to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Dougherty reported that he has driven straight trucks for 4 years, accumulating 40,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 2 years, accumulating 52,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Minnesota. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Ehlenburg, 54, has complete loss of vision in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “He has sufficient vision to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Ehlenburg reported that he has driven straight trucks for 5 years, accumulating 300,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 15 years, accumulating 1.05 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from
Mr. Goble, 50, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/60. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I certify that it is my medical opinion that Mr. Goble has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Goble reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 22 years, accumulating 1.43 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Guida, 60, has had amblyopia in his right eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/200, and in his left eye, 20/15. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I believe that William has sufficient vision to perform any driving task required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Guida reported that he has driven straight trucks for 15 years, accumulating 7,500 miles. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Gysbers, 63, has had central vision loss in his left eye due to glaucoma in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/50. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I believe he is well adapted to his vision condition and has sufficient vision to safely operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Gysbers reported that he has driven straight trucks for 40 years, accumulating 600,000 miles and tractor-trailer combinations for 40 years, accumulating 80,000 miles. He holds a Class ABCDM CDL from Wisconsin. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Hayden, Jr., 46, had optic neuritis in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/400. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion Jerry has stable and sufficient vision that is unchanged over the past 11 years to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Hayden reported that he has driven straight trucks for 22 years, accumulating 220,000 miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Iowa. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Mabry, 45, has had chronic microcystic edema and aphakia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, count fingers. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “Mr. Mabry meets the visual requirements for operation of a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Mabry reported that he has driven buses for 3 years, accumulating 312,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Florida. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. McDonnell, 52, has complete loss of vision in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in 2000. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “This letter certifies that Peter meets or exceeds the visual requirements needed to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. McDonnell reported that he has driven straight trucks for 20 years, accumulating 480,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Massachusetts. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Mendiola, 49, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/15, and in his left eye, 20/70. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, George has sufficient vision to perform driving tasks needed to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Mendiola reported that he has driven straight trucks for 9 years, accumulating 270,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 8 years, accumulating 80,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from California. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Mosely, 57, has had a central retinal vein occlusion in his right eye since 2008. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/60, and in his left eye, 20/25. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion his visual acuity and field of vision qualifies him to drive a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Mosely reported that he has driven straight trucks for 10 years, accumulating 110,000 miles, buses for 19 years, accumulating 320,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from New Jersey. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Restine, 53, has complete loss of vision in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in 1945. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I, Ed Jones O.D., certify that in my medical opinion, Joe Restine, has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Restine reported that he has driven straight trucks for 34 years, accumulating 850,000 miles, tractor-trailer combinations for 32 years, accumulating 160,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Oklahoma. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and 1 conviction for a moving violation in a CMV; he failed to yield to a traffic control device.
Mr. Schneckloth, 24, has complete loss of vision in his right eye since 2000. The visual acuity in his right eye is no light perception, and in his left eye, 20/15. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, Mr. Scneckloth has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a motorized vehicle, including commercial vehicles, as long as the current laws state that he may do so considering the loss of vision in his right eye (if the vision loss does not cause any exclusion of operating rights).” Mr. Schneckloth reported that he has driven straight trucks for 3 years, accumulating 31,500 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Stolz, 48, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/50, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “His main problem is amblyopia in the right eye. . .In my opinion, Mr.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Agency request for OMB emergency information collection processing and request for comments.
FRA hereby gives notice it is submitting the following Information Collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Emergency processing under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) and its implementing regulations. FRA requests that OMB authorize the proposed collection of information identified below on October 18, 2016, for a period of 180 days.
A copy of this individual ICR, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by calling FRA's Clearance Officers: Robert Brogan (tel. (202) 493-6292) or Kimberly Toone (tel. (202) 493-6132) (these numbers are not toll-free), or by contacting Mr. Brogan via facsimile at (202) 493-6216 or Ms. Toone via facsimile at (202) 493-6497, or via email by contacting Mr. Brogan at
On September 30, 2016, FRA issued a Railworthiness Directive (Directive) to all owners of DOT specification 111 general purpose tank cars, which can be found on FRA's Web site at
As provided under 5 CFR 1320.13,
Under 44 U.S.C. 3507(a) and 5 CFR 1320.5(b), 1320.8(b)(3)(vi), FRA informs all interested parties it may not conduct or sponsor, and a respondent is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare a Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement (EIS).
Through this NOI, FRA announces it will prepare a Programmatic EIS and Environmental Impact Report (EIR) jointly with the Riverside County Transportation Commission (RCTC) and the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) for the Coachella Valley—San Gorgonio Pass Rail Corridor Service (Project). FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans will develop the Programmatic EIS/EIR in compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), and the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA). FRA invites the public and Federal, state, and local agencies to provide input into the scope of the EIS/EIR and will consider all information from outreach activities when preparing the EIS/EIR. The Project will study options for providing intercity passenger rail service between the cities of Los Angeles and Indio, California also known as the Coachella Valley—San Gorgonio Pass Corridor (the Corridor).
Persons interested in providing written comments on the scope of the Coachella Valley—San Gorgonio Pass
Three public scoping meetings are scheduled for Wednesday, October 12, 2016; Thursday, October 13, 2016; and Monday, October 17, 2016.
Interested persons should send written comments to FRA's Office of Program Delivery, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE. (Mail Stop 20), Washington, DC 20590, or Riverside County Transportation Commission (RCTC), 4080 Lemon Street, 3rd Floor, Riverside, California 92501, or via email to Robert Yates, Multimodal Services Director,
Interested persons may also provide comments orally or in writing at the following scoping meetings:
• Springbrook Club House at Reid Park: 1101 N. Orange Street Riverside, CA 92501, between 5:00 p.m. and 7:00 p.m.;
• Indio Senior Center: 45-700 Aladdin Street, Indio, CA 92201, between 5:00 p.m. and 7:00 p.m.; and
• Metro Headquarters, Plaza Level: One Gateway Plaza, Los Angeles, California 90012, between 5:00 p.m. and 7:00 p.m.
All scoping meeting locations are Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA) accessible. Spanish language translators will be present. You may call (909) 627-2974 at least 72 hours in advance of the meeting to request other accommodations or translation services.
Ms. Stephanie Perez, Environmental Protection Specialist, Office of Program Delivery, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE. (Mail Stop 20), Washington, DC 20590; Telephone: (202) 493-0388, email:
Scoping materials and information concerning the scoping meeting is available through RCTC's Web site:
FRA is an operating administration of DOT and is responsible for overseeing the safety of railroad operations, including the safety of any proposed rail transportation system. FRA also provides financial assistance for intercity passenger rail capital investments.
FRA is the lead agency under NEPA for the Project. FRA will prepare the Programmatic EIS/EIR consistent with NEPA, the Council on Environmental Quality regulations implementing NEPA (40 CFR parts 1500-1508), and FRA's Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts (64 FR 28545, May 26, 1999; 78 FR 2713, Jan. 14, 2013) (Environmental Procedures). FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans will prepare the EIS consistent with 23 U.S.C. 139 (titled “Efficient environmental reviews for project decision making”). RCTC and Caltrans will ensure the EIR is consistent with CEQA. After release and circulation of a Draft Programmatic EIS/EIR for public comment, FRA will issue a single document consisting of the Final Programmatic EIS and a Record of Decision under the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (Pub. L. 114-94, section 1304(n)(2)) unless it determines that statutory criteria or practicability considerations prelude issuing a combined document.
The EIS will also document FRA's compliance with other applicable Federal, state, and local laws including, Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, Section 4(f) of the U.S. Department of Transportation Act of 1966, the conformity requirements of the Clean Air Act, and Executive Order 12898 and U.S. DOT Order 5610.2(a) on Environmental Justice. FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans will use a tiered NEPA process (
“Tiering” is a staged environmental review process often applied to environmental review for complex transportation projects. When used, the initial phase of a tiered process addresses broad questions and likely environmental effects for the Corridor including, but not limited to, the type of service(s) being proposed, major infrastructure components, and identification of major facility capacity constraints. Based on the decisions made in the Programmatic EIS/EIR, future site-specific proposals would be analyzed at a greater level of detail and addressed in subsequent phases or tiered (
The Project would extend from an eastern terminus in Indio, California to the western terminus at Los Angeles Union Station (LAUS), and is approximately 141 miles long. In 1991, RCTC completed the first in a series of studies evaluating the feasibility of operating one or two daily intercity rail round trips between Los Angeles and Indio. From 1991 to 2013, RCTC completed additional feasibility studies on the Coachella Valley—San Gorgonio Pass Rail Corridor Service. In July 2016, RCTC, in coordination with Caltrans and FRA, prepared and completed the Coachella Valley—San Gorgonio Pass Rail Corridor Service Study Alternatives Analysis Final Report that evaluated a reasonable range of alternatives for a new intercity rail service between Los Angeles and Indio. The purpose of the Alternatives Analysis was to identify an alternative(s) for more detailed evaluation in a subsequent Service Development Plan and Programmatic EIS/EIR.
The Corridor currently faces significant mobility challenges that are likely to continue as growth in population, employment, and tourism activity is expected to increase travel demand. An effective rail system will help meet the future mobility needs of residents, businesses, and visitors. The Corridor faces continuing transportation challenges as evidenced by the following:
The overall purpose of the Project is to provide a safe, reliable, and convenient intercity passenger rail service that would meet the future mobility needs of residents, businesses, and visitors within the Corridor. The Project would achieve the following objectives:
• Provide travelers between the Coachella Valley and the Los Angeles Basin with a public transportation service that offers more convenient and competitive trip times, better station access, and more frequency, than currently-available public transportation services;
• Provide travelers between the Coachella Valley and the Los Angeles Basin with an alternative to driving that offers reliable travel schedules;
• Provide travelers between the Coachella Valley and the Los Angeles Basin with a transportation service that is affordable;
• Serve a range of trip purposes traveling between the Coachella Valley and the Los Angeles Basin, particularly including business, social, medical, leisure, and recreational trips;
• Improve regional travel opportunities between the Coachella Valley and the Los Angeles Basin for transit dependent people;
• Serve the expected population growth in the Coachella Valley and the Los Angeles Basin; and
• Not preclude, by choice of alignment or technology, a possible future Corridor expansion between the Coachella Valley and Phoenix.
The Project would provide enhanced passenger rail service and is consistent with State and regional efforts to reduce mobile source emissions associated with highway and truck traffic on parallel highways from Los Angeles to Indio. These efforts are anticipated to help the Southern California Association of Governments (SCAG) and RCTC meet the air pollution and greenhouse gas emission reduction targets mandated by California Assembly Bill 32, known as the Global Warming Solutions Act of 2006, as amended, and California Senate Bill 375, known as the California's Sustainable Communities and Climate Protection Act of 2008. These two laws establish the basis for SCAG and RCTC to accommodate regional growth through increased and more frequent access to alternative modes of transit for local communities.
In the Programmatic EIS/EIR FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans will evaluate and analyze a No Build Alternative and at least one Build Alternative consisting of multiple improvements between Indio and Los Angeles.
• State Transportation Improvement Program (2016);
• Regional Transportation Plans for all modes of travel;
• Airport plans; and
• Passenger rail plans.
FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans will consider the July 2016 Alternatives Analysis Final Report when identifying the Build Alternative(s) for detailed analysis in the Programmatic EIS/EIS. However, additional reasonable build alternatives meeting the proposed purpose and need but not considered in the July 2016 Alternatives Analysis Final Report may be developed during the scoping process. This may also involve refining the Build Alternative as more information comes available based on the environmental analysis and coordination with stakeholders and the public. Additionally, the proposed purpose and need may be updated and/or refined based on coordination with stakeholders and the public.
The Programmatic EIS/EIR will consider the potential environmental effects of the Project Alternatives. FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans will analyze the following environmental issue areas in the Programmatic EIS/EIR: Agricultural Lands; Air Quality and Global Climate Change; Biological and Wetland Resources; Cultural and Historic Resources; Economic and Fiscal Impacts; Energy; Environmental Justice; Floodplains, Hydrology, and Water Quality; Geology, Soils, and Seismicity; Hazardous Waste and Materials; Land Use, Planning, and Communities; Noise and Vibration; Parklands, Community Services, and Other Public Facilities; Safety and Security; Section 4(f) and 6(f) Resources; Transportation; and Visual Quality and Aesthetics.
