81_FR_48
Page Range | 12795-13261 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 12880 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
81 FR 12821 - Security-Based Swap Transactions Connected With a Non-U.S. Person's Dealing Activity That Are Arranged, Negotiated, or Executed by Personnel Located in a U.S. Branch or Office or in a U.S. Branch or Office of an Agent; Security-Based Swap Dealer De Minimis Exception | |
81 FR 12906 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12973 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 13030 - Letters of Interest for Credit Assistance Under the Transportation Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act (TIFIA) Program | |
81 FR 12952 - Sunshine Act Meeting; Record of Vote of Meeting Closure (Public Law 94-409) (5 U.S.C. Sec. 552b) | |
81 FR 12951 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 12865 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 12879 - Marine Mammals; File No. 19768 | |
81 FR 12899 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 12972 - Request for Comments on Federal Source Code Policy | |
81 FR 12821 - Organization; Conduct and Ethics; and Information and Requests | |
81 FR 12821 - Registration | |
81 FR 12820 - General Regulations Under the Commodity Exchange Act | |
81 FR 12871 - Countervailing Duty Investigation of Welded Stainless Pressure Pipe From India: Preliminary Affirmative Determination and Alignment of Final Determination With Final Antidumping Duty Determination | |
81 FR 12918 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Exportation of Used Self-Propelled Vehicles | |
81 FR 12932 - Notice of Availability of the Draft Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement and Draft Land Use Plan Amendments for Segments 8 and 9 of the Gateway West 500-kV Transmission Line Project, Idaho | |
81 FR 13023 - Texas-New Mexico Regional Meeting of the Binational Bridges and Border Crossings Group in Chihuahua, Mexico, March 16, 2016 | |
81 FR 12875 - Large Residential Washers From the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 13022 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Supplemental Questionnaire To Determine Entitlement for a U.S. Passport | |
81 FR 12870 - Certain Cut-to-Length Carbon-Quality Steel Plate Products From the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative and New Shipper Reviews and Rescission of Administrative Review, in Part; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 12873 - Large Residential Washers From Mexico: Preliminary Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 13022 - Regulatory Fairness Hearing; Region VIII-Sioux Falls, South Dakota | |
81 FR 12915 - NIH Pathways to Prevention Workshop: Advancing Research To Prevent Youth Suicide | |
81 FR 13023 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Supplemental Questionnaire To Determine Identity for a U.S. Passport | |
81 FR 12938 - Notice of Areas of Critical Environmental Concern in the Desert Renewable Energy Conservation Plan Proposed Land Use Plan Amendment, California | |
81 FR 12822 - Anchorage Regulations; Connecticut River, Old Saybrook, CT | |
81 FR 12944 - Proposed Information Collection; Urban Park and Recreation Recovery Program Grants | |
81 FR 12949 - Proposed Information Collection; Land and Water Conservation Fund State Assistance Program | |
81 FR 12946 - Information Collection Request Sent to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Approval; National Park Service President's Park National Christmas Tree Music Program Application | |
81 FR 12849 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Oregon: Interstate Transport of Lead and Nitrogen Dioxide | |
81 FR 12825 - Announcement of the Delegation of Partial Administrative Authority for Implementation of Federal Implementation Plan for the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation | |
81 FR 12851 - Catastrophic Health Emergency Fund | |
81 FR 12876 - Furfuryl Alcohol From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 12828 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; 2016 Commercial Accountability Measure and Closure for South Atlantic Golden Tilefish Longline Component | |
81 FR 12885 - Quadrennial Energy Review: Notice of Public Meeting | |
81 FR 12931 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Request for Comments on the Earth Explorer User Registration Service | |
81 FR 12824 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Barnegat Bay, Seaside Heights, NJ | |
81 FR 12952 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Air Act and Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act | |
81 FR 12879 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 12878 - Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 12899 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
81 FR 12898 - Next Meeting of the North American Numbering Council | |
81 FR 12946 - Final General Management Plan/Wilderness Study/Environmental Impact Statement: Hawaii Volcanoes National Park, Hawaii | |
81 FR 12866 - Census Scientific Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 12824 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; North Landing River, Chesapeake, VA | |
81 FR 13024 - Chicago Central & Pacific Railroad Company, Grand Trunk Western Railroad Company, Illinois Central Railroad Company, and Wisconsin Central Ltd.-Trackage Rights Exemption-Norfolk Southern Railway Company | |
81 FR 12898 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
81 FR 12829 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Reallocation of Pollock in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands | |
81 FR 12832 - Animal Welfare; Marine Mammals | |
81 FR 12832 - Brucellosis and Bovine Tuberculosis; Update of General Provisions | |
81 FR 12858 - Availability of an Environmental Assessment for Field Testing a Canine Osteosarcoma Vaccine, Live Listeria Vector | |
81 FR 13025 - Policy Regarding Use of H-11 Bolts in Primary Structure on Transport Airplanes | |
81 FR 13025 - FAR 25.723 Energy Absorption Tests | |
81 FR 13024 - Policy Statement on Guidance for Determination of System, Hardware, and Software Development Assurance Levels on Transport Category Airplanes | |
81 FR 12829 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Pacific Cod by Catcher Vessels Using Trawl Gear in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
81 FR 12859 - International Sanitary and Phytosanitary Standard-Setting Activities | |
81 FR 12886 - Notice of Public Meeting To Inform the Design of a Consent-Based Siting Process for Nuclear Waste Storage and Disposal Facilities | |
81 FR 13036 - Sanctions Actions Pursuant to Executive Order 13667 | |
81 FR 12863 - South Gifford Pinchot Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 13037 - Sanctions Actions Pursuant to the Zimbabwe Sanctions Regulations | |
81 FR 13026 - NHTSA Enforcement Guidance Bulletin 2015-01: Recommended Best Practices for Protective Orders and Settlement Agreements in Civil Litigation | |
81 FR 12921 - Affirmatively Furthering Fair Housing Assessment Tool for States and Insular Areas: Solicitation of Comment-60-Day Notice Under Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 | |
81 FR 12900 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 12902 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 12943 - State of Arizona Resource Advisory Council Meeting | |
81 FR 12975 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 12974 - Product Change-Priority Mail Express Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 12869 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12864 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12880 - Information Collection; Submission for OMB Review, Comment Request | |
81 FR 12890 - Georgia Power Co.; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 12889 - Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Virginia Southside Expansion Project II | |
81 FR 12896 - Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Dalton Expansion Project | |
81 FR 12894 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 12891 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 12892 - White River Electric Association; Notice of Preliminary Determination of a Qualifying Conduit Hydropower Facility and Soliciting Comments and Motions To Intervene | |
81 FR 12894 - Price Formation in Energy and Ancillary; Services Markets Operated by Regional Transmission; Organizations and Independent System Operators; Notice of Filing | |
81 FR 12890 - Transwestern Pipeline Company LLC; Notice of Technical Conference | |
81 FR 12895 - Rover Pipeline, LLC; Panhandle Eastern Pipe Line Company, LP; Trunkline Gas Company, LLC; Notice of Public Meetings for Comments on the Draft Environmental Impact Statement for the Proposed Rover Pipeline, Panhandle Backhaul, and Trunkline Backhaul Projects | |
81 FR 12897 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 12893 - Increasing Market and Planning Efficiency Through Improved Software; Notice of Technical Conference: Increasing Real-Time and Day-Ahead Market Efficiency Through Improved Software | |
81 FR 12900 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 12868 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Commodity Flow Survey | |
81 FR 12930 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Draft Recovery Plan for the Central California Distinct Population Segment of the California Tiger Salamander (Ambystoma californiense) | |
81 FR 12908 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry on Individual Patient Expanded Access Applications: Form FDA 3926 | |
81 FR 12907 - Acrylamide in Foods; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 12969 - Authorization To Open Dockets of Denied Variance Applications for Public Access | |
81 FR 12967 - Additional Requirements for Special Dipping and Coating Operations (Dip Tanks); Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of the Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirement | |
81 FR 12966 - The Standard on 4,4′-Methylenedianiline for General Industry; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
81 FR 12954 - Traylor Bros., Inc.; Grant of a Permanent Variance | |
81 FR 12973 - Notice of Information Collection | |
81 FR 12826 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Coastal Migratory Pelagic Resources of the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic; 2016 Commercial Run-Around Gillnet Closure | |
81 FR 13015 - Pointbreak Advisers LLC, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 12887 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 12910 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Food Labeling; Notification Procedures for Statements on Dietary Supplements | |
81 FR 12864 - Notice of Public Meeting of the North Carolina Advisory Committee for a Meeting To Hear Testimony on the Civil Rights Implications of Environmental Justice in North Carolina | |
81 FR 12866 - Agenda and Notice of Public Meeting of the South Dakota Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 12917 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12903 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12904 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12833 - Airworthiness Directives; Continental Motors, Inc. Reciprocating Engines | |
81 FR 12834 - Airworthiness Directives; Turbomeca S.A. Turboshaft Engines | |
81 FR 12841 - Airworthiness Directives; Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG Turbofan Engines | |
81 FR 12843 - Airworthiness Directives; Turbomeca S.A. Turboshaft Engines | |
81 FR 12795 - Airworthiness Directives; Dowty Propellers Constant Speed Propellers | |
81 FR 13229 - Medicare Program; Part B Drug Payment Model | |
81 FR 12953 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Surface Coal Mine Daily Inspection, Certified Person, and Report of Inspection | |
81 FR 12952 - Comment Request for the Extension With No Revisions of the Information Collection for Trade Adjustment Assistance (TAA) Reserve Funding Request Form (OMB Control Number 1205-0275) | |
81 FR 12867 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12906 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 12881 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
81 FR 13010 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Delegation of Authority To Approve Certain Rule and Procedure Amendments | |
81 FR 13012 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 11.27(b), Compliance With Data Collection Requirements, Relating to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
81 FR 13007 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Establish a Secondary Contingency Procedure To Enable the Exchange To Report an Official Closing Price on Behalf of an Impaired Primary Listing Exchange | |
81 FR 12975 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Y-Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Rules as Well as Certain Corporate Documents of the Exchange To Reflect a Legal Name Change by BATS Global Markets, Inc. and the Legal Names of Certain Subsidiaries | |
81 FR 12996 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Rules as Well as Certain Corporate Documents of the Exchange To Reflect a Legal Name Change by BATS Global Markets, Inc. and the Legal Names of Certain Subsidiaries | |
81 FR 12986 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 123C-Equities To Provide for How the Exchange Would Determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange Is Unable To Conduct a Closing Transaction | |
81 FR 12977 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rule 123C To Provide for How the Exchange Would Determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is Unable To Conduct a Closing Transaction | |
81 FR 12981 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Establishing Procedures for the Allocation of Cages to Its Co-Located Users, Including the Waiver of Certain Fees, and To Amend the Visitor Security Escort Requirements and Fee | |
81 FR 13003 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Establishing Procedures for the Allocation of Cages to Its Co-Located Users, Including the Waiver of Certain Fees, and To Amend the Visitor Security Escort Requirements and Fee | |
81 FR 12998 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Establishing Procedures for the Allocation of Cages to Its Co-Located Users, Including the Waiver of Certain Fees, and To Amend the Visitor Security Escort Requirements and Fee | |
81 FR 12990 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of the Shares of the iSectors Post-MPT Growth ETF of ETFis Series Trust I | |
81 FR 12913 - Submission for OMB Review; 60-Day Comment Request; Population Assessment of Tobacco and Health (PATH) Study | |
81 FR 12915 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 12912 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 12916 - National Eye Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 12912 - Proposed Collection; 60-Day Comment Request; Study To Estimate Radiation Doses and Cancer Risks From Radioactive Fallout From the Trinity Nuclear Test-National Cancer Institute (NCI) | |
81 FR 12914 - Proposed Collection; 60-Day Comment Request; The Clinical Trials Reporting Program (CTRP) Database (NCI) | |
81 FR 12883 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
81 FR 12974 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 12880 - U.S. Air Force Academy Board of Visitors Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 13026 - Notice of Meeting of the Transit Advisory Committee for Safety (TRACS) | |
81 FR 13030 - Intelligent Transportation Systems Program Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 12935 - Notice of Proposed Supplementary Rules for Shooting on Public Lands Managed by the BLM Hollister Field Office, California | |
81 FR 12810 - Amendment of Class D and E Airspace; Enid Vance AFB, OK; Enid Woodring Municipal Airport, Enid, OK; and Enid, OK | |
81 FR 12852 - Make Inoperative Exemptions; Vehicle Modifications To Accommodate People With Disabilities, Roof Crush Resistance | |
81 FR 12836 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters | |
81 FR 12838 - Airworthiness Directives; AgustaWestland S.p.A. (Agusta) Helicopters | |
81 FR 12810 - Commerce Debt Collection | |
81 FR 12799 - Airworthiness Directives; Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation | |
81 FR 12919 - Federal Property Suitable as Facilities To Assist the Homeless | |
81 FR 13123 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Removal of the Louisiana Black Bear From the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Removal of Similarity-of-Appearance Protections for the American Black Bear | |
81 FR 12845 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace for the Following Oklahoma Towns; Antlers, OK; Oklahoma City, OK; Oklahoma City Wiley Post Airport, OK; and Shawnee, OK | |
81 FR 12847 - Proposed Amendment of Class E Airspace; Clovis, NM | |
81 FR 13173 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Removing the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem Population of Grizzly Bears From the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife | |
81 FR 12802 - Airworthiness Directives; MD Helicopters, Inc. (MDHI) Helicopters | |
81 FR 12804 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters | |
81 FR 13039 - Improving and Expanding Training Opportunities for F-1 Nonimmigrant Students With STEM Degrees and Cap-Gap Relief for All Eligible F-1 Students | |
81 FR 12806 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 12796 - Airworthiness Directives; Piper Aircraft, Inc. Airplanes |
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Forest Service
National Agricultural Statistics Service
Census Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Air Force Department
Army Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Indian Health Service
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Geological Survey
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Parole Commission
Employment and Training Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Transit Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Dowty Propellers R352/6-123-F/1, R352/6-123-F/2, and R410/6-123-F/35 model propellers. This AD was prompted by reports of dowel hole cracks in the face of the rear hub half. This AD requires installing dowel hole liners as necessary. We are issuing this AD to prevent loss of structural integrity of the propeller hub, which could result in damage to the propeller and damage to the airplane.
This AD becomes effective April 15, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of April 15, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Dowty Propellers, 114 Powers Court, Sterling, VA 20166; phone: 703-421-4434; fax: 703-450-0087; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Michael Schwetz, Aerospace Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7761; fax: 781-238-7898; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to the specified products. The NPRM was published in the
Cracking around the hub location dowel holes in the face of the rear hub half has occurred sporadically. Previous investigations found no manufacturing defects in cracked hubs and concluded that the hub cracking was caused by damage to the dowel holes during propeller installation.
Since that original SB was issued, three hubs have been found to show cracking around the location dowel holes. The hubs were all found cracked within a short period of time and all had low time since new.
This condition, if not detected, can adversely affect the structural integrity of the propeller hub, with possible damage to the propeller and to the aeroplane.
You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (80 FR 61330, October 13, 2015).
However, we changed paragraph (e) Actions and Compliance to revise the compliance times to read, “(1) At the next removal of the propeller from the airplane, after the effective date of this AD, install liners into the hub location dowel holes and identify the hub P/N.
(2) Use Dowty Propellers Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. F50-61-A165, Revision 2, dated July 28, 2015 to install the liners and identify the hub.”
We removed Component Maintenance Manual (CMM) 61-10-34, Repair No. 53, dated May 15, 2013, from the Other Related Service Information paragraph of this AD.
We removed Component Maintenance Manual (CMM) 61-10-34, Repair No. 53, dated May 15, 2013, which relates to repair scheme 650510057, from the Credit for Previous Actions paragraph (f)(2) of this AD.
We removed CMM 61-10-34, Repair No. 53, dated May 15, 2013, from the Related Information paragraph (h) of this AD.
We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously. We determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
Dowty Propellers has issued (ASB) No. F50-61-A165, Revision 2, dated July 28, 2015. The service information describes procedures for installing liners in the hub location dowel holes in the face of the rear hub half and identifying the hub with the repair number. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 4 propellers installed on airplanes of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 5 hours per propeller to comply with this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. Required parts cost about $322 per propeller. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $2,988.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective April 15, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Dowty Propellers R352/6-123-F/1, R352/6-123-F/2, and R410/6-123-F/35 model propellers, part numbers (P/Ns) 660715001, 660715004, and 660715005 with hub P/Ns 660715201, 660715255, 660720217, 660720241, 660720252, 660720260, and 660720288, installed.
This AD was prompted by reports of dowel hole cracks in the face of the rear hub half. We are issuing this AD to prevent loss of structural integrity of the propeller hub, which could result in damage to the propeller and damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) At the next removal of the propeller from the airplane, after the effective date of this AD, install liners into the hub location dowel holes and identify the hub P/N.
(2) Use Dowty Propellers Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. F50-61-A165, Revision 2, dated July 28, 2015 to install the liners and identify the hub.
You may take credit for the actions required by paragraph (e) of this AD if you performed those actions before the effective date of this AD using Dowty Propellers ASB No. F50-61-A165, Revision 1, dated May 12, 2015; or initial issue, dated November 19, 2012.
The Manager, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Michael Schwetz, Aerospace Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7761; fax: 781-238-7898; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency AD 2015-0158, dated July 30, 2015, for more information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Dowty Propellers Alert Service Bulletin No. F50-61-A165, Revision 2, dated July 28, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Dowty Propellers service information identified in this AD, contact Dowty Propellers, 114 Powers Court, Sterling, VA 20166; phone: 703-421-4434; fax: 703-450-0087; email:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
(5) You may view this service information at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 96-12-12, which applies to certain Piper Aircraft, Inc. Models PA-31, PA-31-300, PA-31-325, and PA-31-350 airplanes. AD 96-12-12 requires a one-time inspection of the bulkhead assembly at fuselage station (FS) 317.75 for cracks and the installation of one of two reinforcement kits determined by whether cracks were found during the inspection. This new AD requires repetitive inspections of the bulkhead assembly at FS 317.75 for cracks, repair of cracks as necessary, and the installation of a reinforcement modification. This AD was prompted by cracks found in the FS 317.75 upper bulkhead. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective April 15, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of April 15, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Piper Aircraft, Inc. 2926 Piper Drive, Vero Beach, FL 32960; telephone: (415) 330-9500; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Gregory “Keith” Noles, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Atlanta Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; phone: (404) 474-5551; fax: (404) 474-5606; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 96-12-12, Amendment 39-9654 (61 FR 28732, June 6, 1996) (“AD 96-12-12”). AD 96-12-12 applied to certain Piper Aircraft, Inc. Models PA-31, PA-31-300, PA-31-325, and PA-31-350 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comment received on the NPRM (80 FR 76398, December 9, 2015) and the FAA's response to the comment.
Erin Talbott of Hageland Aviation Service commented that the estimated labor of 8 work-hours to install the reinforcement modification was incorrect. The commenter's company installed the modification on 3 of their airplanes, and the correct estimated work-hours for installation of the reinforcement modification was 32 work-hours.
We infer from the comment that the commenter requests we change the number of work-hours to more accurately state the estimated labor cost.
The FAA agrees with this comment, and we have revised the estimated Cost of Compliance section to reflect this change.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 76398, December 9, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 76398, December 9, 2015).
We reviewed Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273A, dated October 22, 2015. The service bulletin describes procedures for inspecting the bulkhead assembly at FS 317.75, repairing any cracks found, and installation of a reinforcement modification to prevent cracks from developing. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 977 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective April 15, 2016.
This AD replaces 96-12-12, Amendment 39-9654 (61 FR 28732, June 6, 1996) (“AD 96-12-12”).
This AD applies to the following Piper Aircraft, Inc. airplanes listed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD, certificated in any category:
(1) Models PA-31, PA-31-300, and PA-31-325: Serial numbers 31-2 through 31-900 and 31-7300901 through 31-8312019; and
(2) Model PA-31-350: Serial numbers 31-5001 through 31-5004 and 31-7305005 through 31-8553002.
The Model PA-31 may also be identified as a PA-31-310, even though the PA-31-310 is not a model recognized by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) on the type certificate data sheet.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC)/Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by bulkhead cracks found on airplanes that had complied with AD 96-12-12 and on additional airplanes not affected by AD 96-12-12. We are issuing this AD to prevent structural failure of the vertical fin forward spar caused by cracks in the fuselage station (FS) at 317.75 upper bulkhead, which could lead to loss of control.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Before or upon accumulating 2,000 hours time-in-service (TIS) or within the next 100 hours TIS after April 15, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs later, and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 100 hours TIS, inspect the bulkhead assembly at FS 317.75 for cracks following Part I of the Instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273A, dated October 22, 2015.
(2) If any cracks are found during the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, before further flight, repair the cracks and install the reinforcement modification following Part I of the Instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273A, dated October 22, 2015. This repair/modification terminates the requirements for the repetitive inspections required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(3) You may do the modification required in paragraph (h) of this AD to terminate the repetitive inspections required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
Unless already done as a repair for cracks found in the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, before or upon accumulating 2,500 hours TIS or within the next 500 hours after April 15, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs later, install the reinforcement modification following Part II of the Instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273A, dated October 22, 2015. This modification terminates the repetitive inspections required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
This AD allows credit for the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD and the repair required in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD, if done before April 15, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), following Part I of the Instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273, dated June 4, 2015. This AD also allows credit for the modification required in paragraph (h) of this AD, if done before April 15, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), following Part II of the Instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273, dated June 4, 2015.
(1) The Manager, Atlanta Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in Related Information, paragraph (j)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
For more information about this AD, contact Gregory “Keith” Noles, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Atlanta ACO, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; phone: (404) 474-5551; fax: (404) 474-5606; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1273A, dated October 22, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Piper Aircraft, Inc. service information identified in this AD, contact Piper Aircraft, Inc. 2926 Piper Drive, Vero Beach, FL 32960; telephone: (415) 330-9500; email:
(4) You may view this referenced service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation (Sikorsky) Model S-92A helicopters. This AD requires certain inspections of the main rotor and tail rotor control pushrods (pushrods). This AD is prompted by a Sikorsky investigation that indicated that some pushrods may have incorrectly installed locking mechanisms. These AD actions are intended to detect an incorrectly installed locking mechanism, which if not corrected, could result in a loose jam nut, failure of the pushrod, loss of main rotor or tail rotor flight control, and consequent loss of helicopter control.
This AD becomes effective March 28, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain document listed in this AD as of March 28, 2016.
We must receive comments on this AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, Customer Service Engineering, 124 Quarry Road, Trumbull, CT 06611; telephone 1-800-Winged-S or 203-416-4299; email
Blaine Williams, Aerospace Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, Massachusetts 01803; telephone (781) 238-7161; email
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments prior to it becoming effective. However, we invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that resulted from adopting this AD. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the AD, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit them only one time. We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this rulemaking during the comment period. We will consider all the comments we receive and may conduct additional rulemaking based on those comments.
We propose to adopt a new AD for Sikorsky Model S-92A helicopters with certain main rotor or tail rotor control pushrods installed. After a review of a failed pushrod, Sikorsky investigated the airworthiness of pushrods installed on its helicopters. The investigation indicates that the pushrods installed on Model S-92A helicopters may have incorrect safety cable routing, incorrect jam nut torque, and/or incorrect locking device serrations and key engagement. This AD consequently requires inspecting the pushrods for safety cable routing, engagement of serrations of the locking device, engagement of keys on the locking device, thread engagement, and jam nut torque. This AD requires either repairing or replacing the pushrod assembly, depending on the inspection's outcome. These AD actions are intended to detect and correct an incorrectly installed locking mechanism resulting in a loose jam nut, failure of the pushrods, loss of main rotor or tail rotor flight control, and consequent loss of helicopter control.
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs.
We reviewed Sikorsky S-92 Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin ASB 92-67-006, Revision A, dated February 19, 2016 (ASB), which specifies a one-time inspection of the pushrod assemblies for safety cable routing, engagement of serrations of the locking device, engagement of keys on the locking device, thread engagement, and torque of the jam nuts. The ASB also specifies documenting any non-compliant inspection results and, if any discrepancies are found during the inspection, removing, reworking, and reinstalling or replacing the pushrod. The ASB specifies performing a rig check as required.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This AD requires within 5 hours time-in-service (TIS):
• For each pushrod adjustable end, except for the upper deck quadrant pushrod, removing the safety cable and using finger pressure, inspecting each jam nut for movement. If a jam nut moves with finger pressure, removing the pushrod assembly from service.
○ Inspecting to determine whether a 0.02 inch diameter safety wire can pass through the inspection hole. If the safety wire passes through the inspection hole, repairing the pushrod, which is terminating action for that adjustable end.
○ Inspecting for correct engagement of serrations and keys of the locking device. If a locking device is not correctly engaged, repairing the locking device, which is terminating action for that adjustable end.
○ Torqueing each jam nut and installing the safety cable, making sure the right-hand threads have safety cable correctly routed, and the left-hand threads have safety cable correctly routed.
• For the upper deck quadrant pushrod, this AD requires determining whether there is any gap between the jam nut, locking device, and the adjustable end. It also requires:
○ If there is a gap, gaining access to the pushrod, removing the safety cable and using finger pressure, inspecting the jam nut for movement. If the jam nut moves with finger pressure, removing the pushrod assembly from service. If the jam nut does not move, performing corrective actions.
○ If there is no gap, visually inspecting the adjustable end for correct safety cable routing, correct engagement of serrations and keys of the locking device, and determining whether any thread is visible in the inspection hole. If the safety cable is routed incorrectly, if the locking device is not correctly engaged, or if there is no thread in the inspection hole, gaining access to the pushrod. Using finger pressure, inspecting the jam nut for movement. If the jam nut moves with finger pressure, removing the pushrod assembly from service. If the jam nut does not move with finger pressure, performing corrective actions.
Sikorsky specifies compliance by May 16, 2016. We require compliance within 5 hours TIS. We also do not require you to contact Sikorsky or record information on the Pushrod Data Sheet.
We estimate that this AD will affect 80 helicopters of U.S. Registry and labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
• Inspecting all pushrod assemblies requires 2 work-hours for a labor cost of $170. No parts are needed for a total fleet cost of $13,600.
• Replacing a pushrod requires 2 work-hours for a labor cost $170. Parts cost an average of $2,500 for a total cost of $2,670 per pushrod.
• Repairing a pushrod requires an average 2 work-hours per helicopter for a labor cost of $170 and minimal part costs.
Providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adopting these AD requirements would delay implementing the safety actions needed to correct this known unsafe condition. Therefore, we find that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to the adoption of this rule because the required corrective actions must be accomplished within 5 hours TIS.
Since an unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD, we determined that notice and opportunity for prior public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and that good cause exists to make this AD effective in less than 30 days.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Sikorsky Model S-92A helicopters, serial numbers 920006 through 920291, with a main rotor or tail rotor servo input pushrod with a part number (P/N) listed in Table 1 to paragraph (a) of this AD, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as an incorrectly installed locking mechanism resulting in a loose jam nut. This condition, if not detected and corrected, could result in failure of the main rotor or tail rotor control pushrod, loss of main rotor or tail rotor flight control and consequent loss of helicopter control.
This AD becomes effective March 28, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Within 5 hours time-in-service:
(1) For each control input pushrod (pushrod) adjustable end, except for the upper deck quadrant pushrod:
(i) Remove the safety cable and using finger pressure, inspect each jam nut for movement. If a jam nut moves with finger pressure, remove the pushrod assembly from service.
(ii) Inspect to determine whether a 0.02 inch diameter safety wire can pass through the inspection hole. If the safety wire passes through the inspection hole, repair the pushrod in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraphs C.(2)(b) through C.(2)(l) of Sikorsky S-92 Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin ASB 92-67-006, Revision A, dated February 19, 2016 (ASB), which is terminating action for that adjustable end.
(iii) Where locking devices are used, inspect for correct engagement of serrations and keys of the locking device as shown in Figure 4 of the ASB. If a locking device is not correctly engaged, repair the locking device in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraphs C.(3)(c) through C.(3)(f) of the ASB, which is terminating action for that adjustable end.
(iv) Torque each jam nut using the torque values listed in Table 1 to paragraph (a) of this AD. Install the safety cable, making sure the right-hand threads have safety cable routed as shown in Figure 2 of the ASB, and the left-hand threads have safety cable routed as shown in Figure 3 of the ASB.
(2) For the upper deck quadrant pushrod, determine whether there is any gap between the jam nut, locking device, and adjustable end.
(i) If there is a gap, gain access to the pushrod, remove the safety cable, and using finger pressure, inspect the jam nut for movement. If the jam nut moves with finger pressure, remove the pushrod assembly from service. If the jam nut does not move, perform the actions in paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) through (e)(1)(iv) of this AD.
(ii) If there is no gap, visually inspect the adjustable end for correct safety cable routing as shown in Figure 2 of the ASB, correct engagement of serrations and keys of the locking device as shown in Figure 4 of the ASB, and to determine whether any thread is visible in the inspection hole. If the safety cable is routed incorrectly, if the locking device is not correctly engaged, or if there is no thread in the inspection hole, gain access to the pushrod. Using finger pressure, inspect the jam nut for movement. If the jam nut moves with finger pressure, remove the pushrod assembly from service. If the jam nut does not move with finger pressure, perform the actions in paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) through (e)(1)(iv) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Blaine Williams, Aerospace Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, Massachusetts 01803; telephone (781) 238-7161; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6700, Rotorcraft Flight Control.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Sikorsky S-92 Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin ASB 92-67-006, Revision A, dated February 19, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Sikorsky service information identified in this final rule, contact Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, Customer Service Engineering, 124 Quarry Road, Trumbull, CT 06611; telephone 1-800-Winged-S or 203-416-4299; email
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain MDHI Model 369A (Army OH-6A), 369H, 369HE, 369HM, 369HS, 369D, 369E, 369F, 369FF, and 500N helicopters. This AD requires inspecting the auxiliary fuel pump (fuel pump) wire routing in the left-hand fuel cell and corrective action, if necessary. This AD also requires installing a warning decal on the left-hand fuel cell access cover. This AD was prompted by accidents resulting from incorrectly positioned fuel pump wiring within the fuel tank interfering with the operation of the fuel quantity sensor float, which caused an erroneous fuel quantity indication in the cockpit. The actions are intended to detect and correct routing of the fuel pump wiring to prevent interference with the fuel quantity sensor float, an erroneous fuel quantity indication in the cockpit, and subsequent fuel exhaustion and emergency landing.
This AD is effective April 15, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain documents listed in this AD as of April 15, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact MD Helicopters, Inc., Attn: Customer Support Division, 4555 E. McDowell Rd., Mail Stop M615, Mesa, AZ 85215-9734; telephone 1-800-388-3378; fax 480-346-6813; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Danny Nguyen, Aerospace Engineer, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; telephone (562) 627-5247; email
On September 2, 2015, at 80 FR 53030, the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we did not receive any comments on the NPRM (80 FR 53030, September 2, 2015).
We have reviewed the relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
MD Helicopters issued one service bulletin on April 30, 2014, with five different numbers: SB369H-255, SB369E-111, SB500N-049, SB369D-213, and SB369F-098. The service bulletin specifies a one-time inspection of the routing of the fuel pump wire in the left-hand fuel cell and corrective action, if necessary. The service bulletin also specifies installing a warning decal on the left-hand fuel cell access cover that refers personnel to the procedures for routing the fuel pump wire that is contained in the appropriate maintenance manual. The service bulletin states that recent field incidents have occurred where maintenance personnel have not followed the procedures for installation of the fuel pump. Also, the service bulletin states that an incorrectly installed fuel pump wire can interfere with the fuel quantity sensor float, which can result in erroneous fuel quantity indications. To prevent this situation, the service information states that the fuel pump wire must be wrapped around the fuel inlet hose as shown in the applicable maintenance manual.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 833 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour. Inspecting the fuel pump wire routing and installing a decal will take 3 work-hours, and parts will cost $20 for a total cost of $275 per helicopter and $229,075 for the U.S. fleet. If required, rerouting the wiring will require 1 work-hour for a total cost of $85 per helicopter.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to the following helicopters, certificated in any category:
(1) Model 369A (Army OH-6A), 369H, 369HE, 369HM, 369HS, and 369D;
(2) Model 369E with a serial number (S/N) 0001E through 0620E;
(3) Model 369F and 369FF with a S/N 0001FF through 0212FF, 0600FF, 0601FF, 0602FF, and 0700FF through 0711FF and with an auxiliary fuel pump part number (P/N) 369A8143-3 installed; and
(4) Model 500N with a S/N LN001 through LN0111.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as incorrect routing of the auxiliary fuel pump (fuel pump) wiring. This condition could result in an erroneous fuel quantity indication in the cockpit and subsequent fuel exhaustion and emergency landing.
This AD becomes effective April 15, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Within 100 hours time-in-service:
(1) Remove the fuel quantity sensor by following the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 2.B., of MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369H-255, SB369E-111, SB500N-049, SB369D-213, or SB369F-098, dated April 30, 2014, as applicable to your model helicopter. Using a mirror and light, inspect the routing of the fuel pump wire in the area depicted in Figure 2 of MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369H-255, SB369E-111, SB500N-049, SB369D-213, or SB369F-098, dated April 30, 2014, as applicable to your model helicopter, and determine whether the fuel pump wire is wrapped around the left-hand fuel cell fuel inlet hose assembly a minimum of one revolution.
(i) If the fuel pump wire is wrapped around the left-hand fuel cell fuel inlet hose a minimum of one revolution, install the fuel quantity sensor and perform a fuel quantity sensor functional test for proper fuel float arm function.
(ii) If the fuel pump wire is not wrapped around the left-hand fuel cell fuel inlet hose a minimum of one revolution, install the fuel quantity sensor, route the fuel pump wire around the left-hand fuel cell fuel inlet hose by following paragraphs 2.E.(1) through 2.E.(8) of MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369H-255, SB369E-111, SB500N-049, SB369D-213, or SB369F-098, dated April 30, 2014 as applicable to your model helicopter, and perform a fuel quantity sensor functional test for proper fuel float arm function.
(2) Install start pump warning decal, P/N MHS5861-66 or equivalent, on the left-hand fuel cell cover by following paragraph 2.G. of MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369H-255, SB369E-111, SB500N-049, SB369D-213, or SB369F-098, dated April 30, 2014 as applicable to your model helicopter.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Danny Nguyen, Aerospace Engineer Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; telephone (562) 627-5247; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 2840 Fuel Quantity Indicating System.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369D-213, dated April 30, 2014.
(ii) MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369E-111, dated April 30, 2014.
(iii) MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369F-098, dated April 30, 2014.
(iv) MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369H-255, dated April 30, 2014.
(v) MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB500N-049, dated April 30, 2014.
Note 1 to paragraph (h)(2): MD Helicopters Service Bulletin SB369D-213, SB369E-111, SB369F-098, SB369H-255, and SB500N-
(3) For MD Helicopters service information identified in this final rule, contact MD Helicopters, Inc., Attn: Customer Support Division, 4555 E. McDowell Rd., Mail Stop M615, Mesa, AZ 85215-9734; telephone 1-800-388-3378; fax 480-346-6813; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Model AS 365 N3, EC 155B, and EC155B1 helicopters with certain external life rafts. This AD requires installing a sheath kit on the left-hand and right-hand raft deployment control systems. This AD is prompted by a report that the life raft deployment control could not be adjusted due to problems with the life raft deployment linkage. This unsafe condition, if not corrected, could result in failure of the external life raft to deploy and prevent evacuation of passengers during an emergency.
This AD becomes effective March 28, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain documents listed in this AD as of March 28, 2016.
We must receive comments on this AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
David Hatfield, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5116; email
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments prior to it becoming effective. However, we invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that resulted from adopting this AD. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the AD, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit them only one time. We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this rulemaking during the comment period. We will consider all the comments we receive and may conduct additional rulemaking based on those comments.
EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD No. 2015-0048, dated March 17, 2015, to correct an unsafe condition for Airbus Helicopters Model AS 365 N3, EC 155B, and EC155B1 helicopters. EASA advises that after installation of a new life raft on a helicopter, the travel of the life raft deployment control could not be properly adjusted, putting at risk proper life raft inflation. According to a technical analysis, the varying positions of the life raft inflation cylinder inside the bag containing the life raft, as well as the varying positions of the bag within the life raft container, may cause the life raft deployment control cable to loosen and travel insufficiently.
This condition could result in failure of the external life raft to deploy after a ditching, impeding or preventing the safe evacuation of helicopter occupants, EASA states. EASA consequently requires alteration of the life raft deployment control by installing a sheath kit, which Airbus Helicopters identifies as Modification 365A084711.00 and 365A084711.01.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. AS365-25.01.45 and ASB No. EC155-25A128, both Revision 1, and both dated February 2, 2015. The service information reports that the position of the life raft inflation cylinder may slacken the deployment control cable for new life rafts installed on Model AS 365 N3, EC 155B, and EC155B1 helicopters. In one instance, travel of the life raft deployment control could not be adjusted as stated in the maintenance manual. This anomaly is due to the varying positions of the inflation cylinder inside the bag that contains the life raft, and the varying positions of the bag inside the container, related to the installation and removal of optional equipment, calendar overhauls, life raft storage, shock impacts, and in-flight vibrations. Airbus Helicopters consequently developed modification 365A084711.00 and 365A084711.01, which ensure sufficient travel of the life raft deployment control cable in all positions of the inflation cylinder by installing an improved sheath kit on the left hand and right hand deployment controls.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This AD requires, before the next flight over water, installing a sheath kit on the left-hand and right-hand raft deployment controls.
The EASA AD requires installing a sheath kit on the left-hand and right-hand raft deployment controls within 110 hours time-in-service or before further flight for helicopters required to have life rafts, whichever occurs later. This AD requires installing a sheath kit on the left-hand and right-hand raft deployment controls before the next flight over water.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 23 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect that installing the sheath kits requires 4 work-hours and a parts cost of $50 for a total cost of $390 per helicopter and $8,970 for the U.S. fleet.
Providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adopting these AD requirements would delay implementing the safety actions needed to correct this known unsafe condition. Therefore, we find that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to the adoption of this rule because many of the affected helicopters are located along major waterways, and the required corrective actions must be accomplished before the next flight over water.
Since an unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD, we determined that notice and opportunity for prior public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and that good cause exists to make this AD effective in less than 30 days.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS 365 N3, EC 155B, and EC155B1 helicopters with an external life raft part number 245431-0, 245431-1, 245434-0, or 245434-1 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as an external life raft's failure to deploy. This condition could prevent the safe evacuation of helicopter occupants during an emergency landing in water.
This AD becomes effective March 28, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Before the next flight over water, install a sheath kit on each left-hand and right-hand life raft deployment control in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.B.2, of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. AS365-25.01.45, Revision 1, dated February 2, 2015, or ASB No. EC155-25A128, Revision 1, dated February 2, 2015, whichever is applicable to your helicopter.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: David Hatfield, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5116; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2015-0048, dated March 17, 2015. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: Life Raft, 2564.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS365-25.01.45, Revision 1, dated February 2, 2015.
(ii) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. EC155-25A128, Revision 1, dated February 2, 2015.
(3) For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2013-08-23 for all The Boeing Company Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F (KC-10A and KDC-10), DC-10-40, DC-10-40F, MD-10-10F, MD-10-30F, MD-11, and MD-11F airplanes. AD 2013-08-23 required adding design features to detect electrical faults and to detect a pump running in an empty fuel tank. This new AD would clarify certain requirements and remove a terminating action. This new AD would also provide an optional method of compliance for the proposed actions. This AD was prompted by a determination that it is necessary to clarify the requirements for the design features and to remove a terminating action for certain inspections. We are issuing this AD to reduce the potential of ignition sources inside fuel tanks, which, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in fuel tank explosions and consequent loss of the airplane.
This AD is effective April 15, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of April 15, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, 3855 Lakewood Boulevard, MC D800-0019, Long Beach, CA 90846-0001; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 2; fax 206-766-5683; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Serj Harutunian, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5254; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2013-08-23, Amendment 39-17441 (78 FR 24037, April 24, 2013). AD 2013-08-23 applied to all The Boeing Company Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F (KC-10A and KDC-10), DC-10-40, DC-10-40F, MD-10-10F, MD-10-30F, MD-11, and MD-11F airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015) and the FAA's response to each comment.
Boeing stated that it supports the NPRM (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015).
FedEx requested that we clarify paragraph (h)(3) of the proposed AD (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015) because it is unclear and confusing.
FedEx explained that paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of the proposed AD (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015) propose to mandate compliance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A133, dated June 5, 2014; Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-137, dated June 24, 2014; Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A253, dated June 5, 2014; and Boeing Service Bulletin DC10-28-256, dated June 24, 2014. This service information, in addition to describing procedures for airframe modifications, specifies revising Airworthiness Limitation Instructions (ALI) 28-1, Trijet Fuel Pump Fault Current Detector Functional Check; ALI 28-2, DC-10/KDC-10 Uncommanded On Circuit Functional Check; ALI 28-3, MD-10 Uncommanded On Circuit Functional Check; and ALI 28-4, MD-11 Uncommanded On Circuit Functional Check, Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014. FedEx stated that paragraph (h)(3) of the proposed AD creates confusion because Appendixes B and C of Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014, also change/affect Critical Design Configuration Control Limitation (CDCCL) 20-9, Trijet Wing Root Area Lightning Protection, (Boeing Service Bulletin DC10-28-262, Revision 1, dated June 9, 2010, which was mandated by AD 2010-21-13, Amendment 39-16473 (75 FR 63040, October 14, 2010), and has nothing to do with the intent of this NPRM, which supersedes AD 2013-08-23, Amendment 39-17441 (78 FR 24037, April 24, 2013).
FedEx also noted that paragraph (h)(3) of the proposed AD (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015) states that revising the maintenance or inspection program terminates the requirements in paragraphs (g) and (h) of AD 2008-06-21 R1, Amendment 39-16100 (74 FR 61504, November 25, 2009). FedEx requested that we identify the requirements in AD 2008-06-21 R1 that would be terminated. FedEx reasoned that paragraphs (g) and (h) of AD 2008-06-21 R1 cannot be terminated because CDCCLs and ALIs are constantly revised or new items added to meet safety requirements, so latent failures must be addressed in the fuel system design.
We agree that clarification is necessary. AD 2010-21-13, Amendment 39-16473 (75 FR 63040, October 14, 2010), requires installing a support bracket and coupler on the left and right wing-to-fuselage transition, and metallic overbraid on the left and right leading edge wire assembly but it does not require revising the maintenance or inspection program to incorporate a corresponding CDCCL. Paragraph (h)(3) of this AD includes incorporating CDCCL 20-9, Trijet Wing Root Area Lightning Protection, as part of the maintenance or inspection program. Notwithstanding any other maintenance or operational requirements, components that have been identified as airworthy or installed on the affected airplanes before accomplishing the revision of the airplane maintenance or inspection program specified in this AD, do not need to be reworked in accordance with the CDCCLs. However, once the airplane maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by this AD, future maintenance actions on these components must be done in accordance with the CDCCLs.
In regards to FedEx's comment on terminating action, we note that AD 2008-06-21 R1, Amendment 39-16100 (74 FR 61504, November 25, 2009) requires incorporation of Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item Report, MDC-02K1003, Revision C, dated July 24, 2007. Paragraph (h)(3) of this AD requires a revision of the maintenance or inspection program to include Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item (SCI) Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014. We are requiring the actions specified in Appendixes B, C, and D of Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014, because they include the latest CDCCLs, ALIs, and short-term extensions. Therefore, accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (h)(3) of this AD would terminate the requirements in paragraphs (g) and (h) of AD 2008-06-21 R1. Accomplishing paragraph (h)(3) of this AD would replace the existing requirements with updated requirements. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 16321, March 27, 2015).
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed the following service information.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A253, dated June 5, 2014; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A133, dated June 5, 2014. This service information describes procedures for replacing the fuel pump control relays with fault current detectors and changing the fuel tank boost/transfer pump wire termination.
• Boeing Service Bulletin DC10-28-256, dated June 24, 2014; and Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-137, dated June 24, 2014; which describe procedures for changing the fuel pump control and indication system wiring.
• Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, including Appendices A through D, dated July 25, 2014, which includes CDCCLs, ALIs, and short-term extensions in Appendices B, C, and D, respectively.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 341 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective April 15, 2016.
(1) This AD replaces AD 2013-08-23, Amendment 39-17441 (78 FR 24037, April 24, 2013).
(2) This AD affects AD 2008-06-21 R1, Amendment 39-16100 (74 FR 61504, November 25, 2009).
(3) This AD affects AD 2002-13-10, Amendment 39-12798 (67 FR 45053, July 8, 2002).
(4) This AD affects AD 2011-11-05, Amendment 39-16704 (76 FR 31462, June 1, 2011).
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F (KC-10A and KDC-10), DC-10-40, DC-10-40F airplanes.
(2) Model MD-10-10F, MD-10-30F, MD-11, and MD-11F airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by a fuel system review conducted by the manufacturer. We are issuing this AD to reduce the potential of ignition sources inside fuel tanks, which, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in fuel tank explosions and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the actions required by paragraph (g) of AD 2013-08-23, Amendment 39-17441 (78 FR 24037, April 24, 2013), with clarification of actions for airplanes with auxiliary fuel tanks removed, clarification of the pumps that must have a protective device installed, and a new compliance time. Except as provided by paragraph (h) of this AD: As of 48 months after the effective date of this AD, no person may operate any airplane affected by this AD unless an amended type certificate or supplemental type certificate that incorporates the design features and requirements described in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(4) of this AD has been approved by the Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, and those design features are installed on the airplane to meet the criteria specified in section 25.981(a) and (d) of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR 25.981(a) and (d), at Amendment 25-125 (
(1) For all airplanes: Each electrically powered alternating current (AC) fuel pump installed in any fuel tank that normally empties during flight and each pump that is partially covered by a lowering fuel level—such as main tanks, center wing tanks, auxiliary fuel tanks installed by the airplane manufacturer, and tail tanks—must have a protective device installed to detect electrical faults that can cause arcing and burn through of the fuel pump housing and pump electrical connector. The same device must shut off the pump by automatically removing electrical power from the pump when such faults are detected. When a fuel pump is shut off resulting from detection of an electrical fault, the device must stay latched off, until the fault is cleared through maintenance action and the pump is verified safe for operation.
(2) For airplanes with a 2-person flightcrew: Additional design features, if not originally installed by the airplane manufacturer, must be installed to meet 3 criteria: To detect a running fuel pump in a tank that is normally emptied during flight, to provide an indication to the flightcrew that the tank is empty, and to automatically shut off that fuel pump. The prospective pump indication and shutoff system must automatically shut off each pump in case the flightcrew does not shut off a pump running dry in an empty tank within 60 seconds after each fuel tank is emptied. An airplane flight manual supplement (AFMS) that includes flightcrew manual pump shutoff procedures in the Limitations section of the AFMS must be submitted to the Los Angeles ACO, FAA, for approval.
(3) For airplanes with a 3-person flightcrew: Additional design features, if not originally installed by the airplane manufacturer, must be installed to detect when a fuel pump in a tank that is normally emptied during flight is running in an empty fuel tank, and to provide an indication to the flightcrew that the tank is empty. The flight engineer must manually shut off each pump running dry in an empty tank within 60 seconds after the tank is emptied. The AFMS Limitations section must be revised to specify that this pump shutoff must be done by the flight engineer.
(4) For all airplanes with tanks that normally empty during flight: Separate means must be provided to detect and shut off a pump that was previously commanded to be shut off automatically or manually but remained running in an empty tank during flight.
In lieu of doing the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD, do the applicable actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), and (h)(3) of this AD.
(1) For MD-11 and MD-11F airplanes: Do the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1)(i) and (h)(1)(ii) of this AD.
(i) As of 48 months after the effective date of this AD, change the fuel pump control and indication system wiring, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-137, dated June 24, 2014.
(ii) Prior to or concurrently with accomplishing the actions specified in paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this AD: Replace the fuel pump control relays with fault current detectors, and change the fuel tank boost/transfer pump wire termination, in accordance with Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A133, dated June 5, 2014.
(2) For Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F (KC-10A and KDC-10), DC-10-40, DC-10-40F, MD-10-10F, and MD-10-30F airplanes: Do the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (h)(2)(ii) of this AD.
(i) As of 48 months after the effective date of this AD, change the fuel pump control and indication system wiring, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin DC10-28-256, dated June 24, 2014.
(ii) Prior to or concurrently with accomplishing the actions specified in paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this AD: Replace the fuel pump control relays with fault current detectors, and change the fuel tank boost/transfer pump wire termination, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A253, dated June 5, 2014.
(3) For all airplanes: Within 30 days after accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, revise the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the Critical Design Configuration Control Limitations (CDCCLs), Airworthiness Limitation Instructions (ALIs), and short-term extensions specified in Appendices B, C, and D of Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item (SCI) Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014. The initial compliance time for accomplishing the actions specified in the ALIs is at the later of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(3)(i) and (h)(3)(ii) of this AD. Revising the maintenance or inspection program required by this paragraph terminates the requirements in paragraphs (g) and (h) of AD 2008-06-21 R1, Amendment 39-16100 (74 FR 61504, November 25, 2009).
(i) At the applicable time specified in Appendix C of Boeing Trijet SCI Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014, except as provided by Appendix D of Boeing Trijet SCI Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, dated July 25, 2014.
(ii) Within 30 days after accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, as applicable; or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD; whichever occurs later.
If the option in paragraph (h)(3) of this AD is accomplished: After the maintenance or inspection program has been revised as provided by paragraph (h)(3) of this AD, no alternative actions (
Accomplishment of the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), and (h)(3) of this AD, as applicable, extends the 18-month repetitive inspections and tests required by paragraph (a) of AD 2002-13-10, Amendment 39-12798 (67 FR 45053, July 8, 2002); and the 18-month repetitive inspections required by paragraph (j) of AD 2011-11-05, Amendment 39-16704 (76 FR 31462, June 1, 2011); to 24-month intervals for pumps affected by those ADs, regardless if the pump is installed in a tank that normally empties, provided the remaining actions required by those two ADs have been accomplished.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 2013-08-23, Amendment 39-17441 (78 FR 24037, April 24, 2013), are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
For more information about this AD, contact Serj Harutunian, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5254; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A253, dated June 5, 2014.
(ii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A133, dated June 5, 2014.
(iii) Boeing Service Bulletin DC10-28-256, dated June 24, 2014.
(iv) Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-137, dated June 24, 2014.
(v) Boeing Trijet Special Compliance Item Report MDC-02K1003, Revision M, including Appendices A through D, dated July 25, 2014.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, 3855 Lakewood Boulevard, MC D800-0019, Long Beach, CA 90846-0001; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 2; fax 206-766-5683; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; delay of effective date, correction.
This action changes the effective date of a final rule published in the
This correction is effective 0901 UTC, July 21, 2016, and the effective date of the rule amending 14 CFR part 71 published on February 19, 2016 (81 FR 8389), is delayed to 0901 UTC July 21, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.9 and publication of conforming amendments.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX, 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The
To resolve these concerns, the FAA is keeping the part-time NOTAM language in the Class E surface area description to retain it as part-time airspace supplementing the existing part-time Class D surface area airspace at Vance AFB and Woodring Municipal Airport. The regulatory text is rewritten for clarity. A minor adjustment is also made to the geographic coordinates of the Vance VORTAC listed in Class E airspace area designated as an extension to Class D. These are administrative corrections and do not affect the controlled airspace boundaries or operating requirements supporting operations in the Vance AFB and Woodring Municipal Airport terminal areas.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, in the
“Within a 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB, and within a 4.1-mile radius of Woodring Municipal Airport.”, and add in its place:
“Within a 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB, and within a 4.1-mile radius of Woodring Municipal Airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.”
Office of the Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Administration, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce Department) hereby revises its debt collection regulations as a result of, and to conform to, an amendment made by the Digital Accountability and Transparency Act of 2014 (DATA Act). Specifically, the law, as amended by the DATA Act, requires Commerce Department to refer to the Secretary of the Treasury all past due, legally enforceable nontax debt that are over 120 days delinquent, including nontax debt administered by a third party acting as an agent for the Federal Government, for purposes of administrative offset. These revised debt collection regulations also provide updated references to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service as the agency within the Department of the Treasury to which Commerce Department refers delinquent debts to reflect a reorganization made by the Department of the Treasury.
This rule is effective April 11, 2016.
Gordon T. Alston, Acting Deputy Chief Financial Officer and Director for Financial Management, Office of Financial Management, at (202) 482-1207, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room D200, Washington, DC 20230. The Commerce Department debt collection regulations are available for downloading from Commerce Department, Office of Financial Management's Web site at the following address:
This final rule revises and replaces Commerce Department debt collection regulations found at 15 CFR part 19 to conform to the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (DCIA), Public Law 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, 1358 (Apr. 26, 1996), the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR Chapter IX Parts 900 through 904, and other laws applicable to the collection of non-tax debt owed to the Government. Commerce Department made revisions to 15 CFR part 19 to merely update Commerce Department regulations on debt collection to conform with an amendment to 31 U.S.C. 3716(c)(6) made by Section 5 of the DATA Act. That amendment requires that Commerce Department refer to the Secretary of the Treasury all past due, legally enforceable nontax debt that are over 120 days delinquent, including nontax debt administered by a third party acting as an agent for the Federal Government, for purposes of administrative offset. Accordingly, the regulations at 15 CFR part 19 are being updated to reflect current law. Agency debts which are more than 120 days delinquent and have not been timely referred to the Department of the Treasury shall be reported to the Congress by the Secretary of the Treasury. These revised debt collection regulations also provide updated references to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service as the agency within the Department of Treasury to which Commerce Department refers delinquent debts to reflect a reorganization made by the Department of the Treasury.
These regulations provide procedures for the collection of non-tax debts owed to Commerce Department entities. Commerce Department adopts the government-wide debt collection standards promulgated by the Departments of the Treasury and Justice, known as the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS), as revised on November 22, 2000 (31 CFR Chapter IX parts 900-904), and supplements FCCS by prescribing procedures consistent with FCCS, as necessary and appropriate for Commerce Department operations. These regulations also provide the procedures for the collection of debts owed to other Federal agencies when a request for offset is received by Commerce Department.
These regulations do not contain a section regarding the delegation of debt collection authority within Commerce Department. The delegation is contained in the Commerce Department Credit and Debt Management Operating Standards and Procedures Handbook, available at
Nothing in these regulations precludes the use of collection remedies not contained in these regulations. For example, Commerce Department entities may collect unused travel advances through offset of an employee's pay under 5 U.S.C. 5705. Commerce Department entities and other Federal agencies may simultaneously use multiple collection remedies to collect a debt, except as prohibited by law.
Commerce Department entities may, but are not required to, promulgate additional policies and procedures consistent with these regulations, FCCS, and other applicable Federal laws, policies, and procedures, subject to the approval of the Deputy Chief Financial Officer and Director for Financial Management.
These revisions to Commerce Department debt collection regulations at 15 CFR part 19 relate only to agency procedure and practice and do not affect any public right, interest, or remedy otherwise available. This action makes no substantive changes and does not change or impose additional requirements that necessitate adjustments by entities subject to the debt collection regulations. Instead, it merely updates delinquent debt day count figures and a Department of the Treasury bureau title in the existing regulations to bring the regulations into line with the DATA Act's debt referral requirements and the current Department of the Treasury bureau title, over which Commerce Department has no discretion. To the extent that this rule updates these regulations to reflect the changes to the Department of the Treasury's organization, it will help reduce confusion regarding the correct entity to contact.
Accordingly, notice and comment are not required for this rule, pursuant to Section 553(b)(A) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551,
The provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, do not apply to this rule because there are no new or revised recordkeeping or reporting requirements.
This rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Orders 12866 and 13563.
Because notice of proposed rulemaking and opportunity for comment are not required pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility act (5 U.S.C. 601,
Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Debts, Garnishment of wages, Federal Government employee, Hearing and appeal procedures, Pay administration, Salaries, Wages.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, Commerce Department revises 15 CFR part 19 to read as follows:
31 U.S.C. 3701,
As used in this part:
(a)
(b)
(2) This part does not apply to tax debts nor to any debt for which there is an indication of fraud or misrepresentation, as described in section 900.3 of the FCCS, unless the debt is returned by the Department of Justice to Commerce Department for handling.
(3) Nothing in this part precludes collection or disposition of any debt under statutes and regulations other than those described in this part.
(c)
(d)
(e)
This part adopts and incorporates all provisions of the FCCS (31 CFR Chapter IX parts 900-904). This part also supplements the FCCS by prescribing procedures consistent with the FCCS, as necessary and appropriate for Commerce Department operations.
(a)
(1) The nature and amount of the Commerce debt, and the facts giving rise to the Commerce debt;
(2) How interest, penalties, and administrative costs are added to the Commerce debt, the date by which payment should be made to avoid such charges, and that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9 (
(3) The date by which payment should be made to avoid the enforced collection actions described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section;
(4) The Commerce entity's willingness to discuss alternative payment arrangements and how the debtor may enter into a written agreement to repay the Commerce debt under terms acceptable to the Commerce entity (
(5) The name, address, and telephone number of a contact person or office within the Commerce entity;
(6) The Commerce entity's intention to enforce collection by taking one or more of the following actions if the debtor fails to pay or otherwise resolve the Commerce debt:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(7) That Commerce debts over 120 days delinquent must be referred to the
(8) How the debtor may inspect and copy non-privileged records related to the Commerce debt;
(9) How the debtor may request a review of the Commerce entity's determination that the debtor owes a Commerce debt and present evidence that the Commerce debt is not delinquent or legally enforceable (
(10) How a debtor who is an individual may request a hearing if the Commerce entity intends to garnish the debtor's private sector (
(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;
(ii) That a request for a hearing, timely filed on or before the 15th business day following the date of the mailing of the notice, will stay the commencement of administrative wage garnishment, but not other collection procedures; and
(iii) The name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent.
(11) How a debtor who is an individual and a Federal employee subject to Federal salary offset may request a hearing (
(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;
(ii) That a request for a hearing, timely filed on or before the 15th day following receipt of the notice, will stay the commencement of salary offset, but not other collection procedures;
(iii) The name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent;
(iv) That the Commerce entity will refer the Commerce debt to the debtor's employing agency or to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service to implement salary offset, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;
(v) That a final decision on the hearing, if requested, will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for a hearing, unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
(vi) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the Federal employee to penalties under the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729-3731) or other applicable statutory authority, and criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or other applicable statutory authority;
(vii) That unless prohibited by contract or statute, amounts paid on or deducted for the Commerce debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee; and
(viii) That proceedings with respect to such Commerce debt are governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716.
(12) How the debtor may request a waiver of the Commerce debt, if applicable.
(13) How the debtor's spouse may claim his or her share of a joint income tax refund by filing Form 8379 with the Internal Revenue Service (
(14) How the debtor may exercise other rights and remedies, if any, available to the debtor under programmatic statutory or regulatory authority under which the Commerce debt arose.
(15) That certain debtors and, if applicable, persons controlled by or controlling such debtors, may be ineligible for Federal Government loans, guaranties and insurance, grants, cooperative agreements or other sources of Federal funds (
(16) If applicable, the Commerce entity's intention to deny, suspend or revoke licenses, permits or privileges (see § 19.17(b) of this part); and
(17) That the debtor should advise the Commerce entity of a bankruptcy proceeding of the debtor or another person liable for the Commerce debt being collected.
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
If a debtor is financially unable to pay the Commerce debt in one lump sum, a Commerce entity may accept payment of a Commerce debt in regular
If a Commerce entity cannot collect the full amount of a Commerce debt, the Commerce entity may, with legal counsel approval, compromise the Commerce debt in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR part 902 and the Commerce entity's policies and procedures. (
If, after pursuing all appropriate means of collection, a Commerce entity determines that a Commerce debt is uncollectible, the Commerce entity may, with legal counsel approval, suspend or terminate debt collection activity in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR part 903 and the Commerce entity's policies and procedures. Termination of debt collection activity by a Commerce entity does not discharge the indebtedness. (
(a) Commerce entities will transfer any Commerce debt that is more than 120 days delinquent to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service for debt collection services, a process known as “cross-servicing.”
(b) At least sixty (60) days prior to transferring a Commerce debt to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service, Commerce entities will send notice to the debtor as required by § 19.4 of this part. Commerce entities will certify to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service, in writing, that the Commerce debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection. In addition, Commerce entities will certify their compliance with all applicable due process and other requirements as described in this part and other Federal laws.
(c) As part of its debt collection process, the Bureau of the Fiscal Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect Commerce debts by administrative and tax refund offset.
(a)
(2) At least sixty (60) days prior to referring a Commerce debt to the Treasury Offset Program, in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, Commerce entities will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 19.4 of this part. Commerce entities will certify to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service, in writing, that the Commerce debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection by offset. In addition, Commerce entities will certify their compliance with the requirements described in this part.
(b)
(2) At least thirty (30) days prior to offsetting a payment internally or requesting a Federal payment agency to offset a payment, Commerce entities will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 19.4 of this part. When referring a Commerce debt for offset under this paragraph (b), Commerce entities making the request will certify, in writing, that the Commerce debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection by offset. In addition, Commerce entities will certify their compliance with these regulations concerning administrative offset.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(2) Nothing in this part requires a Commerce entity to collect a Commerce debt in accordance with the provisions of this section if Federal law allows otherwise.
(3) Commerce entities may use the administrative wage garnishment procedure described in § 19.13 of this part to collect a Commerce debt from an individual's non-Federal wages.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of any employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;
(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment of pay attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or
(3) Any adjustment to collect a Commerce debt amounting to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.
(e)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official, in which the employee and agency representative will be given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses and argument;
(ii) Informal meetings with an interview of the employee by the hearing official; or
(iii) Formal written submissions, with an opportunity for oral presentation.
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(i) A statement of the facts presented to support the origin, nature, and amount of the Commerce debt;
(ii) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
(iii) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.
(12)
(f)
(g)
(2)
(3)
(i) If the amount of the Commerce debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the disposable pay, such Commerce debt generally will be collected in one lump sum payment;
(ii) Installment deductions will be made over a period of no greater than the anticipated period of employment. An installment deduction will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount or the creditor agency has determined that smaller deductions are appropriate based on the employee's ability to pay.
(4)
(h)
(2) If the employee is already separated from employment and all payments due from his or her former payment agency have been made, Commerce entities may request that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, the Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the Commerce debt. Generally, Commerce entities will collect such monies through the Treasury Offset Program as described in § 19.9(c) of this part.
(3) When an employee transfers to another agency, Commerce entities should resume collection with the employee's new payment agency in order to continue salary offset.
(a) Commerce entities are authorized to collect Commerce debts from an individual debtor's wages by means of administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11. This part adopts and incorporates all of the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11 concerning administrative wage garnishment, including the hearing procedures described in 31 CFR 285.11(f). Commerce entities may use administrative wage garnishment to collect a delinquent Commerce debt unless the debtor is making timely payments under an agreement to pay the Commerce debt in installments (
(b) This section does not apply to Federal salary offset, the process by which Commerce entities collect Commerce debts from the salaries of Federal employees (
Commerce entities shall report delinquent Commerce debts to credit bureaus in accordance with the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3711(e), 31 CFR 901.4, and the Office of Management and Budget Circular A-129, “Policies for Federal Credit Programs and Non-tax Receivables.” For additional information,
Commerce entities will transfer delinquent Commerce debts to the Bureau of the Fiscal Service to obtain debt collection services provided by private collection agencies.
(a)
(b)
(a) Delinquent debtors are ineligible for and barred from obtaining Federal loans or loan insurance or guaranties. As required by 31 U.S.C. 3720B and 31 CFR 901.6, Commerce entities will not extend financial assistance in the form of a loan, loan guarantee, or loan insurance to any person delinquent on a debt owed to a Federal agency. Commerce Department may issue standards under which Commerce Department may determine that persons controlled by or controlling such delinquent debtors are similarly ineligible in accordance with 31 CFR 285.13(c)(2). This prohibition does not apply to disaster loans. Commerce entities may extend credit after the delinquency has been resolved.
(b) A debtor who has a judgment lien against the debtor's property for a debt to the United States is not eligible to receive grants, loans or funds directly or indirectly from the United States until the judgment is paid in full or otherwise satisfied. This prohibition does not apply to funds to which the debtor is entitled as beneficiary. Commerce Department may promulgate regulations to allow for waivers of this ineligibility.
(c) Suspension or revocation of eligibility for licenses, permits, or privileges. Unless prohibited by law, Commerce entities with the authority to do so under the circumstances should deny, suspend or revoke licenses, permits, or other privileges for any inexcusable or willful failure of a debtor to pay a debt. The Commerce entity responsible for distributing the licenses, permits, or other privileges will establish policies and procedures governing suspension and revocation for delinquent debtors. If applicable, Commerce entities will advise the debtor in the notice required by § 19.4 of this part of the Commerce entities' ability to deny, suspend or revoke licenses, permits or privileges.
(d) To the extent that a person delinquent on a Commerce debt is not otherwise barred under § 19.17(a) and § 19.17 (c) of this part from becoming or remaining a recipient of a Commerce Department grant or cooperative agreement, it is Commerce Department policy that no award of Federal funds shall be made to a Commerce Department grant or cooperative agreement applicant who has an outstanding delinquent Commerce debt until:
(1) The delinquent Commerce debt is paid in full,
(2) A negotiated repayment schedule acceptable to Commerce Department is established and at least one payment is received, or
(3) Other arrangements satisfactory to Commerce Department are made.
(a)
(b)
(1) Income from all sources;
(2) Assets;
(3) Liabilities;
(4) Number of dependents;
(5) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;
(6) Medical expenses;
(7) Exceptional expenses, if any; and
(8) Any additional materials and information that the Commerce entity may request relating to ability or inability to pay the amount(s) currently required.
(c)
Commerce entities shall promptly refund to a debtor any amount collected on a Commerce debt when the Commerce debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owed to the United States, or as otherwise required by law. Refunds under this part shall not bear interest unless required by law.
(a)
(2) This subpart C does not apply to Commerce debts.
(3) This subpart C does not apply to the collection of non-Commerce debts through tax refund offset.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(d)
(2)
(e)
In Title 17 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 1 to 40, revised as of April 1, 2015, on page 12, in § 1.3, remove the second paragraph (aa)(3)(ii).
In Title 17 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 1 to 40, revised as of April 1, 2015, on page 205, in § 3.45, revise paragraph (b) to read as follows:
(b) An applicant for registration as an introducing broker who has received a temporary license may be guaranteed by a futures commission merchant or retail foreign exchange dealer other than the futures commission merchant or retail foreign exchange dealer which provided the initial guarantee agreement described in § 3.44(a)(1) of this subpart:
(1) Written notice of such termination and
(2) A new guarantee agreement with another futures commission merchant or retail foreign exchange dealer effective the day following the last effective date of the existing guarantee agreement.
In Title 17 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 1 to 40, revised as of April 1, 2015, on page 188-189, in § 3.10, revise paragraph (b) to read as follows:
(b)
(2) A person registered as an introducing broker who was a party to a guarantee agreement with a futures commission merchant or retail foreign exchange dealer in accordance with § 1.10(j) of this chapter will have its registration cease thirty days after the termination of such guarantee agreement unless the procedures set forth in § 1.10(j)(8) of this chapter are followed.
In Title 17 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 200 to 239, revised as of April 1, 2015, on page 19, in § 200.24, remove the words “Associate Executive Director of the Office of the Comptroller” and add in their place the words “Chief Financial Officer”.
In rule document 2016-03178, appearing on pages 8598-8637, in the issue of Friday, February 19, 2016, make the following corrections:
1. On page 8604, at the bottom of the page, footnotes 55, 56, 57, 58, and 59 were inadvertently duplicated and these duplicate set of footnotes should not have appeared in the published document.
2. On page 8605, in the second column, the heading titled “e. Current Estimates of Number of Security-Based Wwap Dealers” should read “e. Current Estimates of Number of Security-Based Swap Dealers”.
3. On page 8606, at the bottom page, footnote 75 was inadvertently duplicated and this duplicate footnote should not have appeared in the published document.
4. On page 8606, at the bottom of the page, footnote 77 was inadvertently omitted and it should have appeared as follows:
“
5. On page 8611, at the bottom of the page, in the first column, footnote 107, should read:
“
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing three special anchorage areas in the Connecticut River in the vicinity Old Saybrook, CT. This action is necessary to facilitate safe navigation in that area and provide safe and secure anchorages for vessels less than 20 meters in length. This action is intended to increase the safety of life and property in the Connecticut River in the vicinity of Old Saybrook, improve the safety of anchored vessels, and provide for the overall safe and efficient flow of vessel traffic and commerce.
This rule is effective April 11, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Mr. Craig Lapiejko, Waterways Management at Coast Guard First District, telephone 617-223-8351, email
On February 28, 2012, the Old Saybrook Harbor Management Commission sent a request to the Coast Guard to permanently establish new special anchorages on the Connecticut River. In response, on November 25, 2015, the Coast Guard published a NPRM titled, Anchorage Regulations; Connecticut River, Old Saybrook, CT (80 FR 73689). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to these anchorage areas. During the comment period that ended December 28, 2015, we received no comments.
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 471, 1221 through 1236, 2071; 33 CFR 1.05-1; and Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1. The purpose of this rule is reduce the risk of vessel collisions and to promote safe and efficient travel in the navigable channels of the Connecticut River adjacent to Calves Island, and also to aid the town of Old Saybrook in enforcing its mooring and boating regulations by clearly defining the mooring fields currently established by the town.
As noted above, we received no comments on our NPRM published November 25, 2015. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.
This rule establishes three new special anchorage areas, referred to as special anchorage areas A, B, and C in the Connecticut River in the vicinity of the Old Saybrook, CT. Special anchorage area A is approximately 680,800 sq. yards and is located between Ferry Point and Calves Island, upstream of the I-95/US RT 1 Baldwin Bridge. Special anchorage area B is approximately 51,200 sq. yards and located just east of North Cove. Special anchorage area C is approximately 185,400 sq. yards located in North Cove west of the navigable channel. Illustrations showing the locations of these special anchorage areas are available in the docket.
Vessels less than 20 meters in length are not required to sound signals under Rule 35 of the Inland Navigation Rules (33 CFR 83.35) nor exhibit anchor lights or shapes under Rule 30 of the Inland Navigation Rules (33 CFR 83.30) when at anchor in a special anchorage area. Additionally, mariners using these anchorage areas are encouraged to contact local and state authorities, such as the local harbormaster, to ensure compliance with any additional applicable state and local laws. Such laws may involve, for example, compliance with direction from the local harbormaster when placing or using moorings within the anchorage.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
We expect minimal additional cost impacts on fishing, or recreational boats anchoring because this rule would not affect normal surface navigation. Although this regulation may have some impact on the public, the potential impact will be minimized for the following reasons: (1) Normal surface navigation will not be affected, as these three areas in the Connecticut River in the vicinity of the eastern portion of Old Saybrook have been historically used as a mooring field by the town of Old Saybrook; (2) this rule would simply permit eligible vessels, in the existing mooring areas, to not use sound signals or exhibit anchor lights or shapes when at anchor; (3) it encourages the use of these special anchorage areas; and (4) the number of vessels using these special anchorage areas is limited due to water depth (less than or equal to 18 feet).
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the Connecticut River in Old Saybrook, CT may be small entities, for the reasons stated above in section V.A, this rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves the establishment of special anchorage grounds. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(f) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. An environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
Anchorage grounds.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 110 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 471; 1221 through 1236, 2071; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
All coordinates referenced use datum NAD 83. All anchoring in the areas is under the supervision of the town of Old Saybrook Harbor Master or other such authority as may be designated by the authorities of the town of Old Saybrook, Connecticut. Mariners using these special anchorage areas are encouraged to contact local and state authorities, such as the local harbormaster, to ensure compliance with any additional applicable state and local laws. This area is principally for use by recreational craft. Temporary floats or buoys for marking anchors or moorings in place are allowed in this area. Fixed mooring piles or stakes are not allowed. All moorings or anchors shall be placed well within the anchorage areas so that no portion of the hull or rigging will at any time extend outside of the anchorage.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the S37 Bridge across the Barnegat Bay, mile 14.1, New Jersey Intracoastal Waterway, at Seaside Heights, NJ. This deviation is necessary to perform bridge maintenance and repairs. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective from 8 p.m. on March 31, 2016 to 8 p.m. on April 17, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0126] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Hal R. Pitts, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6222, email
The New Jersey Department of Transportation, that owns and operates the S37 Bridge, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations to continue performing a maintenance and repair project on the bridge that commenced at 8 a.m. on December 1, 2015 and was scheduled to cease at 8 p.m. on March 31, 2016. The bridge is a bascule draw bridge and has a vertical clearance in the closed position of 30 feet above mean high water.
The current operating schedule as set out in 33 CFR 117.733(c) allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to- navigation position from 8 a.m. December 1, 2015 until 8 p.m. March 31, 2016. Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will continue to remain in the closed-to-navigation position from 8 p.m. on March 31, 2016 to 8 p.m. on April 17, 2016.
The Barnegat Bay on the New Jersey Intracoastal Waterway is used by a variety of vessels including small government and public vessels, small commercial vessels, and recreational vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to safely pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transit to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the S165 (North Landing Road) Bridge across the North Landing River, mile 20.2, at Chesapeake, VA. This deviation is necessary to perform emergency bridge repairs. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective without actual notice from March 11, 2016 through 6 p.m. on June 30, 2016. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from March 8, 2016 at 8:45 a.m., until March 11, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0181] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Hal R. Pitts, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6222, email
The United States Army Corps of Engineers, Norfolk District Office, that owns and operates the S165 (North Landing Road) Bridge, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations to perform emergency repairs to the south swing span of the bridge due to damage sustained as a result of a vessel allision with the bridge. The bridge is a double swing draw bridge and has a vertical clearance in the closed position of 6 feet above mean high water.
The current operating schedule is set out in 33 CFR 117.1021. Under this temporary deviation, the north span of the bridge will open-to-navigation on the hour and half hour, upon request, from 6 a.m. to 7 p.m., and on demand from 7 p.m. to 6 a.m. The North and South spans of the bridge will open to navigation concurrently, with the south span only opening partially due to damage, upon request, for scheduled openings at 10 a.m., noon and 2 p.m., Monday through Friday. The horizontal clearance of the bridge with the south span closed-to-navigation is 38 feet and the horizontal clearance of the bridge with the south span partially open-to-navigation is 70 feet.
The North Landing River is used by a variety of vessels including small U. S. government and public vessels, small commercial vessels, tug and barge, and recreational vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
During the closure times there will be limited opportunity for vessels able to safely pass through the bridge in the closed position to do so. Vessels able to safely pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so, after receiving confirmation from the bridge tender that it is safe to transit through the bridge. The north span of the bridge will be able to open for emergencies. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transit to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Delegation of authority; technical amendment.
This action announces that on October 26, 2015, EPA Region 10 and the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation, entered into a Partial Delegation of Administrative Authority agreement to carry out certain day-to-day activities associated with implementation of the Federal Implementation Plan for the Colville Reservation (Colville FIP). A note of this partial delegation is being added to the Colville FIP in the Code of Federal Regulations.
This rule is effective March 11, 2016.
The partial delegation of administrative authority was effective October 26, 2015.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2015-0847. The delegation agreement and other docket materials are available electronically at the EPA's electronic public docket and comment system, found at
All documents in the electronic docket are listed in the
Andra Bosneag at (206) 553-1226,
The purpose of this action is to announce that on October 26, 2015, EPA Region 10, delegated partial administrative authority for implementation of certain provisions of the Colville FIP to the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation. See 40 CFR part 49, subpart M, sections 9951 through 9960, as authorized by 40 CFR 49.122 of the Federal Air Rules for Reservations (FARR), 40 CFR part 49, subpart C.
Federal regulations at 40 CFR 49.122 provide the EPA authority to delegate to Indian Tribes partial administrative authority to implement provisions of the FARR, 40 CFR part 49, subpart C. Tribes must submit a request to the Regional Administrator that meets the requirements of 40 CFR 49.122.
On May 21, 2014, Chaitna Sinha of the Office of the Reservation Attorney of the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation submitted to the Regional Administrator a request for delegation of certain provision of the Colville FIP. That request included all the information and demonstrations required by the FARR for delegation. A copy of all documentation is on file at the EPA Region 10, Seattle, Washington office (see addresses above).
The Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation requested delegation for the following provisions: 40 CFR 49.9960(b) Rule for limiting visible emissions, 40 CFR 49.9960(i) General rule for open burning, and 40 CFR 49.9960(k) Rule for air pollution episodes.
The EPA and the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation signed a delegation agreement that specifies the provisions and authorities delegated. The Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation are delegated the following provisions; 40 CFR 49.9960(b) Rule for limiting visible emissions, 40 CFR 49.9960(i) General rule for open burning, and 40 CFR 49.9960(k) Rule for air pollution episodes. In addition, the agreement delegates to the Tribe authority to investigate complaints and assist the EPA in inspections. The agreement also includes terms and conditions applicable to the delegation. A copy of the agreement is kept at EPA Region 10 at the address above.
Prior to entering into the Delegation Agreement, the EPA solicited by letter, advice and insight on the proposed delegation from Okanogan County, Ferry County, City of Okanogan, Town of Nespelem, Town of Coulee Dam, Electric City, City of Omak, Lake Roosevelt National Recreation Area, Bureau of Land Management, and the United States Forest Service. One comment supporting delegation was received.
Section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), provides that, when an agency for good cause finds that notice and public procedure are impracticable, unnecessary or contrary to the public interest, the agency may issue a rule without providing notice and an opportunity for public comment. The EPA has determined that there is good cause for making today's rule final without prior proposal and opportunity for comment because the EPA is merely informing the public of partial delegation of administrative authority to the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation and making a technical amendment to the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) by adding a note announcing the partial delegation. Thus, notice and public procedure are unnecessary. The EPA finds that this constitutes good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B).
Moreover, since today's action does not create any new regulatory requirements, the EPA finds that good cause exists to provide for an immediate effective date pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
Under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011), this action
Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000), requires the EPA to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” is defined in the Executive Order to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” Under section 5(b) of Executive Order 13175, the EPA may not issue a regulation that has tribal implications, that imposes substantial direct compliance costs, and that is not required by statute, unless the Federal government provides the funds necessary to pay the direct compliance costs incurred by tribal governments, or the EPA consults with tribal officials early in the process of developing the proposed regulation. Under section 5(c) of Executive Order 13175, the EPA may not issue a regulation that has tribal implications and that preempts tribal law, unless the Agency consults with tribal officials early in the process of developing the regulation. The EPA has concluded that this rule may have tribal implications. The EPA's action fulfills a requirement to publish a notice announcing partial delegation of administrative authority to the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation and noting the partial delegation in the CFR. However, it will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on tribal governments, nor preempt tribal law. Thus, the requirements of sections 5(b) and 5(c) of the Executive Order do not apply to this rule.
This action also does not have Federalism implications because it does not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999). This technical amendment merely notes that partial delegation of administrative authority to the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation is in effect. This rule also is not subject to Executive Order 13045, “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because it is not economically significant.
This action does not involve technical standards; thus, the requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) do not apply. This rule does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by May 10, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this rule for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2))
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Indians, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The EPA entered into a Partial Delegation of Administrative Authority with the Confederated Tribes of the Colville Reservation on October 26, 2015 for the rules listed in paragraphs (b), (i), and (k) of this section.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS implements an accountability measure (AM) through this temporary rule for commercial harvest of king mackerel in the Florida
The closure is effective from 12:01 p.m., eastern standard time, March 11, 2016, until 6 a.m., eastern standard time, January 17, 2017.
Susan Gerhart, NMFS Southeast Regional Office, telephone: 727-824-5305, email:
The fishery for coastal migratory pelagic fish (king mackerel, Spanish mackerel, and cobia) is managed under the Fishery Management Plan for the Coastal Migratory Pelagic Resources of the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic (FMP). The FMP was prepared by the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic Fishery Management Councils and is implemented by NMFS under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) by regulations at 50 CFR part 622.
Gulf migratory group king mackerel's Florida west coast subzone of the Gulf eastern zone is divided into northern and southern subzones, each with separate commercial quotas. From November 1 through March 31, the southern subzone encompasses an area of the EEZ south of a line extending due west of the Lee and Collier County, FL, boundary on the Florida west coast, and south of a line extending due east of the Monroe and Miami-Dade County, FL, boundary on the Florida east coast, which includes the EEZ off Collier and Monroe Counties, FL. From April 1 through October 31, the southern subzone is reduced to the EEZ off Collier County, and the EEZ off Monroe County becomes part of the Atlantic migratory group area (50 CFR 622.369(a)(1)(ii)(A)(
The commercial quota for the Gulf migratory group king mackerel in the Florida west coast southern subzone is 551,448 lb (250,133 kg) for vessels using run-around gillnet gear (50 CFR 622.384(b)(1)(i)(B)(
Regulations at 50 CFR 622.8(b) and 622.388(a)(1) require NMFS to close any segment of the king mackerel commercial sector when its quota has been reached, or is projected to be reached, by filing a notification with the Office of the Federal Register. NMFS has determined that the commercial quota of 551,448 lb (250,133 kg) for Gulf group king mackerel for vessels using run-around gillnet gear in the Florida west coast southern subzone will be reached by March 11, 2016. Accordingly, commercial fishing using such gear in the Florida west coast southern subzone is closed at 12:01 p.m., eastern standard time, March 11, 2016, until 6 a.m., eastern standard time, January 17, 2017, the beginning of the next fishing season,
Persons aboard a vessel for which a commercial permit for king mackerel has been issued, except persons who also possess a king mackerel gillnet permit, may fish for or retain Gulf group king mackerel harvested using hook-and-line gear in the Florida west coast southern subzone unless the commercial quota for hook-and-line gear has been met and the hook-and-line segment of the commercial sector has been closed. A person aboard a vessel that has a valid charter vessel/headboat permit for coastal migratory pelagic fish may continue to retain king mackerel in or from closed zones or subzones under the bag and possession limits set forth in 50 CFR 622.382(a)(1)(ii) and (a)(2), provided the vessel is operating as a charter vessel or headboat. A charter vessel or headboat that also has a commercial king mackerel permit is considered to be operating as a charter vessel or headboat when it carries a passenger who pays a fee or when there are more than three persons aboard, including operator and crew.
During the closure, king mackerel harvested using run-around gillnet gear in the Florida west coast southern subzone may not be purchased or sold. This prohibition does not apply to king mackerel harvested using run-around gillnet gear in the Florida west coast southern subzone that were harvested, landed ashore, and sold prior to the closure and were held in cold storage by a dealer or processor.
The Regional Administrator, Southeast Region, NMFS, has determined this temporary rule is necessary for the conservation and management of Gulf migratory group king mackerel and is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable laws.
This action is taken under 50 CFR 622.8(b) and 622.388(a)(1) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
These measures are exempt from the procedures of the Regulatory Flexibility Act because the temporary rule is issued without opportunity for prior notice and comment.
This action responds to the best scientific information available. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds that the need to immediately implement this action to close the segment of the fishery that uses run-around gillnet gear constitutes good cause to waive the requirements to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), because prior notice and opportunity for public comment on this temporary rule is unnecessary and contrary to the public interest. Such procedures are unnecessary, because the rule implementing the commercial quota and the associated requirement for closure of the commercial harvest when the commercial quota is reached or projected to be reached has already been subject to notice and comment, and all that remains is to notify the public of the closure. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment is contrary to the public interest, because any delay in the closure of the commercial harvest could result in the commercial quota being exceeded. There is a need to immediately implement this action to protect the king mackerel resource, because the capacity of the fishing fleet allows for rapid harvest of the quota. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment on this action would require time and would potentially result in a harvest well in excess of the established quota.
For the aforementioned reasons, the AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS implements an accountability measure for the commercial longline component for golden tilefish in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of the South Atlantic. Commercial longline landings for golden tilefish are projected to reach the longline component's commercial annual catch limit (ACL) on March 15, 2016. Therefore, NMFS closes the commercial longline component for golden tilefish in the South Atlantic EEZ on March 15, 2016, and it will remain closed until the start of the next fishing year, January 1, 2017. This closure is necessary to protect the golden tilefish resource.
This rule is effective 12:01 a.m., local time, March 15, 2016, until 12:01 a.m., local time, January 1, 2017.
Nikhil Mehta, NMFS Southeast Regional Office, telephone: 727-824-5305, email:
The snapper-grouper fishery of the South Atlantic includes golden tilefish and is managed under the Fishery Management Plan for the Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic Region (FMP). The FMP was prepared by the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council and is implemented by NMFS under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) by regulations at 50 CFR part 622.
On April 23, 2013, NMFS published a final rule to implement Amendment 18B to the FMP (78 FR 23858). Amendment 18B to the FMP established a longline endorsement program for the commercial golden tilefish component of the snapper-grouper fishery and allocated the commercial golden tilefish ACL (equivalent to the commercial quota) between two gear groups, the longline and hook-and-line components as commercial quotas.
The commercial quota for the longline component for golden tilefish in the South Atlantic is 405,971 lb (184,145 kg), gutted weight, for the current fishing year, January 1 through December 31, 2016, as specified in 50 CFR 622.190(a)(2)(iii).
Under 50 CFR 622.193(a)(1)(ii), NMFS is required to close the commercial longline component for golden tilefish when the longline component's commercial quota has been reached, or is projected to be reached, by filing a notification to that effect with the Office of the Federal Register. After the commercial quota for the longline component is reached or projected to be reached, golden tilefish may not be fished for or possessed by a vessel with a golden tilefish longline endorsement. NMFS has determined that the commercial quota for the longline component for golden tilefish in the South Atlantic will be reached on March 15, 2016. Accordingly, the commercial longline component for South Atlantic golden tilefish is closed effective 12:01 a.m., local time, March 15, 2016, until 12:01 a.m., local time, January 1, 2017.
During the commercial longline closure, golden tilefish may still be harvested commercially using hook-and-line gear. However, a vessel with a golden tilefish longline endorsement is not eligible to fish for or possess golden tilefish using hook-and-line gear under the hook-and-line trip limit, as specified in 50 CFR 622.191(a)(2)(ii). The operator of a vessel with a valid commercial vessel permit for South Atlantic snapper-grouper and a valid commercial longline endorsement for golden tilefish having golden tilefish on board must have landed and bartered, traded, or sold such golden tilefish prior to 12:01 a.m., local time, March 15, 2016. During the commercial longline closure, the bag limit and possession limits specified in 50 CFR 622.187(b)(2)(iii) and (c)(1), respectively, apply to all harvest or possession of golden tilefish in or from the South Atlantic EEZ by a vessel with a golden tilefish longline endorsement. The sale or purchase of longline-caught golden tilefish taken from the EEZ is prohibited during the commercial longline closure. The prohibition on sale or purchase does not apply to the sale or purchase of longline-caught golden tilefish that were harvested, landed ashore, and sold prior to 12:01 a.m., local time, March 15, 2016, and were held in cold storage by a dealer or processor. Additionally, the bag and possession limits and the sale and purchase provisions of the commercial closure apply to a person on board a vessel with a golden tilefish longline endorsement, regardless of whether the golden tilefish are harvested in state or Federal waters, as specified in 50 CFR 622.190(c)(1).
The Regional Administrator, Southeast Region, NMFS, has determined this temporary rule is necessary for the conservation and management of South Atlantic golden tilefish and is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable laws.
This action is taken under 50 CFR 622.193(a)(1)(ii) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
These measures are exempt from the procedures of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, because the temporary rule is issued without opportunity for prior notice and comment.
This action responds to the best scientific information available. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds that the need to immediately implement this action to close the commercial longline component for golden tilefish constitutes good cause to waive the requirements to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), as such procedures for this temporary rule would be unnecessary and contrary to the public interest. Such procedures are unnecessary, because the regulations at 50 CFR 622.193(a)(1)(ii) have already been subject to notice and comment, and all that remains is to notify the public of the closure. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment on this action are contrary to the public interest, because there is a need to immediately implement this action to protect the golden tilefish resource since the capacity of the fishing fleet allows for rapid harvest of the commercial quota for the longline component. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment would require time and would potentially result in a harvest well in excess of the established commercial quota for the longline component.
For the aforementioned reasons, the AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effectiveness of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the A season apportionment of the 2016 Pacific cod total allowable catch allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), March 9, 2016, through 1200 hours, A.l.t., April 1, 2016.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The A season apportionment of the 2016 Pacific cod total allowable catch (TAC) allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI is 36,732 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015) and inseason adjustment (81 FR 184, January 5, 2016).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that the A season apportionment of the 2016 Pacific cod TAC allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI will soon be reached. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 36,000 mt and is setting aside the remaining 732 mt as bycatch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance has been reached. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI.
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and § 679.25(c)(1)(ii) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the closure of directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of March 7, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule.
NMFS is reallocating the projected unused amounts of the Aleut Corporation pollock directed fishing allowance from the Aleutian Islands subarea to the Bering Sea subarea. This action is necessary to provide opportunity for harvest of the 2016 total allowable catch of pollock, consistent with the goals and objectives of the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), March 11, 2016 through 2400 hrs Alaska Local time, December 31, 2016.
Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
In the Aleutian Islands subarea, the portion of the 2016 pollock total allowable catch (TAC) allocated to the Aleut Corporation directed fishing allowance (DFA) is 14,700 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015), and as adjusted by an inseason adjustment (81 FR 184, January 5, 2016).
As of March 4, 2016, the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, (Regional Administrator) has determined that 5,000 mt of the Aleut Corporation pollock DFA in the
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the reallocation of Aleutian Island subarea pollock. Since the pollock fishery is currently underway, it is important to immediately inform the industry as to the final Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands pollock allocations. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery; allow the industry to plan for the fishing season and avoid potential disruption to
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule; extension of comment period.
We are extending the comment period for our proposed rule that would amend the Animal Welfare Act regulations concerning the humane handling, care, treatment, and transportation of marine mammals in captivity. This action will allow interested persons additional time to prepare and submit comments.
The comment period for the proposed rule published on February 3, 2016 (81 FR 5629) is extended. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before May 4, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. Barbara Kohn, Senior Staff Veterinarian, Animal Care, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 84, Riverdale, MD 20737-1234; (301) 851-3751.
On February 3, 2016, we published in the
Comments on the proposed rule were required to be received on or before April 4, 2016. We are extending the comment period on Docket No. APHIS-2006-0085 for an additional 30 days. This action will allow interested persons additional time to prepare and submit comments.
7 U.S.C. 2131-2159; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.7.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule; extension of comment period.
We are extending the comment period for our proposed rule that would consolidate the domestic regulations governing bovine tuberculosis and those governing brucellosis and revise the bovine tuberculosis- and brucellosis-related import requirements for cattle and bison to make these requirements clearer and assure that they more effectively mitigate the risk of introduction of these diseases into the United States. This action will allow interested persons additional time to prepare and submit comments.
The comment period for the proposed rule published on December 16, 2015 (80 FR 78462) is extended. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before May 16, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Domestic regulatory provisions: Dr. C. William Hench, Senior Staff Veterinarian, Ruminant Health Programs, VS, APHIS, 2150 Centre Avenue, Building B-3E20, Fort Collins, CO 80526-8117; (970) 4947378. Import-related regulatory provisions: Dr. Langston Hull, Director, Cattle Health Center, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-3363.
On December 16, 2015, we published in the
Comments on the proposed rule were required to be received on or before March 15, 2016. We are extending the comment period on Docket No. APHIS-2011-0044 to May 16, 2016. This action will allow interested persons additional time to prepare and submit comments.
7 U.S.C. 8301-8317; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Continental Motors, Inc. (CMI) TSIO-550-K, TSIOF-550-K, TSIO-550-C, TSIOF-550-D, and TSIO-550-N reciprocating engines. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of an uncommanded in-flight shutdown (IFSD) resulting in injuries and significant airplane damage. This proposed AD would require replacing the oil cooler cross fitting assembly. We are proposing this AD to prevent failure of the oil cooler cross fitting and engine, IFSD and loss of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this AD contact Continental Motors, Inc., 2039 Broad Street, Mobile, Alabama 36615; phone: 800-326-0089; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Scott Hopper, Aerospace Engineer, Atlanta Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: 404-474-5535; fax: 404-474-5606; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this NPRM. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
A Cirrus SR-22T crashed on November 3, 2015 due to an uncommanded IFSD. The crash caused four minor personal injuries and substantial airplane damage. The root cause of the engine IFSD was the loss of engine oil through the fatigue-induced fracture of an oil cooler cross fitting nipple. This condition, if not corrected, could result in failure of the oil cooler cross fitting and engine, IFSD, and loss of the airplane.