FRA encourages broad participation in the EIS process during scoping and review of the resulting environmental documents. FRA invites all interested agencies, Native American Tribes, and the public at large to participate in the scoping process to ensure the Programmatic EIS/EIR addresses the full range of issues related to the proposed action, reasonable alternatives are addressed, and all significant issues are identified. FRA requests any public agency having jurisdiction over an aspect of the Project identify the agency's permit or environmental review requirements and the scope and content of the environmental information germane to the agency's jurisdiction over the Project. FRA requests public agencies advise FRA if they anticipate taking a major action in connection with the proposed project and if they wish to cooperate in the preparation of the Programmatic EIS/EIR.
FRA will coordinate with participating agencies during development of the Draft Programmatic EIS under 23 U.S.C. 139. FRA will invite all Federal and non-Federal agencies and Native American Tribes that may have an interest in the Project to become participating agencies for the EIS. If an agency or Tribe is not invited and would like to participate, please contact FRA at the contact information listed above. FRA will develop a Coordination Plan summarizing how it will engage the public, agencies, and Tribes in the process. The Coordination Plan will be posted to the Project Web site
FRA, RCTC, and Caltrans have scheduled three public scoping meetings as an important component of the scoping process for both the state and Federal environmental review. The scoping meetings described in the
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Extension of agency and public scoping comment period, Long Bridge project.
On August 26, 2016, FRA published a Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Long Bridge Project jointly with the District of Columbia Department of Transportation (DDOT) (81 FR 59036). The Proposed Action consists of potential improvements to Long Bridge and related railroad infrastructure located between the Virginia Railway Express (VRE) Crystal City Station in Arlington, Virginia and Control Point (CP) Virginia in Washington, DC. In announcing its intent, FRA and DDOT established a 30-day public comment period that was scheduled to end on September 26, 2016. In consideration of requests for additional time to comment, FRA and DDOT are extending the scoping comment period to October 14, 2016. The extension provides agencies and the public with 30 days to submit comments following public and interagency scoping meetings held on September 14, 2016.
The scoping comment period for the Long Bridge Project is extended to October 14, 2016.
Scoping comments can be mailed to the address identified under the
Ms. Amanda Murphy, Environmental Protection Specialist, Office of Railroad Policy and Development, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., (Mail Stop-20), Washington, DC 20590; telephone: (202) 493-0624.
More information about the Long Bridge Project is available at
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice, response to comments.
This Notice finalizes updates to the USOA and changes to NTD Automatic Passenger Counter Certification requirements.
Full implementation required in report year 2018.
Maggie Schilling, National Transit Database Deputy Program Manager, FTA Office of Budget and Policy, (202) 366-2054 or
On February 3, 2016, FTA published a
Additionally, the initial notice proposed changes to the NTD reporting requirements that are not directly addressed in the updated USOA, which are as follows:
In the initial notice, FTA proposed that it would begin implementing the proposed reporting requirements beginning with the FY 2017 NTD reporting cycle.
The comment period for the initial notice closed on April 4, 2016. The following is a summary of the comments from the initial notice related to the updates to the USOA and NTD reporting requirements.
Additionally, one commenter made a suggestion for FTA to consider other non-litigious settlements to be considered in this category. For example, an agency may have to provide a retroactive payment to its labor union employees due to a contract negotiation. The commenter explained that this lump sum outlay will greatly increase the perceived expenses in a single fiscal year.
Per current reporting rules, retroactive payments made to employees for prior reporting years as the result of a contract negotiation should be reported as a reconciling item on F-40 form. Reconciling items are reported as a sum amount and not by individual functions. Retroactive payments made to employees for the current reporting year should be reported on the F-30 form.
It is important to note that NTD reporting does not affect the eligibility of these costs for grant reimbursement. The eligibility of expenses for grant reimbursement depends on the nature or definition of the expenses. If an agency has a settlement that it does not consider as casualty and liability, the agency can reach out to its NTD analyst for clarification on object class definitions and can contact its FTA regional office to determine grant reimbursement procedures.
One commenter asked FTA to provide guidelines for the enhanced review to aid auditors in effectively and efficiently reviewing agency information.
FTA publishes guidelines for the auditor's review in the NTD Policy Manual which is updated and published every year.
One commenter specifically expresses concern for expanding the NTD reporting requirements for small system reporters.
Rural and urban reporters receiving a small systems waiver will see limited changes to their reporting requirements.
FTA received 15 comments on the proposed APC certification process. Following is a summary of the comments related to APC.
After considering the comments submitted on the proposed updates to the USOA and changes to NTD reporting requirements, FTA will delay the implementation of the original proposed USOA changes to FY 2018. Additionally, FTA will add line items to account for “Deferred Outflows of Resources” and “Deferred Inflows of Resources” on the F-60 form, as well as rescind the original proposed changes to add “Pension Funds” and “OPEB Adjustment” USOA object classes. FTA will also publish a new USOA numbering scheme that is more consistent with a standard chart of accounts. These changes will be reflected in the final Uniform System of Accounts.
The revised APC certification process is effective immediately. The final requirements can be found on the NTD Web site:
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation.
Request for public comment on an extension of a currently approved collection of information.
Before a Federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Under procedures established by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before seeking OMB approval, Federal agencies must solicit public comment on proposed collections of information, including extensions and reinstatement of previously approved collections.
This document describes a collection of information for which NHTSA intends to seek OMB approval.
Comments must be received on or before December 12, 2016.
You may submit comments using any of the following methods. All comments must have the applicable DOT docket number (
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Leo Yon, Trends Analysis Division (NEF-170), Room W45-215, NHTSA, 1200 New Jersey Ave., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone: (202) 366-7028.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before an agency submits a proposed collection of information to OMB for approval, it must first publish a document in the
(i) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(ii) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(iii) how to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(iv) how to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In compliance with these requirements, NHTSA asks for public comments on the following collection of information:
These Early Warning Reporting (EWR) requirements specify that manufacturers of motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment submit information, periodically or upon NHTSA's request, that includes claims for deaths and serious injuries, property damage data, communications from customers and others, information on incidents resulting in fatalities or serious injuries from possible defects in vehicles or equipment in the United States or in identical or substantially similar vehicles or equipment in a foreign country, and other information that assist NHTSA in identifying potential safety-related defects. The intent of this information collection is to provide early warning of such potential safety-related defects.
First, the below estimates are adjusted to better reflect current EWR submission volume. Table 1 provides an average annual submission count for each claim category submitted per the requirements of 49 CFR 579:
The above updated submission totals represent a 17% increase from the currently approved information collection. Submission totals for each category have risen with an average of 9,804 injury and fatality claims (previously 6,041 claims), 11,481 property damage claims (previously 11,402 claims), 79,297 manufacturer
The agency estimates that an average of 5 minutes is required for a manufacturer to process each report, with the exception of foreign death claims. We estimate foreign death claims require an average of 15 minutes to process. Multiplying this average number of minutes by the number of submissions NHTSA receives in each reporting category yields the burden hour estimates found below in Table 2:
Our previous estimates totaled 7,178 burden hours associated with these Early Warning submissions. We now update that total to 8,407 burden hours, a 17% increase, associated with the above noted claim categories.
The burden hours associated with aggregate data submissions for consumer complaints, warranty claims, and dealer field reports are included in reporting and computer maintenance hours. The burden hours for computer maintenance are calculated by multiplying the hours of computer use (for a given category) by the number of manufacturers reporting in a category. Similarly, reporting burden hours are calculated by multiplying hours used to report for a given category by the number of manufacturers for the category. Using these methods and the average number of manufacturers who report annually, we estimate the burden hours for reporting cost and computer maintenance below in Table 3:
Thus, the total burden hours for EWR death and injury data, aggregate data and non-dealer field reports is 8,407 (Table 2) + 4,208 (Table 3) + 34,899 (Table 3) = 47,514 burden hours.
In order to provide the information required for foreign safety campaigns, manufacturers must (1) determine whether vehicles or equipment that are covered by a foreign safety recall or other safety campaign are identical or substantially similar to vehicles or equipment sold in the United States, (2) prepare and submit reports of these campaigns to the agency, and (3) where a determination or notice has been made in a language other than English, translate the determination or notice into English before transmitting it to the agency. NHTSA estimates that preparing and submitting each foreign defect report (foreign recall campaign) requires 1 hour of clerical staff and that translation of determinations into English requires 2 hours of technical staff (note: this assumes that all foreign campaign reports require translation, which is unlikely). Between 2013 and 2015, NHTSA received a yearly average of 133 foreign recall reports which results in 133 hours for preparation and submission of the reports (133 defect reports × 1 hour clerical = 133 hours) and 266 hours for technical time (133 foreign recall reports × 2 hours technical = 266 hours.
With respect to the burden of determining identical or substantially similar vehicles or equipment to those sold in the United States, manufacturers of motor vehicles are required to submit not later than November 1 of each year, a document that identifies foreign products and their domestic counterparts. NHTSA continues to
Therefore, the total annual hour burden on manufacturers for reporting foreign safety campaigns and substantially similar vehicles/equipment is 1,146 hours (774 hours professional time + 133 hours clerical time + 266 hours technical time). This is an increase of 154 burden hours from our previous estimate (1,146 hours for current estimate—992 hours for previous estimate).
Section 579.5 also requires manufacturers to submit notices, bulletins, customer satisfaction campaigns, consumer advisories and other communications that are sent to more than one dealer or owner. Manufacturers are required to submit this information monthly. Section 579.5 does not require manufacturer to create these documents; rather, only copies of these documents must be submitted to NHTSA. Therefore, the burden hours are only those associated with collecting the documents and submitting copies to NHTSA. Manufacturers must index these communications and email them to NHTSA within 5 working days after the end of the month in which they were issued.
NHTSA continues to estimate that we receive about 7,000 notices a year. We estimate that it takes about 5 minutes to collect, index, and send each notice to NHTSA. Therefore, we continue to estimate that it takes 7,000 documents × 5 minutes = 35,000 minutes or 583 hours for manufacturers to submit notices as required under Part 579.5.
We have also constructed various breakdowns of the average five minutes of labor among the various occupations depending on the type of document that was reviewed. For example, to combine three minutes of technical labor and two minutes of clerical labor produces a combined wage rate of $76.15 per hour, using the adjusted 2016 wage rates in Table 6. Table 7 shows the time allocations and weighted hourly rate by report:
The total cost for 2016 Claims documents were obtained using the following formula:
For example, the estimated cost to report light vehicle death and injury claims is $75,899 (9,082 death and injury claims reported × 5/60 hours × $100.29 wage rate).
NHTSA estimates the reporting costs as a function of
• The number of manufacturers reporting;
• The frequency of required reports;
• The number of hours required per report; and
• The cost of personnel to report.
The number of manufacturers reporting is estimated from EWR submission. The frequency of reports is fixed at 4 times per year. The number of hours for reporting ranges from 1 hour for trailer manufacturer to 8 hours for light vehicle manufacturers (See Table 3). In addition, we assume that 50 percent of the total burden hours are utilized by technical personnel while clerical staff consumes the remaining 50 percent. In other words, the hourly wage rate for each quarterly report is split evenly between technical and clerical personnel and a weighted average of the wage hour is developed from this assumption. For 2016 the wage rate is $69.13 ([$104.25 × 0.5] + [$34.00 × 0.5]).
The reporting costs are calculated as follows:
Thus, the estimated reporting cost for light vehicles is $86,272 (39 manufacturers × 8 hours × 4 quarters × $69.13 wage rate).
The costs for computer maintenance including software, hardware, data storage, etc. were calculated using the following formula:
Where:
The computer maintenance costs for light vehicles are $2,183,059 (39 manufacturers × 347 hours × $161.31 wage rate).
Table 8 shows the annual cost of reporting EWR information to NHTSA using the information outlined in tables 1, 2, 3, 6, and 7:
Table 9 details the total annual costs for reproting annual list of substatially similar vehicles and foreign safety campaigns:
The cost associated for manufacturers to submit Part 579.5 notices, bulletins, customer satisfaction campaigns, consumer advisories and other communications that are sent to more than one dealer or owner can be estimated from the number of hours and wage of personal submitting the documents. We understand that some manufacturers have clerical staff collect and submit the documents and other have technical staff. Because we do not know how many documents are sent by a particular staff we will assume they are done the higher paid staff. Thus, we estimated the cost to collect and submit Part 579.5 documents at 583 hours × $104.25 for Technical staff = $60,779 for manufacturers to submit notices as required under Part 579.5.
Table 10 shows the estimated cost for manufacturers to report EWR data, foreign campaigns, and Part 579.5 documents through this collection:
In summary, we estimate that there will be a total of 292 respondents per year associated with OMB No. 2127-0616.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces that the Information Collection Request (ICR) abstracted below has been forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The ICR describes the nature of the information collections and their expected burden. The
Comments must be submitted to OMB on or before November 10, 2016.
Send comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention: Desk Officer.
Alex Ansley, Recall Management Division (NVS-215), Room W48-301, NHTSA, 1200 New Jersey Ave., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone: (202) 493-0481.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before an agency submits a proposed collection of information to OMB for approval, it must first publish a document in the
(i) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(ii) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(iii) how to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(iv) how to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In compliance with these requirements, NHTSA asks for public comments on the following collection of information:
This collection covers the information collection requirements found within various statutory sections in the Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1966 (Act), 49 U.S.C. 30101,
Pursuant to the Act, motor vehicle and motor vehicle equipment manufacturers are obligated to notify, and then provide various information and documents, to NHTSA in the event a safety defect or noncompliance with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS) is identified in products they manufactured.
Manufacturers are also required to file with NHTSA a plan explaining how they intend to reimburse owners and purchasers who paid to have their products remedied before being notified of the safety defect or noncompliance, and explain that plan in the notifications they issue to owners and purchasers about the safety defect or noncompliance.
The Act and Part 573 also contain numerous information collection requirements specific to tire recall and remedy campaigns. These requirements relate to the proper disposal of recalled tires, including a requirement that the manufacturer conducting the tire recall submit a plan and provide specific instructions to certain persons (such as dealers and distributors) addressing that disposal, and a requirement that those persons report back to the manufacturer certain deviations from the plan.
49 U.S.C. 30166(n), and its implementing regulation found at 49 CFR 573.10, mandates that anyone who knowingly and willfully sells or leases for use on a motor vehicle a defective tire or a tire that is not compliant with FMVSS, and with actual knowledge that the tire manufacturer has notified its dealers of the defect or noncompliance as required under the Act, is required to report that sale or lease to NHTSA no more than five working days after the person to whom the tire was sold or leased takes possession of it.
Our prior estimates of the number of manufacturers each year that would be required to provide information under 49 CFR part 573, the number of recalls for which 49 CFR part 573 information collection requirements would need to be met, and the number of burden hours associated with the requirements currently covered by this information collection require adjustment as explained below.
Based on current information, we now estimate 275 distinct manufacturers filing an average of 854 Part 573 Safety Recall Reports each year. This is a change from our previous estimate of 680 Part 573 Safety Recall Reports filed by 280 manufacturers each year.
We originally estimated that it takes a manufacturer an average of 4 hours to complete each notification report to NHTSA and that maintenance of the required owner, purchaser, dealer, and distributors lists requires 8 hours a year per manufacturer. Nissan commented that, in its experience, it spends “. . . two (2) to (3) days (16-24 hours) to complete each Defect Information Report (DIR), based on an eight (8) hour day. This varies based on the size and complexity of the recall.” We thank Nissan for its comment and do not disagree with its estimated burden for filing a Part 573 Recall Report (or “DIR” as referenced in Nissan's comment). However, most manufacturers who conduct safety recalls are not major, passenger vehicle manufacturers. And, generally, most other manufacturers include very few products in the average safety recall. We presume that, like Nissan, other major, passenger vehicle manufacturers require similar time and burden to prepare and file their reports due to the size and complexity of passenger vehicle recalls. As such, we estimate that major, passenger vehicle manufacturers will require 20 burden hours, the average of Nissan's estimate, to prepare and file their Part 573 Recall Reports.
By utilizing the metric associated with NHTSA's VIN Look-up Tool regulation (
We estimate the annual burden hours related to the reporting to NHTSA of a safety defect or noncompliance for the seventeen major, passenger vehicle manufacturers to be 900 hours annually (45 notices × 20 hours/report). We estimate all other manufacturers to require a total of 3,236 hours annually to file their notices (809 notices × 4 hours/report). Accordingly, the estimated annual burden hours related to the reporting to NHTSA of a safety defect or noncompliance is 6,336 hours (900 hours + 3,236 hours) + (275 MFRs × 8 hours to maintain purchaser lists).
We also estimated an additional 2 hours would be needed to add to a manufacturer's Part 573 Safety Recall Report details relating to the intended schedule for notifying its dealers and distributors, and tailoring its notifications to dealers and distributors in accordance with the requirements of 49 CFR 577.13. Nissan commented that, in its experience and depending on the complexity of the recall, it “typically works up to five (5) business days/forty (40) hours to craft the Dealer announcement with the appropriate repair protocol and other essential information to provide to dealers. The announcement creation includes coordinating with multiple departments in order to notify and instruct the dealers/retailers on how to execute the remedy.” Similar to the burden hour estimate for readying the Part 573 Recall Report, we believe Nissan's estimate is realistic and should apply to the burden hour calculation for the major, passenger vehicle manufacturers. We believe, however, that most other manufacturers would require up to two hours readying this notification. This burden is now estimated at 3,418 hours annually (809 notices × 2 hours/notification + 45 notices × 40 hours/notification).
49 U.S.C. 30166(f) requires vehicle manufacturers to provide to the Agency copies of all communications regarding defects and noncompliances sent to owners, purchasers, and dealerships. Manufactures must index these communications by the year, make, and model of the vehicle as well as provide a concise summary of the subject of the communication. We estimate this burden requires 30 minutes for each vehicle recall. This would total to an estimated 380 hours annually (760 vehicle recalls × .5 hours). Nissan commented that they agreed with the Agency's estimate for this burden.
In the event a manufacturer supplied the defect or noncompliant product to independent dealers through independent distributors, that manufacturer is required to include in its notifications to those distributors an instruction that the distributors are to then provide copies of the manufacturer's notification of the defect or noncompliance to all known distributors or retail outlets further down the distribution chain within five working days.
As for the burden linked with a manufacturer's preparation of and notification concerning its reimbursement for pre-notification remedies, we estimated that the preparation of a reimbursement plan takes approximately 8 hours annually, and that an additional 2 hours per year is spent tailoring the plan to particular defect and noncompliance notifications to NHTSA and adding tailored language about the plan to a particular safety recall's owner notification letters.
Nissan commented that this requirement actually requires additional burden hours from various departments within the company. Nissan estimates that its Consumer Affairs department must maintain and update a reimbursement Web site which requires $24,000 annually. Further, updates to this Web site take approximately four (4) hours to complete, presumably per recall (but this is not clarified). Another twelve (12) annual hours are required to “. . . . disseminate internal documents to Consumer Affairs staff . . .” Nissan's Field Quality Assurance and Technical Compliance departments also spend a combined four and a half (4.5) hours, per recall, creating the reimbursement plan and adding specific language to the owner notification letter.
We thank Nissan for its detailed burden estimate for this requirement. Regarding the Web site that Nissan operates for managing reimbursement submissions, this is not a current burden imposed by the regulation in 49 CFR 577.11. Manufacturers must disseminate reimbursement information to owners through the owner notification letter and provide owners a physical mailing address to submit any claims in writing. Manufacturers are not required to create or maintain a Web site for facilitating this pre-notification remedy requirement. As such, we will not include the $24,000 annual maintenance costs related to Nissan's Web site or the four (4) hours spent on updating the Web site.
However, we do agree with Nissan regarding the four and a half (4.5) hours required to create the reimbursement plan and tailor the plan to each specific recall. We previously estimated a combined total of 10 hours for these items but we will use Nissan's estimate going forward. Also, we will add an additional 12 hours annually, as Nissan estimates, for each manufacturer to disseminate pre-notification reimbursement to their company staff.
In sum, these required activities total 4,827 annual burden hours ((275 MFRs × 4 hours to prepare plan) + (854 recalls × .5 hours tailoring plan for each recall) + (275 MFRs × 12 hours to disseminate plan information)).
The Safety Act and 49 CFR part 573 also contain numerous information collection requirements specific to tire recall and remedy campaigns, as well as a statutory and regulatory reporting requirement that anyone who knowingly and intentionally sells or leases a defective or noncompliant tire notify NHTSA of that activity.
Manufacturers are required to include specific information related to tire disposal in the notifications they provide NHTSA concerning identification of a safety defect or noncompliance with FMVSS in their tires, as well as in the notifications they issue to their dealers or other tire outlets participating in the recall campaign.
Manufacturer owned or controlled dealers are required to notify the manufacturer and provide certain information should they deviate from the manufacturer's disposal plan. Consistent with our previous analysis, we continue to ascribe zero burden hours to this requirement since to date no such reports have been provided and our original expectation that dealers would comply with manufacturers' plans has proven true.
Accordingly, we estimate 24 burden hours a year will be spent complying with the tire recall campaign requirements found in 49 CFR 573.6(c)(9).
Additionally, because the agency has yet to receive a single report of a defective or noncompliant tire being intentionally sold or leased, our previous estimate of zero burden hours remains unchanged with this notice. We received no comments regarding the burden estimates for tire disposal requirements or tire recall campaign requirements.
The previous clearance for this information collection allowed for start-up costs for the Agency's VIN Look-up system and a new regulation that required manufacturers to create a VIN Look-up service on their respective Web sites. As these systems were launched successfully in August 2014, the start-up estimates for costs and burden will now be removed. The estimated costs to industry for one-time infrastructure expenses to create a VIN-based recalls lookup service consisting of 108 hours, and costing a total of $45,000, will now be removed from this information collection.
Each manufacturer was also required to establish requirements, analysis, and designs for their new recalls look-up tools. These additional burdens stemmed from: The creation of the VIN search interface; database setup to host the recall information; data refresh procedures to populate recall information; server side VIN code lookup and recall status retrieval; integration with existing manufacturer Web site; and application testing. We estimated these burdens to total 1,332 hours and $130,005 and these costs will now be removed from this information collection.
We continue to believe nine vehicle manufacturers, who did not operate
The Agency previously estimated one-time startup costs that manufacturers would assume in order to meet certain technical access requirements to provide recall information to NHTSA's Web site. We estimated that the total one-time costs to the industry from these technical access requirements would require 1,914 burden hours (27 MFRs × 72 hours) and total $189,270 (27 MFRs × $7,010) and we now remove these costs from this information collection.
The Agency previously estimated one-time startup costs manufacturers incurred to create a VIN list for 15 years of recall information. We estimated that the total one-time costs to the industry from this VIN list creation would require 1,620 hours (27 MFRs × 60 hours). We remove these costs from this information collection.
Changes to 49 CFR part 573 in 2013 required 27 manufacturers to update each recalled vehicle's repair status no less than every 7 days, for 15 years from the date the VIN is known to be included in the recall. This ongoing requirement to update the status of a VIN for 15 years continues to add a recurring burden on top of the one-time burden to implement and operate these online search tools. We calculate that 8 affected motorcycle manufacturers will make recalled VINs available for an average of 2 recalls each year and 19 affected passenger vehicle manufacturers will make recalled VINs available for an average of 8 recalls each year. We believe it will take no more than 1 hour, and potentially much less with automated systems, to update the VIN status of vehicles that have been remedied under the manufacturer's remedy program. We continue to estimate this will require 8,736 burden hours per year (1 hour × 2 recalls × 52 weeks × 8 MFRs + 1 hour × 8 recalls × 52 weeks × 19 MFRs) to support the requirement to update the recalls completion status of each VIN in a recall at least weekly for 15 years. We received no comments on this estimate.
As the number of Part 573 Recall Reports has increased in recent years, so has the number of quarterly reports which track the completion of safety recalls. Our previous estimate of 3,000 quarterly reports received annually is now revised up to an average of 3,800 reports annually. Nissan commented that they spend an average of ten (10) minutes per quarterly report where we previously estimated 4 hours per report. We believe Nissan's estimate of 10 minutes is much more realistic as this process is likely automated through electronic reporting. As such, we will adopt Nissan's estimate of 10 minutes burden to gather the pertinent information for each quarterly report.
Nissan further estimated that it requires one (1) additional hour each quarter to electronically submit all quarterly reports (for up to 30 recalls in a given quarter) totaling another four (4) burden hours annually. As noted before, the major, passenger vehicle manufacturers often conduct more recalls affecting more vehicles and this can increase the quarterly reporting burden for those manufacturers. We will include an additional four (4) burden hours for the seventeen major, passenger vehicle manufacturers. The quarterly reporting burden now totals 701 hours ((3,800 quarterly reports × 10 minutes/report) + (17 MFRs × 4 hours for electronic submission)).