We reviewed CMI Critical Service Bulletin (CSB) No. CSB15-2C, dated November 9, 2015 and CMI CSB No. CSB15-7A, dated November 10, 2015. The CSBs describe detailed procedures for replacing oil cooler cross fittings, nipples, and bushings with a redesigned oil cooler cross fitting. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this NPRM because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This NPRM would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.”
CMI CSB No. CSB15-7A, dated November 10, 2015 requires replacing the oil cooler cross fitting, nipple, and bushing prior to further flight. CMI CSB No. CSB15-2C, dated November 9, 2015 requires replacing the oil cooler cross fitting, nipple, and bushing within 25 hours of engine operation or at the next scheduled inspection or engine service, whichever occurs first. This proposed AD requires replacing the fitting at the next engine maintenance event not to exceed 12 months or 100 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 1,307 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 1 hour per engine to comply with this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 10, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Continental Motors, Inc. (CMI) TSIO-550-K, TSIOF-550-K, TSIO-550-C, TSIOF-550-D, and TSIO-550-N reciprocating engines with an engine serial number below 1012296 and an oil cooler cross fitting, part number AN918-1J, installed.
This AD was prompted by a report of an uncommanded in-flight shutdown (IFSD) resulting in injuries and significant airplane damage. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the oil cooler cross fitting and engine, IFSD and loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within 12 months or 100 flight hours from the effective date of the AD, whichever occurs first, replace the oil cooler cross fitting, nipple, and bushing. Use the Action Required paragraphs III.1 through III.8 of CMI Critical Service Bulletin (CSB) No. CSB15-7A, dated November 10, 2015 or the Action Required paragraphs III.1 through III.8 of CMI CSB No. CSB15-2C, dated November 9, 2015, to perform the replacement.
(2) Reserved.
You may take credit for the replacement that is required by paragraph (e) of this AD, if the replacement was performed before the effective date of this AD using CMI CSB No. CSB15-2B, dated November 6, 2015 or earlier versions; or CSB No. CSB15-7, dated November 6, 2015.
The Manager, Atlanta Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Scott Hopper, Aerospace Engineer, Atlanta Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: 404-474-5535; fax: 404-474-5606; email:
(2) CMI CSB No. CSB15-7A, dated November 10, 2015 and CMI CSB No. CSB15-2C, dated November 9, 2015 can be obtained from CMI using the contact information in paragraph (h)(3) of this AD.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Continental Motors, Inc., 2039 Broad Street, Mobile, Alabama 36615; phone: 800-326-0089; Internet:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Turbomeca S.A. MAKILA 2A and MAKILA 2A1 turboshaft engines. This proposed AD was prompted by two occurrences of crack initiation on a ferrule of the diffuser. This proposed AD would require repetitive diffuser inspections and replacement of those diffusers that fail inspection. We are proposing this AD to prevent rupture of the ferrule of the diffuser, which could result in engine fire and damage to the helicopter.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Turbomeca S.A., 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: (33) 05 59 74 40 00; fax: (33) 05 59 74 45 15. You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Brian Kierstead, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued EASA AD 2015-0209, dated October 16, 2015 (referred to hereinafter as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of the affected diffuser and removal of those diffusers that fail the required inspection. You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Turbomeca S.A. has issued Alert Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. A298 72 2832, Version B, dated October 12, 2015. The Alert MSB describes procedures for repetitive inspections of the affected diffuser and depending on findings, accomplishment of the corrective action(s).
Turbomeca S.A. has issued Service Bulletin (SB) No. 298 72 2833, Version A, dated July 29, 2015. The SB identifies post-TU52 HP gas generator modules that have been released with a new ferrule after repair or overhaul in a Repair Center. When applying Alert Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. A298 72 2832, it is necessary to know if an HP gas generator module released by a Repair Center is equipped with a new ferrule.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of France, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the European Community, EASA has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of the affected diffuser and depending on findings, accomplishment of the corrective action(s).
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 10 engines installed on helicopters of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 2 hours per engine to comply with this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $1,700.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 10, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Turbomeca S.A. MAKILA 2A and MAKILA 2A1 turboshaft engine models with a high-pressure (HP) gas generator module (M03) that has modification (mod) TU 52 installed.
This AD was prompted by two occurrences of crack initiation on a ferrule of the diffuser, which propagated and led to the ferrule rupture. We are issuing this AD to prevent rupture of the ferrule of the diffuser, which could result in engine fire and damage to the helicopter.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Borescope inspect the centrifugal diffuser ferrule, part number (P/N) 0298210100, prior to the ferrule accumulating 700 hours, time since new or time since replacement or within 30 hours from the effective date of this AD, whichever is later. Use Accomplishment Instructions, paragraphs 2.4.1 through 2.4.2.2.1, of Turbomeca S.A. Alert Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 298 72 2832, Version B, dated October 12, 2015, to do the borescope inspections required by this AD.
(2) Repeat the borescope inspection required by this AD every 50 hours since last inspection.
(3) If any crack, loss of contact between the ferrule and diffuser axial vane, or any contact between the injection manifold supply pipe and the diffuser ferrule is found, remove the diffuser case and replace the ferrule with a part eligible for installation.
You may take credit for the actions required by paragraph (e) of this AD if you performed Turbomeca S.A. MSB No. 298 72 2832, Version A, dated September 3, 2015 before the effective date of this AD.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Brian Kierstead, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7772; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency AD 2015-0209, dated October 16, 2015, for more information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(3) Turbomeca S.A. Alert MSB No. A298 72 2832, Version B, dated October 12, 2015, can be obtained from Turbomeca S.A., using the contact information in paragraph (h)(5) of this proposed AD.
(4) Turbomeca S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No. 298 72 2833, Version A, dated July 29, 2015, can be obtained from Turbomeca S.A., using the contact information in paragraph (h)(5) of this proposed AD.
(5) For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Turbomeca S.A., 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: (33) 05 59 74 40 00; fax: (33) 05 59 74 45 15.
(6) You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Model AS 365 N3 helicopters. This proposed AD would require inspecting the cabin and cockpit for labels, placards, or markings that provide jettison procedure instructions for cabin doors, removing any labels, placards, or markings that are in an incorrect location, and installing placards where they are missing. This proposed AD is prompted by the determination that placards had not been installed according to specifications on newly manufactured helicopters. The proposed actions are intended to provide exit procedures during an emergency.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this proposed rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
David Hatfield, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
We invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from adopting the proposals in this document. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit only one time.
We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, we will consider all comments we receive on or before the closing date for comments. We will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. We may change this proposal in light of the comments we receive.
EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD No. 2015-0068-E, dated April 29, 2015, to correct an unsafe condition for Airbus Helicopters Model AS 365 N3 helicopters without external life rafts installed, except those helicopters modified in accordance with Airbus Helicopters modification (MOD) 0711B68, and Model AS 365 N3 helicopters with external life rafts installed, except those helicopters modified in accordance Airbus Helicopters MOD 0711B67 and MOD 0711B68. EASA advises that, during helicopter delivery after manufacturing, Airbus Helicopters identified that placards providing jettison procedure instructions for the cabin doors were not systematically installed or not installed in a proper location. This condition, if not corrected, could prevent the timely evacuation of the helicopter during an emergency. The EASA AD consequently requires determining whether any placards are missing or incorrectly located, installing any missing placards, and replacing any incorrectly located placards.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in its AD. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all known relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS365-11.00.02, Revision 2, dated April 23, 2015 (ASB). The service information describes procedures for replacing and installing cabin internal evacuation markings. The ASB reports that deviations in the locations of the cabin internal evacuation markings and missing markings were noted during the delivery of new helicopters. The ASB provides instructions about the locations of, characteristics of, and information contained in the markings.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This proposed AD would require, within 50 hours time-in-service (TIS), inspecting the cabin and cockpit for labels, placards, or markings that provide jettison procedure instructions for cabin doors in certain locations. If a label, placard, or marking is not located as required or is not visible and legible to every occupant, this proposed AD would require installing a placard in the required locations before further flight.
The EASA AD requires compliance within 14 days after the effective date of the EASA AD. This AD requires compliance within 50 hours TIS.
We estimate that this proposed AD would affect 15 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs would average $85 a work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect that inspecting the helicopter to determine the proper location and presence of cabin door jettison procedure placards and replacing and installing them would require 4 work hours and a parts cost of $70. We estimate a total cost of $410 per helicopter, and $6,150 for the U.S. fleet.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this proposed AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS 365 N3 helicopters, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as missing or incorrectly located information for exiting a helicopter. This condition could result in failure to jettison cabin doors during an emergency, resulting in death or injury of helicopter occupants.
We must receive comments by May 10, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Within 50 hours time-in-service:
(1) Inspect the cabin and cockpit for labels, placards, and markings that provide jettison procedure instructions for cabin doors.
(2) For the left and right side, remove any existing label, placard, and marking and install placards in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.B.2 and Figures 1 through 6, of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS365-11.00.02, Revision 2, dated April 23, 2015.
Actions accomplished before the effective date of this AD in accordance with Airbus Helicopters Modification (MOD) 0711B68 for helicopters without external life rafts or MOD 0711B68 and MOD 0711B67 for helicopters with external life rafts are considered acceptable for compliance with this AD.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: David Hatfield, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2015-0068-E, dated April 29, 2015. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 1100, Placards and Markings.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Agusta Model AB139 and AW139 helicopters. This proposed AD would require performing operational checks of both hydraulic systems. This proposed AD is prompted by an assessment of the hydraulic systems of the helicopter following an accident. The proposed actions are intended to prevent loss of hydraulic power to the flight controls and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this proposed rule, contact AgustaWestland, Product Support Engineering, Via del Gregge, 100, 21015 Lonate Pozzolo (VA) Italy, ATTN: Maurizio D'Angelo; telephone 39-0331-664757; fax 39 0331-664680; or at
Matt Wilbanks, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
We invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from adopting the proposals in this document. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit only one time.
We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, we will consider all comments we receive on or before the closing date for comments. We will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. We may change this proposal in light of the comments we receive.
EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD No. 2011-0207, dated October 20, 2011 (EASA 2011-0207), to correct an unsafe condition for certain serial-numbered Agusta Model AB139 and AW139 helicopters. An accident involving a Model AW139 helicopter caused the tail rotor (T/R), the T/R gearbox, and part of the fin to detach from the aircraft, rupturing the hydraulic lines and draining all of the hydraulic fluid. Investigation following the accident resulted in an assessment of the helicopter's hydraulic systems. According to EASA, this assessment revealed that an operational check of the hydraulic systems is necessary to ensure its functionality. EASA advises that this condition, if not corrected, could lead, in the case of multiple failures, to loss of hydraulic power and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter. To address this, EASA AD 2011-0207 requires, within 50 flight hours or 2 months, operational checks of the power control modules and shutoff valves and reporting the results to the manufacturer.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Italy and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Italy, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in its AD. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all known relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We reviewed Agusta Bollettino Tecnico No. 139-269, dated September 30, 2011 (BT 139-269), for Model AB139 and AW139 helicopters. BT 139-269 contains procedures for conducting operational checks of both hydraulic systems to confirm correct functionality. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This proposed AD would require, within 50 hours time-in-service (TIS), performing operational tests of the Number 1 and Number 2 hydraulic systems power control modules (PCMs), the tail shut-off valve, the PCM1 and PCM2 flight control shut-off valves, and the emergency landing gear shut-off valve for correct functionality. Depending on the results of the the operational checks, this proposed AD would require replacing a PCM, the tail shut-off valve, a flight control shut-off valve, the number 2 hydraulic control panel, the number 1 hydraulic module, the number 1 or number 2 PCM pressure switch, or repairing the electrical wiring.
The EASA AD requires reporting the results of the operational checks to Agusta, while the proposed AD does not. The EASA AD also requires compliance within 50 flight-hours or 2 months, while the proposed AD requires compliance within 50 hours TIS.
We estimate that this proposed AD would affect 102 helicopters of U.S. Registry. Based on an average labor rate of $85 per hour, we estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this proposed AD.
Performing the operational checks of the hydraulic systems would require about 2 work-hours for a total cost per helicopter of $170 and a total cost to U.S. operators of $17,340.
Replacing a PCM would require about 3 work-hours and required parts would cost about $87,136, for a cost per helicopter of $87,391.
Replacing a tail or flight control shut-off valve would require about 2 work-hours, and required parts would cost about $7,512, for a cost per helicopter of $7,682.
Replacing the number 2 hydraulic control panel would require about 2 work-hours, and required parts would cost about $8,165, for a cost per helicopter of $8,335.
Replacing the number 1 hydraulic module would require about 4 work-hours, and required parts would cost about $87,137, for a cost per helicopter of $87,477.
Replacing a PCM pressure switch would require about 2 work-hours, and required parts would cost about $6,974, for a cost per helicopter of $7,144.
Repairing the electrical wiring would require about 2 work-hours, and required parts would cost about $45, for a cost per helicopter of $215.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this proposed AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Agusta Model AB139 and AW139 helicopters, all serial numbers except serial number 31007, 31094, 31293, 31301, 31303, 31313, and 31329, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as an inoperative hydraulic shut-off valve, which could result in loss of hydraulic power and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
We must receive comments by May 10, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Within 50 hours time-in service:
(1) Perform an operational test of each Number 1 and Number 2 power control module (PCM). If the fluid level in the reservoir changes more than 5mm (0.196 in) in an hour, replace the affected PCM.
(2) Perform an operational test of each tail shut-off valve. If the 2 SERVO caution message is not illuminated and the UTIL SOV2 and TR SOV indications are in the open position:
(i) Disconnect the Tail Shutoff valve connector, HP4P1.
(ii) Disconnect the PCM2 connectors, A44P3 and A44P12.
(iii) Disconnect the TB38 terminal board connector, TB38P1.
(iv) Perform a continuity test from HP4P1-1 to A44P12-16, from HP4P1-2 to TB38P1-D, and from HP4P1-4 to A44P3-6.
(v) If there is no continuity, repair or replace the defective wiring.
(vi) If there is continuity, release the test lever of the PCM2 to the DOWN NORM position.
(vii) If the TRSVO indication stays in the closed position, replace the tail shutoff valve.
(3) Perform an operational test of the PCM 2 flight control shut-off valve as described in the Compliance Instructions, paragraphs 5.1. through 5.5., of Agusta Bollettino Tecnico No. 139-269, dated September 30, 2011 (BT 139-269).
(i) If the 2 SERVO caution message is illuminated:
(A) On the hydraulic control panel, lift the guard of the SOV1/SOV2 switch and set it to SOV2 (closed position). Make sure that the 2 HYD PRESS caution message and the HYD 2 PRESS warning light on the hydraulic control panel are illuminated.
(B) Reset the SOV1/SOV2 switch to the open position.
(C) If the 2 HYD PRESS and 2 SERVO caution messages remain illuminated:
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(ii) If the 2 HYD PRESS caution message is illuminated, the HYD 2 pressure indication is more than 190 bar (2,755 lbf/sq in), and the SOV2 shutoff valve is in the open position, replace the pressure switch on the Number 2 PCM.
(iii) If the closure of SOV 2 is indicated on the MFD hydraulic synoptic page, before further flight, replace the Number 2 PCM.
(4) Perform an operational test of the PCM 1 flight control shut-off valve as described in the Compliance Instructions, paragraphs 6.1. through 6.4., of BT 139-269.
(i) If the 1 SERVO caution message is illuminated:
(A) On the hydraulic control panel, lift the guard of the SOV1/SOV2 switch and set it to SOV1 (closed position). Make sure that the 1 HYD PRESS caution message and the HYD 1 PRESS warning light on the hydraulic control panel are illuminated.
(B) Reset the SOV1/SOV2 switch to the open position. If the 1 HYD PRESS and 1 SERVO caution messages remain illuminated:
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(ii) If the 1 HYD PRESS caution message is illuminated, the HYD 1 pressure indication is more than 190 bar (2,755 lbf/sq in), and the SOV1 shutoff valve is in the open position, replace the pressure switch on the Number 1 PCM.
(iii) If the closure of SOV 1 is indicated on the MFD hydraulic synoptic page, before further flight, replace the Number 1 PCM.
(4) Perform an operational test of the emergency landing gear shutoff valve as described in the Compliance Instructions, paragraphs 7.1. through 7.4., of BT 139-269.
(i) If the EMERG L/G PRESS caution message is illuminated, the HYD 1 pressure indication is more than 190 bar (2,755 lbf/sq in), and the UTIL SOV1 (LDG GEAR EMER) shutoff valve is in the open position, replace the pressure switch on the Number 1 PCM.
(ii) If the 1 HYD MIN caution message is illuminated, inspect the fluid level on the Number 1 PCM and inspect the Number 1 main hydraulic system for leaks.
(A) If the fluid level is between the FULL and ADD marks, or if there are no hydraulic fluid leaks, perform an operational test of the level switches. If the 1 HYD MIN caution message is illuminated, replace the Number 1 PCM.
(B) If there is a hydraulic fluid leak:
(
(2) If the 1 HYD MIN caution message remains illuminated, perform an operational test of the level switches.
(3) If the 1 HYD MIN caution message remains illuminated, replace the Number 1 PCM.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to Matt Wilbanks, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, Texas 76177;
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2011-0207, dated October 20, 2011. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 2900: Hydraulic Power.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede airworthiness directive (AD) 2006-18-14 that applies to all Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG (RRD) Tay 650-15 and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines. AD 2006-18-14 requires calculating and re-establishing the cyclic life of stage 1 high-pressure turbine (HPT) disks, part number (P/N) JR32013 and P/N JR33838, and stage 1 low-pressure turbine (LPT) disk, P/N JR32318A. This proposed AD would require re-calculating the cyclic life, and would impose a reduced cyclic life, of stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013. We are proposing this AD to prevent failure of stage 1 HPT disks, P/N JR32013 and P/N JR33838, and stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, which could result in an uncontained engine failure and damage to the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG, Eschenweg 11, Dahlewitz, 15827 Blankenfelde-Mahlow, Germany; phone: 49-0-33-7086-1064; fax: 49-0-33-7086-3276. You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Philip Haberlen, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7770; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On August 30, 2006, we issued AD 2006-18-14, Amendment 39-14753 (71 FR 52988, September 8, 2006), for all RRD Tay 650-15 and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines. AD 2006-18-14 requires calculating and re-establishing the cyclic life of stage 1 HPT disks, P/N JR32013 and P/N JR33838, and stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, that have been exposed to different engine flight plan profiles. AD 2006-18-14 also requires removing from service, using a drawdown schedule, those stage 1 HPT disks and stage 1 LPT disks operated under Tay 650-15 engine flight plan profiles A, B, C, or D; or operated under the Tay 651-54 engine datum flight profile, at reduced cyclic life limits. AD 2006-18-14 resulted from RRD updating their low-cycle-fatigue analysis for stage 1 HPT disks and stage 1 LPT disks and reducing their cyclic life limits. We issued AD 2006-18-14 to prevent cracks leading to turbine disk failure, which could result in an uncontained engine failure and damage to the airplane.
Since we issued AD 2006-18-14, RRD reviewed the cyclic life limit of parts affected by AD 2006-18-14; RRD concluded that the stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013, requires further cyclic life limit reduction. RRD did not further reduce the cyclic life limit of stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, or stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A. Accordingly, the cyclic life limits of stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, and stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, as imposed by AD 2006-18-14, remain unchanged in this proposed AD.
Since AD 2006-18-14 was issued, the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) issued AD 2015-0056, dated March 31, 2015 to reduce the cyclic life limits of the stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013.
RRD has issued Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) No. TAY-72-A1821, Revision 1 dated March 26, 2015. The Alert NMSB describes procedures to re-calculate the consumed cyclic life of stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require re-calculating and re-establishing the cyclic life of stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013. This proposed AD would also require removing from service those stage 1 HPT disks, P/N JR32013, depending on engine flight plan profiles and engine models, at certain reduced cyclic life limits, using a drawdown schedule.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 25 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 0.5 hours per engine to comply with this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. The pro-rated life limit reduction cost is about $23,053 per engine. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $577,388.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 10, 2016.
This AD supersedes AD 2006-18-14.
This AD applies to Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co (RRD) KG Tay 650-15 and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines with stage 1 high-pressure turbine (HPT) disks, part number (P/N) JR32013 or P/N JR33838, or stage 1 low-pressure turbine (LPT) disks,P/N JR32318A, installed.
This AD was prompted by RRD reducing the cyclic life limit for certain stage 1 HPT disks, P/N JR32013. We are issuing this AD to prevent cracks leading to turbine disk failure, which could result in an uncontained engine failure and damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Re-calculate the cyclic life of stage 1 HPT disks, P/N JR32013, as follows:
(i) If a stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013, was ever operated under a different engine flight plan profile than the engine flight plan profile operated on the last flight, and/or was ever installed and operated in a different engine model, do the following:
(A) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, re-calculate the cyclic life for each stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013, using paragraphs 3.A.(1)(b)(1) through 3.A.(1)(b)(4) of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) No. TAY-72-A1821, Revision 1, dated March 26, 2015.
(B) Reserved.
(ii) If you change your flight plan profile and/or install a stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013 or P/N JR33838, or stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, into a different engine model after the effective date of this AD, re-calculate the cyclic life of the part(s) as described in paragraph (e)(1)(i)(A) of this AD within 30 days of making the change.
(2) For engines with a stage 1 HPT disk,P/N JR32013, installed, do the following:
(i) Remove from service any stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR32013, within 100 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD or before exceeding the new, reduced cyclic life limits specified in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(A) through (e)(2)(i)(E) of this AD, whichever occurs later, as follows:
(A) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile A, the new, reduced cyclic life limit is 18,900 flight cycles-since-new (FCSN).
(B) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile B, the new, reduced cyclic life limit is 15,500 FCSN.
(C) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile C, the new, reduced cyclic life limit is 11,500 FCSN.
(D) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile D, the new, reduced cyclic life limit is 9,300 FCSN.
(E) For RRD Tay 651-54 engines operated under any engine flight plan profile, the new, reduced cyclic life limit is 10,873 FCSN.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For engines with a stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, or stage 1 LPT disk,P/N JR32318A, installed, do the following:
(i) Remove from service any stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, or stage 1 LPT disk, P/N
(A) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile A, the cyclic life limit for stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, and stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, is 23,000 FCSN.
(B) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile B, the cyclic life limit for stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, is 20,000 FCSN; and the cyclic life limit for stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, is 21,000 FCSN.
(C) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile C, the cyclic life limit for stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, is 14,700 FCSN; and the cyclic life limit for stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, is 18,000 FCSN.
(D) For RRD Tay 650-15 engines operated under engine flight plan profile D, the cyclic life limit for stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, is 11,000 FCSN; and the cyclic life limit for stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, is 14,250 FCSN.
(E) For RRD Tay 651-54 engines operated under any engine flight plan profile, the cyclic life limit for stage 1 HPT disk, P/N JR33838, is 12,600 FCSN and the cyclic life limit for stage 1 LPT disk, P/N JR32318A, is 20,000 FCSN.
(ii) Reserved.
After the effective date of this AD, do not install any part identified in paragraph (e) of this AD into any engine, or return any engine to service with any part identified in paragraph (e) of this AD, installed, if the part exceeds the cyclic life limit specified in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this AD.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Philip Haberlen, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7770; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency, AD 2015-0056, dated March 31, 2015, for more information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(3) Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-A1821, Revision 1, dated March 26, 2015 can be obtained from Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG, using the contact information in paragraph (h)(4) of this AD.
(4) For service information identified in this AD, contact Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG, Eschenweg 11, Dahlewitz, 15827 Blankenfelde-Mahlow, Germany; phone: 49-0-33-7086-1064; fax: 49-0-33-7086-3276.
(5) You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede airworthiness directive (AD) 2010-11-10 that applies to all Turbomeca S.A., Astazou XIV B and XIV H turboshaft engines. AD 2010-11-10 requires inspection of certain third stage turbine wheels and removal of any damaged wheel. This AD was prompted by a report of a third stage turbine wheel crack detected during engine overhaul. This proposed AD would expand the population and frequency of repetitive inspections. We are proposing this AD to prevent uncontained failure of the third stage turbine wheel, which could result in damage to the engine and damage to the helicopter.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 10, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Turbomeca S.A., 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: (33) 05 59 74 40 00; fax: (33) 05 59 74 45 15. You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Contact Brian Kierstead, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7772, fax: 781-238-7199; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On May 19, 2010, we issued AD 2010-11-10, Amendment 39-16315 (75 FR 30270, June 1, 2010), (“AD 2010-11-10”), for all Turbomeca S.A., Astazou XIV B and XIV H turboshaft engines. AD 2010-11-10 requires inspection of
We are issuing this AD to prevent uncontained failures of the third stage turbine wheel, which could result in damage to the engine and damage to the helicopter.
Since we issued AD 2010-11-10, Turbomeca reported a cracked third stage turbine wheel discovered during engine overhaul. As a result of the crack, Turbomeca S.A., expanded the population of affected wheels and inspection frequency. Turbomeca S.A., Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 283 72 0804, Version D, dated July 24, 2015 addresses the increased population and inspection frequency. Also, since we issued AD 2010-11-10, (EASA) has issued AD 2015-0211, dated October 15, 2015, which supersedes EASA AD 2010-0004, dated January 5, 2010.
Turbomeca S.A., has issued MSB No. 283 72 0804, Version D, dated July 24, 2015. That MSB describes procedures for expanding the frequency of repetitive inspections. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
Turbomeca S.A., has issued Service Bulletin (SB) No. 283 72 0805, Version B, dated December 15, 2010. That SB describes terminating action for the inspections. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require expanding the frequency of repetitive inspections. We are proposing this AD to prevent uncontained failure of the third stage turbine wheel, which could result in damage to the engine, and damage to the helicopter.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects seven engines installed on helicopters of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 5 hours per engine to comply with this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $2,975.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 10, 2016.
This AD supersedes AD 2010-11-10.
This AD applies to Turbomeca S.A., Astazou XIV B and XIV H turboshaft engines with the following part number (P/N) and serial number (S/N) third stage turbine wheels that incorporate modification AB 173 (Turbomeca S.A., Service Bulletin (SB) No. 283 72 0091) or modification AB 208 (Turbomeca S.A., SB No. 283 72 0117). This AD does not apply to third stage turbine wheels that incorporate Turbomeca SB No. 283 72 805.
(1) Third stage turbine wheels, P/N 0 265 25 700 0, all S/Ns;
(2) Third stage turbine wheels, P/N 0 265 25 702 0, all S/Ns;
(3) Third stage turbine wheels, P/N 0 265 25 706 0, all S/Ns;
(4) Third stage turbine wheels, P/N 0 265 25 705 0, with an S/N listed in Appendix 2.1 of Turbomeca S.A., Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 283 72 0804, Version D, dated July 24, 2015.
This AD was prompted by a report of a third stage turbine wheel crack detected during engine overhaul. We are issuing this AD to prevent uncontained failure of the third stage turbine wheel, which could result in damage to the engine and damage to the helicopter.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Perform a dye penetrant inspection of the third stage turbine wheel. Use paragraph
(i) Inspect third stage turbine wheels with 300 engine cycles (EC) or more accumulated since last inspection, or since new, or since last overhaul, or since repair, within 100 EC after the effective date of this AD.
(ii) Inspect third stage turbine wheels with less than 300 EC accumulated since last inspection, or since new, or since last overhaul, or since repair, within 400 EC since last inspection, or since new, or since last overhaul, or since repair.
(2) Repeat the inspection required by this AD within 400 EC since last inspection.
(3) Remove from service any third stage turbine wheels that fail the inspection required by this AD.
Application of Turbomeca S.A., SB No. 283 72 0805, Version B, dated December 15, 2010 is terminating action for the inspections required by paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this AD.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Brian Kierstead, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7772; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI EASA AD 2015-0211, dated October 15, 2015, for related information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(3) Turbomeca S.A., MSB No. 283 72 0804, Version D, dated July 24, 2015 and Turbomeca S.A., SB No. 283 72 0805, Version B, dated December 15, 2010, can be obtained from Turbomeca, using the contact information in paragraph (h)(4) of this AD.
(4) For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Turbomeca S.A., 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: (33) 05 59 74 40 00; fax: (33) 05 59 74 45 15.
(5) You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class D airspace, Class E airspace designated as surface areas, and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Antlers, OK; Oklahoma City, OK; Oklahoma City Wiley Post Airport, OK; and Shawnee, OK. The decommissioning of non-directional radio beacons (NDB) and/or cancellation of NDB approaches due to advances in Global Positioning System (GPS) capabilities have made this action necessary for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the above locations. This action also would note the updated airport names of David Jay Perry Airport, Goldsby, OK; El Reno Regional Airport, Shawnee Regional Airport, and Chandler Regional Airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. Additionally, this action would update the geographic coordinates for Tinker AFB, El Reno Regional Airport, Wiley Post Airport, Sundance Airpark, Seminole Municipal Airport, Prague Municipal Airport, Chandler Regional Airport, Tilghman NDB, Cushing Municipal Airport, Cushing NDB, and Cushing Regional Hospital Heliport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Comments must be received on or before April 25, 2016.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-7857; Airspace Docket No. 15-ASW-22, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX, 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class E airspace at Antlers Municipal Airport, Antlers, OK; El Reno Regional Airport, Oklahoma City, OK; and Prague Municipal Airport, Shawnee, OK.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document would amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Antlers Municipal Airport, Antlers, OK; El Reno Regional Airport, Oklahoma City, OK; and Prague Municipal Airport, Shawnee, OK. The proposed airspace reconfigurations are due to decommissioning of NDBs and/or cancellation of the NDB approaches at each airport. This action is necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations under Standard Instrument Approach Procedures. Additionally, this proposal would note the name change of the following airports: El Reno Regional Airport (formerly El Reno Municipal Airpark; David Jay Perry Airport, Goldsby, OK (formerly David J. Perry Airport, Norman, OK); Shawnee Regional Airport (formerly Shawnee Municipal Airport); and Chandler Regional Airport (formerly Chandler Municipal Airport). Geographic coordinates also would be adjusted for the following airports and navigation aids: Tinker AFB; El Reno Regional Airport; Wiley Post Airport; Sundance Airpark; Seminole Municipal Airport; Prague Municipal Airport; Chandler Regional Airport; Tilghman NDB; Cushing Municipal Airport; Cushing NDB; and Cushing Regional Hospital Heliport.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,800 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of Wiley Post Airport excluding that airspace within the Oklahoma City, Will Rogers World Airport, OK, Class C airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
Within a 4.3-mile radius of Wiley Post Airport excluding that airspace within the
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.3-mile radius of Antlers Municipal Airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within an 8.1-mile radius of Will Rogers World Airport, and within an 8.2-mile radius of Tinker AFB, and within an 8.9-mile radius of University of Oklahoma Westheimer Airpark, and within 1.8 miles each side of the University of Oklahoma Westheimer Airpark ILS Localizer southwest course extending from the 8.9- mile radius to 12 miles southwest of the airport, and within a 6.3-mile radius of David Jay Perry Airport, and within a 6.5-mile radius of Clarence E. Page Airport, and within a 6.6-mile radius of El Reno Regional Airport, and within a 6.8-mile radius of Wiley Post Airport, and within a 6.8-mile radius of Sundance Airpark.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Shawnee Regional Airport, and within a 6.6-mile radius of Seminole Municipal Airport, and within a 6.3-mile radius of Prague Municipal Airport, and within a 6.4-mile radius of Chandler Regional Airport, and within 2.5 miles each side of the 352° bearing from the Tilghman NDB extending from the 6.4-mile radius to 7.3 miles north of the airport, and within a 6.5-mile radius of Cushing Municipal Airport and within 2.1 miles each side of the 185° bearing from the Cushing NDB extending from the 6.5-mile radius to 9.3 miles south of the airport, and that airspace within a 6-mile radius of the Point In Space serving Cushing Regional Hospital Heliport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Portales Municipal Airport, Clovis, NM. This action is necessary due to the decommissioning of the Portales non-directional radio beacon (NDB), cancellation of NDB approaches at Portales Municipal Airport, and implementation of area navigation (RNAV) procedures at the airport. This action will also update the geographic coordinates for Portales Municipal Airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. This proposal would enhance the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations in the Clovis, NM, airspace area.
Comments must be received on or before April 25, 2016.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-0449; Airspace Docket No. 16-ASW-2, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX, 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-0449/Airspace Docket No. 16-ASW-2.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document would amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Portales Municipal Airport, Clovis, NM. After a review of the airspace, the FAA found modification of the airspace necessary due to the decommissioning of the Portales NDB, cancellation of NDB approaches at Portales Municipal Airport, and implementation of RNAV procedures at the airport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations in standard instrument approach procedures at the airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 20-mile radius of Cannon AFB, and within a 6.6-mile radius of Portales Municipal Airport, and within 8 miles north and 4 miles south of the 072° radial of the Texico VORTAC extending from the 20-mile radius to 16 miles east of the VORTAC.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Clean Air Act (CAA) requires each State Implementation Plan (SIP) to contain adequate provisions prohibiting air emissions that will have certain adverse air quality effects in other states. On October 20, 2015, the State of Oregon made a submittal to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to address these requirements. The EPA is proposing to approve the submittal as meeting the requirements that each SIP contain adequate provisions to prohibit emissions that will contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 lead (Pb) and 2010 nitrogen dioxide (NO
Written comments must be received on or before April 11, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2016-0050, at
Kristin Hall at (206) 553-6357,
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On October 15, 2008, the EPA revised the level of the primary and secondary Pb NAAQS from 1.5 micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m
The CAA requires states to submit SIPs meeting sections 110(a)(1) and (2) within three years after promulgation of a new or revised standard. CAA sections 110(a)(1) and (2) address basic SIP requirements, including but not limited to emissions inventories, monitoring, and modeling to assure attainment and maintenance of the standards—so-called infrastructure requirements. To help states meet this statutory requirement, the EPA issued infrastructure guidance for the 2008 Pb NAAQS.
One of the infrastructure elements, CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i), requires SIPs to contain good neighbor provisions to prohibit certain adverse air quality effects on neighboring states due to interstate transport of pollution. There are four sub-elements within CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i). This action addresses the first two sub-elements of the good neighbor provisions, at CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I). These sub-elements require that each SIP for a new or revised standard contain adequate provisions to prohibit any source or other type of emissions activity within the state from emitting air pollutants that will contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the applicable air quality standard in any other state.
On October 20, 2015, Oregon made a submittal to address the interstate transport requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for multiple NAAQS, including the 2008 Pb and 2010 one hour NO
CAA sections 110(a)(1) and (2) and section 110(l) require that revisions to a SIP be adopted by the state after reasonable notice and public hearing. The EPA has promulgated specific procedural requirements for SIP revisions in 40 CFR part 51, subpart F. These requirements include publication of notices by prominent advertisement in the relevant geographic area, a public comment period of at least 30 days, and an opportunity for a public hearing. The Oregon submittal included public process documentation, including a duly-noticed public hearing held on August 18, 2015. We find that the process followed by Oregon in adopting the SIP submittal complies with the procedural requirements for SIP revisions under CAA section 110 and the EPA's implementing regulations.
The EPA believes, as noted in the October 14, 2011 infrastructure
Accordingly, while it may be possible for a source in a state to emit Pb in a location and in quantities that may contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the standard in another state, the EPA anticipates that this would be a rare situation,
As recommended by the EPA's guidance, Oregon evaluated whether large sources of Pb are located in close proximity to the border that have emissions such that they contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 Pb NAAQS in neighboring states. The state identified no sources of Pb emissions in Oregon greater than 0.5 tons per year that are also located within two miles of the border. The submittal also included a review of data from Pb monitors in bordering states and trends in monitored values in Oregon and bordering states.
Compliance with the Pb NAAQS is measured by comparing the maximum rolling three-month average, over a three-year period, to the level of the NAAQS. This statistic represents the design value at a specific monitor. Oregon found that, for the design value period of 2011 through 2013, the only monitors violating the Pb NAAQS in a state bordering Oregon were those monitors located in Los Angeles, San Diego, and San Mateo, California. Oregon concluded that it is unlikely that sources in Oregon will significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 Pb NAAQS in any other state.
We reviewed the Oregon submittal with respect to Pb and we agree with the state's conclusion. 2011 national emissions inventory data confirm that there are no Oregon sources identified that emit 0.5 tons per year or more of Pb that are also located within two miles of the Oregon border.
For the 2012 through 2014 design value period we found that, for the purposes of evaluating significant contribution to nonattainment, there are only two violating monitors in states that border Oregon.
With respect to potential new sources of Pb, we reviewed provisions in the Federally-approved Oregon SIP designed to control emissions of Pb. Oregon generally regulates new sources of Pb through its pre-construction and operating permit regulations for stationary sources. Oregon's pre-construction permitting rules are found at Oregon Administrative Rules Chapter 340, Division 224—New Source Review. Oregon's Federally-enforceable state operating permit program is found at Oregon Administrative Rules Chapter 340, Division 216—Air Contaminant Discharge Permits. These rules are designed to ensure that new or modified stationary sources will not cause or contribute to a violation of the applicable NAAQS.
Based on the Oregon submittal and our review of more recent monitoring data and provisions in the Oregon SIP, we believe it is reasonable to conclude that Oregon emissions will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 Pb NAAQS in any other state. We are proposing to approve the Oregon SIP as meeting the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2008 Pb NAAQS.
In the submittal, Oregon reviewed monitoring data and trends to evaluate whether emissions in Oregon significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2010 one hour NO
With respect to potential new emissions, Oregon cited provisions in the Oregon SIP that require review of new and modified stationary sources prior to construction. Planned new and modified major sources in attainment and unclassifiable areas must conduct air quality analyses to demonstrate that new emissions, along with emissions from existing sources, will not cause or contribute to a violation of any applicable standard. Based on ambient air monitoring data and provisions in the Oregon SIP that regulate new sources, Oregon determined that it is reasonable to conclude that emissions from sources in Oregon will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2010 one hour NO
We reviewed the Oregon submittal with respect to NO
For the purpose of evaluating significant contribution to nonattainment, we reviewed design values for the period 2012 through 2014 and found no monitors violating the one hour NO
We also reviewed provisions in the Federally-approved Oregon SIP designed to control emissions of NO
Based on the Oregon submittal and our review of more recent monitoring data and provisions in the Oregon SIP, we believe it is reasonable to conclude that Oregon emissions will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2010 one hour NO
We are proposing to approve the Oregon submittal for the purposes of meeting CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) interstate transport requirements for the 2008 Pb and 2010 one hour NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because it does not involve technical standards; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Indian Health Service, HHS.
Notice; extension of the comment period.
This document extends the comment period for the Catastrophic Health Emergency Fund (CHEF) notice of proposed rulemaking which was published in the
The comment period for the notice published in the January 26, 2016
Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments by facsimile transmission. You may submit comments in one of four ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):
1.
2.
Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
3.
4.
Comments will be made available for public inspection at the Rockville
Ms. Terri Schmidt, Acting Director, Office of Resource Access and Partnerships, Indian Health Service, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mailstop 10E85C, Rockville, Maryland 20857. Telephone: (301) 443-1553.
The notice that was published in the
This comment period is being extended to allow all interested parties the opportunity to comment on the proposed rule. Therefore, we are extending the comment period until May 10, 2016.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This NPRM proposes to amend 49 CFR part 595, subpart C, “Make Inoperative Exemptions, Vehicle Modifications to Accommodate People With Disabilities,” to include a new exemption relating to the Federal motor vehicle safety standard for roof crush resistance. The exemption would facilitate the mobility of physically disabled drivers and passengers. This document responds to a petition from Autoregs Consulting, Inc. on behalf of The National Mobility Equipment Dealers Association.
You should submit your comments early enough to ensure that the Docket receives them not later than May 10, 2016.
You may submit comments to the docket number identified in the heading of this document by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to
Christopher J. Wiacek, NHTSA Office of Crash Avoidance Standards, NVS-122 (telephone 202-366-4801) (fax 202-493-2739), or Jesse Chang, NHTSA Office of Chief Counsel, NCC-112 (telephone 202-366-2992) (fax 202-366-3820). The mailing address for these officials is: National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
The National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act (49 U.S.C. chapter 301) (“Safety Act”) and NHTSA's regulations require vehicle manufacturers to certify that their vehicles comply with all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards (FMVSSs) (
49 CFR part 595 subpart C sets forth exemptions from the make inoperative provision to permit, under limited circumstances, vehicle modifications that take the vehicles out of compliance with certain FMVSSs when the vehicles are modified to be used by persons with disabilities after the first retail sale of the vehicle for purposes other than resale. The regulation was promulgated to facilitate the modification of motor vehicles so that persons with disabilities
Under the regulation, a motor vehicle repair business that modifies a vehicle to enable a person with a disability to operate or ride as a passenger in the motor vehicle and that avails itself of the exemption provided by 49 CFR part 595 subpart C must register with NHTSA. The modifier is exempted from the make inoperative provision of the Safety Act, but only to the extent that the modifications affect the vehicle's compliance with the FMVSSs specified in 49 CFR 595.7(c) and only to the extent specified in § 595.7(c). Modifications that would take the vehicle out of compliance with any other FMVSS, or with an FMVSS listed in § 595.7(c) but in a manner not specified in that paragraph are not exempted by the regulation. The modifier must affix a permanent label to the vehicle identifying itself as the modifier and the vehicle as no longer complying with all FMVSS in effect at original manufacture, and must provide and retain a document listing the FMVSSs with which the vehicle no longer complies and indicating any reduction in the load carrying capacity of the vehicle of more than 100 kilograms (220 pounds).
On May 12, 2009, as part of a comprehensive plan for reducing the serious risk of rollover crashes and the risk of death and serious injury in those crashes, NHTSA published in the
(1) For the vehicles currently subject to the standard,
(2) The rule extended the applicability of the standard so that it will also apply to vehicles with a GVWR greater than 2,722 kilograms (6,000 pounds), but not greater than 4,536 kilograms (10,000 pounds). The rule established a SWR of 1.5 times for these vehicles.
(3) The rule required all applicable vehicles to meet the specified force requirements in a two-sided test, an upgrade from the existing single-sided test,
(4) The rule established a new requirement for maintenance of headroom,
As the agency was conscious of the fact that some vehicles are built in multiple stages, the rule provided an option for alterers and multi-stage (final stage) manufacturers (who complete or add raised roofs to vehicles prior to first retail sale) to certify to the school bus rollover protection requirements (FMVSS No. 220) instead. This option is available to manufacturers of vehicles with a GVWR greater than 2,722 kilograms (6,000 pounds), but not greater than 4,536 kilograms (10,000 pounds), except those built on chassis-cab incomplete vehicles.
While the option to certify to the requirements in FMVSS No. 220 is available to manufacturers that alter vehicles prior to first sale, modifiers are prohibited from making similar changes to a vehicle (originally certified to meet FMVSS No. 216a) after first sale (due to the aforementioned make-inoperative prohibition in section 30122 of the Motor Vehicle Safety Act). Further, 49 CFR part 595 does not currently provide for an exemption from FMVSS No. 216 for modifiers that raise the roof on vehicles to accommodate people with disabilities.
On January 21, 2013, Autoregs Consulting, Inc. (Autoregs) on behalf of The National Mobility Equipment Dealers Association (NMEDA) submitted a petition for rulemaking to amend § 595.7 to include an exemption from certain requirements of FMVSS No. 216. In its petition, Autoregs requested flexibility to allow modifiers to replace a vehicle's original roof after first sale with a raised or altered roof to accommodate the needs of persons with disability. Instead of complying with those requirements of FMVSS No. 216, the Petitioner states that modifiers should be afforded the same option (as alterers and multistage manufacturers—who alter vehicles prior to first sale) of installing a roof system that complies with the requirements of FMVSS No. 220, School bus rollover protection.
Autoregs explained that raising the roof of a vehicle is an everyday manufacturing operation for hundreds of NMEDA members, most of which are modifiers of vehicles with a GVWR greater than 2,722 kilograms (6,000 pounds), but not greater than 4,536 kilograms (10,000 pounds). Autoregs further asserts there is a need for modifiers to raise the roofs of vehicles after first sale to meet the special needs of consumers with disabilities. Autoregs explained that in many cases a consumer will purchase a vehicle, usually over 2,722 kilograms (6,000 pounds) GVWR and then approach a modifier to have a roof raised. Generally, customers ask to raise the roof 30.5 to 35.6 centimeters (14 to 16 inches) to suit their special needs. In other cases, a public agency or independent transportation company will purchase a vehicle to have the roof raised to provide public transportation for special needs citizens. They state that the make-inoperative prohibition and upgraded FMVSS No. 216 makes it impossible for such modifiers to provide transportation that accommodates those individuals who need a vehicle with a raised roof to drive or to access public transportation due to a disability.
While modifiers would have difficultly ensuring the modified roof continues to meet the performance specified in FMVSS No. 216, the Petitioner stated that such modifiers are able to change the roof structures of these vehicles in a way so as to accommodate the needs of persons with disabilities while still providing some roof strength protection to the vehicle occupants. Instead of adhering to the upgraded requirements of FMVSS No. 216, the petitioner states that such modifiers are able to ensure that a vehicle with the modified roof structure would meet the requirements of FMVSS No. 220.
Prior to the upgrade to FMVSS No. 216, NMEDA had tested and provided consortium test and installation instruction to its members for a tubular structure, or roll cage, to comply with the requirements in FMVSS No. 220. NMEDA conducted this testing mainly because they believed that FMVSS No. 220 is a comparatively simpler test and the roll cage is less expensive to install. However, after the FMVSS No. 216
NHTSA tentatively agrees with the Petitioner and proposes to amend 49 CFR 595.7(c) and add an exemption to the upgraded roof strength requirements of FMVSS No. 216a. We also agree with the Petitioner and propose to condition this exemption on modifiers installing a new roof that would enable the vehicle to meet the performance requirements of FMVSS No. 220.
We tentatively agree with the Petitioner that there is a need to accommodate persons with special mobility needs in this situation and the new FMVSS No. 216 prevents vehicle modifiers from doing so. To accommodate those with disabilities, a vehicle's roof may have to be raised. Prior to the 2009 upgrade to FMVSS No. 216, the vast majority of the vehicles being modified for this purpose did not have to comply with any roof crush requirements because they were vehicles with a GVWR between 2,722 kilograms (6,000 pounds) and 4,536 kilograms (10,000 pounds). Thus, prior to the 2009 upgrade, modifiers could replace the roof of such a vehicle to accommodate a person with special mobility needs without making inoperative any equipment installed in compliance with FMVSS No. 216.
While, such vehicles now have requirements under FMVSS No. 216, the need to accommodate such persons remains. A raised roof makes it easy for someone to enter the van seated in a wheelchair or for a personal care attendant to tend to them or walk in and out of the entrance. Doors may be raised in conjunction with a roof to enable a person in a wheelchair to enter without having to bend over or have a personal care attendant tilt the wheelchair back. Larger wheelchairs or motorized wheelchairs may also require modifications to the roof height to improve ingress and egress of the occupant. These modifications to the roof could take the vehicle out of compliance with the requirements of FMVSS No. 216.
We tentatively agree with the Petitioners that there is a need to provide an exemption in part 595 to the make inoperative prohibition for vehicles modified to accommodate persons with special mobility needs. We also tentatively agree with the Petitioners suggestion that FMVSS No. 220 is a viable alternative to ensure a minimum level of roof strength to protect the occupants of vehicles modified in this manner.
Similar to the rationale we expressed in the 2009 upgrade of FMVSS No. 216 for altered vehicles (
We believe it would be difficult for modifiers (generally small businesses and subject to the differing needs of their customers) to raise the roof of a vehicle to these types of heights and ensure that the vehicle remains compliant with FMVSS No. 216 because the modified roof would require different testing for each variation of the roof modification. Given the small volume, variety of roof heights needed to accommodate different disabilities, and different vehicle models used for these modifications, we believe that there are substantial technical difficulties for designing a roof and structure that would enable a vehicle to continue to comply with FMVSS No. 216.
However, we currently believe that providing FMVSS No. 220 as an option for compliance is a more appropriate balance between the need to modify these vehicles to accommodate a person with a disability and our interest in ensuring a sufficient level of safety. With FMVSS No. 220, modifiers can use a whole raised roof that is designed to be installed on the vehicle. Further, such a raised roof could be applied to vehicles of varying height and would still be able to absorb the load of the platen in the FMVSS No. 220 test. As the Petitioner stated, such a roof structure (that can be applied to the variety of needed modifications and would enable the modified vehicle to meet FMVSS No. 220) has been designed and is available to modifiers. NMEDA developed the Raised Roof Manufacturing Guidelines
Further, as we stated in the 2009 upgrade to FMVSS No. 216, we believe that the requirements of FMVSS No. 220 offer a reasonable avenue for increasing safety in rollover crashes. We note that several states already require “para-transit” vans and other buses, which are typically manufactured in multiple stages, to comply with the roof crush requirements of FMVSS No. 220. These states include Pennsylvania, Minnesota, Wisconsin, Tennessee, Michigan, Utah, Alabama, and California. Further, our crash data continue to show that FMVSS No. 220 has been effective for protecting school buses during rollover crashes.
In addition, we believe that the strength requirements for FMVSS Nos. 216 and 220 are comparable—even though the test procedures differ. FMVSS No. 216 requires the roof to withstand a force that 1.5 times the unloaded vehicle weight of the vehicle when an angled plate (5 degree pitch forward and 25 degree rotation outward, along its lateral axis) is applied to the front corner of the roof over the occupant compartment on one side prior to 127 mm (5 inches) of plate travel or the roof makes contact with the head of seat 50th percentile dummy and repeated on the other side of the vehicle. The FMVSS No. 220 test uses a single horizontal platen over the whole roof of the vehicle to apply a load to the vehicle's roof. The standard requires the roof to withstand a force of 1.5 times the vehicle`s unloaded weight prior to 130 mm (5.1 inches) limit of platen travel.
Thus, we recognize the concerns raised by Autoregs on behalf of NMEDA for continued mobility for people with disabilities with respect to the new FMVSS No. 216 requirements and tentatively believe their request to allow modifiers the option of meeting the performance requirements of FMVSS No. 220 reasonable. The agency continues to believe the requirements of FMVSS No. 220 have been effective for school buses and allows it as an option for certain multi-stage vehicles when the new requirements of FMVSS No. 216 become effective in 2017. In the context of the Petitioner's request and the work NMEDA has conducted in
NHTSA has considered the impact of this rulemaking action under E.O. 12866 and the Department of Transportation's regulatory policies and procedures. This rulemaking document was not reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget under E.O. 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review.” It is not considered to be significant under E.O. 12866 or the Department's Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979). NHTSA has determined that the effects are so minor that a regulatory evaluation is not needed to support the subject rulemaking. This rulemaking would impose no costs on the vehicle modification industry.
Modifying a vehicle in a way that makes inoperative the performance of roof crush resistance could be detrimental for the occupants of the vehicle involved in a rollover crash. By allowing modifiers the option of designing a roof system to the school bus rollover test procedure and strength requirements there is essentially no known safety trade-off for persons with disabilities. The number of vehicles potentially modified would be also very few in number. The agency believes we have made the exemption narrow and conditioned on maintaining the integrity of the roof. This issue has also been discussed in the 2009 upgrade to the requirements of Standard No. 216. We have requested comments on how the agency may make the exemption as narrow as reasonably possible.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
NHTSA has considered the effects of this proposed rule under the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Most dealerships and repair businesses are considered small entities, and a substantial number of these businesses modify vehicles to accommodate individuals with disabilities. I certify that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. While most dealers and repair businesses would be considered small entities, the proposed exemption would not impose any new requirements, but would instead provide additional flexibility. Therefore, the impacts on any small businesses affected by this rulemaking would not be substantial.
NHTSA has examined today's proposed rule pursuant to Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255; Aug. 10, 1999) and concluded that no additional consultation with States, local governments, or their representatives is mandated beyond the rulemaking process. The agency has concluded that the proposed rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant consultation with State and local officials or the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. The proposal does not have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” This proposed rule would not impose any requirements on anyone. This proposal would lessen a burden on modifiers.
NHTSA rules can have preemptive effect in two ways. First, the National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act contains an express preemption provision stating that a State (or a political subdivision of a State) may prescribe or continue to enforce a standard that applies to an aspect of performance of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment only if the standard is identical to the FMVSS governing the same aspect of performance.
Second, the Supreme Court has recognized the possibility, in some instances, of implied preemption of State requirements imposed on motor vehicle manufacturers, including sanctions imposed by State tort law. We are unaware of any State law or action that would prohibit the actions that this proposed rule would permit.
When promulgating a regulation, agencies are required under Executive Order 12988 to make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation, as appropriate: (1) Specifies in clear language the preemptive effect; (2) specifies in clear language the effect on existing Federal law or regulation, including all provisions repealed, circumscribed, displaced, impaired, or modified; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard, while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies in clear language the retroactive effect; (5) specifies whether administrative proceedings are to be required before parties may file suit in court; (6) explicitly or implicitly defines key terms; and (7) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship of regulations.
Pursuant to this Order, NHTSA notes as follows. The preemptive effect of this proposed rule is discussed above. NHTSA notes further that there is no requirement that individuals submit a petition for reconsideration or pursue other administrative proceeding before they may file suit in court.
Under the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (NTTAA) (Pub. L. 104-113), “all Federal agencies and departments shall use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies, using such technical standards as a means to carry out policy objectives or activities determined by the agencies and departments.” Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of more than $100 million annually (adjusted for inflation with base year of 1995). This proposed exemption would not result in expenditures by State, local or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector in excess of $100 million annually.
NHTSA has analyzed this rulemaking action for the purposes of the National Environmental Policy Act. The agency has determined that implementation of this action would not have any significant impact on the quality of the human environment.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), a person is not required to respond to a collection of information by a Federal agency unless the collection displays a valid OMB control number. This proposal does not contain new reporting requirements or requests for information beyond what is already required by 49 CFR part 595 subpart C.
Executive Order 12866 requires each agency to write all rules in plain language. Application of the principles of plain language includes consideration of the following questions:
• Have we organized the material to suit the public's needs?
• Are the requirements in the rule clearly stated?
• Does the rule contain technical language or jargon that isn't clear?
• Would a different format (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing) make the rule easier to understand?
• Would more (but shorter) sections be better?
• Could we improve clarity by adding tables, lists, or diagrams?
• What else could we do to make the rule easier to understand?
If you have any responses to these questions, please include them in your comments on this proposal.
The Department of Transportation assigns a regulation identifier number (RIN) to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. You may use the RIN contained in the heading at the beginning of this document to find this action in the Unified Agenda.
Your comments must be written and in English. To ensure that your comments are correctly filed in the Docket, please include the docket number of this document in your comments.
Your comments must not be more than 15 pages long. (49 CFR 553.21). We established this limit to encourage you to write your primary comments in a concise fashion. However, you may attach necessary additional documents to your comments. There is no limit on the length of the attachments.
Comments may also be submitted to the docket electronically by logging onto the Docket Management System Web site at
Please note that pursuant to the Data Quality Act, in order for substantive data to be relied upon and used by the agency, it must meet the information quality standards set forth in the OMB and DOT Data Quality Act guidelines. Accordingly, we encourage you to consult the guidelines in preparing your comments. OMB's guidelines may be accessed at
If you wish Docket Management to notify you upon its receipt of your comments, enclose a self-addressed, stamped postcard in the envelope containing your comments. Upon receiving your comments, Docket Management will return the postcard by mail.
If you wish to submit any information under a claim of confidentiality, you should submit three copies of your complete submission, including the information you claim to be confidential business information, to the Chief Counsel, NHTSA, at the address given above under
We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the comment closing date indicated above under
You may read the comments received by the docket at the address given above under
Please note that even after the comment closing date, we will continue to file relevant information in the docket as it becomes available. Further, some people may submit late comments. Accordingly, we recommend that you periodically check the Docket for new material. You can arrange with the docket to be notified when others file comments in the docket. See
Motor vehicle safety, Motor vehicles.
In consideration of the foregoing, we propose to amend 49 CFR part 595 to read as follows:
49 U.S.C. 322, 30111, 30115, 30117, 30122 and 30166; delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.95.
(c) * * *
(18) S5.2(b) of 49 CFR 571.216a, in any case where the vehicle, after modification, meets the roof crush requirements in S4 of 49 CFR 571.220 when tested in accordance to S5 of 49 CFR 571.220.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of availability.
We are advising the public that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has prepared an environmental assessment concerning authorization to ship for the purpose of field testing, and then to field test, an unlicensed Canine Osteosarcoma Vaccine, Live Listeria Vector. The environmental assessment, which is based on a risk analysis prepared to assess the risks associated with the field testing of this vaccine, examines the potential effects that field testing this veterinary vaccine could have on the quality of the human environment. Based on the risk analysis and other relevant data, we have reached a preliminary determination that field testing this veterinary vaccine will not have a significant impact on the quality of the human environment, and that an environmental impact statement need not be prepared. We intend to authorize shipment of this vaccine for field testing following the close of the comment period for this notice unless new substantial issues bearing on the effects of this action are brought to our attention. We also intend to issue a U.S. Veterinary Biological Product license for this vaccine, provided the field test data support the conclusions of the environmental assessment and the issuance of a finding of no significant impact and the product meets all other requirements for licensing.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before April 11, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery: Send your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2015-0100, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238.
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. Donna Malloy, Operational Support Section, Center for Veterinary Biologics, Policy, Evaluation, and Licensing, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 148, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; phone (301) 851-3426, fax (301) 734-4314.
For information regarding the environmental assessment or the risk analysis, or to request a copy of the environmental assessment (as well as the risk analysis with confidential business information removed), contact Dr. Patricia L. Foley, Risk Manager, Center for Veterinary Biologics, Policy, Evaluation, and Licensing, VS, APHIS, 1920 Dayton Avenue, P.O. Box 844, Ames, IA 50010; phone (515) 337-6100, fax (515) 337-6120.
Under the Virus-Serum-Toxin Act (21 U.S.C. 151
To determine whether to authorize shipment and grant approval for the field testing of the unlicensed product referenced in this notice, APHIS considers the potential effects of this product on the safety of animals, public health, and the environment. Using the risk analysis and other relevant data, APHIS has prepared an environmental assessment (EA) concerning the field testing of the following unlicensed veterinary biological product:
The above-mentioned product consists of a highly attenuated
The EA has been prepared in accordance with: (1) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
Unless substantial issues with adverse environmental impacts are raised in response to this notice, APHIS intends to issue a finding of no significant impact (FONSI) based on the EA and authorize shipment of the above product for the initiation of field tests following the close of the comment period for this notice.
Because the issues raised by field testing and by issuance of a license are identical, APHIS has concluded that the EA that is generated for field testing would also be applicable to the proposed licensing action. Provided that the field test data support the conclusions of the original EA and the issuance of a FONSI, APHIS does not intend to issue a separate EA and FONSI to support the issuance of the product
21 U.S.C. 151-159.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with legislation implementing the results of the Uruguay Round of negotiations under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, we are informing the public of the international standard-setting activities of the World Organization for Animal Health, the Secretariat of the International Plant Protection Convention, and the North American Plant Protection Organization, and we are soliciting public comment on the standards to be considered.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery: Send your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2015-0105, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238.
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For general information on the topics covered in this notice, contact Ms. Jessica Mahalingappa, Assistant Deputy Administrator for Trade and Capacity Building, International Services, APHIS, Room 1132, USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250; (202) 799-7121.
For specific information regarding standard-setting activities of the World Organization for Animal Health, contact Dr. Michael David, Director, International Animal Health Standards Team, National Import Export Services, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 33, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-3302.
For specific information regarding the standard-setting activities of the International Plant Protection Convention, contact Dr. Marina Zlotina, IPPC Technical Director, International Phytosanitary Standards, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 130, Riverdale, MD 20737, (301) 851-2200.
For specific information on the North American Plant Protection Organization, contact Ms. Patricia Abad, NAPPO Technical Director, International Phytosanitary Standards, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 130, Riverdale, MD, 20737, (301) 851-2264.
The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established as the common international institutional framework for governing trade relations among its members in matters related to the Uruguay Round Agreements. The WTO is the successor organization to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade. U.S. membership in the WTO was approved by Congress when it enacted the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), which was signed into law on December 8, 1994. The WTO Agreements, which established the WTO, entered into force with respect to the United States on January 1, 1995. The Uruguay Round Agreements Act amended Title IV of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (19 U.S.C. 2531
“International standard” is defined in 19 U.S.C. 2578b as any standard, guideline, or recommendation: (1) Adopted by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex) regarding food safety; (2) developed under the auspices of the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE, formerly known as the Office International des Epizooties) regarding animal health and welfare, and zoonoses; (3) developed under the auspices of the Secretariat of the International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) in cooperation with the North American Plant Protection Organization (NAPPO) regarding plant health; or (4) established by or developed under any other international organization agreed to by the member countries of the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) or the member countries of the WTO.
The President, pursuant to Proclamation No. 6780 of March 23, 1995 (60 FR 15845), designated the Secretary of Agriculture as the official responsible for informing the public of the SPS standard-setting activities of Codex, OIE, IPPC, and NAPPO. The United States Department of Agriculture's (USDA's) Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) informs the public of Codex standard-setting activities, and USDA's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) informs the public of OIE, IPPC, and NAPPO standard-setting activities.
FSIS publishes an annual notice in the
APHIS is responsible for publishing an annual notice of OIE, IPPC, and NAPPO activities related to
The agendas for these meetings are subject to change, and the draft standards identified in this notice may not be sufficiently developed and ready for adoption as indicated. Also, while it is the intent of the United States to support adoption of international standards and to participate actively and fully in their development, it should be recognized that the U.S. position on a specific draft standard will depend on the acceptability of the final draft. Given the dynamic and interactive nature of the standard-setting process, we encourage any persons who are interested in the most current details about a specific draft standard or the U.S. position on a particular standard-setting issue, or in providing comments on a specific standard that may be under development, to contact APHIS. Contact information is provided at the beginning of this notice under
The OIE was established in Paris, France, in 1924, with the signing of an international agreement by 28 countries. It is currently composed of 180 Members, each of which is represented by a delegate who, in most cases, is the chief veterinary officer of that country or territory. The WTO has recognized the OIE as the international forum for setting animal health and welfare standards, reporting global animal disease events, and presenting guidelines and recommendations on sanitary measures relating to animal health.
The OIE facilitates intergovernmental cooperation to prevent the spread of contagious diseases in animals by sharing scientific research among its Members. The major functions of the OIE are to collect and disseminate information on the distribution and occurrence of animal diseases and to ensure that science-based standards govern international trade in animals and animal products. The OIE aims to achieve these through the development and revision of international standards for diagnostic tests, vaccines, and the safe international trade of animals and animal products.
The OIE provides annual reports on the global distribution of animal diseases, recognizes the free status of Members for certain diseases, categorizes animal diseases with respect to their international significance, publishes bulletins on global disease status, and provides animal disease control guidelines to Members. Various OIE commissions and working groups undertake the development and preparation of draft standards, which are then circulated to Members for consultation (review and comment). Draft standards are revised accordingly and are then presented to the OIE World Assembly of Delegates (all the Members) during the General Session, which meets annually every May, for review and adoption. Adoption, as a general rule, is based on consensus of the OIE membership.
The next OIE General Session is scheduled for May 22 to May 27, 2016, in Paris, France. Currently, the Deputy Administrator for APHIS' Veterinary Services program is the official U.S. Delegate to the OIE. The Deputy Administrator for APHIS' Veterinary Services program intends to participate in the proceedings and will discuss or comment on APHIS' position on any standard up for adoption. Information about OIE draft Terrestrial and Aquatic Animal Health Code chapters may be found on the Internet at
More than 30 Code chapters were amended, rewritten, or newly proposed and presented for adoption at the General Session. The following Code chapters are of particular interest to the United States:
Text was changed in this Code chapter for the definition of “Stamping out,” particularly the removal of the phrase that includes “in whole or in part”, which may be misinterpreted and cause confusion.
Text in this Code chapter was modified for clarity.
Text in this Code chapter was modified for clarity and consistency.
Text in this Code chapter was modified for clarity.
Text in this Code chapter was modified and precise definitions for standard, guideline, and recommendation will be provided by the Commission for Member Country comment.
Text in this Code chapter had minor modifications for clarity.
Text in this Code chapter was modified for clarity.
This is a new Code chapter and the text will be modified for clarity and consistency in the future as the Commission proposes changes for comment.
Text in this Code chapter was modified for clarity.
Proposed text in this Code chapter was not adopted and the chapter remains as currently written.
This is a new Code chapter that was adopted with minimal discussion and closely parallels the current chapter for bluetongue.
This is a new Code chapter that was adopted and additional comments will be submitted on the limits of cysticerci detections per carcass and the appropriate temperature to inactivate the cysticerci.
This Code chapter was adopted in 2014. It presents the concept of “higher health status” horses, which by being closely monitored and tested for certain
The text in this chapter was updated to recognize the distinction between “classical BSE” and “atypical BSE”.
The text in this Code chapter was minimally modified to align it with similar text in Code Chapter 10.9. “Infection with Newcastle Disease Virus.”
The following Aquatic Manual chapters were revised and adopted, and are of particular interest to the United States:
• Glossary.
• Chapter 1.1., Notification of diseases.
• Chapter 1.2., Criteria for inclusion OIE list.
• Chapter 15.1., Infection with African swine fever.
• Chapter 6.X., Salmonella in cattle.
• Chapter 11.5., Bovine tuberculosis.
• Chapter 6.9., Responsible and prudent use of antimicrobial agents in veterinary medicine.
• Chapter 11.12., Theileriosis.
• Chapter 12.10., Glanders.
• Chapter 10.5., Avian mycoplasmosis (
• Chapter 11.11., Lumpy skin disease.
• Chapter 4.16., High health status horse subpopulation.
The IPPC is a multilateral convention adopted in 1952 for the purpose of securing common and effective action to prevent the spread and introduction of pests of plants and plant products and to promote appropriate measures for their control. Under the IPPC, the understanding of plant protection has been, and continues to be, broad, encompassing the protection of both cultivated and non-cultivated plants from direct or indirect injury by plant pests. Activities addressed by the IPPC include the development and establishment of international plant health standards (ISPMs), the harmonization of phytosanitary activities through emerging standards, the facilitation of the exchange of official and scientific information among countries, and the furnishing of technical assistance to developing countries that are signatories to the IPPC.
The IPPC is under the authority of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), and the members of the Secretariat of the IPPC are appointed by the FAO. The IPPC is implemented by national plant protection organizations (NPPOs) in cooperation with regional plant protection organizations (RPPOs), the Commission on Phytosanitary Measures (CPM), and the Secretariat of the IPPC. The United States plays a major role in all standard-setting activities under the IPPC and has representation on FAO's highest governing body, the FAO Conference.
The United States became a contracting party to the IPPC in 1972 and has been actively involved in furthering the work of the IPPC ever since. The IPPC was amended in 1979, and the amended version entered into force in 1991 after two-thirds of the contracting countries accepted the amendment. More recently, in 1997, contracting parties completed negotiations on further amendments that were approved by the FAO Conference and submitted to the parties for acceptance. This 1997 amendment updated phytosanitary concepts and formalized the standard-setting structure within the IPPC. The 1997 amended version of the IPPC entered into force after two-thirds of the contracting parties notified the Director General of FAO of their acceptance of the amendment in October 2005. The U.S. Senate gave its advice and consent to acceptance of the newly revised IPPC on October 18, 2000. The President submitted the official letter of acceptance to the FAO Director General on October 4, 2001.
The IPPC has been, and continues to be, administered at the national level by plant quarantine officials whose primary objective is to safeguard plant resources from injurious pests. In the United States, the national plant protection organization is APHIS' Plant Protection and Quarantine (PPQ) program.
Every 2 years, NPPOs and RPPOs propose topics for ISPMs, which are then prioritized and approved by the CPM. All contracting parties agree to the scope of the draft ISPM and then NPPOs and RPPOs nominate experts to draft the ISPM. The draft ISPM then enters the member consultation stage, in which countries submit comments. The comments are incorporated and the draft ISPM is presented for the final member consultation stage, and is then adopted by the CPM. On average, this process takes 5 to 7 years. More detailed information on the standard setting process can be found on the IPPC Web site.
Each member country is represented on the CPM by a single delegate. Although experts and advisors may accompany the delegate to meetings of the CPM, only the delegate (or an authorized alternate) may represent each member country in considering a standard proposed for approval. Parties involved in a vote by the CPM are to make every effort to reach agreement on all matters by consensus. Only after all efforts to reach a consensus have been exhausted may a decision on a standard be passed by a vote of two-thirds of delegates present and voting.
Technical experts from the United States have participated directly in working groups and indirectly as reviewers of all IPPC draft standards. The United States also has a representative on the Standards Committee, Capacity Development Committee, and the CPM Bureau. In addition, documents and positions developed by APHIS and NAPPO have been sources of significant input for many of the standards adopted to date. This notice describes each of the IPPC standards currently under consideration or up for adoption. Interested individuals may review the standards
The 10th Session of the CPM took place from March 16 to 20, 2015, at FAO Headquarters in Rome, Italy. The Deputy Administrator for APHIS' PPQ program was the U.S. delegate to the CPM. The Deputy Administrator participated in the proceedings and discussed or commented on APHIS' position on any standards up for adoption.
The following standards were adopted by the CPM at its 2015 meeting. The United States participated in consideration of these standards. The
• Annex 3 to ISPM 26 (Establishment of pest free areas for fruit flies (Tephritidae)) on Phytosanitary procedures for fruit fly (Tephritidae) management
• ISPM 5: Glossary of Phytosanitary Terms
• Annexes to ISPM 28: Phytosanitary treatments
○ Cold treatment for
○ Cold treatment for
○ Cold treatment for
○ Irradiation for
• Annexes to ISPM 27: Diagnostic Protocols
○
○
○ Potato spindle tuber viroid
Other APHIS key achievements from the 2015 CPM meeting were to promote the IPPC Secretariat Enhancement Evaluation study, initiate the review of the IPPC standard setting process, lead and influence the international direction on electronic certification, support the establishment of the International Year of Plant Health in 2020, and continue to support plans for an international workshop in wood packaging material (ISPM 15).
A number of expert working group (EWG) meetings or other technical consultations took place during 2015 on the topics listed below. These standard-setting initiatives are under development and may be considered for future adoption. APHIS intends to participate actively and fully in each of these working groups. The U.S. position on each of the topics to be addressed by these various working groups was developed prior to these working group meetings and was based on APHIS' technical analysis, information from other U.S. Government agencies, and relevant scientific information from interested stakeholders:
• EWG on the revision of ISPM 6: Guidelines for surveillance
• Technical Panel on Fruit Flies
• Technical Panel on the Glossary of Phytosanitary Terms
• Technical Panel on Diagnostic Protocols
• Technical Panel on Phytosanitary Treatments
For more detailed information on the above, contact Dr. Marina Zlotina (see
APHIS posts links to draft standards on the Internet as they become available and provides information on the due dates for comments.
NAPPO, a regional plant protection organization created in 1976 under the IPPC, coordinates the efforts among Canada, the United States, and Mexico to protect their plant resources from the entry, establishment, and spread of harmful plant pests, while facilitating intra- and inter-regional trade. NAPPO conducts its work through priority-driven annual projects conducted by expert groups. Project results and updates are provided during the NAPPO annual meeting. The NAPPO Executive Committee issues a call for project proposals each year. Projects can include the development of positions, policies, or technical documents, or the development or revision of regional standards for phytosanitary measures (RSPMs). Projects can also include implementation of standards or other capacity building activities such as workshops. After the NAPPO region selects the projects for the year, expert groups are formed with subject matter experts from each member country, as well as representatives from key industries or commodity groups (
The 40th NAPPO annual meeting will be held October 31 to November 3, 2016, in Montreal, Canada. The NAPPO Executive Committee meeting will take place during that meeting. The Deputy Administrator for PPQ, or his designee, is a member of the NAPPO Executive Committee.
Below is a summary of the 2015 NAPPO work program as it relates to the ongoing development of NAPPO standards. The United States (
The following are the projects from the 2015 work program that were actively worked on:
1. Biological Control: The Biological Control Expert Group organized a workshop in July 2015 to provide training on preparing a petition for first release of an entomophagous biological control agent according to requirements outlined in RSPM 12, “Guidelines for petition for first release of non-indigenous entomophagous biological control agents.” It also finalized the revision of the following standards based on country comments: RSPM 7 (2008), “Guidelines for petition for first release of non-indigenous phytophagous biological control agents”; RSPM 12 (2008), “Guidelines for petition for first release of non-indigenous entomophagous biological control agents”; and RSPM 29 (2008), “Guidelines for the petition for import and release of non-Apis pollinating insects into NAPPO countries.” Finally, the Expert Group revised RSPM 26 (2012), “Certification of commercial arthropod biological control agents moving into NAPPO member countries, including the addition of non-Apis pollinators.”
2. Citrus: The Citrus Expert Group used country comments to finalize a document on recommended measures
3. Electronic Certification: The Electronic Certification Expert Group continued to provide input to the IPPC Steering Group, especially to help address mechanisms of exchange, security, and secure transmission of data and the standardization of data.
4. Forestry: The Forestry area consisted of four Expert Groups: The Forestry Systems Expert Group finalized a specification for a possible standard on the potential use of systems approaches to manage pest risks associated with the movement of wood, based on country comments. The ISPM 15 Expert Group began preparations for a multi-region conference on ISPM 15 implementation, following the recommendation that came out of the NAPPO-Asia Pacific Plant Protection Commission workshop. The Asian Gypsy Moth (AGM) Expert Group revised RSPM 33 (2009), “Guidelines for regulating the movement of ships and cargo from areas infested with the Asian gypsy moth.” In November 2015, the AGM Expert Group also organized a training workshop for further development and implementation of an Asian gypsy moth program based on RSPM 33. Finally, the Lymantriids Expert Group continued on the development of a Science and Technology paper on the risks associated with Lymantriids of potential concern to the NAPPO region, identifying potential species and pathways of concern.
5. Fruit: The Fruit Expert Group working on trapping protocols for pests of fruit reviewed and integrated comments from country consultation on the Annex to RSPM 17 (2010), “Guidelines for development of, and efficacy verification for, lures and traps for arthropod pests of fruits.” The document was approved and accepted as a new Surveillance Protocol (SP 02): Trapping Protocols for Pests of Fruit Entering into NAPPO Member Countries.
6. Grain: The Grain Expert Group reviewed and integrated comments from country consultation of RSPM 13 (2009), “Guidelines to establish, maintain and verify Karnal Bunt pest free areas in North America.”
7. Phytosanitary Alert System: The Phytosanitary Alert System (PAS) Expert Group continued to manage the NAPPO pest reporting system and continued to review the unofficial pest alert product offered by the Phytosanitary Alert System.
8. Plants for Planting: An Expert Group on Plum Pox worked on the revision of RSPM 18 (2004), “Guidelines for phytosanitary action following detection of plum pox virus.”
9. Potato: The Potato Expert Group was tasked with revising the pest list for RSPM 3 (2011), “Guidelines for movement of potatoes into a NAPPO member country.” They were also asked to review RSPM 3 to align it with ISPM 33 (2010), “Pest free potato (
10. Seed: The Seed Expert Group discussed the development of annexes to RSPM 36 (2013), “Phytosanitary guidelines for the movement of seed into a NAPPO member country,” to include treatments for seed borne and seed transmissible pests and to harmonize countries' import/export phytosanitary requirements. They also organized a workshop in July 2015 on needs assessment of regulatory support of the North American seed industry.
The PPQ Assistant Deputy Administrator, as the official U.S. delegate to NAPPO, participates in the adoption of these regional plant health standards, including the work described above, once they are completed and ready for such consideration.
The information in this notice contains all the information available to us on NAPPO standards under development or consideration. For updates on meeting times and for information on the expert groups that may become available following publication of this notice, go to the NAPPO Web site on the Internet at
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The South Gifford Pinchot Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Stevenson, Washington. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held April 11, 2016, from 9:30 a.m. to 4:40 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Rock Creek Hegewald Center, 710 Southwest Rock Creek Drive, Stevenson, Washington.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Gala Miller, RAC Coordinator, by phone at 360-891-5014 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Elect the Chair and Vice Chair,
2. Review submitted Title II project proposals, and
3. Make project recommendations for Title II funding.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by April 1, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time for oral comments must be sent to Gala Miller, RAC Coordinator, 10600 NE 51st Circle, Vancouver, Washington 98682; by email to
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by April 11, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the North Carolina Advisory Committee will hold a meeting on Thursday, April 7, 2016, beginning at 09:00 a.m. for the purpose of hearing testimony regarding the issue of civil rights implications of environmental issues in North Carolina, particularly as it relates to coal ash disposal.
This meeting is open to the public, and will take place at the Walnut Cove Public Library, 106 5th Street, Walnut Cove, North Carolina 27052. Members of the public are invited to make statements during the open comment period beginning at 4:00 p.m. In addition, members of the public may submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Southern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 61 Forsyth St., Suite 16T126, Atlanta, Georgia 30303. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (404) 562-7005, or emailed to Jeff Hinton Allen at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and following the meeting at
The meeting will be held on Thursday, April 7, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. EST.
Walnut Cove Public Library, 106 5th Street, Walnut Cove, North Carolina 27052.
Jeff Hinton, DFO, (404) 562-7006 or
United States Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of Commission Briefing and Business Meeting.
Friday, March 18, 2016, at 9 a.m. EST.
National Place Building, 1331 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., 11th Floor, Suite 1150, Washington, DC 20245 (Entrance on F Street NW.)
Gerson Gomez, Media Advisor at telephone: (202) 376-8371, TTY: (202) 376-8116 or email:
This briefing and business meeting are open to the public. The public may listen on the following toll-free number: 1-888-572-7033. Please provide the operator with conference ID number 6194124.
Hearing-impaired persons who will attend the briefing and require the services of a sign language interpreter should contact Pamela Dunston at (202) 376-8105 or at
During the briefing portion, Commissioners will ask questions and discuss the briefing topic with the panelists. The public may submit written comments on the topic of the briefing to the above address for 30 days after the briefing. Please direct your comments to the attention of the “Staff Director” and clearly mark “Briefing Comments Inside” on the outside of the envelope. Please note we are unable to return any comments or submitted materials. Comments may also be submitted by email to
Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meetings.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a planning meeting of the South Dakota Advisory Committee to the Commission will convene at 12:00 p.m. (MST) on Tuesday, April 5, 2016, via teleconference. The purpose of the meeting is to review current civil rights issues in the state identified by state advisory committee members. A goal of the meeting is to select a topic for study.
Members of the public may listen to the discussion by dialing the following Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-455-2296; Conference ID: 5419679. Please be advised that before being placed into the conference call, the operator will ask callers to provide their names, their organizational affiliations (if any), and an email address (if available) prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free phone number.
Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the discussion by first calling the Federal Relay Service (FRS) at 1-800-977-8339 and provide the FRS operator with the Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-455-2296, Conference ID: 5419679. Members of the public are invited to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office by Thursday, May 5, 2016. Written comments may be mailed to the Rocky Mountain Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 1961 Stout Street, Suite 13-201, Denver, CO 80294, faxed to (303) 866-1050, or emailed to Evelyn Bohor at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at
Tuesday, April 5, 2016, at 12:00 p.m. (MST).
To be held via teleconference:
Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-455-2296, Conference ID: 5419679.
TDD: Dial Federal Relay Service 1-800-977-8339 and give the operator the above conference call number and conference ID.
Malee V. Craft, DFO,
Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Bureau of the Census (Census Bureau) is giving notice of a meeting of the Census Scientific Advisory Committee (C-SAC). The Committee will address policy, research, and technical issues relating to a full range of Census Bureau programs and activities, including communications, decennial, demographic, economic, field operations, geographic, information technology, and statistics. The C-SAC will meet in a plenary session on April 14-15, 2016. Last minute changes to the schedule are possible, which could prevent giving advance public notice of schedule adjustments. Please visit the Census Advisory Committees Web site for the most current meeting agenda at:
April 14-15, 2016. On April 14, the meeting will begin at approximately 8:30 a.m. and end at approximately 4:15 p.m. On April 15, the meeting will begin at approximately 8:30 a.m. and end at approximately 2:45 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the U.S. Census Bureau Auditorium, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Suitland, Maryland 20746.
Tara Dunlop, Branch Chief for Advisory Committees, Customer Liaison and Marketing Services Office,
The members of the C-SAC are appointed by the Director, U.S. Census Bureau. The Committee provides scientific and technical expertise, as appropriate, to address Census Bureau program needs and objectives. The Committee has been established in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Title 5, United States Code, Appendix 2, Section 10).
All meetings are open to the public. A brief period will be set aside at the meeting for public comment on April 15. However, individuals with extensive questions or statements must submit them in writing to:
If you plan to attend the meeting, please register by Tuesday, April 12, 2016. You may access the online registration from the following link:
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should also be directed to the Committee Liaison Officer as soon as known, and preferably two weeks prior to the meeting.
Due to increased security and for access to the meeting, please call 301-763-9906 upon arrival at the Census Bureau on the day of the meeting. A photo ID must be presented in order to receive your visitor's badge. Visitors are not allowed beyond the first floor.
Topics to be discussed include the following items:
• 2020 Census Program Overview
○ Reengineering Address Canvassing
○ Utilizing Administrative Records
○ Optimizing Self-Response
• BIG Data
• National Content Test Study Plan
• Working Groups Reports
○ BIG Data
○ Census Enterprise Data Collection and Processing Systems (CEDCaP) and Reorganized Census with Integrated Technology (ROCkIT)
○ American Community Survey (ACS) Reducing Respondent Burden
• Brief of National Academy of Science ACS Expert Group
• Technology EXPO
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
The inaugural ASE began collection in September 2015 for the 2014 reference year. Corresponding estimates will be released in late summer of 2016. Estimates will include number of firms, sales/receipts, annual payroll, and employment by gender, ethnicity, race, and veteran status. The ASE includes questions from the 2012 SBO long form SBO-1 with additional questions to collect data on entrepreneurs' access to capital. The ASE introduces a new module each year focusing on an important component related to business growth. Proposed module topics include innovation, research and development, technological advances, Internet usage, management and business practices, exporting practices, and globalization. The 2014 ASE module covered innovation and research and development. The 2015 module, the subject of this request, will cover management and business practices. We are proposing no changes to the core questions currently asked on the ASE. The survey samples approximately 290,000 employer businesses stratified by metropolitan statistical area (MSA), frame, and age of business. This survey will help assess the impact young firms have on the growth of the economy. Additionally, the survey has a longitudinal component that will allow the growth of the firms in the sample to be tracked and analyzed over time.
This collection allows the Census Bureau to collaborate on the implementation of a key National Academies recommendation for improving the measurement of business dynamics in the U.S. economy, which recommended:
The Census Bureau Survey of Business Owners (SBO) should be conducted on an annual basis. The survey should include both a longitudinal component and a flexible, modular design that allows survey content to change over time. In addition, the Census Bureau should explore the possibility of creating a public-use (anonymized) SBO or a restricted access version of the data file.
The additional sources of capital and financing questions provide information on the financial trends and financial challenges faced by entrepreneurs. Tabulation of the financing questions will offer insight into the type of funding acquired and used by women-, minority-, and veteran-owned businesses. Questions for the 2015 management and business practices module were developed in conjunction with the Ewing Marion Kauffman Foundation, MBDA, and the Census Bureau. Census Bureau labor economists contributed to the development of the management module by identifying relevant questions about entrepreneurs' management, record-keeping, and other business practices. The 2015 ASE module will allow for an assessment of management practices that contribute to business growth. Questions from the management practices module will also provide an understanding of the types of workers used by a business and the types of tasks they perform. The ASE is designed to retain certain businesses in the sample from year to year. This will help track and assess the growth of these firms and changes to their business characteristics over time.
The ASE collection is electronic only. An initial letter that informs the respondents of their requirement to complete the survey and provides survey access instructions will be mailed from the Census Bureau's processing headquarters in Jeffersonville, Indiana. For the 2015 ASE, approximately 290,000 letters will be mailed to employer businesses that were in business during 2015. Initial mailout will occur in June 2016, with a due date of July 27, 2016. There will be two follow-up letter mailings to nonrespondents after the due date. Closeout of mail operations is scheduled for November 2016. Upon the close of the collection period, the response data will be processed, edited, reviewed, tabulated, and released publically.
The survey will collect data on the gender, ethnicity, race, and veteran status for up to four persons owning the majority of rights, equity, or interest in the business. These data are needed to evaluate the extent and growth of business ownership by women,
The SBA and the MBDA will use the data to allocate resources for their business assistance programs.
The data will also be widely used by private firms and individuals to evaluate their own businesses and markets. Additionally, the data will be used by entrepreneurs to write business plans and loan application letters, by the media for news stories, by researchers and academia for determining firm characteristics, and by the legal profession in evaluating the concentration of minority businesses in particular industries and/or geographic areas.
Government program officials, industry organization leaders, economic and social analysts and researchers, and business entrepreneurs are anticipated users of ASE statistics. Examples of data use include:
• The Small Business Administration (SBA) and the Minority Business Development Agency (MBDA) to assess business assistance needs and allocate available program resources.
• Local government commissions on small and disadvantaged businesses to establish and evaluate contract procurement practices.
• Federal, state and local government agencies as a framework for planning, directing and assessing programs that promote the activities of disadvantaged groups.
• The National Women's Business Council to assess the state of women's business ownership for policymakers, researchers, and the public at large.
• Consultants and researchers to analyze long-term economic and demographic shifts, and differences in ownership and performance among geographic areas.
• Individual business owners to analyze their operations in comparison to similar firms, compute their market share, and assess their growth and future prospects.
• Researchers and businesses to understand the innovation and research and development activities conducted by entrepreneurs.
• Researchers and businesses to understand the record-keeping and management practices implemented by entrepreneurs.
• Federal agencies to assess the competitiveness of businesses by ownership characteristics.
• Data users to understand time-series data in certain industries for entrepreneurs.
• Business owners or perspective business owners to gain knowledge about the funding of businesses.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
U.S. Census Bureau, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)).
To ensure consideration, written comments must be submitted on or before May 10, 2016.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to James Hinckley, Census Bureau, Room 6H051, Washington, DC 20233 (or via the Internet at
The Commodity Flow Survey, a component of the 2017 Economic Census, is the only comprehensive source of multimodal, system-wide data on the volume and pattern of goods movement in the United States. The Commodity Flow Survey is conducted in partnership with the Bureau of Transportation Statistics, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology, U.S. Department of Transportation.
The Commodity Flow Survey data are used by policy makers and transportation planners in various federal, state, and local agencies to assess the demand for transportation facilities and services, energy use, and safety risks and environmental concerns. Additionally, business owners, private researchers, and analysts use the Commodity Flow Survey data for analyzing trends in the movement of goods, mapping spatial patterns of commodity and vehicle flows, forecasting demands for the movement of goods, and determining needs for associated infrastructure and equipment.
The survey provides data on the movement of commodities in the United States from their origin to destination. The survey produces summary statistics on value, tons, ton-miles and average miles by commodity, industry, and mode of transportation. The Census Bureau will publish these shipment characteristics for the nation, census regions and divisions, states, and CFS defined geographical areas.
Primary strategies for reducing respondent burden in the Commodity Flow Survey include: employing a stratified random sample of business establishments, requesting data on a limited sample of shipment records from each establishment, accepting estimates of shipping activity, and providing the opportunity for establishments to report electronically.
The Commodity Flow Survey will be sent to a sample of business establishments in mining, manufacturing, wholesale, and select retail and services industries. The survey will also cover auxiliary establishments (
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The data are needed to monitor U.S. trade in services, to analyze the impact of trade on the U.S. and foreign economies, to compile and improve the U.S. economic accounts, to support U.S. commercial policy on trade in services, to conduct trade promotion, and to improve the ability of U.S. businesses to identify and evaluate market opportunities. The data are used in estimating the services component of the U.S. international transactions accounts (ITAs) and national income and product accounts.
BEA received OMB approval for this information collection request on December 22, 2015. (Previous notices may be viewed at
Mandatory Schedules A and B will be expanded to collect additional detail on intellectual property (IP) transactions. A U.S. person who engages in IP transactions with foreign persons will be required to distribute their receipts and/or payments according to the type of transaction and the type of IP. The covered transaction types are: (1) Transactions for the rights to use IP, (2) transactions for the rights to reproduce and/or distribute IP, and (3) transactions for the outright sales or purchases of IP. Reporters will be required to identify the foreign country(ies) involved in the transaction(s) and to distribute the amounts reported for each country according to whether the foreign person is the U.S. person's foreign affiliate, part of the U.S. person's foreign parent group, or an unaffiliated foreign person.
BEA estimates the proposed changes will increase the average number of hours per response from 18 hours to 19 hours for those reporting data. The reporting thresholds of the current BE-125 survey will be retained. The effort to keep current reporting thresholds unchanged is intended to minimize respondent burden while considering the needs of data users. Existing language in the instructions and definitions will be reviewed and adjusted as necessary to clarify survey requirements.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to OIRA
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review and a concurrent new-shipper review of the antidumping duty order on certain cut-to-length carbon-quality steel plate products (CTL plate) from the Republic of Korea (Korea). The period of review (POR) is February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015. With respect to the administrative review, the Department preliminarily determines that the sole producer/exporter subject to the review, Dongkuk Steel Mill Co., Ltd. (DSM), made sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value. With respect to the new-shipper review, the Department preliminarily determines that Hyundai Steel Company (Hyundai Steel) did not make sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value. We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Yang Jin Chun or Thomas Schauer, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-5760 or (202) 482-0410, respectively.
The products covered by the antidumping duty order are certain CTL plate. Imports of CTL plate are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings 7208.40.3030, 7208.40.3060, 7208.51.0030, 7208.51.0045, 7208.51.0060, 7208.52.0000, 7208.53.0000, 7208.90.0000, 7210.70.3000, 7210.90.9000, 7211.13.0000, 7211.14.0030, 7211.14.0045, 7211.90.0000, 7212.40.1000, 7212.40.5000, 7212.50.0000, 7225.40.3050, 7225.40.7000, 7225.50.6000, 7225.99.0090, 7226.91.5000, 7226.91.7000, 7226.91.8000, and 7226.99.0000. While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description is dispositive. A full description of the scope of the order is contained in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
As explained in the memorandum from the Acting Assistant Secretary for Enforcement & Compliance, the Department has exercised its discretion to toll all administrative deadlines due to the recent closure of the Federal Government. All deadlines in this segment of the proceeding have been extended by four business days. The revised deadline for the preliminary results of these reviews is now March 4, 2016.
We are rescinding the administrative review in part with respect to BDP International, Daewoo International Corp., GS Global Corp., Hyundai Glovis, Hyundai Steel, Iljin Steel, Samsung C&T Corporation, Samsung C&T Engineering & Construction Group, Samsung C&T Trading and Investment Group, Samsung Heavy Industries, and Steel N People Ltd.
The Department conducted these reviews in accordance with section 751 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Constructed export price is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Normal value is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As a result of this administrative review, we preliminarily determine that a weighted-average dumping margin of 1.11 percent exists for Dongkuk Steel Mill Co., Ltd., for the period February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015.
As a result of this new shipper review, we preliminarily determine that a weighted-average dumping margin of 0.00 percent exists for merchandise produced and exported by Hyundai Steel Company for the period February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015.
We intend to disclose the calculations performed for these preliminary results to the parties within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c), interested parties may submit case briefs not later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically
If a respondent's weighted-average dumping margin is above
For entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by DSM or Hyundai Steel for which they did not know their merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate unreviewed entries at the all-others rate if there is no rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction.
We intend to issue liquidation instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of these reviews.
The following deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results of these reviews for all shipments of CTL plate from Korea entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate with respect to the administrative review respondent will be the rate established in the final results of the review; (2) for merchandise exported by manufacturers or exporters not covered in these reviews but covered in a prior segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recent period; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in these reviews, a prior review, or the original investigation but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent period for the manufacturer of the merchandise; (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 0.98 percent,
With respect to Hyundai Steel, the new shipper respondent, the Department established a combination cash deposit rate for this company consistent with its practice as follows: (1) For subject merchandise produced and exported by Hyundai Steel, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for Hyundai Steel in the final results of the NSR; (2) for subject merchandise exported by Hyundai Steel, but not produced by Hyundai Steel, the cash deposit rate will be the rate for the all-others rate established in the less-than-fair-value investigation; and (3) for subject merchandise produced by Hyundai Steel but not exported by Hyundai Steel, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the exporter.