NHTSA's last update to this information collection established a new online recalls portal for the submission of recall documents. We continue to estimate a small burden of 2 hours annually in order to set up a manufacturer's online recalls portal account with the pertinent contact information and maintaining/updating their account information as needed. We estimate this will require a total of 550 hours annually (2 hours × 275 MFRs). Nissan commented that they agree with this estimate.
Also updated in the last revision to this information collection, NHTSA established a requirement that manufactures change or update recall components in their Part 573 Safety Recall Report. We continue to estimate that 20 percent of Part 573 reports will involve a change or addition. We originally estimated that this burden would require an additional 30 minutes per amended report. Nissan commented that this task requires up to one (1) hour per amended report. We believe Nissan's estimate of one hour is reasonable and we will adopt this estimated burden calculation. At one hour per amended report, this totals 171 burden hours per year (854 recalls × .20 = 171 recalls; 171 × 1 = 171 hours).
As to the requirement that manufacturers notify NHTSA in the event of a bankruptcy, we expect this notification to take an estimated 2 hours to draft and submit to NHTSA. We continue to estimate that only 10 manufacturers might submit such a notice to NHTSA each year, so we calculate the total burden at 20 hours (10 MFRs × 2 hours). We received no comments on this particular estimate.
We continue to estimate that it takes manufacturers an average of 8 hours to draft their notification letters, submit them to NHTSA for review, and then finalize them for mailing to their affected owners and purchasers. We estimate that the 49 CFR part 577 requirements result in 6,832 burden hours annually (8 hours per recall × 854 recalls per year). Nissan commented that they agree with the Agency's estimate for this burden calculation.
The estimate associated with the regulation which requires owner notifications within 60 days of filing a Part 573 Safety Recall Report remains must similarly be revised with an increase in recalls. We previously calculated that about 25 percent of past recalls did not include an owner notification mailing within 60 days of the filing of the Part 573 Safety Recall Report. However, recent trends show that only about 10 percent of recalls require an interim owner notification mailing. Under the regulation, manufacturers must send two letters in these cases: An interim notification of the defect or noncompliance within 60 days and a supplemental letter notifying owners and purchasers of the available remedy.
We originally estimated these interim letters would require 8 burden hours per recall (similar to the standard owner notification letters). However, Nissan commented that preparation of the interim letter can require up to ten (10) hours if the letter is complex in nature.
As for costs associated with notifying owners and purchasers of recalls, we continue to estimate this costs $1.50 per first class mail notification, on average. This cost estimate includes the costs of printing, mailing, as well as the costs vehicle manufacturers may pay to third-party vendors to acquire the names and addresses of the current registered owners from state and territory departments of motor vehicles. In reviewing recent recall figures, we determined that an estimated 58.4 million letters are mailed yearly totaling $87,600,000 ($1.50 per letter × 58,400,000 letters). The requirement in 49 CFR part 577 for a manufacturer to notify their affected customers within 60 days would add an additional $8,760,000 (58,400,000 letters × .10 requiring interim owner notifications = 5,840,000 letters; 5,840,000 × $1.50 = $8,760,000). In total we estimate that the current 49 CFR part 577 requirements cost manufacturers a total of $96,360,000 annually ($87,600,000 owner notification letters + $8,760,000 interim notification letters = $96,360,000). Nissan commented that they agree with the Agency's estimate for this cost estimate.
Due to the past burdens associated with the requirement that certain vehicle manufacturers setup VIN Look-up systems for their recalled vehicles, many estimates have been removed from this information collection as these burdens and costs have already occurred. The 49 CFR part 573 and 49 CFR part 577 requirements found in today's notice will require 36,070 hours each year for OMB Control Number 2127-0004, a decrease of 10,068 burden hours from the previously approved collection of 46,138 hours. Additionally, manufacturers impacted by 49 CFR part 573 and 49 CFR part 577 requirements will incur a recurring annual cost estimated at $96,630,000 total.
In summary, we estimate that there will be a total of 275 respondents per year associated with OMB No. 2127-0004.
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Notice.
PHMSA proposes to terminate EX classification approval EX1987030326, issued to BHT Products, Inc. for a Division 4.1 classification. In January and May 2016, PHMSA attempted to contact BHT Products, Inc. via letters delivered by certified mail. These letters requested that BHT Products, Inc. provide PHMSA with background information, such as a copy of the existing lab report and test data to support the classification issued under EX1987030326. To date, PHMSA has not received any correspondence from BHT Products, Inc. concerning EX1987030326.
Mr. Ryan Paquet, Director, Approvals and Permits Division, Office of Hazardous Materials Safety, (202) 366-4512, PHMSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590 or at
Correspondence with respect to the EX classification approval EX1987030326 should be sent to
Bureau of Transportation Statistics (BTS), Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology (OST-R), U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT).
Port Performance Freight Statistics Working Group: notice of public meeting and public comment period on draft work plan.
This notice announces an upcoming meeting of the Port Performance Freight Statistics Working Group (hereafter, “Working Group”). The Working Group will provide advice and recommendations to the BTS Director pursuant to Section 6018 of the
This notice also announces the opening of a 14-day public comment period for the Working Group's draft Work Plan, available at
The Working Group meeting will be held on November 18, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Eastern Standard Time.
The meeting will be at the U.S. Department of Transportation; 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Any person requiring accessibility accommodations should
U.S. Department of Transportation, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology, Bureau of Transportation Statistics, Attn: Port Performance Freight Statistics Working Group, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room # E32-342, Washington, DC 20590.
The Working Group is established in the FAST Act to provide recommendations to the BTS Director on matters related to port performance measures; to identify a standard for port data; to specify standards for consistent port performance measures; to recommend statistics for measuring port capacity and throughput; and to develop a process to collect timely and consistent data. The FAST Act also identifies the membership of the Working Group, and sets a due date for recommendations to the BTS Director of December 4, 2016.
(a) Generally accepted industry standard for port data collection and reporting.
(b) Standards for collecting data and reporting nationally consistent port performance measures.
(c) Statistics measuring U.S. port capacity and throughput.
(d) Process for the Department to collect timely and consistent data, including identifying safeguards to protect proprietary information.
The final meeting agenda will be posted on the BTS Web site at
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of nine individuals and 11 entities whose property and interests in property have been unblocked pursuant to Executive Order 13288 of March 6, 2003, “Blocking Property of Persons Undermining Democratic Processes or Institutions in Zimbabwe,” Executive Order 13391 of November 22, 2005, “Blocking Property of Additional Persons Undermining Democratic Processes or Institutions in Zimbabwe,” and Executive Order 13469 of July 25, 2008, “Blocking Property of Additional Persons Undermining Democratic Processes or Institutions in Zimbabwe.”
OFAC's actions described in this notice are effective as of October 4, 2016.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202/622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410 (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
A. On October 4, 2016, OFAC, in consultation with the State Department, removed from the SDN List the individuals and entities listed below, whose property and interests in property were blocked pursuant to Executive Order 13288 (E.O. 13288), Executive Order 13391 (E.O. 13391), and Executive Order 13469 (E.O. 13469).
B. On October 4, 2016, OFAC published the following revised identifier information for one individual on OFAC's SDN List whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13391:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of Meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Special Projects Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Tuesday, November 1, 2016.
Kim Vinci at 1-888-912-1227 or 916-974-5086.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Special Projects Committee will be held Tuesday, November 1, 2016, at 1:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Kim Vinci. For more information please contact: Kim Vinci at 1-888-912-1227 or 916-974-5086, TAP Office, 4330 Watt Ave, Sacramento, CA 95821, or contact us at the Web site:
The agenda will include a discussion on various special topics with IRS processes.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of Meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Joint Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Wednesday, November 30, 2016.
Kim Vinci at 1-888-912-1227 or 916-974-5086.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Joint Committee will be held Wednesday, November 30, 2016, at 1:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. For more information please contact: Kim Vinci at 1-888-912-1227 or 916-974-5086, TAP Office, 4330 Watt Ave, Sacramento, CA 95821, or contact us at the Web site:
The agenda will include various committee issues for submission to the IRS and other TAP related topics. Public input is welcomed.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of Meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Communications Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving
The meeting will be held Thursday, November 17, 2016.
Antoinette Ross at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-4110.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Communications Project Committee will be held Thursday, November 17, 2016, at 2:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Antoinette Ross. For more information please contact: Antoinette Ross at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-4110, or write TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 1509, National Office, Washington, DC 20224, or contact us at the Web site:
The committee will be discussing various issues related to Taxpayer Communications and public input is welcome.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of Meeting
The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Assistance Center Improvements Project Committee will conduct an open meeting and will solicit public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Wednesday, November 9, 2016.
Gretchen Swayzer at 1-888-912-1227 or 469-801-0769.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Assistance Center Improvements Project Committee will be held Wednesday, November 9, 2016, at 2:00 p.m. Eastern Time. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Gretchen Swayzer. For more information please contact: Gretchen Swayzer at 1-888-912-1227 or 469-801-0769, TAP Office, 4050 Alpha Rd, Farmers Branch, TX 75244, or contact us at the Web site:
The committee will be discussing various issues related to the Taxpayer Assistance Centers and public input is welcomed.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Tax Forms and Publications Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Thursday, November 10, 2016.
Donna Powers at 1-888-912-1227 or (954) 423-7977.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Tax Forms and Publications Project Committee will be held Thursday, November 10, 2016, at 1:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Donna Powers. For more information please contact: Donna Powers at 1-888-912-1227 or (954) 423-7977 or write: TAP Office, 1000 S. Pine Island Road, Plantation, FL 33324 or contact us at the Web site:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Toll-Free Phone Line Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Wednesday, November 16, 2016.
Linda Rivera at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-3337.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Toll-Free Phone Line Project Committee will be held Wednesday, November 16, 2016, at 2:30 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Linda Rivera. For more information please contact: Ms. Rivera at 1-888-912-1227 or (202)317-3337, or write TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 1509-National Office, Washington, DC 20224, or contact us at the Web site:
The committee will be discussing Toll-free issues and public input is welcomed.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8038, Information Return for Tax-Exempt Private Activity Bond Issues, Form 8038-G, Information Return for Tax-Exempt Governmental Obligation, and Form 8038-GC, Information Return for Small Tax-Exempt Governmental Bond Issues, Leases, and Installment Sales.
Written comments should be received on or before December 12, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6527, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or at (202) 317-5746, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of Meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Wednesday, November 23, 2016.
Theresa Singleton at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-3329.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee will be held Wednesday, November 23, 2016, at 12:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Theresa Singleton. For more information please contact: Theresa Singleton at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-3329, TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 1509- National Office, Washington, DC 20224, or contact us at the Web site:
The agenda will include a discussion on various letters, and other issues related to written communications from the IRS.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), this notice announces that the Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and includes the actual data collection instrument.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before November 10, 2016.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
By direction of the Secretary:
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under Public Law 92-463; Title 5 U.S.C. App. 2 (Federal Advisory Committee Act) that the subcommittees of the Joint Biomedical Laboratory Research and Development and Clinical Science Research and Development Services Scientific Merit Review Board (JBL/CS SMRB) will meet from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. on the dates indicated below (unless otherwise listed). This Notice of Meetings is being amended due to date changes.
The purpose of the subcommittees is to provide advice on the scientific quality, budget, safety and mission relevance of investigator-initiated research proposals submitted for VA merit review evaluation. Proposals submitted for review include diverse medical specialties within the general areas of biomedical, behavioral and clinical science research.
These subcommittee meetings will be closed to the public for the review, discussion, and evaluation of initial and renewal research proposals, which involve reference to staff and consultant critiques of research proposals. Discussions will deal with scientific merit of each proposal and qualifications of personnel conducting the studies, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Additionally, premature disclosure of research information could significantly frustrate implementation of proposed agency action regarding the research proposals. As provided by subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463, as amended by Public Law 94-409, closing the subcommittee meetings is in accordance with Title 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) and (9)(B).
Those who would like to obtain a copy of the minutes from the closed subcommittee meetings and rosters of the subcommittee members should contact Holly Krull, Ph.D., Manager, Merit Review Program (10P9B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, at (202) 632-8522 or email at
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), propose threatened species status under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (Act), as amended, for
We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before December 12, 2016. Comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see
You may submit comments by one of the following methods:
(1)
(2)
We request that you send comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on
Roxanna Hinzman, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, South Florida Ecological Services Office, 1339 20th Street, Vero Beach, FL 32960, by telephone 772-562-3909, or by facsimile 772-562-4288. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
We intend that any final action resulting from this proposed rule will be based on the best scientific and commercial data available and be as accurate and as effective as possible. Therefore, we request comments or information from the public, other concerned governmental agencies, Native American tribes, the scientific community, industry, or any other interested parties concerning this proposed rule. We particularly seek comments concerning:
(1) The four plants' biology, range, and population trends, including:
(a) Biological or ecological requirements of these plants, including habitat requirements for establishment, growth, and reproduction;
(b) Genetics and taxonomy;
(c) Historical and current range including distribution patterns;
(d) Historical and current population levels, and current and projected trends; and
(e) Past and ongoing conservation measures for the plants, their habitat, or both.
(2) Factors that may affect the continued existence of these plants, which may include habitat modification or destruction, overutilization, disease, predation, the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms, or other natural or manmade factors.
(3) Biological, commercial trade, or other relevant data concerning any threats (or lack thereof) to these plants and existing regulations that may be addressing those threats.
(4) Current or planned activities in the areas occupied by these plants and
(5) Additional information concerning the biological or ecological requirements of these plants, including pollination and pollinators.
(6) Additional information concerning the current and projected effects of climate change, including sea level rise, on these plants and their habitat.
(7) Scientific information or analysis informing whether these plants more closely meet the definition of an endangered species or of a threatened species under the Act.
Please include sufficient information with your submission (such as scientific journal articles or other publications) to allow us to verify any scientific or commercial information you include.
Please note that submissions merely stating support for or opposition to the action under consideration without providing supporting information, although noted, will not be considered in making a determination, as section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Act directs that determinations as to whether any species is a threatened or endangered species must be made “solely on the basis of the best scientific and commercial data available.”
You may submit your comments and materials concerning this proposed rule by one of the methods listed in
If you submit information via
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
Section 4(b)(5) of the Act provides for one or more public hearings on this proposal, if requested. Requests for public hearings must be received within 45 days after the date of publication of this proposed rule in the
In accordance with our joint policy on peer review published in the
All four species remained candidates from 2005 to 2015 (70 FR 24870, May 11, 2005; 71 FR 53756, September 12, 2006; 73 FR 75176, December 10, 2008; 74 FR 57804, November 9, 2009; 75 FR 69222, November 10, 2010; 76 FR 66370, October 26, 2011; 77 FR 69994, November 21, 2012; 78 FR 70104, November 22, 2013; 79 FR 72450, December 5, 2014; 80 FR 80584, December 24, 2015).
On September 9, 2011, the Service entered into two settlement agreements regarding species on the candidate list at that time (Endangered Species Act Section 4 Deadline Litigation, No. 10-377 (EGS), MDL Docket No. 2165 (D.D.C. May 10, 2011)). This proposed listing rule fulfills the requirements of those settlement agreements for the 4 plant species.
It is our intent to discuss below only those topics directly relevant to the listing of
Corogin and Judd (2014, pp. 410-412) provide a detailed description of
The genus
The Integrated Taxonomic Information System (2016, p. 1) indicates that the taxonomic standing for
Corogin and Judd (2014, p. 408) indicate that
The two taxa are also separated eco-geographically.
The climate of south Florida where
Pine rockland is characterized by an open canopy of South Florida slash pine (
Pine rockland has an open canopy of South Florida slash pine, generally with multiple age classes. The diverse, open shrub and subcanopy layer is composed of more than 100 species of palms and hardwoods, most derived from the tropical flora of the West Indies (FNAI 2010, p. 61). Many of these species vary in height depending on fire frequency, getting taller with time since fire. These include saw palmetto (
Grasses, forbs, and ferns make up a diverse herbaceous layer ranging from mostly continuous in areas with more soil development and little exposed rock to sparse where more extensive outcroppings of rock occur. Typical herbaceous species include bluestems (
Pine rockland occurs on relatively flat, moderately to well drained terrain from 2 to 7 m (6.5 to 23 ft) above sea level (FNAI 2010, p. 62). The oolitic limestone is at or very near the surface, and there is very little soil development. Soils are generally composed of small accumulations of nutrient-poor sand, marl, clayey loam, and organic debris in depressions and crevices in the rock surface. Organic acids occasionally dissolve the surface limestone causing collapsed depressions in the surface rock called solution holes (FNAI 2010, p. 62). Drainage varies according to the porosity of the limestone substrate, but is generally rapid. Consequently, most
Pine rockland is maintained by regular fire, and susceptible to other natural disturbances such as hurricanes, frost events, and sea-level rise (Ross
Presently, prescribed fire must be periodically introduced into pine rocklands to sustain community structure, prevent invasion by woody species, maintain high herbaceous diversity (Loope and Dunevitz 1981, pp. 5-6; FNAI 2010, p. 63), and prevent succession to rockland hammock. The amount of woody understory growth is directly related to the length of time since the last fire. Herbaceous diversity declines with time since last fire. The ecotone between pine rockland and rockland hammock is abrupt when regular fire is present in the system. However when fire is removed, the ecotone becomes more gradual and subtle as hammock hardwoods encroach into the pineland (FNAI 2010, p. 63).
Marl prairie is a sparsely vegetated, grass-dominated community found on marl substrates in South Florida. Marls are fine white calcareous muds formed from calcite precipitated by a mixture of green algae, blue green algae, and diatoms, known as periphyton. It is seasonally inundated (2 to 4 months) to a shallow depth averaging about 20 cm (8 in). Marl prairie is a diverse community, which may contain more than 100 species. Most of the marl prairie plant species contribute little cover and more than 90 percent of the cover is contributed by only two or three dominant species in any given area (FNAI 2010, p. 107). Dominants may include one or more of the following: Gulf hairawn muhly (
Marl prairie depends on a short hydroperiod of 2 to 4 months. Longer hydroperiods favor the development of peat and the dominance of sawgrass; shorter hydroperiods permit the invasion of woody species.
Marl prairie normally dries out during the winter and is subject to fires at the end of the dry season; the most acres naturally burn in May (FNAI 2010, p. 108). Fires at this time (in contrast to dormant season fires) stimulate flowering of the dominant grasses (Main and Barry 2002, pp. 430-434). The herbaceous species recover rapidly from fire, and biomass reaches pre-fire levels at the end of 2 years. For the first 2 years after fire, this community will burn only patchily, if at all (FNAI 2010, p. 108). Reasons for the presence of dwarf cypress in some marl prairies and not others are unknown (FNAI 2010, p. 108). Wade
All known historical and current records for
The current range of
The largest population occurs at Long Pine Key in ENP (Hodges and Bradley 2006, p. 42; Gann
In Miami-Dade County, outside ENP, pine rocklands tracts are orders of magnitude smaller and exist in a matrix of agricultural, commercial, and residential development. Possley and McSweeney (2005, p. 1) observed approximately 73 plants at Larry and Penny Thompson Park, within the Richmond Pine Rocklands. Possley (Fairchild Tropical Botanic Garden (FTBG), pers. comm. 2011a; 2011b) found extant populations at Quail Roost Pineland (two plants), Navy Well Pineland Preserve (four plants), and Sunny Palms Pinelands (two plants). The species had been observed in pine rocklands at Grant Hammock, and Pine Ridge Sanctuary (Bradley et al. 2013, p. 1). The species no longer occurs at the Nixon-Smiley Preserve.
Bradley et al. (2013, pp. 1-8) conducted surveys in the Gum Slough region of Lostmans Pines in BCNP and reported finding
Little is known about the life history of
There have been no detailed studies of
The online Atlas of Florida Vascular Plants uses the name
The climate of south Florida where
All known historical and current records for
A single
The current range of
In 2002, Bradley
Little is known about the life history of
The online Atlas of Florida Vascular Plants uses the name
The climate of south Florida where
All known historical and current records for
The current range of
Little is known about the life history of
There have been no studies of
Chapman (1886, p. 102) was the first to report this taxon in Florida, calling it the tropical
The Integrated Taxonomic Information System (2016, p. 1) indicates that the taxonomic standing for
The climate of south Florida where
Roadsides are a potentially important habitat for
Rockland hammock is a species-rich tropical hardwood forest on upland sites in areas where limestone is very near the surface and often exposed. The forest floor is largely covered by leaf litter with varying amounts of exposed limestone and has few herbaceous species. Rockland hammocks typically have larger, more mature trees in the interior, while the margins can be almost impenetrable in places with dense growth of smaller shrubs, trees, and vines. Typical canopy and subcanopy species include
Rockland hammock occurs on a thin layer of highly organic soil covering limestone on high ground that does not regularly flood, but it is often dependent upon a high water table to keep humidity levels high. Rockland hammocks are frequently located near wetlands; in the Everglades they can occur on organic matter that accumulates on top of the underlying limestone (FNAI 2010, p. 25).
Rockland hammock is susceptible to fire, frost, canopy disruption, and ground water reduction. Rockland hammock can be the advanced successional stage of pine rockland, especially in cases where rockland hammock is adjacent to pine rockland. In such cases, when fire is excluded from pine rockland for 15 to 25 years, it can succeed to rockland hammock vegetation. Historically, rockland hammocks in south Florida evolved with fire in the landscape. Fire most often extinguished near the edges when it encountered the hammock's moist microclimate and litter layer. However, rockland hammocks are susceptible to damage from fire during extreme drought or when the water table is lowered. In these cases, fire can cause tree mortality and consume the organic soil layer (FNAI 2010, p. 25).
Rockland hammocks are also sensitive to the strong winds and storm surge associated with infrequent hurricanes. Canopy damage often occurs, which causes a change in the microclimate of the hammock. Decreased relative humidity and drier soils can leave rockland hammocks more susceptible to fire. Rockland hammock can transition into glades marsh, mangrove swamp, salt marsh, coastal rock barren, pine rockland, maritime hammock, or marl prairie (FNAI 2010, p. 26).
The sparsely vegetated edges or interior portions laid open by canopy disruption are the areas of rockland hammock that have light levels sufficient to support
Coastal berms are landscape features found along low-energy coastlines in south Florida and the Florida Keys. Coastal berm is a short forest or shrub thicket found on long, narrow, storm-deposited ridges of loose sediment formed by a mixture of coarse shell fragments, pieces of coralline algae, and other coastal debris. These ridges parallel the shore and may be found on the seaward edge or landward edge of the mangroves or farther inland depending on the height of the storm surge that formed them. They range in height from 0.30 to 3.05 m (1 to 10 ft). Structure and composition of the vegetation is variable depending on height and time since the last storm event. The most stable berms may share some tree species with rockland hammocks, but generally have a greater proportion of shrubs and herbs. Tree species may include
Coastal berms are deposited by storm waves along low-energy coasts. Their distance inland depends on the height of the storm surge. Tall berms may be the product of repeated storm deposition. Coastal berms that are deposited far enough inland and remain long-undisturbed may in time succeed to hammock. This is a structurally variable community that may appear in various stages of succession following storm disturbance, from scattered herbaceous beach-colonizing plants to a dense stand of tall shrubs (FNAI 2010a, p. 2).
All known historical and current records for
The current range of
In 1999,
Maschinski
During 2003 to 2007, the population at Charles Deering Estate ranged from between 50 and 80 individuals, with the number of seedlings ranging from 3 to 54. However, beginning in 2008, Maschinski
The population at R. Hardy Matheson Preserve had declined from 31 plants in 2004 to just 1 woody plant and 3 seedlings in 2008. However, the population increased to 330 and 200 seedlings in 2009 and 2010, respectively. The most recent surveys indicated stable populations of 98 and 307 individuals, in 2014 and 2015, respectively (Maschinski
In 2003,
Maschinski
There have been no studies of
The Act directs us to determine whether any species is an endangered species or a threatened species because of any factors affecting its continued existence. In this section, we summarize the biological condition of each of the plant species and its resources, and the influences on such, to assess the species' overall viability and the risks to that viability.