These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
The Department is issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1), 751(a)(2)(B), 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.214 and 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“Department”) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of welded stainless pressure pipe (“welded stainless pipe”) from India. The period of investigation is January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014. We invite interested parties to comment on this preliminary determination.
Andrew Medley at (202) 482-4987, or Amanda Mallott at (202) 482-6430, AD/
The merchandise covered by this investigation is circular welded austenitic stainless pressure pipe not greater than 14 inches in outside diameter, from India. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
The Department is conducting this countervailing duty (“CVD”) investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”). For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we preliminarily determine that there is a subsidy,
On January 20, 2016, Bristol Metals, LLC, Felker Brothers Corp, Outokumpu Stainless Pipe, Inc., and Marcegaglia USA (collectively, “Petitioners”) submitted a request that the Department expand its investigation to include 16 additional subsidy programs.
In accordance with section 703(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, we calculated an individual rate for each producer/exporter of the subject merchandise individually investigated. In accordance with sections 703(d) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act, for companies not individually examined, we apply an “all-others” rate, which is normally calculated by weighting the subsidy rates of the individual companies as respondents by those companies' exports of the subject merchandise to the United States. Under section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, the all-others rate should exclude zero and
We preliminarily determine the countervailable subsidy rates to be:
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(B) and (d)(2) of the Act, we are directing U.S. Customs and Border Protection to suspend liquidation of all entries of welded stainless pipe from India that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of the publication of this notice in the
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, we intend to verify the information submitted in response to the Department's questionnaires prior to making our final determination.
On February 9, 2016, in accordance with section 705(a)(1) of the Act, Petitioners requested an alignment of the final CVD determination with the final antidumping duty (“AD”) determination of welded stainless pipe from India.
The Department intends to disclose calculations performed for this
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed request must be received successfully, and in its entirety, by ACCESS by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number; the number of participants; and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a date, time, and specific location to be determined. Parties will be notified of the date, time, and location of any hearing. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, we will notify the International Trade Commission (“ITC”) of our determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information relating to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order, without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
In accordance with section 705(b)(2) of the Act, if our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will make its final determination within 45 days after the Department makes its final determination.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is circular welded austenitic stainless pressure pipe not greater than 14 inches in outside diameter. References to size are in nominal inches and include all products within tolerances allowed by pipe specifications. This merchandise includes, but is not limited to, the American Society for Testing and Materials (“ASTM”) A-312 or ASTM A-778 specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications. ASTM A-358 products are only included when they are produced to meet ASTM A-312 or ASTM A-778 specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications.
Excluded from the scope of the investigation are: (1) Welded stainless mechanical tubing, meeting ASTM A-554 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications; (2) boiler, heat exchanger, superheater, refining furnace, feedwater heater, and condenser tubing, meeting ASTM A-249, ASTM A-688 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications; and (3) specialized tubing, meeting ASTM A-269, ASTM A-270 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications.
The subject imports are normally classified in subheadings 7306.40.5005, 7306.40.5040, 7306.40.5062, 7306.40.5064, and 7306.40.5085 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”). They may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 7306.40.1010, 7306.40.1015, 7306.40.5042, 7306.40.5044, 7306.40.5080, and 7306.40.5090. The HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes only; the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on large residential washers from Mexico. The period of review (POR) is February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015. The review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, Electrolux Home Products Corp. N.V. and Electrolux Home Products de Mexico, S.A. de C.V. (collectively, Electrolux). We preliminarily determine that sales of subject merchandise by Electrolux have been made at prices below normal value (NV). We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Brian Smith or Brandon Custard, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1766 or (202) 482-1823.
The products covered by the order are all large residential washers and certain subassemblies thereof from Mexico. The products are currently classifiable under subheadings 8450.20.0040 and 8450.20.0080 of the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS). Products subject to this order may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 8450.11.0040, 8450.11.0080, 8450.90.2000, and 8450.90.6000. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise subject to this scope is dispositive.
The Department conducted this review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and (2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Constructed export price is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. NV is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As a result of this review, the Department preliminarily determines that a weighted-average margin of 2.47 percent exists for Electrolux for the period February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015.
We will disclose the calculations performed to parties in this segment of the proceeding within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Interested parties may submit case briefs not later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce. All documents must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically filed request must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, unless the deadline is extended.
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
We calculated importer-specific
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 41 days after the publication date of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for Electrolux will be the rate established in the final results of this review, except if the rate is less than 0.50 percent and, therefore,
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on large residential washers from the Republic of Korea. The period of review (POR) is February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015. The review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, LG Electronics, Inc. (LGE). We preliminarily determine that sales of subject merchandise by LGE have been made at prices below normal value (NV). We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
David Goldberger, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-4136.
The products covered by the order are all large residential washers and certain subassemblies thereof from Korea. The products are currently classifiable under subheadings 8450.20.0040 and 8450.20.0080 of the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS). Products subject to this order may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 8450.11.0040, 8450.11.0080, 8450.90.2000, and 8450.90.6000. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise subject to this scope is dispositive.
The Department conducted this review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and (2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Export price and constructed export price are calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. NV is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As a result of this review, the Department preliminarily determines that a weighted-average margin of 1.64 percent exists for LGE for the period February 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015.
We will disclose the calculations performed to parties in this segment of the proceeding within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Interested parties may submit case briefs not later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce. All documents must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically filed request must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, unless the deadline is extended.
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
We calculated importer-specific
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication date of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for LGE will be the rate established in the final results of this review, except if the rate is less than 0.50 percent and, therefore,
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“Department”) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on furfuryl alcohol from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”). The period of review (“POR”) is June 1, 2014, through May 31, 2015. The review covers one exporter of subject merchandise.
Effective March 11, 2016.
Mandy Mallott, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6430.
On August 3, 2015, the Department initiated the first administrative review of the antidumping duty order on furfuryl alcohol from the PRC.
The merchandise covered by this order is furfuryl alcohol (C
The Department considers the PRC to be an nonmarket economy (“NME”) country.
In the
Although WenKem reported it had no shipments of furfuryl alcohol to the United States during the POR, we received a response from CBP contrary to this claim.
The Department's change in policy regarding conditional review of the PRC-wide entity applies to this administrative review.
The Department preliminarily determines that Qingdao WenKem Co., Ltd. is part of the PRC-wide entity and that the following weighted-average dumping margin applies for the period June 1, 2014, through May 31, 2015:
Interested parties may submit case briefs within 30 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results of review in the
Any interested party may request a hearing within 30 days of publication of
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of our analysis of all issues raised in the case briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results in the
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review. The Department intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication date of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) As described above, we preliminarily determine that WenKem is not eligible for a separate rate, and therefore, as part of the PRC-wide entity, its exports to the U.S. are subject to the PRC-wide rate of 45.27 percent; (2) for previously investigated or reviewed PRC and non-PRC exporters who are not under review in this segment of the proceeding but who have separate rates, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the exporter-specific rate published for the most recent period; (3) for all PRC exporters of subject merchandise that have not been found to be entitled to a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be the PRC-wide rate of 45.27 percent; and (4) for all non-PRC exporters of subject merchandise which have not received their own rate, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the PRC exporter(s) that supplied that non-PRC exporter. These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement off antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This administrative review and notice are in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting via webinar.
The Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic Fishery Management Councils will hold a Joint Spiny Lobster Review Panel meeting via webinar.
The webinar will convene on Monday, March 28, 2016, 10 a.m. to 12 p.m. EDT.
The meeting will take place via webinar.
Dr. Morgan Kilgour, Fishery Biologist, Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council;
Please register for the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic Fishery Management Councils: Joint Spiny Lobster Review Panel Meeting on March 28, 2016, 10 a.m. EDT at:
Staff will start the meeting with introductions. The review panel will review the 2014/15 spiny lobster landings and the 2015 Spiny Lobster Review Panel Report. The review panel will also review landings, effort, projections and commercial reporting requirements. The review panel will then discuss the 2014/2015 Annual Catch Target (ACT) overage.
The Agenda is subject to change, and the latest version along with other meeting materials will be posted on the Council's file server. To access the file server, the URL is
The meeting will be webcast over the Internet. A link to the webcast will be available on the Council's Web site,
Although other non-emergency issues not on the agenda may come before the Review Panel for discussion, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Actions of the Review Panel will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in the agenda and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Kathy Pereira at the Gulf Council Office (see
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that Evin Hildebrandt, Ph.D., University of Massachusetts Medical School, 55 Lake Avenue, S3-221, Worcester, MA 01655, has applied in due form for a permit to receive and create cell lines from marine mammal cetaceans species for scientific research.
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before April 11, 2016.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species (APPS) home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Jennifer Skidmore, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant is requesting authorization to receive cell lines from other researchers and to create cell lines from animal tissues obtained from the stranding network under a regional authorization letter for scientific research purposes. Up to 15 cell lines would be received or created annually from unidentified cetacean species. These cell lines would be used to study the evolution of endogenous viruses (viruses that integrate into the genome of the host) using the DNA and RNA sequencing. No takes of live animals is proposed and a permit is requested for a 5 year period.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Herring Advisory Panel to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 29, 2016 at 10 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Holiday Inn, 300 Woodbury Avenue, Portsmouth, NH 03801; phone: (603) 431-8000; fax: (603) 431-2065.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Advisory Panel plans to discuss and provide recommendations to the Herring Committee on Amendment 8 to the Atlantic Herring Fishery Management Plan in regards to plans for a public workshop on the Management Strategy Evaluation of Atlantic Herring Acceptable Biological Catch control rules, Plan Development Team (PDT) analyses related to localized depletion in inshore waters and potentially develop a definition of localized depletion, a problem statement and related measures, and/or task PDT with additional analyses. The Panel also plans to discuss Georges Bank haddock catch cap accountability measures (AMs), specifically, plans to potentially develop a framework adjustment in 2016 to consider revising the AMs. Other business will be discussed as necessary.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
In notice document 2016-05179 appearing on pages 12479-12480 in the issue of March 9, 2016, make the following correction:
On page 12479, in the third column, under the
Corporation for National and Community Service.
Notice.
The Corporation for National and Community Service (CNCS) has submitted a public information collection request (ICR) entitled Process Evaluation of the Social Innovation Fund (SIF) Pay for Success (PFS) Program for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, (44 U.S.C. chapter 35). Copies of this ICR, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by calling the Corporation for National and Community Service, Lily Zandniapour, at 202-606-6939 or email to
Comments may be submitted, identified by the title of the information collection activity, within April 11, 2016.
Comments may be submitted, identified by the title of the information collection activity, to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: Ms. Sharon Mar, OMB Desk Officer for the Corporation for National and Community Service, by any of the following two methods within 30 days from the date of publication in the
(1) By fax to: 202-395-6974, Attention: Ms. Sharon Mar, OMB Desk Officer for the Corporation for National and Community Service; or
(2) By email to:
The OMB is particularly interested in comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of CNCS, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Propose ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Propose ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
A 60-day Notice requesting public comment was published in the
U.S. Air Force Academy Board of Visitors, DOD.
Amended meeting notice.
In accordance with 10 U.S.C. Section 9355, the U.S. Air Force Academy (USAFA) Board of Visitors (BoV) will hold a meeting at the Falcon Club, U.S. Air Force Academy, Colorado Springs, CO, on March 18, 2016. On Friday, the meeting will begin at 9:00 a.m. and will end at 3:45 p.m. Due to
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice to alter a System of Records.
The Department of the Army proposes to alter a system of records notice AAFES 0602.04a, entitled “Legal Office Management System,” to review and process charges and claims of unfair labor practices through formal/informal negotiations; to review and process bankruptcy related claims; for managerial and statistical reports; to process other legal complaints against individuals; to initiate litigation as necessary; to investigate other claims and prepare responses; and to defend the Exchange in civil suits filed against it in the Federal Court System.
Comments will be accepted on or before April 11, 2016. This proposed action will be effective on the date following the end of the comment period unless comments are received which result in a contrary determination.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
*
*
Ms. Tracy Rogers, Department of the Army, Privacy Office, U.S. Army Records Management and Declassification Agency, 7701 Telegraph Road, Casey Building, Suite 144, Alexandria, VA 22325-3827 or by calling (703) 428-7499.
The Department of the Army's notices for systems of records subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended, have been published in the
The proposed systems reports, as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(r) of the Privacy Act, as amended, were submitted on February 18, 2016, to the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform, the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs, and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) pursuant to paragraph 4c of Appendix I to OMB Circular No. A-130, “Federal Agency Responsibilities for Maintaining Records About Individuals,” dated February 8, 1996 (February 20, 1996, 61 FR 6427).
Legal Office Management System (May 9, 2001, 66 FR 23683)
Delete entry and replace with “AAFES 0602.04”.
Delete entry and replace with “Office of the General Counsel at Headquarters, Army and Air Force Exchange Service, 3911 S. Walton Walker Boulevard, Dallas, TX 75236-1598; Personnel offices at Exchange Regions and Area Exchanges at posts, bases, and satellites world-wide. Official mailing addresses are published as an appendix to the Army's compilation of systems of records notices.”
Delete entry and replace with “Employees of the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (Exchange) who are permitted to file charges/claims pursuant to Executive Order 11491, as amended; individuals who file any other type of complaint and/or claim or similar pleading in a court or administrative body against the Exchange; individuals involved with the Exchange on other legal matters or proceedings, including bankruptcy; an Exchange employee who is named as a defendant; individuals against whom the Exchange has filed a complaint or similar pleading in a court or administrative body, and/or other individuals who are involved in the investigation or legal matter.”
Delete entry and replace with “Individual's or claimant's name, address, phone number, AAFES case number, Social Security Number (SSN), date of birth, sex, marital status, age, credit card number, credit account history, bankruptcy data and similar information that could be used as evidence in litigation or to further an investigation, as well as materials and information received from opposing counsel or outside sources involved in a legal matter,
Delete entry and replace with “10 U.S.C. 3013, Secretary of the Army; 10 U.S.C. 8013, Secretary of the Air Force; E.O. 11491, Labor-management Relations in the Federal Service, as amended; Army Regulation 60-21, Exchange Service Personnel Policies; Army Regulation 215-1, Military Morale, Welfare, and Recreation Activities and Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities; Army Regulation 215-8/AFI 34-211(I), Army and Air Force Exchange Service Operations; and E.O. 9397 (SSN), as amended.”
Delete entry and replace with “To review and process charges and claims of unfair labor practices through formal/informal negotiations; to review and process bankruptcy related claims; for managerial and statistical reports; to process other legal complaints against individuals; to initiate litigation as necessary; to investigate other claims and prepare responses; and to defend the Exchange in civil suits filed against it in the Federal Court System.”
Delete entry and replace with “In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, these records contained therein may specifically be disclosed outside the DoD as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
Disclosure to consumer reporting agencies. Disclosures pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12) may be made from this system to `consumer reporting agencies' as defined in the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)) or the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966 (31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3)). The purpose of this disclosure is to aid in the collection of outstanding debts owed to the Federal government; typically to provide an incentive for debtors to repay delinquent Federal government debts by making these debts part of their credit records.
Disclosure of records is limited to the individual's name, address, Social Security Number (SSN), and other information necessary to establish the individual's identity; the amount, status, and history of the claim; and the agency program under which the claim arose. This disclosure will be made only after the procedural requirement of 31 U.S.C. 3711(f) has been followed.
The DoD Blanket Routine Uses set forth at the beginning of the Army's compilation of system of records notices may apply to this system. The complete list of DoD Blanket Routine Uses can be found online at:
Delete entry and replace with “Electronic storage media and paper records.”
Delete entry and replace with “By the individual's surname and SSN of defendant in the proceeding.”
Delete entry and replace with “Records are maintained in a controlled facility. Physical entry is restricted by the use of locks, guards, and is accessible only to authorized personnel. Access to records is limited to person(s) with an official need to know who are responsible for servicing the record in performance of their official duties. Persons are properly screened and cleared for access. Access to computerized data is role-based and further restricted by passwords, which are changed periodically. In addition, integrity of automated data is ensured by internal audit procedures, data base access accounting reports and controls to preclude unauthorized disclosure.”
Delete entry and replace with “Documents relating to legal opinions establishing precedence policies, and procedures regarding laws, regulations, directives, and decision, and their effect on the Exchange are maintained permanently. Litigation case files are cutoff at the close of the Exchange fiscal year in which the case is closed and then destroyed by shredding or by erasing/reformatting electronic media 10 years thereafter. Unfair Labor Claims/Charges are maintained for 3 years after the claim is closed, then retained for 5 years in an active file, then transferred to the servicing Exchange warehouse or General Services Administration records holding center for an additional 5 years at which time they are destroyed either by shredding or erasing/reformatting the electronic media. Workers' Compensation files are maintained at the corporate level for a period of one year after the case is closed and then transferred to the Federal Record Center for a period of 30 years after the close date and destroyed by shredding and erasing/reformatting electronic media. All other files are maintained for a period of 10 years after the closing of the case or judicial proceedings have been resolved, after which they are destroyed by shredding or erasing/reformatting electronic media.”
Delete entry and replace with “Director/Chief Executive Officer, Army and Air Force Exchange Service, 3911 S. Walton Walker Boulevard, Dallas, TX 75236-1598.”
Delete entry and replace with “Individuals seeking to determine whether information about themselves is contained in this system should address written inquiries to the Director/Chief Executive Officer, Army and Air Force Exchange Service, 3911 S. Walton Walker Boulevard, Dallas, TX 75236-1598.
Individual should provide their full name, SSN, current address and telephone number, last employing station, AAFES case number if applicable and details sufficient to assist in locating the record, and signature.
In addition, the requestor must provide a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
If executed outside the United States: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature)'
If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature)'.”
Delete entry and replace with “Individuals seeking access to information about themselves contained in this system should address written inquiries to the Director/Chief Executive Officer, Army and Air Force Exchange Service, ATTN: FOIA/Privacy Manager, 3911 S. Walton Walker Boulevard, Dallas, TX 75236-1598.
Individual should provide their full name, SSN, current address and telephone number, last employing station, AAFES case number if applicable and details sufficient to locate the record, and signature.
In addition, the requestor must provide a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
If executed outside the United States: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct.
Executed on (date). (Signature).'
If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature)'.”
Delete entry and replace with “From the individual, the union representative, witnesses, official records of the Army and Air Force Exchange Service, Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) and other DoD systems as applicable per the case.”
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice to alter a System of Records.
The Department of the Army proposes to alter a system of records, A0040-31b DASG, entitled “Research and Experimental Case Files”. This is now a closed system; no new records may be added. Records will be used to enable follow up of volunteers who participated in Army medical research projects concerning chemical agents for the purpose of assessing risks/hazards to them, and for retrospective medical/scientific evaluation and future scientific and legal significance.
Comments will be accepted on or before April 11, 2016. This proposed action will be effective on the day following the end of the comment period unless comments are received which result in a contrary determination.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
*
*
Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this
Ms. Tracy Rogers, Department of the Army, Privacy Office, U.S. Army Records Management and Declassification Agency, 7701 Telegraph Road, Casey Building, Suite 144, Alexandria, VA 22315-3827 or by phone at 703-428-7499.
The Department of the Army systems of records notices subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended, have been published in the
The proposed system report, as required by 5 U.S.C 552a(r) of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, was submitted on February 16, 2016, to the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform, the Senate Committee on Governmental Affairs, and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) pursuant to paragraph 4c of Appendix I of OMB Circular No. A-130, Federal Agency Responsibilities for Maintaining Records About Individuals,” dated February 8, 1996 (February 20, 1996, 61 FR 6427).
Research and Experimental Case Files (April 4, 2003, 68 FR 16484)
Delete entry and replace with “CLOSED—Research and Experimental Case Files.”
Delete entry and replace with “U.S. Army Medical Research Institute of Chemical Defense (USAMRICD), 2900 Ricketts Point Road, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21010-5400.”
Delete entry and replace with “This is a closed system—no new records will be
Delete entry and replace with “Name, Social Security Number (SSN), military service number, history and record of patient treatment, to include individual pre-test physical examination records and test records of performance and biomedical parameters measured during and after test exposure.”
Delete entry and replace with “10 U.S.C. 3013, Secretary of the Army; Army Regulation 40-31, Armed Forces Institute of Pathology and Armed Forces Histopathology Centers; DoD Instruction 5154.30, Armed Forces Medical Examiner System (AFMES) Operations; 45 CFR part 160, Department of Health and Human Services General Administrative Requirements; 45 CFR part 164, Department of Health and Human Services Security and Privacy; and E.O. 9397 (SSN), as amended.”
Delete entry and replace with “Records were used to enable follow up of volunteers who participated in Army medical research projects concerning chemical agents for the purpose of assessing risks/hazards to them, and for retrospective medical/scientific evaluation and future scientific and legal significance.”
Delete entry and replace with “In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, the records contained therein may specifically be disclosed outside the DoD as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
Information may be disclosed to the Department of Veterans Affairs in connection with benefits determinations.
The DoD Blanket Routine Uses set forth at the beginning of the Army's compilation of systems of records notices may apply to this system. The complete list of DoD Blanket Routine Uses can be found online at:
This system of records contains individually identifiable health information. The DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation (DoD 6025.18-R) issued pursuant to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, applies to most such health information. DoD 6025.18-R may place additional procedural requirements on the uses and disclosures of such information beyond those found in the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, or mentioned in this system of records notice.”
Delete entry and replace with “Paper, electronic storage media, and microfiche.”
Delete entry and replace with “Individual's name, military service number, or SSN.”
Delete entry and replace with “Records are maintained in a controlled area accessible only to authorized personnel. Access to personally identifiable information in this system of records is restricted to those who require the data in the performance of the official duties. The USAMRICD utilizes ID badges, closed circuit television, and electronic key access as physical security measures that ensure only authorized personnel have access to the records storage area. The electronic files are stored on compact disk storage media and secured in the same location as the paper records. The disks are accessed on Common Access Card (CAC) login-secured computers and then stored when not in use. Electronic copies of the records are not stored on any computer.”
Delete entry and replace with “Electronic records will be owned by the Army and maintained by the system owner at USAMRICD, 2900 Ricketts Point Road, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21010-5400. Original hard copy records are now stored at the National Archives, 1 Archives Drive, St. Louis MO 63138-1001, for permanent retention. Records relating to research studies that require a signed consent form from participants will be retained for 75 years. Records will be destroyed by shredding or deleting.”
Delete entry and replace with “Chief Information Officer, US Army Medical Research Institute of Chemical Defense (USAMRICD), 2900 Ricketts Point Road, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21010-5400.”
Delete entry and replace with “Individuals seeking to determine whether information about themselves is contained in this system should address written inquiries to the FOIA/Privacy Act Officer, U.S. Army Medical Research Institute of Chemical Defense (USARMRICD), 2900 Ricketts Point Road, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21010-5400.
Individual should provide full name, military service number or SSN, current address, and telephone number of the requester.
In addition, the requester must provide a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
If executed outside the United States: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).'
If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).' ”
Delete entry and replace with “Individuals seeking access to information about themselves contained in this system should address written inquiries to the FOIA/Privacy Act Officer, U.S. Army Medical Research Institute of Chemical Defense (USARMRICD), 2900 Ricketts Point Road, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21010-5400.
Individual should provide full name, military service number or SSN, current address, and telephone number of the requester.
In addition, the requester must provide a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, in the following format:
If executed outside the United States: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).'
If executed within the United States, its territories, possessions, or commonwealths: `I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).' ”
Delete entry and replace with “The Army's rules for accessing records, and
Delete entry and replace with “Information was received from the individual through test and questionnaire forms completed at test location; from medical authorities and sources by evaluation of data collected previous to, during, and following tests while individual was in this research program.”
Office of Energy Policy and Systems Analysis, Secretariat, Quadrennial Energy Review Task Force, Department of Energy.
Notice of public meeting.
At the direction of the President, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE or Department), as the Secretariat for the Quadrennial Energy Review Task Force (QER Task Force), will convene public meetings for the second installment of the Quadrennial Energy Review, an integrated study of the U.S. electricity system from generation through end use. A mixture of panel discussions and a public comment period will frame multi-stakeholder discourse around deliberative analytical questions relating to the intersection of electricity and its role in promoting economic competitiveness, energy security, and environmental responsibility.
The public meetings will be held on March 31, 2016, in Atlanta, Georgia; April 15, 2016 in Boston, Massachusetts; April 25, 2016 in Salt Lake City, Utah; May 6, 2016 in Des Moines, Iowa; May 10, 2016 in Los Angeles, California; and in Austin, Texas, on a date to-be-determined. Written comments are welcome, especially following the public meetings, and should be submitted within 60 days of the meetings, but no later than July 1, 2016.
Meeting locations and addresses will be announced when they are available, in
John Richards, EPSA-60, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Policy and Systems Analysis, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121.
On January 9, 2014, President Obama issued a
The Quadrennial Energy Review process itself involves robust engagement of federal agencies and outside stakeholders, and further enables the federal government to translate policy goals into a set of analytically based, integrated actions for proposed investments over a four year planning horizon. Unlike traditional federal Quadrennial Review processes, the QER is conducted in a multi-year installment series to allow for more focused analysis on particular sub-sectors of the energy system. The initial focus for the Quadrennial Energy Review was our Nation's transmission, storage and distribution infrastructures that link energy supplies to intermediate and end users, because these capital-intensive infrastructures tend to set supply and end use patterns, investments and practices in place for decades. On April 21, 2015, the Quadrennial Energy Review Task Force released its first Quadrennial Energy Review installment report entitled, “Energy Transmission, Storage, and Distribution Infrastructure”. Among the issues highlighted by the analysis in the first installment of the QER were the growing dependencies of all critical infrastructures and economic sectors on electricity, as well as, the increasing interdependence of the various energy subsectors. In response to these findings, and to provide an appropriate consideration of an energy sector undergoing significant technological and regulatory change, the second installment of the QER will conduct a comprehensive review of the nation's electricity system, from generation to end use, including a more comprehensive look at electricity transmission, storage, and distribution infrastructure covered in installment one. The electricity system encompasses not just physical structures, but also a range of actors and institutions. Under this broad framing, the second installment intends to consider the roles and activities of all relevant actors, industries, and institutions integral to continuing to supply reliable and affordable electricity at a time of dramatic change in technology development. Issues to be considered in QER analyses include fuel choices, distributed and centralized generation, physical and cyber vulnerabilities, federal, state, and local policy direction, expectations of residential and commercial consumers, and a review of existing and evolving business models for a range of entities throughout the system.
Significant changes will be required to meet the transformational opportunities and challenges posed by our evolving electricity system. The Administration is seeking public input on key questions relating to possible federal actions that would address the challenges and take full advantage of the opportunities of this changing system to meet the Nation's objectives of reliable, affordable and clean electricity. Over the course of 2016, the Secretariat for the Quadrennial Energy Review Task Force will hold a series of public meetings to discuss and receive comments on the issues outlined above, and well as, others, as they relate to the second installment of the Quadrennial Energy Review.
The Department of Energy has a broad role in energy policy development and the largest role in implementing the Federal Government's energy research and development portfolio. Many other executive departments and agencies also play key roles in developing and implementing policies governing energy resources and consumption, as well as, associated environmental impacts. In addition, non-Federal actors are crucial contributors to energy policies. Because most energy and related infrastructure is owned by private entities, investment by and engagement of, input from the private sector is necessary to develop and implement effective policies. State and local policies, the views of non-governmental, environmental, faith-based, labor, and other social organizations, and contributions from
The interagency Quadrennial Energy Review Task Force, which includes members from all relevant executive departments and agencies, will develop an integrated review of energy policy that integrates all of these perspectives. It will build on the foundation provided in the Administration's
The DOE will hold public meetings on electricity from generation through end use, in the following cities:
Each meeting will feature facilitated panel discussions, followed by an open microphone session. People who would like to speak during the open microphone session at the public meeting should come prepared to speak for no more than five minutes and will be accommodated on a first-come, first-served basis, according to the order in which they register to speak on a sign-in sheet available at the meeting location, on the morning of the meeting. In advance of the meetings, DOE anticipates making publicly available a briefing memorandum providing useful background information regarding the topics under discussion at the meeting. DOE will post this memorandum on its Web site:
Do not submit information for which disclosure is restricted by statute, such as trade secrets and commercial or financial information (hereinafter referred to as Confidential Business Information (CBI)). Comments submitted through the DOE Web site cannot be claimed as CBI. Comments received through the Web site will waive any CBI claims for the information submitted. For information on submitting CBI, see the Confidential Business Information section, below.
If you do not want your personal contact information to be publicly viewable, do not include it in your comment or any accompanying documents. Instead, provide your contact information in a cover letter. Include your first and last names, email address, telephone number, and optional mailing address. The cover letter will not be publicly viewable as long as it does not include any comments.
Include contact information each time you submit comments, data, documents, and other information to DOE. If you submit via mail or hand delivery/courier, please provide all items on a CD, if feasible, in which case it is not necessary to submit printed copies. No telefacsimiles (faxes) will be accepted.
Comments, data, and other information submitted to DOE electronically should be provided in PDF (preferred), Microsoft Word or Excel, WordPerfect, or text (ASCII) file format. Provide documents that are not secured, written in English, and are free of any defects or viruses. Documents should not contain special characters or any form of encryption and, if possible, they should carry the electronic signature of the author.
Factors of interest to DOE when evaluating requests to treat submitted information as confidential include: (1) A description of the items; (2) whether and why such items are customarily treated as confidential within the industry; (3) whether the information is generally known by or available from other sources; (4) whether the information has previously been made available to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality; (5) an explanation of the competitive injury to the submitting person which would result from public disclosure; (6) when such information might lose its confidential character due to the passage of time; and (7) why disclosure of the information would be contrary to the public interest. It is DOE's policy that all comments may be included in the public docket, without change and as received, including any personal information provided in the comments (except information deemed to be exempt from public disclosure).
Fuel Cycle Technologies, Office of Nuclear Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of public meeting.
The U.S Department of Energy (DOE) is implementing a consent-based siting process to establish an integrated waste management system to transport, store, and dispose of spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste. In a consent-based siting approach, DOE will work with communities, tribal governments and states across the country that express interest in hosting any of the facilities identified as part of an integrated waste management system. As part of this process, the Department is hosting a series of public meetings to engage
The meeting will take place on Tuesday March 29, 2016 from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. CDT. Informal poster sessions will be held from 12:00 p.m. until 1:00 p.m. and again after 5:00 p.m. Department officials will be available to discuss consent-based siting during the poster sessions.
The meeting will be held at the Gleacher Center, 450 North Cityfront Plaza Drive, Chicago, IL 60611. To review the agenda for the meeting and to register, please go to
Requests for further information should be sent to
If you are unable to attend a public meeting or would like to further discuss ideas for consent-based siting, please request an opportunity for us to speak with you. The Department will do its best to accommodate such requests and help arrange additional opportunities to engage. To learn more about nuclear energy, nuclear waste, and ongoing technical work please go to
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On March 23, 2015, Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC (Transco) filed an application in Docket No. CP15-118-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate the Virginia Southside Expansion Project II (Project). The purpose of the Project is to provide up to 250,000 dekatherms per day of firm natural gas transportation service to a planned Virginia Electric and Power Company combined-cycle gas-fired power station in Greensville County, Virginia.
On April 1, 2015, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's Environmental Assessment (EA) for the Project. This instant notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for the completion of the EA for the Project.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, an additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Transco proposes to construct and operate 4.3 miles of 24-inch-diameter pipeline, a meter and regulator station, and pig launcher/receiver facilities in Brunswick and Greensville Counties, Virginia. In addition, Transco would add 21,830 horsepower of compression to Compressor Station 166 in Pittsville County, Virginia; add 25,000 horsepower of compression to Compressor Station 185 in Prince William County, Virginia; and construct minor modifications at 19 facilities in Cherokee and Spartanburg Counties, South Carolina and Polk County, North Carolina, including odorization/deodorization facility modifications, valves, and valve operators.
On May 6, 2015, the Commission issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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Take notice that a technical conference will be held on Tuesday, April 5, 2016, at 9:00 a.m. (Eastern Standard Time), in Hearing Room 5 at the offices of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
At the technical conference, the Commission Staff and the parties to the proceeding should be prepared to discuss all issues set for technical conference as established in the January 28, 2016 Order (
Commission conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations please send an email to
For more information about this technical conference, please contact David Faerberg, 202-502-8275,
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On February 24, 2016, White River Electric Association filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), as amended by section 4 of the Hydropower Regulatory Efficiency Act of 2013 (HREA).
The proposed project would have a total installed capacity of 180 kW.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all of the criteria shown in the table below.
Deadline for filing motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
Anyone may submit comments or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210 and 385.214. Any motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline date for the particular proceeding.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that Commission staff will convene a technical conference on June 27, 28, and 29, 2016 to discuss opportunities for increasing real-time and day-ahead market efficiency through improved software. A detailed agenda with the list of and times for the selected speakers will be published on the Commission's Web site
This conference will bring together experts from diverse backgrounds and experiences, including electric system operators, software developers, government, research centers and academia for the purposes of stimulating discussion, sharing information, and identifying fruitful avenues for research concerning the technical aspects of improved software for increasing efficiency. This conference is intended to build on the discussions initiated in the previous Commission staff technical conferences on increasing market and planning efficiency through improved software. As such, staff will be facilitating a discussion to explore research and operational advances with respect to market modeling that appear to have significant promise for potential efficiency improvements. Broadly, such topics fall into the following categories:
(1) Improvements to the representation of physical constraints that are either not currently modeled or currently modeled using mathematical approximations (
(2) Consideration of uncertainty to better maximize expected market surplus (
(3) Improvements to the ability to identify and use flexibility in the existing systems (
(4) Improvements to the duality interpretations of the economic dispatch model, with the goal of enabling the calculation of prices which represent better equilibrium and are more incentive-compatible; and
(5) Other improvements in algorithms, model formulations, or hardware that may allow for increases in market efficiency.
Within these or related subject areas, we encourage presentations that discuss best modeling practices, existing modeling practices that need improvement, any advances made since last year's conference, or related perspectives on increasing market efficiency through improved power systems modeling.
The technical conference will be held at the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission headquarters, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426. All interested participants are invited to attend, and participants with ideas for relevant presentations are invited to nominate themselves to speak at the conference.
Speaker nominations must be submitted on or before April 8, 2016 through the Commission's Web site
Although registration is not required for general attendance by United States citizens, we encourage those planning to attend the conference to register through the Commission's Web site.
We strongly encourage attendees who are not citizens of the United States to register for the conference by June 1, 2016, in order to avoid any delay associated with being processed by FERC security.
The Commission will accept comments following the conference, with a deadline of July 31, 2016.
There is an “eSubscription” link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
A WebEx will be available. Off-site participants interested in listening via teleconference or listening and viewing the presentations through WebEx must register at
FERC conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations please send an email to
For further information about these conferences, please contact:
Take notice that PJM Interconnection, L.L.C., Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., ISO New England, Inc., New York Independent System Operator, Inc., Southwest Power Pool, Inc., and the California Independent System Operator Corporation (collectively, RTOs/ISOs), each separately, filed reports in response to the Order Directing Reports issued by the Commission on November 20, 2015.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of comments in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On February 19, 2016 the staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) issued a draft environmental impact statement (EIS) for the Rover Pipeline, Panhandle Backhaul, and Trunkline Backhaul Projects (Projects). The draft EIS assesses the potential environmental effects of the construction and operation of the Projects in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). The draft EIS was mailed to the parties on the Commission's environmental mailing list and placed on the FERC's Web site (
The Commission invites you to attend one of the public comment meetings its staff will conduct in the Projects' area to receive verbal comments on the draft EIS, scheduled as follows:
We will begin our sign up of speakers at 5:30 p.m. The comments meetings will begin at 6:00 p.m. with a description of our environmental review process by Commission staff, after which speakers will be called. The meetings will end once all speakers have provided their comments or at 10 p.m., whichever comes first. Please note that there may be a time limit of three minutes to present comments, and speakers should structure their comments accordingly. If time limits are implemented, they will be strictly enforced to ensure that as many individuals as possible are given an opportunity to comment. The meetings will be recorded by a court reporter to ensure comments are accurately recorded. Transcripts will be entered into the formal record of the Commission proceeding.
You do not need to attend one of the above comment meetings to provide comment to the Commission on the draft EIS. For your convenience, there are three additional methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission will provide equal consideration to all comments received, whether filed in written form or provided verbally. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the eComment feature on the Commission's Web site (
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the eFiling feature on the Commission's Web site
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the applicable project docket number (CP15-93-000, CP15-94-000, or CP15-96-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
To ensure consideration of your comments on the proposals in the final EIS, it is important that the Commission receive your comments on or before April 11, 2016. Please take note that on February 26, 2016, Commission staff issued a correction to Appendix I-1 of the EIS and placed the document in the public record under accession number 20160226-3005.
Additional information about the projects is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription that allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
On March 19, 2015, Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC (Transco) filed an application in Docket No. CP15-117-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Dalton Expansion Project (Project), and would provide 448,000 dekatherms per day of incremental firm transportation service to markets in northwest Georgia.
On April 2, 2015, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's Environmental Assessment (EA) for the Project. This instant notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for the completion of the EA for the Project.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Transco plans to construct and operate about 113 miles of new natural gas pipeline, and associated facilities in Coweta, Carroll, Douglas, Paulding, Bartow, Gordon, and Murray Counties, Georgia and install a new 21,830 horsepower compressor station in Carroll County, Georgia. Additionally, Transco plans to modify existing facilities along its mainline transmission system in Maryland, Virginia, and North Carolina to accommodate bidirectional flow.
On October 21, 2014, FERC staff issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following PURPA 210(m)(3) filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Office of Federal Activities, General Information (202) 564-7146 or
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
In this document, the Commission released a public notice announcing the meeting and agenda of the North American Numbering Council (NANC). The intended effect of this action is to make the public aware of the NANC's next meeting and agenda.
Thursday, March 24, 2016, 10:00 a.m.
Requests to make an oral statement or provide written comments to the NANC should be sent to Carmell Weathers, Competition Policy Division, Wireline Competition Bureau, Federal Communications Commission, Portals II, 445 12th Street SW., Room 5-C162, Washington, DC 20554.
Carmell Weathers at (202) 418-2325 or
This is a summary of the Commission's document in CC Docket No. 92-237, DA 16-188 released February 22, 2016. The complete text in this document is available for public inspection and copying during normal business hours in the FCC Reference Information Center, Portals II, 445 12th Street SW., Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. The document may also be purchased from the Commission's duplicating contractor, Best Copy and Printing, Inc., 445 12th Street SW., Room CY-B402, Washington, DC 20554, telephone (800) 378-3160 or (202) 863-2893, facsimile (202) 863-2898, or via the Internet at
The North American Numbering Council (NANC) has scheduled a meeting to be held Thursday, March 24, 2016, from 10:00 a.m. until 2:00 p.m. The meeting will be held at the Federal Communications Commission, Portals II, 445 12th Street SW., Room TW-C305, Washington, DC. This meeting is open to members of the general public. The FCC will attempt to accommodate as many participants as possible. The public may submit written statements to the NANC, which must be received two business days before the meeting. In addition, oral statements at the meeting by parties or entities not represented on the NANC will be permitted to the extent time permits. Such statements will be limited to five minutes in length by any one party or entity, and requests to make an oral statement must be received two business days before the meeting.
People with Disabilities: To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
*The Agenda may be modified at the discretion of the NANC Chairman with the approval of the DFO.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before May 10, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
The Commission is requesting approval for an extension (no change in the reporting, recordkeeping and/or third-party disclosure requirements). Prepaid calling card service providers must report quarterly the percentage of interstate, intrastate and international access charges to carriers from which they purchase transport services. Prepaid calling card providers must also file certifications with the Commission quarterly that include the above information and a statement that they are contributing to the federal Universal Service Fund based on all interstate and international revenue, except for revenue from the sale of prepaid calling cards by, to, or pursuant to contract with the Department of Defense (DoD) or a DoD entity.
Pursuant to the provisions of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b), notice is hereby given that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's Board of Directors will meet in open session at 10:00 a.m. on Tuesday, March 15, 2016, to consider the following matters:
Disposition of minutes of previous Board of Directors' Meetings.
Summary reports, status reports, and reports of actions taken pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors.
Update of Projected Deposit Insurance Fund Losses, Income, and Reserve Ratios for the Restoration Plan.
Memorandum and resolution re: Final Rule on Implementing the Dodd-Frank Requirement to Increase the Reserve Ratio from 1.15 Percent to 1.35 Percent.
The meeting will be held in the Board Room located on the sixth floor of the FDIC Building located at 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC
This Board meeting will be Webcast live via the Internet and subsequently made available on-demand approximately one week after the event. Visit
The FDIC will provide attendees with auxiliary aids (
Requests for further information concerning the meeting may be directed to Mr. Robert E. Feldman, Executive Secretary of the Corporation, at 202-898-7043.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than March 28, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago (Colette A. Fried, Assistant Vice President) 230 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, Illinois 60690-1414:
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B. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
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C. Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas (Robert L. Triplett III, Senior Vice President) 2200 North Pearl Street, Dallas, Texas 75201-2272:
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Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project entitled “Prevalence Survey of Healthcare-Associated Infections (HAIs) and Antimicrobial Use in U.S. Nursing Homes.” This information collection request will generate data to describe the epidemiology and estimate the burden of HAIs and antimicrobial use in US nursing homes using the prevalence survey method. Results will be used to inform state prevention efforts and federal priority setting for public health initiatives to improve HAI prevention and antimicrobial use.
Written comments must be received on or before May 10, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0026 by any of the following methods:
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All public comment should be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking portal (Regulations.gov) or by U.S. mail to the address listed above.
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Prevalence Survey of Healthcare-Associated Infections and Antimicrobial Use in U.S. Nursing Homes—New—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Preventing healthcare-associated infections (HAI) and encouraging appropriate use of antimicrobials are priorities of both the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The burden and epidemiology of HAIs and antimicrobial use in U.S. nursing homes is currently unknown. Understanding the scope and magnitude of all types of HAIs in patient populations across the spectrum of U.S. healthcare facilities is essential to the development of effective prevention and control strategies and policies.
HAI prevalence and antimicrobial use estimates can be obtained through prevalence surveys in which data are collected in healthcare facilities during a short, specified time period. Essential steps in reducing the occurrence of HAIs and the prevalence of resistant pathogens include estimating the burden, types, and causative organisms of HAIs; assessing the nature and extent of antimicrobial use in U.S. healthcare facilities; and assessing the nature and extent of antimicrobial use.
Prevalence surveys, in which data are collected in healthcare facilities during a short, specified time period represent an efficient and cost-effective alternative to prospective studies of HAI and antimicrobial use incidence. Given the absence of existing HAI and antimicrobial use data collection mechanisms for nursing homes, prevalence surveys represent a robust method for obtaining the surveillance data required to identify HAIs and antibiotic use practices that should be targeted for more intensive surveillance and to guide and evaluate prevention efforts.
The methods for the data collection are based on those used in CDC hospital prevalence surveys and informed by a CDC pilot survey conducted in nine U.S. nursing homes. The survey will be performed by the CDC through the Emerging Infections Program (EIP), a collaboration with CDC and 10 state health departments with experience in HAI surveillance and data collection. Respondents are nursing homes certified by the Centers for Medicare & Medicare Services in EIP states. Nursing home participation is voluntary. Nursing homes will be randomly selected for participation, with a goal in each EIP site of recruiting a total of 20 nursing homes.
There will be no anticipated costs to respondents other than their time. Information collection will last approximately one year.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection plan entitled “Health Risks from Using Private Wells for Drinking Water.” The purpose of this new generic clearance information collection request (ICR) is to assess the health risks associated with exposure to contaminants in drinking water from private wells across varied geographic areas of the United States in partnership with the requesting agency (state, territorial, local, or tribal health department).
Written comments must be received on or before May 10, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0027 by any of the following methods:
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Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name and Docket Number. All relevant comments received will be posted without change to Regulations.gov, including any personal information provided. For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to Regulations.gov.
All public comment should be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking portal (Regulations.gov) or by U.S. mail to the address listed above.
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Health Risks from Using Private Wells for Drinking Water—New—National Center for Environmental Health (NCEH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974 ensures that most Americans are provided access to water that meets established public health standards. However, for over 38 million Americans who rely on private wells or other drinking water not protected by the Safe Drinking Water Act (herein referred to as private wells), that is not the case. There is no comprehensive knowledge about the locations of private wells, the populations served by these sources, potential contaminants that might be present in private well water in specific areas of the country, or the potential health risks associated with drinking water from these sources.
The purpose of this new generic clearance information collection request (Generic ICR) is to assess the health risks associated with exposure to contaminants in drinking water from private wells across varied geographic areas of the United States in partnership with the requesting agency (state, territorial, local, or tribal health department). The information obtained from these investigations will be used to describe health risks from exposure to contaminants in drinking water from private wells within a defined time period and geographic distribution. This information will be used to inform public health protection activities conducted by the requesting agencies.
The respondents are defined as adults at least 18 years old, who use private wells for drinking water, who are willing to receive and return a tap water sampling kit and urine specimen kit or to provide a blood specimen, and who are willing to answer survey questions. They will be recruited from geographic areas of interest as defined by the requesting agency.
Based on our historical activities, we estimate that CDC will conduct up to 10 investigations per year. Each investigation will involve, on average, 200 respondents who are adults at least 18 years old and use a private well for tap water.
The total time burden is 2,084 hours. There will be no cost to the respondents other than their time.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by April 11, 2016.
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: CMS Desk Officer, Fax Number: (202) 395-5806
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
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The form CMS-360 is a survey tool used by the State Survey Agencies to record information in order to determine a provider's compliance with the CORF Conditions of Participation (CoPs) and to report this information to the Federal government. The form includes basic information on the CoP requirements, check boxes to indicate the level of compliance, and a section for recording notes. We have the responsibility and authority for certification decisions which are based on provider compliance with the CoPs and this form supports this process.
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Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by May 10, 2016.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
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In notice document 2016-02278 beginning on page 6277 in the issue of Friday, February 5, 2016, make the following correction:
On page 6777, in the “DATES” section in the first column, “April 6, 2016” should read “March 7, 2016”.
The Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (PRWORA) created the “Grants to States for Access and Visitation” program (AV grant program). Funding for the program began in FY 1997 with a capped, annual entitlement of $10 million. The statutory goal of the program is to provide funds to states that will enable them to provide services for the purpose of increasing noncustodial parent (NCP) access to and visitation with their children. State governors decide which state entity will be responsible for implementing the AV grant program and the state determines who will be served, what services will be provided, and whether the services will be statewide or in local jurisdictions. The statute specifies certain activities which may be funded, including: Voluntary and mandatory mediation, counseling, education, the development of parenting plans, supervised visitation, and the development of guidelines for visitation and alternative custody arrangements. Even though OCSE manages this program, the funding for the AV grant is separate from funding for federal and state administration of the Child Support program.
Section 469B(e)(3) of the Social Security Act (Pub. L. 104-193) requires that each state receiving an Access and Visitation (AV) grant award monitor, evaluate and report on such programs in accordance with regulations (45 CFR part 303). The AV Grant Program Terms and Conditions Addendum references administration of the grant program in accordance with an approved state application. Additionally, the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance, states that there is an application requirement for Grants to States for Access and Visitation Programs (93.597). The application process will assist OCSE in complying with this requirement and will reflect a greater emphasis on program efficiency, coordination of services, and increased attention to family safety.
This new, modified application reflects a greater emphasis on program efficiency, coordination of services, and increased attention to family safety. This application will cover three fiscal years. The applications will include information on how grantees plan to: Spend grant funds, monitor service delivery, and implement safety protocols to ensure client and staff safety. OCSE will review the applications to ensure compliance with federal regulation and provide enhanced targeted technical assistance. The application will also assist states in strategic planning of services and knowledge sharing.
OCSE will review the applications to ensure that planned services meet the requirements laid out in section 469B(e)(3) of the Social Security Act (Pub. L. 104-193). This review will include monitoring of program compliance and the safe delivery of services. In addition to monitoring, the report will also assist in OCSE's ability to provide technical assistance to states that would like assistance.
Copies of the proposed collection may be obtained by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201. Attention Reports Clearance Officer. All requests should be identified by the title of the information collection. Email address:
OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Acrylamide in Foods.” The guidance finalizes the “Draft Guidance for Industry on Acrylamide in Foods,” modified where appropriate in response to comments we received on the draft guidance dated November 2013. This guidance is intended to provide information that may help growers, manufacturers, and food service operators reduce acrylamide levels in certain foods, which may mitigate potential human health risks from exposure to acrylamide.
Submit either electronic or written comments on FDA guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION”. The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the guidance to The Division of Plant Products and Beverages, Office of Food Safety, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, HFS-317, Food and Drug Administration, 5100 Paint Branch Pkwy., College Park, MD 20740. Send two self-addressed adhesive labels to assist that office in processing your request. See the
Eileen Abt, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-317), Food and Drug Administration, 5100 Paint Branch Pkwy., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1529.
We are announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Guidance for Industry: Acrylamide in Foods.” We are issuing this guidance consistent with our good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents our current thinking on this topic. It does not create or confer any rights for or on any person and does not operate to bind FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
In the
This guidance is intended to provide information that may help growers, manufacturers, and food service operators reduce acrylamide levels in certain foods. Acrylamide is a chemical that can form in some foods during certain types of high-temperature cooking. Acrylamide is a concern because it can cause cancer in laboratory animals at high doses, and is reasonably anticipated to be a human carcinogen. Reducing acrylamide levels in foods may mitigate potential human health risks from exposure to
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by April 11, 2016.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
In the
As described in the final guidance, Form FDA 3926 provides a streamlined means to request expanded access to an investigational drug outside of a clinical investigation, or to an approved drug where availability is limited by a risk evaluation and mitigation strategy (REMS), for an individual patient who has a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition and there is no comparable or satisfactory alternative therapy to diagnose, monitor, or treat the disease or condition. Form FDA 3926 may also be used for certain followup submissions to an individual patient expanded access IND.
FDA may permit expanded access to an investigational new drug outside of a clinical investigation, or to an approved drug where availability is limited by a REMS, for an individual patient when the applicable criteria in § 312.305(a) (21 CFR 312.305(a)) (which apply to all types of expanded access) and the criteria in § 312.310(a) (21 CFR 312.310(a)) (which apply specifically to individual patient expanded access, including for emergency use) are met. The physician may satisfy some of the submission requirements by referring to information in an existing IND, ordinarily the one held by the investigational drug's manufacturer, if the physician obtains permission from that IND holder. If permission is obtained, the physician should then provide to FDA a letter of authorization (LOA) from the existing IND holder that permits FDA to reference that IND.
Section 312.305(b) sets forth the submission requirements for all types of expanded access requests. One of the requirements under § 312.305(b)(2) is that a “cover sheet” must be included “meeting the requirements of § 312.23(a).” This provision applies to several types of submissions under 21 CFR part 312, ranging from commercial INDs under § 312.23 that involve large groups of patients enrolled in clinical trials to requests from physicians to use an investigational drug for an individual patient. Form FDA 1571 is currently used by sponsors for all types of IND submissions to meet the requirements in § 312.23(a). FDA intends to accept submission of a completed Form FDA 3926 to comply with the IND submission requirements in §§ 312.23, 312.305(b), and 312.310(b). FDA intends to consider a completed Form FDA 3926 with the box in Field 10 checked and the form signed by the physician to be a request in accordance with § 312.10 for a waiver of any additional requirements in part 312 for an IND submission, including additional information currently provided in Form FDA 1571 and Form FDA 1572 (Statement of Investigator, which provides the identity and qualifications of the investigator conducting the clinical investigation).
Under § 312.310(d), in an emergency situation that requires the patient to be treated before a written submission can be made, the request to use the investigational drug for individual patient expanded access may be made by telephone (or other rapid means of communication) to the appropriate FDA review division. Authorization of the emergency use may be given by an FDA official over the telephone, provided the physician explains how the expanded access use will meet the requirements of §§ 312.305 and 312.310 and agrees to submit an expanded access application within 15 working days of FDA's initial authorization of the expanded access use (§ 312.310(d)). The physician may choose to use Form FDA 3926 for the expanded access application.
As explained in the instructions for Form FDA 3926, the following information would be submitted to FDA by those using Form FDA 3926:
• Initials for the patient and date of submission.
• Type of submission (initial or followup submission).
• Clinical information, including indication, brief clinical history of the patient (age, gender, weight, allergies, diagnosis, prior therapy, response to prior therapy), and the reason for
• Treatment information, including the investigational drug's name and the name of the entity supplying the drug (generally the manufacturer), the applicable FDA review division (if known), and the treatment plan. This should include the planned dose, route and schedule of administration, planned duration of treatment, monitoring procedures, and planned modifications to the treatment plan in the event of toxicity.
• LOA, generally obtained from the entity that is the sponsor of the IND (
• Physician's qualification statement. An appropriate statement includes medical school attended, year of graduation, medical specialty, state medical license number, current employment, and job title. Alternatively, the relevant portion of the physician's curriculum vitae may be attached.
• Physician's contact information, including name, physical address, email address, telephone number, facsimile number, and physician's IND number, if previously issued by FDA.
• Contents of submission (for followup/additional submissions), including the type of submission being made. FDA intends to accept Form FDA 3926 for certain followup/additional submissions, which include the following: Initial Written IND Safety Report (§ 312.32(c)); Follow-up to a Written IND Safety Report (§ 312.32(d)); Annual Report (§ 312.33); Summary of Expanded Access Use (treatment completed) (§ 312.310(c)(2)); Change in Treatment Plan (§ 312.30); General Correspondence or Response to FDA Request for Information (§ 312.41); and Response to Clinical Hold (§ 312.42(e)).
• Request for authorization to use Form FDA 3926 for individual patient expanded access application.
• Signature of the physician certifying that treatment will not begin until 30 days after FDA receives the completed application and all required material unless the submitting physician receives earlier notification from FDA that the treatment may proceed. The physician agrees not to begin or continue clinical investigations covered by the IND if those studies are placed on clinical hold. The physician also certifies that informed consent will be obtained in compliance with Federal requirements (including FDA's regulations in 21 CFR part 50) and that an institutional review board (IRB) that complies with all Federal requirements (including FDA's regulations in 21 CFR part 56) will be responsible for initial and continuing review and approval of the expanded access use. The physician also acknowledges that in the case of an emergency request, treatment may begin without prior IRB approval, provided the IRB is notified of the emergency treatment within 5 working days of treatment. The physician agrees to conduct the investigation in accordance with all other applicable regulatory requirements.
In the
(Comment 1) Five comments requested instructions, clarification, or directions concerning the use and submission of Form FDA 3926.
(Response) FDA updated instructions based on information originally included in the draft guidance that will be provided in conjunction with final Form FDA 3926. Clarifying language on form fields has been added to the instructions and the guidance.
(Comment 2) One comment asked for clarification regarding Field 1 of Form FDA 3926 to indicate that the requesting physician should provide this information (not the patient).
(Response) Clarification on Field 1 has been added to the form instructions to state that the patient need not initial the form. This is to indicate that the requesting physician should enter the patient's initials.
(Comment 3) One comment stated that the information requested in Field 3 of draft Form FDA 3926 could become lengthy to complete and asked if a PDF could be attached to the form to provide this information.
(Response) This information is now requested in Field 5. Field 5 has been enlarged to accommodate more handwritten information. The space also has been updated to allow expansion when information is entered electronically in the fillable PDF. Clarifying language has been added to the form and instructions.
(Comment 4) Three comments requested electronic submission capability to expedite applications.
(Response) FDA is determining whether electronic submissions are feasible. FDA intends to provide additional information via its Web site should this become an option.
(Comment 5) Several comments concerned the use of FDA Form 3926 for followup submissions. One comment suggested that FDA develop a new form for followup submissions (rather than requiring the use of Form FDA 1571). Three comments asked that instructions be developed for ongoing patient reporting (
(Response) FDA has revised the guidance, instructions, and Form FDA 3926 so that the form may be used instead of Form FDA 1571 for certain followup submissions to an existing single patient expanded access IND. Form FDA 3926, the instructions, and the guidance identify the types of followup submissions that qualify and provide additional information on how to use Form FDA 3926 for such submissions.
As discussed previously in this document, Form FDA 3926 will be available for licensed physicians to use as a streamlined means to request expanded access to an investigational drug outside of a clinical investigation, or to an approved drug where availability is limited by a REMS, for an individual patient who has a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition and there is no comparable or satisfactory alternative therapy to diagnose, monitor, or treat the disease or condition, and to submit certain followup reports. One of the requirements under § 312.305(b)(2) is that a “cover sheet” must be included “meeting the requirements of § 312.23(a).” This provision applies to several types of submissions under part 312, ranging from commercial INDs under § 312.23 that involve large groups of patients enrolled in clinical trials to requests from physicians to use an investigational drug for an individual patient. Form FDA 1571 is currently used by sponsors for all types of IND submissions. However, FDA is concerned that physicians requesting expanded access for an individual patient may have encountered difficulty in completing Form FDA 1571 and the associated documents because the form is not tailored to requests for individual patient expanded access.
The submission requirements for all types of expanded access requests for investigational drugs are provided under § 312.305(b) of FDA's expanded access regulations. Additional submission requirements for individual
The estimates for “number of respondents,” “number of responses per respondent,” and “total annual responses” were obtained from the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) reports and data management systems and from other sources familiar with the number of submissions received for individual patient expanded access use under part 312. The estimates for “average burden per response” were based on information provided by CDER and other Department of Health and Human Services personnel who are familiar with preparing and reviewing expanded access submissions by practicing physicians.
Based on data for the number of submissions to FDA during 2011, 2012, and 2013, we originally estimated that approximately 790 licensed physicians would use Form 3926 to submit 1.46 requests per physician (respondent) for individual patient expanded access, for a total of 1,153 responses annually. In response to comments received, FDA clarifies in the final guidance and in the form instructions that licensed physicians may also use Form FDA 3926 for certain followup submissions. Based on data for the number of followup submissions during 2011, 2012, and 2013, FDA estimates that about 790 physicians will each use Form FDA 3926 to submit 1.57 followup submissions per physician, for approximately 1,241 followup responses annually. Based on these estimates, FDA calculates the total annual responses to be 2,394 (1,153 requests for individual patient expanded access and 1,241 followup submissions) by 790 physicians for an average of 3.03 responses per respondent. FDA estimates the average burden per response to be 45 minutes (0.75 hour). Based on this estimate, FDA calculates the total burden to be 1,795 hours. Under OMB control number 0910-0014, FDA currently has OMB approval of 17,592 hours for these submissions. The use of FDA Form 3926 will reduce the current burden by 15,797 hours.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by May 10, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, we invite comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of our functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
Section 403(r)(6) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 343(r)(6)) and its implementing regulation, 21 CFR 101.93, require that we be notified by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of a dietary supplement that it is marketing a dietary supplement product that bears on its label or in its labeling a statement provided for in section 403(r)(6) of the FD&C Act. These provisions require that we be notified, with a submission about such statements, no later than 30 days after the first marketing of the dietary supplement. Information that is required in the submission includes: (1) The name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the dietary supplement product; (2) the text of the statement that is being made; (3) the name of the dietary ingredient or supplement that is the subject of the statement; (4) the name of the dietary supplement (including the brand name); and (5) the signature of a responsible individual or the person who can certify the accuracy of the information presented, and who must certify that the information contained in the notice is complete and accurate, and that the notifying firm has substantiation that the statement is truthful and not misleading.
We have developed an electronic form (Form FDA 3955) that interested persons will be able to use to electronically submit their notifications to FDA via FURLS. Firms that prefer to submit a paper notification in a format of their own choosing will still have the option to do so, however. Form FDA 3955 prompts a respondent to include certain elements in their structure/function claim notification (SFCN) described in § 101.93 in a standard format electronically and helps the respondent organize their SFCN to include only the information needed for our review of the claim. Note that the SFCN, whether electronic or paper, is used for all claims made pursuant to section 403(r)(6) of the FD&C Act, including nutrient deficiency claims and general well-being claims in addition to structure/function claims. The electronic form, and any optional elements that would be prepared as attachments to the form (
We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
We believe that there will be minimal burden on the industry to generate information to meet the notification requirements of section 403(r)(6) of the FD&C Act by submitting information regarding section 403(r)(6) of the FD&C Act statements on labels or in labeling of dietary supplements. We also believe that submission via FURLS will not affect the burden estimates. We are requesting only information that is immediately available to the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the dietary supplement that bears such a statement on its label or in its labeling. We estimate that, each year, approximately 2,200 firms will submit the information required by section 403(r)(6) of the FD&C Act. This estimate is based on the average number of notification submissions received by us in the preceding 3 years. We estimate that a firm will require 0.75 hours to gather the information needed and prepare a communication to us, for a total of 1,650 hours (2,200 × 0.75).
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Division of Intramural Research Board of Scientific Counselors, NIAID.
The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in section 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF ALLERGY AND INFECTIOUS DISEASES, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Written comments and/or suggestions from the public and affected agencies are invited to address one or more of the following points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This data collection is needed to accomplish the overall Trinity Study goals, which are to: (1) Estimate external and internal radiation dose to the four primary organs/tissues of interest (thyroid, stomach, colon, and red bone marrow) from primary radionuclides in nuclear testing fallout in each county of New Mexico as a result of the Trinity test, stratified by age, gender, ethnicity, and conditions of exposure (low, medium, high); (2) in each county, estimate the number of excess cancer cases to organs of interest per 1,000 (hypothetical) persons stratified by age, gender, ethnicity, and conditions of exposure (low, medium, high).
The study data will be collected via focus group and individual interview. Between 10 and 15 focus groups with up to 8 participants are planned. These participants will be 70 years old and older, living in New Mexico, who were alive at the time of the Trinity nuclear test and living in any of 19 Native American pueblos/tribes or Hispanic/Latino and non-Hispanic white communities in or near the fallout region in New Mexico. Additionally, up to 30 individual interviews are planned with key informants chosen to represent a variety of experiences and expertise. Individuals who prefer not to take part in a focus group will be interviewed individually as key informants. The investigators will collaborate with community representatives who will recommend potential participants for either the focus groups or interviews.
The objective of the focus groups and interviews is to collect information directly from community members who were alive at the time of the Trinity test, or with direct knowledge of specific life circumstances, cultural patterns, and dietary practices of Native Americans, Hispanics/Latinos, or non-Hispanic whites living in New Mexico at this time. In this study, two interviewers, including one with extensive experience working with tribal communities, will moderate the focus groups and conduct in-depth interviews. Translators and interpreters with experience in the study populations will be presented when needed. Each focus group and interview will be scheduled for no more than two hours and will take place in office settings, community facilities, or municipal facilities.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 395.
Written comments and/or suggestions from the public and affected agencies are invited on one or more of the following points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total annualized burden hours are 29,750.
Written comments and/or suggestions from the public and affected agencies are invited to address one or more of the following points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The estimated annualized burden hours are 18,000.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
The National Institutes of Health (NIH) will host a workshop on Advancing Research To Prevent Youth Suicide on March 29-30, 2016. The workshop is free and open to the public.
March 29, 2016, from 8:30 a.m.-4:50 p.m. and March 30, 2016, from 8:30 a.m.-1:00 p.m.
The workshop will be held at the NIH, Masur Auditorium, Building 10 (Clinical Center), 9000 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, Maryland 20892. Registration and workshop information are available on the NIH Office of Disease Prevention (ODP) Web site at <
For further information concerning this workshop, contact the ODP at <
Suicide was the second leading cause of death for youth (10- to 24-year-olds) in 2014, resulting in 5,504 deaths in the United States. This mortality has not decreased compared to other external causes of death, and youth suicide attempts have remained at consistent rates for decades. According to the 2011 Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System, 2.4% of high school students received medical treatment for attempted suicide, and 7.8% attempted suicide one or more times within the year. Some groups (
One of the challenges in suicide prevention research is that the primary outcome of interest is multidetermined and, depending on the target population, suicide can be a low base rate occurrence. Many studies examining risk in important subgroups (
Closing the research gaps related to youth suicide could lead to improved prevention strategies. The NIH is engaging in a rigorous assessment of the available scientific evidence to better understand the importance of identifying efforts that could be effective in preventing suicidal thoughts and behaviors as early as possible. The National Institute of Mental Health, the National Institute on Drug Abuse, the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health, and the NIH Office of Disease Prevention (ODP) are sponsoring the Pathways to Prevention Workshop: Advancing Research To Prevent Youth Suicide on March 29-30, 2016, in Bethesda, Maryland. The workshop will evaluate the current state of knowledge on youth suicide and identify opportunities for future
• Key Question 1: How can national, state, and community data systems be linked to existing data from suicide prevention efforts in order to add possible value for stakeholders? What methods are available to link the data systems?
• Key Question 2: Which statistical methods are reliable and valid for understanding possible mediators and moderators in suicide prevention programs to improve targeting interventions to populations?
• Key Question 3: Which statistical methods are reliable and valid for analyzing linked national, state, and community data systems and suicide prevention data to avoid misleading conclusions?
• Key Question 4: Given the current state of research, what types of methodological/analytic advances would promote further evaluation of youth suicide prevention efforts (
• Key Question 5: What is the way forward that will help the suicide prevention research community realize the potential benefits of early prevention? What are the immediate and longer-term research investments needed to accomplish this?
Initial planning for each Pathways to Prevention workshop, regardless of the topic, is coordinated by a Content-Area Expert Group that nominates panelists and speakers and develops and finalizes questions that frame the workshop. After the questions are finalized, an evidence report is prepared by an Evidence-based Practice Center, through a contract with the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. During the 1
Please Note: As part of measures to ensure the safety of NIH employees and property, all visitors must be prepared to show a photo ID upon request. Visitors may be required to pass through a metal detector and have bags, backpacks, or purses inspected or x-rayed as they enter the NIH campus. For more information about the security measures at the NIH, please visit <
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 concerning opportunity for public comment on proposed collections of information, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects. To request more information on the proposed projects or to obtain a copy of the information collection plans, call the SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer on (240) 276-1243.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's (SAMHSA) Center for Behavioral Health Statistics and Quality (CBHSQ) is requesting approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for new data collection activities associated with their Primary and Behavioral Health Care Integration (PBHCI) program.
This information collection is needed to provide SAMHSA with objective information to document the reach and impact of the PBHCI program. The information will be used to monitor quality assurance and quality performance outcomes for organizations funded by this grant program. The information will also be used to assess the impact of services on behavioral health and physical health services for individuals served by this program.
Collection of the information included in this request is authorized by Section 505 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290aa-4)—Data Collection.
SAMHSA launched the PBHCI program in FY 2009 with the understanding that adults with serious mental illness (SMI) experience heightened rates of morbidity and mortality, in large part due to elevated incidence and prevalence of risk factors such as obesity, diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. These risk factors are influenced by a variety of factors, including inadequate physical activity and poor nutrition; smoking; side effects from atypical antipsychotic medications; and lack of access to health care services. Many of these health conditions are preventable through routine health promotion activities, primary care screening, monitoring, treatment and care management/coordination strategies and/or other outreach programs.
The purpose of the PBHCI grant program is to establish projects for the provision of coordinated and integrated services through the co-location of primary and specialty care medical services in community-based behavioral health settings. The program's goal is to improve the physical health status of adults with serious mental illnesses (and those with co-occurring substance use disorders) who have or are at risk for co-occurring primary care conditions and chronic diseases.
As the largest federal effort to implement integrated behavioral and physical health care in community behavioral health settings, SAMHSA's PBHCI program offers an unprecedented opportunity to identify which approaches to integration improve outcomes, how outcomes are shaped by the characteristics of the treatment setting and community, and which models have the greatest potential for sustainability and replication. SAMHSA awarded the first cohort of 13 PBHCI grants in fiscal year (FY) 2009, and between FY 2009 and FY 2014, SAMHSA funded a total of seven cohorts comprising 127 grants. An eighth cohort, funded in fall 2015, included 60 new grants.
The data collection described in this request will build upon the first PBHCI evaluation and provide essential data on the implementation of integrated primary and behavioral health care, along with rigorous estimates of its effects on health.
The Center for Behavioral Health Statistics and Quality is requesting clearance for ten data collection instruments and forms related to the implementation and impact studies to be conducted as part of the evaluation:
The table below reflects the annualized hourly burden.
Send comments to Summer King, SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 15E57-B, Rockville, Maryland, 20857.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) of the Department of Homeland Security will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act: Exportation of Used Self-Propelled Vehicles. This is a proposed extension of an information collection that was previously approved. CBP is proposing that this information collection be extended with no change to the burden hours or to the information collected. This document is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments should be received on or before April 11, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to Tracey Denning, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Regulations and Rulings, Office of International Trade, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, at 202-325-0265.
This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Collection of this information is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1627a which
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for use to assist the homeless.
Juanita Perry, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 7266, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 402-3970; TTY number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565 (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), or call the toll-free Title V information line at 800-927-7588.
In accordance with 24 CFR part 581 and section 501 of the Stewart B. McKinney Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11411), as amended, HUD is publishing this Notice to identify Federal buildings and other real property that HUD has reviewed for suitability for use to assist the homeless. The properties were reviewed using information provided to HUD by Federal landholding agencies regarding unutilized and underutilized buildings and real property controlled by such agencies or by GSA regarding its inventory of excess or surplus Federal property. This Notice is also published in order to comply with the December 12, 1988 Court Order in
Properties reviewed are listed in this Notice according to the following categories: Suitable/available, suitable/unavailable, and suitable/to be excess, and unsuitable. The properties listed in the three suitable categories have been reviewed by the landholding agencies, and each agency has transmitted to HUD: (1) Its intention to make the property available for use to assist the homeless, (2) its intention to declare the property excess to the agency's needs, or (3) a statement of the reasons that the property cannot be declared excess or made available for use as facilities to assist the homeless.
Properties listed as suitable/available will be available exclusively for homeless use for a period of 60 days from the date of this Notice. Where property is described as for “off-site use only” recipients of the property will be required to relocate the building to their own site at their own expense. Homeless assistance providers interested in any such property should send a written expression of interest to HHS, addressed to: Ms. Theresa M. Ritta, Chief Real Property Branch, the Department of Health and Human Services, Room 5B-17, Parklawn Building, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, (301)-443-2265 (This is not a toll-free number). HHS will mail to the interested provider an application packet, which will include instructions for completing the application. In order to maximize the opportunity to utilize a suitable property, providers should submit their written expressions of interest as soon as possible. For complete details concerning the processing of applications, the reader is encouraged to refer to the interim rule governing this program, 24 CFR part 581.
For properties listed as suitable/to be excess, that property may, if subsequently accepted as excess by GSA, be made available for use by the homeless in accordance with applicable law, subject to screening for other Federal use. At the appropriate time, HUD will publish the property in a Notice showing it as either suitable/available or suitable/unavailable.
For properties listed as suitable/unavailable, the landholding agency has decided that the property cannot be declared excess or made available for use to assist the homeless, and the property will not be available.
Properties listed as unsuitable will not be made available for any other purpose for 20 days from the date of this Notice. Homeless assistance providers interested in a review by HUD of the determination of unsuitability should call the toll free information line at 1-800-927-7588 for detailed instructions or write a letter to Ann Marie Oliva at the address listed at the beginning of this Notice. Included in the request for review should be the property address (including zip code), the date of publication in the
For more information regarding particular properties identified in this Notice (
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, HUD.
Notice.
On July 16, 2015, HUD published the Affirmatively Furthering Fair Housing (AFFH) final rule that provides HUD program participants with a new process for planning for fair housing outcomes that will assist them in meeting their statutory obligation to affirmatively further fair housing. This process includes an assessment tool that must be used by program participants to evaluate fair housing choice and access to opportunity in their jurisdictions, to identify barriers to fair housing choice and opportunity at the local and regional levels, and to set fair housing goals to overcome such barriers and advance fair housing choice.
HUD committed to issue three assessment tools for its program participants covered by the AFFH final rule. One assessment tool is for use by local governments (Local Government Assessment Tool) that receive assistance under certain grant programs administered by HUD's Office of Community Planning and Development (CPD), as well as by joint and regional collaborations between: (i) Local governments; (ii) one or more local governments and one or more public housing agency (PHA) partners; and (iii) other collaborations in which such a local government is designated as the lead for the collaboration. The second tool (the subject of this Notice) is to be used by States and Insular Areas (State and Insular Area Assessment Tool), including joint or regional collaborations (with local governments and/or PHAs) where the State is designated as the lead entity. The third assessment tool is for PHAs (including for joint collaborations among multiple PHAs) (PHA Assessment Tool). On December 31, 2015, HUD issued the Local Government Assessment.
This notice solicits public comment for a period of 60 days on the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool. In seeking comment for a period of 60 days, this notice commences the process for compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The PRA requires two public comment periods—a public comment period of 60 days and a second comment period of 30 days. After consideration of the public comments submitted in response to this notice, HUD will solicit a second round of public comments for a period of 30 days.
To further facilitate public input on the State and Insular Areas Assessment Tool, HUD will post sample maps and tables that are intended to provide options for presenting relevant data. Sample data will be posted on
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this notice to the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. Communications must refer to the above docket number and title. There are two methods for submitting public comments. All submissions must refer to the above docket number and title.
1.
2.
To receive consideration as public comments, comments must be submitted through one of the two methods specified above. Again, all submissions must refer to the docket number and title of the rule.
Dustin Parks, Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 5249, Washington, DC 20410-0500; telephone number 202-708-1112 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons who are deaf or hard of hearing and persons with speech impairments may access this number through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.
On July 16, 2015, at 80 FR 42272, HUD issued its final AFFH rule. The AFFH rule provides a new approach to enable program participants to more fully incorporate fair housing considerations into their existing planning processes and assist them in their efforts to comply with their duty to affirmatively further fair housing as required by the Fair Housing Act, which is Title VIII of the Civil Rights Act, and other authorities. The Fair Housing Act not only prohibits discrimination, but, in conjunction with other statutes, directs HUD's program participants to take meaningful actions to overcome historic patterns of segregation, promote fair housing choice, and foster inclusive communities that are free from discrimination.
The new approach established by HUD replaces the existing analysis of impediments (AI) process. The approach is designed to assist program participants in analyzing their fair housing environment, identifying fair housing issues and the related contributing factors, and setting fair housing goals, and, ultimately, taking meaningful actions to affirmatively further fair housing. This approach builds upon and refines the fair housing elements of the existing fair housing planning processes that are in the process of being replaced as the AFH process is being phased in pursuant to the AFFH rule.
To assist program participants in improving planning to achieve meaningful fair housing outcomes, the new approach involves an “assessment tool” for use in completing the regulatory requirement to conduct an assessment of fair housing (AFH) as set out in the AFFH rule. To aid in the completion of an AFH, HUD committed to provide program participants and the public with certain nationally available data, and State, local, and regional data relevant to the AFH, including data on certain demographics; patterns of integration and segregation; racially or ethnically concentrated areas of poverty (R/ECAPs); disparities in access to education, employment, low-poverty neighborhoods, transportation, and environmental health, among other critical opportunity indicators; disproportionate housing needs; data on publicly supported housing, including location and occupancy patterns; and data on individuals with disabilities and families with children. Using these data, together with other available local data and local knowledge, program participants will evaluate their present fair housing environment to assess fair housing issues, identify significant contributing factors that create, contribute to, perpetuate, or increase the severity of those issues, and set forth fair housing priorities and goals to address fair housing issues and significant contributing factors. The expected benefit of this approach is that by engaging in the analysis of this information, program participants, with the input of the community, can set better priorities and goals that will better inform their AFFH strategies and actions by enabling program participants to improve the integration of fair housing planning with other planning processes.
As noted in the Summary of this document, HUD has committed to issue three assessment tools: the Local Government Assessment Tool, the State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, and the PHA Assessment Tool. The final Local Government Assessment Tool issued by HUD on December 31, 2015, and announced by HUD on that same date in the
It is the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool that HUD is submitting for public comment through this Notice. References to “States” in the assessment tool are inclusive of “Insular Areas.”
As with the Local Government Assessment Tool issued on December 31, 2015, the State and Insular Area Assessment Tool allows for collaboration with other program participants that may include either local government or PHAs. HUD is particularly interested in soliciting public comment on joint collaborations between States and Qualified PHAs,
HUD is only able to provide data for those protected class groups for which nationally uniform data are available. For this reason, some questions in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool focus on specific protected classes based on the availability of such data. For these questions, local data and local knowledge may provide information to supplement the analysis for protected classes not covered by the HUD-provided data. Local data and local knowledge can be particularly helpful when program participants have local data that are more up-to-date or more accurate than the HUD-provided data or when the HUD-provided data do not cover all of the protected classes that would be relevant to program participants' analyses. Consequently, although HUD will provide nationally available data that are expected to be of significant assistance to program participants, the AFFH rule recognizes the value of local data and knowledge.
Local data are existing data pertaining to the State or Insular Area or its region that are relevant to the AFH, that are either known or become known to the program participant or that can be found through a
Local knowledge, on the other hand, is information relating to the State's or Insular Area's jurisdiction or its region that is relevant to the AFH and is known or becomes known to the program participant.
A program participant must complete its AFH using the assessment tool designated for its use and HUD-provided data, as well as any local data, and local knowledge that are relevant. To the extent that HUD does not provide data for a program participant to respond to a question in the assessment tool, and there is no local data and no local knowledge that would be responsive to the question, stating that data and knowledge are unavailable to the program participant is an acceptable and complete response to that particular question. However, if HUD finds that an AFH is materially inconsistent with HUD-provided data or finds that local data or local knowledge relevant to a question were available to the program participant, HUD will determine, as applicable, that the AFH is substantially incomplete and/or inconsistent with fair housing and other civil rights requirements, and not accept the AFH.
This proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool is designed with the same three key objectives that HUD had in mind in its design of the first assessment tool, the Local Government Assessment Tool. First, the assessment tool must ask questions that would be sufficient to enable program participants to perform a meaningful assessment of key fair housing issues and contributing factors and set meaningful fair housing goals and priorities. Second, the assessment tool must clearly convey the analysis of fair housing issues and contributing factors that program participants must undertake in order for an AFH to be accepted by HUD. Third, the assessment tool must be designed so program participants would be able to use it to prepare an AFH that HUD would accept without unnecessary burden.
The following presents the structure for the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, which closely tracks the structure of the Local Government Assessment Tool, with some key changes. For example, States and Insular Areas have different responsibilities compared to local governments. One of the key considerations in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool pertains to how to include questions designed to elicit a fair housing analysis for Qualified PHAs that will sufficiently address fair housing issues, contributing factors, goals and priorities relating to the PHA's service area (jurisdiction) and region. The AFFH rule strongly encourages program participants to collaborate on an AFH. While the AFFH rule encourages collaboration among all types of program participants, this Notice specifically solicits public input on how best to facilitate collaborative participation between States and Qualified PHAs.
Qualified PHAs vary in their size of operations and scope. HUD believes that Qualified PHAs collaborating with a State may be beneficial to both parties. There are resources available to States that may not be available to all Qualified PHAs, so this collaboration can help reduce burden for Qualified PHAs while also informing the State's analysis with supplemental information available to the Qualified PHA. Section F of this document presents issues for which HUD is specifically seeking comment, with respect to how HUD may design the assessment tool to facilitate collaborations between States and Qualified PHAs. In addition to including specific questions focused on collaboration with Qualified PHAs, HUD is interested in all public comments on the types of collaborations that are likely to occur and how to facilitate collaboration with other program participants of any size that may wish to collaborate with a State.
Section V includes an assessment of certain key fair housing issues—segregation and integration, racially or ethnically concentrated areas of poverty, disparities in access to opportunity, disproportionate housing needs, publicly supported housing, and disability and access. Each subsection of Section V also includes targeted questions in order to help ensure that the AFH includes appropriate analysis from a fair housing perspective.
An area of analysis included in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool that has been expanded upon from the Local Government Assessment Tool pertains to low-income housing tax credits (LIHTCs). The LIHTC questions presented in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool include questions pertaining to a State's Qualified Allocation Plan (QAP).
The preceding presented a brief overview of the structure and content of the State and Insular Area Assessment Tool. For States, Insular Areas, other HUD program participants and the public generally, HUD provides at
The instructions, which will be part of the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, are also provided for public comment at the Web site listed above. The comparison of this proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool to the Local Government Assessment Tool issued on December 31, 2015, also highlights the differences in instructions provided in the Local Government Assessment Tool and the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool. Please note that the instructions provided in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool include placeholders where HUD intends to provide data pertaining to specific questions. HUD intends to generally provide States with thematic maps at the county or statistically equivalent level in the AFFH Data and Mapping Tool. HUD intends to provide additional functionality to allow States to zoom in to the dot density maps that are currently provided for local governments and PHAs submitting an AFH using the Local Government Assessment Tool issued on December 31, 2015. HUD is currently in the process of compiling such data, which will be incorporated into the AFFH Data and Mapping Tool prior to the final issuance of the State and Insular Area Assessment Tool.
As noted earlier in this document, HUD has not only committed to issuance of a State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, but to issuance of a PHA Assessment Tool for PHAs' use in conducting the AFH individually or in collaboration with other PHAs. HUD will soon issue the 60-day public comment notice for the proposed PHA Assessment Tool. It should be noted that the questions contained in the proposed PHA Assessment Tool will differ from the questions addressed to Qualified PHAs that collaborate with States using the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool. HUD expects that collaborations between States and Qualified PHAs may reduce burden for Qualified PHAs. Although program participants will decide among themselves how to divide the work on a collaborative AFH, a State's analysis of the entire State and region is expected to fulfill the regional analysis that Qualified PHAs would otherwise be required to perform if submitting an individual AFH using the PHA Assessment Tool. As discussed more fully below, the proposed State and
Whether the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, which is the subject of this Notice, the proposed PHA Assessment Tool, which remains to be issued, or the Local Government Assessment Tool that HUD has already issued, HUD is cognizant that completion of the AFH will place some burden on small entities, and HUD welcomes comments on how burden may be reduced for all program participants, but especially for small entities, while still achieving the necessary fair housing analysis.
While the primary purpose of comment under the Paperwork Reduction Act is to determine the burden of any information collection requirement, HUD, as was the case for the Local Government Assessment Tool, also solicits comment on the content of the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, the clarity of the questions presented and whether there are areas of information sought that program participants believe are not necessary to a meaningful AFH, or whether there are important areas of information for conducting a meaningful fair housing analysis that HUD may have overlooked. HUD also solicits comments for the following questions:
In developing the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool, HUD has made changes to the Local Government Assessment Tool in order to capture the appropriate level of information for States and Insular Areas conducting a fair housing analysis and goal setting. Some questions have been removed, new questions have been added, and some questions remain but with revisions. As noted earlier in this notice, HUD's AFFH Web page at
One of the differences between the Local Government Assessment Tool and the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool pertains to the analysis of disparities in access to opportunity. HUD is considering different ways of structuring this section to obtain an appropriate fair housing analysis of disparities in access to opportunity. The proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool seeks analysis relating to States' programs and policies and how they affect protected class groups in new areas including emergency preparedness, prisoner re-entry, public health, public safety, and housing and financial opportunities (access to rental housing, home ownership, and mortgage loans). The proposed State and Insular Assessment Tool, through a general question, solicits information from States and Insular Areas on these five areas. In this Notice, HUD provides specific questions on certain areas that HUD is also considering for inclusion with the tool.
• Identify and describe any disparities in access to emergency management and preparedness programs, policies, practices, and resources, including prevention, protection, mitigation, response, and recovery within the State by protected class. What role does a person's place of residence have on access to emergency preparedness opportunities?
• Describe any effects on emergency management and preparedness for protected class groups in your State of the emergency preparedness programs, policies, practices, and resources in neighboring states or a broader geographic area.
• Describe the demographics of the State's population involved in re-entry in terms of race, ethnicity, national origin (including LEP persons), sex, and disability. Which protected class groups are least successful in accessing housing, employment, counseling, education, or other opportunities in the State?
• What role does a person's place of residence have on access to public health programs and resources (chronic disease prevention, environmental health, family health, healthcare quality, and exposure to communicable diseases) in the State? Which protected class groups have the least access to public health programs and resources and the greatest exposure to public health hazards?
• Describe disparities related to public safety, including law enforcement, fire and rescue, and emergency medical services, in the State by protected class. What role does a person's place of residence have on disparities related to public safety in the State? Which protected class groups experience the most disparities related to public safety in the State?
• Describe any laws, policies, and practices affecting affordable rental housing, homeownership and mortgage access in the State, including occupancy codes and homeownership programs. Describe disparities in access to rental housing, homeownership, and mortgage access, including State lending programs, tax incentives,
• What role does a person's place of residence have on access to affordable rental housing, homeownership and mortgage access in the State? Which protected class groups have the least access to affordable rental housing, homeownership, and financial opportunities in the State?
HUD recognizes that many States include rural areas and is particularly interested in obtaining comment on how the State and Insular Area Assessment Tool can ensure an appropriate fair housing analysis for rural areas. HUD is also interested in other differences that may cause States and Insular Areas to have to have different fair housing issues that need to be assessed. HUD seeks solicits comment on how to best accommodate these differences between States and Insular Areas while still providing an appropriate vehicle for fair housing analysis.
Section V.D of the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool requires an analysis of disability and access in the State or Insular Area. This section of the proposed State and Insular Assessment Tool is intended to solicit specific information about disability and access issues, while incorporating the rest of the analysis completed in prior sections of the assessment tool.
A key part of the AFH analysis is the identification of contributing factors. HUD seeks comment on the contributing factor analysis in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool.
As provided in the AFFH rule, all program participants must conduct an analysis not only for their jurisdiction but also for the larger area that is their region. The proposed State and Insular Assessment Tool generally keeps analysis for the jurisdiction and analysis for the region together in the same question, except in circumstances where a specific question does not provide for a regional analysis. The instructions provide guidance on the appropriate region to be considered. HUD generally combined the questions relating to jurisdiction and region so that the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool was shorter and considered both jurisdictional and regional fair housing issues concurrently but recognizes that it could take a different approach to the structure and organization of questions that call for a regional analysis.
As with the Local Government Assessment Tool, HUD intends to provide data that States and Insular Areas will use to conduct their AFH. HUD contemplates that the geographic scale of the new data HUD intends to provide will generally be at a higher geographic level,
The extent of nationally uniform data available for Insular Areas is limited. HUD notes some data limitations for some sources of information used in the overall AFFH Data and Mapping Tool in relation to Insular Areas. The American Community Survey, used for some maps and data elements, is not available for Insular Areas. However, the 2010 Decennial Census along with HUD administrative data on program activities and assisted housing residents are available. HUD intends to improve the provision of data it will be providing for Insular Areas to assist them in conducting an AFH.
Given these data limitations, HUD expects that the questions in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool that direct program participants to data tables or maps to inform their answers may be more challenging for an Insular Area to answer. However, Insular Areas, like States, are required to use available local data and local knowledge to answer questions in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool. To the extent that HUD does not provide data for a program participant to use in responding to a question in the assessment tool, and local data and local knowledge relevant to the question are not available to the program participant, the program participant may answer the question by stating that the program participant lacks available data and knowledge to answer the question. Under those circumstances, if HUD determined that the program participant did not have available data and knowledge relevant to the question, HUD would consider that an acceptable and complete response to that particular question.
As stated in the AFFH rule and earlier in this document, HUD encourages Qualified PHAs to conduct and submit a joint AFH with their State or Insular Area. Under the AFFH rule, States and Insular Areas must consult with PHAs that administer public housing or Section 8 programs on a statewide basis or that certify consistency with the State's or Insular Area's consolidated plan.
HUD believes that collaboration, specifically, between States or Insular Areas and Qualified PHAs, can benefit both program participants. The State or Insular Area benefits by being able to align its goals established to address fair housing issues it has identified with other program participants, such as a Qualified PHA that has resources to assist the State at the local level, which would aid the State in accomplishing its goals and ultimately taking meaningful actions to affirmatively further fair housing. All collaborating program participants will have both a jurisdictional (in the case of a PHA, its jurisdiction is its service area) and regional analysis. A Qualified PHA collaborating with a State is aided because the regional portion of the analysis of the Qualified PHA is expected to be fulfilled by the State's analysis of the entire State.
All program participants, regardless of size, have the legal duty to affirmatively further fair housing and to conduct an AFH. Each program participant may choose to submit an individual AFH or a collaborative AFH as set out in the AFFH rule. A Qualified PHA collaborating with a State or Insular Area is aided to the extent that it may rely on the State for completing its background regional analysis and otherwise be generally informed by the State's analysis.
In order to assist Qualified PHAs and States or Insular Areas in collaborating to conduct and submit joint AFHs, HUD is seeking additional information from States and Insular Areas, Qualified PHAs, and other interested parties about how to best facilitate these collaborations while ensuring the fair housing analysis required of Qualified PHAs is complete. HUD is seeking input on how this proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool can facilitate collaboration with Qualified PHAs by
The questions to be included in this State and Insular Area Assessment Tool strive to facilitate collaboration while ensuring individual analysis and accountability for each collaborating program participant. With this objective in mind, HUD has placed questions designed to address the fair housing analysis relating to the Qualified PHA's service area in a separate section of the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool. In addition to soliciting comment on these specific questions, HUD also seeks input about how to best facilitate collaboration between States or Insular Areas and Qualified PHAs.
There is limited nationally uniform data available for Insular Areas. HUD notes some data limitations for some sources of information used in the overall AFFH Data and Mapping Tool in relation to Insular Areas. The American Community Survey, used for some maps and data elements, is not available for Insular Areas. However, the 2010 Decennial Census along with HUD administrative data on program activities and assisted housing residents are available. HUD intends to improve the data it will be providing for Insular Areas to assist them in assessing demographic information to better inform local planning and decisionmaking and to better inform the analysis of fair housing issues and contributing factors in the AFH.
Given these data limitations, HUD expects that questions in the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool that tend to rely largely on data tables or maps to answer may be more challenging for an Insular Area to answer. In general, the Insular Area will need to rely on local data and local knowledge to answer these questions. As the instructions to the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool explain, to the extent an Insular Area does not have any relevant HUD-provided data, local data, or local knowledge to answer a question in this assessment tool, the Insular Area may answer the question by stating that it does not have HUD-provided data, local data, or local knowledge to respond to the question. For an Insular Area, local data are existing data pertaining to the Insular Area or its region that are relevant to the AFH, that are either known or become known to the program participant or that can be found through a
HUD is seeking public comment on how use of the proposed State and Insular Assessment Tool may reduce burdens for small entities that collaborate with States in conducting an AFH.
In addition to comment on the preceding questions, HUD specifically seeks comment from the States or Insular Areas on the degree of difficulty or cooperation that may be involved in gathering information from the specific State or Insular Area agencies that possess the information solicited by the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information, unless the collection displays a valid control number issued by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Through this notice, HUD commences the process for obtaining the requisite approval by OMB under the PRA process.
The public reporting burden for the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool is estimated to include the time for reviewing the instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.
This State and Insular Area Assessment Tool is primarily designed for use by State and Insular Area program participants. These include the 50 States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and 4 Insular Areas (American Samoa, the Territory of Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Marianas Islands and the U.S. Virgin Islands).
The estimate of burden hours is an average within a range, with some AFHs requiring either more or less time and effort based on the size and complexity of the relevant program participant's assessment. Smaller program participants will have less total burden both in terms of staff hours and costs. A separate estimate for Insular Areas is included, at 240 hours per Insular Area program participant, which is the same level of burden that HUD estimated for the Local Government Assessment Tool.
This estimate assumes that approximately one-third of the 3,942 PHAs may seek to enter into joint AFHs with their relevant State program participant. This is consistent with the burden estimate included in the 30-Day PRA Notice for the Local Government Assessment Tool. The 120 hours per PHA is also consistent with the previous estimate, however, this may be an over-estimate given that numerous smaller sized PHAs may be more likely to enter into joint assessments with State program participants.
This burden estimate assumes there would be cost savings for PHAs that opt to partner with a State agency. For instance, the proposed State and Insular Area Tool includes a distinct set of questions that would be required for Qualified PHAs (
While local government program participants may also choose to partner with State agencies, the burden estimate for the Assessment Tool designed for their use included a total estimate for all of the 1,192 local government agencies.