The modification and destruction of the habitats that support
In Miami-Dade County, development and agriculture have reduced pine rockland habitat by 90 percent in mainland south Florida. Pine rockland habitat in Miami-Dade County, including ENP, was reduced to about 11 percent of its natural extent, from approximately 74,000 ha (183,000 ac) in the early 1900s, to only 8,140 ha (20,100 ac) in 1996 (Kernan and Bradley 1996, p. 2). The largest remaining intact pine rockland (approximately 2,313 ha (5,716
Significant remaining pine rockland habitat occurs on private lands and publicly owned lands that are not dedicated to or managed for conservation. Species occurrences and suitable habitat remaining on these lands are threatened by habitat loss and degradation, and threats are expected to accelerate with increased development. The human population within Miami-Dade County is currently greater than 2.4 million people, and the population is expected to grow to more than 4 million by 2060, an annual increase of roughly 30,000 people (Zwick and Carr 2006, p. 20). Some of the known populations of
The marl prairie habitat that also supports
Both extant populations of
Eight populations of
Currently, there are plans to develop 55 ha (137 ac) of the largest remaining parcel of pine rockland habitat in Miami-Dade County, the Richmond Pine Rocklands, with a shopping center and residential construction (Ram 2014, p. 2). Bradley and Gann (1999, p. 4) called the 345-ha (853-ac) Richmond Pine Rocklands, “the largest and most important area of pine rockland in Miami-Dade County outside of Everglades National Park.” Although both
The Miami-Dade County Department of Environmental Resources Management has completed a management plan for portions of the Richmond Pine Rocklands under a grant from the Service and is leading the restoration and management of the Richmond Pine Rocklands (Bradley and Gann 1999, p. 4). The developer has proposed to enter into a Habitat Conservation Plan in conjunction with their plans to develop their portion of the site and was required by Miami-Dade County Natural Forest Community (NFC) regulations to set aside and manage 17 ha (43 ac) of pine rockland and associated habitats. A second project that would result in the loss of pine rockland habitat has been proposed for the Richmond Pine Rocklands. It includes expanding the Miami Zoo complex to develop an amusement park and commercial entities. These development projects will result in the loss of pine rockland habitat that maintains a population of
The remaining pine rocklands in the Miami metropolitan area are severely
The degree to which fragmentation threatens the dispersal abilities of
While pollination research has not been conducted for
The effects of fragmentation on fire go beyond edge effects and include reduced likelihood and extent of fires, and altered behavior and characteristics (
Forest fragments in urban settings are also subject to increased likelihood of certain types of human-related disturbance, such as the dumping of trash (Chavez and Tynon 2000, p. 405) and illegal clearing. The many effects of habitat fragmentation may work in concert to threaten the local persistence of a species, especially of small populations (see discussion below); when a species' range of occurrence is limited, as with these four plants, threats to local persistence increase extinction risk.
One of the primary threats to
Today, natural fires are unlikely to occur or are likely to be suppressed in the remaining, highly fragmented pine rockland habitat. The suppression of natural fires has reduced the size of the areas that burn, and habitat fragmentation has prevented fire from moving across the landscape in a natural way. Without fire, successional climax from pine rockland to rockland hammock takes 10 to 25 years, and displacement of native species by invasive nonnative plants often occurs. All occurrences of
Whether the dense canopy is composed of pine, hardwoods, nonnatives, or a combination, seed germination and establishment are inhibited in fire-suppressed habitat due to accumulated leaf litter, which also changes soil moisture and nutrient availability (Hiers
After an extended period of inadequate fire management in pine rocklands, it becomes necessary to control invading native hardwoods mechanically, since excess growth of native hardwoods would result in a hot fire, which can cause mortality of pines and destroys the rootstocks and seed banks of other native plants. Mechanical treatments cannot entirely replace fire because pine trees, understory shrubs, grasses, and herbs all contribute to an ever-increasing layer of leaf litter, covering herbs and preventing germination, as discussed above. Leaf litter will continue to accumulate even if hardwoods are removed mechanically. In addition, the ashes left by fires provide important post-fire nutrient cycling, which is not provided via mechanical removal.
The impacts of fire on
Some natural mortality of
Currently, limited information is available on differences in mortality or long-term population impacts of
Federal (Service, NPS), State (Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP), Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC), and County (Miami-Dade DERM) land managers, and nonprofit organizations (Institute for Regional Conservation (IRC)) implement prescribed fire on public and private lands within the ranges of
While ENP, BCNP, and various Miami-Dade County conservation lands (
Implementation of a prescribed fire program in Miami-Dade County has been hampered by a shortage of resources, and by logistical difficulties and public concern related to burning next to residential areas. Many homes have been built in a mosaic of pine rockland, so the use of prescribed fire in many places has become complicated because of potential danger to structures and smoke generated from the burns. Nonprofit organizations such as IRC have similar difficulties in conducting prescribed burns due to difficulties with permitting and obtaining the necessary permissions as well as hazard insurance limitations (Gann 2013, pers. comm.). Few private landowners have the means and/or desire to implement prescribed fire on their property, and doing so in a fragmented urban environment is logistically difficult and may be costly. One of the few privately owned pine rocklands that is successfully managed with prescribed burning is Pine Ridge Sanctuary, located in a more agricultural (less urban) matrix of Miami-Dade, which was last burned in November 2010 (Glancy 2013, pers. comm.) and retains populations of both
In 1979, Miami-Dade County enacted the Environmentally Endangered Lands (EEL) Covenant Program, which reduces taxes for private landowners of natural forest communities (NFCs; pine rocklands and tropical hardwood hammocks) who agree not to develop their property and manage it for a period of 10 years, with the option to renew for additional 10-year periods (Service 1999, p. 3-177). Although these temporary conservation easements provide valuable protection for their duration, they are not considered under Factor D, below, because they are voluntary agreements and not regulatory in nature. Miami-Dade County currently has approximately 59 pine rockland properties enrolled in this program,
In 1990, Miami-Dade County voters approved a 2-year property tax to fund the acquisition, protection, and maintenance of natural areas by the EEL Program. The EEL Program purchases and manages natural lands for preservation. Land uses deemed incompatible with the protection of the natural resources are prohibited by current regulations; however, the County Commission ultimately controls what may happen with any County property, and land use changes may occur over time (Gil 2013, pers. comm.). To date, the Miami-Dade County EEL Program has acquired a total of approximately 313 ha (775 ac) of pine rockland, and 95 ha (236 ac) of rockland hammocks (Guerra 2015 pers. comm.; Gil 2013, pers. comm.). The EEL Program also manages approximately 314 ha (777 ac) of pine rocklands and 639 ha (1,578 ac) of rockland hammocks owned by the Miami-Dade County Parks, Recreation and Open Spaces Department, including some of the largest remaining areas of pine rockland habitat on the Miami Rock Ridge outside of ENP (
Conservation efforts in Miami's EEL Preserves have been under way for many years. In Miami-Dade County, conservation lands are and have been monitored by FTBG and IRC, in coordination with the EEL Program, to assess habitat status and determine any changes that may pose a threat to or alter the abundance of these species. Impacts to habitat via nonnative species and natural stochastic events are monitored and actively managed in areas where the taxon is known to occur. These programs are long term and ongoing in Miami-Dade County; however, programs are limited by the availability of annual funding. In particular, fire management remains inadequate at many sites.
Since 2005, the Service has funded IRC to facilitate restoration and management of privately owned pine rockland habitats in Miami-Dade County. These programs included prescribed burns, nonnative plant control, light debris removal, hardwood management, reintroduction of pines where needed, and development of management plans. One of these programs, called the Pine Rockland Initiative, includes 10-year cooperative agreements between participating landowners and the Service/IRC to ensure restored areas will be managed appropriately during that time. Although most of these objectives have been achieved, IRC has not been able to conduct the desired prescribed burns, due to logistical difficulties as discussed above (see Fire Management).
FTBG, with the support of various Federal, State, local, and nonprofit organizations, has established the “Connect to Protect Network.” The objective of this program is to encourage widespread participation of citizens to create corridors of healthy pine rocklands by planting stepping stone gardens and rights-of-way with native pine rockland species, and restoring isolated pine rockland fragments. By doing this, FTBG hopes to increase the probability that pollination and seed dispersal vectors can find and transport seeds and pollen across developed areas that separate pine rockland fragments to improve gene flow between fragmented plant populations and increase the likelihood that these plants will persist over the long term. Although these projects may serve as valuable components toward the conservation of pine rockland species and habitat, they are dependent on continual funding, as well as participation from private landowners, both of which may vary through time.
The NPS General Management Plans (GMPs) for ENP (NPS 2015) and BCNP (BCNP 2008) serve to protect, restore, and maintain natural and cultural resources at the ecosystem level. Although these GMPs are not regulatory, and their implementation is not mandatory, they do include conservation measures for
We have identified a number of threats to the habitat of the
On public lands, including Service, NPS, and Miami-Dade County-owned lands, implementation of prescribed fire has not been sufficient because of legal constraints (permitting requirements) and inadequate funding. Any populations of these four plants found on private property could be destroyed due to lack of protection. Although efforts are being made to conserve natural areas and apply prescribed fire, most pine rocklands remain in poor fire condition, and the long-term effects of large-scale and wide-ranging habitat modification, destruction, and curtailment will last into the future, while ongoing habitat loss due to population growth, development, and agricultural conversion continues to pose a threat to these species outside of conservation lands.
Therefore, based on the best information available, we have determined that the threats to
The best available data do not indicate that overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or
No diseases or incidences of predation have been reported for
Under this factor, we examine whether threats to these plants that are discussed under the other factors are continuing due to an inadequacy of an existing regulatory mechanism. Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Act requires the Service to take into account “those efforts, if any, being made by any State or foreign nation, or any political subdivision of a State or foreign nation, to protect such species. . . .” In relation to Factor D, we interpret this language to require the Service to consider relevant Federal, State, and tribal laws, regulations, and other such mechanisms that may minimize any of the threats we describe in threat analyses under the other four factors, or otherwise enhance conservation of the species. We give strongest weight to statutes and their implementing regulations and to management direction that stems from those laws and regulations. An example would be State governmental actions enforced under a State statute or constitution or Federal action under statute.
Having evaluated the impact of the threats as mitigated by any such conservation efforts, we analyze under Factor D the extent to which existing regulatory mechanisms address the specific threats to the species. Regulatory mechanisms, if they exist, may reduce or eliminate the impacts from one or more identified threats. In this section, we review existing Federal, State, and local regulatory mechanisms to determine whether they effectively reduce or remove threats to
Populations of
In addition to occurring on ENP and BCNP,
Florida Statutes 581.185 sections (3)(a) and (b) prohibit any person from willfully destroying or harvesting any species listed as endangered or threatened on the Index, or growing such a plant on the private land of another, or on any public land, without first obtaining the written permission of the landowner and a permit from the Florida Department of Plant Industry. The statute further provides that any person willfully destroying or harvesting; transporting, carrying, or conveying on any public road or highway; or selling or offering for sale any plant listed in the Index as endangered must have a permit from the State at all times when engaged in any such activities.
However, subsections (8)(a) and (b) of the statute waive State regulation for certain classes of activities for all species on the Regulated Plant Index, including the clearing or removal of regulated plants for agricultural, forestry, mining, construction (residential, commercial, or infrastructure), and fire-control activities by a private landowner or his or her agent. On the other hand, section (10) of the statute provides for consultation similar to section 7 of the Federal Act for listed species by requiring the Department of Transportation to notify the FDACS and the Endangered Plant Advisory Council of planned highway construction at the time bids are first advertised, to facilitate evaluation of the project for listed plant populations, and to “provide for the appropriate disposal of such plants” (
In 1984, Section 24-49 of the Code of Miami-Dade County established regulation of County-designated NFCs, which include both pine rocklands and tropical hardwood hammocks. These regulations were placed on specific properties throughout the county by an act of the Board of County Commissioners in an effort to protect environmentally sensitive forest lands. The Miami-Dade County Department of Regulatory and Economic Resources has regulatory authority over NFCs and is charged with enforcing regulations that provide partial protection on the Miami Rock Ridge. Miami-Dade Code typically allows up to 20 percent of a pine rockland designated as NFC to be developed, and requires that the remaining 80 percent be placed under a perpetual covenant. In certain circumstances, where the landowner can demonstrate that limiting development to 20 percent does not allow for “reasonable use” of the property, additional development may be approved. NFC landowners are also required to obtain an NFC permit for any work, including removal of nonnatives within the boundaries of the NFC on their property. The NFC program is responsible for ensuring that NFC permits are issued in accordance with the limitations and requirements of the code and that appropriate NFC preserves are established and maintained in conjunction with the issuance of an NFC permit. The NFC program currently regulates
Although the NFC program is designed to protect rare and important upland (non-wetlands) habitats in south Florida, this regulatory strategy has limitations. For example, in certain circumstances where landowners can demonstrate that limiting development to 20 percent does not allow for “reasonable use” of the property, additional development may be approved. Furthermore, Miami-Dade County Code provides for up to 100 percent of the NFC to be developed on a parcel in limited circumstances for parcels less than 2.02 ha (5 ac) in size and requires coordination with the landowner only if the landowner plans to develop property or perform work within the NFC designated area. As such, the majority of the existing private forested NFC parcels consists of isolated fragments, without management obligations or preserve designation, as development has not been proposed at a level that would trigger the NFC regulatory requirements. Often, nonnative vegetation over time begins to dominate and degrade the undeveloped and unmanaged NFC landscape until it no longer meets the legal threshold of an NFC, which requires the land to be dominated by native vegetation. When development of such degraded NFCs is proposed, Miami-Dade County Code requires delisting of the degraded areas as part of the development process. Property previously designated as NFC is removed from the list even before development is initiated because of the abundance of nonnative species, making it no longer considered to be jurisdictional or subject to the NFC protection requirements of Miami-Dade County Code (Grossenbacher 2013, pers. comm.).
Currently,
Although most populations of
Other natural or manmade factors affect
Nonnative invasive plants compete with native plants for space, light, water, and nutrients, and make habitat conditions unsuitable for
Nonnative plants have significantly affected pine rocklands, and negatively impact all occurrences of
Nonnative plants in pine rocklands can also affect the characteristics of a fire when it does occur. Historically, pine rocklands had an open, low understory where natural fires remained patchy with low temperature intensity.
These nonnative species occur throughout the ranges of the four plants. In ENP and BCNP, invasives tend to be fewer due to the insularity of these sites and the NPS's control programs. Nevertheless, most areas require annual treatments to remove incipient invasions. Management of nonnative invasive plants in pine rocklands in Miami-Dade County is further complicated because the vast majority of pine rocklands are small, fragmented areas bordered by urban development. Areas near managed pine rockland that contain nonnative species can act as a seed source of nonnatives allowing them to continue to invade the surrounding pine rockland (Bradley and Gann 1999, p. 13).
Nonnative plant species are also a concern on private lands, where often they are not controlled due to associated costs, lack of interest, or lack of knowledge of detrimental impacts to the ecosystem. Undiscovered populations of
While no studies have investigated the effect of mowing on
Recreational use of off-road vehicles (ORV) is a threat to
Endemic species whose populations exhibit a high degree of isolation are extremely susceptible to extinction from both random and nonrandom catastrophic natural or human-caused events. Species that are restricted to geographically limited areas are inherently more vulnerable to extinction than widespread species because of the increased risk of genetic bottlenecks, random demographic fluctuations, effects of climate change, and localized catastrophes such as hurricanes and disease outbreaks (Mangel and Tier 1994, p. 607; Pimm
Small, isolated populations, such as those in fragmented habitat, often exhibit reduced levels of genetic variability, although the ultimate effect of these changes is dependent on a plant's specific life history, reproductive system, and interaction with pollinators and dispersal vectors (which may themselves be affected by fragmentation) (Young
Reduced genetic variability generally diminishes a species' capacity to adapt and respond to environmental changes, thereby decreasing the probability of long-term persistence (
Climatic changes, including sea level rise (SLR), are major threats to the flora of south Florida, including
The long-term record at Key West shows that sea level rose on average 0.229 cm (0.090 in) annually between 1913 and 2013 (NOAA 2013, p. 1). This equates to approximately 22.9 cm (9.02 in) over the last 100 years. IPCC (2008, p. 28) emphasized it is very likely that the average rate of SLR during the 21st century will exceed the historical rate. Heat trapped by greenhouse gases causes atmospheric warming, but the ocean is a vast heat sink where most of the increased heat energy is stored. As the water increases in temperature, its volume expands. Due to the thermal dynamic properties of water, as projected temperatures increase, so does the volume of the ocean, and the rate of expansion. As a result, most models show a dramatic increase in the rate of SLR rise by mid-century. The IPCC Special Report on Emission Scenarios (2000, entire) presented a range of scenarios based on the computed amount of change in the climate system due to various potential amounts of anthropogenic greenhouse gases and aerosols in 2100. Each scenario describes a future world with varying levels of atmospheric pollution leading to corresponding levels of global warming and corresponding levels of SLR. The IPCC Synthesis Report (2007, entire) provided an integrated view of climate change and presented updated projections of future climate change and related impacts under different scenarios.
Subsequent to the 2007 IPCC Report, the scientific community has continued to model SLR. Recent peer-reviewed publications indicate a movement toward increased acceleration of SLR. Observed SLR rates are already trending along the higher end of the 2007 IPCC estimates, and it is now widely held that SLR will exceed the levels projected by the IPCC (Rahmstorf
Other processes expected to be affected by projected warming include temperatures, rainfall (amount, seasonal timing, and distribution), and storms (frequency and intensity) (discussed more specifically under Environmental Stochasticity, below). The Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) modeled several scenarios combining various levels of SLR, temperature change, and precipitation differences with human population growth, policy assumptions, and conservation funding changes (see Alternative Future Landscape Models, below). All of the scenarios, from small climate change shifts to major changes, indicate significant effects on coastal Miami-Dade County.
Decades prior to inundation, pine rocklands are likely to undergo vegetation shifts related to climate change, triggered by changes to hydrology (wetter), salinity (higher) and increasing vulnerability to storm surge (pulse events causing massive erosion and salinization of soils) (Saha
Extrapolating this situation to pine rocklands on the mainland is not straightforward, but indications are that similar changes to species composition could arise if current projections of SLR occur and freshwater inputs are not sufficient to prevent salinization. Furthermore, Ross
The Science and Technology Committee of the Miami-Dade County Climate Change Task Force (Wanless
Drier conditions and increased variability in precipitation associated with climate change are expected to hamper successful regeneration of forests and cause shifts in vegetation types through time (Wear and Greis 2012, p. 39). Although this issue has not been well studied, existing pine rocklands have probably been affected by reductions in the mean water table. Climate changes are also forecasted to extend fire seasons and the frequency of large fire events throughout the Coastal Plain (Wear and Greis 2012, p. 43). These factors will likely cause an increase in wildfires and exacerbate complications related to prescribed burning (
To accommodate the large uncertainty in SLR projections, researchers must estimate effects from a range of scenarios. Various model scenarios developed at MIT and GeoAdaptive Inc. have projected possible trajectories of future transformation of the south Florida landscape by 2060 based upon four main drivers: climate change, shifts in planning approaches and regulations, human population change, and variations in financial resources for conservation. The scenarios do not account for temperature, precipitation, or species habitat shifts due to climate change, and no storm surge effects are considered. The current MIT scenarios range from an SLR of 0.09-1.0 m (0.3-3.3 ft) by 2060 (Vargas-Moreno and Flaxman 2010, pp. 1-6).
Based on the most recent estimates of anticipated SLR, the upward trend in recent projections toward the higher range of earlier SLR estimates (discussed above), and the data available to us at this time, we evaluated potential effects of SLR using the current “high” range MIT scenario as well as comparing elevations of remaining pine rockland fragments and extant and historical occurrences of
The rate of SLR will increase as time passes. This is due to atmospheric and ocean warming and the thermal expansion properties of water. In SLR models the rate of sea level rise is projected to increase dramatically around mid-century.
Most populations of
Prior to the onset of sustained inundation, there will be irreversible changes in vegetation composition within these habitats. Shifts in habitat toward hydric and saline ecosystems may occur decades in advance of full inundation, rendering the habitat unsuitable for salt-intolerant species including
Actual impacts may be greater or less than anticipated based upon the high variability of factors involved (
As a result, species such as
Further direct losses to extant populations of all four plants are expected due to habitat loss and modification from SLR through 2100. We analyzed existing sites that support populations of the four plants using the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Sea Level Rise and Coastal Impacts viewer. Below we discuss general implications of sea level rise within the range of projections discussed above on the current distribution of these species. The NOAA tool uses 1-foot increments. Our analysis is based on 0.91 m (3 ft) and 1.8 m (6 ft) of SLR.
Based on a higher SLR of 1.8 m (6 ft), as projected by NOAA, much larger portions of urban Miami-Dade County, including conservation areas, such as Navy Wells Pineland Preserve, will be inundated by 2100. Under such a 1.8-meter SLR projection, both extant populations of
Following a 1.8-m (6-ft) rise in sea level, approximately 75 percent of presently extant pine rocklands on the Miami Rock Ridge would still remain above sea level. However, an unknown percentage of remaining pine rockland fragments would be negatively impacted by water table and soil salinization, which would be further exacerbated due to isolation from mainland fresh water flows.
Projections of SLR above 1.8 m (6 ft) indicate that very little pine rockland would remain, with the vast majority either being inundated or experiencing
Endemic species whose populations exhibit a high degree of isolation and narrow geographic distribution, such as
The climate of southern Florida is driven by a combination of local, regional, and global events, regimes, and oscillations. There are three main “seasons”: (1) the wet season, which is hot, rainy, and humid from June through October; (2) the official hurricane season that extends one month beyond the wet season (June 1 through November 30), with peak season being August and September; and (3) the dry season, which is drier and cooler, from November through May. In the dry season, periodic surges of cool and dry continental air masses influence the weather with short-duration rain events followed by long periods of dry weather.
Florida is considered the most vulnerable State in the United States to hurricanes and tropical storms (Florida Climate Center,
Hurricanes, storm surge, and extreme high tide events are natural events that can negatively impact these four plants. Hurricanes and tropical storms can modify habitat (
Other processes to be affected by climate change, related to environmental stochasticity, include temperatures, rainfall (amount, seasonal timing, and distribution), and storms (frequency and intensity). Temperatures are projected to rise from 2-5 °C (3.6-9 °F) for North America by the end of this century (IPCC 2007, pp. 7-9, 13). These factors will likely cause an increase in wildfires and exacerbate complications related to prescribed burning or other management needed to restore and maintain habitat for the four plants. Based upon modeling, Atlantic hurricane and tropical storm frequencies are expected to decrease (Knutson
Occasional freezing temperatures that occur in south Florida pose a risk to
Hydrology is a key ecosystem component that affects rare plant distributions and their viability (Gann
While projects designed to restore the historical hydrology of the Everglades and other natural systems in southern Florida, including ENP and BCNP (collectively known as the Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan (CERP)), are beneficial to the Everglades ecosystem, some may produce collateral impacts to extant pine rockland, marl prairies, and associated habitats within the region through inundation or increased hydroperiods. The effects of changes in regional hydrology through restoration may have impacts on the four plant species and their habitats. Sadle (2012, pers. comm.) suggested various CERP projects (such as C-111 spreader canal; L-31N seepage barrier), specifically the operation of pumps and associated detention areas along the ENP
NPS, the Service, Miami-Dade County, and the State of Florida have ongoing nonnative plant management programs to reduce threats on public lands, as funding and resources allow. In Miami-Dade County, nonnative, invasive plant management is very active, with a goal to treat all publicly owned properties at least once a year and more often in many cases. IRC and FTBG conduct research and monitoring in various natural areas within Miami-Dade County and the Florida Keys for various endangered plant species and nonnative, invasive species. For the four plants, monitoring detects declines that lead to small population size, changes in habitat due to SLR, and declines due to stochastic events. For nonnatives, monitoring is an integral part of efforts to detect and control invasive plant and animal species.
We have discussed threats from other natural or manmade factors including: nonnative invasive plants, management practices (such as mowing and herbicide use), recreation (including ORV use), effects from small population size and isolation, limited geographic range, and stochastic events including hurricanes, storm surges, and wildfires. Additionally, these plants are particularly vulnerable to the effects of climate change, including SLR, as changes in the water table, increased soil salinity from partial inundation, and storm surge will likely result in vegetation shifts in the decades prior to the fully anticipated sea level rise. Some of these threats (
When two or more threats affect populations of
We have carefully assessed the best scientific and commercial data available regarding the past, present, and future threats to
Nine of 11 extant populations are located on publicly owned conservation lands. This includes 10,000-100,000 plants at ENP, and a small population at BCNP, where prescribed fire implementation has improved, and nonnative plant control efforts are adequate to beneficially manage habitat for native species. In contrast, in the scattered small populations on Miami-Dade habitat fragments, representing half of the species' historical range, habitat management currently is not adequate due to the inability to conduct prescribed fire. Increasing temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns associated with climate change will likely cause an increase in wildfires and exacerbate complications related to prescribed burning or other management needed to restore and maintain habitat for the species. In the current, fragmented landscape, dispersal and genetic exchange for any of these smaller Miami-Dade populations is unlikely, because they exist in isolated habitat patches surrounded by miles of unsuitable habitat (agriculture and urban development). Two privately owned sites in Miami supporting extant populations are vulnerable to development. The largest populations (ENP and BCNP) are vulnerable to hydrologic changes related to Everglades restoration projects and SLR.