All HUD program participants are greatly encouraged to conduct joint AFHs and to consider regional cooperation. More coordination in the initial years between State and local government program participants one the one hand and PHAs on the other will reduce total costs for both types of program participants in later years. In addition, combining and coordinating some elements of the Consolidated Plan and the PHA Plan will reduce total costs for both types of program participants. Completing an AFH in earlier years will also help reduce costs later, for instance by incorporating the completed analysis into later planning documents, such as the PHA plan, will help to better inform planning and goal setting decisions ahead of time.
Information on the estimated public reporting burden is provided in the following table:
In accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), HUD is specifically soliciting comment on the proposed State and Insular Area Assessment Tool from members of the public and affected program participants on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages not only program participants but interested persons to submit comments regarding the information collection requirements in this proposal. Comments must be received by
Following consideration of public comments submitted in response to this notice, HUD will submit for further public comment, for a period of 30 days, a version of the Assessment Tool that reflects consideration of the public comments received in response to this notice.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of document availability.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, announce the availability of the Draft Recovery Plan for the Central California Distinct Population Segment of the California tiger salamander (
We must receive any comments on this revised draft recovery plan on or before May 10, 2016.
You may obtain a copy of this draft recovery plan from our Web site at
Jennifer Norris, Field Supervisor, at the above street address or telephone number (see
Recovery of endangered or threatened animals and plants to the point where they are again secure, self-sustaining members of their ecosystems is a primary goal of our endangered species program and the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act; 16 U.S.C. 1531
The Central California tiger salamander (
The loss and subsequent fragmentation of habitat is the primary threat to the Central California tiger salamander. Habitat loss has primarily occurred from urban expansion and agricultural conversion. Habitat fragmentation restricts dispersal and isolates populations of the Central California tiger salamander, thereby increasing the likelihood of inbreeding, decreasing fitness, and reducing genetic diversity. In addition to habitat loss, Central California tiger salamanders are subject to the cumulative effects of a number of other existing and potential threats, including: Hybridization with non-native barred tiger salamanders, road mortality, climate change, contaminants, disease, and predation by non-native species.
The purpose of a recovery plan is to provide a framework for the recovery of species so that protection under the Act is no longer necessary. A recovery plan includes scientific information about the species and provides criteria that enable us to gauge whether downlisting or delisting the species is warranted. Furthermore, recovery plans help guide our recovery efforts by describing actions we consider necessary for each species' conservation and by estimating time and costs for implementing needed recovery measures.
The goal of this draft recovery plan is to improve the status of Central California tiger salamander so that it can be delisted. To meet the recovery goal of delisting, the following objectives have been identified:
1. Secure self-sustaining populations of Central California tiger salamander throughout their full range, ensuring conservation of genetic variability and diverse habitat types (
2. Ameliorate or eliminate the threats that caused the species to be listed, and any future threats.
3. Restore and conserve a healthy ecosystem supportive of Central California tiger salamander populations.
The strategy to recover the Central California tiger salamander focuses on alleviating the threat of habitat loss and fragmentation in order to increase population resiliency (ensure a large enough population to withstand stochastic events) and redundancy (a sufficient number of populations to ensure the species can withstand catastrophic events). Recovery of this species can be achieved by addressing the conservation of remaining aquatic and upland habitat that provides essential connectivity, reduces fragmentation, and sufficiently buffers
We invite written comments on the draft recovery plan. All comments received by the date specified in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We developed this draft recovery plan under the authority of section 4(f) of the Act, 16 U.S.C. 1533(f). We publish this notice under section 4(f) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
U.S. Geological Survey (USGS), Interior.
Notice of a new information collection, Earth Explorer User Registration Service.
We (the U.S. Geological Survey) are notifying the public that we have submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) the information collection request (ICR) described below. To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this ICR.
To ensure that your comments on this ICR are considered, we must receive them on or before April 11, 2016.
Please submit written comments on this information collection directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior, via email: (
Ryan Longhenry, Earth Resources Observation and Science (EROS) Center, U.S. Geological Survey, 47914 252nd St., Sioux Falls, SD 57198 (mail); 605-594-6179 (phone); or
The USGS proposes to collect general demographic information about public users that download products from the USGS using Earth Explorer (EE) application. This information is used to help address reports to Congress, OMB and DOI management with planning public uses of Landsat and other remote sensing data. The most common uses of these data are used to justify the maintenance and the free distribution of the USGS land remote sensing data. EE also stores information about users that download source code products, Global Visualization Viewer (GloVis) for example. The information collected in the database includes the names, affiliations, addresses, email address and telephone numbers of individuals. The information is gathered to facilitate the reporting of demographic data for use of the EE Application. Demographic data is also used to make decisions on future functional requirements within the system.
Earth Explorer is a Web application that enables users to find, preview, and download or order digital data published by the U.S. Geological Survey. There are more than 300 USGS Datasets available from the site. To download or order products from EE, users must register with the EE system.
The information is stored on an internal encrypted database. The data is provided by the customer and utilized to notify the customer of data ready for download. If downloads are unsuccessful, the customer is contacted to provide updated information. In addition, EE requires certain fields to be completed such as name, address, city and zip code before an account can be established and an order can be submitted.
EE does not derive new data and does not create new data through aggregation.
Personal information is not used as search criteria. Access to the information uses the least privileged access methodology. Authorized individuals with specifically granted access to the Privacy Act data can retrieve only by account number or order number Personal data is encrypted while stored in the Database.
We again invite comments concerning this ICR as to: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the agency to perform its duties, including whether the information is useful; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) how to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) how to minimize the burden on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your personal mailing address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personally identifiable information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask the OMB in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that it will be done.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA), and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, as amended (FLPMA), the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) has prepared a Draft Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) and Draft Resource Management Plan (RMP) Amendments for the right-of-way (ROW) application for Segments 8 and 9 of the Gateway West 500-kilovolt (kV) Transmission Line Project in Idaho, and by this notice is announcing the opening of the comment period.
To ensure that comments will be considered, the BLM must receive written comments on the Draft Supplemental EIS and Draft RMP Amendments by June 9, 2016. To provide the public an opportunity to review the proposal and project information, the BLM will hold the following public meetings during the public comment period. Additional announcements about these meetings will be made by news releases to the media, newsletter mailings, and posting on the project Web site listed below.
You may submit comments related to the Draft Supplemental EIS and Draft RMP Amendments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Copies of the Draft Supplemental EIS and Draft RMP Amendments are available in the BLM Idaho State Office Public Room, at the above address; the BLM Boise District Office, 3948 Development Avenue, Boise, ID 83705; and the BLM Twin Falls District Office, 2878 Addison Avenue East, Twin Falls, ID 83301.
Heather Feeney, Public Affairs Specialist, telephone 208-373-4060; address 1387 South Vinnell Way, Boise, ID 83709; email
Documents pertinent to this proposal may be examined at:
• Bureau of Land Management, Idaho State Office, Public Room, 1387 South Vinnell Way, Boise, ID 83709, Telephone: 208-373-3863.
• Bureau of Land Management, Boise District Office, 3948 Development Avenue, Boise, ID 83705, Telephone: 208-384-3300.
• Online:
In August 2014, the BLM received from the Applicants a revised ROW application for Segments 8 and 9 and a revised Plan of Development (POD) for the project. The BLM determined that new information in the revised ROW application and POD, including revised proposed routes for the transmission lines and several modified design features, would require additional NEPA analysis of potential environmental effects to supplement the analysis in the 2013 Final EIS. A Notice of Intent to prepare a Supplemental EIS was published in the
The BLM must determine whether to authorize the use of public lands under its management for Segments 8 and 9 of the Gateway West project. The BLM must consider existing RMPs and management framework plans (MFPs) in the decision to issue a ROW grant in accordance with 43 CFR 1610.0-5(b). Portions of the proposed transmission line are not in conformance with several BLM land management plans, and therefore, amendments to these plans are analyzed as part of the Supplemental EIS. In addition, the BLM must ensure that the authorized project would be compatible with the purposes for which the Morley Nelson Snake River Birds of Prey National Conservation Area (SRBOP) is designated in Public Law 103-64 and with current policy for managing units of the National Landscape Conservation System.
This notice announces the availability of the Draft Supplemental EIS for Segments 8 and 9 of the Gateway West Transmission Line Project and begins a 90-day public comment period on the range of alternatives, effects analysis and draft RMP/MFP amendments associated with authorizing the project on BLM-managed lands. Analysis in the Supplemental EIS will support a decision on whether to approve, approve with modifications, or deny the revised ROW application for Segments 8 and 9.
The BLM is the lead Federal agency for the NEPA analysis process and preparation of the supplemental EIS. The State of Idaho and Federal agencies with specialized expertise and/or jurisdictional responsibilities in the area of Segments 8 and 9 are participating as cooperating agencies. Cooperating agencies include the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; National Park Service; U.S. Army Corps of Engineers; Idaho State Historic Preservation Office; Idaho Department of Fish and Game; and the Idaho Governor's Office of Energy Resources.
The BLM is also engaging in government-to-government consultations on the Supplemental EIS with the Shoshone-Bannock Tribes of Fort Hall and the Shoshone-Paiute Tribes of Duck Valley, under Federal laws and policies including but not limited to the National Historic Preservation Act, NEPA, Archaeological Resources Protection Act, American Indian Religious Freedom Act, Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, and Executive Orders 12875, 12898, 13007, 13084, and 13175. Relevant issues and concerns that influenced the scope of the environmental analysis in the Draft but which were not addressed in the original EIS were identified during scoping. Alternatives considered in the Draft Supplemental EIS are analyzed based on all the issues included in the 2013 Final EIS (refer to Section 1.10 of the Final EIS), as well as new issues, direction in agency handbooks, and requirements of Federal and State laws and regulations. The following issue categories were identified from public and internal scoping conducted for the Supplemental EIS:
• Air quality and greenhouse gas;
• Agriculture, including effects to farming and dairy operations;
• Cultural resources and historic trails, including Oregon National Historic Trail, Native American cultural sites, Snake River Canyon cultural sites;
• Cumulative effects, especially to native vegetation and sage-grouse habitat;
• Effects on State lands and counties;
• Wildland fire risks;
• Safety, electrical environment and noise;
• Land uses;
• Plants, including invasive species and noxious weeds;
• Threatened, endangered and sensitive species (plants and wildlife);
• Recreation;
• Scenery and visual resources;
• Socioeconomic effects;
• Transportation and travel management;
• Water and riparian resources;
• Wild horses and burros;
• General wildlife and wildlife habitat; and
• Effects to resources, objects and values which the SRBOP enabling statute directs the BLM to conserve, protect and enhance.
Both segments terminate at the Hemingway substation under all action alternatives. Segments are separated at distances of 250 feet to more than 30 miles, varying within routes and/or across alternatives. The Applicants propose wider separation to increase system reliability. Analysis of several other routes for Segments 8 and 9 in the 2013 Final EIS is carried forward by reference into the Draft Supplemental EIS.
This alternative represents the routes the Applicants propose in their revised ROW application. Segment 8 of this pairing is similar to the 2013 Final EIS proposed route except that it would parallel an existing 500-kilovolt (kV) line to the north instead of the south, from the point where it would enter the SRBOP to the Hemingway substation. It would cross 17.6 miles of the SRBOP.
Segment 9 of this alternative is proposed to double-circuit the new 500-kV line with existing 138-kV lines for most of the 54.2 miles it would cross the SRBOP. The Draft Supplemental EIS analyzes two variations of the revised proposed route for Segment 9 that were
Alignment of Segment 8 under this alternative allows separation from populated areas and existing transmission infrastructure outside the SRBOP to the north while minimizing the disturbance footprint for the segment in the SRBOP (17.6 miles crossed) by paralleling an existing 500-kV line. The alignment for Segment 9 in this pairing is the shortest (162.2 miles) analyzed in the Draft Supplemental EIS for this segment and follows the West-wide Energy Corridor (WWEC) south of the SRBOP. It would cross the SRBOP for 13.6 miles.
This alternative would allow Segment 8 to be separated from populated areas and existing transmission infrastructure outside the SRBOP to the north while minimizing the disturbance footprint in the SRBOP (17.6 miles crossed) by paralleling an existing 500-kV line. Segment 9 would be routed to avoid impacts to agricultural operations and would cross the SRBOP for 8.7 miles.
In this pairing, the route for Segment 9 is aligned to the north, while the route for Segment 8 follows the more southerly alignment. Segment 8 is aligned to avoid crossing the northern portion of the SRBOP, the Hagerman Fossil Beds National Monument and development near the town of Hagerman, Idaho. It crosses the SRBOP for 8.8 miles, at the southeast corner of the area. Segment 9 would be routed to avoid impacts to agricultural operations and would cross the SRBOP for 13.6 miles.
Route 8G is aligned to avoid crossing the northern portion of the SRBOP, the Hagerman Fossil Beds National Monument and development near the town of Hagerman, Idaho. It would cross the southeast corner of the SRBOP for 8.8 miles, at the southeast corner of the area.
Route 9K is also aligned to avoid crossing the SRBOP, especially when paired with 8G, and to minimize direct and indirect impacts to priority Greater sage-grouse habitat. It would cross the southeast corner of the SRBOP for 8.7 miles, at the southeast corner of the area, where it would run parallel to 8G in a 500-foot wide ROW. This alternative makes most use of the reduced mandatory minimum separation distance for transmission lines adopted by the Western Electricity Coordinating Council in 2011 and would involve the shortest crossing of the SRBOP.
This alternative includes a route for Segment 8 (8H) that follows the 8G alignment for the first 44 miles and then follows the alignment of the revised proposed route for Segment 9 for the remainder of the route to the Hemingway substation. The BLM developed this alternative to depict opportunities for compensatory mitigation in the SRBOP. It would cross the SRBOP for a total of 67.8 miles.
This alternative pairs two BLM-developed routes: 8H for Segment 8 and 9K for Segment 9. It would cross the SRBOP for a total of 62.9 miles.
The Draft Supplemental EIS incorporates by reference the analysis related to Segments 8 and 9 in the Gateway West 2013 Final EIS, including relevant Proposed Environmental Protection Measures identified in Table 2.7-1 of that document. The Draft Supplemental EIS supplements the analysis found in that Final EIS by assessing new information that has become available since the FEIS and ROD were published, including the identification of new routes and route variations for segments 8 and 9.
All of those new routes and route variations would have some impact on the SRBOP, a National Conservation Area and unit of the National Landscape Conservation System. The Presidential Memorandum on Mitigation (November 3, 2105) requires that agencies “[e]stablish a net benefit goal or, at a minimum, a no net loss goal for natural resources the agency manages that are important, scarce, or sensitive. . .”. The Memorandum further provides that: “[w]hen a resource's value is determined to be irreplaceable, the preferred means of achieving either of these goals is through avoidance, consistent with applicable legal authorities.” Memorandum at section 3(a).
As part of their revised POD, the Applicants have proposed a mitigation and enhancement portfolio (MEP) with design features specific to the SRBOP, aimed at mitigating the effects of project-related impacts within the SRBOP, as well as complying with the SRBOP's enabling statute. The BLM is required under existing policies to determine the measurable environmental impacts of proposed mitigation. The Draft Supplemental EIS analyzes the impacts associated with the MEP, and finds that the MEP does not provide sufficient details or specifics for development of mitigation actions to allow BLM to determine how the MEP goals would be achieved.
Thus, in addition to application of the Proposed Environmental Protection Measures identified in Table 2.7-1 of the Final EIS, the BLM will continue to work with all stakeholders to identify any impacts that would remain on the SRBOP after implementation of the MEP, and to design a mitigation plan that addresses those remaining impacts. This plan will ensure that impacts to resources and values on the SRBOP that require mitigation are fully compensated, and that enhancement of these resources is provided in a manner that complies with all existing policies and the enabling statute of the SRBOP.
The following mitigation categories are among those being considered to address remaining impacts to vegetation resources within the SRBOP:
• Habitat and vegetation restoration efforts;
• Fuels management/fuel breaks
• Wildfire preparedness and suppression;
• Applied research and monitoring to inform adaptive management; and
• Acquisition of private land from willing sellers if found to be appropriate by the Authorizing Officer.
The Draft Supplemental EIS also presents a framework the BLM has developed for assessing compensatory mitigation required under FLPMA and for implementing Bureau and Department of the Interior mitigation policies for mitigation and the Presidential Memorandum on landscape-scale mitigation (November 3, 2015) for impacts to National Historic Trails, cultural resources, wetlands, and resources, objects and values in the SRBOP. The framework discusses avoidance, minimization and compensation measures that would be required under each alternative. Impacts to Greater sage-grouse and migratory birds are addressed in the 2013 Final EIS for the entire, 10-segment project and the 2013 Record of Decision.
In accordance with U.S. Department of the Interior regulations (43 CFR 46.425), the BLM identifies Alternatives 2 and 5 as co-Preferred Alternatives for the purposes of public review and comment. Identification of these alternatives does not represent final agency direction, and the Final Supplemental EIS may reflect changes or adjustments based on information
Alternative 2 would require 12 plan amendments to six current land use plans so that the project would conform to the respective plans. The following land use plans would be amended in a decision selecting Alternative 2:
In order to authorize Segment 9 in this alternative, three land use plans would need to be amended. The SRBOP RMP would need an amendment to allow the project within 0.5 mile of sensitive plant habitat (the same amendment as for Segment 8 in this alternative) and to designate an additional corridor to include one additional 500-kV line. The Bruneau MFP would require an amendment to change the classification for a VRM Class II parcel near Castle Creek to VRM Class III. The Twin Falls MFP would need amendments to allow the ROW outside of existing corridors and to reclassify VRM Class I and II areas adjacent to the Roseworth corridor to VRM class III, while allowing a 500-kV line to cross the Salmon Falls Creek Area of Critical Environmental Concern (ACEC).
Alternative 5 would require five plan amendments to three current land use plans so that the project would conform to the respective plans. The following land use plans would be amended in a decision selecting Alternative 5:
Please note that public comments and information submitted, including names, street addresses, and email addresses of persons who submit comments, will be available for public review and disclosure at the above
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
40 CFR 1506.6, 40 CFR 1506.10, 43 CFR 1610.2.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Proposed supplementary rules.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) is proposing supplementary rules for shooting on public lands administered by the Hollister Field Office, California. The proposed supplementary rules would help protect public safety, facilitate resource protection, and improve recreation opportunities in the area.
These proposed supplementary rules are intended to allow for enforcement as a tool in minimizing the adverse effects of shooting activities. Upon completion, the supplementary rules will be available for inspection in the Hollister Field Office, and they will be announced broadly through the news media and direct mail to the constituents included on the Hollister Field Office mail list. BLM personnel will also provide personal briefings with interested agencies and organizations.
Comments on the proposed supplementary rules must be received or postmarked by May 10, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Mail or hand deliver all comments concerning the proposed supplementary rules to the Bureau of Land Management, 20 Hamilton Court, Hollister, CA 95023 or email comments to
Rick Cooper, Hollister Field Manager or Brian Martin, Outdoor Recreation Planner, BLM Hollister Field Office, 20 Hamilton Court, Hollister, CA 95023, or telephone 831-630-5000.
The public is now invited to provide comments on the proposed supplementary rules. See the
Written comments on the proposed supplementary rules should be specific,
Comments, including names, street addresses, and other contact information of respondents, will be available for public review at the 20 Hamilton Court, Hollister, CA 95023, during regular business hours (7:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, be advised that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold from public review your personal identifying information, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. All submissions from organizations and businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be available for public inspection in their entirety.
The BLM establishes supplementary rules under the authority of 43 CFR 8365.1-6, which allows the BLM State Directors to establish such rules for the protection of persons, property, and public lands and resources. This regulatory provision allows the BLM to issue rules of less than national effect without codifying the rules in the Code of Federal Regulations.
As noted in the Record of Decision (ROD) for the Resource Management Plan for the Southern Diablo Mountain Range and the Central Coast of California (September 2007), the BLM has allowed shooting on public lands for several years, and has been monitoring activities at popular shooting areas. As use has increased, the BLM has observed increasing hazards to visitors and to natural resources due to fires and improper disposal of household items, garbage, and electronic waste abandoned on the public lands.
These hazards have been observed in connection with the use of firearms and shooting activities. Thus, the proposed supplementary rules would apply to all shooting activities. Persons performing tasks central to the BLM's mission would be exempt. Such persons would include, for example, members of any organized law enforcement, rescue, or fire-fighting force.
The proposed supplementary rules are needed to provide consistency and uniformity for shooting on BLM-administered lands throughout the Hollister Field Office, and to prevent user conflicts and provide greater safety to the visiting public.
Recreational target shooting is recognized as a legitimate use of public lands; however, in areas where target shooting is concentrated, excessive resource damage and serious conflicts with other uses often occur. Therefore, supplementary rules related to target shooting are necessary to address the following issues and concerns:
Public Safety: As visitation increases among all types of recreational users, so do the conflicts between user groups. In crowded areas, shooting increases conflicts among users and threatens user safety. Other recreationists and nearby landowners have concerns for their personal safety, as well as damage to property.
Resource Damage: Concentrated target shooting areas result in high levels of damage and impacts. Direct impacts associated with these areas are the shooting of trees and rocks and soil contamination from lead bullets. The indirect impacts include: Increased risk and frequency of wildfires, litter, new route proliferation, vandalism, illegal dumping and other illegal activities. These areas require more clean-up efforts, monitoring and law enforcement presence, and user education efforts than areas where concentrated target shooting does not occur.
Noise: Repetitive noise from concentrated target shooting areas impacts all other recreational activities and the quality of life for nearby residents.
Exclusive use: Exclusive use is created as target shooting becomes concentrated and displaces other recreation users from the area. Many other types of recreational users such as hikers, equestrians, and mountain bikers tend to avoid these areas because of the continuous noise of gunfire and concerns for their own personal safety.
At present, no supplementary rules are in effect for shooting on lands managed by the Hollister Field Office where issues associated with target shooting are most prevalent. Therefore, these supplementary rules are proposed to implement the ROD for the Resource Management Plan for the Southern Diablo Mountain Range and the Central Coast of California (September 2007) with respect to use of firearms and shooting activities.
These proposed supplementary rules are not a significant regulatory action and are not subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866. The proposed supplementary rules would not have an annual effect of $100 million or more on the economy. They are not intended to affect commercial activity, but impose rules of conduct on recreational visitors for public safety and resource protection reasons in a limited area of public lands. These supplementary rules would not adversely affect, in a material way, the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities. These proposed supplementary rules would not create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency. These proposed supplementary rules do not materially alter the budgetary effects of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the right or obligations of their recipients, nor do they raise novel legal or policy issues. They merely strive to protect public safety and the environment.
Executive Order 12866 requires each agency to write regulations that are simple and easy to understand. The BLM invites your comments on how to make these proposed supplementary rules easier to understand, including answers to questions such as the following:
(1) Are the requirements in the proposed supplementary rules clearly stated?
(2) Do the proposed supplementary rules contain technical language or jargon that interferes with their clarity?
(3) Does the format of the proposed supplementary rules (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing, etc.) aid or reduce their clarity?
(4) Would the proposed supplementary rules be easier to understand if they were divided into more (but shorter) sections?
(5) Is the description of the proposed supplementary rules in the
Please send any comments you may have on the clarity of the proposed supplementary rules to one of the addresses specified in the
The BLM prepared an environmental assessment (EA) dated April 6, 2015, and found that the proposed supplementary rules would not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment under Section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C). The proposed supplementary rules merely contain rules of conduct for the BLM public lands administered by the Hollister Field Office within the Central California District. These rules are designed to protect the environment and public safety. A detailed statement under NEPA is not required. The BLM has placed the EA and the Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) on file in the BLM Administrative Record at the address specified in the
As documented in Environmental Assessment DOI-BLM-CA-0900-2012-49-EA, and the associated Finding of No Significant Impact and Decision Record, the proposed supplementary rules do not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment under Section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C).
Congress enacted the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, to ensure that Government regulations do not unnecessarily or disproportionately burden small entities. The RFA requires a regulatory flexibility analysis if a rule would have a significant economic impact, either detrimental or beneficial, on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed supplementary rules do not pertain specifically to commercial or governmental entities of any size, but to public recreational use of specific public lands. Therefore, the BLM has determined under the RFA that the proposed supplementary rules would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
These proposed supplementary rules do not constitute a “major rule” as defined at 5 U.S.C. 804(2). These proposed supplementary rules merely contain rules of conduct for recreational use of certain public lands. These proposed supplementary rules would not affect business, commercial, or industrial use of the public lands.
These proposed supplementary rules would not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal Governments in the aggregate, or the private sector, of more than $100 million per year; nor would they have a significant or unique effect on small governments. These proposed supplementary rules do not require anything of State, local, or tribal governments. Therefore, the BLM is not required to prepare a statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, 2 U.S.C. 1531
These proposed supplementary rules are not a government action capable of interfering with constitutionally protected property rights. These proposed supplementary rules do not address property rights in any form, and do not cause the impairment of anybody's property rights. Therefore, the BLM has determined that these proposed supplementary rules would not cause a taking of private property or require further discussion of takings implications under this Executive Order.
These proposed supplementary rules would not have a substantial direct effect on the states, on the relationship between the Federal Government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. These proposed supplementary rules apply on a limited area of land in only one State, California. Therefore, the BLM has determined that these proposed supplementary rules do not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant preparation of a Federalism assessment.
Under Executive Order 12988, the BLM has determined that these proposed supplementary rules would not unduly burden the judicial system and that the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order are met. These supplementary rules contain rules of conduct for recreational use of certain public lands to protect public safety and the environment.
In accordance with Executive Order 13175, the BLM has found that these proposed supplementary rules do not include policies that have tribal implications. These proposed supplementary rules do not affect lands held in trust for the benefit of Native American tribes, individual Indians, Aleuts, or others.
These proposed supplementary rules do not contain information collection requirements that the Office of Management and Budget must approve under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
These proposed supplementary rules do not comprise a significant energy action. These supplementary rules would not have an adverse effect on energy supplies, production, or consumption. They only address rules of conduct for recreational use of certain public lands to protect public safety and the environment, and have no connection with energy policy.
The principal author of the proposed supplementary rules is Brian Martin, BLM Chief Law Enforcement Officer for the Hollister Field Office, California.
For the reasons stated in the Preamble, and under the authority for supplementary rules at 43 U.S.C. 1740 and 43 CFR 8365.1-6, the California State Director, Bureau of Land Management, proposes to issue these supplementary rules for public lands managed by the BLM in California, to read as follows:
1. These supplementary rules apply, except as specifically exempted, to all shooting activities on public lands administered by the Hollister Field Office, California.
2. These supplementary rules are in effect year-around and will remain in effect until modified by the State Director.
3. The following persons are exempt from these supplementary rules: Any Federal, State, or local government officer or employee in the scope of their duties; members of any organized law enforcement, rescue, or fire-fighting force in performance of an official duty; and any person whose activities are authorized in writing by the Bureau of Land Management.
4. All persons must abide by all Federal and State laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to firearms and weapons for all shooting activities on public lands.
5. No person shall, unless it is posted as allowed, target shoot with a weapon within 50 feet of the center line of any public road.
6. No person shall shoot or discharge any weapon across any public road or signed trail.
7. No person shall, unless it is posted as allowed, shoot or discharge any weapon within 150 yards of any developed recreation area/site.
8. No person shall shoot or discharge any weapon toward or in the direction of any public road, signed trail, or developed recreation area/site where this action could create a hazard to life or property.
9. No person shall consume or be under the influence of an alcoholic beverage or a controlled substance while shooting or discharging any weapon on public lands.
10. No person shall shoot or discharge any firearm loaded with tracer bullets on public lands.
11. No person shall shoot or discharge any weapon at any construction materials, office products, or household items including, but not limited to, appliances, furniture, electronic waste, or other objects containing glass on public lands. Targets designed, manufactured, or built specifically for the purpose of target shooting and which can be completely removed following use are allowed.
12. No person shall shoot or discharge any weapon at clay pigeons on public lands.
13. No person shall shoot or discharge any weapon at any tree, cactus, shrub, or similar vegetative object, fence post, or any other public lands infrastructure. This includes the use of these objects to support targets.
14. Persons shooting or discharging any weapon on public lands are required to remove and properly dispose of all shooting materials, including targets, shell boxes, shell casings, hulls, and brass.
15. No person shall transport in a vehicle or conveyance or its attachments on any public land, or roads, a firearm, unless it is unloaded or dismantled.
16. No person shall have a loaded firearm on display when in any developed recreation area.
17. No person shall shoot or discharge any weapon from a powerboat, sailboat, motor vehicle, or aircraft.
18. No person shall, except with a valid permit, carry a concealed firearm on public lands.
19. No person shall possess or use any pyrotechnic device on public lands. This prohibition includes, but is not limited to, devices such as exploding targets that are detonated when struck by a projectile such as a bullet fired from a firearm.
20. No person shall possess or use any destructive, explosive, or incendiary (including chemical) device on public lands. This prohibition includes, but is not limited to, any homemade or manufactured bomb, cannon, mortar, or similar device.
Any person who violates any of these supplementary rules may be tried before a United States Magistrate and fined in accordance with 18 U.S.C. 3571, imprisoned no more than 12 months under 43 U.S.C. 1733(a) and 43 CFR 8360.0-7, or both. In accordance with 43 CFR 8365.1-7, State or local officials may also impose penalties for violations of California law.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, as amended, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) announced availability of the Proposed Land Use Plan Amendment (LUPA) and Final Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Desert Renewable Energy Conservation Plan (DRECP) with a Notice of Availability published in the
The comment period pertaining to these ACEC designations closes on May 10, 2016. All comments must be in writing and must be postmarked no later than the close of the last day of the comment period. The BLM provided a 152-day comment period on the Draft DRECP LUPA and Environmental Impact Report (EIR)/EIS. All comments received on the Draft DRECP were considered while developing the Proposed LUPA/Final EIS. As such, the BLM is only seeking comments on the 134 ACECs included in the Proposed LUPA/Final EIS, which are listed in this notice. While the BLM will consider all such comments, it does not intend to respond to each comment individually.
Comments must be in writing and must be sent to Vicki Campbell, DRECP Program Manager, 2800 Cottage Way, Suite W-1623, Sacramento, CA 95825; or email
Copies of the DRECP Proposed LUPA/Final EIS were sent to affected Federal, State, and local government agencies, affected tribal governments, and to other stakeholders concurrent with the November 13, 2015 Notice of Availability. The environmental analysis for the DRECP, including the Draft DRECP and the DRECP Proposed LUPA/Final EIS, is available for review online at
Vicki Campbell, Program Manager, DRECP, telephone 916-978-4401; address BLM California State Office, 2800 Cottage Way, Suite W-1623, Sacramento, CA 95825; email
The DRECP was developed with broad public participation through an 6-year collaborative planning process, beginning with publication of a Notice of Intent to amend the CDCA Plan in the
As explained in more detail below, the Draft DRECP, which included a Draft BLM LUPA for the CDCA Plan, and the Bishop and Caliente/Bakersfield RMPs, was published on September 26, 2014, (76 FR 57971). The Notice of Availability for the DRECP Proposed LUPA and Final EIS was published on November 13, 2015. In each of these documents and at associated public meetings, the BLM presented a robust discussion of ACECs. The Draft DRECP identified 147 ACECs (58 new and 89 existing), while the Proposed LUPA/Final EIS considered 134 ACECs (all of which are listed below) based on cooperator and stakeholder comments.
The Draft DRECP was developed by the BLM, USFWS, California Energy Commission, and California Department of Fish and Wildlife (collectively, “DRECP Partner Agencies”) to: (1) Advance Federal and State natural resource conservation goals and other Federal land management goals; (2) Meet the requirements of the Federal Endangered Species Act, California Endangered Species Act, Natural Community Conservation Planning Act, and Federal Land Policy and Management Act in the Mojave and Colorado/Sonoran desert region of Southern California; and (3) Facilitate the timely and streamlined permitting of renewable energy projects.
In December 2012, the DRECP Partner Agencies published the
The Draft DRECP included a strategy that identified and mapped potential areas for renewable energy development and areas for long-term natural resource conservation. The Draft DRECP was released for comment on September 26, 2014, with comments being accepted until February 23, 2015. It included a Draft BLM LUPA for the CDCA Plan, and the Bishop and Caliente/Bakersfield RMPs. The Draft BLM LUPA included six alternatives for the expansion, reduction, modification, and creation of ACECs, ranging from 3,308,000 acres (including 1,048,000 acres within Wilderness Study Areas (WSAs) and Wilderness Areas (No Action)) to 6,199,000 acres (including 1,209,000 acres within WSAs and Wilderness Areas (Alternative 3)). The Preferred Alternative proposed 6,077,000 acres of ACEC (including 1,209,000 acres within WSAs and Wilderness Areas).
The Draft DRECP also proposed Conservation and Management Actions (CMAs) to manage ACECs. CMAs included various resource use limitations. The Draft DRECP included 147 ACECs. Of these, 58 were newly proposed ACECs, and 89 were existing. The alternatives considered a range of footprints and CMAs for both existing and newly proposed ACECs. Maps of each ACEC were included in Appendix L of the Draft DRECP. CMAs were listed in Volume II, with management specific to individual ACECs listed in Appendix L.
In March 2015, the DRECP Partner Agencies announced a phased approach to completing the DRECP. As part of the approach, the BLM component of the DRECP (the LUPA) is being finalized first in Phase I, outlining important designations for conservation and renewable energy on public lands.
The Proposed DRECP LUPA would amend the CDCA Plan for the entire CDCA, and the RMPs for portions of the Bishop and Bakersfield Field Offices. This includes the Mojave Desert and Colorado/Sonoran Desert ecoregion subareas in California. The DRECP Plan Area includes all or a portion of the following counties: Imperial, Inyo, Kern, Los Angeles, Riverside, San Bernardino, and San Diego. The DRECP LUPA Area covers approximately 10,869,000 of
The Notice of Availability for the DRECP Proposed LUPA and Final EIS was published on November 13, 2015, (80 FR 70254), which initiated a 30-day protest period. During the initial review of protest letters received, the BLM determined that it had missed a regulatory requirement, stated in 43 CFR 1610.7-2(b), to specifically list in a
The BLM accepted and considered input from the public on ACEC values and potential designation during scoping for the LUPA, during public comment on the
The BLM then considered comments on the Draft DRECP in the development of the DRECP Proposed LUPA and Final EIS. Of the ACECs analyzed in the draft plan, the Proposed LUPA would designate 130 of the 134 area listed below as ACECs with their associated management and resource use limitations. The remaining four areas identified as potential ACECs were determined to not be appropriate for designation at this time. Resource use limitations were included in Volume II and Appendix L of the Draft DRECP. The BLM considered public comments received during the comment period and refined the CMAs included in the Proposed LUPA.
Special Unit Management Plans were developed specific for each ACEC and are contained in Appendix L of the DRECP Proposed LUPA and Final EIS. The BLM evaluated each proposed and existing ACEC within the DRECP to determine if special management was needed for the following resources and uses:
• Soil, water, air;
• Vegetation—including special status species;
• Fish and wildlife—including special status species;
• Cultural resources;
• Paleontology;
• Trails and travel management;
• Recreation;
• Land tenure;
• Rights of way;
• Minerals (including locatable minerals, mineral materials, and non‐energy leasables); and
• Wild horses and burros.
The proposed resource use limitations for all ACECs listed below include limitations on ground disturbing activities. Ground disturbing activities in ACECs would be constrained by specified disturbance caps, which limit the total ground disturbance in the area. The specific ACEC disturbance caps were first disclosed in the Draft DRECP LUPA, are defined in the individual Special Unit Management Plans (Appendix L for the Draft DRECP LUPA and Proposed LUPA/Final EIS), and range from 1.0 percent to 0.1 percent. The methodology for applying the disturbance caps is listed in CMAs ACEC-DIST-1 through ACEC-DIST-3 in Section II.3.4 of the Proposed DRECP LUPA/Final EIS.
Other resource use limitations include limitations on rights-of-way (including prohibition of renewable energy activities and right-of-way avoidance or exclusion for all other rights-of-way), specific design features and mitigation measures to protect cultural and biological resources. These CMAs are listed in Section II.3.4.2.2 and II.3.4.2.4 of the Proposed LUPA/Final EIS.
The DRECP Proposed LUPA includes the following ACECs (note that acreage figures are rounded to the nearest 1000, 100, or 10, as appropriate) (due to rounding and designation overlap, columns do not sum to the total acreage figures discussed above):
Copies of the DRECP Proposed LUPA/Final EIS are available for public inspection at the following locations:
• BLM California State Office, 2800 Cottage Way, Suite W-1623, Sacramento, CA;
• BLM California Desert District Office, 22835 Calle San Juan De Los Lagos, Moreno Valley, CA 92553;
• BLM Barstow Field Office, 2601 Barstow Road, Barstow, CA 92311;
• BLM El Centro Field Office, 1661 S. 4th Street, El Centro, CA 92243;
• BLM Needles Field Office, 1303 S. Highway 95, Needles, CA 92363;
• BLM Palm Springs South Coast Field Office, 1201 Bird Center Drive, Palm Springs, CA 92262;
• BLM Ridgecrest Field Office, 300 S. Richmond Road, Ridgecrest, CA 93555;
• BLM Bakersfield Field Office, 3801 Pegasus Drive, Bakersfield, CA 93308; and
• BLM Bishop Field Office, 351 Pacu Lane, Suite 100, Bishop, CA 93514.
Before including your phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment letter—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
43 CFR 1610.2, 43 CFR 1610.5, 43 CFR 1610.7-2(b)
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of public meetings.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976 and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM), Arizona Resource Advisory Council (RAC) will meet in Phoenix, Arizona, as indicated below.
The Arizona RAC Business meeting will take place April 28, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the BLM Arizona State Office located at One North Central Avenue, Suite 800, Phoenix, Arizona 85004.
Dorothea Boothe, Arizona RAC Coordinator at the Bureau of Land Management, Arizona State Office, One North Central Avenue, Suite 800, Phoenix, Arizona 85004-4427, 602-417-9500. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual during normal business hours. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
The 15-member Council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in Arizona. Planned agenda items include: A Welcome and Introduction of Council Members; BLM State Director's Update on BLM Programs and Issues; Threatened and Endangered Species Program Overview; Update on Northstar 2025 Project; RAC Review of the Paria Canyon/Coyote Buttes Special Management Area Proposed Business Plan; RAC Committee Reports; RAC Questions on BLM District Manager Reports and other items of interest to the RAC. Members of the public are welcome to attend the RAC Business meeting. A public comment period is scheduled from 1:45 to 2:15 p.m. and again around 3:00 during the Recreation RAC Session for any interested members of the public who wish to address the Council on BLM programs and business. Depending on the number of persons wishing to speak and time available, the time for individual comments may be limited. Written comments may also be submitted during the meeting for the RAC's consideration. The final meeting agenda will be available two weeks prior to the meeting and posted on the BLM Web site at:
Under the Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act, the RAC has been designated as the Recreation RAC and has the authority to review all BLM and
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (National Park Service, NPS) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on October 31, 2016. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by May 10, 2016.
Please send your comments on the ICR to Madonna L. Baucum, Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, Room 2C114—Mail Stop 242, Reston, VA 20192 (mail); or
To request additional information about this IC, contact Elisabeth Fondriest, Recreation Grants Chief, State and Local Assistance Programs Division at 202-354-6916; or 1849 C Street NW. (2225), Washington, DC 20240 (mail); or
The Urban Park and Recreation Recovery (UPARR) Act (16 U.S.C. 2501
We administer the UPARR program in accordance with regulations at 36 CFR 72 and the UPARR Grant Manual. These (1) explain the policies to be followed for awarding grants; (2) list the requirements and criteria to be met for each type of grant and discretionary eligibility; (3) discuss fundable uses and limitations; (4) explain how proposals will be selected and funding; and (5) describe the application process and administrative procedures for awarding grants. The three types of grants available under the program are:
• Rehabilitation—renovate or redesign existing close-to-home recreation facilities.
• Innovation—specific activities that either increase recreation programs or improve the efficiency of the local government to operating existing programs.
• Planning—development of a Recovery Action Program plan.
The following are the information collection requirements for the UPARR Program:
(1) Recovery Action Program: In accordance with 36 CFR 72.10-13, any eligible jurisdiction or discretionary applicant desiring to apply for a grant must develop and submit for NPS approval, a local Recovery Action Program (RAP). The RAP documents the recreation needs of the community and is linked to the objectives, needs, plans, and institutional arrangements of the community. The RAP consists of two sections, which are the Assessment and the Action Plan.
The Assessment describes the existing park and recreation system; issues and problems; goals and objectives. The Assessment summarizes the entire system including: Operation and maintenance; employment and training; programs and services; rehabilitation of existing facilities; and the need for new facilities. The six parts of the Assessment include: Context; physical issues; rehabilitation issues; service issues; management issues; and conclusions, implications, and issues.
The Action Plan is a clear statement of the community's specific objectives, priorities and implementation strategies in relation to the intent of the UPARR Program and the local government's overall recreation system goals. Citizen involvement in the development of the Action Plan is required and may include surveys, hearings, meetings, and/or consultation, as appropriate, which is essential in the development of goals, objectives and the setting of project priorities. The Action Plan identifies: The goals for the system; strategies to address national and local concerns, recommendations; program priorities and implementation schedule; and an evaluation of and update to the Action Program.
In accordance with 36 CFR 72.30, applicants must have an approved RAP on file with the appropriate NPS Regional Office prior to applying for Rehabilitation or Innovation grants. Rehabilitation and Innovation proposals must be based on priorities identified in the applicant jurisdiction's RAP.
(2) Recovery Action Program Grant Applications: In accordance with 36 CFR 72.52, ranking and selection for funding of Recovery Action Program grants will be initiated on the basis of a full application, preparation of which will be assisted through meetings with NPS regional staff. The following documents are required to be submitted with the Recovery Action Program Grant Application: OMB Standard Forms such as the SF-424, the RAP Grant Agreement (Form # 10-911), narrative statements with a description and scope of the planning product(s) to be developed, a project budget, and a work schedule.
(3) Preapplication for Rehabilitation and Innovation Grants: In accordance with 36 CFR 72.53, a preapplication procedure is used to reduce the amount of time and documentation needed for a full application, and to foster the competitive aspects of the UPARR Program. The preapplication must include those items as set forth in the Preapplication Handbook, to include: A letter of transmittal, SF-424, proposal description statement, a narrative describing how the project meets the selection criteria, maps, photographs (for construction projects), cost estimates, and pass through certifications (if applicable). The application must describe the problem addressed by the proposal, including existing conditions, the reason for the problem or why the condition exists, and what the UPARR assistance would do to alleviate the problem or condition. Discretionary applicants must also submit a narrative statement, signed by the chief executive of the applicant jurisdiction, explaining and quantifying the degree of physical and economic distress in the community must be included in each preapplication.
(4) Full Application—Rehabilitation and Innovation Grants: In accordance with 36 CFR 72.54, once a Rehabilitation or Innovation proposal
Grant respondents must also complete and sign the UPARR Program Grant Rehabilitation and Innovation Agreement (currently approved under 1024-0089; Form #10-912). We use this information to document the obligations assumed by the respondent through its acceptance of Federal assistance including the rules and regulations applicable to the conduct of a project under the UPARR Act and any special terms and conditions to the project established by the NPS and agreed to by the respondent. This information also obligates the Federal government to provide grants up to the designated amount for eligible costs incurred on the project on the basis of information and estimates contained in the proposal.
(5) Amendments: Grantees must request prior written approval from NPS for an amendment to a project if the revision causes substantial changes in the scope, objective, or work elements such as the project period. To alter the grant agreement, grantees must complete and sign the Amendment to UPARR Grant Agreement (Form #10-915). The request must also include an SF-424, an explanation of and justification for the change(s), and if applicable, new budget information.
(6) Performance Reports: The UPARR Program Project Performance Report details the annual status of the projects and any changes that need to be implemented. We use this information to ensure that the grantee is accomplishing the work on schedule and to identify any problems that the grantee may be experiencing in accomplishing that work. Performance Reports are needed to show quarterly or annual progress reports on the physical completion per percentage of each grant, financial expenditures to date, budget revisions if needed, work planned for the next year, and any additional information pertinent for grant completion.
(7) Conversion of Use: In accordance with Section 1010 of the UPARR Act and as codified in 36 CFR 72.72, no property improved or developed with UPARR assistance can be converted to other than public recreation uses without the approval of the NPS. A conversion will only be approved if it is found to be in accord with the current local park and recreation Recovery Action Program and/or equivalent recreation plans and only upon such conditions as deemed necessary to assure the provision of adequate recreation properties and opportunities of reasonably equivalent location and usefulness. To request a conversion, the grantee must submit the following documentation: An amendment request, a narrative statement comparing the site to be converted with the proposed replacement site addressing factors such as physical size, location, carrying capacity, and facilities; maps (location, site, and Section 1010 boundary); and evidence of the grantee's control and tenure over the replacement site.
(8) Recordkeeping Requirements: In accordance with 36 CFR 72.60(b), applicants must maintain adequate financial records to support all expenditures or costs covered by a Recovery Action Program, Rehabilitation, or Innovation project grant, as specified in the OMB regulations at 2 CFR part 200 for a period of 3 years after final payment on a project. The records must be retained beyond the 3-year period if audit findings have not been resolved.
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (National Park Service, NPS) have sent an Information Collection Request (ICR) to OMB for review and approval. We summarize the ICR below and describe the nature of the collection and the estimated burden and cost. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. However, under OMB regulations, we may continue to conduct or sponsor this information collection while it is pending at OMB.
You must submit comments on or before April 11, 2016.
Send your comments and suggestions on this information collection to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior at OMB-OIRA at (202) 395-5806 (fax) or
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Katie Wilmes, National Park Service, 1100 Ohio Drive SW., Rm 344, Washington, DC 20242; or via email:
The National Park Service (NPS) Organic Act of 1916 (Organic Act) (54 U.S.C. 100101
The NPS National Christmas Tree Music Program at President's Park is intended to provide musical entertainment for park visitors during December on the Ellipse, where in celebration of the holiday season, visitors can observe the National Christmas Tree, visit assorted yuletide displays, and attend musical presentations. Each year, park officials accept applications from musical groups who wish to participate in the annual National Christmas Tree Program. The NPS utilizes Form 10-942, “National Christmas Tree Music Program Application” to accept applications from the public for participation in the program. Park officials utilize the following information from applicants in order to select, plan, schedule, and contact performers for the National Christmas Tree Program:
• Contact name, phone number, and email.
• Group name and location (city, state).
• Preferred performance dates and times.
• Music selections/song list.
• Equipment needs.
• Number of performers.
• Type of group (choir, etc.).
• Acknowledgement of the musical entertainment policy.
We again invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask OMB in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that it will be done.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
The National Park Service (NPS) has prepared a Final Environmental Impact Statement (FEIS) for the General Management Plan (GMP)
The NPS will execute a Record of Decision not sooner than April 11, 2016
Printed copies of both the Draft and Final GMP/WS/EIS will be available for public inspection at local public libraries; an electronic version of the final document is also available on the GMP project Web site (
Cindy Orlando, Superintendent, Hawaii Volcanoes National Park, P.O. Box 52, Hawaii National Park, HI 96718-0052 or via telephone at (808) 985-6026.
The NPS held seven public meetings on the islands of Hawaii, Oahu and Maui in April and May 2009 to provide the public with an opportunity to learn about the GMP project and to offer comments; a total of 95 people attended the meetings. The park also conducted several stakeholder meetings to obtain input from representatives of city, county, and federal agencies, business and community organizations, Native Hawaiian organizations, and research permit holders. Park staff also gave poster presentations at local meetings of the Kau Chamber of Commerce, Volcano Community Association, and Friends of Hawaii Volcanoes National Park. Altogether during the 2009 scoping phase, the park planning team spoke with approximately 2000 people at public and stakeholder meetings and park and community events. Correspondence received from over 130 individuals and organizations engendered approximately 1,250 specific comments.
During August 2011, the NPS distributed a Draft Alternatives Newsletter, which outlined concepts and actions in the preliminary GMP alternatives and proposed management zones, and explained the completed wilderness eligibility process and the subsequent wilderness study that would be included in the Draft EIS (DEIS). The Newsletter contained a business reply questionnaire option to facilitate public comments. In addition to the planning schedule included in the Newsletter, information was distributed to local and regional press media in advance of the public meetings and articles were printed in three local papers: West Hawaii Today, Hawaii Tribune Herald, and the Kau Calendar.
Expanding the scope of the EIS was announced in the
The NPS conducted five public open house and stakeholder meetings; a total of 66 people participated. Overall the NPS received 72 written responses in the form of letters, emails, comment forms, and comments submitted on the PEPC Web site. All comments received were reviewed by the GMP team to inform preparation of the DEIS/GMP/WS. A summary of public comments on the preliminary alternatives and wilderness study was created and made available to the public in February 2012.
The 60 day review period for the DEIS/GMP/WS was formally initiated through publication by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency of its Notice of Availability in the
The NPS held a “talk story” session and formal wilderness hearing on June 10, 2015, at the Kīlauea Visitor Center; approximately 20 people participated in these meetings and provided oral comments. The “talk story” session is a traditional Hawaiian practice which is similar to an open house information meeting. The wilderness hearing was facilitated by the NPS, and an independent court reporter conducted the proceedings and responded to questions about wilderness protection and management and recorded formal comments regarding the Wilderness Study. This talk story session and wilderness hearing was announced via the Newsletter, the project Web site, and a separate press release that was distributed to media on June 5, 2015.
Throughout the public review period, the public had opportunities to provide comments through attending the talk story session and wilderness hearing, submitting comments on NPS Web sites,
Alternative 2 (agency preferred; environmentally preferred)—Strengthens and expands opportunities to connect people with the volcanic world treasure, Hawaii Volcanoes NP, and provide a wide range of high quality visitor experiences based on different geographic areas. Kīlauea summit would continue to be the most actively visited area of the park with the greatest concentration of services and amenities for park visitors. Along Chain of Craters Road and Mauna Loa Road, the park would strive to provide visitors with improved opportunities to experience and connect with park resources and values, including new opportunities at places like Mauna Ulu and Kealakomowaena, while dispersing use to create a less congested and more tranquil experience. At Kahuku, although visitor access and recreation opportunities would be expanded from what is currently offered, infrastructure and development would be minimal, gradually phased in over time, and remain rustic in design to allow for a primitive visitor experience. Natural and cultural resources would continue to be managed and protected with a high degree of integrity, consistent with direction provided by existing laws and policies. This alternative emphasizes the park's role as a refuge and haven for native biota, people, and cultures in a world constantly adapting to volcanic activity and island building processes. Native Hawaiian people and cultural values such as malama aina (nourishing or taking care of the land) and kuleana (responsibility), and perspectives from Native Hawaiian land management such as ahupuaa management (managing land from mauka (mountains) to makai (sea)), are incorporated as important concepts in park stewardship of resources. Native Hawaiian traditional ecological knowledge would be used to enhance current scientific understanding to protect park resources and provide additional interpretive and educational opportunities for visitors.
Alternative 3—Emphasizes building new connections with the park primarily through expanded education and hands-on stewardship opportunities. Traditional visitor opportunities would continue and capacity could be expanded at some existing sites to allow for increased visitation, but new development would be very limited and a suite of management tools would be used to disperse visitors and manage congestion throughout the park. A greater focus would be placed on science and learning opportunities for visitors from mauka (mountains) to makai (sea). The park would immerse visitors in the protection and restoration of native species and ecosystems by maximizing opportunities to participate in restoration activities and additional emphasis would be placed on providing opportunities for visitors to engage in research, scientific investigation, and projects associated with natural and cultural resources management, notably in Kahuku. This alternative also emphasizes the park's role as a refuge and haven for native biota, people, and cultures in a world constantly adapting to volcanic activity and island building processes. This alternative honors the Native Hawaiian people and culture by recognizing Native Hawaiian values, such as malama aina and kuleana, and perspectives from Native Hawaiian land management such as ahupuaa management (managing land from mauka to makai). Native Hawaiian traditional ecological knowledge would be used to enhance current scientific understanding to protect park resources and provide additional interpretive and educational opportunities for visitors.
Actions Common to All Alternatives—Many aspects of natural and cultural resource management (
Notably, in 1989 a 5.5 mile segment of the historic Chain of Craters Road through the park towards Kalapana and Pahoa was buried by lava flows. Due to change in the direction of other lava flows, in 2014 the remaining access to the Pahoa area became threatened. Consequently, an unpaved emergency access route was constructed along the old alignment. This route is only available for emergency access, in the event of existing access to Pahoa being cut off. Under all alternatives, when this route is no longer needed for emergency access, it could be used as an equestrian, biking, and hiking trail to provide for non-motorized visitor use—it would continue to be available in the future as an emergency route without compromising natural values and avoiding complexity of managing a new coastal entrance to the park.
Wilderness Study—Wilderness designation of 121,015 acres found eligible in the Kahuku Unit is proposed as an extension of existing wilderness within the park. Designation would advance the park's conservation vision for high-elevation protection of unique natural and cultural resources and create connectivity for park wilderness that would span from the summit of Mauna Loa Volcano all the way down its massive Southwest Rift. This rugged and remote environment offers outstanding opportunities for solitude and potential for high-challenge recreational hiking, and nearly all of this area is a place where the imprint of
Decision Process: As noted above, not sooner than 30 days after the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency notice of filing of the FEIS/GMP/WS is published in the
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (National Park Service, NPS) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This IC is scheduled to expire on October 31, 2016. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
To ensure that we are able to consider your comments on this IC, we must receive them by May 10, 2016.
Please send your comments on the ICR to Madonna L. Baucum, Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, Mail Stop 242—Room 2C114, Reston, VA 20192 (mail); or
To request additional information about this IC, contact Elisabeth Fondriest, Recreation Grants Chief, State and Local Assistance Programs Division at 202-354-6916; or 1849 C Street NW. (2225), Washington, DC 20240 (mail); or
The Land and Water Conservation Fund Act of 1965 (LWCF Act) (54 U.S.C. 2003305
In accordance with the LWCF Act, we administer the LWCF State Assistance Program, which provides matching grants to States, and through the States to local units of government. LWCF grants are provided to States on a matching basis for up to 50 percent of the total project-related allowable costs. Grants to eligible insular areas may be for 100 percent assistance. The LWCF State Assistance Program gives maximum flexibility and responsibility to the States. States establish their own priorities and criteria and award their grant money through a competitive selection process based on a Statewide recreation plan. Payments for all projects are made to the State agency that is authorized to accept and administer funds paid for approved projects. Local units of government participate in the program as subgrantees of the State with the State retaining primary grant compliance responsibility.
We collect the following information for the LWCF State Assistance Program:
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• Maps and other supporting documentation. Applicants must develop and submit two maps: one depicting the general location of the park as well as the entrance area; the other delineating the boundaries of the outdoor recreation area that will be subject to the conversion provisions of Section 6(f)(3) of the Act. Applicants should submit other documents that have a significant bearing on the project.
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The information collection requirements associated with the LWCF State Assistance Program are discussed in detail in the Land and Water Conservation Fund State Assistance Program Federal Financial Assistance Manual, available online at
We invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
United States International Trade Commission.
March 15, 2016 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: none.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. No. AA1921-167 (Fourth Review) (Pressure Sensitive Plastic Tape from Italy). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determination and views of the Commission on April 4, 2016.
5. Outstanding action jackets: none.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
On March 7, 2016, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Western District of Washington in the lawsuit entitled
The United States, on behalf of the United States Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”), filed a complaint against Ocean Gold Seafoods, Inc. and Ocean Cold, LLC (the “Ocean Companies”), seeking injunctive relief and the imposition of civil penalties for violations of the Clean Air Act and the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act in connection with the Companies' use of refrigerant and refrigeration appliances at their seafood processing and cold storage facilities in Westport, Washington. The Consent Decree requires the Companies to implement a comprehensive refrigerant compliance management plan and an employee training program; hire a third party verifier to conduct independent inspections and audits of their records and appliances; and report annually to EPA. The Consent Decree also requires the Companies to mitigate past releases by maintaining refrigerant loss rates below regulatory standards (subject to stipulated penalties), and to pay a civil penalty of $495,000.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $29.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury. For a paper copy without the exhibits and signature pages, the cost is $11.00.
I, J. Patricia W. Smoot, of the United States Parole Commission, was present at a meeting of said Commission, which started at approximately 11:00 a.m., on Tuesday, February 23, 2016 at the U.S. Parole Commission, 90 K Street NE., Third Floor, Washington, DC 20530. The purpose of the meeting was to discuss five original jurisdiction cases pursuant to 28 CFR Section 2.27. Three Commissioners were present, constituting a quorum when the vote to close the meeting was submitted.
Public announcement further describing the subject matter of the meeting and certifications of the General Counsel that this meeting may be closed by votes of the Commissioners present were submitted to the Commissioners prior to the conduct of any other business. Upon motion duly made, seconded, and carried, the following Commissioners voted that the meeting be closed: J. Patricia W. Smoot, Patricia Cushwa and Charles T. Massarone.
Employment and Training Administration (ETA), Department of Labor.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (Department), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 [44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)]. This program helps ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed.
Currently, the ETA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed extension, with no revisions, of data collections using the ETA Form 9117, Trade Adjustment Assistance (TAA) Reserve Funding Request Form (OMB Control Number 1205-0275). The current expiration date is May 31, 2016.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addresses section below on or before May 10, 2016.
Submit written comments to Frankie Russell, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Room N-5428, Employment and Training Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210. Telephone number: 202-693-2738 (this is not a toll-free number). Individuals with hearing or speech impairments may access the telephone number above via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Information Relay Service at 1-877-889-5627 (TTY/TDD). Fax: 202-693-3584. Email:
The administration of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended by the Trade Adjustment Assistance Extension Act of 2015 (TAAEA 2015), is the responsibility of the Secretary of Labor. Through agreements (Governor-Secretary Agreements) established with states, states serve as agents of the Department in making payments to workers who have lost their jobs as a result of foreign trade and are certified eligible for the TAA Program. Section 241 of the Trade Act provides that:
As such, states may request reserve funds before the Final Distribution to cover the costs of Training, Job Search Allowances and Relocation Allowances, Employment and Case Management Services and State Administration of these benefits. Reserve funds will be distributed to states in accordance with 20 CFR 618.920 on an as-needed basis in response to reserve fund requests to provide monies to those states that experience large, unexpected layoffs or otherwise have training needs that are not met by their initial allocation. These funds must be requested using the Form ETA-9117 (OMB No. 1205-0275).
The Department is particularly interested in comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this comment request will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the ICR; they will also become a matter of public record.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Surface Coal Mine Daily Inspection, Certified Person, and Report of Inspection,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before April 11, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-MSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Surface Coal Mine Daily Inspection, Certified Person, and Report of Inspection information collection requirements codified in regulations 30 CFR 77.1713 that requires an operator of either or both a surface coal mine and surface facility to keep a record of the results of required examinations for hazardous conditions. These records consist of the nature and location of any hazardous condition found and the actions taken to abate the hazardous condition. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 sections 101(a) and 103(h) authorize this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Notice.
In this notice, OSHA grants a permanent variance to Traylor Bros., Inc., from the provisions of OSHA standards that regulate work in compressed-air environments at 29 CFR 1926.803.
The permanent variance specified by this notice becomes effective on March 11, 2016 and shall remain in effect until it is modified or revoked.
Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:
Electronic copies of this
On April 26, 2012, Traylor Bros., Inc., 835 N. Congress Ave., Evansville, IN 47715, and Traylor/Skanska/Jay Dee Joint Venture, Blue Plains Tunnel, 5000 Overlook SW., Washington, DC 20032, submitted under Section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (“OSH Act”; 29 U.S.C. 655) and 29 CFR 1905.11 (“Variances and other relief under section 6(d)”), an application for a permanent variance from several provisions of the OSHA standard that regulates work in compressed air at 29 CFR 1926.803. Subsequently, OSHA addressed this request as two separate applications: (1) Traylor Bros., Inc. (“Traylor” or “the applicant”) request for a permanent variance for future tunneling projects; and (2) Traylor/Skanska/Jay Dee Joint Venture, Blue Plains Tunnel (“Traylor JV”). This notice only addresses the Traylor application for a permanent variance for future tunneling projects. This notice does not address Traylor JV's application for a permanent variance for the Blue Plains Tunnel project. On March 27, 2015, OSHA granted Traylor JV a permanent variance for completion of the Blue Plains Tunnel (80 FR 16440).
As previously indicated, this notice addresses grant of a permanent variance to Traylor applicable to future tunneling projects, from the provisions of the standard that: (1) Prohibit compressed-air worker (CAW) exposure to pressures exceeding 50 pounds per square inch (p.s.i.) except in an emergency (29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5));
According to its application, Traylor is a contractor that works on complex tunnel projects using newly developed advanced equipment and procedures for soft-ground tunneling. The applicant's workers engage in the construction of tunnels using advanced shielded mechanical excavation techniques in conjunction with an earth pressure balanced tunnel boring machine (EPBTBM).
Further, as stated in its application, Traylor is likely to be the sole contractor, as well as the general contractor in association with future Joint Venture partners for the construction of future tunnels at various sites throughout the nation. Traylor asserts that generally, it bores tunnels
Traylor employs specially trained personnel for the construction of the tunnel, and states that this construction will use shielded mechanical-excavation techniques. Traylor asserts that its workers perform hyperbaric interventions at pressures greater than 50 p.s.i.g. in the excavation chamber of the EPBTBM; these interventions consist of conducting inspections and maintenance work on the cutter-head structure and cutting tools of the EPBTBM.
Additionally, Traylor asserts that innovations in tunnel excavation, specifically with EPBTBMs, have, in most cases, eliminated the need to pressurize the entire tunnel. This technology negates the requirement that all members of a tunnel-excavation crew work in compressed air while excavating the tunnel. These advances in technology modified substantially the methods used by the construction industry to excavate subaqueous tunnels compared to the caisson work regulated by the current OSHA compressed-air standard for construction at 29 CFR 1926.803. Such advances reduce the number of workers exposed, and the total duration of exposure to hyperbaric pressure during tunnel construction.
Using shielded mechanical-excavation techniques, in conjunction with precast concrete tunnel liners and backfill grout, EPBTBMs provide methods to achieve the face pressures required to maintain a stabilized tunnel face through various geologies, and isolate that pressure to the forward section (the working chamber) of the EPBTBM. Interventions in the working chamber (the pressurized portion of the EPBTBM) take place only after halting tunnel excavation and preparing the machine and crew for an intervention. Interventions occur to inspect or maintain the mechanical-excavation components located in the working chamber. Maintenance conducted in the working chamber includes changing replaceable cutting tools and disposable wear bars, and, in rare cases, repairing structural damage to the cutter head.
In addition to innovations in tunnel-excavation methods, Traylor asserts that innovations in hyperbaric medicine and technology improve the safety of decompression from hyperbaric exposures. According to Traylor, the use of decompression protocols incorporating oxygen is more efficient, effective, and safer for tunnel workers than compliance with the decompression tables specified by the existing OSHA standard (29 CFR part 1926, subpart S, Appendix A decompression tables). These hyperbaric exposures are made safe by advances in technology, a better understanding of hyperbaric medicine, and the development of a project-specific Hyperbaric Operations Manual (HOM) that requires specialized medical support and hyperbaric supervision to provide assistance to a team of specially trained man-lock attendants and hyperbaric workers or CAWs.
OSHA initiated a technical review of the Traylor's variance application and developed a set of follow-up questions that it sent to Traylor on September 17, 2012 (Ex. OSHA-2012-0035-0003). On October 26, 2012, Traylor submitted its response and a request for an interim order for the Blue Plains Tunnel Project, as well as future projects (Ex. OSHA-2012-0035-0013). In its response to OSHA's follow-up questions, Traylor indicated that the maximum pressure to which it is likely to expose workers during future project interventions is 75 p.s.i.g and may involve the use of trimix breathing gas (composed of a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen, and helium in varying concentrations used for breathing by divers and CAWs for compression and decompression when working at pressures exceeding 73 p.s.i.g.). Therefore, to work effectively on future projects, Traylor must perform hyperbaric interventions in compressed air at pressures higher than the maximum pressure specified by the existing OSHA standard, 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), which states: “No employee shall be subjected to pressure exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. except in emergency” (see footnote 1).
As noted above, on March 27, 2015, OSHA published the
OSHA continued its technical review of Traylor's variance application focusing on the use of trimix breathing gas (proposed for use in future tunneling projects at pressures exceeding 73 p.s.i.g.) and developed a second set of follow-up questions that it sent to Traylor on December 18, 2013 (Ex. OSHA-2012-0035-0002). On January 21, 2014, Traylor submitted its response (Ex. OSHA-2012-0035-0009). In its response to OSHA's follow-up questions, Traylor provided additional technical and scientific information concerning successful trimix use on tunneling projects throughout the United States, as well as in Europe and Asia. Additionally, Traylor reaffirmed that the maximum pressure to which it is likely to expose workers during interventions for future tunneling projects is 75 p.s.i.g. and may involve the use of trimix breathing gas.
In reviewing Traylor's application for future tunneling projects, OSHA focused on the following important considerations:
• Variances are granted only to specific employers that submitted a properly completed and executed variance application. Traylor has met this requirement (for the single employer application);
• This notice announces only Traylor's (single employer) grant of a permanent variance dealing with future projects. It does not address Traylor's future hyperbaric tunneling projects in association with unnamed joint venture partners;
• The variance conditions require Traylor to submit for OSHA's review and approval a project-specific HOM at least one year prior to the start of work on any future project;
• The variance conditions require the HOM to demonstrate that the EPBTBM to be used on the project is designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2012 (or most recent edition of Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy) for the EPBTBM's hyperbaric chambers.
• This condition ensures that each future tunneling project can be comprehensively reviewed on a case-by-case basis prior to OSHA granting its approval to Traylor to proceed with its new project;
• Traylor may not begin hyperbaric interventions at pressures exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. until OSHA completes its review of the project-specific HOM and determines that the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate, comply with the conditions of the variance, adequately protect the safety and health of CAWs, and so notifies the applicant; and
• Traylor is required to submit new applications requesting modification of its single employer variance and approval of its project-specific HOM [with sufficient lead time (at least one year prior to start of work on any future project), to allow OSHA to complete the variance modification process], upon forming any future joint ventures.
Further, on December 6, 2012, OSHA published a
As part of SIP-IV, OSHA is considering updating the decompression tables in Appendix A (1926.803(f)(1)) (77 FR 72783). This proposed action would permit employers to use decompression procedures and updated decompression tables that take advantage of new hyperbaric technologies used widely in extreme hyperbaric exposures. If the planned SIP-IV revises Appendix A, Traylor (and similar tunneling contractors previously granted a variance) will still require hyperbaric tunneling variances to address portions of the standard not covered by SIP-IV (
If SIP-IV is completed (including the update of the decompression tables in Appendix A (1926.803(f)(1)), OSHA will modify Traylor's (single employer) and similar variances granted to other employers to include the applicable SIP-IV provisions as appropriate.
OSHA considered Traylor's application for a permanent variance and interim order for future tunneling projects. OSHA determined that Traylor proposed an alternative that provides a workplace at least as safe and healthful as that provided by the standard.
On July 27, 2015, OSHA published a
Traylor asserts that the advances in tunnel excavation technology described in Section I of this notice modified significantly the equipment and methods used by contractors to construct subaqueous tunnels, thereby making several provisions of OSHA's compressed-air standard for construction at 29 CFR 1926.803 inappropriate for this type of work. These advances reduce both the number of workers exposed, and the total duration of exposure to the hyperbaric conditions associated with tunnel construction.
Using shielded mechanical-excavation techniques, in conjunction with pre-cast concrete tunnel liners and backfill grout, EPBTBMs provide methods to achieve the face pressures required to maintain a stabilized tunnel face, through various geologies, while isolating that pressure to the forward section (working or excavation chamber) of the EPBTBM.
Interventions involving the working chamber (the pressurized chamber at the head of the EPBTBM) take place only after the applicant halts tunnel excavation and prepares the machine and crew for an intervention. Interventions occur to inspect or maintain the mechanical-excavation components located in the forward portion of the working chamber. Maintenance conducted in the forward portion of the working chamber includes changing replaceable cutting tools, disposable wear bars, and, in rare cases, repairs to the cutter head due to structural damage.
In addition to innovations in tunnel-excavation methods, research conducted after OSHA published its compressed-air standard for construction in 1971, resulted in advances in hyperbaric medicine. In this regard, the applicant asserts that the use of decompression protocols incorporating oxygen and trimix is more efficient, effective, and safer for tunnel workers than compliance with the existing OSHA standard (29 CFR 1926, subpart S, Appendix A decompression tables). According to the applicant, contractors routinely and safely expose employees performing interventions in the working chamber of EPBTBMs to hyperbaric pressures up to 75 p.s.i.g., which is 50% higher than maximum pressure specified by the existing OSHA standard (see 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5)).
The applicant contends that the alternative safety measures included in its application provide its workers with a place of employment that is at least as safe and healthful as they can obtain under the existing provisions of OSHA's compressed-air standard for construction. The applicant certifies that it provided employee representatives of affected workers with a copy of the variance application.
The applicant states that it may perform hyperbaric interventions at pressures greater than 50 p.s.i.g. in the working chamber of the EPBTBM; this pressure exceeds the pressure limit of 50 p.s.i.g. specified for nonemergency purposes by 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5). The EPBTBM has twin man locks, with each man lock having two compartments. This configuration allows workers to access the man locks for compression and decompression, and medical personnel to access the man locks if required in an emergency.
EPBTBMs are capable of maintaining pressure at the tunnel face, and stabilizing existing geological conditions, through the controlled use of propel cylinders, a mechanically driven cutter head, bulkheads within the shield, ground-treatment foam, and a screw conveyor that moves excavated material from the working chamber. As noted earlier, the forward-most portion of the EPBTBM is the working chamber, and this chamber is the only pressurized segment of the EPBTBM. Within the shield, the working chamber consists of two sections: The staging chamber and the forward working chamber. The staging chamber is the section of the working chamber between the man-lock door and the entry door to the forward working chamber. The forward working chamber is immediately behind the cutter head and tunnel face.
The applicant will pressurize the working chamber to the level required to maintain a stable tunnel face. Pressure in the staging chamber ranges from atmospheric (no increased pressure) to a maximum pressure equal to the pressure in the working chamber. The applicant asserts that most of the hyperbaric interventions will be around 14.7 p.s.i.g. However, the applicant maintains that they may have to perform interventions at pressures up to 75 p.s.i.g.
During interventions, workers enter the working chamber through one of the
Further, the applicant asserts that it will develop a project-specific HOM for each future tunnel project that describes in detail the hyperbaric procedures and required medical examinations used during the planned tunnel-construction project. The HOM will be project-specific, and will discuss standard operating procedures and emergency and contingency procedures. The procedures will include using experienced and knowledgeable man-lock attendants who have the training and experience necessary to recognize and treat decompression illnesses and injuries. The attendants will be under the direct supervision of the hyperbaric supervisor and attending physician. In addition, procedures will include medical screening and review of prospective CAWs. The purpose of this screening procedure is to vet prospective CAWs with medical conditions (
OSHA's compressed-air standard for construction requires decompression in accordance with the decompression tables in Appendix A of 29 CFR part 1926, subpart S (see 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)). As an alternative to the OSHA decompression tables, the applicant proposes to use newer decompression schedules that supplement breathing air used during decompression with air, nitrox, or trimix (as appropriate). The applicant asserts decompression protocols using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air, nitrox, or trimix as specified by the HOM are safer for tunnel workers than the decompression protocols specified in Appendix A of 29 CFR part 1926, subpart S.
Accordingly, the applicant proposes to use the 1992 French Decompression Tables to decompress CAWs after they exit the hyperbaric conditions in the working chamber. Also, Traylor proposes to decompress with trimix gas, under certain conditions specific to and described in detail in the project-specific HOM associated with each future tunneling project. Depending on the maximum working pressure and exposure times, the 1992 French Decompression Tables provide for air decompression with or without oxygen or trimix. Traylor asserts that using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air, nitrox, or trimix decompression has many benefits, including (1) keeping the partial pressure of nitrogen in the lungs as low as possible; (2) keeping external pressure as low as possible to reduce the formation of bubbles in the blood; (3) removing nitrogen from the lungs and arterial blood and increasing the rate of elimination of nitrogen; (4) improving the quality of breathing during decompression stops to reduce worker fatigue and to prevent bone necrosis; (5) reducing decompression time by about 33 percent as compared to air decompression; and (6) reducing inflammation. Traylor asserts that the 1992 French Decompression Tables, Appendix B provide for air decompression with trimix supplementation for staged decompression for pressures ranging from 58 to 75 p.s.i.g. As described in Section IV of this notice, OSHA's review of the use of air, nitrox, or trimix in several major tunneling projects completed in the past indicates that it contributed significantly to the reduction of decompression illness (DCI) and other associated adverse effects observed and reported among CAWs.
In addition, the project-specific HOM will require a physician certified in hyperbaric medicine to manage the medical condition of CAWs during hyperbaric exposures and decompression. A trained and experienced man-lock attendant also will be present during hyperbaric exposures and decompression. This man-lock attendant will operate the hyperbaric system to ensure compliance with the specified decompression table. A hyperbaric supervisor (competent person), trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety, will directly oversee all hyperbaric interventions, and ensures that staff follow the procedures delineated in the HOM or by the attending physician.
The applicant asserts that at higher hyperbaric pressures, decompression times exceed 75 minutes. The project-specific HOMs will establish protocols and procedures that provide the basis for alternate means of protection for CAWs under these conditions. Accordingly, based on these protocols and procedures, the applicant requests to use the 1992 French Decompression Tables for hyperbaric interventions up to 75 p.s.i.g. for future projects. The applicant is committed to follow the decompression procedures described in the project-specific HOM during these interventions.
According to the applicant, breathing air under hyperbaric conditions increases the amount of nitrogen gas dissolved in a CAW's tissues. The greater the hyperbaric pressure under these conditions, and the more time spent under the increased pressure, the greater the amount of nitrogen gas dissolved in the tissues. When the pressure decreases during decompression, tissues release the dissolved nitrogen gas into the blood system, which then carries the nitrogen gas to the lungs for elimination through
The 1992 French Decompression Tables proposed for use by the applicant provide for stops during worker decompression (
1. A hyperbaric supervisor (a competent person experienced and trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety) directly supervises all hyperbaric interventions and ensures that the man-lock attendant, who is a competent person in the manual control of hyperbaric systems, follows the schedule specified in the decompression tables, including stops; and
2. The use of the 1992 French Decompression Tables for staged decompression offers an equal or better level of management and control over the decompression process than an automatic controller and results in lower occurrences of DCI.
Accordingly, the applicant is applying for a permanent variance from the OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii), which requires automatic controls to regulate decompression. As noted above, the applicant is committed to conduct the staged decompression according to the 1992 French Decompression Tables under the direct control of the trained man-lock attendant and under the oversight of the hyperbaric supervisor.
The OSHA compressed-air standard for construction requires employers to use a special decompression chamber of sufficient size to accommodate all CAWs being decompressed at the end of the shift when total decompression time exceeds 75 minutes (see 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)). Use of the special decompression chamber enables CAWs to move about and flex their joints to prevent neuromuscular problems during decompression.
As an alternative to using a special decompression chamber, the applicant notes that since only the working chamber of the EPBTBM is under pressure, and only a few workers out of the entire crew are exposed to hyperbaric pressure, the man locks (which, as noted earlier, connect directly to the working chamber) and the staging chamber are of sufficient size to accommodate the exposed workers during decompression. In addition, space limitations in the EPBTBM do not allow for the installation and use of an additional special decompression lock or chamber. Again, the applicant uses the existing man locks, each of which adequately accommodates a three-member crew for this purpose when decompression lasts up to 75 minutes. When decompression exceeds 75 minutes, crews can open the door connecting the two compartments in each man lock (during decompression stops) or exit the man lock and move into the staging chamber where additional space is available. The applicant asserts that this alternative arrangement is as effective as a special decompression chamber in that it has sufficient space for all the CAWs at the end of a shift and enables the CAWs to move about and flex their joints to prevent neuromuscular problems.
OSHA notes that it previously granted several sub-aqueous tunnel construction permanent variances from the same provisions of the standard that regulate work in compressed air (at 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii)) that are the subject of the present application. These permanent variances were granted to: (1) Tully/OHL USA Joint Venture for the completion of the New York Harbor Syphon Tunnel [on May 23, 2014 (79 FR 29809)]; (2) Traylor JV for the completion of the Blue Plains Tunnel in Washington, DC [on March 27, 2015 (80 FR 16440)]; and (3) Impregilo Healy Parsons Joint Venture (IHP JV) for the completion of the Anacostia River Tunnel in Washington, DC [on August 20, 2015 (80 FR 50652)].
Generally, the conditions included in this notice are based on and very similar to the conditions of the previous permanent variances.
Traylor stated that it performs construction of sub-aqueous tunnels using EPBTBM in compressed-air environments in a number of states that operate safety and health plans that have been approved by OSHA under Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651
Twenty-eight state safety and health plans have been approved by OSHA under Section 18 of the OSH Act.
Additionally, in consideration of Traylor's grant of this permanent multi-state variance, OSHA notes that four states have previously granted sub-aqueous tunnel construction variances and imposed different or additional requirements and conditions (California, Nevada, Oregon, and Washington). California also promulgated a different standard
Six State Plans (Connecticut, Illinois, Maine, New Jersey, New York, and the U.S. Virgin Islands) cover only public-sector workers and have no authority over the private-sector workers addressed in this variance (
This section describes the alternative means of compliance with 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) and provides additional detail regarding the conditions that form the basis of Traylor's permanent variance.
The scope of the permanent variance limits coverage to the work situations specified under this condition. Clearly defining the scope of the permanent variance provides Traylor, Traylor's employees, potential future applicants, other stakeholders, the public, and OSHA with necessary information regarding the work situations in which the permanent variance applies.
As previously indicated in this notice, according to 29 CFR 1905.11, an employer (or class or group of employers
This condition specifies the circumstances under which the permanent variance is in effect, notably only for hyperbaric work performed during interventions. The condition places clear limits on the circumstances under which the applicant can expose its employees to hyperbaric pressure.
This condition defines a number of abbreviations used in the permanent variance. OSHA believes that defining these abbreviations serves to clarify and standardize their usage, thereby enhancing the applicant's and its employees' understanding of the conditions specified by the permanent variance.
This condition defines a series of terms, mostly technical terms, used in the permanent variance to standardize and clarify their meaning. Defining these terms serves to enhance the applicant's and its employees' understanding of the conditions specified by the permanent variance.
This condition requires the applicant to develop and submit to OSHA a project-specific HOM at least one year before using the EPBTBM for tunneling operations. The HOM will have to demonstrate that the EPBTBM planned for use in tunneling operations is designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2012 (or most recent edition of Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy) for the TBM's hyperbaric chambers. These requirements ensure that the applicant develops hyperbaric safety and health procedures suitable for each specific project. The HOM enables OSHA to determine that the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate to the field conditions of the planned future tunnel (including expected geological conditions), conform to the conditions of the variance, and adequately protect the safety and health of the CAWs. It also enables OSHA to enforce these instructions and measures. Additionally, the condition includes a series of related hazard prevention and control requirements and methods (
Review of the project-specific HOM enables OSHA to: (1) Determine that the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate, conform to the conditions of the variance, and adequately protect the safety and health of CAWs; and (2) request the applicant to revise or modify the HOM if it finds that the hyperbaric safety and health procedures are not suitable for the specific project and do not adequately protect the safety and health of the CAWs. The applicant may not begin hyperbaric interventions at pressures exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. until OSHA completes its review of the project-specific HOM and notifies the applicant that: (1) Its project-specific HOM was found to be acceptable; and (2) it may begin hyperbaric interventions at pressures exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. by complying fully with the conditions of the permanent variance.
Once approved, the project-specific HOM becomes part of this variance, thus enabling OSHA to enforce its safety and health procedures and measures.
This condition requires the applicant to develop and implement an effective system of information sharing and communication. Effective information sharing and communication ensures that affected workers receive updated information regarding any safety-related hazards and incidents, and corrective actions taken, prior to the start of each shift. The condition also requires the applicant to ensure that reliable means of emergency communications are available and maintained for affected workers and support personnel during hyperbaric operations. Availability of such reliable means of communications enables affected workers and support personnel to respond quickly and effectively to hazardous conditions or emergencies that may develop during EPBTBM operations.
This condition requires the applicant to develop and implement an effective qualification and training program for affected workers. The condition specifies the factors that an affected worker must know to perform safely during hyperbaric operations, including how to enter, work in, and exit from hyperbaric conditions under both normal and emergency conditions. Having well-trained and qualified workers performing hyperbaric intervention work ensures that they recognize, and respond appropriately to, hyperbaric safety and health hazards. These qualification and training requirements enable affected workers to cope effectively with emergencies, as well as the discomfort and physiological effects of hyperbaric exposure, thereby preventing injury, illness, and fatalities.
Paragraph (2)(e) of this condition also requires the applicant to provide affected workers with information they can use to contact the appropriate healthcare professionals if it is suspected that they are developing hyperbaric-related health effects. This requirement provides for early intervention and treatment of DCI and other health effects resulting from hyperbaric exposure, thereby reducing the potential severity of these effects.
This condition requires the applicant to develop, implement, and operate a program of frequent and regular inspections of the EPBTBM's hyperbaric equipment and support systems, and associated work areas. This condition serves to: Enhance worker safety, to ensure safe operation and physical integrity of the equipment and work areas necessary to conduct hyperbaric operations, and to reduce the risk of hyperbaric-related emergencies.
Paragraph (3) of this condition requires the applicant to document tests, inspections, corrective actions, and repairs involving the EPBTBM, and to maintain these documents at the job site for the duration of the job. This requirement provides the applicant with information needed to schedule tests and inspections, to ensure the continued safe operation of the equipment and systems, and to determine that the actions taken to correct defects in hyperbaric equipment and systems were appropriate, prior to returning them to service.
This condition requires the applicant to consult with its designated medical advisor regarding special compression or decompression procedures appropriate for any unacclimated CAW. This provision ensures that the applicant consults with and involves the medical advisor in the evaluation, development, and implementation of compression or decompression protocols appropriate for any CAW requiring acclimation to the hyperbaric conditions encountered during EPBTBM operations. Accordingly, CAWs requiring acclimation have an opportunity to acclimate prior to exposure to these hyperbaric conditions. OSHA believes this condition will prevent or reduce adverse reactions among CAWs to the effects of compression or decompression associated with the intervention work they perform in the EPBTBM.
This condition requires the applicant to maintain records of specific factors associated with each hyperbaric intervention. The information gathered and recorded under this provision, in concert with the information provided under condition K (using OSHA 301 Incident Report form to investigate, record, and provide notice to OSHA of hyperbaric recordable injuries as defined by 29 CFR 1904.4, 1904.7, 1904.8 through 1904.12), enables the applicant and OSHA to determine the effectiveness of the permanent variance in preventing DCI and other hyperbaric-related effects.
Under the provisions of this condition, the applicant is required, within specified periods, to notify OSHA of: (1) Any recordable injury, illness, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, loss of an eye, or fatality that occurs as a result of hyperbaric exposures during EPBTBM operations; (2) provide OSHA with a copy of the hyperbaric exposures incident investigation report (using OSHA 301 form) of these events within 24 hours of the incident; (3) include on the 301 form information on the hyperbaric conditions associated with the recordable injury or illness, the root-cause determination, and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented; (4) provide its certification that it informed affected workers of the incident and the results of the incident investigation; (5) notify the Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities (OTPCA) and the OSHA Area Office closest to the tunnel project site within 15 working days should the applicant need to revise its HOM to accommodate changes in its compressed-air operations that affect its ability to comply with the conditions of the permanent variance; and (6) at the end of the project provide OTPCA and the OSHA Area Office closest to the tunnel project site with a report evaluating the effectiveness of the decompression tables.
It should be noted that the requirement of completing and submitting the hyperbaric exposure-related (recordable) incident investigation report (OSHA 301 form) is more restrictive than the current recordkeeping requirement of completing the OSHA 301 form within 7 calendar days of the incident (1904.29(b)(3)). This modified and more stringent incident investigation and reporting requirement is restricted to intervention-related hyperbaric (recordable) incidents only. Providing this type of notification is essential because time is a critical element in OSHA's ability to: (1) Determine the continued effectiveness of the variance conditions in preventing hyperbaric incidents; (2) identify and implement appropriate hyperbaric incident-related corrective and preventive actions; (3) determine the effectiveness of the variance conditions in providing the requisite level of safety to the applicant's workers; and (4) determine whether to revise or revoke said conditions. Timely notification enables OSHA to take whatever action may be necessary and appropriate to prevent further injuries and illnesses. Providing notification to employees also informs them of the precautions taken by the applicant to prevent similar incidents in the future.
Additionally, this condition also requires the applicant to notify OSHA if it ceases to do business, has a new address or location for its main office, or transfers the operations covered by the variance to a successor company. The condition also specifies that OSHA must approve the transfer of the permanent variance to a successor company, allows OSHA to communicate effectively with the applicant regarding the status of the variance, and serves to
As noted earlier, on July 27, 2015, OSHA published a
During the period starting with the July 27, 2015, publication of the preliminary
A. Prohibit employers using compressed air under hyperbaric conditions from subjecting workers to pressure exceeding 50 p.s.i.g., except in an emergency (29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5));
B. Require the use of decompression values specified by the decompression tables in Appendix A of the compressed-air standard (29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)); and
C. Require the use of automated operational controls and a special decompression chamber (29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii) and .803(g)(1)(xvii), respectively). After reviewing the proposed alternatives OSHA determined that:
D. Traylor developed, and proposed to implement, effective alternative measures to the prohibition of using compressed air under hyperbaric conditions exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. The alternative measures include use of engineering and administrative controls of the hazards associated with work performed in compressed-air conditions exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. while engaged in the construction of a subaqueous tunnel using advanced shielded mechanical-excavation techniques in conjunction with an EPBTBM. Prior to conducting interventions in the EPBTBM's pressurized working chamber, the applicant halts tunnel excavation and prepares the machine and crew to conduct the interventions. Interventions involve inspection, maintenance, or repair of the mechanical-excavation components located in the working chamber.
E. Traylor developed, and proposed to implement, safe hyperbaric work procedures, emergency and contingency procedures, and medical examinations for future tunneling projects' CAWs. The applicant will compile these standard operating procedures into a project-specific HOM. The HOM will discuss the procedures and personnel qualifications for performing work safely during the compression and decompression phases of interventions. The HOM will also specify the decompression tables the applicant will use. Depending on the maximum working pressure and exposure times during the interventions, the tables provide for decompression using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air, nitrox, or trimix as specified by the HOM. The decompression tables also include delays or stops for various time intervals at different pressure levels during the transition to atmospheric pressure (
F. Traylor developed, and proposed to implement, a training program to instruct affected workers in the hazards associated with conducting hyperbaric operations.
G. Traylor developed, and proposed to implement, an effective alternative to the use of automatic controllers that continuously decrease pressure to achieve decompression in accordance with the tables specified by the standard. The alternative includes using: (1) The 1992 French Decompression Tables for guiding staged decompression to achieve lower occurrences of DCI; (2) decompression protocols of air, nitrox, or trimix again to achieve lower occurrences of DCI; (3) a trained and competent attendant for implementing appropriate hyperbaric entry and exit procedures, and (4) a competent hyperbaric supervisor and attending physician certified in hyperbaric medicine, to oversee all hyperbaric operations.
H. Traylor developed, and proposed to implement, an effective alternative to the use of the special decompression chamber required by the standard. EPBTBM technology permits the tunnel's work areas to be at atmospheric pressure, with only the face of the EPBTBM (
OSHA conducted a review of the scientific literature regarding decompression to determine whether the alternative decompression method (
The review conducted by OSHA focused on the use of the 1992 French Decompression Tables with air, nitrox, or trimix and found several research studies supporting the determination that such use resulted in a lower rate of DCI than the decompression tables specified by the standard. For example, H. L. Anderson studied the occurrence of DCI at maximum hyperbaric pressures ranging from 4 p.s.i.g. to 43 p.s.i.g. during construction of the Great Belt Tunnel in Denmark (1992-1996);
OSHA also reviewed the use of trimix in tunneling operations. In compressed-air atmospheres greater than 73 p.s.i.g., it becomes increasingly more difficult to work due to increased breathing resistance, increased risk of DCI, and the adverse effects of the increased partial pressures of nitrogen and oxygen. Nitrogen narcosis occurs when a diver or CAW breathes a gas mixture with a nitrogen partial pressure greater than 2.54 ATA (
Trimix has been successfully used in deep caisson work and tunneling projects including the construction of the Meiko West Bridge,
Review of the literature and reports from presentations to professional societies support that the incidence of DCI with this technique is lower than the incidence of DCIs reported with the use of OSHA tables. In addition, use of trimix reduces the risk of impairment from nitrogen narcosis and allows for the adjustment of oxygen partial pressure to reduce exposure to elevated oxygen partial pressures (see footnotes 15 and 17). Therefore, OSHA concludes that use of the 1992 French Decompression Tables protects workers at least as effectively as the OSHA decompression tables.
Based on a review of available evidence, the experience of State Plans that either granted variances (Nevada, Oregon, and Washington)
Under section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655(d)), and based on the record discussed above, the Agency finds that when the employer complies with the conditions of the variance, the working conditions of the employer's workers are at least as safe and healthful as if the employer complied with the working conditions specified by paragraphs (e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) of 29 CFR 1926.803. Therefore, under the terms of this variance Traylor must: (1) Comply with the conditions listed below under section V of this notice (“Order”) for the period between the date of this notice and until the Agency modifies or revokes this final order in accordance with 29 CFR 1905.13; (2) comply fully with all other applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 1926; and (3) provide a copy of this
As of the effective date of this final order, OSHA is revoking the interim order granted to the employer on July 27, 2015 (80 FR 44386).
OSHA issues this final order authorizing Traylor Bros., Inc. (“Traylor” or “the applicant”), to comply with the following conditions instead of complying with the requirements of paragraphs 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii). This final order applies to all employees of Traylor Bros., Inc. exposed to hyperbaric conditions. These conditions are:
The permanent variance applies only to work:
1. That occurs in conjunction with construction of future subaqueous tunnels using advanced shielded mechanical-excavation techniques and involving operation of an EPBTBM;
2. Performed under compressed-air and hyperbaric conditions up to 75 p.s.i.g;
3. In the EPBTBM's forward section (the working chamber) and associated hyperbaric chambers used to pressurize and decompress employees entering and exiting the working chamber;
4. Except for the requirements specified by 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii), Traylor must comply fully with all other applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 1926; and
5. This final order will remain in effect until OSHA modifies or revokes it in accordance with 29 CFR 1905.13.
The permanent variance applies only when Traylor stops the tunnel-boring work, pressurizes the working chamber, and the CAWs either enter the working chamber to perform interventions (
Abbreviations used throughout this permanent variance include the following:
The following definitions apply to this permanent variance. These definitions supplement the definitions in each project-specific HOM.
1.
2.
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4.
5.
Health effects associated with hyperbaric intervention but not considered symptoms of DCI can include: Barotrauma (direct damage to air-containing cavities in the body such as ears, sinuses and lungs); nitrogen narcosis (reversible alteration in consciousness that may occur in hyperbaric environments and is caused by the anesthetic effect of certain gases at high pressure); and oxygen toxicity (a central nervous system condition resulting from the harmful effects of breathing molecular oxygen (O
6.
7.
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15.
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20.
1. Traylor must develop and implement a project-specific HOM, and submit the HOM to OSHA at least one year before using the EPBTBM on the project for which the HOM applies. The HOM shall provide the governing requirements regarding expected safety and health hazards (including anticipated geological conditions) and hyperbaric exposures during the tunnel-construction project.
2. The HOM must demonstrate that the EPBTBM to be used on the project is designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2012 (or most recent edition of Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy) for the EPBTBM's hyperbaric chambers.
3. When submitting the project-specific HOM to OSHA for approval, Traylor must demonstrate that it informed its employees of the HOM and their right to petition the Assistant Secretary for a variance by:
a. Giving a copy of the proposed project-specific HOM to the authorized employee representatives;
b. posting a statement giving a summary of the proposed project-specific HOM and specifying where its employees may examine a copy of the proposed HOM (at the place(s) where the applicant normally posts notices to employees or, instead of a summary, posting the proposed HOM itself); or
c. using other appropriate means.
4. Traylor must not begin hyperbaric interventions at pressures exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. until OSHA completes its review of the project-specific HOM and determines that the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate, comply with the conditions of the variance, and adequately protect the safety and health of CAWs. Traylor must receive a written acknowledgement from OSHA stating that: (1) OSHA found its project-specific HOM acceptable; and (2) OSHA determined that it can begin hyperbaric interventions at pressures exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. by complying fully with the conditions of the permanent variance (as an alternative to complying with the requirements of the standard). Once approved by OSHA, the HOM becomes part of this variance for the purposes of the project for which it was developed.
5. Traylor must implement the safety and health instructions included in the manufacturer's operations manuals for the EPBTBM, and the safety and health instructions provided by the manufacturer for the operation of decompression equipment.
6. Traylor must use air or trimix as the only breathing gas in the working chamber.
7. Traylor must use the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air, nitrox, and trimix decompression specified in the HOM, specifically, the extracted portions of the 1992 French Decompression tables titled, “French Regulation Air Standard Tables.”
8. Traylor must equip man locks used by its employees with an air, nitrox, or trimix-delivery system as specified by the HOM approved by OSHA for the project. Traylor is required to not store oxygen or other compressed gases used in conjunction with hyperbaric work in the tunnel.
9. Workers performing hot work under hyperbaric conditions must use flame-retardant personal protective equipment and clothing.
10. In hyperbaric work areas, Traylor must maintain an adequate fire-suppression system approved for hyperbaric work areas.
11. Traylor must develop and implement one or more JHAs for work in the hyperbaric work areas, and review, periodically and as necessary (
12. Traylor must develop a set of checklists to guide compressed-air work and ensure that employees follow the procedures required by this permanent variance (including all procedures required by the HOM approved by OSHA for the project, which this variance incorporates by reference). The checklists shall include all steps and equipment functions that the risk assessment indicates are essential to prevent injury or illness during compressed-air work.
13. Traylor must ensure that the safety and health provisions of each HOM adequately protect the workers of all contractors and subcontractors involved in hyperbaric operations for the project to which the HOM applies.
1. Prior to beginning a shift, Traylor must implement a system that informs workers exposed to hyperbaric conditions of any hazardous occurrences or conditions that might affect their safety, including hyperbaric incidents, gas releases, equipment failures, earth or rock slides, cave-ins, flooding, fires, or explosions.
2. Traylor must provide a power-assisted means of communication among affected workers and support personnel in hyperbaric conditions where unassisted voice communication is inadequate.
a. Traylor must use an independent power supply for powered communication systems, and these systems shall have to operate such that use or disruption of any one phone or signal location will not disrupt the operation of the system from any other location.
b. Traylor must test communication systems at the start of each shift and as necessary thereafter to ensure proper operation.
Traylor must:
1. Ensure that each affected worker receives effective training on how to safely enter, work in, exit from, and undertake emergency evacuation or rescue from, hyperbaric conditions, and document this training.
2. Provide effective instruction, before beginning hyperbaric operations, to each worker who performs work, or controls the exposure of others, in hyperbaric conditions, and document this instruction. The instruction must include:
a. The physics and physiology of hyperbaric work;
b. Recognition of pressure-related injuries;
c. Information on the causes and recognition of the signs and symptoms
d. How to avoid discomfort during compression and decompression;
e. Information the workers can use to contact the appropriate healthcare professionals should the workers have concerns that they may be experiencing adverse health effects from hyperbaric exposure; and
f. Procedures and requirements applicable to the employee in the project-specific HOM.
3. Repeat the instruction specified in paragraph (G)(2) of this condition periodically and as necessary (
4. When conducting training for its hyperbaric workers make this training available to OSHA personnel and notify the OTPCA at OSHA's National Office and OSHA's nearest affected Area Office before the training takes place.
1. Traylor must initiate and maintain a program of frequent and regular inspections of the EPBTBM's hyperbaric equipment and support systems (such as temperature control, illumination, ventilation, and fire-prevention and fire-suppression systems), and hyperbaric work areas, as required under 29 CFR 1926.20(b)(2) by:
a. Developing a set of checklists to be used by a competent person in conducting weekly inspections of hyperbaric equipment and work areas; and
b. Ensuring that a competent person conducts daily visual checks and weekly inspections of the EPBTBM.
2. If the competent person determines that the equipment constitutes a safety hazard, Traylor shall remove the equipment from service until it corrects the hazardous condition and has the correction approved by a qualified person.
3. Traylor must maintain records of all tests and inspections of the EPBTBM, as well as associated corrective actions and repairs, at the job site for the duration of the job.
Traylor must consult with its attending physician concerning the need for special compression or decompression exposures appropriate for CAWs not acclimated to hyperbaric exposure.
Traylor must maintain a record of any recordable injury, illness, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, loss of an eye, or fatality (as defined by 29 CFR part 1904 Recording and Reporting Occupational Injuries and Illnesses), resulting from exposure of an employee to hyperbaric conditions by completing the OSHA 301 Incident Report form and OSHA 300 Log of Work Related Injuries and Illnesses.
Examples of important information to include on the OSHA 301 Incident Report form (along with the corresponding question on the form) must address the following: The task performed (Question (Q) 14); an estimate of the CAW's workload (Q 14); the composition of the gas mixture (
In addition to completing the OSHA 301 Incident Report form and OSHA 300 Log of Work Related Injuries and Illnesses, Traylor must maintain records of:
1. The date, times (
2. The name of each individual worker exposed to hyperbaric pressure and the decompression protocols and results for each worker.
3. The total number of interventions and the amount of hyperbaric work time at each pressure.
4. The post-intervention physical assessment of each individual CAW for signs and symptoms of decompression illness, barotrauma, nitrogen narcosis, oxygen toxicity or other health effects associated with work in compressed air or mixed gasses for each hyperbaric intervention.
1. To assist OSHA in administering the conditions specified herein, Traylor must:
a. Notify the OTPCA and the nearest affected Area Office of any recordable injury, illness, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, loss of an eye, or fatality (by submitting the completed OSHA 301 Incident Report form)
b. Provide certification within 15 days of the incident that it informed affected workers of the incident and the results of the incident investigation (including the root-cause determination and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented).
c. Notify the OTPCA and the nearest affected Area Office within 15 working days and in writing, of any change in the compressed-air operations that affects Traylor's ability to comply with the conditions specified herein.
d. Upon completion of each hyperbaric tunnel project, evaluate the effectiveness of the decompression tables used throughout the project, and provide a written report of this evaluation to the OTPCA and the neared affected Area Office.
The evaluation report must contain summaries of: (1) The number, dates, durations, and pressures of the hyperbaric interventions completed; (2) decompression protocols implemented (including composition of gas mixtures (air, oxygen, nitrox, and trimix), and the results achieved; (3) the total number of interventions and the number of hyperbaric incidents (decompression illnesses and/or health effects associated with hyperbaric interventions as recorded on OSHA 301 and 300 forms, and relevant medical diagnoses and treating physicians' opinions); and (4) root-causes, and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented.
e. To assist OSHA in administering the conditions specified herein, inform the OTPCA and the nearest affected Area Office as soon as possible after it has knowledge that it will:
i. Cease to do business;
ii. Change the location and address of the main office for managing the tunneling operations specified by the project-specific HOM; or
iii. Transfer the operations specified herein to a successor company.
f. Notify all affected employees of this permanent variance by the same means required to inform them of its application for a variance.
2. OSHA must approve the transfer of the permanent variance to a successor company.
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the Agency is issuing this notice pursuant to Section 29 U.S.C. 655(6)(d), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012), and 29 CFR 1905.11.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Standard on 4,4′-Methylenedianiline for General Industry (29 CFR 1910.1050).
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by May 10, 2016.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The information collection requirements specified in the 4,4′- Methylenedianiline Standard for General Industry (the “MDA Standard”) (29 CFR 1910.1050) protect workers from the adverse health effects that may result from their exposure to MDA, including cancer, liver and skin disease. The major paperwork requirements specify that employers must perform initial, periodic, and additional exposure monitoring; notify each worker in writing of their results as soon as possible but no longer than 5 days after receiving exposure monitoring results; and routinely inspect the hands, face, and forearms of each worker potentially exposed to MDA for signs of dermal exposure to MDA. Employers must also: Establish a written compliance program; institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134 (OSHA's Respiratory Protection standard); and develop a written emergency plan for any construction operation that could have an MDA emergency (
Employers must label any material or products containing MDA, including containers used to store MDA-contaminated protective clothing and equipment. They also must inform personnel who launder MDA-contaminated clothing of the requirement to prevent release of MDA, while personnel who launder or clean MDA-contaminated protective clothing or equipment must receive information about the potentially harmful effects of MDA. In addition, employers are to post warning signs at entrances or access ways to regulated areas, as well as train workers exposed to MDA at the time of their initial assignment, and at least annually thereafter.
Other paperwork provisions of the MDA standard require employers to
The MDA standard also specifies that employers are to establish and maintain exposure monitoring and medical surveillance records for each worker who is subject to these respective requirements, make any required record available to OSHA compliance officers and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) for examination and copying, and provide exposure monitoring and medical surveillance records to workers and their designated representatives. Finally, employers who cease to do business within the period specified for retaining exposure monitoring and medical surveillance records, and who have no successor employer, must notify NIOSH at least 90 days before disposing of the records and transmit the records to NIOSH if so requested.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
The Agency is requesting an adjustment decrease in burden hours from 370 hours to 335 hours. The decrease is the result of a slight decrease in the number of impacted secondary-use plants and a reduction in workers receiving initial medical examinations, receiving exposure monitoring training, and requesting access to records. There is an overall adjustment decrease in capital costs of $3,802 (from $27,982 to $24,180) resulting from a decrease in the cost to analyze a sample of airborne MDA from $119 to $87 each. However, the cost of a medical exam increased from $187 to $207.
The Agency will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the MDA Standard.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627). Comments and submissions are posted without change at
All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the
David Michaels, Ph.D., MP, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of the information collection requirement specified in its Standard on Dipping and Coating Operations (Dip Tanks) (29 CFR 1910.126(g)(4)).
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by May 10, 2016.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The Standard on Dipping and Coating Operations (29 CFR 1910.126(g)(4)) requires employers to post a conspicuous sign near each piece of electrostatic detearing equipment that notifies employees of the minimum safe distance they must maintain between goods undergoing electrostatic detearing and the electrodes or conductors of the equipment used in the process. Doing so reduces the likelihood of igniting the explosive chemicals used in electrostatic detearing operations.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirement, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirement contained in the Standard on Additional Requirements for Special Dipping and Coating Operations (Dip Tanks) (29 CFR 1910.126(g)(4)). The Agency is requesting to retain its previous burden hour estimate of one (1) hour. This provision requires the employer to determine how far away goods being electrostatically deteared should be separated from electrodes or conductors. This distance is called the “safe distance.” This minimum distance must be displayed conspicuously on a sign located near the equipment.
OSHA has determined that where electrostatic equipment is being used, the information has already been ascertained and that the “safe distance” has been displayed on a sign in a permanent manner. The Agency does not believe that this equipment is currently being manufactured or used due to changes in technology. OSHA does not believe there is any burden associated with the information collection requirement in the provision and is, therefore, estimating zero burden hours and no cost to the employer.
The Agency will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice, and will include this summary in the request to OMB.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Due to security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Notice.
In this notice, OSHA announces its intent to update the publication of the dockets of variance applications that it denied in the period from 2014 to 2015. Previously OSHA published a
Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:
The principal objective of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (“the OSH Act”) is “to assure so far as possible every working man and woman in the Nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve our human resources” (29 U.S.C. 651
Under several provisions of the OSH Act, employers may apply for four different types of variances from the requirements of OSHA standards. Employers submit variance applications voluntarily to OSHA, and the applications specify alternative means of complying with the requirements of OSHA standards. The four types of variances are temporary, experimental, permanent, and national-defense variances. OSHA promulgated rules implementing these statutory provisions in 29 CFR part 1905 (“Rules of Practice for Variances, Limitations, Variations, Tolerances, and Exemptions under the William-Steiger Occuptional Safety and Health Act of 1970”). The following paragraphs further describe each of these four types of variances.
Additionally, OSHA developed optional stardardized variance application forms, and obtained the requried Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection requirement (OMB control no. 1218-0265/Expires 6/30/2018), in order to assist employers in meeting the paperwork requirements contained in these regulations. Further, in order to facilitate and simplify the completion of the complex variance applications and reduce the information collection burden on applicants, OSHA made the variance application forms and accompanying completion instructions, as well as variance application checklists, accessible from its “How to Apply for a Variance” Web page (
Generally, when receiving a variance application, OSHA conducts an administrative and technical review, which includes verifying an applicant completed the application fully and included required information and evaluating the effectiveness of the alternate safety measures proposed by the applicant. Part of OSHA's administrative variance application evaluation is to establish a docket for each case. OSHA then places the variance application and other related materials submitted by the applicant in the docket without revision. Initially, these materials are not made public.
Upon completion of the technical review, if OSHA determines to move forward with the grant of a variance, it develops and publishes a preliminary
Following publication of the preliminary FRN, interested parties may submit their comments and attachments electronically to the Federal eRulemaking Portal. OSHA monitors public comments received (if any), and at the expiration of the comment period reviews and analyzes them. Based on the review results, OSHA develops and publishes the final FRN granting or denying the variance.
If OSHA determines not to move forward with the grant of a variance, it does not publish the variance docket. A variance application may be denied for a variety of reasons upon completion of the technical review. Often these reasons stem from errors employers commit in completing their applications. Reviewing the variance application forms' completion instructions, the application checklists, and previously denied variance applications prior to completing a variance application will assist applicants in determining whether their applications are complete and appropriate, as well as to avoid common errors. The following are examples of common errors that lead to the denial of applications:
Under the provisions of Section 18 of the OSH Act of 1970 and 29 CFR part 1952, states can develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. OSHA approves and monitors State Plans and provides up to 50 percent of an approved plans' operating costs. Currently, there are 22 states and territories operating complete State Plans (covering both the private sector and State and local government employees) and six states covering state and local government employees only. States with OSHA-approved State Plans may have additional requirements for variances.
For more information on these requirements, as well as State Plan addresses, visit OSHA's State Plans Web page: (
Employers filing a variance application for multiple workplaces located in one or more states under Federal OSHA authority may submit their applications to Federal OSHA by meeting the requirements set forth in the OSH Act and the implementing regulations (29 CFR 1905). Employers filing a variance application for multiple workplaces located in one or more states exclusively under State Plan authority must submit their applications in that particular state or states. Note that State Plans vary in their applicability to public sector and private sector places of employment. For example, Virginia's plan does not cover private-sector maritime employers, while California's plan covers most private-sector maritime employer activities, except as specified by 29 CFR 1952.172. Employers should follow the variance-application procedures specified by the State Plan(s) for states in which they have an establishment named in the variance application.
Applicants with workplaces in one or more states under State Plan authority and at least one state under Federal OSHA authority may apply to Federal OSHA for a variance by meeting the requirements set forth in the OSH Act and the implementing regulations (29 CFR 1905 and 1952). When applicants perform work in a number of states that operate OSHA-approved safety and health programs, such states (and territories) have primary enforcement responsibility over the work performed within their borders. Under the provisions of 29 CFR 1952.9 (“Variance affecting multi-state employers”) and 29 CFR 1905.14(b)(3) (“Actions on applications”), a permanent variance or interim order granted, denied, modified, or revoked by the Agency becomes effective in State Plans as an authoritative interpretation of the applicants' compliance obligation when: (1) The variance request involves the same material facts for the places of employment; (2) the relevant state standards are the same as the Federal OSHA standards from which the applicants are seeking the variance; and (3) the State Plan does not object to the terms of the variance application.
OSHA has denied a large number of variance applications since its inception in the early 1970s. As previously indicated in this notice, because OSHA denied these applications, initially they were not published in the
However, in 2010, OSHA made public a sizable number of illustrative variance applications (approximately 200) that it denied during the period from 1995 through 2010.
OSHA made this information available to the public to enhance transparency concerning the variance process, to assist the public in understanding the variance process, and to reduce errors in applying for future variances.
This action was consistent with the policy established by the Open Government Directive, M-10-06, issued by the Office of Management and Budget on December 8, 2009 (
OSHA published the dockets of the variance applications that the Agency denied during 2014-2015
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the Agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 655, Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012), and 29 CFR part 1905.
Office of Management and Budget.
Notice of public comment period.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is seeking public comment on a draft memorandum titled, “
The 30-day public comment period on the draft memorandum closes on April 11, 2016.
Interested parties should provide comments and feedback to
Mr. Alvand A. Salehi, OMB, at
The Administration committed to adopting a Government-wide Open Source Software policy in its Second Open Government National Action Plan that “will support improved access to custom software code developed for the Federal Government,” emphasizing that using and contributing back to Open Source Software can fuel innovation, lower costs, and benefit the public. In support of that commitment, today the White House Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is releasing a draft policy to improve the way custom-developed Government code is acquired and distributed moving forward. This policy requires that, among other things: (1)
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
(16-021).
Notice of information collection.
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration developed the Technology Portfolio System (TechPort). TechPort is an integrated, Agency wide software system designed to capture, track, and manage NASA's portfolio of technology investments. TechPort provides detailed information on individual technology programs and projects throughout NASA. This system enables the public to explore NASA's technology portfolio and learn about technology Programs, and Projects, as NASA works to mature the technologies for aeronautics, space exploration, and scientific discovery missions. In March, 2015 NASA released a beta version of the system to allow the public the opportunity to give the system a trial run and provide feedback. This RFI solicits inputs on the beta version of TechPort.
The Web site,
Requests for additional information or instructions should be directed to Faith Chandler, Director Strategic Integration, Office of the Chief Technologist, NASA Headquarters, 300 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20546, at
The general public can use TechPort to find technology Programs and Projects of interest and discover how these projects have led to breakthroughs and discoveries. TechPort is equipped with features that allow users to efficiently search technology Projects, conduct analysis, identify technology gaps, and generate comprehensive technology reports. TechPort was released as a beta system to provide the public with an opportunity to use the system and provide feedback, and influence the design and type of information provided in future versions of the system. The questions in this RFI gather input on the public experience with the TechPort system, specifically:
• The design of the system and ease of use,
• The features provided (search, reports, data sheets) and if the public finds them useful, and
• The content and the range of collected data in the system.
In addition to questions about using the system, this RFI will collect system information, including:
• Organization type (Academic Institution, Industry, Government or Public),
• Device and browser used to access TechPort.
Your system information will enable us to troubleshoot and understand problems, if our system is not functioning for all the intended users. Respondents will also be given the opportunity to provide their name and email address if they would like to be contacted with possible follow up questions. There are a total of 18 questions and it is expected that it will take about 5 to 10 minutes to complete. You may complete only one question, or all of the questions.
When arriving at the home page of the Web site titled: “TechPort—User Request for Information” located at:
The respondent should
March14, 21, 28, April 4, 11, 18, 2016.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of March 21, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 11, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning the addition of Priority Mail Express Contract 34 negotiated service agreement to the competitive product list. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
In accordance with 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 39 CFR 3020.30-.35, the Postal Service filed a formal request and associated supporting information to add Priority Mail Express Contract 34 to the competitive product list.
The Postal Service contemporaneously filed a redacted contract related to the proposed new product under 39 U.S.C. 3632(b)(3) and 39 CFR 3015.5. Request, Attachment B.
To support its Request, the Postal Service filed a copy of the contract, a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the product, proposed changes to the Mail Classification Schedule, a Statement of Supporting Justification, a certification of compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633(a), and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials. It also filed supporting financial workpapers.
The Commission establishes Docket Nos. MC2016-93 and CP2016-118 to consider the Request pertaining to the proposed Priority Mail Express Contract 34 product and the related contract, respectively.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filings in the captioned dockets are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than March 14, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Jennaca D. Upperman to serve as Public Representative in these dockets.
1. The Commission establishes Docket Nos. MC2016-93 and CP2016-118 to consider the matters raised in each docket.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Jennaca D. Upperman is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in these proceedings (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than March 14, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 4, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 4, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 4, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service.
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 4, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is proposing a rule change to amend its rules as well as certain corporate documents of the Exchange to reflect a legal name change by the Exchange's ultimate parent entity, BATS Global Markets, Inc. (the “Parent”) to Bats Global Markets, Inc., and the legal names of certain of the Parent's subsidiaries. As a result of this change, the Exchange also proposes to amend its rules to change its name from BYX Exchange, Inc. to Bats BYX Exchange, Inc. throughout its rules and corporate documents.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange, on behalf of its Parent, recently filed to change the Parent's legal name from “BATS Global Markets, Inc.” to “Bats Global Markets, Inc.”
The Exchange proposes to replace all references to BATS with Bats throughout the Exchange's Rulebook and Fee Schedule. The Exchange understands that its affiliated Exchanges also intend to file similar proposed rule changes with the Commission to amend their exchange names.
• All references to “BATS Y-Exchange”, “BATS Y-EXCHANGE” and “BATS Y-EXCHANGE, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats BYX Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “BATS” are proposed to be changed to “Bats”;
• All references to “BATS Exchange, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “EDGX Exchange, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “EDGA Exchange, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc.”
• All references to “BATS Book”, “BATS market orders”, “BATS Post Only Orders”, and “BATS Only Orders”, are proposed to be changed to “BYX Book”, “BYX market orders”, “BYX Post Only Orders”, and “BYX Only Orders”, respectively.
In addition to these changes, the Exchange proposes to modify its Fee Schedules to reflect the name change of the Exchange to Bats BYX Exchange
The Exchange also proposes to amend Article First of the Certificate to change the name of the Exchange to Bats BYX Exchange, Inc. and make conforming changes throughout, including the title of the Certificate. The Exchange proposes to amend the Bylaws to amend the title to reflect that the Bylaws will be titled the “FOURTH AMENDED AND RESTATED BYLAWS OF BATS BYX EXCHANGE, INC.” The Exchange also proposes to amend Article I, paragraph (f) and Article XI, section 2 to reflect the name changes.
The name change from BATS Y-Exchange, Inc. to Bats BYX Exchange, Inc. is a non-substantive change. No changes to the ownership or structure of the Exchange or BATS Global Markets, Inc. have taken place.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
Because the rule change proposes ministerial changes related to the administration, and not the governance or operation, of the Exchange, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
Because it is concerned solely with the administration of the Exchange, the foregoing proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 123C to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to amend its rules to specify back-up procedures for determining an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue.
The Exchange developed this proposal in consultation with its affiliated exchanges, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) and NYSE MKT LLC (“NYSE MKT”), and the NASDAQ Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”), and took into consideration feedback from discussions with industry participants, including meeting the following key goals important to market participants:
• Providing a pre-determined, consistent solution that would result in a closing print to the applicable securities information processor (“SIP”) within a reasonable time frame from the normal closing time;
• Minimizing the need for industry participants to modify their processing of data from the SIPs; and
• Providing advance notification of the applicable closing contingency plan to provide sufficient time for industry participants to route any closing interest to an alternate venue to participate in that venue's closing auction.
The Exchange recently amended Rule 123C to add the definition of “Official Closing Price” for all Exchange-listed securities and, once implemented, will disseminate to the SIP the Official Closing Price as an “M” value.
The Exchange further amended Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction in a security or securities due to a systems or technical issue. In such case, the Official Closing Price will be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trade for such security during regular trading hours on that trading day. The rule further provides that if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in a security on a trading day when the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction in a security or securities due to a systems or technical issue, the Official Closing Price of such security will be the prior day's Official Closing Price.
The Exchange also amended Rule 440B(b) to provide that Exchange systems will not execute or display a short sale order with respect to a covered security at a price that is less than or equal to the current national best bid if the price of that security decreases by 10% or more, as determined by the listing market for that security, from the security's Official Closing Price, as defined in Rule 123C as of the end of regular trading hours on the prior day (“Trigger Price”).
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) to provide for the proposed new contingency plan of how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction in a security or securities due to a systems or technical issue. To reflect this change, the Exchange would replace the current rule text in Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii).
As proposed, Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) would provide that if the Exchange determines at or before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time that it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue, the Exchange would designate an alternate exchange for such security or securities. The Exchange would publicly announce the exchange designated as the alternate exchange via Trader Update.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(A) would provide that the Official Closing Price would be the official closing price for such security under the rules of the designated alternate exchange. For example, if the Exchange designates NYSE Arca as the alternate exchange, the Official Closing Price would be based on NYSE Arca Equities Rule 1.1(ggP), which defines how NYSE Arca establishes an official closing price.
• The proposed 3:00 p.m. cut off time was selected in part based on discussions with market participants regarding their capability to re-direct closing-only interest in Exchange-listed securities in time to participate in the closing auction of an alternate venue. By designating an alternate exchange before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time, the Exchange therefore believes that market participants would be more likely to have sufficient notice to direct any closing-only interest in Exchange-listed securities to the designated alternate exchange. By providing market participants sufficient time, when possible, to route closing-only interest to an alternate venue for participation in that exchange's closing auction process, that alternate exchange's closing auction would be more likely to result in a closing price that reflects market value for such security.
• If there were insufficient interest for a closing auction on the designated alternate exchange, the Exchange believes that the respective rules of NYSE Arca and Nasdaq provide for an appropriate hierarchy of which price to use to determine the Official Closing Price. For example, under NYSE Arca Rule 1.1(ggP)(1), if there is no closing auction of one round lot or more on a trading day, the official closing price under that rule is the most recent consolidated last sale eligible trade during Core Trading Hours on that trading day. That rule further provides that if there were no consolidated last sale eligible trades during Core Trading Hours on that trading day, NYSE Arca's
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(B) would provide if the designated alternate exchange does not have an official closing price in a security, the Official Closing price would be the volume-weighted average price (“VWAP”) of the consolidated last-sale eligible prices of the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours up to the time that the VWAP is processed. The VWAP would include any closing transactions on an exchange and would take into account any trade breaks or corrections up to the time the VWAP is processed. Because the VWAP would include any last-sale eligible trades, busts, or corrections that were reported up to the time that the SIP calculates the VWAP, the Exchange believes that the VWAP price would reflect any pricing adjustments that may be reported after 4:00 p.m. ET.
• As discussed above, the manner by which exchanges calculate their respective official closing prices provide for an official closing price in the absence of a closing transaction. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that in circumstances when the Exchange designates an alternate exchange, the VWAP calculation would rarely be used to determine the Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(C) would provide that if the designated alternate exchange does not have an official closing price in a security and there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours in such security, the Official Closing Price would be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trade during regular trading hours on that trading day.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(D) would provide that if the designated alternate exchange does not have an official closing price in a security and there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in a security on a trading day in such security, the Official Closing Price would be the prior day's Official Closing Price.
• Finally, proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(E) would provide that if an Official Closing Price for a security cannot be determined under (A), (B), or (C) of proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) and there is no prior day's Official Closing Price, the Exchange would not publish an Official Closing Price for such security.
The Exchange would use the hierarchy set forth in proposed Rule 123C(e)(ii)(B)-(E) only if the designated alternate exchange did not disseminate an official closing price in a security. In such case, the proposed hierarchy is based on current Rule 123C(1)(e)(i), which provides that, if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction, the Official Closing Price will be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trade for such security during regular trading hours on that trading day, and if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in a security, the Official Closing Price of such security will be the prior day's Official Closing Price. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add as paragraph (E) of Rule 123C(e)(ii) what would happen if there were no Official Closing Price published on the prior trading day (
If the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m. and the Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security is determined pursuant to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii), the SIP would publish the Official Closing Price for such security no differently than how the SIP publishes the Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security pursuant to Rule 123C(1)(e)(i).
As further proposed, Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii) would describe how the Exchange would determine the Official Closing Price for a security if the Exchange determines after 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time that it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue. Based on input from market participants, the Exchange believes that, if the Exchange were to announce after 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time that it is impaired and unable to conduct a closing transaction, market participants would not have sufficient time to re-direct closing-only orders to an alternate venue. The proposed hierarchy would be similar to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii), but would not contemplate a closing transaction on a designated alternate exchange. Accordingly, in such scenario, the Exchange proposes to use the following hierarchy for determining the Official Closing Price for a security:
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(A) would provide that the Official Closing Price would be the VWAP of the consolidated last-sale eligible prices of the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours up to the time that the VWAP is processed, including any closing transactions on an exchange. The VWAP would take into account any trade breaks or corrections up to the time of the VWAP is processed. This VWAP would be calculated in the same manner as set forth in proposed in Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(B), described above. However, if the Exchange's determination that it is unable to conduct a closing transaction is after 3:00 p.m. ET, the proposed VWAP calculation would be the primary means for determining the Official Closing Price for a security. In such case, the Exchange believes that the VWAP would appropriately reflect the pricing of a security because it would include, in a volume-weighted manner, the price and volume of closing transactions on other exchanges if market participants are able to route closing interest in Exchange-listed securities to an alternate venue for participation in a closing auction.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(B) would provide that if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours in such security, the Official Closing Price would be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trades during regular trading hours on that trading day. This proposed rule text is the same as proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(C).
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(C) would provide that if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in such security on a trading day, the Official Closing Price would be the prior day's Official Closing Price. This
• Finally, proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(D) would provide that if an Official Closing Price for a security cannot be determined under (A), (B), or (C) of proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii) and there is no prior day's Official Closing Price, the Exchange would not publish an Official Closing Price for such security. This proposed rule text is based on proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(E).
Similar to how the Official Closing Price would be published under proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii), if the Exchange determines that it is impaired after 3:00 p.m. and the Official Closing Price is determined pursuant to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii), the SIP would publish the Official Closing Price for such security no differently than how the SIP publishes the Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security pursuant to Rule 123C(1)(e)(i). Accordingly, if the Official Closing Price is determined pursuant to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii), recipients of SIP data would not have to make any changes to their systems because the SIP would publish the “M” last sale condition as an Exchange Official Closing Price for any impacted Exchange-listed securities.
For purposes of Rule 440B(b), the Official Closing Price would still be determined based on Rule 123C and if the market is impaired, the Official Closing Price as defined in proposed Rules 123C(1)(e)(ii) and (iii) would be used for purposes of determining whether a Short Sale Price Test is triggered in a security the next trading day.
Because of the technology changes associated with this proposed rule change, the Exchange will implement the proposed back-up procedures for determining an Official Closing Price no later than 120 days after approval of this proposed rule change and will announce the implementation date via Trader Update.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide transparency in how the Exchange would determine the Official Closing Price in Exchange-listed securities when the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue. The Exchange believes that the proposed amendments would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposed determination of an Official Closing Price was crafted in response to input from industry participants and would:
• Provide a pre-determined, consistent solution that would result in a closing print to the SIP within a reasonable time frame from the normal closing time;
• minimize the need for industry participants to modify their processing of data from the SIP; and
• provide advance notification of the applicable closing contingency plan to provide sufficient time for industry participants to route any closing interest to an alternate venue to participate in that venue's closing auction.
More specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed hierarchy for determining the Official Closing Price if the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposal, which is based on input from market participants, would provide sufficient time for market participants to direct closing-only interest to a designated alternate exchange in time for such interest to participate in a closing auction on such alternate venue in a meaningful manner. The Exchange further believes that relying on the official closing price of a designated alternate exchange would provide for an established hierarchy for determining an Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security if there is insufficient interest to conduct a closing auction on the alternate exchange. In such case, the rules of NYSE Arca and Nasdaq already provide a mechanism for determining an official closing price for securities that trade on those markets.
The Exchange further believes that if the Exchange determines after 3:00 p.m. that it is impaired and unable the [sic] conduct a closing transaction, the proposed VWAP calculation would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide for a mechanism to determine the value of an affected security for purposes of determining an Official Closing Price. By using a volume-weighted calculation that would include the closing transactions on an affected security on alternate exchanges as well as any busts or corrections that were reported up to the time that the SIP calculates the value, the Exchange believes that the proposed calculation would reflect the correct price of a security. In addition, by using a VWAP calculation rather than the last consolidated last-sale eligible price as of the end of regular trading hours, the Exchange would reduce the potential for an anomalous trade that may not reflect the true price of a security from being set as the Official Closing Price for a security.
The Exchange further believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposal would have minimal impact on market participants. As proposed, from the perspective of market participants, even if the Exchange were impaired, the SIP would publish an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities on behalf of the Exchange in a manner that would be no different than if the Exchange were not impaired. If the Exchange determines that it is impaired after 3:00 p.m., market participants would not have to make any system changes. If the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time and designates an alternate exchange, market participants may have to do systems work to re-direct closing-only orders to the alternate exchange. However, the Exchange understands, based on input from market participants, that such changes would be feasible based on the amount of advance notice. In addition, the Exchange believes that designating an alternate exchange when there is sufficient time to do so would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would allow for the price-discovery mechanism of a closing auction to be available for impacted Exchange-listed securities.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is impaired and cannot conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue. The proposal has been crafted with input from market participants, Nasdaq, and the SIPs, and is designed to reduce the burden on competition by having similar back-up procedures across all primary listing exchanges if such exchange is is [sic] impaired and cannot conduct a closing transaction.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to establish procedures for the allocation of cages to its co-located Users, including the waiver of certain fees, and to amend the visitor security escort requirements and fee. The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE MKT Equities Price List (“Price List”) and the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to reflect the changes. The proposed change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to establish procedures for the allocation of cages to Users, including the waiver of certain fees, and to amend the visitor security escort requirements.
A User is able to purchase a cage to house its cabinets within the Data Center.
The Data Center opened in 2010, and at that time, the Exchange represented that it offers co-location space based on availability and that it had sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
However, much of the space currently available for co-location is in smaller segments, resulting from an increasing number of Users, multiple moves within the Data Center, and changes to Users' space requirements—both increases and decreases—since 2010. Accordingly, in 2015, the Exchange determined that, to continue to be able to meet its obligation to accommodate demand, and in particular to make available more contiguous, larger spaces for new and existing Users, it would exercise its right to move some Users' equipment within the Data Center (the “Migration”).
While the Migration will make available more contiguous, larger spaces for new and existing Users, the Exchange believes that even after the Migration such contiguous open space will be limited, and may become more limited over time. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to put procedures in place for the allocation of cages if the available open contiguous space in the Data Center is not sufficient to house a new cage or the open contiguous space available is sufficiently limited that the Exchange cannot both provide new cages and satisfy all User demand for other co-location services. The proposed procedures are as follows:
• The Exchange will place Users seeking new cages on a waitlist. The order of Users on the list will be based on the date the Exchange receives signed orders for the cages from each User.
• Once the list is established, Users, on a rolling basis, will be allocated a cage each time one becomes available.
• If a cage becomes available and the User that is at the top of the waitlist turns it down because it requested a different size cage, the Exchange will offer the available cage to the next Users on the list, in order, until a User accepts it. A User that turns down a cage because it is not the correct size will remain on the waitlist. A User that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist.
• If a User requests two cages, after receiving the first cage it will move to the bottom of the waitlist.
In connection with the above procedure, the Exchange proposes to waive certain fees for Users that have requested a cage and have been added to the waitlist pursuant to the allocation procedure. The Exchange expects that, while on the waitlist for a cage or for a larger cage, a User may have to use non-contiguous cabinets and/or cages, in which case it would connect the cabinets with cross connects, which are fiber connections used to connect cabinets within the Data Center.
As noted above, a User that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist. If such User asks to be added back onto the waitlist, the Exchange will add the User to the bottom of the waitlist, but will not provide the proposed fee waiver a second time.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Price List and Fee Schedule to add a new General Note 3 to the fee to furnish and install a bundle of 24 cross connects, as follows:
The initial and monthly charge for 2 bundles of 24 cross connects will be waived for Users that are waitlisted for a cage for the duration of the waitlist period, provided that the cross connects may only be used to connect the Users' non-contiguous cabinets. The charge will no longer be waived once a User is removed from the waitlist.
• If a waitlist is created, a User seeking a new cage will be placed on the waitlist based on the date a signed order for the cage is received.
• A User that turns down a cage because it is not the correct size will remain on the waitlist. A User that requests to be removed or that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist.
• A User that is removed from the waitlist but subsequently requests a cage will be added back to the bottom of the waitlist, provided that, if the User was removed from the waitlist because it turned down a cage that is the size that it requested, it will not receive a second waiver of the charge.
Currently, all User representatives are required to have a visitor security escort during visits to the Data Center, including User representatives who have a permanent Data Center site access badge.
The Exchange requires visitor security escorts for security purposes, primarily to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment. The Exchange believes it is not necessary to have a User representative accompanied by a visitor security escort when the representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to that User's cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. By comparison, Users that do not have cages share colocation space with other Users. While such spaces are locked, more than one User may have cabinets within a given locked space, and so a visitor security escort is warranted.
The Exchange proposes to make several additional non-substantive changes to the description of the visitor security escort fee, to reduce redundancy and increase clarity. The current description is as follows:
NYSE employee escort, which is required during User visits to the data center. (Note: all User representatives are required to have a visitor security escort during visits to the data center, including User representatives who have a permanent data center site access badge.)
The proposed description of the visitor escort fee would read as follows:
All User representatives are required to be accompanied by a visitor security escort during visits to the data center unless visiting the User's cage. Requirement includes User representatives who have a permanent data center site access badge.
The Exchange proposes to remove the first clause, with its reference to the visitor security escort as an “NYSE employee escort,” because it is redundant with the parenthetical and because the reference to “NYSE employees” could be potentially confusing, given that not just the New York Stock Exchange LLC but also its affiliates, the Exchange and NYSE Arca, Inc., provide co-location services at the Data Center. In addition, the Exchange proposes to use “accompanied by a visitor security escort” rather than “have a visitor security escort” because it believes that “accompanied” makes it more clear that the escort will accompany the User representative.
The Price List and Fee Schedule include a Visitor Security Escort fee of $75 per hour. The Exchange proposes to amend the Price List and Fee Schedule to charge Users $75 per visit for such visitor security escorts. Based on the Exchange's experience, currently many of the escorted visits last an hour or less, and for Users that do not have a cage, escorted visits are typically about an hour.
As is the case with all Exchange co-location arrangements, (i) neither a User nor any of the User's customers would be permitted to submit orders directly to the Exchange unless such User or customer is a member organization, a Sponsored Participant or an agent thereof (
The proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to co-location services and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that Users would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure for allocating cages is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the proposal would establish rational, objective procedures that would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to Users that requested cages and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. All Users seeking to purchase a cage would be subject to the same procedures. The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure would serve to reduce any potential for confusion on how cages would be allocated should it become necessary. In addition, the proposed allocation procedure would assist the Exchange to ensure that it has sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand for co-location services on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the waiver would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all waitlisted Users and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. A waitlisted User would only require cross connects between its non-contiguous cabinets due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. Once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the escort fee would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all Users unless a User representative was visiting the User's cage, and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b)(4),
The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure for allocating cages is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the cages are offered simply as a convenience to Users. A User does not require a cage to trade on the Exchange, and usage of a cage has no effect on a User's orders going to, or trade data coming from, the Exchange, or the User's ability to utilize other co-location services. The proposed allocation procedure would assist the Exchange to ensure that it has sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand for co-location services on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because a waitlisted User would only require the cross connects due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. Once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the escort fee would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all Users unless a User representative was visiting the User's cage, and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. The same requirements and fees would be applied uniformly to all Users. The Exchange believes that the amendment is equitable because the security purposes that lead the Exchange to require visitor security escorts, namely to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well.
The Exchange believes that the proposed allocation procedure for cages is reasonable because the proposal would establish rational, objective procedures that would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to Users. All Users seeking to purchase a cage would be subject to the same procedures. In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposed procedure would serve to reduce any potential for confusion on how cages would be allocated should it become necessary.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is reasonable because the waitlisted User would only require the cross connects due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposal is reasonable because once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange also believes that, if a User is removed from the waitlist because it turned down a cage that is the size that it requested, it is reasonable not to provide the User a second waiver of the fee if the User subsequently requests a cage. To provide a second waiver would create an incentive for a User to use the waitlist to avoid paying the waived fees for cross connects despite being given an opportunity to get off the waitlist.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendments to the visitor security escort fee are reasonable, because the security purposes that lead the Exchange to visitor security escorts, namely to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. Finally, the Exchange believes that its non-substantive changes to the description of the visitor security escort fee are reasonable, because they would reduce redundancy and increase clarity in the description.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rate of $75 per visit for the Visitor Security Escort, as opposed to $75 per hour, is reasonable because all Users would be subject to the same fee. The Exchange believes that charging a flat fee per visit is consistent with fees for other services performed by data center staff, including Change Fees and Initial Install Services.
For the reasons above, the proposed changes do not unfairly discriminate between or among market participants that are otherwise capable of satisfying any applicable co-location fees, requirements, terms and conditions established from time to time by the Exchange.
Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because it would eliminate an unnecessary requirement, as the security purposes that lead the Exchange to visitor security escorts are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. The proposed rate of $75 per visit for the Visitor Security Escort would be a fee reduction for any visit that lasted more than an hour, and so it would reduce the burden placed on Users that are still subject to the fee.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its services and related fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 123C—Equities to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to amend its rules to specify back-up procedures for determining an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue.
The Exchange developed this proposal in consultation with its affiliated exchanges, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) and New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”), and the NASDAQ Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”), and took into consideration feedback from discussions with industry participants, including meeting the following key goals important to market participants:
• Providing a pre-determined, consistent solution that would result in a closing print to the applicable securities information processor (“SIP”) within a reasonable time frame from the normal closing time;
• Minimizing the need for industry participants to modify their processing of data from the SIPs; and
• Providing advance notification of the applicable closing contingency plan to provide sufficient time for industry participants to route any closing interest to an alternate venue to participate in that venue's closing auction.
The Exchange recently amended Rule 123C to add the definition of “Official Closing Price” for all Exchange-listed securities and, once implemented, will disseminate to the SIP the Official Closing Price as an “M” value.
The Exchange further amended Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction in a security or securities due to a systems or technical issue. In such case, the Official Closing Price will be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trade for such security during regular trading hours on that trading day. The rule further provides that if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in a security on a trading day when the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction in a security or securities due to a systems or technical issue, the Official Closing Price of such security will be the prior day's Official Closing Price.
The Exchange also amended Rule 440B(b)—Equities to provide that Exchange systems will not execute or display a short sale order with respect to a covered security at a price that is less than or equal to the current national best bid if the price of that security decreases by 10% or more, as
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) to provide for the proposed new contingency plan of how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction in a security or securities due to a systems or technical issue. To reflect this change, the Exchange would replace the current rule text in Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii).
As proposed, Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) would provide that if the Exchange determines at or before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time that it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue, the Exchange would designate an alternate exchange for such security or securities. The Exchange would publicly announce the exchange designated as the alternate exchange via Trader Update.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(A) would provide that the Official Closing Price would be the official closing price for such security under the rules of the designated alternate exchange. For example, if the Exchange designates NYSE Arca as the alternate exchange, the Official Closing Price would be based on NYSE Arca Equities Rule 1.1(ggP), which defines how NYSE Arca establishes an official closing price.
The proposed 3:00 p.m. cut off time was selected in part based on discussions with market participants regarding their capability to re-direct closing-only interest in Exchange-listed securities in time to participate in the closing auction of an alternate venue. By designating an alternate exchange before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time, the Exchange therefore believes that market participants would be more likely to have sufficient notice to direct any closing-only interest in Exchange-listed securities to the designated alternate exchange. By providing market participants sufficient time, when possible, to route closing-only interest to an alternate venue for participation in that exchange's closing auction process, that alternate exchange's closing auction would be more likely to result in a closing price that reflects market value for such security.
If there were insufficient interest for a closing auction on the designated alternate exchange, the Exchange believes that the respective rules of NYSE Arca and Nasdaq provide for an appropriate hierarchy of which price to use to determine the Official Closing Price. For example, under NYSE Arca Rule 1.1(ggP)(1), if there is no closing auction of one round lot or more on a trading day, the official closing price under that rule is the most recent consolidated last sale eligible trade during Core Trading Hours on that trading day. That rule further provides that if there were no consolidated last sale eligible trades during Core Trading Hours on that trading day, NYSE Arca's official closing price will be the prior day's Official Closing Price. This hierarchy is similar to how the Exchange determines the Official Closing Price pursuant to Rule 123C(1)(e)(i) when there is no closing transaction of a round lot or more, except that in lieu of a closing auction, NYSE Arca uses the last consolidated last sale eligible trade rather than the last Exchange last-sale eligible trade.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(B) would provide if the designated alternate exchange does not have an official closing price in a security, the Official Closing price would be the volume-weighted average price (“VWAP”) of the consolidated last-sale eligible prices of the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours up to the time that the VWAP is processed. The VWAP would include any closing transactions on an exchange and would take into account any trade breaks or corrections up to the time the VWAP is processed. Because the VWAP would include any last-sale eligible trades, busts, or corrections that were reported up to the time that the SIP calculates the VWAP, the Exchange believes that the VWAP price would reflect any pricing adjustments that may be reported after 4:00 p.m. ET.
As discussed above, the manner by which exchanges calculate their respective official closing prices provide for an official closing price in the absence of a closing transaction. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that in circumstances when the Exchange designates an alternate exchange, the VWAP calculation would rarely be used to determine the Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(C) would provide that if the designated alternate exchange does not have an official closing price in a security and there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours in such security, the Official Closing Price would be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trade during regular trading hours on that trading day.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(D) would provide that if the designated alternate exchange does not have an official closing price in a security and there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in a security on a trading day in such security, the Official Closing Price would be the prior day's Official Closing Price.
• Finally, proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(E) would provide that if an Official Closing Price for a security cannot be determined under (A), (B), or (C) of proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii) and there is no prior day's Official Closing Price, the Exchange would not publish an Official Closing Price for such security.
The Exchange would use the hierarchy set forth in proposed Rule 123C(e)(ii)(B)-(E) only if the designated alternate exchange did not disseminate an official closing price in a security. In such case, the proposed hierarchy is based on current Rule 123C(1)(e)(i), which provides that, if the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction, the Official Closing Price will be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trade for such security during regular trading hours on that trading day, and if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in a security, the Official Closing Price of such security will be the prior day's Official Closing Price. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add as paragraph (E) of Rule 123C(e)(ii) what would happen if there were no Official Closing Price published on the prior trading day (
If the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m. and the
As further proposed, Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii) would describe how the Exchange would determine the Official Closing Price for a security if the Exchange determines after 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time that it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue. Based on input from market participants, the Exchange believes that, if the Exchange were to announce after 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time that it is impaired and unable to conduct a closing transaction, market participants would not have sufficient time to re-direct closing-only orders to an alternate venue. The proposed hierarchy would be similar to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii), but would not contemplate a closing transaction on a designated alternate exchange. Accordingly, in such scenario, the Exchange proposes to use the following hierarchy for determining the Official Closing Price for a security:
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(A) would provide that the Official Closing Price would be the VWAP of the consolidated last-sale eligible prices of the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours up to the time that the VWAP is processed, including any closing transactions on an exchange. The VWAP would take into account any trade breaks or corrections up to the time of the VWAP is processed. This VWAP would be calculated in the same manner as set forth in proposed in Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(B), described above. However, if the Exchange's determination that it is unable to conduct a closing transaction is after 3:00 p.m. ET, the proposed VWAP calculation would be the primary means for determining the Official Closing Price for a security. In such case, the Exchange believes that the VWAP would appropriately reflect the pricing of a security because it would include, in a volume-weighted manner, the price and volume of closing transactions on other exchanges if market participants are able to route closing interest in Exchange-listed securities to an alternate venue for participation in a closing auction.
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(B) would provide that if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in the last five minutes of trading during regular trading hours in such security, the Official Closing Price would be the last consolidated last-sale eligible trades during regular trading hours on that trading day. This proposed rule text is the same as proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(C).
• Proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(C) would provide that if there were no consolidated last-sale eligible trades in such security on a trading day, the Official Closing Price would be the prior day's Official Closing Price. This proposed rule text is the same as proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(D).
• Finally, proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii)(D) would provide that if an Official Closing Price for a security cannot be determined under (A), (B), or (C) of proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii) and there is no prior day's Official Closing Price, the Exchange would not publish an Official Closing Price for such security. This proposed rule text is based on proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii)(E).
Similar to how the Official Closing Price would be published under proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(ii), if the Exchange determines that it is impaired after 3:00 p.m. and the Official Closing Price is determined pursuant to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii), the SIP would publish the Official Closing Price for such security no differently than how the SIP publishes the Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security pursuant to Rule 123C(1)(e)(i). Accordingly, if the Official Closing Price is determined pursuant to proposed Rule 123C(1)(e)(iii), recipients of SIP data would not have to make any changes to their systems because the SIP would publish the “M” last sale condition as an Exchange Official Closing Price for any impacted Exchange-listed securities.
For purposes of Rule 440B(b)—Equities, the Official Closing Price would still be determined based on Rule 123C and if the market is impaired, the Official Closing Price as defined in proposed Rules 123C(1)(e)(ii) and (iii) would be used for purposes of determining whether a Short Sale Price Test is triggered in a security the next trading day.
Because of the technology changes associated with this proposed rule change, the Exchange will implement the proposed back-up procedures for determining an Official Closing Price no later than 120 days after approval of this proposed rule change and will announce the implementation date via Trader Update.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide transparency in how the Exchange would determine the Official Closing Price in Exchange-listed securities when the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue. The Exchange believes that the proposed amendments would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposed determination of an Official Closing Price was crafted in response to input from industry participants and would:
• Provide a pre-determined, consistent solution that would result in a closing print to the SIP within a reasonable time frame from the normal closing time;
• minimize the need for industry participants to modify their processing of data from the SIP; and
• provide advance notification of the applicable closing contingency plan to provide sufficient time for industry participants to route any closing interest
More specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed hierarchy for determining the Official Closing Price if the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposal, which is based on input from market participants, would provide sufficient time for market participants to direct closing-only interest to a designated alternate exchange in time for such interest to participate in a closing auction on such alternate venue in a meaningful manner. The Exchange further believes that relying on the official closing price of a designated alternate exchange would provide for an established hierarchy for determining an Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security if there is insufficient interest to conduct a closing auction on the alternate exchange. In such case, the rules of NYSE Arca and Nasdaq already provide a mechanism for determining an official closing price for securities that trade on those markets.
The Exchange further believes that if the Exchange determines after 3:00 p.m. that it is impaired and unable the [sic] conduct a closing transaction, the proposed VWAP calculation would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide for a mechanism to determine the value of an affected security for purposes of determining an Official Closing Price. By using a volume-weighted calculation that would include the closing transactions on an affected security on alternate exchanges as well as any busts or corrections that were reported up to the time that the SIP calculates the value, the Exchange believes that the proposed calculation would reflect the correct price of a security. In addition, by using a VWAP calculation rather than the last consolidated last-sale eligible price as of the end of regular trading hours, the Exchange would reduce the potential for an anomalous trade that may not reflect the true price of a security from being set as the Official Closing Price for a security.
The Exchange further believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposal would have minimal impact on market participants. As proposed, from the perspective of market participants, even if the Exchange were impaired, the SIP would publish an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities on behalf of the Exchange in a manner that would be no different than if the Exchange were not impaired. If the Exchange determines that it is impaired after 3:00 p.m., market participants would not have to make any system changes. If the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time and designates an alternate exchange, market participants may have to do systems work to re-direct closing-only orders to the alternate exchange. However, the Exchange understands, based on input from market participants, that such changes would be feasible based on the amount of advance notice. In addition, the Exchange believes that designating an alternate exchange when there is sufficient time to do so would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would allow for the price-discovery mechanism of a closing auction to be available for impacted Exchange-listed securities.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is impaired and cannot conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue. The proposal has been crafted with input from market participants, Nasdaq, and the SIPs, and is designed to reduce the burden on competition by having similar back-up procedures across all primary listing exchanges if such exchange is is [sic] impaired and cannot conduct a closing transaction.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Nasdaq proposes to list and trade the shares of the iSectors Post-MPT Growth ETF (the “Fund”), a series of ETFis Series Trust I (the “Trust”), under Nasdaq Rule 5735 (“Managed Fund Shares”).
In its filing with the Commission, Nasdaq included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. Nasdaq has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares of the Fund under Nasdaq Rule 5735, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares
Virtus ETF Advisers LLC will be the investment adviser (“Adviser”) to the Fund. iSectors, LLC will be the investment sub-adviser (“Sub-Adviser”) to the Fund. ETF Distributors LLC (the “Distributor”) will be the principal underwriter and distributor of the Fund's Shares. The Bank of New York Mellon (“BNY Mellon”) will act as the administrator, accounting agent, custodian, and transfer agent to the Fund.
Paragraph (g) of Rule 5735 provides that if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
In addition, personnel who make decisions on the Fund's portfolio composition will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the portfolio. In the event (a) the Adviser or the Sub-Adviser registers as a broker dealer or becomes newly affiliated with a broker-dealer, or (b) any new adviser or sub-adviser is a registered broker-dealer or becomes affiliated with another broker-dealer, it will implement a fire wall with respect to its relevant personnel and/or such broker-dealer affiliate, as applicable, regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio and will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding such portfolio.
The Fund's investment objective will be to provide growth of capital, with a secondary emphasis on capital preservation, independent of individual market conditions. The Fund will be an actively managed ETF that seeks to achieve its investment objective by utilizing a long-only, tactically-managed exposure to sectors of the U.S. equity market and U.S. fixed income markets. To obtain such exposure, the Sub-Adviser will invest, under normal market conditions,
In order to seek its investment objective, the Fund will not employ other strategies outside of the above-described “Principal Investments.”
Under normal market conditions, the Fund will invest its total assets in shares of ETPs, individually selected U.S. exchange-traded common stocks (when the Sub-Adviser determines that is more efficient or otherwise advantageous to do so), money market funds, U.S. treasuries or money market instruments. The Fund will not purchase securities of open-end investment companies except in compliance with the 1940 Act. The Fund will not use derivative instruments, including options, swaps, forwards and futures contracts. The Fund will not invest in inverse or leveraged inverse ETPs.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid securities and other illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment). The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid securities or other illiquid assets. Illiquid securities and other illiquid assets include securities subject to contractual or other restrictions on resale and other instruments that lack readily available markets as determined in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
The Fund intends to qualify for and to elect to be treated as a separate regulated investment company under SubChapter M of the Internal Revenue Code.
Under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investment in investment companies will be limited to, subject to certain exceptions: (i) 3% of the total outstanding voting stock of any one investment company, (ii) 5% of the Fund's total assets with respect to any one investment company, and (iii) 10% of the Fund's total assets with respect to investment companies in the aggregate.
The Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment objective. The Fund does not presently intend to engage in any form of borrowing for investment purposes, and will not be operated as a “leveraged ETF”,
The Fund's net asset value (“NAV”) will be determined as of the close of trading (normally 4:00 p.m., Eastern time (“E.T.”)) on each day the New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”) is open for business. NAV will be calculated for the Fund by taking the market price of the Fund's total assets, including interest or dividends accrued but not yet collected, less all liabilities, and dividing such amount by the total number of Shares outstanding. The result, rounded to the nearest cent, will be the NAV per Share. All valuations will be subject to review by the Trust's Board (“Board”) or its delegate.
The Fund's investments will be valued at market value
Certain securities may not be able to be priced by pre-established pricing methods. Such securities may be valued by the Board or its delegate at fair value. The use of fair value pricing by the Fund will be governed by valuation procedures adopted by the Board and in accordance with the provisions of the 1940 Act. As a general principle, the current “fair value” of a security would appear to be the amount which the owner might reasonably expect to receive for the security upon its current sale. The use of fair value prices by the Fund generally results in the prices used by the Fund that may differ from current market quotations or official closing prices on the applicable exchange. A variety of factors may be considered in determining the fair value of such securities.
The Trust will issue and sell Shares of the Fund only in Creation Unit aggregations in exchange for an in-kind portfolio of securities and/or cash in lieu of such securities, and only in aggregations of 50,000 Shares, on a continuous basis through the Distributor, without a sales load, at the NAV next determined after receipt, on any business day, of an order in proper form.
The consideration for purchase of Creation Unit aggregations of the Fund will consist of (i) a designated portfolio of securities determined by the Adviser that generally will conform to the holdings of the Fund consistent with its investment objective (the “Deposit Securities”) per each Creation Unit aggregation and generally an amount of cash (the “Cash Component”) computed as described below, or (ii) cash in lieu of all or a portion of the Deposit Securities, as defined below. Together, the Deposit Securities and the Cash Component (including the cash in lieu amount) will constitute the “Fund Deposit,” which will represent the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit aggregation of the Fund.
The consideration for redemption of Creation Unit aggregations of the Fund will consist of (i) a designated portfolio of securities determined by the Adviser that generally will conform to the holdings of the Fund consistent with its investment objective per each Creation Unit aggregation (“Fund Securities”) and generally a Cash Component, as described below, or (ii) cash in lieu of all or a portion of the Fund Securities as defined below.
The Cash Component is sometimes also referred to as the Balancing Amount. The Cash Component will serve the function of compensating for any differences between the NAV per Creation Unit aggregation and the Deposit Amount (as defined below). For example, for a creation the Cash Component will be an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of Fund Shares (per Creation Unit aggregation) and the “Deposit Amount”—an amount equal to the market value of the Deposit Securities and/or cash in lieu of all or a portion of the Deposit Securities. If the Cash Component is a positive number
BNY Mellon, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, prior to the opening of business of the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m., E.T.), the list of the names and the quantity of each Deposit Security to be included in the current Fund Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day). Such Fund Deposit will be applicable, subject to any adjustments as described below, in order to effect creations of Creation Unit aggregations of the Fund until such time as the next-announced composition of the Deposit Securities is made available. BNY Mellon, through the NSCC, will also make available on each business day, prior to the opening of business of the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m., E.T.), the list of the names and the quantity of each security to be included (based on information at the end of the previous business day), subject to any adjustments as described below, in order to affect redemptions of Creation Unit aggregations of the Fund until such time as the next-announced composition of the Fund Securities is made available.
The Trust will reserve the right to permit or require the substitution of an amount of cash,
In addition to the list of names and numbers of securities constituting the current Deposit Securities of a Fund Deposit, BNY Mellon, through the NSCC, will also make available on each business day, the estimated Cash Component, effective through and including the previous business day, per Creation Unit aggregation of the Fund.
To be eligible to place orders with respect to creations and redemptions of Creation Units, an entity must be (i) a “Participating Party,”
All orders to create Creation Unit aggregations must be received by the Distributor no later than 3:00 p.m., E.T., an hour earlier than the closing time of the regular trading session on the Exchange (ordinarily 4:00 p.m., E.T.), in each case on the date such order is placed in order for creations of Creation Unit aggregations to be effected based on the NAV of Shares of the Fund as next determined on such date after receipt of the order in proper form.
In order to redeem Creation Units of the Fund, an Authorized Participant must submit an order to redeem for one or more Creation Units. All such orders must be received by the Distributor in proper form no later than 3:00 p.m., E.T., an hour earlier than the close of regular trading on the Exchange (ordinarily 4:00 p.m., E.T.), in order to receive that day's closing NAV per Share.
The Fund's Web site (
On a daily basis, the Fund will disclose for each portfolio security and other asset of the Fund the following information on the Fund's Web site (if applicable): Ticker symbol, CUSIP number or other identifier, if any; a description of the holding (including the type of holding); the identity of the security, commodity, index, or other asset or instrument underlying the holding, if any; maturity date, if any; coupon rate, if any; effective date, if any; market value of the holding; and the percentage weighting of the holdings in the Fund's portfolio. The Web site information will be publicly available at no charge.
In addition, for the Fund, an estimated value, defined in Rule 5735(c)(3) as the “Intraday Indicative Value,” that reflects an estimated intraday value of the Fund's portfolio, will be disseminated. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value, available on the NASDAQ OMX Information LLC proprietary index data service
Price information regarding the ETPs, equity securities, U.S. treasuries, money market instruments and money market funds held by the Fund will be available through the U.S. exchanges trading such assets, in the case of exchange-traded securities, as well as automated quotation systems, published or other public sources, or on-line information services such as Bloomberg or Reuters. For all security types in which the Fund may invest, the Fund's primary pricing source is Interactive Data Corp.; its secondary source is Reuters; and its tertiary source is Bloomberg.
Intra-day price information for all assets held by the Fund will also be available through subscription services, such as Bloomberg, Markit and Thomson Reuters, which can be accessed by Authorized Participants and other investors.
Investors will also be able to obtain the Fund's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Fund's SAI and Shareholder Reports will be available free upon request from the Fund, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's Web site at
Additional information regarding the Fund and the Shares, including investment strategies, risks, creation and redemption procedures, fees, Fund holdings disclosure policies, distributions and taxes will be included in the Registration Statement.
The Shares will be subject to Rule 5735, which sets forth the initial and continued listing criteria applicable to Managed Fund Shares. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund must be in compliance with Rule 10A-3
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund. Nasdaq will halt trading in the Shares under the conditions specified in Nasdaq Rules 4120 and 4121, including the trading pauses under Nasdaq Rules 4120(a)(11) and (12). Trading may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. These may include: (1) The extent to which trading is not occurring in the securities and other assets constituting the Disclosed Portfolio of the Fund; or (2) whether other unusual conditions or circumstances detrimental to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are present. Trading in the Shares also will be subject to Rule 5735(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted.
Nasdaq deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to Nasdaq's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Nasdaq will allow trading in the Shares from 4:00 a.m. until 8:00 p.m. E.T. The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in Nasdaq Rule 5735(b)(3), the minimum price variation for quoting and entry of orders in Managed Fund Shares traded on the Exchange is $0.01.
The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by both Nasdaq and also the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.
FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares and other exchange-traded securities and instruments, including the common stock and shares held by the Fund with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”)
In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its members in an Information Circular of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Circular will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) Nasdaq Rule 2111A, which imposes suitability obligations on Nasdaq members with respect to recommending transactions in the Shares to customers; (3) how information regarding the Intraday Indicative Value and Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (4) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Pre-Market and Post-Market Sessions when an updated Intraday Indicative Value will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (5) the requirement that members deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.
In addition, the Information Circular will advise members, prior to the commencement of trading, of the prospectus delivery requirements applicable to the Fund. Members purchasing Shares from the Fund for resale to investors will deliver a prospectus to such investors. The Information Circular will also discuss any exemptive, no-action and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act.
Additionally, the Information Circular will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Information Circular will also disclose the trading hours of the Shares of the Fund and the applicable NAV calculation time for the Shares. The Information Circular will disclose that information about the Shares of the Fund will be publicly available on the Fund's Web site.
Nasdaq believes that the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act in general and Section 6(b)(5) of the Act in particular in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities, and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange
The Fund may invest up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment). The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information will be publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value, available on the NASDAQ OMX Information LLC proprietary index data service will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Regular Market Session. On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares in the Regular Market Session on the Exchange, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the Disclosed Portfolio of the Fund that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day. Information regarding market price and trading volume of the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via Nasdaq proprietary quote and trade services, as well as in accordance with the Unlisted Trading Privileges and the Consolidated Tape Association plans for the Shares and any underlying exchange-traded securities. Intra-day price information will be available through subscription services, such as Bloomberg, Markit and Thomson Reuters, which can be accessed by Authorized Participants and other investors.
The Fund's Web site will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted under the conditions specified in Nasdaq Rules 4120 and 4121 or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable, and trading in the Shares will be subject to Nasdaq Rule 5735(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares and other exchange-traded securities and instruments held by the Fund with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG and FINRA may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares and other exchange-traded securities and instruments held by the Fund from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares and other exchange-traded securities and instruments held by the Fund from markets and other entities that are members of ISG, which includes all U.S. and some foreign securities and futures exchanges, or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. Furthermore, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
For the above reasons, Nasdaq believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded fund that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, Station Place, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is proposing a rule change to amend its rules as well as certain corporate documents of the Exchange to reflect a legal name change by the Exchange's ultimate parent entity, BATS Global Markets, Inc. (the “Parent”) to Bats Global Markets, Inc., and the legal names of certain of the Parent's subsidiaries. As a result of this change, the Exchange also proposes to amend its rules to change its name from BATS Exchange, Inc. to Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange, on behalf of its Parent, recently filed to change the Parent's legal name from “BATS Global Markets, Inc.” to “Bats Global Markets, Inc.”
The Exchange proposes to replace all references to BATS with Bats throughout the Exchange's Rulebook and Fee Schedule. The Exchange understands that its affiliated Exchanges also intend to file similar proposed rule changes with the Commission to amend their exchange names.
• All references to “BATS Exchange”, “BATS EXCHANGE” and “BATS EXCHANGE, INC.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “BATS” are proposed to be changed to “Bats” or “Exchange”;
• All references to “BATS Y-Exchange, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats BYX Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “EDGX Exchange, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “EDGA Exchange, Inc.” are proposed to be changed to “Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc.”;
• All references to “BATS Options” are proposed to be changed to “BZX Options”.
• All references to “BATS Book”, “BATS market orders”, “BATS Post Only Orders”, “BATS Only Orders”, and “BATS-listed securities” are proposed to be changed to “BZX Book”, “BZX market orders”, “BZX Post Only Orders”, “BZX Only Orders”, and “BZX-listed securities”, respectively.
In addition to these changes, the Exchange proposes to modify its Fee Schedules to reflect the name change of the Exchange to Bats BZX Exchange
The Exchange also proposes to amend Article First of the Certificate to change the name of the Exchange to Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. and make conforming changes throughout, including the title of the Certificate. The Exchange proposes to amend the Bylaws to amend the title to reflect that the Bylaws will be titled the “FOURTH AMENDED AND RESTATED BYLAWS OF BATS BZX EXCHANGE, INC.” The Exchange also proposes to amend Article I, paragraph (f) and Article XI, section 2 to reflect the name changes.
The name change from BATS Exchange, Inc. to Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. is a non-substantive change. No changes to the ownership or structure of the Exchange or BATS Global Markets, Inc. have taken place.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
Because the rule change proposes ministerial changes related to the administration, and not the governance or operation, of the Exchange, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
Because it is concerned solely with the administration of the Exchange, the foregoing proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Ac
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to establish procedures for the allocation of cages to its co-located Users, including the waiver of certain fees, and to amend the visitor security escort requirements and fee. The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Price List (“Price List”) to reflect the changes The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to establish procedures for the allocation of cages to Users, including the waiver of certain fees, and to amend the visitor security escort requirements.
A User is able to purchase a cage to house its cabinets within the Data Center.
The Data Center opened in 2010, and at that time, the Exchange represented that it offers co-location space based on availability and that it had sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
However, much of the space currently available for co-location is in smaller segments, resulting from an increasing number of Users, multiple moves within the Data Center, and changes to Users' space requirements—both increases and decreases—since 2010. Accordingly, in 2015, the Exchange determined that, to continue to be able to meet its obligation to accommodate demand, and in particular to make available more contiguous, larger spaces for new and existing Users, it would exercise its right to move some Users' equipment within the Data Center (the “Migration”).
While the Migration will make available more contiguous, larger spaces for new and existing Users, the Exchange believes that even after the Migration such contiguous open space will be limited, and may become more limited over time. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to put procedures in place for the allocation of cages if the available open contiguous space in the Data Center is not sufficient to house a new cage or the open contiguous space available is sufficiently limited that the Exchange cannot both provide new cages and satisfy all User demand for other co-location services. The proposed procedures are as follows:
• The Exchange will place Users seeking new cages on a waitlist. The order of Users on the list will be based on the date the Exchange receives signed orders for the cages from each User.
• Once the list is established, Users, on a rolling basis, will be allocated a cage each time one becomes available.
• If a cage becomes available and the User that is at the top of the waitlist turns it down because it requested a different size cage, the Exchange will offer the available cage to the next Users on the list, in order, until a User accepts it. A User that turns down a cage because it is not the correct size will remain on the waitlist. A User that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist.
• If a User requests two cages, after receiving the first cage it will move to the bottom of the waitlist.
In connection with the above procedure, the Exchange proposes to waive certain fees for Users that have requested a cage and have been added to the waitlist pursuant to the allocation procedure. The Exchange expects that, while on the waitlist for a cage or for a larger cage, a User may have to use non-contiguous cabinets and/or cages, in which case it would connect the cabinets with cross connects, which are fiber connections used to connect cabinets within the Data Center.
As noted above, a User that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist. If such User asks to be added back onto the waitlist, the Exchange will add the User to the bottom of the waitlist, but will not provide the proposed fee waiver a second time.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Price List to add a new General Note 3 to the fee to furnish and install a bundle of 24 cross connects, as follows:
The initial and monthly charge for 2 bundles of 24 cross connects will be waived for Users that are waitlisted for a cage for the duration of the waitlist period, provided that the cross connects may only be used to connect the Users' non-contiguous cabinets. The charge will no longer be waived once a User is removed from the waitlist.
• If a waitlist is created, a User seeking a new cage will be placed on the waitlist based on the date a signed order for the cage is received.
• A User that turns down a cage because it is not the correct size will remain on the waitlist. A User that requests to be removed or that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist.
• A User that is removed from the waitlist but subsequently requests a cage will be added back to the bottom of the waitlist, provided that, if the User was removed from the waitlist because it turned down a cage that is the size that it requested, it will not receive a second waiver of the charge.
Currently, all User representatives are required to have a visitor security escort during visits to the Data Center, including User representatives who have a permanent Data Center site access badge.
The Exchange requires visitor security escorts for security purposes, primarily to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment. The Exchange believes it is not necessary to have a User representative accompanied by a visitor security escort when the representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to that User's cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. By comparison, Users that do not have cages share colocation space with other Users. While such spaces are locked, more than one User may have cabinets within a given locked space, and so a visitor security escort is warranted.
The Exchange proposes to make several additional non-substantive changes to the description of the visitor security escort fee, to reduce redundancy and increase clarity. The current description is as follows:
NYSE employee escort, which is required during User visits to the data center. (
The proposed description of the visitor escort fee would read as follows:
All User representatives are required to be accompanied by a visitor security escort during visits to the data center unless visiting the User's cage. Requirement includes User representatives who have a permanent data center site access badge.
The Exchange proposes to remove the first clause, with its reference to the visitor security escort as an “NYSE employee escort,” because it is redundant with the parenthetical and because the reference to “NYSE employees” could be potentially confusing, given that not just the NYSE but also its affiliates, NYSE MKT LLC and NYSE Arca, Inc., provide co-location services at the Data Center. In addition, the Exchange proposes to use “accompanied by a visitor security escort” rather than “have a visitor security escort” because it believes that “accompanied” makes it more clear that the escort will accompany the User representative.
The Price List includes a Visitor Security Escort fee of $75 per hour. The Exchange proposes to amend the Price List to charge Users $75 per visit for such visitor security escorts. Based on the Exchange's experience, currently many of the escorted visits last an hour or less, and for Users that do not have a cage, escorted visits are typically about an hour.
As is the case with all Exchange co-location arrangements, (i) neither a User nor any of the User's customers would be permitted to submit orders directly to the Exchange unless such User or customer is a member organization, a Sponsored Participant or an agent thereof (
The proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to co-location services and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that Users would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure for allocating cages is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the proposal would establish rational, objective procedures that would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to Users that requested cages and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. All Users seeking to purchase a cage would be subject to the same procedures. The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure would serve to reduce any potential for confusion on how cages would be allocated should it become necessary. In addition, the proposed allocation procedure would assist the Exchange to ensure that it has sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand for co-location services on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the waiver would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all waitlisted Users and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. A waitlisted User would only require cross connects between its non-contiguous cabinets due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. Once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the escort fee would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all Users unless a User representative was visiting the User's cage, and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b)(4),
The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure for allocating cages is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the cages are offered simply as a convenience to Users. A User does not require a cage to trade on the Exchange, and usage of a cage has no effect on a User's orders going to, or trade data coming from, the Exchange, or the User's ability to utilize other co-location services. The proposed allocation procedure would assist the Exchange to ensure that it has sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand for co-location services on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because a waitlisted User would only require the cross connects due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. Once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the escort fee would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all Users unless a User representative was visiting the User's cage, and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. The same requirements and fees would be applied uniformly to all Users. The Exchange believes that the amendment is equitable because the security purposes that lead the Exchange to require visitor security escorts, namely to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well.
The Exchange believes that the proposed allocation procedure for cages is reasonable because the proposal would establish rational, objective procedures that would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to Users. All Users seeking to purchase a cage would be subject to the same procedures. In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposed procedure would serve to reduce any potential for confusion on how cages would be allocated should it become necessary.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is reasonable because the waitlisted User would only require the cross connects due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. In addition, the Exchange believes that
The Exchange also believes that, if a User is removed from the waitlist because it turned down a cage that is the size that it requested, it is reasonable not to provide the User a second waiver of the fee if the User subsequently requests a cage. To provide a second waiver would create an incentive for a User to use the waitlist to avoid paying the waived fees for cross connects despite being given an opportunity to get off the waitlist.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendments to the visitor security escort fee are reasonable, because the security purposes that lead the Exchange to visitor security escorts, namely to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. Finally, the Exchange believes that its non-substantive changes to the description of the visitor security escort fee are reasonable, because they would reduce redundancy and increase clarity in the description.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rate of $75 per visit for the Visitor Security Escort, as opposed to $75 per hour, is equitable because all Users would be subject to the same fee. The Exchange believes that charging a flat fee per visit is consistent with fees for other services performed by data center staff, including Change Fees and Initial Install Services.
For the reasons above, the proposed changes do not unfairly discriminate between or among market participants that are otherwise capable of satisfying any applicable co-location fees, requirements, terms and conditions established from time to time by the Exchange.
Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because it would eliminate an unnecessary requirement, as the security purposes that lead the Exchange to visitor security escorts are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. The proposed rate of $75 per visit for the Visitor Security Escort would be a fee reduction for any visit that lasted more than an hour, and so it would reduce the burden placed on Users that are still subject to the fee.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its services and related fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to establish procedures for the allocation of cages to its co-located Users, including the waiver of certain fees, and to amend the visitor security escort requirements and fee. The Exchange proposes to amend the Arca Options Fee Schedule (the “Options Fee Schedule”) and, through its wholly owned subsidiary NYSE Arca Equities, Inc. (“NYSE Arca Equities”), the NYSE Arca Equities Schedule of Fees and Charges for Exchange Services (the “Equities Fee Schedule” and, together with the Options Fee Schedule, the “Fee Schedules”) to reflect the changes. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to establish procedures for the allocation of cages to Users, including the waiver of certain fees, and to amend the visitor security escort requirements.
A User is able to purchase a cage to house its cabinets within the Data Center.
The Data Center opened in 2010, and at that time, the Exchange represented that it offers co-location space based on availability and that it had sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
However, much of the space currently available for co-location is in smaller segments, resulting from an increasing number of Users, multiple moves within the Data Center, and changes to Users' space requirements—both increases and decreases—since 2010. Accordingly, in 2015, the Exchange determined that, to continue to be able to meet its obligation to accommodate demand, and in particular to make available more contiguous, larger spaces for new and existing Users, it would exercise its right to move some Users' equipment within the Data Center (the “Migration”).
While the Migration will make available more contiguous, larger spaces for new and existing Users, the Exchange believes that even after the Migration such contiguous open space will be limited, and may become more limited over time. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to put procedures in place for the allocation of cages if the available open contiguous space in the Data Center is not sufficient to house a new cage or the open contiguous space available is sufficiently limited that the Exchange cannot both provide new cages and satisfy all User demand for other co-location services. The proposed procedures are as follows:
• The Exchange will place Users seeking new cages on a waitlist. The order of Users on the list will be based on the date the Exchange receives signed orders for the cages from each User.
• Once the list is established, Users, on a rolling basis, will be allocated a cage each time one becomes available.
• If a cage becomes available and the User that is at the top of the waitlist turns it down because it requested a different size cage, the Exchange will offer the available cage to the next Users on the list, in order, until a User accepts it. A User that turns down a cage because it is not the correct size will remain on the waitlist. A User that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist.
• If a User requests two cages, after receiving the first cage it will move to the bottom of the waitlist.
In connection with the above procedure, the Exchange proposes to waive certain fees for Users that have requested a cage and have been added to the waitlist pursuant to the allocation procedure. The Exchange expects that, while on the waitlist for a cage or for a larger cage, a User may have to use non-contiguous cabinets and/or cages, in which case it would connect the cabinets with cross connects, which are fiber connections used to connect cabinets within the Data Center.
As noted above, a User that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist. If such User asks to be added back onto the waitlist, the Exchange will add the User to the bottom of the waitlist, but will not provide the proposed fee waiver a second time.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedules to add a new General Note 3 to the fee to furnish and install a bundle of 24 cross connects, as follows:
The initial and monthly charge for 2 bundles of 24 cross connects will be waived for Users that are waitlisted for a cage for the duration of the waitlist period, provided that the cross connects may only be used to connect the Users' non-contiguous cabinets. The charge will no longer be waived once a User is removed from the waitlist.
• If a waitlist is created, a User seeking a new cage will be placed on the waitlist based on the date a signed order for the cage is received.
• A User that turns down a cage because it is not the correct size will remain on the waitlist. A User that requests to be removed or that turns down a cage that is the size that it requested will be removed from the waitlist.
• A User that is removed from the waitlist but subsequently requests a cage will be added back to the bottom of the waitlist, provided that, if the User was removed from the waitlist because it turned down a cage that is the size that it requested, it will not receive a second waiver of the charge.
Currently, all User representatives are required to have a visitor security escort during visits to the Data Center, including User representatives who have a permanent Data Center site access badge.
The Exchange requires visitor security escorts for security purposes, primarily to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment. The Exchange believes it is not necessary to have a User representative accompanied by a visitor security escort when the representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to that User's cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. By comparison, Users that do not have cages share colocation space with other Users. While such spaces are locked, more than one User may have cabinets within a given locked space, and so a visitor security escort is warranted.
The Exchange proposes to make several additional non-substantive changes to the description of the visitor security escort fee, to reduce redundancy and increase clarity. The current description is as follows:
NYSE employee escort, which is required during User visits to the data center. (Note: all User representatives are required to have a visitor security escort during visits to the data center, including User representatives who have a permanent data center site access badge.)
The proposed description of the visitor escort fee would read as follows:
All User representatives are required to be accompanied by a visitor security escort during visits to the data center unless visiting the User's cage. Requirement includes User representatives who have a permanent data center site access badge.
The Exchange proposes to remove the first clause, with its reference to the visitor security escort as an “NYSE employee escort,” because it is redundant with the parenthetical and because the reference to “NYSE employees” could be potentially confusing, given that not just New York Stock Exchange LLC but also its affiliates, NYSE MKT LLC and the Exchange, provide co-location services at the Data Center. In addition, the Exchange proposes to use “accompanied by a visitor security escort” rather than “have a visitor security escort” because it believes that “accompanied” makes it more clear that the escort will accompany the User representative.
The Fee Schedules include a Visitor Security Escort fee of $75 per hour. The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedules to charge Users $75 per visit for such visitor security escorts. Based on the Exchange's experience, currently many of the escorted visits last an hour or less, and for Users that do not have a cage, escorted visits are typically about an hour.
As is the case with all Exchange co-location arrangements, (i) neither a User nor any of the User's customers would be permitted to submit orders directly to the Exchange unless such User or customer is a member organization, a Sponsored Participant or an agent thereof (
The proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to co-location services and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that Users would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure for allocating cages is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the proposal would establish rational, objective procedures that would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to Users that requested cages and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. All Users seeking to purchase a cage would be subject to the same procedures. The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure would serve to reduce any potential for confusion on how cages would be allocated should it become necessary. In addition, the proposed allocation procedure would assist the Exchange to ensure that it has sufficient space in the Data Center to accommodate demand for co-location services on an equitable basis for the foreseeable future.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the waiver would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all waitlisted Users and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. A waitlisted User would only require cross connects between its non-contiguous cabinets due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. Once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers because the escort fee would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all Users unless a User representative was visiting the User's cage, and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(4),
The Exchange believes that the proposed procedure for allocating cages is equitable and not unfairly
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because a waitlisted User would only require the cross connects due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. Once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the escort fee would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to all Users unless a User representative was visiting the User's cage, and would not unfairly discriminate among similarly situated Users of co-location services. The same requirements and fees would be applied uniformly to all Users. The Exchange believes that the amendment is equitable because the security purposes that lead the Exchange to require visitor security escorts, namely to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well.
The Exchange believes that the proposed allocation procedure for cages is reasonable because the proposal would establish rational, objective procedures that would be applied uniformly by the Exchange to Users. All Users seeking to purchase a cage would be subject to the same procedures. In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposed procedure would serve to reduce any potential for confusion on how cages would be allocated should it become necessary.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to waive fees for two bundles of 24 cross connects between a waitlisted User's non-contiguous cabinets is reasonable because the waitlisted User would only require the cross connects due to the waitlist. If, instead of being put on the waitlist, the User had received the cage it requested, the User would not require the cross connects. In addition, the Exchange proposes that the cross connects could only be used to connect the User's non-contiguous cabinets. The waiver would help to alleviate the inconvenience for the waitlisted User of having cabinets in non-contiguous space by directly addressing, for the time period during which the User is waitlisted, a cost directly related to being on the waitlist. In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposal is reasonable because once the User was allocated a cage through the allocation procedure or was removed from the waitlist, the Exchange would cease to waive the fee.
The Exchange also believes that, if a User is removed from the waitlist because it turned down a cage that is the size that it requested, it is reasonable not to provide the User a second waiver of the fee if the User subsequently requests a cage. To provide a second waiver would create an incentive for a User to use the waitlist to avoid paying the waived fees for cross connects despite being given an opportunity to get off the waitlist.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendments to the visitor security escort fee are reasonable, because the security purposes that lead the Exchange to visitor security escorts, namely to ensure that a visitor does not interfere with the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. Finally, the Exchange believes that its non-substantive changes to the description of the visitor security escort fee are reasonable, because they would reduce redundancy and increase clarity in the description.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rate of $75 per visit for the Visitor Security Escort, as opposed to $75 per hour, is reasonable because all Users would be subject to the same fee. The Exchange believes that charging a flat fee per visit is consistent with fees for other services performed by data center staff, including Change Fees and Initial Install Services.
For the reasons above, the proposed changes do not unfairly discriminate between or among market participants that are otherwise capable of satisfying any applicable co-location fees, requirements, terms and conditions established from time to time by the Exchange.
Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the visitor security escort fee would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because it would eliminate an unnecessary requirement, as the security purposes that lead the Exchange to visitor security escorts are not present when a User representative is visiting the User's cage, because the User representative would only have access to the Users' cabinets, which would be in the confined area within the locked cage. The User representative would not have access to the cabinets of other Users or Exchange equipment, which are locked as well. The proposed rate of $75 per visit for the Visitor Security Escort would be a fee reduction for any visit that lasted more than an hour, and so it would reduce the burden placed on Users that are still subject to the fee.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its services and related fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to establish a Secondary Contingency Procedure that would enable the Exchange to report an Official Closing Price on behalf of an impaired primary listing exchange.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these
Nasdaq has robust and resilient systems that are designed to ensure fair and orderly markets, including multiple redundancies and back-up systems. For the critical Nasdaq Official Closing Price (“NOCP”), Nasdaq currently has three systems that are designed to ensure the orderly execution and dissemination of the NOCP: (1) The Nasdaq Closing Cross set forth in Rule 4754(b)(1); Auxiliary Procedures described in Rule 4754(b)(5); and Contingency Procedures contained in Rule 4754(b)(7).
Here, Nasdaq is proposing to establish Secondary Contingency Procedures in proposed new Rule 4754(b)(8). This proposal is made in conjunction with the New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”), NYSE Arca, Inc., and the exclusive securities information processors for the Nasdaq UTP Plan and the Consolidated Quote/Consolidated Tape Plan (“SIPs”).
Procedurally, Nasdaq, as a primary listing market, will designate a back-up exchange to provide an official closing price in the event that Nasdaq's market is impaired and unable to execute a closing auction for all or a subset of listed securities. Nasdaq would invoke the Secondary Contingency Procedures by announcing publicly that its market is impaired and unable to execute a closing auction. If Nasdaq makes that announcement prior to 3:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time (“EST”), the official closing price from Nasdaq's designated back-up exchange would serve as the NOCP. If Nasdaq makes that announcement after 3:00 p.m., EST, the SIP would calculate a Volume Weighted Average Price (“VWAP”), described in more detail below. Whether the announcement is made before or after 3:00 p.m., EST, the SIP would publish the NOCP on Nasdaq's behalf either: (1) Based on a message from Nasdaq's back-up exchange or (2) based on the VWAP calculation.
Nasdaq proposes to designate NYSE Arca as its official back-up exchange. Nasdaq believes that NYSE Arca is best positioned to serve as Nasdaq's back-up for two primary reasons: (1) NYSE Arca and Nasdaq membership substantially overlaps; (2) NYSE Arca already operates an effective closing cross that it can use to execute a closing cross in Nasdaq-listed securities. In the event Nasdaq is unable to execute a closing cross, Nasdaq members that are also NYSE Arca members should be technically prepared to transfer liquidity to NYSE Arca to ensure a deeply liquid closing cross.
Nasdaq expects NYSE Arca will designate Nasdaq as its back-up exchange for the same reasons. Again, the two exchanges' memberships substantially overlap, meaning that liquidity can and already does flow smoothly from one exchange to the other. Also, Nasdaq already operates a closing cross for securities listed on NYSE Arca, as well as all other securities for which consolidated information is disseminated via Tapes A and B.
The Operating Committees for the Nasdaq and CQ/CT Plans have already voted to modify the SIPs to support this proposal. Specifically, each exchange that is designated as a back-up exchange (Nasdaq and NYSE Arca), will disseminate via the SIPs an official closing price in every listed security marked with the .M sale condition code.
The SIPs will apply the following procedures:
1. Each primary listing exchange would print a standardized Official Closing Price (“OCP”), with a sale condition `M,' in each security it trades, whether as primary or on a UTP basis.
2. Each primary listing exchange would include in its rules that, in the event that it is impaired and cannot conduct a closing auction, the exchange's contingency OCP would be the OCP of a specified “back-up exchange” or, if the impairment is announced after 3:00 p.m., EST, a VWAP calculation.
3. In the event that a primary listing exchange publicly announces that it is impaired and unable to conduct a closing auction for all or a subset of its primary symbols, the SIP would print the primary listing exchange's contingency OCP as the OCP of the primary listing exchange, including calculation of the VWAP. The advantages of the SIP reprinting the contingency OCP as the OCP of the primary listing exchange, rather than the back-up exchange separately sending to the SIP its OCP as the OCP of the primary exchange are that:
a. The SIP provides a centralized service of which each primary listing exchange can take advantage
b. Participant—line validations are retained
c. There is assurance of full symbol coverage
d. The SIP provides a single location for future updates or configuration changes or new primary listing exchanges
e. A single source and method for VWAP calculations
** this is so with either proposal
4. The primary listing exchange's contingency OCP would differ depending on what time the impaired primary market announces that it will be using the closing contingency plan.
a. If announced
i. Official Closing Price (sale condition `M') of a pre-designated back-up exchange(s). An exchange that has more than 1 back-up exchange as part of its hierarchy of contingency OCPs, will announce publicly the exchange(s) that will be relied on for the contingency OCP.
ii. If no such contingency OCP exists, then a VWAP calculated by the SIP of the final 5 minute regular trading session. The VWAP calculations would include all last sale eligible trades in the last 5 minutes of the normal trading day, including the closing auctions prints of all markets.
iii. If no last sale eligible trades printed in the last 5 minutes, then the consolidated last sale during regular trading hours.
iv. If no such same day consolidated last sale eligible trades exist, then the primary listing exchange's prior trading day's Official Closing Price.
b. If announced
i. Final 5 minute VWAP of regular trading session (same calculation as described above).
ii. If no last sale eligible trades printed in the last 5 minutes, then the consolidated last sale during regular trading hours.
iii. If no such same day consolidated last sale eligible trades exist, then the primary listing exchange's prior trading day's Official Closing Price.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide transparency in how the Exchange would determine the Nasdaq Official Closing Price in Exchange-listed securities when the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue. The Exchange believes that the proposed amendments would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposed determination of a Nasdaq Official Closing Price was crafted in response to input from industry participants and would:
• Provide a pre-determined, consistent solution that would result in a closing print to the SIP within a reasonable time frame from the normal closing time;
• minimize the need for industry participants to modify their processing of data from the SIP; and
• provide advance notification of the applicable closing contingency plan to provide sufficient time for industry participants to route any closing interest to an alternate venue to participate in that venue's closing auction.
More specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed hierarchy for determining the Nasdaq Official Closing Price if the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m., EST, would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposal, which is based on input from market participants, would provide sufficient time for market participants to direct closing-only interest to a designated alternate exchange in time for such interest to participate in a closing auction on such alternate venue in a meaningful manner.
The Exchange further believes that relying on the official closing price of a designated alternate exchange would provide for an established hierarchy for determining an Official Closing Price for an Exchange-listed security if there is insufficient interest to conduct a closing auction on the alternate exchange. In such case, the rules of NYSE Arca and Nasdaq already provide a mechanism for determining an official closing price for securities that trade on those markets.
The Exchange further believes that if the Exchange determines after 3:00 p.m., EST, that it is impaired and unable the conduct a closing transaction, the proposed VWAP calculation would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide for a mechanism to determine the value of an affected security for purposes of determining a Nasdaq Official Closing Price. By using a volume-weighted calculation that would include the closing transactions on an affected security on alternate exchanges as well as any busts or corrections that were reported up to the time that the SIP calculates the value, the Exchange believes that the proposed calculation would reflect the correct price of a security. In addition, by using a VWAP calculation rather than the last consolidated last-sale eligible price as of the end of regular trading hours, the Exchange would reduce the potential for an anomalous trade that may not reflect the true price of a security from being set as the Nasdaq Official Closing Price for a security.
The Exchange further believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the proposal would have minimal impact on market participants. As proposed, from the perspective of market participants, even if the Exchange were impaired, the SIP would publish a Nasdaq Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities on behalf of the Exchange in a manner that would be no different than if the Exchange were not impaired. If the Exchange determines that it is impaired after 3:00 p.m., market participants would not have to make any system changes. If the Exchange determines that it is impaired before 3:00 p.m., EST, and designates an alternate exchange, market participants may have to do systems work to re-direct closing-only orders to the alternate exchange. However, the Exchange understands, based on input from market participants, that such changes would be feasible based on the amount of advance notice.
In addition, the Exchange believes that designating an alternate exchange when there is sufficient time to do so would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would allow for the price-discovery mechanism of a closing auction to be available for impacted Exchange-listed securities
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather to provide for how the Exchange would determine an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is impaired and cannot conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue. The proposal has been crafted with input from market participants, Nasdaq, and the SIPs, and is designed to reduce the burden on competition by having similar back-up procedures across all primary listing exchanges if such exchange is impaired and cannot conduct a closing transaction.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
ICE Clear Europe is proposing certain rule changes relating to the delegation by the ICE Clear Europe Board of Directors to its President and Managing Director (acting together with the Head of Regulation) of authority to approve certain rule and procedure amendments.
In its filing with the Commission, ICE Clear Europe included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICE Clear Europe has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the changes is to authorize the President and Managing Director of ICE Clear Europe, acting together with the Head of Regulation, to approve certain amendments to the ICE Clear Europe Clearing Rules and Procedures, without the need for specific Board approval. Under existing practice, consistent with the ICE Clear Europe Articles, all Rule and Procedure amendments, regardless of significance, require Board approval. In light of its experience with this practice, the ICE Clear Europe Board has determined that certain categories of Rule and Procedure changes do not necessarily need Board approval, as discussed herein.
Accordingly, the ICE Clear Europe Board proposes to delegate to the President and Managing Director, acting together with the Head of Regulation, authority to approve Rule and Procedure amendments relating to business-as-usual product launches and operational processes. These categories of amendments would include, for example, amendments relating to launches of new cleared products of the same types as currently cleared, amendments that reflect changes in operational practices and processes, and drafting clarifications, updates and corrections to errors. Such amendments would not be required to be submitted for approval to the Board. The delegation will not otherwise affect other aspects of the Rule and Procedure amendment process, including the role of the relevant Risk Committees, consultation with Clearing Members and others as appropriate, internal regulatory, business and operational reviews and internal or external legal review, as appropriate. The delegation, of course, will also not affect regulatory submission, filing and approval requirements, as applicable. ICE Clear Europe management will report to the Board any Rule and Procedure amendments approved under this delegated authority.
The delegation does not apply to Rule and Procedure changes amendments [sic] that are required to ensure compliance with relevant legislation directed at ICE Clear Europe as a clearing organization. Accordingly, such amendments will continue to require Board approval. In addition, even for amendments that may be approved by the President and Managing Director (acting together with the Head of Regulation), the delegation would not
In ICE Clear Europe's view, the proposed delegation will provide an efficient means of approving minor Rule and Procedure changes, consistent with the governance requirements of the clearing house. In light of its experience with the current approval practice, ICE Clear Europe believes that the categories of rule and procedure amendments being delegated do not typically rise to the level of significance that warrants Board approval, and that requiring the Board to review and approve such amendments is not necessarily a good use of the Board's time and resources. In approving the delegation of authority, the Board concluded that the internal review, consultation and regulatory processes around the rule amendment process will ensure appropriate review and consideration of any proposed amendments.
ICE Clear Europe believes that the changes described herein are consistent with the requirements of section 17A of the Act
ICE Clear Europe does not believe the proposed changes to the rules would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The amendments relate to ICE Clear Europe's internal approval processes, and ICE Clear Europe does not believe that these changes will impose any additional costs on Clearing Members or other market participants. ICE Clear Europe further does not believe that the amendments will adversely affect access to clearing by Clearing Members or their customers or otherwise adversely affect Clearing Members or market participants or the market for clearing services generally.
Written comments relating to the proposed changes to the rules have not been solicited or received. ICE Clear Europe will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICE Clear Europe.
The foregoing rule change has become effective upon filing pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule changes are consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2016-002 and should be submitted on or before April 1, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend Exchange Rule 11.27(b) regarding the requirements for the collection and transmission of data pursuant to Appendices B and C of the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, NYSE Group, Inc., on behalf of BZX, BATS Y-Exchange, Inc., Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. (“CHX”), EDGA Exchange, Inc., EDGX Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”), NYSE MKT LLC, and NYSE Arca, Inc. (collectively “Participants”), filed with the Commission, pursuant to section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stocks of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan. As is described more fully below, the proposed rules would require Members
The Pilot will include stocks of companies with $3 billion or less in market capitalization, an average daily trading volume of one million shares or less, and a volume weighted average price of at least $2.00 for every trading day. The Pilot will consist of a control group of approximately 1400 Pilot Securities and three test groups with 400 Pilot Securities in each (selected by a stratified random sampling process).
In approving the Plan, the Commission noted that the Trading Center data reporting requirements would facilitate an analysis of the effects of the Pilot on liquidity (
The Plan contains requirements for collecting and transmitting data to the Commission and to the public.
Appendix B.II of the Plan (Market and Marketable Limit Order Data) requires Trading Centers to submit information relating to market orders and marketable limit orders, including the time of order receipt, order type, the order size, the National Best Bid and National Best Offer (“NBBO”) quoted price, the NBBO quoted depth, the average execution price-share-weighted average, and the average execution time-share-weighted average.
The Plan requires Appendix B.I and B.II data to be submitted by Participants that operate a Trading Center, and by members of the Participants that operate Trading Centers. The Plan provides that each Participant that is the Designated Examining Authority (“DEA”) for a member of the Participant that operates a Trading Center shall collect such data in a pipe delimited format, beginning six months prior to the Pilot Period and ending six months after the end of the Pilot Period. The Plan also requires the Participant, operating as DEA, to transmit this information to the SEC within 30 calendar days following month end.
On February 10, 2016, the Commission approved a proposed rule change by the Exchange to adopt Rule 11.27(b) which sets forth Member's requirements for the collection and transmission of data pursuant to Appendices B and C of the Plan.
Appendix B.IV (Daily Market Maker Participation Statistics) requires a Participant to collect data related to Market Maker participation from each Market Maker
Appendix C.I (Market Maker Profitability) requires a Participant to collect data related to Market Maker profitability from each Market Maker for which it is the DEA. Specifically, the Participant is required to collect the total number of shares of orders executed by the Market Maker; the raw Market Maker realized trading profits, and the raw Market Maker unrealized trading profits. Data is to be collected for dates starting six months prior to the Pilot Period through six months after the end of the Pilot Period. This data is to be collected on a monthly basis, to be provided in a pipe delimited format to the Participant, as DEA, within 30 calendar days following month end. Appendix C.II (Aggregated Market Maker Profitability) requires the Participant, as DEA, to aggregate the Appendix C.I data, and to categorize this data by security as well as by the control group and each Test Group. That aggregated data will contain information relating to total raw Market Maker realized trading profits, volume-weighted average of raw Market Maker realized trading profits, the total raw Market Maker unrealized trading profits, and the volume-weighted average of Market Maker unrealized trading profits.
Exchange Rule 11.27(b)(4) sets forth the requirements for the collection and transmission of data pursuant to Appendix C.I of the Plan. Rule 11.27(b)(4)(A) requires that a Member that is a Market Maker shall collect and transmit to their DEA the data described in Item I of Appendix C of the Plan with respect to executions in Pilot Securities that have settled or reached settlement date that were executed on any Trading Center. The rule also requires Members to provide such data in a format required by their DEA by 12 p.m. EST on T+4 for executions during and outside of Regular Trading Hours in each: (i) Pre-Pilot Data Collection Security for the period beginning six months prior to the Pilot Period through the trading day immediately preceding the Pilot Period; and (ii) Pilot Security for the period beginning on the first day of the Pilot Period through six months after the end of the Pilot Period.
FINRA and CHX are Participants of the Plan and are to collect data relating to Item IV of Appendix B of the Plan and Item I of Appendix C of the Plan on behalf of the Participants. For Trading Centers for which it is the DEA, FINRA issued a Market Maker Transaction Data Technical Specification to collect data on Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities and Pilot Securities from Trading Centers to comply with the Plan's data
FINRA and CHX serve as DEA for a large majority of Members. However, the Exchange understands that some Members that are Market Makers do not utilize FINRA or CHX as their DEA and have a DEA that is not a Participant to the Plan and, therefore, not subject to the Plan's data collection requirements. For example, the Chicago Board Options Exchange, Inc, (“CBOE”) is not a Participant to the Plan and acts as DEA for a small portion of the Exchange's Members. In such case, a DEA that is not a Participant of the Plan would not be required to collect the required data and may not establish procedures for which Members it acts a DEA for to report the data required under subparagraphs (b)(3)(A) and (b)(4)(A) of Rule 11.27 and in accordance with Item IV of Appendix B and Item I of Appendix C of the Plan. Therefore, the Exchange proposes to adopt subparagraph (b)(3)(B) to Rule 11.27 to require a Member that is a Market Maker whose DEA is not a Participant to the Plan to transmit the data collected pursuant to paragraph (3)(A) of Rule 11.27(b) to FINRA. The Exchange also proposes to adopt paragraph (b)(4)(B) of Rule 11.27 to require a Member that is a Market Maker whose DEA is not a Participant to the Plan to transmit the data collected pursuant to paragraph (4)(A) of Rule 11.27(b) to FINRA.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is necessary to ensure that all of its Members are able to report the data required by subparagraphs (b)(3)(A) and (b)(4)(A) of Rule 11.27 in compliance with the Plan. As noted above, FINRA has established a process by which they are to collect data relating to Item IV of Appendix B and Item I of Appendix C of the Plan on behalf of the Participants for those Members that it serves as DEA.
Like data collected by a DEA that is a Participant, Market Makers would be required to transmit the data required by subparagraphs (b)(3)(A) and (b)(4)(A) of the Rule 11.27 in a format required by FINRA by 12:00 p.m. EST on T+4 for: (i) Transactions in each Pre-Pilot Data Collection Security for the period beginning six months prior to the Pilot Period through the trading day immediately preceding the Pilot Period; and (ii) for transactions in each Pilot Security for the period beginning on the first day of the Pilot Period through six months after the end of the Pilot Period.
Lastly, the Exchange proposes to amend current Exchange Rule 11.27(b)(3)(B). Current Exchange Rule 11.27(b)(3)(B) provides that the Exchange shall transmit the data collected by the DEA pursuant to Rule 11.27(b)(3)(A) above relating to Market Maker activity on a Trading Center operated by the Exchange to the SEC in a pipe delimited format within 30 calendar days following month end. This subparagraph would be renumbered as Rule 11.27(b)(3)(C) and amended to include the data collected by FINRA pursuant to subparagraph (b)(3)(B) as part of the Exchange's submission to the SEC. The Exchange shall also make such data publicly available on the Exchange Web site on a monthly basis at no charge and shall not identify the Trading Center that generated the data.
The proposed rule change will be effective on April 4, 2016.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change ensures all Members are able to report the data required by subparagraphs (b)(3)(A) and (b)(4)(A) of Rule 11.27 in compliance with the Plan and is designed to assist the Exchange in meeting its regulatory obligations pursuant of the Plan. The Exchange also notes that the data collection requirements for Members that operate Trading Centers will apply equally to all such Members, as will the data collection requirements for Market Makers.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and (a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
Pointbreak Advisers LLC (“Pointbreak Advisers”), Pointbreak ETF Trust (the “Trust”), and ALPS Distributors, Inc. (the “Distributor”).
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on April 1, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Pointbreak Advisers and Trust, P.O. Box 347312, San Francisco, CA 94134; Distributor, 1290 Broadway, Suite 1100, Denver, CO 80203.
Hae-Sung Lee, Attorney-Adviser, at (202) 551-7345; Bruce MacNeil, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6817 or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Trust, a Delaware statutory trust, is registered with the Commission as an open-end management investment company. Applicants are seeking an order (“Order”) to permit the Trust, which is organized as a series fund, to operate a series with an actively managed investment portfolio (the “Initial Fund”). Applicants currently expect the Initial Fund to be the Pointbreak Diversified Commodity Fund. The Initial Fund is an actively managed ETF (defined below) that seeks long-term capital appreciation.
2. Pointbreak Advisers, a Delaware limited liability company, is registered with the Commission as an investment adviser under the Investment Adviser Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act”), and will be the investment adviser to the Initial Fund. The Adviser (as defined below) may enter into sub-advisory agreements with investment advisers to act as sub-advisers with respect to the Funds (as defined below) (each, a “Sub-Adviser”). Applicants state that any Sub-Adviser will be registered, or not subject to registration, under the Advisers Act. The Distributor is a registered broker-dealer (“Broker”) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) and will act as the distributor and principal underwriter of the Funds (the “Distributor”).
3. Applicants request that the Order apply to the Initial Fund and any future series of the Trust or of any other open-end management companies that may utilize active management investment strategies (collectively, “Future Funds”). Any Future Fund will (a) be advised by Pointbreak Advisers or an entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with Pointbreak Advisers (Pointbreak Advisers and each such other entity and any successor thereto included in the term “Adviser”),
4. Applicants request that any exemption under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) apply to: (i) Any Fund that is currently or subsequently part of the same “group of investment companies” as the Initial Fund within the meaning of section 12(d)(1)(G)(ii) of the Act; (ii) any principal underwriter for the Fund; (iii) any Brokers selling Shares of a Fund to an Investing Fund (as defined below); and (iv) each management investment company or unit investment trust registered under the Act that is not part of the same “group of investment companies” as the Funds, and that enters into a FOF Participation Agreement (as defined below) with a Fund (such management investment companies, “Investing Management Companies,” such unit investment trusts, “Investing Trusts,” and Investing Management Companies and Investing Trusts together, “Investing Funds”). Investing Funds do not include the Funds.
5. Applicants anticipate that a Creation Unit will consist of at least 20,000 Shares. Applicants anticipate that the trading price of a Share will range from $10 to $100. All orders to purchase Creation Units must be placed with the Distributor by or through a party that has entered into a participant agreement with the Distributor and the transfer agent of the Fund (“Authorized Participant”) with respect to the creation and redemption of Creation Units. An Authorized Participant is either: (a) A Broker or other participant in the Continuous Net Settlement System of the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), a clearing agency registered with the Commission and affiliated with the Depository Trust Company (“DTC”), or (b) a participant in the DTC (“DTC Participant”).
6. In order to keep costs low and permit each Fund to be as fully invested as possible, Shares will be purchased and redeemed in Creation Units and generally on an in-kind basis. Except where the purchase or redemption will include cash under the limited circumstances specified below, purchasers will be required to purchase Creation Units by making an in-kind deposit of specified instruments (“Deposit Instruments”), and shareholders redeeming their Shares will receive an in-kind transfer of specified instruments (“Redemption Instruments”).
7. Purchases and redemptions of Creation Units may be made in whole or in part on a cash basis, rather than in-kind, solely under the following circumstances: (a) To the extent there is a Cash Amount, as described above; (b) if, on a given Business Day, a Fund announces before the open of trading that all purchases, all redemptions or all purchases and redemptions on that day will be made entirely in cash; (c) if, upon receiving a purchase or redemption order from an Authorized Participant, a Fund determines to require the purchase or redemption, as applicable, to be made entirely in cash; (d) if, on a given Business Day, a Fund requires all Authorized Participants purchasing or redeeming Shares on that day to deposit or receive (as applicable) cash in lieu of some or all of the Deposit Instruments or Redemption Instruments, respectively, solely because: (i) Such instruments are not eligible for transfer through either the NSCC or DTC; or (ii) in the case of Funds holding non-U.S. investments (“Global Funds”), such instruments are not eligible for trading due to local trading restrictions, local restrictions on securities transfers or other similar circumstances; or (e) if a Fund permits an Authorized Participant to deposit or receive (as applicable) cash in lieu of some or all of the Deposit Instruments or Redemption Instruments, respectively, solely because: (i) Such instruments are, in the case of the purchase of a Creation Unit, not available in sufficient quantity; (ii) such instruments are not eligible for trading by an Authorized Participant or the investor on whose behalf the Authorized Participant is acting; or (iii) a holder of Shares of a Global Fund would be subject to unfavorable income tax treatment if the holder receives redemption proceeds in-kind.
8. Each Business Day, before the open of trading on a national securities exchange, as defined in section 2(a)(26) of the Act (“Stock Exchange”), on which Shares are listed, each Fund will cause to be published through the NSCC the names and quantities of the instruments comprising the Creation Basket, as well as the estimated Cash Amount (if any), for that day. The published Creation Basket will apply until a new Creation Basket is announced on the following Business Day, and there will be no intra-day changes to the Creation Basket except to correct errors in the published Creation Basket. The Stock Exchange will disseminate every 15 seconds throughout the trading day through the facilities of the Consolidated Tape Association an amount representing, on a per Share basis, the sum of the current value of the Portfolio Instruments that were publicly disclosed prior to the commencement of trading in Shares on the Stock Exchange.
9. A Fund may recoup the settlement costs charged by NSCC and DTC by imposing a transaction fee on investors purchasing or redeeming Creation Units (the “Transaction Fee”). The Transaction Fee will be borne only by purchasers and redeemers of Creation Units and will be limited to amounts that have been determined appropriate by the Adviser to defray the transaction expenses that will be incurred by a Fund when an investor purchases or redeems Creation Units.
10. Shares will be listed and traded at negotiated prices on a Stock Exchange and traded in the secondary market. Applicants expect that the Stock Exchange will select, or appoint one or more specialists or market makers (collectively, “Exchange Market Makers”) for the Shares of each Fund.
11. Applicants expect that purchasers of Creation Units will include arbitrageurs, and that Exchange Market Makers, acting in their unique role to provide a fair and orderly secondary market for Shares, also may purchase Creation Units for use in their own market making activities. Applicants expect that secondary market purchasers of Shares will include both institutional and retail investors.
12. Shares will not be individually redeemable and owners of Shares may acquire those Shares from a Fund, or tender such Shares for redemption to the Fund, in Creation Units only. To redeem, an investor must accumulate enough Shares to constitute a Creation Unit. Redemption requests must be placed by or through an Authorized Participant.
13. Neither the Trust nor any Fund will be marketed or otherwise held out as a “mutual fund.” Instead, each Fund will be marketed as an “actively managed exchange-traded fund.” In all advertising material where the features or method of obtaining, buying or selling Shares traded on the Stock Exchange are described, there will be an
14. The Funds' Web site, which will be publicly available prior to the public offering of Shares, will include a Prospectus and additional quantitative information updated on a daily basis, including, on a per Share basis for each Fund, the prior Business Day's NAV and the market closing price or mid-point of the bid/ask spread at the time of the calculation of such NAV (“Bid/Ask Price”), and a calculation of the premium or discount of the market closing price or Bid/Ask Price against such NAV. On each Business Day, before commencement of trading in Shares on the Stock Exchange, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the identities and quantities of the Portfolio Instruments held by the Fund (including any short positions held in securities) that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the Business Day.
1. Applicants request an order under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d) and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
2. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security or transaction, or any class of persons, securities or transactions, from any provisions of the Act, if and to the extent that such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to exempt a proposed transaction from section 17(a) of the Act if evidence establishes that the terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid or received, are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, and the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of the registered investment company and the general provisions of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
3. Section 5(a)(1) of the Act defines an “open-end company” as a management investment company that is offering for sale or has outstanding any redeemable security of which it is the issuer. Section 2(a)(32) of the Act defines a redeemable security as any security, other than short-term paper, under the terms of which the holder, upon its presentation to the issuer, is entitled to receive approximately a proportionate share of the issuer's current net assets, or the cash equivalent. Because Shares will not be individually redeemable, applicants request an order that would permit the Trust to redeem Shares in Creation Units only. Applicants state that investors may purchase Shares in Creation Units from each Fund and redeem Creation Units from each Fund. Applicants further state that because the market price of Creation Units will be disciplined by arbitrage opportunities, investors should be able to sell Shares in the secondary market at prices that do not vary materially from their NAV.
4. Section 22(d) of the Act, among other things, prohibits a dealer from selling a redeemable security that is currently being offered to the public by or through a principal underwriter, except at a current public offering price described in the prospectus. Rule 22c-1 under the Act generally requires that a dealer selling, redeeming, or repurchasing a redeemable security do so only at a price based on its NAV. Applicants state that secondary market trading in Shares will take place at negotiated prices, not at a current offering price described in the Prospectus, and not at a price based on NAV. Thus, purchases and sales of Shares in the secondary market will not comply with section 22(d) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act. Applicants request an exemption under section 6(c) from these provisions.
5. Applicants assert that the concerns sought to be addressed by section 22(d) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act with respect to pricing are equally satisfied by the proposed method of pricing Shares. Applicants maintain that while there is little legislative history regarding section 22(d), its provisions, as well as those of rule 22c-1, appear to have been designed to (a) prevent dilution caused by certain riskless-trading schemes by principal underwriters and contract dealers, (b) prevent unjust discrimination or preferential treatment among buyers resulting from sales at different prices, and (c) assure an orderly distribution system of investment company shares by eliminating price competition from brokers offering shares at less than the published sales price and repurchasing shares at more than the published redemption price.
6. Applicants believe that none of these purposes will be thwarted by permitting Shares to trade in the secondary market at negotiated prices. Applicants state that secondary market trading in Shares does not involve the Funds as parties and cannot result in dilution of an investment in Shares, and to the extent different prices exist during a given trading day, or from day to day, such variances occur as a result of third-party market forces, such as supply and demand. Therefore, applicants assert that secondary market transactions in Shares will not lead to discrimination or preferential treatment among purchasers. Finally, applicants contend that the proposed distribution system will be orderly because arbitrage activity should ensure that the difference between the market price of Shares and their NAV remains narrow.
7. Section 22(e) of the Act generally prohibits a registered investment company from suspending the right of redemption or postponing the date of payment of redemption proceeds for more than seven days after the tender of a security for redemption. Applicants observe that settlement of redemptions of Creation Units of Global Funds is contingent not only on the settlement cycle of the U.S. securities markets but also on the delivery cycles present in foreign markets in which those Funds invest. Applicants have been advised that, under certain circumstances, the delivery cycles for transferring Portfolio Instruments to redeeming investors, coupled with local market holiday schedules, will require a delivery process of up to fourteen (14) calendar days. Applicants therefore request relief from section 22(e) in order to provide payment or satisfaction of redemptions within the maximum number of calendar days required for such payment or satisfaction in the principal
8. Applicants state that section 22(e) was designed to prevent unreasonable, undisclosed and unforeseen delays in the actual payment of redemption proceeds. Applicants assert that the requested relief will not lead to the problems that section 22(e) was designed to prevent. Applicants state that allowing redemption payments for Creation Units of a Fund to be made within a maximum of fourteen (14) calendar days would not be inconsistent with the spirit and intent of section 22(e). Applicants state each Global Fund's statement of additional information (“SAI”) will disclose those local holidays (over the period of at least one year following the date of the SAI), if any, that are expected to prevent the delivery of redemption proceeds in seven calendar days and the maximum number of days needed to deliver the proceeds for each affected Global Fund. Applicants are not seeking relief from section 22(e) with respect to Global Funds that do not affect redemptions in-kind.
9. Section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act prohibits a registered investment company from acquiring shares of an investment company if the securities represent more than 3% of the total outstanding voting stock of the acquired company, more than 5% of the total assets of the acquiring company, or, together with the securities of any other investment companies, more than 10% of the total assets of the acquiring company. Section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act prohibits a registered open-end investment company, its principal underwriter, or any other broker or dealer from selling its shares to another investment company if the sale will cause the acquiring company to own more than 3% of the acquired company's voting stock, or if the sale will cause more than 10% of the acquired company's voting stock to be owned by investment companies generally.
10. Applicants request relief to permit Investing Funds to acquire Shares in excess of the limits in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act and to permit the Funds, their principal underwriters and any Broker to sell Shares to Investing Funds in excess of the limits in section 12(d)(l)(B) of the Act. Applicants submit that the proposed conditions to the requested relief address the concerns underlying the limits in section 12(d)(1), which include concerns about undue influence, excessive layering of fees and overly complex structures.
11. Applicants submit that their proposed conditions address any concerns regarding the potential for undue influence. To limit the control that an Investing Fund may have over a Fund, applicants propose a condition prohibiting the adviser of an Investing Management Company (“Investing Fund Adviser”), sponsor of an Investing Trust (“Sponsor”), any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Investing Fund Adviser or Sponsor, and any investment company or issuer that would be an investment company but for sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act that is advised or sponsored by the Investing Fund Adviser, the Sponsor, or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Investing Fund Adviser or Sponsor (“Investing Fund's Advisory Group”) from controlling (individually or in the aggregate) a Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. The same prohibition would apply to any sub-adviser to an Investing Management Company (“Investing Fund Sub-Adviser”), any person controlling, controlled by or under common control with the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser, and any investment company or issuer that would be an investment company but for sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act (or portion of such investment company or issuer) advised or sponsored by the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser or any person controlling, controlled by or under common control with the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser (“Investing Fund's Sub-Advisory Group”).
12. Applicants propose a condition to ensure that no Investing Fund or Investing Fund Affiliate
13. Applicants propose several conditions to address the potential for layering of fees. Applicants note that the board of directors or trustees of any Investing Management Company, including a majority of the directors or trustees who are not “interested persons” within the meaning of section 2(a)(19) of the Act (“independent directors or trustees”), will be required to find that the advisory fees charged under the contract are based on services provided that will be in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided under the advisory contract of any Fund in which the Investing Management Company may invest. Applicants also state that any sales charges and/or service fees charged with respect to shares of an Investing Fund will not exceed the limits applicable to a fund of funds as set forth in NASD Conduct Rule 2830.
14. Applicants submit that the proposed arrangement will not create an overly complex fund structure. Applicants note that a Fund will be prohibited from acquiring securities of any investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act in excess of the limits contained in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, other than a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary,
15. To ensure that an Investing Fund is aware of the terms and conditions of the requested Order, the Investing Funds must enter into an agreement with the respective Funds (“FOF Participation Agreement”). The FOF Participation Agreement will include an acknowledgement from the Investing Fund that it may rely on the Order only to invest in a Fund and not in any other investment company.
16. Section 17(a) of the Act generally prohibits an affiliated person of a registered investment company, or an affiliated person of such a person (“second-tier affiliate”), from selling any security to or purchasing any security from the company. Section 2(a)(3) of the Act defines “affiliated person” to include any person directly or indirectly owning, controlling, or holding with power to vote, 5% or more of the outstanding voting securities of the other person and any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with, the other person. Section 2(a)(9) of the Act defines “control” as the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a company and provides that a control relationship will be presumed where one person owns more than 25% of another person's voting securities. Each Fund may be deemed to be controlled by an Adviser and hence affiliated persons of each other. In addition, the Funds may be deemed to be under common control with any other registered investment company (or series thereof) advised by an Adviser (an “Affiliated Fund”).
17. Applicants request an exemption under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act to permit in-kind purchases and redemptions of Creation Units by persons that are affiliated persons or second-tier affiliates of the Funds solely by virtue of one or more of the following: (a) Holding 5% or more, or in excess of 25% of the outstanding Shares of one or more Funds; (b) having an affiliation with a person with an ownership interest described in (a); or (c) holding 5% or more, or more than 25% of the Shares of one or more Affiliated Funds.
18. Applicants assert that no useful purpose would be served by prohibiting such affiliated persons from making in-kind purchases or in-kind redemptions of Shares of a Fund in Creation Units. Absent the unusual circumstances discussed in the application, the Deposit Instruments and Redemption Instruments available for a Fund will be the same for all purchasers and redeemers, respectively, and will correspond
19. Applicants also submit that the sale of Shares to and redemption of Shares from an Investing Fund meets the standards for relief under sections 17(b) and 6(c) of the Act. Applicants note that any consideration paid for the purchase or redemption of Shares directly from a Fund will be based on the NAV of the Fund in accordance with policies and procedures set forth in the Fund's registration statement.
Applicants agree that any Order of the Commission granting the requested relief will be subject to the following conditions:
1. As long as a Fund operates in reliance on the requested Order, the Shares of the Fund will be listed on a Stock Exchange.
2. Neither the Trust nor any Fund will be advertised or marketed as an open-end investment company or a mutual fund. Any advertising material that describes the purchase or sale of Creation Units or refers to redeemability will prominently disclose that the Shares are not individually redeemable and that owners of the Shares may acquire those Shares from the Fund and tender those Shares for redemption to the Fund in Creation Units only.
3. The Web site for the Funds, which is and will be publicly accessible at no charge, will contain, on a per Share basis, for each Fund the prior Business Day's NAV and the market closing price or Bid/Ask Price, and a calculation of the premium or discount of the market closing price or Bid/Ask Price against such NAV.
4. On each Business Day, before commencement of trading in Shares on the Stock Exchange, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the identities and quantities of the Portfolio Instruments held by the Fund that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the Business Day.
5. The Adviser or any Sub-Adviser, directly or indirectly, will not cause any Authorized Participant (or any investor on whose behalf an Authorized Participant may transact with the Fund) to acquire any Deposit Instrument for the Fund through a transaction in which the Fund could not engage directly.
6. The requested relief to permit ETF operations will expire on the effective
1. The members of the Investing Fund's Advisory Group will not control (individually or in the aggregate) a Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. The members of the Investing Fund's Sub-Advisory Group will not control (individually or in the aggregate) a Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. If, as a result of a decrease in the outstanding voting securities of a Fund, the Investing Fund's Advisory Group or the Investing Fund's Sub-Advisory Group, each in the aggregate, becomes a holder of more than 25 percent of the outstanding voting securities of a Fund, it will vote its Shares of the Fund in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the Fund's Shares. This condition does not apply to the Investing Fund's Sub-Advisory Group with respect to a Fund for which the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser or a person controlling, controlled by or under common control with the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser acts as the investment adviser within the meaning of section 2(a)(20)(A) of the Act.
2. No Investing Fund or Investing Fund Affiliate will cause any existing or potential investment by the Investing Fund in a Fund to influence the terms of any services or transactions between the Investing Fund or an Investing Fund Affiliate and the Fund or a Fund Affiliate.
3. The board of directors or trustees of an Investing Management Company, including a majority of the independent directors or trustees, will adopt procedures reasonably designed to ensure that the Investing Fund Adviser and any Investing Fund Sub-Adviser are conducting the investment program of the Investing Management Company without taking into account any consideration received by the Investing Management Company or an Investing Fund Affiliate from a Fund or a Fund Affiliate in connection with any services or transactions.
4. Once an investment by an Investing Fund in the Shares of a Fund exceeds the limit in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, the Board of a Fund, including a majority of the independent directors or trustees, will determine that any consideration paid by the Fund to the Investing Fund or an Investing Fund Affiliate in connection with any services or transactions: (i) Is fair and reasonable in relation to the nature and quality of the services and benefits received by the Fund; (ii) is within the range of consideration that the Fund would be required to pay to another unaffiliated entity in connection with the same services or transactions; and (iii) does not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned. This condition does not apply with respect to any services or transactions between a Fund and its investment adviser(s), or any person controlling, controlled by or under common control with such investment adviser(s).
5. The Investing Fund Adviser, or trustee or Sponsor, as applicable, will waive fees otherwise payable to it by the Investing Fund in an amount at least equal to any compensation (including fees received pursuant to any plan adopted by a Fund under rule 12b-1 under the Act) received from a Fund by the Investing Fund Adviser, or trustee or Sponsor, or an affiliated person of the Investing Fund Adviser, or trustee or Sponsor, other than any advisory fees paid to the Investing Fund Adviser, or trustee, or Sponsor, or its affiliated person by the Fund, in connection with the investment by the Investing Fund in the Fund. Any Investing Fund Sub-Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser, directly or indirectly, by the Investing Management Company in an amount at least equal to any compensation received from a Fund by the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser, other than any advisory fees paid to the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser or its affiliated person by the Fund, in connection with the investment by the Investing Management Company in the Fund made at the direction of the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser. In the event that the Investing Fund Sub-Adviser waives fees, the benefit of the waiver will be passed through to the Investing Management Company.
6. No Investing Fund or Investing Fund Affiliate (except to the extent it is acting in its capacity as an investment adviser to a Fund) will cause a Fund to purchase a security in an Affiliated Underwriting.
7. The Board of a Fund, including a majority of the independent directors or trustees, will adopt procedures reasonably designed to monitor any purchases of securities by the Fund in an Affiliated Underwriting, once an investment by an Investing Fund in the securities of the Fund exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, including any purchases made directly from an Underwriting Affiliate. The Board will review these purchases periodically, but no less frequently than annually, to determine whether the purchases were influenced by the investment by the Investing Fund in the Fund. The Board will consider, among other things: (i) Whether the purchases were consistent with the investment objectives and policies of the Fund; (ii) how the performance of securities purchased in an Affiliated Underwriting compares to the performance of comparable securities purchased during a comparable period of time in underwritings other than Affiliated Underwritings or to a benchmark such as a comparable market index; and (iii) whether the amount of securities purchased by the Fund in Affiliated Underwritings and the amount purchased directly from an Underwriting Affiliate have changed significantly from prior years. The Board will take any appropriate actions based on its review, including, if appropriate, the institution of procedures designed to assure that purchases of securities in Affiliated Underwritings are in the best interest of shareholders of the Fund.
8. Each Fund will maintain and preserve permanently in an easily accessible place a written copy of the procedures described in the preceding condition, and any modifications to such procedures, and will maintain and preserve for a period of not less than six years from the end of the fiscal year in which any purchase in an Affiliated Underwriting occurred, the first two years in an easily accessible place, a written record of each purchase of securities in Affiliated Underwritings once an investment by an Investing Fund in the securities of the Fund exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, setting forth from whom the securities were acquired, the identity of the underwriting syndicate's members, the terms of the purchase, and the information or materials upon which the Board's determinations were made.
9. Before investing in a Fund in excess of the limits in section 12(d)(1)(A), an Investing Fund will execute a FOF Participation Agreement with the Fund stating that their respective boards of directors or trustees and their investment advisers, or trustee and Sponsor, as applicable, understand the terms and conditions of the Order, and agree to fulfill their responsibilities under the Order. At the time of its investment in Shares of a Fund in excess of the limit in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i), an Investing Fund will notify the Fund of the investment. At such time, the Investing Fund will also transmit to the Fund a list of the names of each Investing Fund Affiliate and
10. Before approving any advisory contract under section 15 of the Act, the board of directors or trustees of each Investing Management Company, including a majority of the independent directors or trustees, will find that the advisory fees charged under such contract are based on services provided that will be in addition to, rather than duplicative of, the services provided under the advisory contract(s) of any Fund in which the Investing Management Company may invest. These findings and their basis will be recorded fully in the minute books of the appropriate Investing Management Company.
11. Any sales charges and/or service fees charged with respect to shares of an Investing Fund will not exceed the limits applicable to a fund of funds as set forth in NASD Conduct Rule 2830.
12. No Fund relying on the section 12(d)(1) relief will acquire securities of any investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act in excess of the limits contained in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, except to the extent (i) permitted by exemptive relief from the Commission permitting the Fund to purchase shares of other investment companies for short-term cash management purposes or (ii) the Fund invests in a Wholly-Owned Subsidiary that is a wholly-owned and controlled subsidiary of the Fund as described in the Application. Further, no Wholly-Owned Subsidiary will acquire securities of any other investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act other than money market funds that comply with rule 2a-7 for short-term cash management purposes.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA).
Notice of open Hearing of Region VIII Small Business Owners to be held in Sioux Falls, South Dakota.
The SBA, Office of the National Ombudsman is issuing this notice to announce the location, date and time of the Sioux Falls, South Dakota Regulatory Fairness Hearing. This hearing is open to the public.
The hearing will be held on Thursday, March 24, 2016, from 10:30 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. (CST).
The hearing will be at the Siouxland Libraries—Oak View Branch, 3700 E. 3rd Street, Sioux Falls, SD 57103.
Pursuant to the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (Pub. L. 104-121), Sec. 222, SBA announces the hearing for Small Business Owners, Business Organizations, Trade Associations, Chambers of Commerce and related organizations serving small business concerns to report experiences regarding unfair or excessive Federal regulatory enforcement issues affecting their members.
The hearing is open to the public; however, advance notice of attendance is requested. Anyone wishing to attend and/or make a presentation at the Sioux Falls, South Dakota hearing must contact Elahe Zahirieh by March 17, 2016, in writing, by fax at (202) 481-5719 or email at
For more information on the Office of the National Ombudsman, see our Web site at
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to May 10, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You must include the DS form number, information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to PPT Forms Officer, U.S. Department of State, CA/PPT/S/L 44132 Mercure Cir, P.O. Box 1227, Sterling, VA 20166-1227, or at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Department of State.
Notice.
Delegates from the United States and Mexican governments, the states of Texas and New Mexico, and the Mexican states of Chihuahua, Coahuila, Nuevo Leon, and Tamaulipas, will participate in the Texas-New Mexico Regional Meeting of the U.S.-Mexico Binational Bridges and Border Crossings Group on Wednesday, March 16, 2016 in Chihuahua, Chihuahua, Mexico. The purpose of this meeting is to discuss operational matters involving existing and proposed international bridges and border crossings and their related infrastructure, and to exchange views on policy as well as technical information. This meeting will include a public session on Wednesday, March 16, 2016, from 8:45 a.m. until 10:45 a.m. This session will allow proponents of proposed bridges and border crossings and related projects to make presentations to the delegations and members of the public.
For further information on the meeting and to attend the public session, please contact the Mexico Desk's Border Affairs Unit, via email at
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to May 10, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You must include the DS form number, information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to PPT Forms Officer, U.S. Department of State, CA/PPT/S/L 44132 Mercure Cir, P.O. Box 1227 Sterling, VA 20166-1227, or at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
Norfolk Southern Railway Company (NSR), pursuant to a trackage rights agreement dated February 11, 2016, has agreed to grant Chicago Central & Pacific Railroad Company, Grand Trunk Western Railroad Company, Illinois Central Railroad Company, and Wisconsin Central Ltd. (collectively, CN Roads) overhead trackage rights in Chicago, Cook County, Ill., as follows: (1) Over NSR's portion of rail line known as the CREATE Western Avenue Corridor, between milepost UW 0.0 (CP 518) and milepost UW 5.3 (Ogden Junction), a distance of approximately 5.3 miles; and (2) over a portion of NSR's CREATE project WA7 track (when constructed), between Brighton Park and 21st Street, including that portion of track that connects to BNSF Railway Company's Chillicothe Subdivision.
CN Roads may consummate the transaction on or after March 25, 2016, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the verified notice of exemption was filed).
According to CN Roads, the proposed trackage rights are intended to facilitate CREATE-related track projects (and transfers), and CN Roads will be granted the subject trackage rights as part of a series of transactions designed to promote railroad traffic fluidity in Chicago.
As a condition to this exemption, any employees affected by the trackage rights will be protected by the conditions imposed in
This notice is filed under 49 CFR 1180.2(d)(7). If the notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed by March 18, 2016 (at least seven days before the exemption becomes effective).
An original and 10 copies of all pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 35961, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on Robert A. Wimbish, Fletcher & Sippel LLC, 29 North Wacker Drive, Suite 920, Chicago, IL 60606.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of cancellation of policy statement.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces the cancellation of Policy Statement Number ANM-03-117-09. The policy statement is cancelled because it was superseded by an advisory circular (AC) and is no longer necessary.
This policy statement is cancelled on March 11, 2016.
Linh Le, Federal Aviation Administration, Transport Airplane Directorate, Transport Standards Staff, Safety Management Branch, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356;
On January 15, 2004, the Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, issued Policy Statement Number ANM-03-117-09,
In December 2010, the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) issued the document, Aerospace Recommended Practice (ARP) 4754A,
As a result of the issuance of AC 20-174, Policy Statement Number ANM-03-117-09 is no longer in effect and is herewith cancelled.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of cancellation of policy statement.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces the cancellation of Policy Statement Number PS-ANM100-1986-00051. The policy statement is cancelled because it was superseded by an advisory circular (AC) and is no longer necessary.
This policy statement is cancelled on March 11, 2016.
Ian Won, Federal Aviation Administration, Transport Airplane Directorate, Transport Standards Staff, Airframe and Cabin Safety Branch, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-2145; fax (425) 227-1320; email:
On May 16, 1986, the Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, issued Policy Statement Number PS-ANM100-1986-00051,
The FAA issued AC 20-127,
As a result of the issuance of AC 20-127, Policy Statement Number PS-ANM100-1986-00051 is no longer in effect and is herewith cancelled.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of cancellation of policy statement.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces the cancellation of Policy Statement Number PS-ANM100-1982-00038. The policy statement is cancelled because it was superseded by an advisory circular (AC) and is no longer necessary.
This policy statement is cancelled on March 11, 2016.
Ian Won, Federal Aviation Administration, Transport Airplane Directorate, Transport Standards Staff, Airframe and Cabin Safety Branch, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-2145; fax (425) 227-1320; email:
On April 13, 1982, the Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, issued Policy Statement Number PS-ANM100-1982-00038,
The FAA issued AC 25.723-1,
As a result of the issuance of AC 25.723-1 and Amendment 25-103, Policy Statement Number PS-ANM100-1982-00038 is no longer in effect and is herewith cancelled.
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice of meeting.
This notice announces a public meeting of the Transit Advisory Committee for Safety (TRACS). TRACS is a Federal Advisory Committee established to provide information, advice and recommendations to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Transportation and the Federal Transit Administrator on matters relating to the safety of public transportation systems.
The TRACS meeting will be held on March 29, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., and March 30, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 1 p.m. Contact Bridget Zamperini (see contact information below) by March 18, 2016, if you wish to be added to the visitor's list to gain access to the meeting.
The meeting will be held at the National Association of Home Builders, 1201 15th Street NW., Washington, DC 20005.
Bridget Zamperini, Office of Transit Safety and Oversight (TSO), Federal Transit Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001 (telephone: 202-366-0306; or email:
This notice is provided in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C. App. 2). TRACS is composed of 29 members representing a broad base of expertise necessary to discharge its responsibilities. The tentative agenda for the March 29-30, 2016 meeting of TRACS is set forth below:
Members of the public wishing to attend and/or make an oral statement and participants seeking special accommodations at the meeting must contact Bridget Zamperini by March 18, 2016.
Members of the public may submit written comments or suggestions concerning the activities of TRACS at any time before or after the meeting at
Information from the meeting will be posted on FTA's public Web site at
Issued under the authority delegated at 49 CFR 1.91.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation.
Final notice.
NHTSA's ability to identify and define safety-related motor vehicle defects relies in large part on manufacturers' self-reporting. However, although federal regulations may require them to report certain information to NHTSA, manufacturers do not always do so, or do not do so in a timely manner. Additionally, the information a manufacturer is required to report varies greatly depending on the product and company size and purpose. Given these constraints, safety-related information developed or discovered in private litigation is an important resource for NHTSA.
This Enforcement Guidance Bulletin sets forth NHTSA's recommended guiding principles and best practices to be utilized in the context of private litigation. To the extent protective orders, settlement agreements, or other confidentiality provisions prohibit information obtained in private litigation from being transmitted to NHTSA, such limitations are contrary to Rule 26 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, its state corollaries, and sound principles of public policy. Although such restrictions are generally prohibited by applicable rules and law, the Agency recommends that litigants include a specific provision in any protective order or settlement agreement that provides for disclosure of relevant motor vehicle safety information to NHTSA, regardless of any other restrictions on the disclosure or dissemination of such information.
Kara Fischer, Office of the Chief Counsel, NCC-100, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590 (telephone: 202-366-8726).
On September 21, 2015, NHTSA published a proposed Enforcement Guidance Bulletin setting forth what the Agency had identified as best practices for private litigants utilizing protective orders and settlement agreements with confidentiality provisions. Recognizing the public interest in this topic, the Agency solicited public comment before issuing a final Enforcement Guidance Bulletin. In response to this request for comment, the Agency received 124 public submissions. Although several comments were submitted after the stated closing date of October 19, 2015, all comments submitted to the
While the majority of comments fully supported the Enforcement Guidance as drafted, some opined that the guidance was unnecessary as manufacturers are already required to report certain information to the Agency, and noted that NHTSA possesses the power to request additional information from manufacturers through its investigative authority. However, in order to fully exercise its regulatory authorities and powers, the Agency must be made aware of the need to do so in the first instance. Both Agency experience and that of several other commenters provide several examples of a manufacturer failing to accurately and timely report relevant safety-related information to NHTSA. The Agency cannot request such information from the manufacturer if it is not first made aware of potential underlying safety-related issues.
Several comments also suggested that NHTSA adopt specific language that could be utilized in protective orders and settlement agreements. Because the facts and circumstances leading to
A number of comments also discussed a legitimate concern regarding the dissemination of proprietary information. Preliminarily, it should be noted that protective orders and settlement agreements are not used solely to prevent the dissemination of alleged proprietary information. Although certain commenters disclaimed knowledge of such situations, a number of commenters provided the Agency with specific statements and examples from individuals who have been precluded from sharing any information at all with NHTSA due to overbroad confidentiality restrictions. Indeed, settlement agreements often require that the parties not discuss the underlying facts or allegations of the case. Therefore, the Agency respectfully disagrees with any notion that NHTSA could request the information from the manufacturer after a plaintiff or other party informs NHTSA of potential safety defects or concerns.
In issuing this guidance, the Agency is not requesting or advocating for the submission or provision of any particular information or documentation in every case. However, in matters that concern the safety of the American driving public and pedestrians, entities and individuals must be permitted to disclose relevant information to the Agency commanded by Congress to ensure that safety. Private litigants should tailor the use of confidentiality provisions in a way that protects legitimate proprietary interests while still allowing for the provision of relevant information to NHTSA; the parties themselves are in the best position to determine how that can be accomplished. Should the parties reach an impasse, they can of course make application to the court for appropriate relief. Given the global interest in protecting and promoting public safety, the Agency is confident that private litigants can and will agree on appropriate processes or procedures that may be implemented to address any concerns regarding the dissemination of proprietary information.
Several commenters also proposed expanding this guidance to allow for broader sharing of information and documents discovered through litigation. While it is true that entities and individuals other than NHTSA may have an interest in safety-related information generated in litigation, the focus of this guidance is solely the disclosure of safety information to NHTSA pursuant to its authority and responsibility. This Enforcement Guidance does that and, hence, is appropriately tailored.
The Agency reiterates that in issuing this Enforcement Guidance, NHTSA is not imposing new or additional reporting requirements. As previously explained, this Enforcement Guidance Bulletin is fully supported by existing law and policy. This Guidance communicates the Agency's position that confidentiality provisions should not be used to prevent safety-related information from reaching NHTSA. The Agency is not endorsing or condoning any particular approach—judicial, legislative, regulatory, or otherwise.
In light of the foregoing, and after giving full consideration to the concerns and views expressed in the submitted comments, and as informed by the Agency's judgment and expertise, NHTSA provides the following Enforcement Guidance for private litigants pertaining to the use of confidentiality provisions in protective orders and settlement agreements:
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (“NHTSA” or “the Agency”) is tasked with, among other things, setting Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (“FMVSS”), identifying and ensuring the remedy of safety-related defects, and monitoring and enforcing compliance with these standards to safeguard the well-being of the American public. The only way the Agency can fully achieve these objectives is if it has access to all necessary information, including information discovered or identified in private litigation.
NHTSA's ability to identify and define safety-related motor vehicle defects relies in large part on timely and accurate reporting by manufacturers, suppliers, and various parties throughout the industry, whether by statutory or regulatory requirement or pursuant to compulsory process. Although federal law may require industry participants to report certain information to NHTSA, they do not always do so, or do not do so in a timely manner. Additionally, the type of information an industry participant is required to report varies greatly depending on the product and company size and purpose. While certain entities are required to report both deaths and injuries resulting from the use of their products, others only must report deaths. In those cases, in the absence of a fatal incident a potentially defective product may not come to NHTSA's attention until numerous people have sustained serious injury—if it ever reaches NHTSA at all.
Given these constraints, safety-related information developed or discovered in private litigation is an important resource for NHTSA. Yet confidentiality restrictions imposed as part of a protective order or settlement agreement in private litigation—whether court-sanctioned or privately negotiated—often prevent parties from providing information about potentially dangerous products to the Agency. As many scholarly articles have noted, and as history has borne out, such restrictions have kept critical safety information out of the hands of both regulators and the public. As a matter of law and sound public policy, NHTSA cannot countenance this situation.
It is well-established that confidentiality provisions, protective orders, and the sealing of cases are appropriate litigation tools in some circumstances. In most instances, however, the interests of public health and safety will trump any confidentiality interests that might be implicated. In matters that concern the safety of the American driving public and pedestrians, it is important that entities and individuals are not prevented from providing relevant information to the very Agency tasked with ensuring that safety.
To the extent protective orders, settlement agreements, or other confidentiality provisions prohibit motor vehicle safety-related information from being transmitted to NHTSA, such limitations are contrary to established principles of public policy and law, including Rule 26 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and its state corollaries which require a showing of good cause to impose confidentiality. The recent General Motors ignition switch and Takata airbag recalls are but two examples of how vital early identification of motor vehicle risks or defects is for the safety and welfare of the American public.
To further the important public policies discussed above, the Agency encourages and recommends that parties and courts seek to include a
“Once a matter is brought before a court for resolution, it is no longer solely the parties' case, but also the public's case.”
General allegations of harm, unsubstantiated by specific examples or articulated reasoning, however, are insufficient to warrant such an order.
Even if a court concludes that such harm will result from disclosure, it still must proceed to balance “the public and private interests to decide whether a protective order is necessary.”
(1) whether disclosure will violate any privacy interests; (2) whether the information is being sought for a legitimate purpose or for an improper purpose; (3) whether disclosure of the information will cause a party embarrassment; (4) whether confidentiality is being sought over information important to public health and safety; (5) whether the sharing of information among litigants will promote fairness and efficiency; (6) whether a party benefitting from the order of confidentiality is a public entity or official; and (7) whether the case involves issues important to the public.
The public's interest in access to court records is strongest when the records concern public health or safety.
A number of states have enacted “Sunshine in Litigation” acts, which thrust the interests of public health and safety into the forefront by preventing parties from concealing safety hazards through settlement agreements or protective orders. Some, such as Florida, broadly forbid courts from entering protective orders that may have the “purpose or effect of concealing a public hazard or any information concerning a public hazard” or that “may be useful to members of the public in protecting themselves from injury.” Fla. Stat. Ann. § 69.081 (West 2015). Others, such as Texas, establish a presumption that court records—including all documents filed with the court, unfiled settlement agreements, and unfiled discovery documents “concerning matters that have a probable adverse effect upon the general public health or safety”—are open to the general public; records may be sealed only upon a showing that there is a specific, serious, and substantial interest in nondisclosure which clearly outweighs the presumption of public access and any probable effect on public health or safety. Tex. R. Civ. P. 76a.
A federal corollary introduced on May 14, 2015, currently pending before the House of Representatives, H.R. 2336 (114th Congress, 2015-2017), would create a presumption against protective orders and the sealing of settlements and cases “in which the pleadings state facts that are relevant to the protection of public health or safety.” The presumption would control unless a party asks a judge to find that a specific and substantial interest in maintaining secrecy outweighs the public health and safety interest and that the order is no broader than necessary to protect the privacy interest asserted.
Several states have taken a broader approach, enacting statutes and court rules to address the question of whether or not courts should enforce confidentiality agreements, regardless of the subject matter. The common theme of these statutes is a balancing of interests. For example, drawing upon federal precedent requiring consideration of the public interest at stake, Idaho Court Administrative Rule 32 directs courts considering shielding requests to first determine whether the interest in privacy or public disclosure predominates and to “fashion the least restrictive exception from disclosure consistent with privacy interests.” Idaho R. Admin. 32(f).
Basic contract principles also dictate that the public health and safety concern should be of paramount significance in drafting and approving protective orders and settlement agreements. While parties are generally free to contract as they see fit, “courts will not hesitate to declare void as against public policy contractual provisions which clearly tend to the injury of the public in some way.” 17A C.J.S. Contracts § 281 (2015) (internal citations omitted);
“While the term `public policy' lacks precise definition, . . . it may be stated generally as a legal principle which holds that no one may lawfully do that which has a tendency to injure the public welfare. . . . ”
In fact, the Florida Sunshine in Litigation Act specifically codifies this concept: “Any portion of an agreement or contract which has the purpose or effect of concealing a public hazard, any information concerning a public hazard, or any information which may be useful to members of the public in protecting themselves from injury which may result from the public hazard, is void, contrary to public policy, and may not be enforced.” Fla. Stat. Ann. § 69.081(4).
The good cause requirements found in Rule 26 and related state provisions, and the doctrines underlying NHTSA's own regulations all advance the important public policy of maintaining and preserving the health and welfare of the public. This strong policy has been realized and enforced by the refusal of many courts and litigants to engage in protective orders or settlement agreements that keep regulators and the public in the dark about potential safety hazards.
Consistent with the foregoing legal and policy background, it is NHTSA's position that protective orders and settlement agreements should not be used to withhold critical safety information from the Agency, either intentionally or unintentionally. This is not to say that parties should not enter into these agreements. To the contrary, these tools are often necessary to promote full and complete disclosure, to prevent abuses of the discovery process, and to protect legitimate privacy and proprietary interests. However, as explained above, they cannot be used to preclude the disclosure of relevant safety-related information to regulatory agencies and other government authorities. To do so is contrary to the underlying law and policies inherent in Rule 26 and state corollaries, and against sound public policy.
NHTSA recommends that all parties seek to include a provision in any protective order or settlement agreement
Whatever the language, confidentiality agreements and protective orders should not be utilized to prevent the parties from providing information that implicates public safety to the very entity charged with ensuring and protecting that safety. Instead, such orders and agreements should clearly authorize and facilitate the disclosure of safety-related information to NHTSA. Such a provision is consistent with, and in some cases mandated by, federal and state statutory schemes and regulations and applicable case law, and is wholly in line with principles of sound public policy.
49 U.S.C. 30101,
ITS Joint Program Office, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology, U.S. Department of Transportation.
Notice.
The Intelligent Transportation Systems (ITS) Program Advisory Committee (ITSPAC) will hold a meeting on March 31, 2016, from 8:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. (EDT) in the Crystal Gateway Marriott Hotel, 1700 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202.
The ITSPAC, established under Section 5305 of Public Law 109-59, Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users, August 10, 2005, and re-established under Section 6007 of Public Law 114-94, Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act, December 4, 2015, was created to advise the Secretary of Transportation on all matters relating to the study, development, and implementation of intelligent transportation systems. Through its sponsor, the ITS Joint Program Office (JPO), the ITSPAC makes recommendations to the Secretary regarding ITS Program needs, objectives, plans, approaches, content, and progress.
The following is a summary of the meeting tentative agenda: (1) Welcome, (2) Discussion of the FAST Act, (3) Discussion of Potential Advice Memorandum Topics, (4) Summary and Adjourn.
The meeting will be open to the public, but limited space will be available on a first-come, first-served basis. Members of the public who wish to present oral statements at the meeting must submit a request to
Questions about the agenda or written comments may be submitted by U.S. Mail to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology, ITS Joint Program Office, Attention: Stephen Glasscock, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., HOIT, Washington, DC 20590 or faxed to (202) 493-2027. The ITS JPO requests that written comments be submitted not later than March 24, 2016.
Notice of this conference is provided in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act and the General Services Administration regulations (41 CFR part 102-3) covering management of Federal advisory committees.
Office of the Secretary of Transportation (OST), U.S. Department of Transportation (the DOT), Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Federal Transit Administration (FTA), Maritime Administration (MARAD).
Notice of funding availability and request for comments.
Pursuant to the recently enacted Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (the FAST Act), the DOT announces the availability of
This notice outlines the process that project sponsors must follow in seeking TIFIA credit assistance. The DOT is publishing this notice to give project sponsors an opportunity to submit Letters of Interest for the newly authorized funding as soon as possible. However, in addition to authorizing funding for TIFIA credit assistance, the FAST Act made a number of changes to the TIFIA program's structure, including the terms and conditions pursuant to which the DOT can provide TIFIA credit assistance. This notice outlines certain changes made by the FAST Act and invites interested parties to submit comments about the DOT's implementation of the FAST Act and the DOT's guidance for awarding TIFIA credit assistance. Unless otherwise noted, statutory section references in this notice are to sections of title 23 of the U.S. Code, as amended by the FAST Act, which took effect as of October 1, 2015.
For further information regarding this notice please contact Duane Callender via email at
The Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (TEA-21), Public Law 105-178, 112 Stat. 107, 241 established the Transportation Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act of 1998 (TIFIA), authorizing the DOT to provide credit assistance in the form of secured (direct) loans, lines of credit, and loan guarantees to public and private applicants for eligible surface transportation projects. In 2005, Congress enacted the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users (SAFETEA-LU) (Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144), which made a number of amendments to TIFIA including lowering the estimated project cost thresholds and expanding eligibility for TIFIA credit assistance. In 2012, Congress enacted the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) (Pub. L. 112-141). MAP-21 provided for substantial changes in the TIFIA credit program, including expanding eligibility and authorized uses of TIFIA credit assistance and modifying the selection process. On December 4, 2015, the President signed the FAST Act into law (Pub. L. 114-94), which provided for substantial changes in the TIFIA credit program under Section 2001 of the FAST Act. This notice of funding availability addresses certain changes to the TIFIA credit program made by the FAST Act and solicits Letters of Interest for the funding made available under that law.
The TIFIA program is a departmental program and final approval of credit assistance is reserved for the Secretary. In addition, the FAST Act mandates the creation of a National Surface
The FAST Act authorizes $1.435 billion in TIFIA funding authority over five fiscal years ($275 million in FY 2016 funds, $275 million in FY 2017 funds, $285 million in FY 2018 funds, $300 million in FY 2019 funds, and $300 million in FY 2020 funds) from the Highway Trust Fund to pay the subsidy cost of credit assistance. Additional funds may also be available from funding authority carried over from previous fiscal years. Any funding authority not obligated in the fiscal year for which it is authorized remains available for obligation in subsequent years. The TIFIA funding authority is subject to an annual obligation limitation that may be established in appropriations law. Like all funds subject to the annual Federal-aid obligation ceiling, the amount of TIFIA funding authority available in a given year may be less than the amount authorized for that fiscal year. Historically, each dollar of TIFIA funding authority has allowed the DOT to provide approximately $10 in credit assistance. In recent years, the DOT has been able to leverage TIFIA funds to support closer to $14 in credit assistance. Given statutory changes in the TIFIA credit program under the FAST Act, and the need to calculate credit subsidies on a project-by-project basis, actual lending capacity will vary. In addition to direct funding for the TIFIA program, the FAST Act permits the use of certain Federal-aid funds to cover the subsidy and administrative costs associated with TIFIA credit assistance. Under the FAST Act, Surface Transportation Block Grant Program funds (23 U.S.C. 133), National Highway Performance Program funds (23 U.S.C. 119), and Nationally Significant Freight and Highway Projects Program grant funds (23 U.S.C. 117) may be used by eligible recipients to cover the subsidy and administrative costs of TIFIA credit assistance (including the fees and expenses of the DOT's outside advisors hired in connection with the evaluation and negotiation of terms of TIFIA credit assistance for a project). As in previous years, Transportation Investment Generating Economic Recovery (TIGER) grant funds may also be used to cover these costs. (See Part VI below for more information regarding TIFIA administrative costs).
To ensure maximum leverage of TIFIA program funds and efficient allocation of TIFIA resources, the DOT encourages eligible recipients to consider use of the three sources of Federal-aid funds listed above to cover the subsidy and administrative costs of TIFIA credit assistance, as authorized in the FAST Act. Project sponsors will be asked to indicate in their Letters of Interest whether other Federal-aid funds are available to cover the subsidy and administrative costs of their requested TIFIA credit assistance, and provide an explanation therefor (for example, that the sponsor is not a State recipient of Federal-aid funds).
The DOT has provided TIFIA credit assistance across a variety of transportation modes and the surface transportation components of multifaceted development and redevelopment projects. Generally, eligible projects include highway projects, passenger rail projects, transit and intermodal projects, private rail facilities providing public benefit to highway users, surface transportation infrastructure modifications within a port terminal, intelligent transportation systems, surface transportation projects eligible for Federal assistance under title 23 or title 49 of the U.S. Code, international bridges and tunnels, intercity passenger bus or rail facilities and vehicles, and related improvement projects grouped together, so long as the individual components are eligible and the related projects are secured by a common pledge.
The FAST Act expands eligibility to include transit-oriented development and the capitalization of a rural projects fund within a State infrastructure bank (SIB). In addition, the FAST Act refines the scope of eligibility for project refinancing.
Under the FAST Act, a project to improve or construct public infrastructure that is located within walking distance of, and accessible to, a fixed guideway transit facility, passenger rail station, intercity bus station, or intermodal facility, including a transportation, public utility, or capital project described in 49 U.S.C. 5302(3)(G)(v), and related infrastructure, is now eligible to receive TIFIA credit assistance (see 23 U.S.C. 601(a)(12)(E)). Activities to improve or construct such infrastructure are commonly known as “transit-oriented development” (or TOD). See Part V below for more information regarding general TIFIA eligibility requirements (such as minimum project costs).
In addition to certain accommodations for rural infrastructure projects, such as a reduced interest rate on TIFIA credit assistance and lower minimum eligible project cost thresholds (see Part IV below for more on rural infrastructure projects and interest rate calculation; see Part V below for more information on TIFIA eligibility requirements), the FAST Act enables SIBs to receive TIFIA secured loans to be used to capitalize a rural projects fund within the SIB (see 23 U.S.C. 601(a)(12)(F)).
A TIFIA loan to capitalize a rural projects fund must be secured by a dedicated revenue source(s) available to the SIB (see 23 U.S.C. 602(a)(6) and 603(b)(3)(A)(V) for a description of the requirements for a dedicated revenue source for a TIFIA loan to a SIB). The TIFIA loan to the SIB may not be less than $10 million or more than $100 million. SIBs will be eligible to receive the reduced interest rate (equal to one-half of the Treasury Rate) to the extent of available funds for such reduced-rate loans. (See Part IV below for additional discussion regarding the set-aside for rural infrastructure projects and rural projects fund capitalizations). Notably, the SIB, rather than specific subsidiary projects, would be responsible for all stages and requirements of the standard TIFIA application process, beginning with submission of a Letter of Interest that will be reviewed for factors including eligibility and creditworthiness, including review from an independent financial advisor. (See Part VI below for additional discussion regarding the application process; additional information regarding the application process can also be found in the TIFIA Program Guide.) The SIB would then use the TIFIA loan proceeds to make direct loans for rural infrastructure projects out of its rural projects fund. (See Part IV below for more discussion regarding, and the definition of, rural infrastructure projects.) The SIB, rather than the DOT, would review the specific projects. The FAST Act also requires that the SIB use all of its loan commitment within two years after obligation of the loan unless extended by the DOT.
Prior to the FAST Act, SIBs were permitted to use Federal-aid funds to capitalize a highway, a transit, and a rail account within the SIB. The funds in those accounts could then be used to make loans to eligible highway, transit,
The DOT recognizes that this is a new category of activity and will provide further guidance on the formal application and credit evaluation processes, informed by feedback from stakeholders through this NOFA. The DOT intends for such guidance to be included in the forthcoming TIFIA Program Guide update which will be published in the near future to inform the preparation of formal SIB applications and credit evaluations. In the interim, the DOT will conduct targeted outreach and provide technical assistance to potential applicants in preparing SIB Letters of Interest.
TIFIA loan proceeds can be used to refinance existing obligations in three scenarios: (i) to refinance Federal credit instruments for rural infrastructure projects, (ii) to refinance long-term project obligations of Federal credit instruments if the refinancing provides additional funding capacity for the completion, enhancement, or expansion of any project that would otherwise be eligible, and (iii) to refinance interim construction financing for eligible projects. The FAST Act clarified the parameters of interim construction financing: the maturity of such existing interim financing must not be later than one year after substantial completion of the project and the refinancing must occur prior to one year after substantial completion of the project (see 23 U.S.C. 603(a)(2)).
The FAST Act codifies the DOT practice of allowing payments made by a State pursuant to a long-term concession agreement, such as availability payments, for a highway project being delivered as a public-private partnership to be eligible for Federal-aid reimbursement where the State has advance construction authorization (see Pub. L. 114-94, section 2002). It is important to note, however, that TIFIA credit assistance cannot be repaid using Federal-aid funds. As such, where TIFIA credit assistance is provided directly to a concessionaire receiving availability payments and the State sponsor intends to seek Federal-aid reimbursement for such payments, the DOT will require the State sponsor to demonstrate the availability of non-Federal funds sufficient to cover TIFIA debt service.
The DOT may provide credit assistance in the form of secured (direct) loans, lines of credit, and loan guarantees (see 23 U.S.C. 603(a)(1), 603(e)(1), and 604(a)(1)). These types of credit assistance are defined in Section 601. The TIFIA credit facility, which must have a senior or senior-parity lien in the event of bankruptcy, liquidation or insolvency, can be subordinate as to cash flows absent such an event. The TIFIA loan may be fully subordinated, even in the event of a bankruptcy, liquidation or insolvency, if the borrower is a public agency that is financing ongoing capital programs and has outstanding senior bonds under a preexisting indenture so long as (i) the TIFIA loan is rated A-category or higher, (ii) the revenue pledge is not affected by project performance, such as a tax-backed revenue or system pledge, and (iii) TIFIA is financing 33 percent or less of the eligible project costs. However, in such cases, the maximum credit subsidy to be paid by the Government may not be more than 10 percent of the principal amount of the loan; the obligor is responsible for paying any remaining subsidy cost.
The maximum amount for a TIFIA secured loan for a project is 49 percent
Section 603(b)(4) provides that the interest rate on a secured loan may not be less than the yield on U.S. Treasury securities of a similar maturity to the maturity of the secured loan on the date of execution of the loan agreement (for lines of credit, Section 604(b)(4) provides that the interest rate may not be lower than the 30-year rate for U.S. Treasury securities, as of the date of execution of the line of credit agreement) (the Treasury Rate). In general, TIFIA currently charges interest rates equal to the Treasury Rate on the date of execution of the TIFIA credit instrument.
As with MAP-21, the FAST Act allows for up to 10 percent of the TIFIA program's annual funding authority to be provided to rural infrastructure projects or to capitalize rural projects funds within SIBs at a reduced interest rate of one-half of the Treasury Rate. However, the FAST Act modified the definition of rural infrastructure projects set forth in MAP-21; under the FAST Act, rural infrastructure projects are defined as surface transportation infrastructure projects located in an area that is outside of an urbanized area with a population greater than 150,000 individuals, as determined by the Bureau of the Census (see 23 U.S.C. 601(a)(15)). The reduced interest rate applies only to rural projects and SIB capitalizations funded with the up-to 10 percent of funding authority set-aside. Once the set-aside has been fully committed, any loans for rural projects or SIB capitalization would accrue interest at the Treasury Rate.
The FAST Act also clarified the requirements for a master credit agreement. Under MAP-21, the DOT was able to provide a contingent commitment of future TIFIA credit assistance in the form of a master credit agreement, subject to the availability of future funding and the satisfaction of all the conditions for the provision of credit assistance under the TIFIA program. The FAST Act clarified that a master credit agreement can be used either for a program of projects secured by a common revenue pledge or for a single
A project must meet all of the eligibility criteria set forth in Section 602(a) to receive TIFIA credit assistance.
For instance, projects seeking TIFIA assistance must meet certain statutory threshold requirements for project costs (see 23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)). Generally, the minimum size for TIFIA projects is at least $50 million in total eligible project costs (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(A)(i)); however, the minimum size is lower for certain types of projects. The FAST Act established a threshold of $10 million in eligible project costs for both TOD projects (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(B)(ii)) and for local projects (eligible projects the sponsor of which is a local government or instrumentality, which are located on a facility owned by a local government or the development of which a local government is substantially involved (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(B)(iv))). The minimum size for TIFIA projects principally involving the installation of an intelligent transportation system is $15 million (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(B)(i)). The FAST Act lowered the minimum cost threshold for rural infrastructure projects from $25 million to $10 million in eligible project costs (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(B)(iii)); however, the FAST Act added a maximum size for rural infrastructure projects of $100 million in eligible project costs (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(B)(iii)). As applied to the capitalization of a rural projects fund in a SIB, the FAST Act limits the size of a TIFIA loan to a SIB to between $10 and $100 million (23 U.S.C. 602(a)(5)(B)(iii)).
Prior to execution of a TIFIA credit instrument, the senior debt obligations for each project receiving TIFIA credit assistance must obtain investment grade ratings from at least two nationally recognized rating agencies, and the TIFIA debt obligations must obtain ratings from at least two nationally recognized rating agencies, unless the total amount of the debt is less than $75 million, in which case only one investment grade rating is required for the senior debt obligations and one rating for the TIFIA debt obligations. The term rating agency is defined in Section 601(a)(14) and 49 CFR 80.3. If the TIFIA credit instrument is proposed as the senior debt, then it must receive the investment grade ratings.
To demonstrate the potential to achieve the above credit rating requirements, each project sponsor must provide a preliminary rating opinion letter from a rating agency that addresses the creditworthiness of the senior debt obligations funding the project and concludes that there is a reasonable probability for the senior debt obligations to receive an investment grade rating. The preliminary rating opinion letter should also provide an opinion on the default risk for the TIFIA instrument and must provide indicative ratings for both the senior debt obligations and the TIFIA credit instrument. A project that does not demonstrate the potential for its senior obligations to receive an investment grade rating will not be considered for TIFIA credit assistance. More detailed information about these TIFIA credit opinions and ratings may be found in the Program Guide on the TIFIA Web site at:
Each project seeking TIFIA assistance must submit an application acceptable to the Secretary pursuant to the process set forth in this notice, and must satisfy applicable State and local transportation planning requirements. Each private applicant must receive public approval for its project as demonstrated by satisfaction of the applicable planning and programming requirements. Each project must have a dedicated revenue source to repay the TIFIA loan. Projects receiving TIFIA credit assistance have been supported by a variety of revenue sources, including tolls, user fees, payments owing to the obligor under a public-private partnership (
The eligibility criteria also require a determination by the DOT that the project is creditworthy, which must be based on, at a minimum: (i) A rate covenant, if applicable, (ii) adequate coverage requirements to ensure repayment, and (iii) meeting the credit rating requirements set forth in Part VI below. The DOT will also utilize a report and recommendation from an independent financial advisor and any other information it needs to determine a project's creditworthiness.
Section 602(a) further requires that, for each project, TIFIA credit assistance must: (i) Foster (if appropriate) partnerships that attract public and private investment for the project, (ii) enable the project to proceed at an earlier date than the project would otherwise be able to proceed or reduce lifecycle costs (including debt service costs) of the project, and (iii) reduce the contribution of Federal grant assistance for the project.
Each project must also demonstrate that the construction contracting process for the project can commence no more than 90 days after execution of a TIFIA credit instrument. In addition, TIFIA credit assistance cannot be obligated for a project until it receives a categorical exclusion, finding of no significant impact or record of decision, pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act.
With respect to SIB applicants requesting a TIFIA loan to capitalize a rural projects fund, the DOT will conduct a creditworthiness and readiness evaluation that will assess the institutional capacity and ability of the SIB to administer and disburse the requested TIFIA loan proceeds within the requisite time frame, as well as a creditworthiness review of the proposed repayment source for the TIFIA loan. The Program Guide on the TIFIA Web site will be updated to provide further guidance to SIB applicants.
The TIFIA application process begins with the submission of a Letter of Interest and determination of eligibility. Only after a project sponsor has submitted a Letter of Interest and met all statutory eligibility requirements will the project sponsor be invited to submit an application.
The DOT will conduct a rolling application process where project sponsors may submit Letters of Interest at any time. The DOT will permit project sponsors to apply once a favorable eligibility determination is made. An invitation to submit an application for credit assistance does not guarantee the DOT's approval, which will remain subject to evaluation, based on all of the TIFIA statutory evaluation criteria, and the successful negotiation of terms and conditions acceptable to the Secretary.
The Letter of Interest must (i) describe the project and the location, purpose, and cost of the project, (ii) outline the proposed financial plan, including the requested credit assistance and the proposed obligor, (iii) provide a status of environmental review, and (iv) provide information regarding satisfaction of other eligibility requirements of the TIFIA credit program. Letters of Interest must be submitted using the form on the TIFIA Web site:
The Letter of Interest form requires project sponsors to provide information demonstrating satisfaction (or expected satisfaction if permitted by TIFIA) of each of the eligibility requirements included in TIFIA. These eligibility requirements are outlined above in Part V and elsewhere in this notice.
As described in Part IV, the DOT may provide secured loans to finance up to 49 percent of reasonably anticipated eligible project costs, which is substantially more than the maximum of 33 percent that the DOT could provide prior to MAP-21. The Letter of Interest form requires a project sponsor requesting TIFIA credit assistance to provide a rationale for the amount of TIFIA credit assistance it is requesting, as a percentage of its reasonably anticipated eligible project costs. Similarly, the form requires a project sponsor to specify whether it has flexibility in its financial plan to finance the project with a reduced percentage of TIFIA credit assistance. In providing a rationale for the amount of credit assistance requested, a project sponsor can demonstrate that traditional sources of financing are not available at feasible rates without the TIFIA assistance, or that the costs of traditional financing options would constrain the sponsor's ability to deliver the project, or that delivery of the project through traditional financing approaches would constrain the sponsor's ability to deliver a group of related projects, or a full capital program. This information will help the DOT ensure that it allocates TIFIA's funding authority effectively.
A project sponsor must also describe the purpose of its project in the Letter of Interest form, including the public purpose of the project. A project sponsor should provide quantitative or qualitative information about the public benefits that its project will achieve. Examples of public benefits include objectives specified in Section 101 and 49 U.S.C. 101(a) and 5301, other DOT grant or credit assistance programs, relevant Federal, State, or local transportation laws or plans, and other public benefits that can be achieved through transportation investments.
In the context of a public-private partnership, where multiple bidders may be competing for a concession such that the obligor has not yet been identified, the procuring agency may submit the project's Letter of Interest on behalf of the eventual obligor. The DOT will not consider Letters of Interest from entities that have not obtained rights to develop the project.
The DOT will review each Letter of Interest submitted in accordance with this NOFA. The DOT may contact a project sponsor for clarification of specific information included in the Letter of Interest. The DOT will notify a project sponsor if the DOT determines that its project is not eligible or that the DOT will not be able to continue reviewing its Letter of Interest until certain eligibility concerns are addressed. If the DOT does not determine a project to be ineligible based on its initial review, the DOT will request additional information to supplement the Letter of Interest and complete its eligibility determination. This information may include, among other things, more detailed descriptions of the project, the project's readiness to proceed, the project's financial plan, including financial commitments to the project from sources other than TIFIA, and/or the applicant and its organizational structure.
Before completing its review of a Letter of Interest and rendering a determination of eligibility, the DOT will request that the project sponsor provide a preliminary rating opinion letter, as further described below, and the DOT will engage an independent financial advisor to prepare a report and recommendation acceptable in form and substance to the DOT. The DOT typically engages an independent legal advisor as part of the evaluation and negotiation of terms of TIFIA credit assistance for the project. There is no fee to submit a Letter of Interest; however, project sponsors will be required to reimburse the DOT for the costs of its outside financial and legal advisors. In order to enable the DOT to initially procure financial and legal advisors as part of the Letter of Interest review process, a project sponsor must submit $250,000 to the DOT. This amount is due upon request by the DOT and must be submitted before the DOT hires outside advisors. These funds will be used, dollar for dollar, to cover the first $250,000 in costs of the DOT's financial and legal advisors. In the event the DOT's advisors' fees are less than $250,000, the excess will be returned to the project sponsor. If, due to the duration and complexity of the project, the DOT's advisors' fees exceed $250,000, the DOT will invoice the project sponsor for fees in excess of $250,000. Payment of such invoices will be required within 30 days after receipt.
For projects having eligible project costs that are reasonably anticipated to be $75 million or less, the FAST Act provides for the reservation of not less than $2 million of the TIFIA program's annual funding authority to be used in lieu of the third-party costs charged by the DOT. Project sponsors wishing to be considered for this available funding should indicate such in their Letters of Interest. For more details on this set-aside, please see the Program Guide on the TIFIA Web site:
After concluding its review of the Letter of Interest and making a determination of eligibility, the DOT will inform the project sponsor of its determination. If a project is determined to be eligible, the DOT will inform the project sponsor that it may submit an application. If the DOT determines that a project is ineligible, it will notify the project sponsor of this determination and/or that the DOT will not be able to continue reviewing the Letter of Interest until certain eligibility concerns are addressed. The DOT will review Letters of Interest on a rolling basis and invite a project sponsor to apply once a favorable eligibility determination is made.
An invitation to apply for credit assistance does not guarantee the DOT's approval, which will remain subject to a project's continued eligibility, including creditworthiness, the successful negotiation of terms acceptable to the Secretary, and the availability of funds. In determining the availability of funds, the DOT may consider other projects seeking credit assistance through TIFIA.
By statute, the DOT works on a timeline for assessing applications for credit assistance. No later than 30 days after receipt of an application, the DOT will inform each applicant whether its
The FAST Act requires that the DOT develop a streamlined application process for certain projects within 180 days after enactment. The DOT is in the process of developing such a process. Once that process has been developed, it will be included in the Program Guide on the TIFIA Web site:
As noted above, the project sponsor must submit $250,000 to the DOT before the DOT hires financial and/or legal advisors as part of the Letter of Interest review process (subject to availability of the set-aside for small projects, as discussed above). This amount is due upon request by the DOT. Project sponsors will be invoiced for any costs in excess of $250,000 incurred by the DOT from its outside financial and legal advisors (subject to availability of the $2 million set-aside for small projects, as discussed above). More detailed information about these costs can be found in the TIFIA Program Guide, which is in the process of being updated to reflect the changes made by the FAST Act:
TIFIA borrowers should expect to track and report certain information with respect to each project's performance. The information may be used to assist the DOT in determining whether TIFIA is meeting the program's goals of leveraging Federal funds and encouraging private co-investment. The DOT may also use the information for purposes of identifying and measuring performance with respect to goals, strategies, time frames, resources, and stakeholder involvement.
As noted in the Summary section, the DOT is publishing this notice to give project sponsors the opportunity to submit Letters of Interest for the newly authorized funding as soon as is practicable. However, in addition to authorizing funding for TIFIA credit assistance, the FAST Act made some significant changes to the TIFIA program's structure, including the terms and conditions pursuant to which the DOT can provide TIFIA credit assistance. This notice provides guidance about the TIFIA application process and how the DOT will implement some of the changes made by the FAST Act, but it does not provide comprehensive guidance about how the DOT will implement all of the changes made by the FAST Act.
This notice also does not include an exhaustive list of statutory and program requirements, such as the requirement that Federal funding recipients must comply with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and other nondiscrimination requirements. The Background section of this notice identifies the relevant laws that govern the TIFIA program. The FAST Act provides that the Secretary may promulgate such regulations as the Secretary determines to be appropriate to carry out the TIFIA program. The TIFIA regulations (49 CFR part 80), which provide specific guidance on the program requirements, were last updated in 2000. The DOT will continue to evaluate, based on stakeholder feedback and experience with implementation of new provisions contained in the FAST Act, whether future regulatory updates would be beneficial, and if so, what subject areas they would cover. The primary document that the TIFIA program uses to provide ongoing program guidance is a “Program Guide” published on the TIFIA Web site. The DOT is updating the TIFIA Program Guide to reflect changes to the program under the FAST Act and will endeavor to address comments received in response to this request for comments. For additional guidance, applicants are encouraged to check the TIFIA program Web site regularly to obtain updated programmatic and application information. DOT staff are also available to provide technical assistance on a real-time basis.
Because of the significance of the changes made by the FAST Act to the TIFIA program, this notice invites interested parties to submit comments about that program's implementation of the FAST Act and the DOT's guidance for awarding TIFIA credit assistance. Interested parties can provide comments on any aspect of the DOT's implementation of the TIFIA changes made by the FAST Act, including identifying specific topic areas where additional clarification or guidance would be beneficial to potential applicants. The DOT is particularly interested in comments from interested parties regarding the provisions in the FAST Act relating to rural projects fund capitalizations and SIBs. The DOT will consider these comments as it continues to implement the program and develop supplemental program guidance. The instructions for submitting comments are included below.
Comments should be sent to the DOT by April 11, 2016. Late-filed comments will be considered to the extent practicable.
23 U.S.C. 601-610 (as set forth in the FAST Act); 49 CFR 1.48(b)(6); 23 CFR part 180; 49 CFR part 80; 49 CFR part 261; 49 CFR part 640.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one individual and one entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to Executive Order (E.O.) 13667 and whose names have been added to OFAC's list of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List).
OFAC's actions described in this notice were effective March 8, 2016.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control: Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480, Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, tel.: 202-622-4855, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490; or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), Office of the General Counsel, tel.: 202-622-2410.
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
On March 8, 2016, OFAC blocked the property and interests in property of the following individual and entity pursuant to E.O. 13667, “Blocking Property of Certain Persons Contributing to the Conflict in the Central African Republic”:
KONY, Joseph, Haute-Kotto, Central African Republic; Vakaga, Central African Republic; Kafia Kingi; Southern Darfur, Sudan; Congo, Democratic Republic of the; DOB 1961; alt. DOB 1963; alt. DOB 1965; alt. DOB 1959; alt. DOB 1960; alt. DOB 18 Sep 1964; POB Odek, Omoro, Gulu, Uganda; alt. POB Palaro Village, Palaro Parish, Omoro County, Gulu District, Uganda; alt. POB Atyak, Uganda; nationality Uganda; Gender Male; Commander of the Lord's Resistance Army (individual) [SDGT] [CAR] (Linked To: LORD'S RESISTANCE ARMY).
LORD'S RESISTANCE ARMY (a.k.a. LORD'S RESISTANCE MOVEMENT; a.k.a. LORD'S RESISTANCE MOVEMENT/ARMY; a.k.a. “LRA”; a.k.a. “LRM”; a.k.a. “LRM/A”), Vakaga, Central African Republic; Haute-Kotto, Central African Republic; Basse-Kotto, Central African Republic; Haut-Mbomou, Central African Republic; Mbomou, Central African Republic; Haut-Uolo, Congo, Democratic Republic of the; Bas-Uolo, Congo, Democratic Republic of the; Kafia Kingi [CAR].
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of two entities whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to the Zimbabwe Sanctions Regulations.
OFAC's actions described in this notice were effective on March 8, 2016, as further specified below.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control: Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480, Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, tel.: 202/622-4855, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), Office of the General Counsel, tel.: 202/622-2410.
The Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's Web site (
On March 8, 2016, OFAC added the following two entities to the list of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons, pursuant to the Zimbabwe Sanctions Regulations.
1. CHEMPLEX CORPORATION LIMITED (a.k.a. CHEMPLEX CORPORATION LTD), 93 Park Lane, P.O. Box 989, Harare, Zimbabwe; 10 Bilston Street, Bulawayo, Zimbabwe; 35 Coventry Road, Harare, Zimbabwe [ZIMBABWE] (Linked To: INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT CORPORATION OF ZIMBABWE LTD).
2. ZIMBABWE FERTILISER COMPANY (a.k.a. ZFC LIMITED), 35 Coventry Road, Workington, Harare, Zimbabwe; Ambleside Road, Aspindale Park, Harare, Zimbabwe; Sable Chemicals Complex, Lot1/7, Sherwood Block, Kwekwe, Zimbabwe [ZIMBABWE] (Linked To: CHEMPLEX CORPORATION LIMITED).
Department of Homeland Security.
Final rule.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) is amending its F-1 nonimmigrant student visa regulations on optional practical training (OPT) for certain students with degrees in science, technology, engineering, or mathematics (STEM) from U.S. institutions of higher education. Specifically, the final rule allows such F-1 STEM students who have elected to pursue 12 months of OPT in the United States to extend the OPT period by 24 months (STEM OPT extension). This 24-month extension effectively replaces the 17-month STEM OPT extension previously available to certain STEM students. The rule also improves and increases oversight over STEM OPT extensions by, among other things, requiring the implementation of formal training plans by employers, adding wage and other protections for STEM OPT students and U.S. workers, and allowing extensions only to students with degrees from accredited schools. As with the prior 17-month STEM OPT extension, the rule authorizes STEM OPT extensions only for students employed by employers who participate in E-Verify. The rule also includes the “Cap-Gap” relief first introduced in a 2008 DHS regulation for any F-1 student with a timely filed H-1B petition and request for change of status.
This rule is effective May 10, 2016, except the addition of 8 CFR 214.16, which is effective from May 10, 2016, through May 10, 2019.
Katherine Westerlund, Policy Chief (Acting), Student and Exchange Visitor Program, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, 500 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20536; telephone (703) 603-3400; email
This final rule affects certain F-1 nonimmigrant students who seek to obtain an extension of optional practical training (OPT) based on study at a U.S. institution of higher education in a science, technology, engineering or mathematics (STEM) field, as well as certain F-1 nonimmigrant students who seek so-called Cap-Gap relief. The F-1 nonimmigrant classification is available to individuals seeking temporary admission to the United States as students at an established college, university, seminary, conservatory, academic high school, elementary school, or other academic institution or in an accredited language training program.
OPT is a form of temporary employment available to F-1 students (except those in English language training programs) that directly relates to a student's major area of study in the United States. A student can apply to engage in OPT during his or her academic program (“pre-completion OPT”) or after completing the academic program (“post-completion OPT”). A student can apply for 12 months of OPT at each education level (
This final rule provides for an extension of the OPT period for certain F-1 students who have earned certain STEM degrees and participate in practical training opportunities with employers that meet certain requirements. The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) first introduced an extension of OPT for STEM graduates in a 2008 interim final rule (2008 IFR).
On October 19, 2015, DHS published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the
This rule finalizes the NPRM, with certain changes made following review and consideration of the public comments received by DHS. Under this rule, a qualifying F-1 student with a STEM degree who has been granted 12 months of practical training pursuant to the general OPT program may apply to DHS for a 24-month extension of his or her period of practical training (STEM OPT extension).
The core purpose of the STEM OPT extension is to allow participating students to supplement their academic knowledge with valuable practical STEM experience. Accordingly, as is the case with practical training generally, a student's practical training pursuant to the STEM OPT extension must be directly related to the student's major area of study. The student's STEM degree must be awarded by an accredited U.S. college or university and be in a field recognized as a STEM field by DHS. The student may base the extension on the student's most recent academic degree, or may (subject to a number of requirements described in more detail below) base the extension on a STEM degree that the student earned earlier in his or her academic career in the United States. Under this rule, a student may be eligible for up to two, separate STEM OPT extensions over the course of his or her academic career, upon completing two qualifying STEM degrees at different educational levels.
This rule includes a number of measures intended to better ensure the educational benefit, integrity, and security of the STEM OPT extension. For instance, the rule requires each STEM OPT student to prepare and execute with their prospective employer a formal training plan that identifies learning objectives and a plan for achieving those objectives. The STEM OPT student and his or her employer must work together to finalize that plan. The rule also prohibits students from basing a STEM OPT extension on a degree from an unaccredited educational institution. Moreover, to ensure compliance with program requirements, the rule provides for DHS site visits to employer locations in which STEM OPT students are employed. Although DHS will generally give notice of such site visits, DHS may conduct an unannounced site visit if it is triggered by a complaint or other evidence of noncompliance with the regulations.
The rule also includes a number of requirements intended to help DHS track STEM OPT students and further enhance the integrity of the STEM OPT extension. Most prominent among these are reporting requirements, which the rule imposes primarily upon students and designated school officials (DSOs). The rule includes four main reporting requirements, as follows. First, the rule imposes a six-month validation requirement, under which a STEM OPT student and his or her school must work together to confirm the validity of certain biographical, residential, and employment information concerning the student, including the student's legal name, the student's address, the employer's name and address, and current employment status. Second, the rule imposes an annual self-evaluation requirement, under which the student must report to the DSO on his or her progress with the practical training. The student's employer must sign the self-evaluation prior to its submission to the DSO. Third, the rule requires that the student and employer report changes in employment status, including the student's termination or departure from the employer. Fourth, both the student and the employer are obligated to report to the DSO material changes to, or material deviations from, the student's formal training plan.
Finally, this rule includes a number of specific obligations for STEM OPT employers. These obligations are intended to ensure the integrity of the program and provide safeguards for U.S. workers in STEM fields. Among other things, the employer must be enrolled in and remain in good standing with E-Verify; assist with the aforementioned reporting and training plan requirements; and attest that (1) it has sufficient resources and trained personnel available to provide appropriate training in connection with the specified opportunity; (2) the student on a STEM OPT extension will not replace a full- or part-time, temporary or permanent U.S. worker; and (3) the opportunity helps the student attain his or her training objectives.
We describe each of these provisions in more detail below.
As noted above, this rule contains a number of changes in comparison to the 2008 IFR, while retaining other provisions of the 2008 IFR. Changes made by this rule in comparison to the 2008 IFR include:
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The rule retains other provisions of the 2008 IFR, as follows:
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Following careful consideration of public comments received, DHS also has made several modifications to the regulatory text proposed in the NPRM. Those changes include the following:
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DHS also has clarified its interpretation of the rule in a number of ways, as explained more fully below.
The anticipated costs of compliance with the rule, as well as the benefits, are discussed at length in the section below, entitled “Statutory and Regulatory Requirements—Executive Orders 12866 and 13563.” A combined Regulatory Impact Analysis and a Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis are available in the docket for this rulemaking. A summary of the analysis follows.
DHS estimates that the costs imposed by the implementation of this rule will be approximately $737.6 million over the 10-year analysis time period, discounted at 3 percent, or $588.5 million, discounted at 7 percent. This amounts to $86.5 million per year when annualized at a 3 percent discount rate, or $83.8 million per year when annualized at a 7 percent discount rate. The Summary Table at the end of this section presents the cost estimates in more detail.
With respect to benefits, making the STEM OPT extension available to additional students and lengthening the 17-month extension to 24 months will enhance certain students' ability to achieve the objectives of their courses of
Furthermore, strengthening the STEM OPT extension by implementing requirements for training, tracking objectives, reporting on program compliance, and accreditation of participating schools will further prevent abuse of the limited on-the-job training opportunities provided by OPT in STEM fields. These and other elements of the rule also will improve program oversight, strengthen the requirements for program participation, and better ensure that U.S. workers are protected.
The Summary Table below presents a summary of the benefits and costs of the rule. The costs are discounted at 7 percent. Students will incur costs for completing application forms and paying application fees; reporting to DSOs; preparing (with their employers) the Training Plan for STEM OPT Students required by this rule; and periodically submitting updates to employers and DSOs. DSOs will incur costs for reviewing information and forms submitted by students, inputting required information into the Student and Exchange Visitor Information System (SEVIS), and complying with other oversight requirements related to prospective and participating STEM OPT students. Employers of STEM OPT students will incur burdens for preparing the Training Plan with students, confirming students' evaluations, enrolling in (if not previously enrolled) and using E-Verify to verify employment eligibility for all new hires, and complying with additional requirements related to E-Verify.
Finally, in response to public comments, DHS revised the regulatory impact analysis (RIA) published with the NPRM to reflect the changes made in the final rule and include new data that has become available since the publication of the NPRM, such as updated compensation rates. DHS's major changes to the RIA from the NPRM are summarized in the table below.
The Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary) has broad authority to administer and enforce the nation's immigration laws.
Federal agencies dealing with immigration have long interpreted Sec. 101(a)(15)(F)(i) of the INA and related authorities to encompass on-the-job training that supplements classroom training.
ICE manages and oversees significant elements of the F-1 student process, including the certification of schools and institutions in the United States that enroll F-1 students. In overseeing these institutions, ICE uses SEVIS to track and monitor international students and communicate with the schools that enroll them while they are in the United States and participating in educational opportunities. Additional statutory and other authority requires and supports this tracking and monitoring.
A student in F-1 status may remain in the United States for the duration of his or her education if otherwise meeting the requirements for the maintenance of status. 8 CFR 214.2(f)(5)(i). Once an F-1 student has completed his or her academic program and any subsequent period of OPT, the student must generally leave the United States unless he or she enrolls in another academic program, either at the same school or at another SEVP-certified school; changes to a different nonimmigrant status; or otherwise legally extends his or her period of authorized stay in the United States. As noted, DHS regulations have long defined an F-1 student's duration of status to include the student's practical training.
Unless an F-1 student meets certain limited exceptions, he or she may not be employed in the United States during the term of his or her F-1 status. DHS permits an F-1 student who has been enrolled on a full-time basis for at least one full academic year in a college, university, conservatory, or seminary certified by SEVP, and who has otherwise maintained his or her status, to apply for practical training to work for a U.S. employer in a job directly related to his or her major area of study. 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10).
An F-1 student may seek employment through OPT either during his or her academic program (pre-completion OPT) or immediately after graduation (post-completion OPT). The student remains in F-1 nonimmigrant status throughout the OPT period. Thus, an F-1 student in post-completion OPT does not have to leave the United States within 60 days after graduation, but instead has authorization to remain for the entire post-completion OPT period. 8 CFR 214.2(f)(5)(i). This initial post-completion OPT period (
On April 8, 2008, DHS published an interim final rule in the
The 2008 IFR also addressed the so-called Cap-Gap problem, which results when an F-1 student's F-1 status and OPT-based employment authorization expires before the start date of an approved H-1B petition and change-of-status request filed on his or her behalf (“H-1B change-of-status petition”). Specifically, F-1 students on initial post-completion OPT frequently complete their period of authorized practical training in June or July of the year following graduation. Before the 2008 IFR, if such a student was a beneficiary of an H-1B petition that was pending with or approved by USCIS and requested a change of status to H-1B classification commencing in the following fiscal year (
DHS received over 900 comments in response to the 2008 IFR. Public comments received on the 2008 IFR and other records may be reviewed at the docket for that rulemaking, No. ICEB-2008-0002, available at
On August 12, 2015, the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia issued an order in the case of
Although the court vacated the 2008 IFR, the court stayed the
Litigation in this matter is ongoing, as the plaintiff has appealed a portion of the court's August 12, 2015, decision. Thus the final disposition of the case remains to be determined. Nevertheless, it is clear that DHS must issue a final rule that will take effect before the court's stay expires on May 10, 2016, or a significant number of students will be unable to pursue valuable training opportunities that would otherwise be available to them.
After the court's ruling, DHS acted quickly to address the imminent
Accordingly, on October 19, 2015, DHS published an NPRM in the
This final rule builds upon the NPRM and the public comments received. DHS intends for this rule to further strengthen the integrity and educational benefit of STEM OPT extensions, as well as better protect U.S. workers.
In finalizing this rule, DHS recognizes the substantial economic, scientific, technological, and cultural benefits provided by the F-1 nonimmigrant program generally, and STEM OPT extensions in particular.
International students have historically made significant contributions to the United States, both through the payment of tuition and other expenditures in the U.S. economy, as well as by significantly enhancing academic discourse and cultural exchange on campuses throughout the United States. In addition to these general benefits, STEM students further contribute through research, innovation, and the provision of knowledge and skills that help maintain and grow increasingly important sectors of the U.S. economy.
International students, for example, regularly contribute a significant amount of money into the U.S. economy. According to statistics compiled by NAFSA: Association of International Educators (NAFSA), international students made a net contribution of $26.8 billion to the U.S. economy in the 2013-2014 academic year.
International students also increase the benefits of academic exchange, while reinforcing ties with other countries and fostering increased understanding of American society.
Accordingly, international students provide substantial benefits to their U.S. colleges and universities, including beneficial economic and cultural impacts. A study by Duke University in 2013 analyzing 5,676 alumni surveys showed that “substantial international interaction was positively correlated with U.S. students' perceived skill development in a wide range of areas across three cohorts.”
International STEM students contribute to the United States in all the ways mentioned above. They also contribute more specifically to a number of advanced and innovative fields that are critical to national prosperity and security. By conducting scientific research, developing new technologies, advancing existing technologies, and creating new products and industries, for example, STEM workers diversify our nation's economy and drive economic growth while also producing increased employment opportunities and higher wages for all U.S. workers.
DHS recognizes that the United States has long been a global leader in international education. The number of international students affiliated with U.S. colleges and universities grew by 72 percent between 1999 and 2013 to a total of 886,052.
For example, Canada also recognizes that educational institutions need international students to compete in the “global race for research talent.”
In light of the United States' decreasing share of international students, and increased global efforts to attract them, DHS concludes that the United States must take additional steps to improve these students' educational experience (both academic and practical) to ensure that we do not continue to lose ground. This is particularly true for international STEM students, who have comprised a
The difference is particularly notable at the doctoral level, where international students earned 56.9 percent of all doctoral degrees in engineering; 52.5 percent of doctoral degrees in computer and information sciences; and approximately half the doctoral degrees in mathematics and statistics in the 2012-2013 academic year.
With this rule, DHS also recognizes the need to strengthen the existing STEM OPT extension to enhance the integrity and educational benefit of the program in order to help maintain the nation's economic, scientific, and technological competitiveness. DHS is working to find new and innovative ways to encourage international STEM students to choose the United States as the destination for their studies. This rule, in addition to including a modified version of the STEM OPT extension from the 2008 IFR, increases the maximum training time period for STEM students, requires a formal training plan for each STEM OPT extension, and strengthens protections for U.S. workers. Providing an on-the-job educational experience through a U.S. employer qualified to develop and enhance skills through practical application has been DHS's primary guiding objective in crafting this rule.
Many of the elements of the 2015 NPRM were based on public comments on the 2008 IFR, which contained input from a range of stakeholders, including students and the broader academic community. The NPRM also incorporated recommendations from the Homeland Security Academic Advisory Committee.
The changes will allow F-1 STEM students to gain valuable on-the-job training from qualified employers. Maintaining and enhancing practical training for STEM students improves their ability to absorb a full range of project-based skills and knowledge directly related to their study. The changes will also help the nation's colleges and universities remain globally competitive, including by improving their ability to attract international STEM students to study in the United States. As noted above, these students enrich the academic and cultural life of college and university campuses throughout the United States and make important contributions to the U.S. economy and academic sector. The changes will help strengthen the overall F-1 program in the face of growing international competition for the world's most promising international students.
Additionally, safeguards such as employer attestations, requiring employers to enroll in and remain in good standing with E-Verify, providing for DHS site visits, and requiring that STEM training opportunities provide commensurate terms and conditions to those provided to U.S. workers will help protect both such workers and STEM OPT students. Implementing the changes in this rule thus will more effectively help STEM OPT students achieve the objectives of their courses of study while also benefiting U.S. academic institutions and guarding against adverse impacts on U.S. workers.
As noted above, during the public comment period, 50,500 comments were submitted on the NPRM and related forms. Comments were submitted by a range of entities and individuals, including U.S. and international students, U.S. workers, schools and universities, professional associations, labor organizations, advocacy groups, businesses, and other interested persons. Many commenters provided concrete suggestions that DHS has evaluated and responded to in order to build upon the proposed rule and to better explain its provisions. Overall,
A number of commenters expressed general opposition to the NPRM. For instance, some stated that the proposed rule would not serve the national interest because it would harm U.S. workers, especially recent graduates with STEM degrees. Commenters also suggested that there was insufficient demand for STEM workers in the U.S. labor market to accommodate STEM OPT students. Other commenters were concerned that STEM OPT students would send their wages back to their home countries. Based on these and other concerns, various commenters requested that DHS place a moratorium on practical training and related programs until, for instance, every qualified U.S. citizen has a job. Another commenter requested that STEM OPT be phased out entirely after the current participants finish their training.
On the whole, however, commenters largely expressed support for the proposed rule. Commenters stated that the NPRM would “make[] a number of important, thoughtful changes to improve and enhance the opportunities available to F-1 students with STEM degrees”; that the proposed rule struck a reasonable balance by distributing requirements among all who participate in STEM OPT, including international students, institutions of higher education, and employers; and that the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan requirement would improve the STEM OPT extension by clearly identifying the students' learning objectives and the employer's commitments.
DHS thanks the public for its extensive input during this process. In the discussion below, DHS summarizes and responds to all comments that were timely submitted on the NPRM.
Consistent with the NPRM, this final rule provides for STEM OPT extensions as part of the OPT program under the F-1 nonimmigrant classification. This action will better ensure, among other important national interests, that the U.S. academic sector can remain globally competitive. Enabling extended practical training for qualifying students with experience in STEM fields is consistent with DHS's “Study in the States” initiative, announced after the 2008 IFR in September 2011, to encourage international students to study in the United States. That initiative particularly has focused on enhancing our nation's economic, scientific and technological competitiveness by finding new ways to encourage talented international students to become involved in expanded post-graduate opportunities in the United States. The initiative has taken various steps to improve the Nation's nonimmigrant student programs.
The final rule enhances the ability of F-1 students to achieve the objectives of their courses of study while also benefiting the U.S. economy. More students will return home confident in their training and ready to begin a career in their field of study; others may seek to change status to other nonimmigrant classifications consistent with section 248 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1258, following a STEM OPT extension, thus furthering economic growth and cultural exchange in the United States.
Before discussing and responding to public input on the substantive terms of the STEM OPT extension program proposed in the 2015 NPRM, DHS first addresses comments providing input on whether STEM OPT extensions should be authorized at all. As discussed below, the STEM OPT extension rule is grounded in the long-standing recognition by DHS and its predecessor agency that (1) experiential learning and practical training are valuable parts of any post-secondary educational experience and (2) attracting and retaining international students is in the short- and long-term economic, cultural, and security interests of the United States. Thousands of comments expressed an opinion on one or both of these two points, either challenging or supporting the proposal to include a STEM OPT extension within the OPT program. A significant number of commenters discussed the taxation rules applicable to F-1 students; some asserted that no STEM OPT extension was appropriate as long as certain F-1 students remained exempt from certain payroll or employment taxes. Lastly, some commenters questioned the Department's legal authority to include a STEM OPT extension within the OPT program, while others maintained that a solid legal basis exists for such extensions. The final rule retains STEM OPT extensions as part of the OPT program and explains in detail the underpinnings of this policy by responding in full to the many policy-related comments received from the public.
Numerous commenters submitted views regarding the proposition that experiential learning opportunities such as practical training can significantly enhance the knowledge and skills obtained by students during academic study, thus furthering their courses of study in the United States.
Many universities and higher education associations, however, made statements to the contrary. Twelve higher education associations—representing land-grant universities, research universities, human resource professionals at colleges and universities, registrars, graduate schools, international student advisors, and religious colleges and universities, among others—jointly filed a comment stating that “experiential learning is a key component of the educational experience.” These higher education associations stated that:
OPT allows students to take what they have learned in the classroom and apply “real world” experience to enhance learning and creativity while helping fuel the innovation that occurs both on and off campus. . . . Learning through experience is distinct from learning that takes place in the classroom. Experiential learning opportunities have become an integral part of U.S. higher education.
Universities individually made similar points, emphasizing the value of experiential learning. DHS received comments on this point from a range of public and private institutions of higher education. For example, one university stated that experiential learning opportunities are particularly critical in “STEM fields where hands on work supplements classroom education.” Another university stated that “experiential learning fosters the capacity for critical thinking and application of knowledge in complex or ambiguous situations.” Other university commenters stated that experiential learning “is a necessary component of a 21st century education, especially in the STEM fields.”
A national organization of graduate and professional students stated that offering a STEM OPT extension after bachelor's level studies allowed individuals to “identify research interests and develop skills” that they later can expand upon in their graduate studies when they focus on solving concrete problems. An organization representing international educators stated that the OPT program appropriately focuses on the critical part of an education that occurs in partnership with employers.
An organization that serves U.S. institutions engaged in international educational and cultural exchange stated that “extended OPT eligibility creates space for more meaningful interactions between international OPT participants and their U.S. host employers.” Other comments stated that a recent membership survey found that 89 percent of responding employers found that OPT participants “work in conjunction with U.S. workers in a way that promotes career development for everyone involved.” A business association stated that “practical training allows foreign students in technical fields to maximize the return on their investment in education.”
• “OPT allows international students the opportunity to engage in practical application of skills learned in academic programs.”
• “[A]s an extension of college education, OPT extension is a great way to apply what's learnt in class to our real industry.”
• “This experiential learning will allow me to integrate knowledge and theory learned in the classroom with practical application and skills development in a professional setting.”
• “The proposal to reinstitute the STEM extension will provide valuable hands-on, educational experience in which STEM graduates gain real-world immersion into a chosen industry.”
• “The new rule will allow me to meet my planned learning goals and allow for active reflection on [what] I am accomplishing throughout the experience.”
OPT's required nexus to the field of study also minimizes potential abuse or exploitation of international students by those seeking to impermissibly employ them in unskilled labor or other unauthorized work in the United States. Moreover, this requirement is consistent
A variety of comments addressed whether the STEM OPT extension benefited STEM OPT students, U.S. institutions of higher education, and the overall national interest. Some commenters stated that the STEM OPT extension would provide such benefits and supported the proposed rule for these or related reasons; others stated that the proposed rule would negatively impact the employment options of U.S. STEM graduates and workers. The Department had carefully considered these issues in developing the NPRM, and has further evaluated these issues as raised in the public comments. The Department's consideration of these issues is reflected in the discussion that immediately follows and throughout this preamble.
A university commenter, however, suggested that DHS should consider it a priority to finalize the STEM OPT extension rule in a way that ensures universities remain internationally competitive. Representative of many comments from higher education, another university commenter strongly supported the STEM OPT extension within the OPT program. The commenter stated that “if the United States is to maintain our economic, educational, and scientific competitiveness then it must continue to make itself attractive to the best talent worldwide.” Another commenter, who identified as an F-1 student, noted that many people from his home country have degrees earned abroad, and that a “U.S.-university degree alone is not valued as [highly] as it was 10 or 20 years ago.” This commenter stated that “experience on a complete project” will provide him an advantage over students who studied in countries that don't provide similar kinds of training opportunities.
As noted in the NPRM, in light of increased global efforts to recruit international students, DHS believes that the United States must take additional steps to improve available educational experiences (both academic and practical) to ensure that the United States remains competitive for such students. Such steps benefit the U.S. academic sector by contributing to its economic support and increasing academic diversity. This is particularly true with regard to international STEM students, who have comprised a significant portion of students in STEM degree programs in the United States, particularly at the graduate degree level. While it is of course true that, as a commenter noted, OPT students do not pay tuition during their practical training, it is reasonable to assume the increased attractiveness of U.S. colleges and universities due to the availability of OPT will benefit the U.S. academic sector. DHS's conclusions about the benefit of the STEM OPT extension to the F-1 student program and U.S. educational institutions found broad support in the comments submitted by educational institutions themselves.
A number of commenters stated that allowing employers to hire F-1 students on a STEM OPT extension would disadvantage U.S. citizens and lawful permanent residents. Some of these commenters, as well as other commenters, provided facts and figures suggesting there was not a labor shortage of STEM workers. For example, some commenters stated that wages have not increased, as would be expected during a shortage, and some of these commenters cited to a report from the Economic Policy Institute that found that wages in the information technology sector “have remained flat, with real wages hovering around their late 1990s levels.”
Commenters cited data and reports on both sides of the question of whether there were sufficient numbers of qualified U.S. workers available to fill open STEM jobs in the U.S. economy. One commenter stated that there were over 102,000 unemployed engineers. Another commenter stated that there were two million unemployed Americans with STEM degrees. A number of commenters, however, stated that even with millions of unemployed
Some analysts contend that the United States has or will soon face a shortage of STEM workers. Some point to labor market signals such as high wages and the fact that STEM vacancies are advertised for more than twice the median number of days compared to non-STEM jobs. Other analysts note that the shortage of STEM workers is a byproduct of the ability of STEM-capable workers to “divert” into other high-skill occupations that offer better working conditions or pay. Relatedly, some say even if the supply were to increase, the United States might still have a STEM worker shortage because an abundance of high-skill workers helps drive innovation and competitiveness and this might create its own demand.
Those analysts who contend the United States does not have a shortage of STEM workers see a different picture. They suggest that the total number of STEM degree holders in the United States exceeds the number of STEM jobs, and that market signals that would indicate a shortage, such as wage increases, have not systematically materialized. Analysts also raise concerns about labor market dynamics in academia—where a decreasing share of doctoral degree holders employed in the academic sector are tenured—and in industry—where there are reports that newly-minted degree holders and foreign “guestworkers” on temporary visas (
Close study of the surplus-shortage question reveals that there is no straightforward “yes” or “no” answer to whether the United States has a surplus or shortage of STEM workers. The answer is always “it depends.” It depends on which segment of the workforce is being discussed (
DHS credits NSF's views on this matter. Although DHS acknowledges that commenters submitted a range of data related to the current state of the overall U.S. STEM labor market (and DHS discusses much of this data in more detail below), DHS does not rely on this data to finalize the rule. Instead, this rule is based on the widely accepted proposition that educational and cultural exchange, a strong post-secondary education system, and a focus on STEM innovation are, on the whole, positive contributors to the U.S. economy and U.S. workers and in the overall national interest. As noted above, these principles, combined with the labor market protections and other measures included in this rule, generally provide the basis for the Department's action.
DHS disagrees that the U.S. Census data point to an across-the-board shortage of degree-related employment opportunities for U.S. STEM graduates as the disparate definitions make that conclusion unlikely. DHS believes that many of the concerns identified about the proposed rule are overstated or incomplete because of the nature of available data and reporting.
Moreover, the commenter did not identify any specific findings in the sources cited in the bibliographies that would support a change to the Department's proposal. Many of the sources cited in the bibliography involved the H-1B and L-1 nonimmigrant visa programs, as well as employment-sponsored immigrant visa programs, rather than OPT. Significantly, although the organization that prepared the H-1B and L-1 bibliography cited by the commenter also submitted a separate, detailed comment on the NPRM, the organization did not cite its bibliography or most of the sources contained therein as part of its submission. And in the course of reviewing the extensive bibliographies presented, the Department noted that at least one of the sources, which addressed permanent immigration and not OPT, concluded that “international students studying in host country postsecondary institutions are particularly valued because they improve higher education, subsidize domestic students, contribute to national economies and, if they qualify, make valuable permanent residents because of their youth, occupational qualifications, language skills, and familiarity with host country customs and institutions.”
With respect to the studies by Dr. Hunt, DHS notes that the NPRM cited those studies in support of the general proposition that STEM workers “are fundamental inputs in scientific innovation and technological adoption, critical drivers of productivity growth in the United States.” 80 FR 63383. The EPI study did not question this proposition. Rather, the EPI study examined a narrow band of STEM fields to show that “immigrant workers, especially those who first came to the United States as international students, are in general of no higher talent than the Americans, as measured by salary, patent filings, dissertation awards, and quality of academic program.”
The EPI paper, however, acknowledges that the Hunt studies cited in the NPRM cast a much broader net, encompassing a myriad of science and engineering fields. The Hunt papers considered the impact of foreign-born workers employed in the United States in myriad visa classifications and fields of study, and was not focused solely on F-1 students or STEM OPT students (nor to just Computer Science and Electrical Engineering research activity). As explained in the Hunt papers, there is support for the proposition that foreign-born scientists and engineers achieve higher rates of U.S. patent filings. The Department continues to believe such patent rates support the conclusion that the STEM OPT extension is in the national interest.
A commenting employer stated that while it prioritized U.S. worker hiring, it also hired foreign-born students that it recruited on U.S. campuses “given the talent pool graduating from U.S. Ph.D. and M.S. STEM programs.” The employer also stated: “we spend millions of dollars annually above and beyond what we have to pay to hire U.S. workers, merely to employ the talent required to successfully run our business.” Another commenter stated that “it makes no sense for the United States to educate and train foreign
By contrast, one commenter stated that “any change in quality of living is dependent on highly skilled STEM workers who are fundamental inputs in scientific innovation and technological adoption.” Other commenters stated that “STEM students have contributed immensely to the U.S. economy with their skills and innovation” and that because “the U.S. STEM industry is at the forefront of technology in the world, international students come here to get the exposure and learn.”
Some commenters flagged disagreement among economists with some of the findings included in a study published by the National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) that extrapolates from the fundamental point for which it was cited by DHS.
With regard to the citation to the NBER study, the reference in the 2015 NPRM was for the general proposition that STEM workers are fundamental inputs in scientific innovation and technological adoption, and therefore critical drivers of productivity growth in the United States.
The commenter further requested that DHS explain “why its published policy rationale has changed” since 2008. In short, the policy rationale and, importantly, the substance of the rules governing the program, have changed based on a range of factors. As discussed at length in the NPRM, these factors include the public comments received on the 2008 IFR and DHS's assessment of the benefits provided by the 17-month STEM OPT extension.
A number of commenters, for example, stated that employers save money by not incurring FICA payroll taxes when they hire F-1 nonimmigrants instead of U.S. workers and that these savings induce employers to prefer F-1 nonimmigrants over U.S. workers. A few hundred comments labeled the Department's proposed rulemaking as “corporate welfare.” One commenter stated that it is “unethical” for F-1 nonimmigrants to be exempt from “paying taxes” since those nonimmigrants who are working under H-1B visas are not exempt. One commenter suggested that the tax treatment of F-1 nonimmigrants has the effect of discouraging Americans from pursuing study in STEM fields.
Another commenter stated that excusing OPT participants from payroll taxes was not the result of congressionally created tax policy but instead a decision by “the administration” to “simply defin[e] recent alumni as foreign `students' ” and thus “allow[] employers to avoid payroll taxes.” One commenter criticized DHS because the Department “offered nothing in the proposed rule to deal with the wage savings enjoyed by the employers of OPT workers from not having to pay FICA payroll taxes for OPT workers.” This commenter stated that “the Department clearly believes it has the authority to impose wage-related conditions on OPT employers, but it's unclear why the Department wouldn't also address the FICA issue which some suggest is one of the biggest sources of unfairness to U.S. workers competing with OPT workers.”
Several comments that referenced tax issues cited analysis by a research organization stating that “OPT removed $4 billion from the Social Security and Medicare trust funds” over five years. Others cited the same analysis to state that the OPT program “costs Social Security about $1 billion dollars a year” or “about $10,000 annually for each OPT” participant.
However, many other commenters who discussed taxation stated that
A few commenters submitted ideas on how DHS could revise or address the payroll tax provisions. One commenter suggested that the Department's proposed regulation could be changed to remove any financial incentive to hire non-U.S. citizens by exempting employers “from FICA for two years when they hire a new grad STEM U.S. worker, and [charging] a 10% penalty for displacing an American STEM graduate when an OPT is hired.” A labor union proposed that “DHS should require employers of STEM workers to pay an amount equal to payroll taxes into a fund to encourage employment of U.S. STEM workers.” A research organization proposed in the alternative that the amount of such payroll taxes could be paid to the U.S. Treasury.
One commenter stated that “Congress delegated authority to define periods of employment for F-1 nonimmigrants to the Treasury Department, not DHS.” This commenter criticized the proposed rulemaking on the grounds that it “never mentions or references the detailed applicable laws governing the FICA, Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA), or Social Security withholding.” The commenter also stated that “the proposed agency policy authorizing graduates on F-1 visas to work full-time while exempt for FICA withholding directly conflicts with the Internal Revenue Code (IRC), the Social Security Act (SSA), and Supreme Court precedent.”
Under current tax laws, when F-1 nonimmigrants are exempt from payroll taxes, the employer saves an amount equal to 6.2 percent of the F-1 nonimmigrant's salary up to the taxable wage base ($118,500 in 2016) and an additional 1.45 percent of the total salary that, in the aggregate, would have been the employer contribution to the Social Security and Medicare trust funds. The F-1 nonimmigrant similarly saves a deduction from his or her salary in the same amount that would have been the employee contribution. The FICA chapter of the IRC, which governs the payroll tax owed by employers and employees to fund the Social Security and Medicare programs,
The IRC provides that aliens temporarily in the United States are resident aliens, rather than nonresident aliens, for Federal tax purposes, when they satisfy a substantial presence test based on physical presence in the United States.
These provisions, although of course relevant to F-1 students and employers for purposes of determining FICA and FUTA tax liability, neither displace, nor authorize Treasury to displace, the Secretary's broad authority to administer and enforce the nation's immigration laws.
Accordingly, the assertion by a commenter that Treasury controls when F-1 nonimmigrants are authorized for employment is incorrect. This mistaken theory seems to be grounded in a misreading of select provisions of the IRC referenced by the comment concerning work performed as an employee of a school, college, or university. Such work is exempt from both FICA and FUTA under the IRC when Treasury determines that the worker is both taking classes at and working for a qualifying institution and should be considered an exempt student.
Additionally, following consultation with Treasury, DHS has determined that it would be incorrect to conclude that the payroll tax exemption for F-1 nonimmigrants “removes” any monies from the Social Security or Medicare program trust funds, despite many comments to this effect. At most, the statutory tax exemption has the (intended) effect of not generating FICA and FUTA payroll tax revenue when certain F-1 nonimmigrant students are employed.
Moreover, the amount of revenue affected by these payroll tax exemptions does not approach the $4 billion over five years (
With respect to the first point, some commenters noted that any employer savings related to tax laws are at least in part offset by administrative costs, legal fees, and staff time related to securing the authority under U.S. immigration law to employ the foreign-born worker.
DHS also observes that there are a number of other deficiencies in the figures suggested for the fiscal impact of the payroll tax exemptions for F-1 nonimmigrants. For instance, the figures assume incorrectly that every F-1 nonimmigrant on a STEM OPT extension has displaced a U.S. worker who would otherwise be subject to payroll taxes, and that every STEM OPT student ultimately draws down on the funds generated by payroll taxes. The figures also appear to be based on calculations related to the total number of students engaged in OPT, not just those on STEM OPT extensions. In addition to the reasons discussed above, DHS declines to make changes to a successful international student program based on speculative assertions about the impact of certain statutory tax exemptions on the programs funded by the FICA and FUTA taxes. Furthermore, if those tax exemptions are in fact problematic, they must be addressed by Congress.
One commenter specifically argued that the statutory authority for OPT was undermined by certain congressional action in 1990 to create an OPT-related pilot program, followed by the failure in 1994 to extend that program:
The only clear statutory authority that has ever existed for an OPT-like program was a three-year pilot program created by section 221 of the 1990 Immigration and Nationality Act [sic] that allowed foreign graduates to work in fields unrelated to their degree. . . . However Congress did not allow the program to exist for more than a few years after its creation, in part because an INS and DOL evaluation found that it “may have adverse consequences for some U.S. workers.”
The implication is that because Congress had authorized that specific OPT program by statute and then allowed it to expire, other forms of OPT that are not specifically authorized in statute are not legally justifiable.
Other commenters, however, submitted comments recognizing the legal justifications for the OPT program. A number of commenters, for example, recounted the history of post-completion OPT in support of the proposed rule. Those commenters noted that OPT employment had been provided by INS and DHS since at least 1947, and they concluded that DHS was on sound legal footing in including a STEM OPT extension within the OPT program. Some commenters stated that
One commenter that recognized the Department's legal authority in issuing this rule addressed the significance of Congress' actions in 1990 to create a pilot program in which F-1 students could receive employment authorization for practical training
In the Immigration Act of 1990, Congress authorized the creation of a pilot program which allowed F-1 student employment in positions that were unrelated to the alien's field of study. The creation of this program bolsters the argument that DHS's interpretation is reasonable. . . . The logical conclusion to draw here is that Congress only acted explicitly to authorize F-1 students to receive post-completion training in fields unrelated to their studies because the law already allowed post-completion training in fields related to the student's studies.
This commenter, along with many others, expressed support for the proposed rule as a reasonable construction of the authorities provided to the Department by the immigration laws.
Congress has delegated substantial authority to DHS to issue immigration regulations. This delegation includes broad powers to enforce the INA and a narrower directive to issue rules governing nonimmigrants.
To the extent that comments challenging DHS's legal authority concerned the OPT program generally, such comments are outside the scope of this rulemaking, which relates specifically to the availability of STEM OPT extensions. DHS did not propose to modify the general post-completion OPT program in the proposed rule. Moreover, to the extent that such comments can be construed as challenging DHS's authority to implement a STEM OPT extension in particular, DHS finds the comments unpersuasive.
Federal agencies charged with administration of the immigration laws have long interpreted the statutory authorities cited above to encompass on-the-job training that supplements classroom training for international students.
Moreover, during this period, Congress has had occasion to amend the INA in general, and F-1 nonimmigrant provisions in particular, on numerous occasions. Despite these numerous amendments, Congress has left completely undisturbed the longstanding interpretation that international students are authorized to work in practical training.
In light of the long regulatory history for the OPT program, including the Department's longstanding interpretation of the INA and the longstanding congressional recognition of that interpretation, DHS is confident that this rulemaking is consistent with statutory authority. As explained by the recent decision in the
DHS's interpretation of F-1—inasmuch as it permits employment for training purposes without requiring ongoing school enrollment—is “longstanding” and entitled
With respect to one commenter's reliance on the 1977 INS rulemaking, DHS recognizes that legacy INS previously noted the lack of specific statutory provisions expressly authorizing OPT. DHS agrees that the INA contains no direct and explicit provision creating a post-completion training program for F-1 students. But this does not mean that the Department lacks the authority to implement such a program. Indeed, as the 1977 Rule recognized, “section 103 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1103) . . . provides the Attorney General and the Commissioner of the Immigration and Naturalization Service certain powers and duties, including the establishment of regulations.” 42 FR at 26411. And it was pursuant to that authority that in the very 1977 rulemaking in which the INS made the statement cited by the commenter, the INS amended the regulations that authorized “a nonimmigrant alien student to engage in practical training” and continued to authorize OPT.
Further, the fact that Congress has recognized and approved of OPT is further supported, rather than undermined, by its creation of an OPT-related pilot program in 1990. First, the legislative history indicates that Congress understood the new pilot program, which authorized temporary employment unrelated to a student's field of study, as an expansion of off-campus employment authorization for F-1 nonimmigrants.
Finally, DHS disagrees with the suggestion that the rule's objectives conflict with one of the “INA's primary purpose[s]” of restricting immigration “to preserve jobs for [U.S.] workers.” The final rule, as with the proposed rule, contains important safeguards specifically designed to guard against such effects, while also furthering crucial benefits stemming from academic and cultural exchange, innovation, and economic growth. Accordingly, this rule maintains the U.S. Government's longstanding legal and policy positions on this matter; practical training is an important and recognized element of a student's educational experience and full course of study.
With respect to policy, DHS also acknowledges that legacy INS recognized in the same 1977 rulemaking that “[i]t may be that foreign students will be less likely to find employment, and perhaps fewer aliens would enter the U.S. to obtain their education here.”
As noted previously, the enhancements made by this rule are supported by data generally suggesting that international students contribute to the overall U.S. economy by building global connections between their hometowns and U.S. host cities.
DHS thus agrees with the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia, which explained the relationship between the F-1 and H-1B visa classifications in its recent decision in
F-1 and H-1B perform the interlocking task of recruiting students to pursue a course of study in the United States and retaining at least a portion of those individuals to work in the American economy. . . . But H-1B—which applies to aliens seeking to work in a “specialty occupation”—is far broader than the employment permitted by the OPT program. DHS's interpretation of the word “student” does not render any portion of H-1B, or its related restrictions, surplusage. Congress has tolerated practical training of alien students for almost 70 years, and it did nothing to prevent a potential overlap between F-1 and H-1B when it created the modern H-1B category in 1990. As such, the Court does not believe that DHS's interpretation is unreasonable merely because of its limited overlap with H-1B.
As for a commenter's reference to the
To the contrary, the Cap-Gap provision simply provides a temporary bridge between two lawfully available periods of nonimmigrant status. As noted above, the problem rectified by the Cap-Gap provision is the result of the misalignment between the academic year and the fiscal year. Because of this misalignment, F-1 students who were the beneficiaries of H-1B petitions often saw their F-1 status expire before they could effect the change to H-1B status, which required them to leave the United States and subsequently reenter on an H-1B visa. The Cap-Gap provision would simply remove the need to depart and subsequently reenter by extending the student's F-1 status for a limited number of months until his or her H-1B status commenced. The Cap-Gap provision is thus nothing more than a common-sense administrative measure that helps these students maintain legal status and avoids inconvenience to them and their employers. It is also fully consistent with existing legal authorities and the underlying purpose of the practical training program.
The final rule includes a number of requirements related to enforcement and oversight of the STEM OPT extension program. To better ensure its integrity, this rule prohibits STEM OPT extensions based on degrees from unaccredited institutions; provides for DHS site visits at STEM OPT employment sites; sets an overall limit for the amount of time a student may be unemployed during a STEM OPT extension; requires validation reports from students, as well as reporting from both students and employers, on the student's employment status; requires students to provide annual evaluation reports; and requires both students and employers to report material changes to training plans. The proposed rule included these provisions; DHS has retained the provisions in the final rule, with changes and clarifications in response to public comments. We summarize these provisions and changes below.
To qualify for a STEM OPT extension, a student's STEM degree must be received from a U.S. educational institution accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Department of Education.
DHS retains the accreditation requirements from the proposed rule, with only one change in response to public comments received. In cases where a student uses a previously obtained STEM degree to apply for the STEM OPT extension, the institution from which the qualifying degree was obtained must be accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Department of Education at the time of the student's application for the STEM OPT extension. This is a change from the proposed rule's requirement that the institution be accredited at the time the degree was conferred. This change will make the provision easier to administer by eliminating the need for DSOs to verify the historical accreditation status of other institutions.
DHS may, at its discretion, conduct site visits to ensure that employers and students meet program requirements, including that they are complying with assurances and that they possess the ability and resources to provide structured and guided work-based learning experiences in accordance with individualized Training Plans. The combination of requiring school accreditation and conducting discretionary DHS site visits of employers will reduce the potential for fraudulent use of F-1 student status during the period of STEM OPT training.
DHS retains the site visit provisions from the proposed rule, with one change to accommodate concerns about the potential disruption associated with unannounced site visits. DHS is including in this rule a requirement that DHS will provide notice to the employer 48 hours in advance of any site visit, unless the visit is triggered by a complaint or other evidence of noncompliance with the STEM OPT extension regulations, in which case DHS reserves the right to conduct a site visit without notice.
Under this rule, a student may be unemployed for no more than 90 days during his or her initial period of post-completion OPT, and for no more than a total of 150 days for students whose OPT includes a 24-month STEM OPT extension. This provision is finalized as proposed, with minor changes for clarity.
Under this rule, the employer must report to the relevant DSO when anF-1 student on a STEM OPT extension terminates or otherwise leaves his or her employment before the end of the authorized period of OPT and must do so no later than five business days after the student leaves employment. Employers must report this information to the DSO. The contact information for the DSO is on the student's Form I-20, Certificate of Eligibility for Nonimmigrant (F-1) Student Status (“Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility”), and on the student's Form I-983, Training Plan for STEM OPT Students.
The rule also enhances the ability to track F-1 students by requiring validation reporting every six months for such students on STEM OPT extensions. This additional requirement is important in fulfilling the goals of the STEM OPT extension and in timely and accurately tracking students, who are often away from their school's campus. Specifically, this rule requires students who are granted STEM OPT extensions to report to their DSOs every six months. As part of such reporting, students must confirm the validity of their SEVIS information, including legal name, address, employer name and address, and the status of current employment. This provision is largely finalized as proposed, but with some minor edits for clarity. The text has been reorganized to clearly state the types of events that require a validation report and to clearly state that the requirement to submit such reports starts on the date the STEM OPT extension begins and ends when the student's F-1 status expires or the 24-month OPT extension concludes, whichever occurs first.
As compared to the proposed rule, and in response to public comments received, the final rule makes a number of changes and clarifications to the student evaluation requirement. First, DHS has changed the frequency of the evaluation requirement. DHS proposed requiring an evaluation every six months, but is reducing the frequency to every 12 months. This change is intended to better reflect employer practices where annual reviews are standard, allowing students and employers to better align the evaluations required under this rule with current evaluation cycles. Second, DHS is providing additional flexibility for employer participation in the evaluation process. Although the NPRM would have required the student's immediate supervisor to sign the evaluation, the final rule allows any appropriate individual in the employer's organization with signatory authority to sign the evaluations that the student will submit to the DSO. Third, DHS clarifies that this evaluation is not meant to replace or duplicate an employer's general performance appraisal process. Instead, the student evaluation is intended to confirm that the student is making progress toward his or her training objectives. These evaluations will help document the student's progress toward the agreed-upon training goals and thus better ensure that such goals are being met.
This final rule also provides that if there are material modifications to or deviations from the Training Plan during the STEM OPT extension period, the student and employer must sign a modified Training Plan reflecting the material changes, and the student must file this modified Training Plan with the DSO at the earliest available opportunity. Material changes relating to training for the purposes of the STEM OPT extension include, but are not limited to, any change of Employer Identification Number (EIN) resulting from a corporate restructuring;
This aspect of the final rule represents a clarification of a proposed provision in the NPRM. Commenters on the proposed rule requested additional clarity with respect to what types of changes to or deviations from the training plan would be considered “material” and would therefore require the submission of a modified plan to the DSO. As discussed in further detail below, DHS is departing from the proposal in response to public comments.
DHS further notes that ICE is working toward technology that would allow students to update their basic information in SEVIS without gaining access to restricted areas of the system where student access would be inappropriate. Once ICE implements this technology, students will have an increased ability to maintain their own records. This would also decrease the workload on DSOs, who would no longer be required to update student information while students are participating in OPT.
Other commenters recommended further restrictions. Some commenters suggested that accreditation alone was insufficient to ensure the quality of degree programs and that additional quality standards should be adopted for STEM OPT extensions. Other commenters stated that students should be ineligible for STEM OPT extensions based on STEM degrees earned at for-profit institutions. One commenter stated that for-profit institutions had been abusing the OPT system and should no longer be able to place students in OPT positions. Another commenter asserted that prohibiting for-profit institutions from participating would eliminate the incentive of such institutions to recruit F-1 students under false pretenses. One commenter stated that the Administration is seeking to curb abuses by for-profit institutions in other areas, and that such schools should be precluded from placing students in OPT, or, at a minimum, should be subject to heightened oversight.
DHS also does not agree that a settlement or an open federal or state law enforcement investigation, without more, should bar an institution and its students from participating in the STEM OPT extension program. A settlement or investigation is not, itself, a finding of wrongdoing, and a settlement, investigation, or fine may be totally unrelated to matters impacting the STEM practical training opportunity. Barring participation based on nothing more than the existence of an investigation would be fair neither to the relevant institution nor its students.
DHS further declines to limit participation only to public and not-for-profit institutions, as there are accredited for-profit institutions that operate in a lawful manner and offer a quality education. As noted above, DHS has chosen to rely on the determinations of accrediting entities with respect to the quality of participating institutions and their degree programs. Schools meeting the accreditation requirement are subjected to significant oversight, including periodic review of the institution's programs to determine whether it is meeting the established standards in the profession and achieving its stated educational objectives. These checks, in addition to the protections built into the rule, represent a comprehensive mechanism for detecting and avoiding fraud. In addition, DHS is unaware of any special risk of fraud presented by accredited for-profit institutions, and the commenter did not identify any data showing that such institutions commit fraud at a higher rate than other institutions. Requiring F-1 students to attend public or not-for-profit institutions is an unnecessary limitation that would reduce the program's adaptability and potential.
Accordingly, this rule only permits a STEM OPT extension where the degree that is the basis of the extension is conferred by a domestic campus of a U.S. educational institution accredited by an entity recognized by the Department of Education and certified by SEVP at the time of application. Because SEVP certifies educational institutions at the campus level, the overseas campuses of U.S. educational institutions are not eligible for SEVP certification. A degree granted by an overseas campus of a U.S. educational institution will not qualify an F-1 student for a STEM OPT extension. This clarification is consistent with the basis for this rulemaking, which includes maintaining attractive conditions for international students to choose to study in the United States.
DHS's authority to administer and enforce the immigration laws, track and monitor students, and, relatedly, to conduct site visits, has strong statutory support. For example, federal law requires DHS to establish an electronic means to monitor and verify, among other things, the admission of international students into the United States, their enrollment and registration at approved institutions, and any other relevant acts by international students.
Relatedly, these statutes also obligate DHS to collect information concerning whether each nonimmigrant student is maintaining his or her status, any change in an international student's program participation as the result of being convicted of a crime, each international student's degree program and field of study, and the date of each nonimmigrant student's termination of enrollment in a program (including graduation, disciplinary action or other dismissal, and failure to re-enroll), among other things.
Additionally, Homeland Security Presidential Directive No. 2 (HSPD-2) (2001), which directed legacy INS to implement measures to end the abuse of student visas, requires DHS to track the status of international students (to include the proposed major course of study, the individual's status as a full-time student, the classes in which the student enrolls, and the student's source of financial support) and to develop guidelines that may include control mechanisms, such as limited-duration student immigration status. HSPD-2 also provides that DHS may implement strict criteria for renewing student immigration status. The rule's provisions regarding employer site visits are consistent with the foregoing authorities, which require DHS to monitor students pursuing STEM OPT training programs. The site visits reduce the potential for abuse and ensure that STEM OPT students receive structured and guided work-based learning experiences.
Finally, DHS agrees that the Department of Labor (among other Federal, state, and local agencies) has significant expertise in worksite investigations, and may consult with the Department of Labor and other agencies as appropriate. Also, where appropriate, DHS will refer matters to the Department of Labor and other agencies should a site visit suggest that such a referral is warranted.
By contrast, another commenter recommended that DHS allow unlimited unemployment during the STEM OPT extension period. The commenter stated that limiting the unemployment period will have the effect of tying students more closely to one employer and limiting their ability to change jobs. The commenter was concerned this would increase the opportunity for student exploitation. A different commenter suggested that DHS allow STEM OPT students to leave their initial employer during the 24-month extension, so as to allow students greater mobility and avoid potential exploitation. One commenter stated that the lack of mobility and other protections for individuals participating in OPT could lead those students who are worried about going out of status to “collude” with exploitative employers to cover up violations of the safeguards for U.S. workers.
DHS also believes that limiting unemployment during the STEM OPT extension period is necessary to support the program's purpose and integrity. The rationale for the program is to extend status to facilitate practical training. Allowing an unlimited period of unemployment would thus undermine the purpose for the extension and increase the opportunity for fraud and abuse. Moreover, the limited period of unemployment does not preclude a student who is unhappy with his or her current employer (for whatever reason) from effectively searching for a new practical training opportunity. Under this rule, the student may seek such a new opportunity either while still employed with his or her current employer or in the period of unemployment provided by this rule. Nothing in the rule prevents students from switching employers or from being unemployed for a temporary period, as long as they complete and submit a new training plan and comply with all reporting requirements.
Finally, students who believe they are being exploited or abused by their employers in any manner have several mechanisms to address their concerns, including reporting the conduct to their DSO or the SEVP Response Center, or seeking legal redress in appropriate cases. DHS also provides information about studying in the United States on the DHS Study in the States Web site, which links to State Department information for nonimmigrants, including a “Rights, Protections and Resources” pamphlet.
DHS recognizes that the rule requires reporting from both employers and students. While such dual reporting requirements may seem duplicative, DHS believes they are critical to ensuring compliance with program requirements. Employer reporting, for example, would be prudent in a situation involving a student who fails to report his or her termination so as to remain in the United States in violation of his or her status. Employers are also likely to have additional resources in comparison to individual employees, especially those who recently became unemployed. Moreover, DHS believes the burden imposed by the reporting requirements is minimal. Employers and students can satisfy these requirements with a simple email to the DSO indicating that the student was terminated or has otherwise departed, as well as the applicable date of such termination or departure.
Additionally, with the changes in this final rule, an employer is now required to report the termination or departure of a STEM OPT student within five business days of the termination or departure, if the termination or departure is prior to the end of the authorized period of OPT. DHS believes this requirement, placed upon the entity with the closest connection to the student at the time of the termination or departure, is an effective mechanism for tracking students. The provision reflects DHS' belief that the responsibility to report should initially rest with the student or employer, as appropriate, and that DSOs should continue serving in the same role they had before—helping DHS track students and providing timely access to reported information. This system also reflects DHS' view that if an educational institution wishes to gain the benefits of F-1 students' enrollment with their school, including through the attraction of such students based upon the potential to participate in an extended period of practical training via the STEM OPT extension, the institution will be willing to undertake the associated reporting requirements as well. Finally, DHS is currently working on ways to allow other program participants to input information directly into SEVIS. Until that occurs, however, DHS believes the current reporting protocol should remain in place.
A commenter expressed concern about being required to use the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan to evaluate STEM OPT students, explaining that the proposed rule's requirements “will not add value and will merely add redundant bureaucratic requirements for employers, who are already following their own internal processes for these employees.” The commenter stated that its company already “provides an annual review of individual employee performance and compensation” and that its review process “is the culmination of year round performance management activities in which employees receive a formal review of their performance, development goals for the upcoming year, and a compensation review.” One commenter stated that the proposed process for completing the evaluation (which entails the student preparing it, the employer signing off on it, and the DSO retaining a copy) is redundant to the Training Plan.
DHS has changed the title of the evaluation section to “Evaluation on Student Progress.” DHS has not modified the evaluation to include a separate space for an employer to provide comments, because many employers expressed concern about the burden involved in reviewing the Training Plan, and DHS determined that an additional requirement was unnecessary. However, nothing in the rule prevents an employer from attaching and submitting such an appraisal of a STEM OPT student.
DHS disagrees that the student evaluation provision duplicates or displaces existing employer processes for evaluating employee performance. The evaluation does not require employers to evaluate how well a STEM OPT student is performing his or her core duties at a job. Instead, the evaluation section of the form is a mechanism for the student to document his or her progress towards meeting specific training goals, as those goals are described in the Training Plan. DHS also disagrees that the student evaluation provision duplicates or is redundant to the Training Plan. In contrast to the Training Plan, which helps the student set his or her training objectives and ensures that the student's training conforms to the requirements of this rule, the 12-month evaluation confirms that the student is making progress toward his or her training objectives.
As finalized in this rule, a student on a 24-month STEM OPT extension must submit his or her first evaluation to the DSO within one year and 10 days of the first day of the validity period reflected on the Employment Authorization Document (EAD). Similarly, the STEM OPT student will be required to submit the final evaluation within 10 days of the conclusion of his or her practical training opportunity. DHS generally expects employers and students to be able to complete all reporting in a timely manner.
In response to the questions from DSOs, DHS notes that the deadlines for submitting the required training plan and evaluations are firm. In order to maintain F-1 status, the STEM OPT student must submit the required materials to the DSO on a timely basis. As noted above, updates to SEVIS are being developed to make it easier for students to meet these submission requirements. DHS does note, however, that for the annual evaluation requirement, a full Training Plan form need not be submitted. Rather, the student would need to timely provide the evaluation section of the form to the DSO. DHS believes the associated timeline provides sufficient flexibility for all parties to comply with these requirements.
Finally, a commenter recommended placing the responsibility for reporting material changes with the F-1 student, not the employer. The commenter reasoned that shifting this particular reporting obligation to students is consistent with students' other reporting obligations under the proposed rule, including “reporting changes of employer.”
DHS agrees, however, that further clarification is warranted. Accordingly, DHS has revised the final regulatory text to make clear that the STEM OPT student and employer are jointly required to report material changes. The regulatory text also clarifies that material changes may include, but are not limited to, any change of Employer Identification Number resulting from a corporate restructuring; any reduction in compensation from the amount previously submitted on the Training Plan that is not a result of a reduction in hours worked; any significant decrease in hours per week that a student engages in the STEM training opportunity; and any decrease in hours below the 20-hours-per-week minimum required under this rule. If these or other material changes occur, the student and employer must sign a modified Training Plan reflecting the material changes or deviations, and they must ensure that the plan is submitted to the student's DSO at the earliest available opportunity.
DHS agrees with the comment stating that a change of supervisor does not, by itself, meet the level of a material change or deviation that would require submitting a modified Training Plan. Similarly, it is not necessarily a material change if a STEM OPT student rotates among different projects, positions, or departments, or there is a change in the F-1 student's assigned division or research focus. Such changes are not material unless they render inaccurate the information in the F-1 student's original Training Plan related to the nature, purpose, oversight, or assessment of the student's practical training opportunity.
In response to commenters' concerns, DHS has revised the regulatory text to make this clear. Under this final rule, a material change is a change that DHS has specifically identified as “material” by regulation, renders an employer attestation inaccurate, or renders inaccurate the information in the Training Plan on the nature, purpose, oversight, or assessment of the student's practical training opportunity. Thus, for example, a change in supervisor that results in such inaccuracy would be a
Because DHS expects that not all changes in supervisor would be material, DHS has revised the Training Plan form to replace the reference to a student's supervisor with a reference to the “Official Representing the Employer.” Along with the changes discussed above, this change aims to produce flexibility for employers in completing the requisite sections of the form and further clarifies that the Training Plan would not require updating solely because the student is assigned new project supervision.
Finally, DHS declines to adopt the recommendation to make the student solely responsible for reporting material changes, as the employer should be accountable for the Training Plan that it helped prepare. This joint employer-student requirement strengthens DHS's ability to track F-1 nonimmigrants and is essential to monitoring employer compliance, maintaining strong U.S. worker safeguards, and ensuring continuing employer-accountability.
DHS believes that the enforcement, monitoring, and oversight provisions of this rule provide the necessary tracking resources and mechanisms to appropriately monitor compliance and to enforce the law against violators. For these reasons, the Department declines to adopt the suggestion to publish a list of program violators.
With regard to the 2014 GAO Report, DHS first notes that the report and its conclusions concerned individuals beyond the limited population of STEM OPT students, who represent a small subset of the total F-1 population engaging in authorized employment in the United States.
• Identifying and addressing risks in the OPT program through interagency coordination, including using relevant information from ICE's Counterterrorism and Criminal Exploitation Unit and field offices;
• Requiring that F-1 OPT students, both still in school and who have completed their education, provide DSOs with employer information, including their employer's name and address, so that DSOs can record that information in SEVIS;
• Developing and distributing guidance to DSOs for determining whether a practical training opportunity relates to a student's area of study, and requiring that DSOs provide information in SEVIS to help ensure that the regulatory requirement is met;
• Requiring that students report to DSOs, and that DSOs record in SEVIS, students' initial date of employment and any period of unemployment;
• Developing and implementing a process for SEVP to inform USCIS when students approved for OPT have transferred schools;
• Developing guidance to DSOs and USCIS regarding the definition of a full academic year for the purposes of recommending and authorizing OPT; and
• Developing and implementing a mechanism to monitor available information in SEVIS to determine if international students are accruing more OPT than allowed by DHS regulation.
Although DHS is always interested in ways to improve the security and efficacy of its programs, the Department believes that the above-referenced enforcement measures, as well as those described in this final rule, are thorough and sufficient to address the concerns discussed in the GAO report that relate to STEM OPT extensions.
Other commenters expressed concerns about consulting firms that may seek to exploit F-1 students by underpaying them during their STEM OPT extension. One commenter asked DHS to implement background checks for all STEM OPT students before they accept employment opportunities. Similarly, another commenter suggested that DHS include annual in-person reissuance of identification cards with photos and fingerprints among measures required for “all OPT students.”
Regarding the request for DHS to implement background checks on STEM OPT students, DHS confirms that this process is already in place. USCIS conducts background checks on all STEM OPT students before rendering a final decision on their Form I-765, Application for Employment Authorization. DHS does not believe the commenters' suggested additional security measures (such as an annual ID card reissuance requirement) are necessary or appropriate at this time.
This rule allows only certain F-1 nonimmigrants to receive STEM OPT extensions. The rule requires the student's STEM OPT opportunity to be directly related to the student's STEM degree; defines which fields DHS
As noted above, under this final rule, the student's proposed STEM OPT opportunity must be directly related to the student's STEM degree. Like OPT generally, a STEM OPT extension is at its core a continuation of the student's program of study in a work environment. This provision is finalized without change.
This final rule limits eligibility for the STEM OPT extension to those qualifying students who have completed a degree in a STEM field. The degree that serves as the basis for the STEM OPT extension must be a bachelor's, master's, or doctoral degree. Under this rule, a “STEM field” is a field included in the Department of Education's CIP taxonomy within the 2-digit series containing engineering, biological sciences, mathematics, and physical sciences, or a related field. In general, related fields will include fields involving research, innovation, or development of new technologies using engineering, mathematics, computer science, or natural sciences (including physical, biological, and agricultural sciences). This definition is drawn in part from a definition developed by the Department of Education's National Center for Education Statistics (NCES).
DHS will maintain a complete list of fields that DHS has determined fall within the regulatory definition of “STEM field.” This list is known as the STEM Designated Degree Program List (“STEM list”). DHS may publish updates to the STEM list in the
In the proposed rule, DHS advised commenters that it was considering future revisions of the STEM list to include certain degrees listed within the two-digit series for Agriculture, Agriculture Operations, and Related Sciences; Computer and Information Sciences and Support Services; Engineering; Engineering Technologies and Engineering-Related Fields; Biological and Biomedical Sciences; Mathematics and Statistics; and Physical Sciences. As noted in the comment summary below, DHS received a number of recommendations for fields to add to the STEM list and one recommendation to remove a field from the list. As discussed below DHS has revised the list in response to the comments received; the final list is available in the docket for this rulemaking. Consistent with past practice, DHS will continue to accept for consideration suggested changes to the STEM list at
The rule allows students to use a previously obtained and directly related STEM degree from an accredited school as a basis to apply for a STEM OPT extension. This provision makes the STEM OPT extension available to students who have significant prior background in STEM but who are currently engaging in practical training that has been authorized based on their study towards a non-STEM degree. The extension is available only to those students who seek to develop and utilize STEM skills from their prior STEM degree during the STEM OPT extension. A DSO at the student's school of most recent enrollment is responsible for certifying a prior STEM degree, which must have been obtained in the ten years prior to the DSO recommendation. In addition, the regulatory text clarifies that the practical training opportunity that is the basis for the 24-month STEM OPT extension must directly relate to the degree that qualifies the student for such extension, including a previously obtained STEM degree.
This final rule includes a number of requirements intended to ensure the educational benefit of a STEM OPT extension based on a previously obtained STEM degree. First, for a student relying on a previously obtained degree, the student's most recent degree must also be from an accredited institution, and the student's practical training opportunity must be directly related to the previously obtained STEM degree. Second, for a previously obtained degree to qualify as the basis for a STEM OPT extension, the degree must have been received within the 10 years preceding the student's STEM OPT application date.
As previously noted, the final rule clarifies that the prior degree cannot have been conferred via an overseas campus. The institution that conferred the prior degree must be accredited and SEVP certified at the time the DSO recommends the student for the STEM OPT application.
The final rule clarifies issues relating to various types of practical training scenarios and whether such scenarios qualify an F-1 student for a STEM OPT extension. The rule specifically clarifies that a student may not receive a STEM OPT extension for a volunteer opportunity. The rule also requires that a student must have a bona fide employer-employee relationship with an employer to obtain a STEM OPT extension. In response to comments received, DHS clarifies that students may be employed by start-up businesses, but all regulatory requirements must be met and the student may not provide employer attestations on his or her own behalf.
The final rule clarifies that F-1 students who have completed all other course requirements for their STEM degree may be eligible for a STEM OPT extension notwithstanding the
The requirement that the practical training opportunity be directly related to the student's degree ensures that the opportunity is an extension of the student's academic studies and enhances the knowledge acquired during those studies. The purpose of the rule is not to give students unlimited employment opportunities. At the same time, the “directly related” standard allows sufficient flexibility to give F-1 students a range of options when choosing how to apply and enhance their acquired knowledge in work settings. DHS recognizes that the knowledge acquired when earning a STEM degree typically can be applied in a range of related fields, and the Department does not seek to narrow such options for students; rather, this rule requires that the practical training opportunity be directly related to the F-1 student's field of study. Limiting opportunities to the exact field of study as named on the degree would create an unnecessary and artificial distinction, resulting in fewer opportunities for STEM OPT students.
DHS notes that the Training Plan required for a STEM OPT extension under this rule includes an entry for articulating how the practical training opportunity is directly related to the student's field of study. DHS will carefully consider this explanation, among other relevant evidence, when evaluating the relationship between the practical training opportunity and the student's degree.
Moreover, as noted in the proposed rule, DHS received similar comments in response to the 2008 IFR creating the 17-month extension for STEM graduates. DHS has taken these concerns into consideration in crafting this rule, and the Department determined that extending OPT is particularly appropriate for STEM students because of the specific nature of their studies and fields and the increasing need for enhancement of STEM skill application outside of the classroom. DHS also found, as noted previously, that unlike post-degree training in many non-STEM fields, training in STEM fields often involves multi-year research projects
Finally, DHS also notes that the rule does expand the availability of STEM OPT extensions to certain STEM students with advanced degrees in non-STEM fields. Under the rule, a student who earns a STEM degree and then goes on to earn a non-STEM advanced degree, such as a Master of Business Administration (MBA), may apply for a STEM OPT extension following the MBA so long as the practical training opportunity is directly related to the prior STEM degree.
Many commenters emphasized the importance of also allowing STEM OPT extensions for certain students who studied in fields that are not classified within the proposed definition of “STEM field.” Some commenters stated that DHS should not base its definition of the term on the NCES definition alone.
Similarly, another commenter advised that the NCES description of STEM fields “is too narrow to capture graduate level STEM fields, especially those being pursued by students who obtained their baccalaureate-level education outside the United States, and who have come here for more specialized STEM education.” Another commenter stated that the proposed rule's definition would “create[] a static definition of STEM fields that fails to provide the flexibility to adapt to the latest innovations and discoveries in STEM.” The commenter suggested that DHS clarify that it may add new CIP codes to the list beyond the summary groups specifically identified in the proposed regulatory text.
Another commenter stated that DHS's definition of “STEM field” differs from the NCES definition of the term in that DHS has included “related fields” in its definition. The commenter believed that DHS's expanded definition would lead to requests for DHS to include in the new STEM list a number of fields that DHS had included in prior versions of the STEM list, but that did not fall within the summary groups that DHS identified in the NPRM (mathematics, natural sciences (including physical sciences and biological/agricultural sciences), engineering/engineering technologies, and computer/information sciences). To address this concern, the commenter suggested that DHS include an innovation or competitiveness-related criterion as a factor in selecting STEM fields for inclusion on the list.
DHS also recognizes that some STEM fields of study may fall outside the summary groups (or series) identified in the NCES definition. As many commenters noted, the proposed rule defined “STEM field” to also include fields of study
DHS agrees, however, with comments suggesting that the “related fields” criterion alone may provide insufficient guidance and predictability to adjudicators and the public. Consistent with these commenters' suggestions and the basis of the STEM OPT extension, DHS has revised the regulatory text to clarify that in general, related fields will
DHS notes that a number of the additional fields that commenters recommended for inclusion on the STEM list are included in the final list DHS is adopting with this rulemaking. These include Medical Technology (CIP code 51.1005), Health/Medical Physics (CIP code 51.2205), Econometrics and Quantitative Economics (CIP code 45.0603), Exercise Physiology (CIP code 26.0908), Neuroscience (CIP code 26.1501), Pharmacoeconomics/Pharmaceutical Economics (CIP code 51.2007), Industrial and Physical Pharmacy and Cosmetic Sciences (CIP code 51.2009), Pharmaceutical Sciences (CIP code 51.2010),
With respect to suggestions to include certain accounting degree programs, DHS notes that accounting is not generally recognized as a STEM field and does not involve research, innovation, or development of new technologies using engineering, mathematics, computer science, or natural sciences (including physical, biological, and agricultural sciences). DHS is thus not generally including accounting degrees on the STEM List. DHS also disagrees with the suggestion to prohibit eligibility based on “financial engineering” and “quantitative finance” degrees. Financial Mathematics is a very specialized field that involves utilizing traditional research methods and applying scientific principles and rigorous mathematical concepts (such as stochastic calculus). These underlying principles, and not the end employer, dictate the bases for including this field on the STEM list.
Some commenters requested that DHS include additional categories of degrees on the STEM list. One commenter recommended that DHS designate at the two-digit level a number of potentially “related fields,” including Psychology (CIP code 42), Health professions and Related Programs (CIP code 51), Military Science, Leadership and Operational Art (CIP code 28), Military Technologies and Applied Sciences (CIP code 29), and Agriculture, Agriculture Operations, and Related Sciences (CIP
Some commenters stated that DSOs need clear guidance on how to determine whether a previously earned degree qualifies as a STEM degree sufficient to support a STEM OPT extension. Some commenters also stated that DSOs may have trouble verifying that a practical training opportunity is closely related to the student's prior field of study. Some commenters asked DHS to clarify whether the DSO at the school from which the student received his or her most recent degree would be the DSO responsible for verifying the Department of Education CIP codes used to classify the student's previously earned degree. Many commenters noted that for students with double majors or dual degrees, only the primary major's CIP code is visible on the Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility. Some commenters expressed an interest in displaying a CIP code history (
Thus, prior to approving a student's STEM OPT extension based on a previously earned degree, the DSO must ensure that the student is eligible for the extension based on the degree, which includes verifying that the degree is on the current STEM list, that the degree directly relates to the practical training opportunity, and that the degree was issued by an institution that is currently accredited and SEVP-certified. DHS acknowledges that such verification may place an additional burden on DSOs. But DHS expects this burden will be minimal, as the required information should be readily accessible in most cases.
With respect to verifying previously earned degrees, DHS notes that many institutions already require information about such degrees from incoming students. As such, the certification required by this rule is consistent with an academic institution's normal review of its students' prior accomplishments. Additionally, for the majority of degrees granted in the past 10 years, recent and upcoming improvements to SEVIS may provide additional assistance to DSOs. CIP codes began appearing in SEVIS in 2008 and on Form I-20 Certificates of Eligibility in 2009, and in the December 2015 SEVIS upgrade, SEVP improved the student history section for DSO reference.
With respect to determining whether a previously earned degree is in a STEM field, DHS notes that DSOs will only be required to determine whether the degree is on the current STEM list (
Similarly, with respect to the institution that conferred the prior degree, the rule does not require the DSO to verify whether the institution was accredited or SEVP-certified at the time the degree was conferred. The rule requires the DSO to determine only whether that institution is currently accredited and SEVP-certified. Regarding the accreditation requirement, the DSO may simply consult the Department of Education's Database of Accredited Postsecondary Institutions and Programs, or any other reasonable resource used by DSOs, to verify the institution's accreditation. Regarding SEVP-certification, the DSO may search the Certified Schools list available at
Additionally, DHS understands the concerns raised by DSOs regarding students with double majors or dual degrees. DHS clarifies that in scenarios where a student has simultaneously earned a degree with a double major, or more than one degree, the DSO should first attempt to confirm eligibility through SEVIS data. If the DSO is unable to do so, the DSO may then consult the student's academic file at the DSO's own institution to review whether the qualifying STEM degree was listed on the student's application for admission. The DSO's educational institution either would already have access to that information or could request documentation from the student. For further clarity, DHS has amended the regulatory text at 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C) in this final rule to include a specific reference to dual degrees.
Finally, although DHS shares commenters' goals of minimizing administrative burdens on DSOs and their institutions, the Department disagrees with the recommendation to allow STEM OPT extensions based on previously earned degrees only if such degrees are obtained from the students' current educational institutions. This restriction would severely limit educational options for F-1 students, as it would effectively require those who may wish to engage in extended practical training to pursue advanced degrees at the same institutions in which they had earned their prior degree(s). Indeed, the limitation may even create disincentives to attend smaller colleges or other institutions that may not provide as many degree programs as larger universities. And it would disqualify students based on nothing more than their decision to switch institutions. Curtailing F-1 students' options with respect to educational institutions in the United States is inconsistent with the rule's objectives. Furthermore, as noted previously, DHS has considered the suggestion to shift the rule's recordkeeping and reporting obligations to students and employers and is currently developing technological capabilities aimed at reducing administrative burdens on DSOs, employers, and students.
Moreover, DHS notes that employers are likely to provide practical training opportunities to candidates who are qualified based upon their individual degrees and knowledge. As noted previously, this rule provides that when a STEM OPT extension is based on a previously earned STEM degree, the practical training opportunity must be directly related to that previous degree. Based in part on this requirement, DHS expects that an employer will accept an F-1 student that the employer believes is qualified and prepared to engage in the offered position. While the pool of qualified STEM OPT candidates based on prior STEM degrees earned in the United States up to 10 years ago may be small, DHS believes the provision is an important feature of the final rule.
1. A student who completes a STEM degree and then subsequently completes a non-STEM degree;
2. A student who earns a non-STEM degree after previously completing a double major or receiving dual degrees, where one major or degree was in a STEM field and the other was not; and
3. A student who, while on post-completion OPT for a non-STEM degree, completes a STEM degree (
To further clarify this proposal, the commenter suggested that DHS delete the words “previously” and “previous” in proposed 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C)(
DHS considered making adjustments to the rule to allow STEM OPT extensions for all students described in the third scenario, but the Department decided against making such changes after weighing several factors. First,
DHS received several comments concerning various types of practical training scenarios and whether they qualify under the STEM OPT extension provisions of this rule. For the reasons described below, DHS has determined that as a result of the rule's general requirements, a student seeking a STEM OPT extension will not be allowed to use a volunteer opportunity as a basis for a STEM OPT extension. In addition, a STEM OPT extension must involve a bona fide employer-employee relationship. Finally, DHS clarifies that under this final rule students may seek practical training opportunities with start-up businesses, so long as all regulatory requirements are met. Such students may not provide employer attestations on their own behalf.
DHS, moreover, anticipates that it will be very unusual, though not expressly prohibited, for students to work with more than two employers at the same time during the STEM OPT extension period, given that each employer must fully comply with the requirements of this rule and employ the student for no less than 20 hours per week.
DHS also clarifies that F-1 students seeking STEM OPT extensions may be employed by new “start-up” businesses so long as all regulatory requirements are met, including that the employer adheres to the training plan requirements, remains in good standing with E-Verify, will provide compensation to the STEM OPT student commensurate to that provided to similarly situated U.S. workers, and has the resources to comply with the proposed training plan. For instance, alternative compensation may be allowed during a STEM OPT extension as long as the F-1 student can show that he or she is a bona fide employee and that his or her compensation, including any ownership interest in the employer entity (such as stock options), is commensurate with the compensation provided to other similarly situated U.S. workers.
This option, however, is not applicable to a request for a STEM OPT extension based on a previously obtained STEM degree; in such a case, the prior STEM degree must be fully conferred. The provision on previously obtained degrees requires that the student must have received the degree itself within 10 years preceding his or her STEM OPT application date. In order to have received the degree, the student would have needed to complete his or her thesis (or equivalent), if such a requirement pertains to the degree. Moreover, DHS does not believe it would be necessary or appropriate to excuse the thesis requirement for previously earned STEM degrees. Importantly, the option to use a previously earned STEM degree as the basis for a STEM OPT extension is for students who are participating in a 12-month period of OPT based on the completion of coursework toward a non-STEM degree at a higher educational level. Because such students have been admitted to degree programs at a higher educational level, DHS anticipates that such students would have already received their lower-level STEM degrees. Moreover, because the rule allows previously earned STEM degrees to qualify if they were conferred up to 10 years ago, DHS believes the need for conferral of the degree would further ensure the integrity of the program and reduce the possibility of fraud.
Finally, DHS does not agree that there are contradictions between the USCIS policy memorandum and the ICE guidance cited in the comments. The USCIS policy memorandum is consistent with the position taken by SEVP in the ICE Policy Guidance (1004-03) with respect to the completion of a thesis (or equivalent). For example, section 6.7 of the ICE policy guidance states that a student in a graduate-level program who has completed all course requirements except for completion of the thesis (or equivalent) may apply for either pre-completion or post-completion OPT while completing the thesis. A student in this situation who applies for and receives post-completion OPT may work full-time in a field related to his or her degree; may apply for the STEM OPT extension if otherwise eligible; and would be eligible for the Cap-Gap extension.
The final rule imposes certain additional requirements on employers as a condition of employing STEM OPT students. This rule requires all such employers to participate in E-Verify and to make a number of attestations intended to better ensure the educational benefit of STEM OPT extensions and the protection of U.S. workers. The proposed rule included these provisions, and the final rule retains them with certain changes and clarifications in response to public comments. We summarize these provisions and changes below.
This final rule requires all employers training STEM OPT students to participate in E-Verify, as has been required since 2008. E-Verify electronically compares information contained on Form I-9, Employment Eligibility Verification, with records contained in government databases to help employers confirm the identity and employment eligibility of newly-hired employees. DHS includes this requirement because E-Verify is a well-established and important measure that complements other oversight elements in the rule, and because it represents an efficient means for employers to determine the employment eligibility of new hires, including students who have received STEM OPT extensions.
DHS adopts the regulation as proposed with regard to E-Verify, but has modified Form I-983, Training Plan for STEM OPT Students, so that it will not require the insertion of an employer's E-Verify Company Identification number (E-Verify ID number). DHS makes this change in response to comments that raised concerns regarding the potential for fraud that may arise from requiring this number on a form accessible by other program participants, including students and DSOs.
As noted in further detail below (
Finally, consistent with the proposed rule, the final rule requires that the terms and conditions of an employer's STEM practical training opportunity—including duties, hours and compensation—be commensurate with those provided to the employer's similarly situated U.S. workers. Work duties must be designed to assist the student with continued learning and be set at a minimum of 20 hours per week. If the employer does not employ and has not recently employed more than two similarly situated U.S. workers, the employer must instead ensure that the terms and conditions of a STEM practical training opportunity are commensurate with those for similarly situated U.S. workers employed by other employers of analogous size and industry and in the same geographic area of employment. The term “similarly situated U.S. workers” includes U.S. workers performing similar duties and with similar educational backgrounds, employment experience, levels of responsibility, and skill sets as the STEM OPT student. The student's compensation must be reported on the Training Plan, and the student and employer will be responsible for reporting any change in compensation to help the Department monitor whether STEM OPT students are being compensated fairly. The employer must affirm that all attestations contained in the Training Plan are true and correct to the best of the employer's knowledge, information and belief.
Some commenters noted that employers would be less likely to use E-Verify unless such use was required. Other commenters stated that the extra burden and expense placed on employers by the E-Verify requirement helps protect U.S. workers by providing an incentive for employers to hire U.S. citizens over international students. Other commenters criticized the E-Verify requirement on the grounds that it also created a burden for students by limiting where they could receive work-based training. Some commenters noted that employers are willing to incur E-Verify-related burdens because they believe that an F-1 student may be their only candidate for the specific job.
The MOU also makes clear that USCIS may suspend or terminate an employer's access to E-Verify if the employer violates Title VII or section 274B of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1324b, fails to follow required verification procedures, or otherwise fails to comply with E-Verify requirements. Any employer who violates the immigration-related unfair employment practices provisions in section 274B of the INA could face civil penalties, including back pay awards. Employers who violate Title VII face potential back pay awards, as well as compensatory and punitive damages. Under the MOU, employers who violate either section 274B of the INA or Title VII may have their participation in E-Verify terminated. DHS may also immediately suspend or terminate the MOU, and thereby the employer's participation in E-Verify, if DHS or the Social Security Administration determines that the employer failed to comply with established E-Verify procedures or requirements.
DHS disagrees with comments asserting that E-Verify will impose significant burdens or costs on employers or students.
Accordingly, DHS is finalizing the proposed E-Verify requirement without change. DHS invites employers and employees to learn more about E-Verify. Tutorials, guidance, and other informative resources are available at
One commenter cited anecdotal reports of E-Verify ID numbers being posted online and F-1 students fraudulently using those numbers to apply for STEM OPT extensions. According to the commenter, there is no follow-up or investigation as to whether the student actually works for the employer whose number is listed on Form I-765, Application for Employment Authorization, so students can freely pass these numbers around, and have reportedly done so. The commenter also asked DHS to bolster E-Verify anti-fraud measures by allowing the employer to file the application instead of the prospective employee. Similarly, another commenter asked DHS to give employers a list of F-1 students who have used their E-Verify ID numbers as a security measure.
DHS understands, however, that some employers take significant steps to protect their E-Verify ID numbers from publication, including mailing Applications for Employment Authorization directly to USCIS on their employees' behalf in order to avoid revealing the number to such employees. Some employers believe that the unauthorized release or publication of an employer's E-Verify ID number could result in significant fraud that might be difficult to redress. Accordingly, in response to these concerns, DHS has decided to remove the E-Verify ID number from the Training Plan for STEM OPT Students. DHS notes that it will continue to receive such employers' E-Verify ID numbers through the submission of Applications for Employment Authorization.
DHS declines to adopt the suggestion to change the current STEM OPT application process so that the employer (rather than the student) would be required to file the Application for Employment Authorization on the student's behalf. This change, in which the employer would effectively become the applicant for employment authorization, would represent a significant policy shift and could produce broad and unwanted repercussions. Among other things, such a change would largely and improperly exclude the STEM OPT student from the application process, and further make the student dependent on the employer for maintaining the student's status. DHS believes such a change to its longstanding policy would be disproportionate to the relatively few alleged cases of fraud. Finally, DHS declines to adopt the recommendation to provide employers with lists of F-1 students, due to privacy considerations and the administrative burdens related to issuing such lists.
Those commenters stated that the proposed attestation was overly broad and problematic. One commenter stated that this language could restrict the employer's ability to terminate a U.S. worker for cause. As an example, the commenter added that “if an employee's work performance was deficient enough to warrant termination for cause, but the employee's work group also had employees working pursuant to STEM OPT, one could argue that the termination could not proceed.” Another commenter stated that “if an employee working pursuant to STEM OPT reported another employee for egregious misconduct, and the allegations were substantiated, an employer would be unable to proceed with a termination of the individual.”
To alleviate these concerns, commenters alternatively requested that DHS entirely eliminate the attestation requirement, delete the word “terminate” from the attestation, or change the language to read as follows: “The employer is not providing the practical training opportunity for the purpose of and with the intent to directly terminate, lay off, or furlough, any full- or part-time, temporary or permanent U.S. workers.” Additionally, a commenter recommended amending the proposed rule to include a “presumption of non-violation for any employment decisions” that are supported by bona fide business reasons or reasons unrelated to replacing U.S. workers with STEM OPT students. Finally, another commenter proposed that DHS consult protections provided to U.S. workers pursuant to provisions in the H-1B regulations.
DHS, however, has made changes to the attestation in the final rule in response to comments expressing concern that the proposed attestation, including its reference to “terminating,” could be understood to prohibit STEM OPT employers from terminating U.S. workers for cause. In instituting this policy, the Department intends that employers be prohibited from using STEM OPT students to replace full- or part-time, temporary or permanent U.S. workers. DHS has revised certification 4(d) on the Training Plan, and the associated regulatory text, to say exactly that.
DHS further clarifies that hiring a STEM OPT student and signing certification 4(d) does not bar an employer from discharging an employee for cause, including inadequate performance or violation of workplace rules. DHS will look at the totality of the circumstances to assess compliance with the non-replacement certification. For example, evidence that an employer hired a STEM OPT student and at the same time discharged a U.S. worker who was employed in a different division, worked on materially different project assignments, or possessed substantially different skills, would tend to suggest that the U.S. worker was not replaced by the STEM OPT student. Conversely, evidence that an employer sought to obscure the nexus between a STEM OPT student's hire and the termination of a U.S. worker by delaying or otherwise manipulating the timing of the termination would tend to suggest that the U.S. worker was replaced by the STEM OPT student. In any event, the barred “replacement” of U.S. workers refers to the loss of existing or prior employment.
With respect to the comment suggesting that DHS consult the protections for U.S. workers found in the H-1B statute, DHS notes that it considered those protections and other similar provisions in the INA. DHS relied on many of these provisions as informative guideposts for this rulemaking, but the Department was also required to weigh the specific and different goals of the STEM OPT extension program and other factors specific to this rulemaking. The Department believes it has found the right balance with revised certification 4(d). This revised certification makes the Department's policy clear and thus provides protection for U.S. workers while addressing the legitimate business concerns raised by commenters.
DHS has also considered the suggestion to establish a timeframe, such as the 120-day period suggested by commenters, for prohibiting layoffs of U.S. workers related to the employment of STEM OPT students. DHS believes, however, that its approach in the final rule, which contains no such timeframe, provides reasonable protections for U.S. workers while also balancing the legitimate business needs expressed by
Other commenters opposed the proposed requirement, suggesting that the proposal was unworkable because DHS had not defined the commensurate compensation standard in the proposed regulatory text. One commenter stated that the proposed rule lacked necessary guidance on how to ensure that compensation offered to STEM OPT students is commensurate with compensation levels offered to U.S. workers. Another commenter stated that the requirements for commensurate compensation were too stringent because STEM OPT should include students who are performing unpaid work or are awarded grants or non-monetary remuneration. A significant number of comments, from universities and higher education associations, stated that STEM OPT students and U.S. students perform research for colleges and universities under a variety of grant and stipend programs without necessarily receiving taxable wages, and requested clarification that such participation was still contemplated for STEM OPT participants. In contrast, another commenter urged that students doing unpaid work, or receiving only a “stipend,” be explicitly ineligible for OPT status. Another commenter stated that the proposed additional protections for American workers would prove to be “meaningless” due to a variety of purported deficiencies in the proposed regulation, including participation by employers who hire only foreign workers. One commenter recommended that employers be allowed to factor in the effect of training time on productivity when setting compensation. One commenter suggested that employers be required to pay the Level Three wage from the Online Wage Library provided by the Department of Labor's Office of Foreign Labor Certification.
Along the same lines, work duties must be designed to assist the student with continued learning and satisfy existing ICE guidelines for work hours when participating in post-completion OPT. To help gauge compliance, employers are required to provide DHS with student compensation rate information, which will help the Department monitor whether STEM OPT students are being compensated fairly. Additionally, the rule authorizes a recurrent evaluation process and mandates notification of material changes to the Training Plan, including material changes to STEM OPT student compensation, to allow ICE to monitor student progress during the OPT period. The evaluations will ensure continuous focus on the student's development throughout the student's training period. Finally, the rule clarifies the Department's authority to conduct site visits to ensure compliance with the above requirements.
The above provisions protect against adverse consequences on the U.S. labor market, including consequences that may result from exploitation of STEM OPT students. DHS believes that the assurances regarding the practical training opportunity, the attestation of non-replacement of existing employees, the requirement for commensurate compensation, and other related requirements, provide adequate safeguards to protect U.S. worker interests. DHS expects this will still be the case even if a participating employer employs many non-U.S. workers. If such an employer does not employ and has not recently employed more than two similarly situated U.S. workers in the area of employment, the employer nevertheless remains obligated to attest that the terms and conditions of a STEM practical training opportunity are commensurate with the terms and conditions of employment for other similarly situated U.S. workers in the area of employment.
DHS expects that STEM OPT students will be engaging in productive employment. DHS also expects the commensurate compensation of similarly situated U.S. workers would account for any effects of training time on productivity. While it is required for participating students and employers to explain the goals, objectives, supervision, and evaluation of a STEM OPT period, the fact that the employer is providing a work-based learning opportunity is not a sufficient reason to reduce the F-1 student's compensation. Furthermore, such a discounted compensation also runs the risk of having a negative impact on similarly situated U.S. workers. A commenter's suggestion to this effect is thus rejected.
DHS also disagrees with comments stating that the proposed rule lacked adequate guidance on the issue of commensurate pay and suggesting further definition in the regulatory text. These commenters did not explain which aspects of DHS's guidance on this topic were ambiguous; nevertheless, DHS now further clarifies the commensurate compensation requirement. Commensurate compensation refers to direct compensation provided to the student (pre-tax compensation). This compensation must be commensurate to that provided to similarly situated U.S. workers. “Similarly situated U.S. workers” means those U.S. workers who perform similar duties and have similar educational backgrounds, experience, levels of responsibility, and skill sets. The employer must review how it compensates such U.S. workers and compensate STEM OPT students in a reasonably equivalent manner. If an employer, for example, hires recent graduates for certain positions, the compensation provided to a STEM OPT student in such a position must be in accordance with the same system and scale as that provided to such similarly situated U.S. workers.
If the employer, however, does not employ or has not recently employed at least two other U.S. workers who are performing similar duties, then the employer is obligated to obtain information about other employers offering similar employment in the same geographic area. Helpful information can be obtained, for example, from the Department of Labor, which provides wage information based on data from the Occupational Employment Statistics survey through its Office of Foreign Labor Certification's Online Wage Library, available at
In addition to these detailed requirements, DHS noted in the preamble of the proposed rule, and reiterates here, that DHS interprets the compensation element to encompass wages and other forms of remuneration, including housing, stipends, or other provisions typically provided to employees. While positions without compensation may not form the basis of a STEM OPT extension, the compensation may include items beyond wages so long as total compensation is commensurate with that typically provided to U.S. workers whose skills, experience, and duties would otherwise render them similarly situated. Any deductions from salary must be consistent with the Department of Labor's Fair Labor Standards Act regulations at 29 CFR part 531 regarding reasonable deductions from workers' pay. The combination of all the information here provides a sufficient basis for compliance with the rule's commensurate compensation provision.
In short, DHS believes that the protections provided in this rule are sufficient, but the Department will continue to monitor the program and may consider revising or supplementing program requirements at a future date.
Finally, DHS does not anticipate that the application of this rule will result in discriminatory hiring. The rule in no way requires or encourages employers to target students based on national origin or citizenship, particularly through any type of hiring advertisements. Rather, the rule protects against employment discrimination by requiring that an employer make and adhere to an assurance that the student on a STEM OPT extension will not replace a full- or part-time, temporary or permanent U.S. worker. Furthermore, existing federal and state employment discrimination laws and regulations provide appropriate authorities for addressing and remedying employment discrimination. In particular, employers that generally prefer to hire F-1 students over U.S. workers (including U.S. citizens), or that post job advertisements expressing a preference for F-1 students over U.S. workers, may violate section 274B of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1324b, which is enforced by the Department of Justice's Office of Special Counsel for Immigration-Related Unfair Employment Practices. This anti-discrimination provision provides for civil penalties and backpay, among other remedies, for employers found to have violated the law. Such authorities clearly fall within certification 4(e) on the Form I-983, Training Plan for STEM OPT Students, which establishes a commitment by the employer that the training conducted under STEM OPT “complies with all applicable Federal and State requirements relating to employment.”
One commenter also suggested that DHS amend the rule consistent with section 212(a)(5)(A) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(5)(A), which designates as inadmissible any foreign national “seeking to enter the United States for the purpose of performing skilled or unskilled labor” absent a certification from the Department of Labor that such employment will not adversely affect similarly employed U.S. workers. According to the commenter, this provision required DHS to include a recruitment requirement for STEM OPT employers and a role for the Department of Labor. Some commenters similarly stated that the Department of Labor should review all employer submissions with respect to hours and wages. Another commenter suggested that DHS add a labor condition application requirement and petition process similar to those used for seeking H-1B visas.
With regard to the suggestion that DHS is not in compliance with section 212(a)(5) of the INA, this provision is limited, by definition, to certain individuals seeking permanent immigrant status.
With regard to suggestions to provide a greater role for the Department of Labor, DHS appreciates that the Department of Labor's long experience with foreign labor certification might assist DHS in its ongoing administration of the STEM OPT extension. Accordingly, where it may prove valuable and as appropriate, DHS may consult with the Department of Labor to benefit from that agency's expertise.
This final rule sets the duration of the STEM OPT extension at 24 months. Following seven years of experience with the 17-month STEM OPT extension implemented in the 2008 IFR, DHS re-evaluated the length of the extension, primarily in light of the educational benefits such training provides to F-1 students and the benefits such students provide to the U.S. economy and other national interests. Consistent with the proposed rule, this final rule increases the STEM OPT extension period to 24 months for students meeting the qualifying requirements. The 24-month extension, when combined with the 12 months of initial post-completion OPT, allows qualifying STEM students up to 36 months of practical training.
Also consistent with the proposed rule, the final rule provides, for students who subsequently attain another STEM degree at a higher educational level, the ability to participate in an additional 24-month extension of any post-completion OPT based upon that second STEM degree. In particular, the rule would allow a student who had completed a STEM OPT extension pursuant to previous study in the United States and who subsequently obtained another qualifying degree at a higher degree level (or has a qualifying prior degree, as discussed in more detail below), to qualify for a second 24-month STEM OPT extension upon the expiration of the general period of OPT based on that additional degree.
This aspect of the rule is finalized as proposed.
Another commenter stated that “most development projects are done on a yearly basis,” and that by lengthening the STEM OPT extension period to 24 months, students would be eligible to participate in STEM OPT for multiple project cycles. One commenter welcomed the proposed 24-month extension because it provided “added flexibility” for workforce planning needs. That commenter explained that this change could improve innovation and development of new products and services, and it could help STEM students gain necessary experience for their own career growth.
A commenter added that the extension period would allow students to gain more “hands-on practical experience” by working on new products and initiatives that are more complex and that have a longer development cycle. One commenter suggested that the 24-month extension would greatly benefit research activities. This commenter opined that such extensions would help students by providing a period of stay consistent with the research needs in the commenter's field, which would also benefit the commenter's future job prospects in the commenter's home country.
Some commenters recommended a longer STEM OPT extension, most commonly 36 months, thus increasing practical training to a total of 48 months for STEM students. Other commenters suggested a total STEM OPT period as long as six years. Some commenters sought longer extensions so as to allow students additional attempts at applying for and obtaining H-1B visas.
Moreover, while DHS agrees it is possible that some STEM OPT students may not “need” the extension, DHS expects that many qualifying students (including master's students) will receive significant educational benefits from the extension. Based on the public comments received, DHS expects that some students in some fields and degree programs in fact would benefit from more than three years of practical training. DHS concludes, however, that conditioning the period of employment authorization on case-by-case demonstrations of need would significantly increase burdens on the Department and potentially yield inefficient and inconsistent adjudications. DHS also disagrees with the notion that the STEM OPT extension allows internships at little or no pay; this rule specifically prohibits that kind of activity. Based on the above, DHS considers 24-month STEM OPT extensions, combined with the other features of this rule, sufficient to serve the purpose of this rule while appropriately protecting U.S. worker interests.
This higher degree requirement has long attached to 12-month post-completion OPT. Because 24-month
Central to the STEM OPT extension is a new training plan requirement to formalize the relationship between the F-1 student's on-the-job experience and the student's field of study and academic learning. The rule requires the submission of Form I-983, Training Plan for STEM OPT Students (Training Plan), jointly executed by the F-1 student and the employer, but permits an employer to utilize certain training programs already in place. The proposed rule included this provision; DHS has retained the provision in the final rule, with changes and clarifications in response to public comments. We summarize these provisions and changes below.
The rule requires a formal training program for STEM OPT students in order to enhance and better ensure the educational benefit of STEM OPT extensions. The employer must agree to take responsibility for the student's training and skill enhancement related to the student's field of academic study. The student must prepare a formalized Training Plan with the employer and submit the plan to the DSO before the DSO may recommend a STEM OPT extension in the student's SEVIS record. If the student intends to request an extension based on a previously-obtained STEM degree, the plan must be submitted to the institution that provided the student's most recent degree (
As noted in the proposed rule, DHS expects to incorporate the submission of the Training Plan into SEVIS at a later date. Until that time DHS may require the submission of the Training Plan to ICE or USCIS when the student seeks certain benefits from USCIS, such as when the student files an Application for Employment Authorization during a STEM OPT extension. Under 8 CFR 103.2(b)(8)(iii), for example, USCIS may request additional evidence of eligibility for a benefit if the evidence submitted in support of an application does not establish eligibility. Accordingly, USCIS may request a copy of the Training Plan, in addition to other documentation that may be in the possession of the student, the employer, or the student's DSO.
DSOs may not recommend a student for a STEM OPT extension if (1) the employer has not provided the attestations for that student required by the rule or (2) the Training Plan does not otherwise reflect compliance with the relevant reporting, evaluation and other requirements of the rule. DHS may deny STEM OPT extensions with employers that the Department determines have failed to comply with the regulatory requirements, including the required attestations. As noted above, ICE may investigate an employer's compliance with these attestations, based on a complaint or otherwise, consistent with the employer site-visit provisions of the rule.
As compared to the proposed rule, and in response to public comments received, DHS has made two changes to the general training plan requirement. First, DHS modified the regulatory text and Training Plan form to clarify that employers may use their existing training programs for STEM OPT students, so long as the existing training program meets this rule's requirements. Second, DHS has modified the form to focus on training and has thus removed the word “mentoring” from the form. The information collection instrument for this plan is now titled “Training Plan for STEM OPT Students,” and not “STEM OPT Mentoring and Training Plan” as DHS had originally proposed.
Under this final rule, once the student and the employer complete and sign the Training Plan, the student must submit the plan to the DSO. DSOs must review the Training Plan to ensure that it is completed and signed, and that it addresses all program requirements. USCIS maintains the discretion to request and review all documentation for eligibility concerns. A number of commenters requested additional information about the standards under which the DSO and DHS will review Training Plans. DHS clarifies the standard below.
A number of commenters provided specific suggestions regarding the proposed form and instructions. For instance, commenters recommended that DHS relabel certain fields, use a different form number than the Form I-910 that DHS had initially proposed, and otherwise improve the form. DHS has made a number of changes in response to these comments, including relabeling certain fields and changing the form number. DHS explains these changes below.
A number of commenters stated or implied that U.S. employers do
DHS received a number of comments raising general concerns with the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan, as well as related requirements. Such comments concerned the timelines proposed for training plan submission and review, as well as requirements related to reporting changes of employer.
Many commenters supported the requirement of a proposed Mentoring and Training Plan but requested the ability to utilize training programs and associated policies already in place in many businesses. For example, one commenter stated that the requirement “validates DHS's efforts to preserve the academic component inherent in STEM OPT” but recommended that “DHS create a flexible framework that allows these controls to exist within the parameters of an employer's existing Human Resources policies.” Another commenter noted its broad experience in this area, stating that as a large employer, it “has achieved widespread recognition for the steps that it takes to develop and train employees.” The commenter added that in 2014, it “was inducted into the Training `Top 10 Hall of Fame' and was ranked seventh for learning and development by the Association for Talent Development.” As such, the commenter stated that it should be able to utilize its existing training policies.
Another commenter stated that its STEM OPT student trainees already participate in “company training programs and develop ongoing mentoring relationships with senior team members in the natural course of employment.” This commenter proposed that DHS provide more flexibility to employers by allowing them to meet the training plan requirements “by providing . . . any documentation evidencing [a current training program] that is currently operated by the company” and amending the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan to only ask for general objectives at the beginning of practical training.
DHS recognizes that many employers have existing training programs and related policies that enhance the learning and capabilities of their employees. DHS does not intend to require duplicative training programs or to necessarily require the creation of new programs or policies solely for STEM OPT students. Nor does DHS intend to require training elements that are unnecessary or overly burdensome for F-1 students seeking to engage in work-based learning. However, employer-specific training programs and policies may not always align with the rule's primary policy goals. For example, some businesses may focus more on managing a workload or maximizing individual output, whereas DHS's primary concern is the student's continued learning and the relationship between the work-based learning experience and the student's studies.
Accordingly, DHS clarifies that employers may rely on an existing training program or policy to meet certain training plan requirements under this rule, so long as the existing training program or policy meets certain specifications. In addition, DHS has modified the Training Plan to make it easier for employers to refer to existing training programs when completing the Training Plan. For example, instead of requiring specific information about the individual supervisor's qualifications to provide supervision or training, the final Training Plan prompts the employer to explain how it provides oversight and supervision of individuals in the F-1 student's position. DHS also revised the Training Plan to replace the reference to a student's supervisor with a reference to the “Official Representing the Employer.” Finally, DHS also modified the regulatory text to clarify that for companies that have a training program or policy in place that controls performance evaluation and supervision, such a program or policy, if described with specificity, may suffice.
DHS expects that in many cases, employers will find that existing training programs align well with the fields on the final Training Plan. For instance, it should be straightforward for employers with existing programs to describe what qualifications the employer requires of its trainers or supervisors, and how the employer will measure an employee's training progress. DHS emphasizes, however, that most fields in the Training Plan must be customized for the individual student. For instance, every Training Plan must describe the direct relationship between the STEM OPT opportunity and the student's qualifying STEM degree, as well as the relationship between the STEM OPT opportunity and the student's goals and objectives for work-based learning.
In addition, the Training Plan will document essential facts, including student and employer information, qualifying degrees, student and employer certifications, and program evaluations. This data is important to DHS for tracking students as well as for evaluating compliance with STEM OPT extension regulations. DHS is concerned that an employer's existing training program would not normally contain this information. DHS believes these portions of the Training Plan should take a relatively short period of time to complete.
Commenters also indicated that they want to maintain the ability to easily and quickly shift STEM OPT students among positions, projects, or departments, and thus recommended the elimination of new training plan filings following each project, position,
Another commenter stated that instead of requiring a training plan, DHS should send periodic SEVIS reports to employers and require the employers to verify that they still employ the listed students. The commenter suggested that DHS also consider creating an employer portal to allow STEM OPT employers to verify and update information as required. Another commenter recommended that DHS replace the proposed written Mentoring and Training Plan with an additional employer attestation that training will be provided consistent with similarly situated new hires, with the proviso that the training will relate directly to the STEM field. One commenter recommended that all training plan requirements be better streamlined with already existing requirements contained on the Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility.
One commenter stated that it was “impractical” to impose the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan requirements on “more seasoned trainees” who have completed one year of OPT and who are seeking a STEM OPT extension under the proposed rule. This commenter suggested exempting students who plan to use their STEM OPT extension to continue their 12-month post-completion OPT with the same employer. The commenter recommended that DHS look to H-1B regulations as an example of a regulatory scheme that exempts certain individuals with advanced degrees from certain requirements and obligations.
For this reason, DHS rejects the alternative suggestions by commenters to replace the training plan requirement with an attestation related to employers' existing training practices, the submission of periodic SEVIS reports, or a revised Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility. As discussed, the main objective of the training plan requirement is to ensure that the work that the STEM OPT student undertakes is “directly related” to his or her STEM degree and is continuing his or her training in that field. Providing generic job descriptions or periodically verifying that the student remains employed would not provide sufficient focus on the student's training. The training plan requirement aims to elicit the level of detail needed to ensure appropriate oversight of the STEM OPT extension. Additionally, requiring all participants to use a uniform form ensures that minimum requirements are met and makes it easier to evaluate the eligibility of an applicant without requiring agency adjudicators to familiarize themselves with the peculiarities of different employers' records and standards.
However, in response to commenters' concerns, DHS has modified the regulatory text to further ensure that employers may rely on their existing training programs to meet certain training plan requirements under this rule, so long as such training programs otherwise meet the rule's training plan requirements. Under the final rule, the Training Plan must, among other things: (1) Identify the goals for the STEM practical training opportunity, including specific knowledge, skills, or techniques that will be imparted to the student; (2) explain how those goals will be achieved through the work-based learning opportunity with the employer; (3) describe a performance evaluation process; and (4) describe methods of oversight and supervision. The rule additionally provides that employers may rely on their otherwise existing training programs or policies to satisfy the requirements relating to factors (3) and (4) (performance evaluation and oversight and supervision of the STEM OPT student), as applicable. These provisions are intended to make it easier for employers to refer to existing training programs or policies when completing the Training Plan, as can be seen in Section 5 of the Training Plan form.
DHS has also made a number of changes to the Training Plan form for the same reason. For example, instead of requiring specific information about the individual supervisor's qualifications to provide supervision or training, the final Training Plan prompts the employer to explain how it provides oversight and supervision of individuals in the STEM OPT student's position. DHS also revised the form to replace the reference to a student's supervisor with a reference to the “Official with Signatory Authority.” Such an official need not be the student's supervisor. These modifications are intended to address specific comments indicating that the proposed Mentoring and Training plan would prevent employers from assigning such students to project rotations and “limit them to a single department or reporting relationship.” DHS made these modifications to provide employers with additional flexibility in complying with the rule's training plan requirements.
Moreover, as revised, DHS does not envision anything required in the final Training Plan as unnecessarily inhibiting flexibility for employers or STEM OPT students. Instead, the standards set forth in the rule are intended to ensure that employers meet the STEM OPT extension requirements, including demonstrating compliance with the attestations, and ensuring that employers possess the ability and resources to provide structured and guided work-based learning experiences for the duration of the extension. Nothing in the rule prohibits employers from incorporating into the Training Plan provisions for project, position, or department rotations that directly relate to STEM students' fields of study, provided there will be appropriate supervision during each rotation and the employer otherwise meets all relevant requirements. To the extent new circumstances arise and such a change was not contemplated in the initial Training Plan, the employer may, working with the student, prepare and submit a modified Training Plan to the student's DSO. Additionally, with regard to concerns relating to an employer sharing sensitive information, DHS does not anticipate that Training Plans would need to contain a level of detail that would reveal business plans.
Finally, DHS respectfully disagrees with the notion that students who have completed one year of OPT are “seasoned trainees” who should not be subject to the training plan requirements when seeking an extension under the rule. DHS also disagrees that students pursuing a STEM OPT extension with the same employer should be exempt from the reporting obligations of the rule, including all training plan requirements. As discussed, the purpose of the STEM OPT extension is to provide practical training to STEM students so they may pursue focused research and meaningful projects that contribute to a more complete understanding of their fields of study and help develop skills. The requirements of the Training Plan are designed to assist students and employers in their pursuit of the aforementioned goals.
A number of employers stated that they had long established practices concerning mentoring, some formal and some not. Most of these comments suggested that what DHS proposed regarding mentoring was difficult to understand in the context of existing business practices. For example, one company that said it was strongly committed to “the importance and benefits of well-designed mentoring programs,” asserted that the proposed rule failed to define mentoring. The commenter explained that:
some mentoring relationships are highly structured in content and regularity of interactions, while others are more ad hoc and organic in nature. In many circumstances, it is the mentee who takes responsibility for leading the interactions; in others, it is the mentor or the organization who structures the engagement.
This commenter believed it would not be feasible for DHS to provide sufficient certainty to employers about their mentoring responsibilities and obligations. A comment co-signed by ten associations representing a variety of industries, as well as small, medium, and large businesses and professionals, stated that the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan would “in many cases force companies to make drastic changes to their current mentoring programs.”
DHS disagrees with the suggestion that technology companies do not have robust training capabilities or a commitment to training and skill development. This comment is directly contradicted by the many comments filed by employers asking that company policies on training, mentoring, and evaluation already in place be permitted as an alternative to the training plan requirements in the proposed rule.
DHS also does not agree that the requirements related to changing employers, including obtaining a new DSO recommendation, are so burdensome that they would cause a STEM OPT student to stay with an employer that is exploiting him or her. Among other things, this rule provides a substantial amount of time for students to find new practical training opportunities. And DHS anticipates that in most cases, DSOs will be able to review a newly submitted Training Plan and issue a new recommendation for a STEM OPT extension in a matter of days. For this reason, when a student changes employers, the rule requires a new Training Plan, new DSO recommendation, and update to SEVIS. DHS acknowledges that the potential exists for a student to begin a new
The two student reporting requirements cited by the commenter will frequently apply in different circumstances, and serve different purposes. The requirement to submit a new training plan applies only when the student begins a new practical training opportunity with a new employer, and is intended to ensure that each STEM OPT extension will be accompanied by an accurate, up-to-date Training Plan. The 10-day period for the requirement balances the burden of completing the Training Plan on a timely basis against the important benefits derived from the preparation and submission of such plans. In contrast, the general student reporting requirement (which also existed in the 2008 IFR) applies whenever a STEM OPT student experiences a loss of employment, as well as a change in the student or employer's name or address.
Where a student begins a new practical training opportunity with a new employer less than 10 days after leaving the student's prior employer, the student may fulfill both reporting obligations by submitting a new Training Plan. In cases where the period of time between employers is longer than 10 days, the student must first report the loss of employment to the DSO, and later submit a new Training Plan. In either case, the DSO's SEVIS obligations will begin after the DSO receives the information from the student. Again, these two student reporting requirements serve different purposes; both reports will serve important functions at the time they are made.
With respect to comments about the academic nature of the required Training Plans, DHS agrees that such plans will relate to practical training experiences, rather than academic coursework. But that is the intent of the rule: to allow students to apply their academic knowledge in practical, work-based settings. The Training Plan in this final rule helps ensure that the purpose of the rule is met, by clarifying the direct connection between the student's STEM degree and the practical training opportunity.
DHS also received comments on the duration of the proposed rule's retention requirements. One commenter stated that a 1-year retention requirement, rather than a 3-year requirement, would be more feasible. Another commenter recommended that, to mitigate the substantial investment of time required of schools with many STEM students, no electronic form of the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan should be required until the form is provided electronically through the SEVIS system with batch functionality. The commenter also requested that enough time be given to third-party software providers so that they may develop an equivalent upgrade to allow batch uploads of the forms to SEVIS.
One commenter also stated that if the student's school must maintain the training plan, the school then becomes responsible for maintaining sensitive information about the employer. The commenter did not describe which data elements it considered particularly sensitive. The commenter stated that the requirement to maintain this information constituted an “undue burden” for the school and a liability for both the employer and the school “in an age when data hacking and data breaches” are common occurrences. The commenter also noted that DSOs would be “holding” training plans during a student's STEM OPT period, which, in some cases, would be unrelated to any similar degree conferred by the DSO's school.
DHS understands the commenter's concern about the potential sensitivity of certain information contained in training plan documents. However, DHS has made efforts to ensure that the final Training Plan requires only information necessary for the Department to carry out the STEM OPT extension program. DHS notes that it is developing a portal that, once fully deployed, will allow students to directly input training plans into SEVIS for DSO review, thus reducing burdens and potential liability on the part of DSOs and their institutions. DHS plans to have the first stages of this portal operational by the beginning of 2017. In the interim, DHS does not anticipate a significant increase in data storage costs for employers as a result of this rule, and the Department remains open to implementing additional technology improvements to reduce administrative processing and paperwork.
Under this final rule, the student's educational institution associated with his or her latest OPT period must ensure that SEVP has access to the student's Training Plan and associated student evaluations. Such documents may be retained in either electronic or hard copy for three years following the completion of the student's practical training opportunity and must be accessible within 30 days of submission to the DSO.
One commenter stated that it was unclear how a DSO would know, prior to the commencement of the STEM OPT extension, whether the employer had failed to meet the program's regulatory requirements. The commenter recommended that DHS clarify the applicable standards for DSO review of training plans and ensure that such standards are appropriate for DSOs, given that they are experts neither in each area of STEM education nor in detecting fraud. The commenter recommended that the level of review be similar to that required for Labor Condition Applications submitted to the Department of Labor. According to the commenter, such applications require review only for completeness and obvious errors or inaccuracies.
A commenter stated that the proposed rule did not include standards for determining whether a STEM OPT student is being “trained,” rather than simply working. According to the commenter, this would result in every training plan being approved whether or not a bona fide educational experience is being achieved. This commenter was also concerned that DSOs have an inherent conflict of interest in this regard. According to the commenter, DSOs “have every incentive, and likely pressure from their administrations, to approve all work permits.” The commenter concluded that the proposed rule's focus on “training” and “educational experience” will not prevent participants from seeing OPT as a work permit and treating it as such.
Some commenters requested that USCIS adjudicators make the final assessment as to the sufficiency of training plans, including because such plans are central to qualifying for STEM OPT extensions and employment authorization. Other commenters asked for clear guidance and coordination with respect to USCIS's review of training plans. Commenters expressed concern that in the absence of clear standards, USCIS adjudicators may issue erroneous Requests for Evidence (RFEs) or deny applications without appropriate due process. Some commenters expressed concerns about the effect of the training plan requirement on USCIS processing times. Another commenter stated that USCIS review of training plans would be insufficient, because “DHS employees have no expertise in evaluating what is, and is not, practical training.”
DHS also clarifies that DSO approval of a request for a STEM OPT extension means that the DSO has determined that the Training Plan is completed and signed, and that it addresses all program requirements. DHS anticipates that such review will be fairly straightforward. The Department does not expect DSOs to possess technical knowledge of STEM fields of study. When reviewing the Training Plan for completeness, the DSO should confirm that it (1) explains how the training is directly related to the student's qualifying STEM degree; (2) identifies goals for the STEM practical training opportunity, including specific knowledge, skills, or techniques that will be imparted to the student, and explains how those goals will be achieved through the work-based learning opportunity with the employer; (3) describes a performance evaluation process to be utilized in evaluating the OPT STEM student; and (4) describes methods of oversight and supervision that generally apply to the OPT STEM student. The DSO should also ensure that all form fields are properly completed. So long as the Training Plan meets these requirements, the DSO has met his or her obligation under the rule.
DHS also understands commenters' concerns on the ability of DSOs to determine whether an employer had failed to meet regulatory requirements prior to the commencement of a STEM OPT extension. DHS clarifies that DSOs are not required to conduct additional outside research into a particular employer prior to making a STEM OPT recommendation. In making such a recommendation, DSOs should use their knowledge of and familiarity with the F-1 regulations, including the STEM OPT requirements finalized in this rule. DHS notes that a student often may be requesting to extend a training opportunity already underway with an employer for which he or she will have already received training, which the DSO will have previously recommended
DHS also disagrees with comments suggesting that DSOs have conflicts of interest with respect to reviewing training plans. Based on decades of experience with OPT, DHS has no reason to question the integrity of DSOs or their ability to fulfill their obligations effectively and maintain the integrity of the STEM OPT extension program. The role of DSOs under this program is similar to the role they have historically played in the F-1 program.
DHS also notes that it may, at its discretion, withdraw a previous submission by a school of any individual who serves as a DSO.
With respect to comments about USCIS's role in the process, DHS clarifies that USCIS maintains the discretion to request and review all documentation when determining eligibility for benefits.
Beyond the clarifications provided above, DHS does not believe it is necessary or appropriate to issue significant additional guidance in this final rule. Given the many different practical training opportunities available to students, it would be cumbersome for DHS to define with more particularity the full range of student-employer interactions or guided-learning opportunities that may meet the rule's requirements. DHS believes that it would be more appropriate to issue any necessary guidance separately, as needed. Issuing guidance in this manner will allow DHS to promote consistent adjudications while allowing for flexibility as issues develop. As such, DHS confirms that ICE and USCIS will finalize guidance and provide training to ensure that all entities are ready to process requests for STEM OPT extensions as soon as possible.
DHS also disagrees with the apparent premise behind the commenters' arguments. That premise appears to be that the rule will require or inappropriately induce U.S. employers to provide benefits to F-1 students that are not provided to its other employees, including U.S. workers. Neither the rule nor the Training Plan, however, requires or encourages employers to exclude any of their employees from participating in training programs. And insofar as an employer may decide to offer training required by the regulation only to STEM OPT students, doing so does not relieve that employer of any culpability for violations of section 274B of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1324b, or any other federal or state law related to employment.
Moreover, the training plan requirement is not motivated by any intention on the part of DHS to encourage employers to treat STEM OPT students preferentially. Rather, DHS is requiring the Training Plan to obtain sufficient information to ensure that any extension of F-1 student status under this rule is intended to augment the student's academic learning through practical experience and equip the student with a broader understanding of the selected area of study and functionality within that field. The Training Plan also serves other critical functions, including, but not limited to, improving oversight of the STEM OPT extension program, limiting abuse of on-the-job training opportunities, strengthening the requirements for STEM OPT extension participation, and enhancing the protection of U.S. workers. By documenting the student's participation in a training program with the employer, the Training Plan provides information necessary for oversight, verification, tracking, and other purposes.
The training plan requirement does not discriminate against U.S. students or anyone else, or create a discriminatory contract (even assuming that it creates a contractual obligation at all). In pertinent part, 42 U.S.C. 1981(a) provides that “[a]ll persons within the jurisdiction of the United States shall have the same right in every State and Territory to make and enforce contracts.” The commenter that raised concerns related to this provision did not identify any feature of the proposed rule that would deny or otherwise impair any person's rights “to make and enforce contracts” or any other rights described in the statute. The statute has no bearing on the training plan requirement in this rule.
Under the rule, a student seeking an extension must properly file a Form I-765, Application for Employment Authorization, with USCIS within 60 days of the date the DSO enters the recommendation for the STEM OPT extension into the SEVIS record. The 2008 IFR had previously established a time period of 30 days after the DSO recommendation for the filing of the Application for Employment Authorization. As proposed in the NPRM, DHS believes the longer 60-day application period will, among other things, reduce the number of USCIS denials of such applications that result from expired Form I-20 Certificates of Eligibility, the number of associated data corrections needed in SEVIS, and the number of students who would need to ask DSOs for updated Certificates of Eligibility to replace those that have expired. Under this rule, the “time of application” for a STEM OPT extension refers to the date that the Application for Employment Authorization is properly filed at USCIS.
In regard to the fee for the associated Application for Employment Authorization, DHS declines to exempt certain students from the filing fee, which generally applies to all such applications filed by F-1 students. As noted above, each application for STEM OPT requires DHS to consider the student's eligibility under the applicable regulations at the time of application.
This final rule includes the 2008 IFR's Cap-Gap provision, which allows for automatic extension of status and employment authorization for any F-1 student with a timely filed H-1B petition and request for change of status, if the student's petition has an employment start date of October 1 of the following fiscal year. The measure avoids inconvenience to some F-1 students and U.S. employers through a common-sense administrative mechanism to bridge two periods of authorized legal status. As noted previously, the so-called Cap Gap is a result of the misalignment of the academic year with the fiscal year.
This final rule also clarifies that an EAD that appears to have expired on its face but that has been automatically extended under 8 CFR 274a.12(c)(3)(i)(B) is considered unexpired for the period beginning on the expiration date listed on the Employment Authorization Document and ending on the date of USCIS' written decision on the current employment authorization request, but not to exceed 180 days, when combined with a Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility endorsed by the DSO recommending the Cap-Gap extension. Otherwise, DHS is finalizing the Cap-Gap provision as proposed, but provides clarification and explanation below in response to public comments regarding status, travel, and employment authorization during a Cap-Gap period or a STEM OPT extension.
Lastly, the final rule clarifies that if a petitioning employer withdraws an H-1B petition upon which a student's Cap-Gap period is based, the student's Cap-Gap period will automatically terminate. In other words, if an employer withdraws the H-1B petition before it is approved, the student's automatic extension of the student's duration of status and employment authorization under the Cap-Gap provision will automatically end, and the student will enter the 60-day grace period to prepare for departure from the United States. 8 CFR 214.2(f)(5)(iv).
Some commenters supported Cap-Gap relief for certain F-1 students based on the notion that these students have been following immigration laws and helping to maintain the United States' position as the world's leader in technology and innovation. Other supporters asserted that Cap-Gap relief will boost productivity and entrepreneurship and thus provide the United States with a competitive advantage in the global market. Several commenters stated that the Cap-Gap extension is helpful to employers as it avoids disruptions in the workplace caused by the students' departure from the United States solely due to a temporary gap in status.
In addition, one commenter requested that DHS clarify the date on which the automatic extension of status ends. The commenter stated that September 30 would be a more appropriate end date than October 1, as the beneficiary's H-1B status would generally become effective on October 1.
The general presumption is that when a nonimmigrant's period of authorized stay has expired, he or she must depart the United States. However, the Cap-Gap provision provides a special accommodation to F-1 students who are seeking to change to H-1B status, based on the understanding that the academic year of most colleges and universities does not align with the fiscal year cycle upon which the H-1B program is based. The Cap-Gap provision is based in part on the premise that students who seek to benefit from the provision actually qualify for H-1B status. USCIS is thus concerned that extending the Cap-Gap employment authorization beyond October 1, a date by which virtually all approvable change-of-status petitions for F-1 students are adjudicated by USCIS, would reward potentially frivolous filings. The October 1 cut-off thus serves to prevent possible abuse of the Cap-Gap extension. USCIS will continue to make every effort to complete adjudications on all petitions seeking H-1B status for Cap-Gap beneficiaries prior to October 1, including by timely issuing RFEs in cases requiring further documentation. DHS therefore declines to allow students whose H-1B petitions remain pending beyond October 1 to continue to benefit from the Gap-Gap extension, primarily because doing so would enable students who may ultimately be found not to qualify for H-1B status to continue to benefit from the Cap-Gap extension.
Finally, DHS clarifies that F-1 status for a Cap-Gap beneficiary under this provision expires on October 1, consistent with the regulatory text at 8 CFR 214.2(f)(5)(A)(vi). However, an individual with a timely-filed, non-frivolous H-1B change-of-status petition will be considered to be in a period of authorized stay during the pendency of the petition. An individual may remain in the United States during this time, but is not authorized to work. If an H-1B change-of-status petition requesting a start date of October 1 has been approved, the F-1 status will expire on the same day as the H-1B status begins.
In contrast, employers filing H-1B petitions on behalf of
DHS also notes that if an F-1 student travels abroad before his or her H-1B change-of-status petition has been approved, USCIS will deem the petition abandoned. Consequently, such a student no longer would be authorized for F-1 status during the Cap-Gap period based on the H-1B change-of-status petition and thus would be unable to rely on the Cap-Gap provision's extension of duration of status for purposes of seeking readmission as an F-1 student. This has been the legacy INS and USCIS interpretation of its change-of-status authority under the INA for decades, applicable to all changes from one nonimmigrant status to another, not just those involving F-1 nonimmigrants.
Similarly, some commenters requested that DHS permit F-1 students to travel during the pendency of a request for a STEM OPT extension and to reenter after a period of temporary absence. Another commenter recommended that students with pending applications for STEM OPT extensions be permitted to travel outside the United States because many employers require their employees to engage in international travel as part of their jobs. The commenter noted that the proposed rule prohibits such students from fulfilling such job requirements.
The 17-month STEM OPT regulations remain in force through May 9, 2016. This rule is effective beginning on May 10, 2016. This rule includes procedures to allow for a smooth transition between the old rule and the new rule, as discussed below.
DHS will continue to accept and adjudicate applications for 17-month STEM OPT extensions under the 2008 IFR through May 9, 2016. The Department, however, has modified the transition procedures in the proposed rule for adjudicating those applications that remain pending when the final rule takes effect on May 10, 2016. In the NPRM, DHS had proposed that USCIS would adjudicate pending applications using the regulations that existed at the time the applications were submitted. As discussed further below, DHS has reconsidered its original proposal in light of comments received, and will instead apply the requirements of this rule to such pending cases. Beginning on May 10, 2016, USCIS will issue RFEs to students whose applications are still pending on that date.
Specifically, USCIS will issue RFEs requesting documentation that will establish that the student is eligible for a 24-month STEM OPT extension, including a Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility endorsed on or after May 10, 2016, indicating that the DSO recommends the student for a 24-month STEM OPT extension. To obtain the necessary DSO endorsement in the Form I-20 showing that the student meets the requirements of this rule, the Training Plan has to be submitted to the DSO. Generally, under 8 CFR 214.2(f)(11)(i), a student must initiate the OPT application process by requesting a recommendation for OPT by his or her DSO. Thus, a DSO's recommendation for OPT on a Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility is generally not recognized as valid if such endorsement is issued after the Application for Employment Authorization is filed with USCIS. DHS, however, will consider the submission of the Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility as valid if the form is submitted in response to the RFE that has been issued under the transition procedures described in 8 CFR 214.16.
DHS recognizes that following this rule's effective date, some students may prefer to withdraw their pending application for a 17-month STEM OPT extension and instead file a new application for a 24-month STEM OPT extension. Before a student decides to do so, however, the student should understand the applicable filing deadlines and ensure that he or she does not lose F-1 status. Importantly, a student may file for a STEM OPT extension only if the student is in a valid period of post-completion OPT at the time of filing. Thus if a student withdraws an application for a STEM OPT extension after his or her period of post-completion OPT has ended, the student will no longer be eligible to file for a STEM OPT extension.
DHS will begin accepting applications for STEM OPT extensions under this rule on May 10, 2016. Beginning on that date, DHS will process all Applications for Employment Authorization seeking 24-month STEM OPT extensions in accordance with the requirements of this rule. In other words, the final rule's new requirements will apply to all STEM OPT students whose applications are pending or approved on or after the final rule is effective.
Thus, a student whose Application for Employment Authorization is filed and approved prior to May 10, 2016 will be issued an EAD that is valid for 17 months (even if he or she erroneously requested a 24-month STEM OPT extension). As indicated above, a student whose application is pending on May 10, 2016 will be issued an RFE requesting documentation establishing that the student is eligible for a 24-month STEM OPT extension. As described more fully below, this documentation must include, among other things, a Form I-20 Certificate of Eligibility endorsed on or after May 10, 2016, indicating that the requirements for a 24-month STEM OPT extension have been met.
Any 17-month STEM OPT EAD that is issued before May 10, 2016 will remain valid until the EAD expires or is terminated or revoked.
• The STEM OPT student must properly file an Application for Employment Authorization with USCIS, along with applicable fees and supporting documentation, on or before August 8, 2016, and within 60 days of the date the DSO enters the recommendation for the 24-month STEM OPT extension into the student's SEVIS record.
• The student must have at least 150 calendar days
• The student must meet all the requirements for the 24-month STEM OPT extension as described in 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C), including but not limited to submission of the Training Plan to the DSO.
DHS believes that these requirements are necessary to ensure that those who receive the additional 7-month extension are covered by this rule's improved compliance, reporting, and oversight measures.
Moreover, unless and until a student with a 17-month STEM OPT extension properly files the application for the 7-month extension under the transition procedures of 8 CFR 214.16, the student, and the student's employer and DSO, must continue to follow all the terms and conditions that were in effect when the 17-month STEM OPT employment authorization was granted.
If an application for a 7-month extension is approved, USCIS will issue an EAD with a validity period that starts on the day after the expiration date stated in the 17-month STEM OPT EAD. If an application for a 7-month extension is denied, the student, and the student's employer and DSO, must, subsequent to denial, abide by all the terms and conditions that were in effect when the 17-month STEM OPT EAD was issued, including reporting requirements.
DHS recommends that students who choose to request the additional 7-month extension obtain the necessary DSO recommendation and file their application as early as possible in advance of the August 8, 2016, application deadline. USCIS's current processing times are available at
Moreover, DHS will deem 17-month STEM OPT applications that remain pending on May 10, 2016, to be covered by 8 CFR 214.2(f)(11)(i)(C) and 8 CFR 274a.12(b)(6)(iv) of this rule. These provisions state that if a student's post-completion OPT expires while his or her timely filed STEM OPT application is pending, the student will receive an automatic extension of employment authorization of up to 180 days upon the expiration of his or her current employment authorization.
As noted above, this final rule includes a number of provisions intended to minimize burden on employers while ensuring that the Training Plan for STEM OPT Students serves its stated purposes. For instance, DHS has revised the regulatory text and the Training Plan form to clarify that employers may rely on existing training programs for STEM OPT students, so long as those programs satisfy this rule's requirements. Also in response to comments, DHS has clarified the form instructions and various fields on the form. Among other things, DHS has removed the reference to “mentoring,” which many commenters stated would comprise a significant part of the expected time to both complete and review the proposed form.
With regard to the commenter's estimate of the approximate time required to upload the training plan into SEVIS, DHS clarifies that the rule does not require the Training Plan for STEM OPT Students to be uploaded into that database at this time, but instead only requires that DSOs properly store it. Once SEVIS functionality is upgraded to permit the Training Plan to be uploaded, the form must be uploaded into SEVIS for each F-1 student participating in a STEM OPT extension. DHS anticipates, however, that the new student portal will allow F-1 students to upload certain information, including the Training Plan, directly into SEVIS. This means that DSOs ultimately will not be required to spend any time uploading the form into SEVIS and that their burdens will otherwise be reduced due to the student portal.
One DSO recommended that DHS establish a minimum personnel full-time equivalent (FTE) requirement for “SEVP regulatory advising and SEVIS reporting requirement[s],” which would be based on the number of F-1 students enrolled and whether the school uses SEVIS Real-time Interactive web processing or batch processing. The same DSO also suggested that this FTE figure be a SEVIS reporting requirement as part of a school's recertification. Some commenters said that DHS' estimation of the time required for reviewing the proposed Mentoring and Training Plan was too low in light of DSOs' current work duties.
With respect to the commenters' specific proposals, DHS notes that there are currently no plans to add a surcharge to employers to defray additional costs to schools or students. DHS does not expect that this rule would require new hiring by the school; nevertheless, in 2015 DHS lifted the prior cap of 10 DSOs per campus, allowing schools to better allocate personnel to suit their F-1 student population needs.
DHS received a number of comments related to matters falling outside the topics discussed above. The comments are addressed below.
Another commenter stated that “DHS predicts the number of [individuals] working on student visas will be greater than the H-1B quotas.” Another commenter expressed that STEM OPT graduates are advantaged over H-1B workers, because they have the liberty of changing employers more frequently and with more ease than H-1B workers. However, another commenter stated that students participating in the STEM OPT extension lack mobility and described them as “indentured laborers” that do not have rights “like being able . . . to change jobs.”
DHS does not believe sufficient data has been presented to make a determination one way or the other regarding the suggestion that the rule will make it harder for individuals to obtain H-1B visas but believes that any impact will be minimal. DHS notes that there is no limit on the total number of H-1B petitions that an employer may submit in any given year, and no requirement that the individual be in the United States when a petition is submitted on his or her behalf. As compared to the total number of people in the world who may be eligible for H-1B visas, the total number of STEM OPT extension participants in any given year will be quite small. And to the extent that an increase in interest in the H-1B program from STEM OPT students may result in increased competition for scarce H-1B visas, the appropriate remedy for increasing the statutory limits imposed by Congress on H-1B visas would require legislative action.
Additionally, as noted above, the fundamental purpose of the STEM OPT extension is not to provide students with another chance at the H-1B lottery while in the United States. Instead, as explained in detail in the above discussions regarding experiential learning and important U.S. national interests, DHS believes the STEM OPT extension will promote what DHS believes to be the worthy goals of expanding the educational and training opportunities of certain international students, improving the competitiveness of U.S. academic institutions, and ensuring the continued substantial economic, scientific, technological, and cultural benefits that F-1 students bring to the United States generally.
DHS considered comments expressing concerns that STEM OPT students would add to the number of workers competing for jobs in the U.S. labor market beyond those Congress authorized in other employment-based nonimmigrant visa programs, and that they would potentially displace more-experienced U.S. workers. DHS considered potential impacts of student training in the employment context and has included specific labor market safeguards in this final rule. Specifically, any employer providing a training opportunity to a STEM OPT student must attest that the student will not replace a full- or part-time, temporary or permanent U.S. worker. The rule also includes protections to deter use of the STEM OPT extension to undercut U.S. workers' compensation, or sidestep other terms and conditions of employment that the employer would typically provide to U.S. workers. Specifically, the rule requires that the terms and conditions of a STEM practical training opportunity (including duties, hours, and compensation) be commensurate with those applicable to similarly situated U.S. workers. As stated previously, OPT is a part of the educational experience that individuals come to the United States to obtain, and the presence of these individuals in U.S. colleges and universities, as well as in workplaces, exposes U.S. students and workers to their intellectual and cultural perspectives, which ultimately provides significant cultural and economic benefits.
In response to the comment asserting that STEM OPT students can change jobs more easily and frequently than H-1B nonimmigrants, DHS first notes that commenters expressed varying views on whether the STEM OPT extension would result in such an impact. Additionally, unlike the H-1B program's objective to temporarily satisfy a sponsoring employer's need for labor, the STEM OPT extension's objective is to ensure adequate training appropriate to the major area of study
DHS developed this final rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. The below sections summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and executive orders.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health, and safety effects, as well as distributive impacts and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. DHS has prepared an analysis of the potential costs and benefits associated with this final rule. The analysis can be found in the docket for this rulemaking and is briefly summarized here. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action” that is economically significant, under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, OMB has reviewed this regulation.
DHS is amending nonimmigrant student visa regulations on OPT for students with degrees in STEM from U.S. accredited institutions of higher education. The final rule includes a 24-month STEM OPT extension. The rule also seeks to strengthen the STEM OPT program by requiring formal training plans by employers, adding wage and other protections for STEM OPT students and U.S. workers, allowing extensions only to students with degrees from accredited schools, and requiring employers to enroll and remain in good standing with E-Verify. The rule also provides Cap-Gap relief for any F-1 student with a timely filed H-1B petition and request for change of status.
The rule provides a formal mechanism for updating the STEM Designated Degree Program list, and permits a student participating in post-completion OPT to use a prior eligible STEM degree from a U.S. institution of higher education as a basis to apply for an extension, provided the most recent degree was also received from a currently accredited institution. The rule implements compliance and reporting requirements that focus on formal training programs to augment academic learning through practical experience, in order to equip students with a more comprehensive understanding of their selected area of study and broader functionality within their chosen field. These changes also help ensure that the nation's colleges and universities remain globally competitive in attracting international STEM students to study and lawfully remain in the United States.
DHS has identified five categories of students who will be eligible for STEM OPT extensions under the final rule: (1) Those currently eligible based on a recently obtained STEM degree; (2) those eligible based upon a STEM degree earned prior to their most recent degree; (3) those eligible for a second STEM OPT extension; (4) those eligible based on potential changes to the current STEM list; and (5) those eligible to increase a currently authorized STEM OPT extension period from 17 to 24 months.
DHS estimates the total number of affected students across the five categories to be almost 50,000 in year one and grow to approximately 92,000 in year 10. This estimation is based on the growth rate of the overall proportion of students with an eligible STEM degree who participate in the post-completion OPT program. DHS utilized a 15 percent growth rate that levelled off to 11 percent to achieve a long run stabilized participation rate in six years. Based on slightly lower and higher growth rates, DHS calculated low and high estimates; for year 1 the low and high figures are about the same as the primary estimate, but by year 10 the low estimate is about 80,000 and the high estimate is approximately 112,000.
DHS conducted a statistically valid sample analysis to estimate the number of STEM OPT employers and schools that would be considered small entities. To identify the entities that would be considered “small,” DHS used the Small Business Administration's (SBA) guidelines on small business size standards applied by NAICS code. This analysis indicated that 48 percent of schools are small entities. Based on 1,109 approved and accredited schools participating in STEM OPT extensions, about 532 could reasonably be expected to be small entities impacted by this rule. A sample of 26,260 entities that employed STEM OPT students under the 2008 IFR revealed that about 69 percent were small. Hence, this rule could affect about 18,000 employers that are small entities.
DHS estimates that the direct costs imposed by the implementation of this rule will be approximately $886.1 million over a 10-year analysis time period. At a 7 percent discount rate, the rule will cost $588.5 million over the
DHS estimates the following distribution of costs per STEM OPT extension under the final rule at: $767 per student, $239 per university DSO, $1,268 per employer (with E-Verify), and $1,549 per employers new to STEM OPT (new to E-Verify).
In addition to the quantified costs summarized above, there could be unquantified direct costs associated with this rule. Such costs could include costs to students and schools resulting from the final accreditation requirement; costs to employers from the final requirement to provide STEM OPT students with compensation commensurate to similarly situated U.S. workers; and decreased practical training opportunities for students no longer eligible for the program due to revisions to the STEM OPT program. DHS does not have adequate data to estimate the monetary value of these possible costs.
Making the STEM OPT extension available to additional students and extending its length will enhance students' ability to achieve the objectives of their courses of study by allowing them to gain valuable knowledge and skills through on-the-job training that may be unavailable in their home countries. The changes will also benefit the U.S. educational system, U.S. employers, and the U.S. economy. The rule will benefit the U.S. educational system by helping ensure that the nation's colleges and universities remain globally competitive in attracting international students in STEM fields. U.S. employers will benefit from the increased ability to rely on the skills acquired by STEM OPT students while studying in the United States, as well as their knowledge of markets in their home countries. The U.S. economy as a whole will benefit from the increased retention of STEM students in the United States, including through increased research, innovation, and other forms of productivity that enhance the nation's scientific and technological competitiveness.
Furthermore, strengthening the STEM OPT extension by implementing requirements for training, tracking objectives, reporting on program compliance, and requiring the accreditation of participating schools will further prevent abuse of the limited on-the-job training opportunities provided by this program. These and other elements of the rule will also improve program oversight, strengthen the requirements for program participation, and better protect against adverse consequences on U.S. workers, as well as consequences that may result from exploitation of students.
DHS has not attempted to quantify the potential benefits of the rule because such benefits are difficult to measure. These benefits encompass a number of dynamic characteristics and explanatory variables that are very difficult to measure and estimate. Quantifying these variables would require specific analyses to develop reasonable and accurate estimates from survey methods that are not within the scope of this regulatory analysis.
For purposes of this analysis, DHS considered three principal alternatives to the final rule. The first alternative was to take no regulatory action, in
The second alternative considered was to keep the maximum length of the STEM OPT extension at 17 months, while implementing all other aspects of the final rule. For students seeking a STEM OPT extension based on a second or previously earned STEM degree, the alternative would be similar to the final rule, except with respect to the duration of the OPT period. The 10-year total of this alternative is $29 million less than the final rule, discounted at 7 percent. After evaluation of DHS's experience with the STEM OPT extension, DHS has rejected this alternative so as to ensure that the practical training opportunity is long enough to complement the student's academic experience and allow for a meaningful educational experience, particularly given the complex nature of many STEM projects.
The third alternative to the final rule was to include a six-month evaluation as part of the Training Plan. This alternative was considered in the NRPM. After considering an employer's typical schedule of annual evaluations for all employees, including STEM OPT extension students, DHS has rejected this alternative in favor of an annual evaluation.
The results of this comparison of alternatives are summarized in the following table.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, Public Law 104-121 (March 29, 1996), requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small business, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.
The final rule improves the STEM OPT extension by increasing oversight and strengthening requirements for participation. The changes to the STEM OPT extension regulations are intended to enhance the educational benefit of the STEM OPT extension, create a formal process for updating the list of STEM degree programs that are eligible for the STEM OPT extension, and incorporate new measures to better ensure that STEM OPT extensions do not adversely affect U.S. workers. DHS objectives and legal authority for this final rule are further discussed elsewhere in this preamble.
Commenters stated that many firms already have workable mentoring and training programs in place at their firms, and some expressed concerns that the
While employers may need to make adjustments due to the training plan requirement, DHS views the educational and program integrity benefits as outweighing any costs associated with the Training Plan and supporting documentation. In addition, it is primarily the student's responsibility to complete the Training Plan with the employer and submit it to the DSO.
Finally, DHS disagrees with the comment concerning school revenue. DHS presents the costs to schools as a percentage of estimated annual revenue in order to assess the impact of universities' costs in the context of their overall revenue.
DHS did not receive comments from the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule.
DHS conducted a statistically valid sample analysis to estimate the number of STEM OPT employers and schools that would be considered small entities. To identify the entities that would be considered “small,” DHS used the SBA guidelines on small business size standards applied by NAICS code. This analysis indicated that 48 percent of schools are small entities. Based on 1,109 approved and accredited schools participating in STEM OPT extensions, about 532 could reasonably be expected to be small entities impacted by the rule. Analysis of a sample of 26,260 entities that employed students who had obtained STEM OPT extensions revealed that about 69 percent were small. Hence, about 18,000 employers that are small entities could be affected by the rule.
The final rule requires assurance that STEM OPT students develop, with their employers, a training plan. When completed, students submit the Training Plan for STEM OPT Students form to their DSOs when requesting the 24-month STEM OPT extension. The DSO must retain a copy of the form. The student and employer must ensure that any modified Training Plan is submitted to the student's DSO (at the earliest available opportunity). The student and employer must sign the modified Training Plan reflecting the material change(s) or deviation(s). Additionally, students will be required to update the form every 12 months to include a progress report on accomplishments and skills or knowledge obtained. Employers must meet with the student and sign the 12-month evaluation, and DSOs will check to ensure the evaluation has been completed and retain a copy.
Under the final rule, students must provide the completed Training Plan for STEM OPT Students forms to their DSOs to request STEM OPT extensions. DHS's analysis includes an opportunity cost of time for reviewing the form to ensure its proper completion and filing the record either electronically or in a paper folder.
Schools will incur costs providing oversight, reporting STEM OPT students' information, and reviewing required documentation. DSOs will be required to ensure the form has been properly completed and signed prior to making a recommendation in SEVIS. Schools will be required to ensure that SEVP has access to student evaluations (electronic or hard copy) for a period of at least three years following the completion of each STEM practical training opportunity. This rule, like the 2008 IFR, requires six-month student validation check-ins with DSOs. While the DSO will be in communication with the student during a six-month validation check-in, the final rule adds an additional requirement that DSOs also check to ensure the 12-month evaluation has been properly completed and retain a copy. The final rule maintains the 2008 IFR requirements for periodic information reporting requirements on students, which results in a burden for DSOs. Table 3 summarizes the school costs from the final rule, as described in the Costs section of the separate Regulatory Impact Analysis.
DHS estimates the annual impact to schools based on the school cost of compliance as a percentage of annual revenue. Second-year costs account for new additional STEM OPT extension students. For not-for-profit schools, DHS multiplied full-time first-year student tuition by total number of students to estimate school revenue.
Finally, schools not accredited by a Department of Education-recognized accrediting agency may incur unquantified costs from the final rule's prohibition on participation in the STEM OPT extension by students attending unaccredited schools. A few schools may choose to seek accreditation, or may potentially lose future international students and associated revenue.
Employers will be required to provide information for certain fields in the Training Plan for STEM OPT Students form, review the completed form, and attest to the certifications on the form. The final rule also prohibits using STEM OPT extension students as volunteers. The rule additionally requires that students work at least 20 hours per week while on their STEM OPT extension, and that they receive commensurate compensation. DHS does not have data on the number of STEM OPT students who do not currently receive compensation. Nor does DHS have data on the number of STEM OPT students who do not currently receive wages or other qualifying compensation that would be considered commensurate under the final rule. To the extent that employers are not currently compensating STEM OPT students in accordance with the final rule, this rulemaking creates additional costs to these employers. In the quantified costs, DHS does account for the possible additional burden of reviewing the employment terms of similarly situated U.S. workers in order to compare the terms and conditions of their employment to those of the STEM OPT student's practical training opportunity.
The final rule indicates that DHS, at its discretion, may conduct a site visit of an employer. The employer site visit is intended to ensure that each employer meets program requirements, including that they are complying with their attestations and that they possess the ability and resources to provide structured and guided work-based learning experiences outlined in students' Training Plans. Site visits will be performed at the discretion of DHS either randomly or when DHS determines that such an action is needed. The length and scope of such a visit would be determined on a case-by-case basis. For law enforcement reasons, DHS does not include an estimate of the basis for initiating a site visit and is unable to estimate the number of site
DHS estimates the annual impact to employers based on the employer cost of compliance as a percentage of annual revenue. Second-year costs include initial submission of Training Plans for new STEM OPT students who will be hired in the second year. For not-for-profit school employers without revenue data, DHS multiplied the tuition per full-time first-year student with total enrollment numbers to estimate their revenue. DHS's analysis shows that the first- and second-year annual impact for 99 percent of the sampled small entities with sufficient data would be less than 1 percent, with the average first-year annual revenue impact being 0.11 percent and second-year annual revenue impact being 0.13 percent. Additionally, the cost impact per employer included a compliance site visit in year 2; therefore, costs could be less for employers that do not receive a site visit.
Due to additional employer requirements that must be met in order to receive the benefit of a STEM OPT extension opportunity, some employers (such as temporary employment agencies) will no longer be allowed to participate in STEM OPT extensions. DHS has not attempted to quantify costs associated with this possible impact on employers due to lack of available information on employers that would fall under this category and the associated economic impacts.
DHS recognizes that the final rule will increase requirements on schools and employers of STEM OPT students. DHS has tried to minimize, to the extent possible, the small entity economic impacts of the final rule by structuring the program such that students are largely responsible for meeting its requirements. This not only minimizes the burden of the final program on schools and employers but also helps to ensure that students, who are the most direct beneficiaries of the practical training opportunities, bear an equitable amount of responsibility.
DHS has tried to minimize additional DSO responsibilities while balancing the need for oversight. For example, Training Plan evaluations will be conducted and submitted annually, rather than semi-annually, as DHS had initially proposed.
DHS has tried to provide flexibility for small entities in methods they can use to meet the commensurate duties, hours, and compensation requirements for STEM OPT students. The final rule allows employers to perform an analysis that uses their own wage and compensation data to determine how to compensate their STEM OPT employee in a comparable manner to their similarly situated U.S. workers. This provides small entities flexibility rather than applying a prescriptive national, state, or metropolitan data requirement. And because small entities may not have similarly situated U.S. workers, the rule provides alternative options, discussed in the preamble, for compliance with the requirement to provide commensurate compensation. Finally, the rule allows employers to meet some of the Training Plan requirements using existing training programs.
DHS will engage in further stakeholder outreach activities and provide clarifying information as appropriate. DHS envisions that this outreach will reduce the burden that may result from small entities' uncertainty in how to comply with the requirements.
As explained in greater detail in Chapter 8 of the RIA, DHS examined three alternative options that could have reduced the burden of the rule on small entities. The alternatives considered were (1) no regulatory action, (2) no change in the duration of the STEM OPT extension, and (3) requiring a six month evaluation. DHS rejected these alternatives. First, without regulatory action, OPT students would no longer be allowed to work or reside in the United States past their 12-month post-completion OPT period. This would deter future international students who would pursue STEM degrees from applying to U.S. educational institutions, and reduce the attractiveness of U.S. educational institutions compared to educational systems in other countries that have more flexible student work programs. Second, without increasing the duration of the STEM OPT extension, students' practical training opportunities would not be long enough to complement the student's academic experience and allow for a meaningful educational experience, particularly given the complex nature of STEM projects. After weighing the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, DHS elected to improve and extend the STEM OPT program in order to increase students' ability to gain valuable knowledge and skills through on-the-job training in their field that may be unavailable in their home countries, increase global attractiveness of U.S. colleges and universities, increase program oversight and strengthen requirements for program participation, and institute new protections for U.S. workers.
Pursuant to Sec. 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, Public Law 104-121, DHS wants to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions, please consult DHS using the contact information provided in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any year. Although this rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
DHS has sent this final rule to the Congress and to Comptroller General under the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Federal agencies are required to submit to OMB, for review and approval, any reporting or recordkeeping requirements inherent in a rule under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, as amended, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
DHS has submitted the following information collection request to the OMB for review and approval in accordance with the review procedures of the Paperwork Reduction Act. The information collection requirements are outlined in this rule. The rule maintains the 2008 IFR revisions to previously approved information collections. The 2008 IFR impacted information collections for Form I-765, Application for Employment Authorization (OMB Control No. 1615-0040); SEVIS and Form I-20, Certificate of Eligibility for Nonimmigrant Student Status (both OMB Control No. 1653-0038); and E-Verify (OMB Control No. 1615-0092). These four approved information collections corresponding to the 2008 IFR include the number of respondents, responses and burden hours resulting from the 2008 IFR requirements, which remain in this final rule. Therefore DHS is not revising the burden estimates for these four information collections. Additional responses tied to new changes to STEM OPT eligibility will minimally increase the number of responses and burden for Form I-765 and E-Verify information collections, as the two collections cover a significantly broader population of respondents and responses than those impacted by the rule and already account for growth in the number of responses in their respective published information collection notices burden estimates.
As part of this rule, DHS is creating a new information collection instrument for the Training Plan for STEM OPT
Additionally, DHS is making minor non-substantive changes to the instructions to Form I-765 to reflect changes to the F-1 regulations that lengthen the STEM OPT extension and allow applicants to file Form I-765 with USCIS within 60 days (rather than 30 days) from the date the DSO endorses the STEM OPT extension. Accordingly, USCIS submitted an OMB 83-C, Correction Worksheet, to OMB, which reviewed and approved the minor edits to the Form I-765 instructions.
Overview of New Information Collection- Training Plan for STEM OPT Students
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5. An estimate of the total annual average number of respondents, annual average number of responses, and the total amount of time estimated for respondents in an average year to collect, provide information, and keep the required records is:
• 42,092 STEM OPT student respondents; 1,109 accredited schools endorsing STEM OPT students; and 16,891 employers of STEM OPT students.
• 42,092 average responses annually at 7.5 hours per initial Training Plan response.
• 70,153 average responses annually at 3.66 hours per 12-month evaluation response by STEM OPT students, DSOs, and employers.
6. An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: 566,698 hours.
The recordkeeping requirements set forth by this rule are new requirements that require a new OMB Control Number.
During the NPRM, DHS sought comment on these proposed requirements. DHS received a number of comments on the burden potentially imposed by the proposed rule. The comments, and DHS's responses to those comments, can be found in the discussion of public comments regarding Form I-983 in section IV of this preamble. The final form and instructions are available in the docket for this rulemaking.
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it does not have implications for federalism.
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use. We have determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under that order because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
The U.S. Department of Homeland Security Management Directive (MD) 023-01 Rev. 01 establishes procedures that DHS and its components use to comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321-4375, and the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations for implementing NEPA, 40 CFR parts 1500-1508. CEQ regulations allow federal agencies to establish categories of actions, which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment and, therefore, do not require an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement. 40 CFR 1508.4. The MD 023-01 Rev. 01 lists the Categorical Exclusions that DHS has found to have no such effect. MD 023-01 Rev. 01 Appendix A Table 1.
For an action to be categorically excluded, MD 023-01 Rev. 01 requires the action to satisfy each of the following three conditions:
(1) The entire action clearly fits within one or more of the Categorical Exclusions.
(2) The action is not a piece of a larger action.
(3) No extraordinary circumstances exist that create the potential for a significant environmental effect. MD 023-01 Rev. 01 section V.B(1)-(3).
Where it may be unclear whether the action meets these conditions, MD 023-01 Rev. 01 requires the administrative record to reflect consideration of these conditions. MD 023-01 Rev. 01 section V.B.
DHS has analyzed this rule under MD 023-01 Rev. 01. DHS has determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on
This rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
This rule would not cause a taking of private property or otherwise have takings implications under Executive Order 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.
DHS has analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. This rule would not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that might disproportionately affect children.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless the agency provides Congress, through the OMB, with an explanation of why using these standards would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impracticable. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens, Employment, Foreign officials, Health professions, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Students.
Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens, Employment, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department of Homeland Security amends parts 214 and 274a of Chapter 1 of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
6 U.S.C. 111 and 202; 8 U.S.C. 1101, 1102, 1103, 1182, 1184, 1186a, 1187, 1221, 1281, 1282, 1301-1305, 1324a, 1372 and 1762; Sec. 643, Pub. L. 104-208, 110 Stat. 3009-708; Pub. L. 106-386, 114 Stat. 1477-1480; Pub. L. 107-173, 116 Stat. 543; section 141 of the Compacts of Free Association with the Federated States of Micronesia and the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and with the Government of Palau, 48 U.S.C. 1901 note, and 1931 note, respectively; 48 U.S.C. 1806; 8 CFR part 2.
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(B) The automatic extension of an F-1 student's duration of status and employment authorization under paragraph (f)(5)(vi)(A) of this section shall automatically terminate upon the rejection, denial, revocation, or withdrawal of the H-1B petition filed on such F-1 student's behalf or upon the denial or withdrawal of the request for change of nonimmigrant status, even if the H-1B petition filed on the F-1 student's behalf is approved for consular processing.
(C) In order to obtain the automatic extension of stay and employment authorization under paragraph (f)(5)(vi)(A) of this section, the F-1 student, consistent with 8 CFR part 248, must not have violated the terms or conditions of his or her nonimmigrant status.
(D) An automatic extension of an F-1 student's duration of status under paragraph (f)(5)(vi)(A) of this section also applies to the duration of status of any F-2 dependent aliens.
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(A) Prior to making a recommendation, the DSO at the educational institution of the student's most recent enrollment must ensure that the student is eligible for the given type and period of OPT and that the student is aware of the student's responsibilities for maintaining status while on OPT. Prior to recommending a 24-month OPT extension under paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C) of this section, the DSO at the educational institution of the student's most recent enrollment must certify that the student's degree being used to qualify that student for the 24-month OPT extension, as shown in SEVIS or official transcripts, is a bachelor's, master's, or doctorate degree with a degree code that is contained within a category on the current STEM Designated Degree Program List at the time the recommendation is made. A DSO may recommend a student for a 24-month OPT extension under paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C) of this section only if the Form I-983 or successor form described in paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C)(7) of this section has been properly completed and executed by the student and prospective employer. A DSO may not recommend a student for an OPT extension under paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C) of this section if the practical training would be conducted by an employer who has failed to meet the requirements under paragraphs (f)(10)(ii)(C)(
(B) The DSO must update the student's SEVIS record with the DSO's recommendation for OPT before the student can apply to USCIS for employment authorization. The DSO will indicate in SEVIS whether the OPT employment is to be full-time or part-time, or for a student seeking a recommendation for a 24-month OPT extension under paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C) of this section whether the OPT employment meets the minimum hours requirements described in paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C)(
(C) The DSO must provide the student with a signed, dated Form I-20 or successor form indicating that OPT has been recommended.
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(A) If granted, the employment authorization period for post-completion OPT begins on the requested date of commencement or the date the Form I-765 or successor form is approved, whichever is later, and ends at the conclusion of the remaining time period of post-completion OPT eligibility. The employment authorization period for a 24-month OPT extension under paragraph (f)(10)(ii)(C) of this section begins on the day after the expiration of the initial post-completion OPT employment authorization and ends 24 months thereafter, regardless of the date the actual extension is approved.
(B) USCIS will notify the applicant of the decision on the Form I-765 or successor form in writing, and, if the application is denied, of the reason or reasons for the denial.
(C) The applicant may not appeal the decision.
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(A) Within 10 days of the change, the student must report to the student's DSO a change of legal name, residential or mailing address, employer name, employer address, and/or loss of employment.
(B) The student must complete a validation report, confirming that the
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(F) For F-1 students authorized by USCIS to engage in a 24-month extension of OPT under 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C):
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(2) Forms I-765 that are filed prior to, and remain pending on, May 10, 2016, will be regarded as being covered by 8 CFR 214.2(f)(11)(i)(C) and 8 CFR 274a.12(b)(6)(iv).
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(2) Subject to the requirements in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, F-1 students with a 17-month OPT extension under the rule issued at 73 FR 18944 are eligible to apply for an additional 7-month period of OPT. The F-1 student applying for the additional 7-month period of OPT must:
(i) Properly file a Form I-765, with USCIS on or after May 10, 2016 and on or before August 8, 2016, and within 60 days of the date the DSO enters the recommendation for the 24-month OPT extension into the student's SEVIS record, with applicable fees and supporting documentation, as described in the form instructions;
(ii) Have at least 150 calendar days remaining prior to the end of his or her 17-month OPT extension at the time the Form I-765, is properly filed; and
(iii) Meet all the requirements for the 24-month OPT extension as described in 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C), except the requirement that the student must be in a valid period of post-completion OPT authorized under 8 CFR 274a.12(c)(3)(i)(B).
(3) Students on a 17-month OPT extension who apply for and are granted an additional 7-month period of OPT shall be considered to be in a period of 24-month OPT extension, as authorized under 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C). Upon proper filing of the application for the additional 7-month OPT extension, the student, the student's employer as identified in the student's completed Form I-983 and the student's DSO are subject to all requirements of the 24-month OPT extension period, except for the 150-day unemployment limit described in 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(E), which applies to students only upon approval of the additional 7-month OPT extension. Subsequent to any denial of the application for the additional 7-month extension, the student, the student's employer, and the student's DSO must abide by all the terms and conditions that were in effect when the 17-month OPT extension was issued throughout the remaining validity period of the 17-month OPT extension.
8 U.S.C. 1101, 1103, 1324a; 48 U.S.C. 1806; 8 CFR part 2.
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(iv) An Employment Authorization Document, Form I-766 or successor form, under paragraph (c)(3)(i)(C) of this section based on a STEM Optional Practical Training extension, and whose timely filed Form I-765 or successor form is pending and employment authorization and accompanying Form I-766 or successor form issued under paragraph (c)(3)(i)(B) of this section have expired. Employment is authorized beginning on the expiration date of the Form I-766 or successor form issued under paragraph (c)(3)(i)(B) of this section and ending on the date of USCIS' written decision on the current Form I-765 or successor form, but not to exceed 180 days. For this same period, such Form I-766 or successor form is automatically extended and is considered unexpired when combined with a Certificate of Eligibility for Nonimmigrant (F-1/M-1) Students, Form I-20 or successor form, endorsed by the Designated School Official recommending such an extension; or
(v) Pursuant to 8 CFR 214.2(h) is seeking H-1B nonimmigrant status and whose duration of status and employment authorization have been extended pursuant to 8 CFR 214.2(f)(5)(vi).
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(i)(A) Is seeking pre-completion practical training pursuant to 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(A)(
(B) Is seeking authorization to engage in up to 12 months of post-completion Optional Practical Training (OPT) pursuant to 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(A)(
(C) Is seeking a 24-month OPT extension pursuant to 8 CFR 214.2(f)(10)(ii)(C);
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are removing the Louisiana black bear (
This rule is effective on April 11, 2016.
This final rule and the post-delisting monitoring plan are available on the Internet at
Brad Rieck, Acting Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Louisiana Ecological Services Field Office, 646 Cajundome Boulevard, Suite 400, Lafayette, LA 70506; telephone (337) 291-3100. Individuals who are hearing-impaired or speech-impaired may call the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339 for TTY assistance 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
This document contains: (1) A final rule to remove the Louisiana black bear from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife in part 17 of title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations at 50 CFR 17.11(h) due to recovery, removal of regulatory provisions for the Louisiana black bear at 50 CFR 17.40(i), and removal of designated critical habitat for the Louisiana black bear at 50 CFR 17.95(a); (2) a final rule to remove the similarity of appearance protections for the American black bear; and (3) a notice of availability of a final post-delisting monitoring plan.
The Louisiana black bear population now consists of four main subpopulations in Louisiana and several additional satellite subpopulations in Louisiana and Mississippi. Research has documented that the four main Louisiana subpopulations (TRB, Three Rivers Complex (TRC), UARB, and LARB (see Figure 1,
A large proportion of habitat (an increase of over 430 percent since the time of listing) that supports breeding subpopulations and interconnects those subpopulations has been protected and restored through management on publicly owned lands, or through private landowner restoration efforts with permanent non-developmental easements. The threat of significant habitat loss and conversion that was present at listing has been significantly reduced and in many cases reversed. These habitat restoration and protection activities are expected to continue due to their value to many other species. Since the listing of the Louisiana black bear in 1992, voluntary landowner-incentive-based habitat restoration programs and environmental regulations have not only stopped the net loss of forested lands in the Lower Mississippi River Alluvial Valley (LMRAV; a subset of the Lower Mississippi River Valley limited to Louisiana and Mississippi only), but have also resulted in significant habitat gains within both the LMRAV and the Louisiana black bear habitat restoration planning area (HRPA) in Louisiana. A substantial portion of those restored habitats are protected with perpetual non-development easements (through the Natural Resources Conservation
Taking into consideration the current long-term viability of the Louisiana black bear metapopulation (TRB, TRC, and UARB), the protection of suitable habitat, and the lack of significant threats to the Louisiana black bear or its habitat, our conclusion is that this subspecies no longer meets the definition of a threatened species under the Act.
We reviewed all available scientific and commercial information pertaining to the five threat factors for the Louisiana black bear, and the results are summarized below.
• We consider the Louisiana black bear to be “recovered” because all substantial threats to this subspecies have been eliminated or reduced and adequate regulatory mechanisms exist.
• The subspecies is now viable over the next 100 years with sufficient protected habitat to support breeding and movement of individuals between subpopulations so that the subspecies is not currently, and is not likely to again become, a threatened species within the foreseeable future in all or a significant portion of its range.
Please refer to the proposed rule to remove the Louisiana black bear from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (80 FR 29394, May 21, 2015) for a detailed description of previous Federal actions concerning this species.
It is our intent to discuss in this final rule only those topics directly relevant to the removal of the Louisiana black bear from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife. A list of acronyms used in this rule may be found at
The following section contains information updated from that presented in the proposed rule to remove Louisiana black bear from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife, which published in the
Average age at first reproduction varies widely across black bear studies; however, most reports state that bears first reproduce between 3 and 5 years of age (Weaver et al. 1990a, p. 5). Weaver (1999, p. 28) reported that all adult females (greater than or equal to 4 years old) in the TRB subpopulation had evidence of previous lactation or were with cubs; however, reproduction may occur as early as 2 years of age for black bears in high-quality habitat and in poor or marginal habitat, reproduction may not occur until 7 years of age (Rogers 1987, pp. 51-52). Breeding occurs in summer and the gestation period for black bears is 7 to 8 months. Delayed implantation occurs in the black bear (blastocysts float free in the uterus and do not implant until late November or early December) (Pelton 2003, p. 547). Observations of Louisiana black bears indicate that they enter dens primarily from late November to early December and emerge in March and April (Weaver 1999, p. 125, Table 4.4). Adult Louisiana black bears generally den longer than subadults, and females longer than males (Weaver 1999, p. 123). Cubs are born in winter dens at the end of January or the beginning of February (Pelton 2003, p. 548). The normal litter sizes range from one to four cubs (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 35), and occasionally litters of five have been documented (Davidson et al. 2015, p. 11). Cubs are altricial (helpless) at birth (Weaver et al. 1990a, p. 5; Pelton 2003, p. 547) and generally exit the den site with the female in April or May. Young bears stay with the female through summer and fall, and den with her the next winter (Pelton 2003, p. 548). The young disperse in their second spring or summer, prior to the female's becoming physiologically capable of reproducing again (Pelton 2003, p. 548).
Adult females normally breed every other year (Pelton 2003, p. 548). Not all females produce cubs every other winter; reproduction is related to physiological condition (
Bear activity revolves primarily around the search for food, water, cover, and mates during the breeding season. Though classified as a carnivore by taxonomists, black bears are not active predators and prey on vertebrates only when the opportunity arises; most vertebrates are consumed as carrion (Pelton 2003, p. 551). Bears are best described as opportunistic feeders, as they eat almost anything that is available; thus, they are typically omnivorous. Their diet varies seasonally, and includes primarily succulent vegetation during spring, fruits and grains in summer and hard mast during fall. Bears utilize all levels of forest for feeding; they can gather foods from tree tops and vines, but also collect beetles and grubs in fallen logs and rotting wood.
Den trees may be an important component for female reproductive success in areas subject to flooding (Hellgren and Vaughan 1989, p. 352). Den trees located in cypress swamps would also appear to increase the security (
Female range size may be partly determined by habitat quality (Amstrup and Beecham 1976, p. 345), while male home range size may be determined by the distribution of females (
Home range estimates, calculated as the minimum convex polygon (MCP), vary for the Louisiana black bear. The MCP is a way to represent animal movement data and is calculated as the smallest (convex) polygon that contains all the points a group of animals has visited. Mean MCP home range estimates for the Tensas River NWR subpopulation were 35,736 ac (14,462 ha) and 5,550 ac (2,426 ha) for males and females, respectively (Weaver 1999, p. 70). Male home ranges (MCP) in the UARB population may be as high as 80,000 ac (32,375 ha), while female home ranges are approximately 8,000 ac (3,237 ha) (Wagner 1995, p. 12). LARB population home ranges (MCP) were estimated to be 10,477 ac (4,200 ha) for males, and 3,781 ac (1,530 ha) for females (Wagner 1995, p. 12).
Black bears were also known to exist in Mississippi along the Mississippi River and smaller areas in the Lower East Pearl River and Lower Pascagoula River Basins of southern Mississippi (Weaver et al. 1990a, p. 2). Fewer than 25 bears were estimated to reside in Mississippi at the time of listing (Shropshire 1996, p. 35 citing Jones 1984). The last known Mississippi breeding subpopulation occurred in Issaquena County in 1976 (Shropshire 1996, p. 38 citing Jones 1984). Similarly, black bears were exterminated from southeastern Texas during the period from 1900 to 1940 largely as a result of overhunting (Schmidley 1983, p. 1); and, except for wanderers, resident bear populations had not been observed in eastern Texas for many years (Nowak 1986, p. 7). Key demographic attributes (
Currently, the Louisiana black bear remains in the BLH forests of the LMRAV in Louisiana and western Mississippi. However, based on the number and distribution of confirmed sighting reports by the Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries (LDWF) and Mississippi Department of Wildlife, Fisheries, and Parks (MDWFP) (Simek et al. 2012, p. 165; Davidson et al. 2015, p. 22), the geographic distribution of bears has expanded; the number and size of resident breeding subpopulations and the habitat they occupy has also increased (Table 1; Figure 1,
The TRC is a new breeding subpopulation (
Based on the best available data, all three original breeding subpopulations appear to be stable or increasing, and emigration and immigration (
At the time of listing, there was no evidence that interchange was occurring between the two TRB subgroups. They were thought to be isolated and disjunct from each other (BBCC 1997, p. 99) until Anderson (1997, p. 82) reported one of the first instances of a bear moving between these two areas. Evidence of that historical separation in the recent genetic history of sampled bears was detected by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 54). Though the two subgroups are separated by I-20 and Hwy 80, a significant amount of habitat between those subgroups has been restored primarily within the last 10 years. Increased sightings and vehicular mortality of bears in the vicinity of I-20 indicate that bears are attempting to disperse (Benson 2005, p. 97) and current radio-collar data and genetic evidence support some successful interchange (Laufenberg 2015, personal communication; Murphy and Davidson 2015, p. 13). Furthermore, the current genetic structure of Louisiana black bear subpopulations groups bears in those two areas into one subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 60). Hooker (2010, p. 26) estimated a population abundance (for both genders averaged across years) of 294 bears (standard error [SE] = 31) for the combined Tensas River NWR and nearby Deltic and State-owned tracts with an apparent annual survival rate of 0.91 (SE = 0.08), which did not differ by gender. The pooled population annual growth rate for both genders was 1.04 (SE = 0.18), and the mean realized population growth estimate ranged from 0.99 to 1.06 (Hooker 2010, p. 26), indicating a stable to increasing population. Hooker (2010, p. 26) estimated density to be 0.66 bears per square kilometer (km
According to the most recent study results (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 31), the estimated mean annual survival rate for radio-collared adult female bears in the TRB subpopulation was 0.99 (95 percent confidence interval [CI] 0.96-1.00) when data for bears with unknown fates were censored (assumed alive) and was 0.97 (95 percent CI = 0.93-0.99) when unknown fates were treated as mortalities. Detection heterogeneity (differences in detectability among individuals from such things as size, behavior, etc.) is a well-known issue in estimating black bear vital rates. Mathematical models can be used to account for those differences; however, it is impossible to identify the appropriate group of distributions (a distribution describes the numbers of times each possible outcome occurs in a sample) to use in a model because the same distribution could result from several different sets of circumstances (Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 18). Therefore, Laufenberg and Clark (2014, pp. 18-19) used two models to estimate population numbers. Model 1 assumed that detection heterogeneity followed a logistic-normal distribution, and Model 2 assumed a 2-point finite mixture distribution. We will report results for both models. The current estimated number of females from those two models ranged from 133 to 163 (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 39). Assuming a one-to-one ratio of males to females and using the most conservative figures, we estimate that the current total population size ranges from 266 to 326 bears.
Mean cub and yearling litter size for the TRB subpopulation were an estimated 1.85 and 1.40 respectively, and fecundity and yearling recruitment for the TRB were 0.47 and 0.15, respectively (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 35). Annual per-capita recruitment estimates ranged from 0.00 to 0.22, and estimates of female apparent survival rates (these included emigration) ranged from 0.87 to 0.93, based on capture-mark-recapture (CMR) data. The estimated mean of the population growth rate ranged from 0.97 (range = 0.88-1.06) to 1.02 (range = 0.98-1.09), depending on model assumptions (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 45), which indicates a stable to increasing population.
Early studies suggested that the TRB subpopulation had low genetic diversity and low effective population size (N
Murphy and Davidson (2015) analyzed DNA data collected between 2006 and 2012 to reevaluate the genetic characteristics of the TRB subpopulation. They found that the genetic diversity and effective population size had increased in the TRB subpopulation since the 1999 study (Murphy and Davidson 2015, p. 17). They also documented gene flow within the TRB subpopulation (between the Deltic and the Tensas River NWR portions). Combined with gene flow into the TRB from other bear populations (see below), genetic diversity and effective population size had increased by 17 and 50 percent, respectively (Murphy and Davidson 2015, p. 17). Based on Frankham et al.'s recommendation that an effective population size is 100 bears or greater (2014, p. 62), we do not believe that inbreeding represents a concern based on our current population estimates for the Louisiana black bear. Restored habitat (as discussed in Factor A), along with connectivity studies, evidence of physical movement of bears (from GPS data) among subpopulations, and genetic evidence, all indicate that interchange is occurring among subpopulations within and adjacent to Louisiana subpopulations. This situation supports our belief that long-term genetic viability is not a significant concern.
The recent study by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, pp. 84-85) indicates that genetic exchange with other subpopulations has occurred at a level substantial enough to increase genetic diversity at TRB (Murphy and Davidson 2015, p. 16), primarily as a result of bear emigration from the WRB subpopulation of Arkansas into the TRB subpopulation. The results of recent population structure analyses show evidence of bear emigration from the WRB subpopulation of Arkansas into the TRB subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 85). Nearly 30 bears sampled in the TRB had a probability greater than or equal to 0.10 of originating from the WRB subpopulation in Arkansas (6 bears were identified as WRB migrants), and one had a 0.48 probability of coming from the UARB (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 63). Additionally, ten bears sampled in northwestern Mississippi were determined to have a probability greater than or equal to 0.90 of originating from the TRB. The analysis of genetic data identified five bears in the TRB as migrants from the WRB subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 67). Three males captured in the TRB had CMR histories that indicated they had dispersed from the TRC subpopulation, and an additional male was identified as a second generation migrant from the UARB subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 67). One male detected in the TRB subpopulation was subsequently live-captured in Mississippi (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 67).
Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 85) suggested genetic interchange by bears from outside the range of the Louisiana black bear (that is, Arkansas) probably should be considered as a positive genetic and demographic contribution to the Louisiana black bear. Connectivity modeling analyses by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 90) indicated that, without the presence of the TRC subpopulation, there was low potential for dispersal of either sex between TRB and UARB. Recent LDWF capture records (Davidson and Murphy 2015, pp. 13-14; USGS et al. 2014) have documented the presence of additional resident breeding females between the TRC and the TRB subpopulations, which may significantly increase the probabilities for interchange.
Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 90) suggested that the establishment of satellite populations of resident breeding bears between subpopulations may be a more effective measure to link populations than the establishment of continuous habitat corridors. Laufenberg and Clark 2014, pp. 22-24) developed a series of population persistence models to assess the long-term viability of Louisiana black bear subpopulations. Those models were developed using multiple methods to address the treatment of bears with unknown fates. Model 1 uses censored fates (assumed alive), and Model 2 assumes mortality occurred. In addition, because there is uncertainty (
As discussed previously, Laufenberg and Clark's connectivity models (2014, p. 90) indicated there was no potential for dispersal of either sex between the TRB and UARB subpopulations without the current presence of the TRC subpopulation. The modeled potential for natural interchange between the UARB and TRC subpopulations is high based on the genetic and capture data (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 85), and genetics data show that gene flow has occurred. Twenty of the 35 TRC cubs showed evidence of having been sired by UARB males. A 2-year-old male tagged as a cub in the UARB was later captured at the TRC, and a second generation migrant from the UARB was later captured in the TRB subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 67). The step-selection model (see Barriers to Movement) predicted that dispersals between the LARB and UARB subpopulations were infrequent but possible for males, but nearly nonexistent for females (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 85). Three cubs sampled in west central Mississippi, east of the TRC subpopulation, showed evidence of mixed ancestry between TRB and UARB (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 63). No migrants from the UARB into the WRB or LARB were detected by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 85). Recent LDWF capture records, however, verify the presence of at least one WRB migrant in the TRC subpopulation (M. Davidson, LDWF, undated, unpublished data). Finally, genetic diversity of the UARB subpopulation is the highest among the three original Louisiana black bear subpopulations, and second highest of all extant subpopulations. Results from Laufenberg and Clark (2014, pp. 53-54) indicated this increase may be the result of the persistence of genetic material from bears sourced from Minnesota during the 1960s.
Although the LARB subpopulation has occasionally been characterized as a genetically unique subpopulation, recent research (Csiki et al. 2003; Troxler 2013; Laufenberg and Clark 2014) has identified a genetic bottleneck (
Currently, bears have been observed on the higher portions (levees and ridges) of the Atchafalaya Basin (Figure 1 in Davidson et al. 2015, p. 23), between the UARB and LARB subpopulations, but the Basin is believed to be too wet to support breeding females. However, LeBlanc et al. (1981, p. 65) projected that by 2030, over 35,000 ac (14,000 ha) of lakes and cypress-tupelo (
In 1993, we estimated approximately 144,803 ac (58,600 ha) supported the LARB breeding population (see Table 1). Today, we estimate 130,839 ac (52,949 ha) are occupied by the LARB breeding subpopulation (see Table 1). The LARB breeding area appears to have decreased in acreage over time; however, the apparent decrease is due to more detailed mapping in 2014 that excluded many non-habitat areas that were included in the more general 1993 boundary. In fact, spatially, there is an apparent increase in distribution over time (see Figure 1,
Range expansion of breeding females is a slow process even when bear habitat is in large contiguous blocks because females typically disperse only very short distances. In 1995, when the recovery plan was written, translocations (
The success of those translocations in the formation of the TRC breeding subpopulation represents a significant improvement in Louisiana black bear population demographic conditions since listing. Abundance estimates for the TRC subpopulation are currently unknown. The mean annual estimated female survival rate (2002-2012) for the TRC subpopulation ranged from 0.93 (95 percent CI = 0.85-0.97) to 0.97 (95 percent CI = 0.91-0.99) (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 31). Mean cub and yearling litter size for the same time period were 2.15 and 1.84 in the TRC subpopulation, respectively (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 35). Fecundity and yearling recruitment for the TRC subpopulation were 0.37 and 0.18 (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 31), low compared to the TRB subpopulation, but possibly an artifact of small sample size. The estimated asymptotic growth rates (growth rate estimates calculated from population matrix models) for the TRC ranged from 0.99 to 1.02, for Model 1 and Model 2 respectively (Laufenberg and Clark 204, p. 45). As male cubs born at TRC reach maturity and more males emigrate from the UARB, growth rates of this subpopulation may increase (Laufenberg ad Clark 2014, pp. 70-80). TRC persistence probabilities ranged from 0.295 to 0.999 depending on estimated carrying capacity, the strength of the density dependence, level of uncertainty, and the treatment of unresolved fates (
Based on step selection function modeling, the least potential for interchange was between the TRB and TRC subpopulations, and the greatest proportion of successful projections was between the UARB and the TRC (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 74). As discussed previously, the TRC has experienced and possibly facilitated gene flow with other subpopulations (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 84). Three males were captured in the TRB that had dispersed from the TRC, and 20 of 35 cubs sampled in the TRC showed evidence of having been sired by UARB males (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 67). One TRC female dispersed to a location southwest of the TRB subpopulation and apparently bred with an Arkansas bear (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 63). Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 83) detected direct evidence of interchange by bears from the UARB to the TRB subpopulation via the TRC subpopulation; however, they did not have any direct evidence of reverse movements. A male bear with UARB ancestry (possibly a second generation migrant) was captured within the TRB, indicating gene flow likely facilitated by the presence of the TRC subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 84). Recent LDWF capture records verify the presence of at least one WRB migrant in the TRC subpopulation (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 83).
Similar to the trend for the TRB area, in the Lower Mississippi River Valley of Mississippi, the total forested area increased by 11 percent between 1987 and 1994, and reforestation of former agricultural lands accounted for nearly 40 percent of that increase (King and Keeland 1999, p. 350). Approximately 110,000 ac (41,000 ha) of private land in Mississippi counties adjacent to the Mississippi River have been enrolled in WRP 99-year and permanent easements within the Mississippi Alluvial Valley Black Bear Priority Units (MAVU). Combining WRP permanent easement lands with the habitat protected on Federal and State NWRs or WMAs, other Federal- and State-protected lands, and privately owned protected lands, approximately 868,000 ac (440,000 ha) have been permanently protected and/or restored within the MAVU in Mississippi. Although not permanently protected, approximately 328,000 ac (132,737 ha) were enrolled in the Conservation Reserve Program (CRP) within the MAVU. Approximately 68 percent of breeding habitat in the MAVU is under permanent protection.
Recent population studies for the Louisiana black bear have focused on vital statistics for individual subpopulations such as abundance, reproduction, and survival (
In summary, considering Laufenberg and Clark's recent work (2014, entire document) and prior research, the following conditions exist for the Louisiana black bear population:
(1) The population sizes of the TRB, UARB, and LARB subpopulations have increased since listing, their average population growth rates are stable to increasing, and the probability of long-term persistence for the TRB and UARB subpopulations (except for one UARB modeling scenario) is greater than 95 percent. The probability of long-term persistence for the LARB is unknown.
(2) The habitat occupied by the TRB, UARB, and LARB breeding subpopulations has increased; there is a more scattered distribution of breeding females between the original TRB and UARB subpopulation areas; and new satellite breeding populations are forming in Louisiana (see Figure 1 in the supporting documents section,
(3) A new breeding subpopulation, the TRC, that was not present at listing, now exists between the TRB and UARB subpopulations and facilitates interchange between those subpopulations.
(4) There is evidence that TRB and UARB bears have emigrated to Mississippi and have contributed to the formation of three resident breeding subpopulations that were not present at listing.
(5) There is evidence of interchange of bears between the TRB, UARB, TRC, WRB, and Mississippi subpopulations; however, the current potential for
(6) The overall probability of persistence for the Louisiana black bear metapopulation comprised of the TRB, TRC, and UARB subpopulations is estimated to be 0.996, assuming dynamics of those subpopulations were independent and using the most conservative population-specific persistence probabilities (
While recovery plans provide important guidance to the Service, States, and other partners on methods of minimizing threats to listed species and measurable criteria against which to measure progress towards recovery, they are not regulatory documents and cannot substitute for the determinations and promulgation of regulations required under section 4(a)(1) of the Act. A decision to revise the status of or remove a species from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (50 CFR 17.11) is ultimately based on an analysis of the best scientific and commercial data available to determine whether a species is no longer an endangered or threatened species, regardless of whether that information differs from the recovery plan.
Recovery plans may be revised to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new, substantive information becomes available. The recovery plan identifies site-specific management actions that will achieve recovery of the species, measurable criteria that set a trigger for review of the species' status, and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans are intended to establish goals for long-term conservation of listed species and define criteria that are designed to indicate when the substantial threats facing a species have been removed or reduced to such an extent that the species may no longer need the protections of the Act.
There are many paths to accomplishing recovery of a species, and recovery may be achieved without all criteria being fully met. For example, one or more criteria may be exceeded while other criteria may not yet be accomplished. In that instance, we may determine that the threats are minimized sufficiently and the species is robust enough to delist. In other cases, recovery opportunities may be discovered that were not known when the recovery plan was finalized. These opportunities may be used instead of methods identified in the recovery plan. Likewise, information on the species may be discovered that was not known at the time the recovery plan was finalized. The new information may change the extent to which criteria need to be met for recognizing recovery of the species. Recovery of a species is a dynamic process requiring adaptive management that may, or may not, fully follow the guidance provided in a recovery plan.
The four primary recovery actions outlined in the Louisiana black bear recovery plan are:
(1) Restoring and protecting bear habitat;
(2) developing and implementing information and education programs;
(3) protecting and managing bear populations; and
(4) conducting research on population viability, corridors, and bear biology. Significant accomplishments have been made on all of the primary actions for this subspecies (Service 2014, entire document). Below are examples:
Additionally, all four of these recovery actions have been identified for continued implementation in the LDWF Black Bear Management Plan (LDWF Plan; Davidson et al. 2015), the Mississippi Conservation and Management of Black Bears in Mississippi Plan (Young 2006, Appendix A), and the East Texas Black Bear Conservation and Management Plan (Barker et al. 2005, pp. 30-41).
Substantial progress has been achieved in alleviating known threats to the Louisiana black bear through increased habitat protection and restoration, improved population demographics by reduction of habitat fragmentations, increased knowledge of key population attributes (
The estimated probability of persistence over 100 years for the TRB subpopulation was 1.00 and 0.96 for Model 1 process-only and 95 percent confidence interval estimates and was 1.00 and 0.96 for Model 2 process-only and 95 percent confidence interval estimates (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 46). The probability of persistence of the UARB subpopulation met the 95 percent probability of long-term persistence except under the two most conservative sets of assumptions (Model 2, all uncertainty) (Laufenberg and Clark 2014. p. 82). The estimated asymptotic growth rates for the TRC ranged from 0.99 to 1.02, for Model 1 and Model 2, respectively (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 45). TRC persistence probabilities ranged from 0.29 to 0.99 depending on carrying capacity, the strength of the density dependence, level of uncertainty, and the treatment of unresolved fates (
Estimates of long-term viability of the TRB and the UARB subpopulations were greater than 95 percent except for the two most conservative models for the UARB (long-term viability estimates of 85 percent and 92 percent). Taken together as a system, and assuming that those subpopulations were independent, the combined viability analysis of the TRB, UARB, and TRC (using the most conservative estimates obtained for all three subpopulations) indicated that the Louisiana black bear metapopulation (TRB, TRC, and UARB) has an overall long-term probability of persistence of approximately 100 percent (0.996) (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 92). The current movement of individuals between the additional subpopulations elsewhere in Louisiana and Mississippi would only improve the metapopulation's chance for persistence (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 94). The opportunity for movement of individuals between the TRB-TRC-UARB metapopulation and the LARB subpopulation is currently low;
This recovery criterion, as described in the recovery plan, calls for two viable subpopulations, one each in the Tensas and Atchafalaya River Basins. The overall goal of the recovery plan was to protect the Louisiana black bear metapopulation and the habitat that supports it so that the protection afforded by the Act is no longer warranted. Based on the above analysis, we believe the Tensas subpopulation is viable and we believe the UARB subpopulation is viable based on three model scenarios. We have high confidence in these three model scenarios. The long-term persistence of the Louisiana black bear metapopulation (TRB, TRC, and UARB) is estimated to be at least 0.996 under the most conservative (
The BBCC Black Bear Restoration Plan states that little was known about Louisiana black bear corridor use and requirements at that time (BBCC 1997, p. 58). Research studies conducted near the time of the Louisiana black bear listing were primarily inconclusive regarding the identification and function of corridors. Weaver et al. (1990b, p. 347) determined that the Louisiana black bear will use tree-lined drainages in agricultural areas to travel between larger forested tracts. They also stated, however, that “research is needed to document the characteristics a corridor must possess to make it suitable for use by bears as a habitat link.” Marchinton (1995, pp. 53, 64) speculated that male Louisiana black bear movements, though influenced by habitat fragmentation patterns, were not inhibited by the level of fragmentation within his study area (which was typical of the landscape throughout the range of the Louisiana black bear). He also discussed anecdotal evidence which suggested that “adult male bears would cross open fields” (Marchinton 1995, p. 59). We believe those early studies not only challenged the continuous-habitat-linkage perception of a corridor, but also described the need for additional research to clearly characterize the qualities and functions of such corridors.
The Black Bear Restoration Plan states that “the criteria for measuring corridor effectiveness should also consider corridor function” and “research is urgently needed to determine the corridor functions, their size and shape, and their actual effectiveness” (BBCC 1997, p. 58). To assess the function and role of corridors in Louisiana black bear dispersal and genetic exchange, Laufenberg and Clark (2014, pp. 24-31) conducted a movement, or step selection, study throughout a large portion of the range of the Louisiana black bear. Their findings indicated that, while contiguous forested habitat linkages can be beneficial to bears moving through a fragmented landscape, hypothetical forested corridors “were not more effective than the broken habitat matrix that surrounded many of the subpopulations” (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 85). Their study also documented interchange occurring “from the UARB to the TRB by way of the TRC” (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, pp. 2, 84). Such interchange supports the assertion by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 90) that the presence of multiple satellite populations of breeding bears on the landscape may be more effective in establishing and/or maintaining connectivity between the larger subpopulations than the presence of contiguous forested linkages. Based on their results and that of other pertinent studies (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 90; Hilty et al. 2006, p. 192-193; Stratman et al. 2001, p. 57; Hellgren and Vaughn 1994, p. 279; Maehr et al. 1988, p. 4), we define “Louisiana black bear corridor” as a landscape that consists of “stepping stones” of habitat such as large forested tracts that support reproducing subpopulations, smaller forested blocks that support one or more reproductive-aged females, and the matrix of riparian corridors, agricultural fields, and other undeveloped lands that are sufficiently permeable to allow interchange between the existing subpopulations.
Most satellite populations exist today as a result of the multi-agency project undertaken specifically to reduce demographic isolation of the existing TRB and UARB subpopulations (see discussion under TRC). That translocation project, initiated in 2001, was based on the assumptions that relocated females with cubs would remain at a new location (not currently supporting a Louisiana black bear subpopulation) and that adult females would be discovered by males traveling through the area. From 2001 through 2009, 48 females and 104 cubs were moved (primarily from the TRB) to a complex of public lands located between the TRB and the UARB subpopulations. Though most relocated females and their offspring remained within the vicinity of their release site (creating a new subpopulation that reduced the distance between existing subpopulations), a few dispersed to various habitat patches creating the satellite populations that now facilitate interchange between the larger subpopulations.
As part of the recovery process, HRPA maps were developed by a collaborative multi-agency and organization group (Federal, State, local government partners, and nonprofit organizations including but not limited to the Natural Resources Conservation Service (NRCS), LDWF, BBCC, Louisiana State University, the Louisiana Nature Conservancy, and the Service) to design
Similar conservation priority maps have been developed and are currently in use in Mississippi (Ginger et al. 2007). The TPWD and its partners have developed Land Conservation Priority Maps for East Texas and a Hardwood Habitat Cooperative that offers a cost-share program to landowners seeking to restore or enhance hardwood habitat on their lands. In East Texas, more than 500 ac (200 ha) have been restored and 1,550 ac (630 ha) were enhanced via the Hardwood Habitat Cooperative program between 2008 and 2011.
The Louisiana Black Bear Recovery Plan states that corridors providing cover may facilitate the movement of bears between highly fragmented forest tracts. It also states, however, that the Louisiana black bear has been known to cross open agricultural fields even when forested corridors were available, and that “habitat blocks (large blocks of land) may provide more effective corridors” (Service 1995, p. 6). This type of habitat-block/satellite-population corridor occurs throughout the range of the Louisiana black bear in the form of remnant forested patches and tracts of restored habitat (on private and public lands), and has been augmented by the relocation of bears into east-central Louisiana. Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 90) concluded, based on the result of their work, that a patchwork of natural land cover between Louisiana black bear breeding subpopulations may be sufficient for movement of individuals between subpopulations (at least for males).
Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 85) postulated that, while such corridors may be important, they were not more effective than the presence of a broken-habitat matrix such as what is surrounding current Louisiana black bear subpopulations. As described above, research supports this corridor concept and the documented evidence of interchange between the UARB and the TRB subpopulations (and additional interchange with subpopulations in Arkansas and Mississippi) provides further validation. The Louisiana Black Bear Recovery Plan indicates “key corridors or habitat blocks need to be identified and will be required to ease fragmentation within and between occupied habitat for the Louisiana black bear.” We have clearly documented evidence of interchange between the TRB and UARB subpopulations by way of the TRC, and, therefore, we have met this criterion.
Based on our review of the Louisiana black bear recovery plan, we conclude that the status of the species has improved due to implementation of recovery activities and the criteria of the recovery plan have been met. Our analysis of whether the species has achieved recovery and thus no longer requires the protections of the Act because it is no longer an endangered or threatened species is based on the five statutory threat factors identified in section 4 of the Act, and is discussed below in the Summary of Factors Affecting the Species.
We have not made any substantive changes in this final rule based on the comments that we received during the public comment period. We received some additional information, which has been incorporated, and text has been added to better present our decision. For example, State agencies provided additional updated data on mortalities that we have incorporated.
In the proposed rule published May 21, 2015 (80 FR 29394), we requested that all interested parties submit written comments on the proposal by July 20, 2015. We also contacted appropriate Federal and State agencies, scientific experts and organizations, and other interested parties and invited them to comment on the proposal. Legal notices were published in the Advocate and News Star (Louisiana), Clarion Ledger (Mississippi), and Longview News Journal (Texas) newspapers. We held two public hearings, one in Tallulah, LA, on June 23, 2015, and one in Baton Rouge, LA, on June 25, 2015. Those hearings were announced with the proposed listing and legal notices, and again in a June 12, 2015, media advisory, shortly before the hearings.
During the comment period for the proposed rule, we received 126 comment letters or statements (some individuals commented more than once) directly addressing the proposed action. Three comments were received from peer reviewers, two from State agencies, and 114 from the public (including 54 form letters) posted on the Federal docket, and 7 were presented at the hearings. We did not receive any comments from Tribes. Three additional comment letters were submitted after the close of the comment period. We reviewed those three letters in accordance with the requirements of the Act and Administrative Procedure Act. They did not provide any significant new information but were similar to other comments received by the close of the comment period, and thus are addressed through our response to those comments that were received by the closing date.
We received several comments providing editorial corrections (
Several commenters simply expressed opposition to or support for the proposed delisting of the Louisiana black bear without providing any additional supporting information. We have noted those responses but, as stated in our proposed rule, submissions merely stating support for or opposition to the action under consideration without providing supporting information, although noted, will not be considered in making a determination, as section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Act directs that a determination as to whether any species is a threatened or endangered species must be made “solely on the basis of the best scientific and commercial data available.”
Section 4(b)(5)(A)(ii) of the Act states that the Secretary must give actual notice of a proposed regulation under section 4(a) to the State agency in each State in which the species is believed to occur, and invite the comments of such agency. Section 4(i) of the Act states, “the Secretary shall submit to the State agency a written justification for his failure to adopt regulations consistent with the agency's comments or petition.” The Service submitted the proposed regulation to the States of Louisiana, Mississippi, and Texas. We received formal written comments from Louisiana, including a substantive comment addressed below. The State of Texas' Parks and Wildlife Department was supportive of our proposed rule and agreed with our findings; they did not have substantive comments. We appreciate the support from Texas for the action we are working on together and the State's ongoing commitment to protect black bears. The MDWFP provided support for this action in a telephone call and did not have substantive comments. Issues and information provided by the State agencies are summarized in the State Comments section, and where they overlap with similar issues identified by the public, they are included in the Public Comments section.
In accordance with our peer review policy, which was published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we solicited expert opinion on the proposed rule and the draft post-delisting monitoring plan from three knowledgeable, independent individuals with scientific expertise that included familiarity with the Louisiana black bear (and other black bears) and its habitat, biological needs, threats, recovery efforts, and current research methodologies. We received responses from all three peer reviewers. Issues and information provided by the peer reviewers are summarized in the Peer Reviewer Comments section, and where they overlap with similar issues identified by the public, they are included in the Public Comments section. All peer reviewers supported our conclusions and provided additional information, clarifications, and suggestions to improve the final rule.
We conducted public hearings in a manner we believed would be productive and fair to all attendees, including placing time limits on speakers. We hold hearings to solicit public input; as such, they are organized in a way that allows us to hear as many comments as possible to help inform our decision. We included an open house before the hearings in order to provide time for participants to ask questions and have discussions regarding our proposal. We notified all hearing participants of the several ways to contribute any additional comments (
A 60-day comment period is the Service's standard comment period for substantive decisions. Based on the comments presented at the public hearings and during the comment period, we concluded that it was not necessary to reopen the comment period.
Efforts for recovering and delisting the Louisiana black bear have been ongoing. Since the bear was listed in 1992, the Service and many partners have actively worked towards its recovery (see response to Comment 14).
The development of a post-delisting monitoring (PDM) plan is typically an iterative process that is incorporated into recovery planning and refined during the later stages of recovery so that it is ready to be released at the time a species is proposed for delisting (Service 2008b, p. 3-1). Preliminary development of the PDM plan for the Louisiana black bear began in 2011 to ensure that it would be built upon established data sets collected during recovery in order to document “baseline” conditions prior to delisting so that changes post-delisting could be adequately assessed.
All of the available scientific data has been considered to evaluate the recovery progress of the Louisiana black bear. We did not edit documents to show only results favorable towards delisting. This final action was supported by the peer reviewers, who were all highly familiar with literature on the black bear in general and the Louisiana black bear as well.
The Service did not halt a GCPO LCC black bear vulnerability analysis; however, we did participate in a BBCC meeting where that analysis was presented and discussed. The GCPO LCC functions as a self-directed applied conservation partnership among Federal, State, university, and nongovernmental organizations who are collaboratively seeking to understand and improve conservation actions at the very large or landscape, scale. It spans 12 States in the south central United States. The Service provides funding to
With regard to the commenter's assertion that we have conducted non-public revisions of the Louisiana black bear recovery plan, all tracking of implementation of the recovery plan is reported annually in the Service's publicly available Recovery Plans module. Additionally, no changes were made to the approach outlined in the original recovery plan, but some implementation methods did differ from what was originally planned.
When the commenter states the Service eliminated the USGS database, he is referring to Recovery Plan Task 3.2 related to Coordination of Record Keeping for bear deaths. No USGS database existed until 2010, at which time the Service provided USGS 3 years of funding to develop a digital bear reporting database. That database, referred to as BearTrak, is still in use and is regularly updated.
When the commenter asserts that the Service eliminated the Conflict Resolution Team, he is referring to recovery Task 2.3. That Team originally functioned within the framework of the BBCC according to a 1994 Contingency Plan and voluntarily provided much-needed rapid responses to the limited number of bear-human conflicts that occurred shortly after the bear's listing. In 1999, as the number of human-bear conflicts increased, State agencies such as the LDWF and the MDWFP took the lead for conflict management and had appropriately trained staff assigned to regularly respond to those situations. The Service did not eliminate the Conflict Resolution team; instead, the State agencies assumed responsibility for those actions as the bears' numbers and resulting conflicts increased, which required the skills of the State agencies. The task identified in the Recovery Plan is still being implemented, just in a different manner than originally conceived.
When the commenter asserts that the Service had declared certain recovery tasks as obsolete, we believe that he is referring to recovery tasks 3.4 through 3.6 to develop, implement, and monitor Bear Management Units (BMUs). The Service had noted in the Recovery Plans module that these tasks were obsolete. We made that assessment based on the 2006 revision to the 1997 BBCC Restoration Plan (BBCC 2006), which stated “
The commenter incorrectly asserts that the Service eliminated the use of and support for the BBCC Black Bear Management Handbook. We continue to support its use as evidenced in the Service's 2015 update to Recovery Task 1.23, in ROAR, “this task is accomplished . . . through the use of the BBCC Black Bear Management Handbook (completed in 1992 and periodically updated) as a guide for private landowners.”
As discussed in our Response to Comment 56, we believe we correctly followed Service guidance when we developed the post-delisting monitoring plan.
Therefore, we believe that we have based this decision on the best available data and have made those data available to the public for comment and review. Given the status review conducted as part of the proposed rule, we do not believe conducting a formal update of the recovery plan or re-drafting the post-delisting monitoring plan would provide any new significant information or data that would affect our assessment of the Louisiana black bear's recovery.
After delisting, the LDWF will continue to monitor