SLR projections suggest future inundation and modification to the majority of
Only two of five historical
SLR projections suggest future partial inundation and modification to the majority of
Eleven of 20 extant populations are located on publicly owned conservation lands. This includes 10,000-100,000 plants at ENP and 1,000 plants at Navy Wells pineland, where habitat management (prescribed fire and nonnative plant control) is ongoing, and includes addressing a backlog of long-unburned sites that could result in larger wildfires if burns are not implemented. In contrast, in the scattered small populations on Miami-Dade habitat fragments, representing half of the species' historical range, current habitat management does not allow for prescribed fire to be conducted on a consistent basis. Increasing temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns associated with climate change will likely cause an increase in wildfires and exacerbate complications related to prescribed burning or other management needed to restore and maintain habitat for the species. In the current, fragmented landscape, dispersal and genetic exchange for any of these smaller Miami-Dade populations is unlikely, because they exist in isolated habitat patches surrounded by miles of unsuitable habitat (agriculture and urban development). Eight privately owned sites in Miami supporting extant populations are vulnerable to development, two of which support 1,000-10,000 plants each. The largest population (Long Pine Key, ENP) is vulnerable to hydrological changes related to Everglades restoration projects and SLR.
SLR projections suggest future inundation and modification to the majority of
Six of 9 extant populations are located on publicly owned conservation lands. This total includes 253 plants at BCNP (Monroe County), where prescribed fire and nonnative plant control efforts are adequate to beneficially manage habitat for native species. The two other largest populations occur in Miami-Dade County and consist of 347 plants at Charles Deering Estate, and 307 plants at R. Hardy Matheson Preserve, where current habitat management does not allow for prescribed fire to be conducted on a consistent basis. Higher temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns associated with climate change will likely cause an increase in wildfires and exacerbate complications related to prescribed burning or other management needed to restore and maintain habitat for the species. In the current, fragmented landscape, dispersal and genetic exchange between Miami-Dade populations is unlikely, because they exist in isolated habitat patches surrounded by miles of unsuitable habitat (agriculture and urban development). Three privately owned sites in Miami supporting extant populations are vulnerable to development, two of which support 17 and 21 plants each. The population within BCNP is vulnerable to hydrological changes related to Everglades restoration projects and SLR.
Numerous populations of all plants have been extirpated from these species' historical ranges, and the primary threats of habitat destruction and modification resulting from human population growth and development, agricultural conversion, and inadequate fire management (Factor A); competition from nonnative, invasive species (Factor E); changes in climatic conditions, including SLR and changes in hydrology (Factor E); and natural stochastic events, including hurricanes, storm surges, and wildfires (Factor E) are threats for the existing populations. Existing regulatory mechanisms have not reduced or removed threats impacting the four plants from the other factors (see Factor D discussion). These threats are ongoing, rangewide, and expected to continue in the future. A significant percentage of populations of the four plants are relatively small and isolated from one another, and their ability to recolonize suitable habitat is unlikely without human intervention, if at all. The threats have had and will continue to have substantial adverse effects on
The Act defines an endangered species as “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species as “any species
Because we have determined that we are proposing to list
Conservation measures provided to species listed as endangered or threatened under the Act include recognition, recovery actions, requirements for Federal protection, and prohibitions against certain practices. Recognition through listing results in public awareness and conservation by Federal, State, Tribal, and local agencies, private organizations, and individuals. The Act encourages cooperation with the States and other countries and calls for recovery actions to be carried out for listed species. The protection required by Federal agencies and the prohibitions against certain activities are discussed, in part, below.
The primary purpose of the Act is the conservation of endangered and threatened species and the ecosystems upon which they depend. The ultimate goal of such conservation efforts is the recovery of these listed species, so that they no longer need the protective measures of the Act. Subsection 4(f) of the Act calls for the Service to develop and implement recovery plans for the conservation of endangered and threatened species. The recovery planning process involves the identification of actions that are necessary to halt or reverse the species' decline by addressing the threats to its survival and recovery. The goal of this process is to restore listed species to a point where they are secure, self-sustaining, and functioning components of their ecosystems.
Recovery planning includes the development of a recovery outline shortly after a species is listed and preparation of a draft and final recovery plan. The recovery outline guides the immediate implementation of urgent recovery actions and describes the process to be used to develop a recovery plan. Revisions of the plan may be done to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new substantive information becomes available. The recovery plan also identifies recovery criteria for review of when a species may be ready for downlisting or delisting, and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans also establish a framework for agencies to coordinate their recovery efforts and provide estimates of the cost of implementing recovery tasks. Recovery teams (composed of species experts, Federal and State agencies, nongovernmental organizations, and stakeholders) are often established to develop recovery plans. If these species are listed, a recovery outline, draft recovery plan, and the final recovery plan will be available on our Web site (
Implementation of recovery actions generally requires the participation of a broad range of partners, including other Federal agencies, States, Tribes, nongovernmental organizations, businesses, and private landowners. Examples of recovery actions include habitat restoration (
Although
Section 7(a) of the Act requires Federal agencies to evaluate their actions with respect to any species that is proposed or listed as an endangered or threatened species and with respect to its critical habitat, if any is designated. Regulations implementing
Federal agency actions within these species' habitat that may require conference or consultation or both as described in the preceding paragraph and include management and any other landscape-altering activities on Federal lands administered by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, National Park Service, and Department of Defense; issuance of section 404 Clean Water Act permits by the Army Corps of Engineers; construction and management of gas pipeline and power line rights-of-way by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission; construction and maintenance of roads or highways by the Federal Highway Administration; and disaster relief efforts conducted by the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
With respect to endangered plants, prohibitions outlined at 50 CFR 17.61 make it illegal for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to import or export, transport in interstate or foreign commerce in the course of a commercial activity, sell or offer for sale in interstate or foreign commerce, or to remove and reduce to possession any such plant species from areas under Federal jurisdiction. In addition, for endangered plants, the Act prohibits malicious damage or destruction of any such species on any area under Federal jurisdiction, and the removal, cutting, digging up, or damaging or destroying of any such species on any other area in knowing violation of any State law or regulation, or in the course of any violation of a State criminal trespass law. Exceptions to these prohibitions are outlined in 50 CFR 17.62.
With respect to threatened plants, the prohibitions outlined at 50 CFR 17.71 include all of the provisions in 50 CFR 17.61 that apply to endangered plants, with one exception: seeds of cultivated specimens of species treated as threatened shall be exempt from all provisions of 50 CFR 17.61, provided that a statement that the seeds are of “cultivated origin” accompanies the seeds or their container during the course of any activity otherwise subject to these regulations.
Preservation of native flora of Florida (Florida Statutes 581.185) sections (3)(a) and (b) provide limited protection to species listed in the State of Florida Regulated Plant Index including
The Service acknowledges that it cannot fully address some of the natural threats facing
We may issue permits to carry out otherwise prohibited activities involving endangered plants under certain circumstances. Regulations governing permits are codified at 50 CFR 17.62 and 17.72. With regard to endangered plants, the Service may issue a permit authorizing any activity otherwise prohibited by 50 CFR 17.61 and 17.72 for scientific purposes or for enhancing the propagation or survival of endangered plants.
It is our policy, as published in the
(1) Import any such species into, or export any such species from, the United States;
(2) Remove and reduce to possession any such species from areas under Federal jurisdiction; maliciously damage or destroy any such species on any such area; or remove, cut, dig up, or damage or destroy any such species on any other area in knowing violation of any law or regulation of any State or in the course of any violation of a State criminal trespass law;
(3) Deliver, receive, carry, transport, or ship in interstate or foreign commerce, by any means whatsoever and in the course of a commercial activity, any such species;
(4) Sell or offer for sale in interstate or foreign commerce any such species;
(5) Introduce any nonnative wildlife or plant species to the State of Florida that competes with or preys upon
(6) Release any unauthorized biological control agents that attack any life stage of
(7) Engage in unauthorized manipulation or modification of the habitat of
Questions regarding whether specific activities would constitute a violation of section 9 of the Act should be directed to the Field Supervisor of the Service's South Florida Ecological Services Office (see
If
Activities that the Service believes could potentially harm these four plants include, but are not limited to:
(1) Actions that would significantly alter the hydrology or substrate, such as ditching or filling. Such activities may include, but are not limited to, road construction or maintenance, and residential, commercial, or recreational development.
(2) Actions that would significantly alter vegetation structure or composition, such as clearing vegetation for construction of residences, facilities, trails, and roads.
(3) Actions that would introduce nonnative species that would significantly alter vegetation structure or composition. Such activities may include, but are not limited to, residential and commercial development, and road construction.
(4) Application of herbicides, or release of contaminants, in areas where these plants occur. Such activities may include, but are not limited to, natural resource management, management of right of ways, residential and commercial development, and road construction.
Questions regarding whether specific activities would constitute a violation of section 9 of the Act should be directed to the Service's South Florida Ecological Services Field Office (see
Section 3(5)(A) of the Act defines critical habitat as “(i) the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed . . . on which are found those physical or biological features (I) essential to the conservation of the species and (II) which may require special management considerations or protection; and (ii) specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed upon a determination by the Secretary that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species. Section 3(3) of the Act defines conservation as to use and the use of all methods and procedures which are necessary to bring any endangered species or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to the Act are no longer necessary.”
Section 4(a)(3) of the Act, as amended, and implementing regulations (50 CFR 424.12), require that, to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, the Secretary will designate critical habitat at the time the species is determined to be an endangered or threatened species. Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(1)) state that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent when one or both of the following situations exist:
(1) The species is threatened by taking or other human activity, and identification of critical habitat can be expected to increase the degree of threat to the species, or
(2) Such designation of critical habitat would not be beneficial to the species.
There is currently no imminent threat of take attributed to collection or vandalism under Factor B for these species, and identification and mapping of critical habitat is not expected to initiate any such threat. Therefore, in the absence of finding that the designation of critical habitat would increase threats to a species, if there are any benefits to a critical habitat designation, a finding that designation is prudent is warranted. Here, the potential benefits of designation include: (1) Triggering consultation under section 7 of the Act, in new areas for actions in which there may be a Federal nexus where it would not otherwise occur because, for example, it is unoccupied; (2) focusing conservation activities on the most essential features and areas; (3) providing educational benefits to State or county governments or private entities; and (4) preventing people from causing inadvertent harm to these species.
Because we have determined that the designation of critical habitat will not likely increase the degree of threat to the species and may provide some measure of benefit, we determine that designation of critical habitat is prudent for
Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(2)) further state that critical habitat is not determinable when one or both of the following situations exists: (1) information sufficient to perform required analysis of the impacts of the designation is lacking; or (2) the biological needs of the species are not sufficiently well known to permit identification of an area as critical habitat. On the basis of a review of available information, we find that critical habitat for
We are required by Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(1) Be logically organized;
(2) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(3) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(4) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(5) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act, need not be prepared in connection with listing a species as an endangered or threatened species under the Endangered Species Act. We published a notice outlining our reasons for this determination in the
No Native American tribes are affected by the proposed rule.
A complete list of references cited in this rulemaking is available on the Internet at
The primary authors of this proposed rule are the staff members of the South Florida Ecological Services Field Office.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we propose to amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; 4201-4245; unless otherwise noted.
(h) * * *
(1) is a regional program, project, or activity under which the total benefit to Zimbabwe does not exceed 10 percent of the total value of such program, project, or activity;
(2) has as its primary objective the addressing of basic human needs, as defined by the Department of the Treasury with respect to other, existing legislative mandates concerning U.S. participation in the multilateral development banks;
(3) is complementary to or has similar policy objectives to programs being implemented bilaterally by the United States Government;
(4) has as its primary objective the improvement of Zimbabwe's legal system, including in areas that impact Zimbabwe's ability to investigate
(5) is engaging a government, international organization, or civil society organization, and seeks as its primary objective(s) to: (a) increase efforts to investigate and prosecute trafficking in persons crimes; (b) increase protection for victims of trafficking through better screening, identification, rescue/removal, aftercare (shelter, counseling), training, and reintegration; or (c) expand prevention efforts through education and awareness campaigns highlighting the dangers of trafficking in persons or training and economic empowerment of populations clearly at risk of falling victim to trafficking; or
(6) is targeted macroeconomic assistance from the International Monetary Fund that strengthens the macroeconomic management capacity of Zimbabwe; would promote the purposes of the Act; or is otherwise in the national interest of the United States.
a. Persons in Cuba
b. Persons in Eurasia and the Baltics
c. Persons in Iraq
d. Persons in Honduras, Guatemala, and El Salvador
e. In exceptional circumstances, persons identified by a United States Embassy in any location
You are authorized and directed to publish this determination in the
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |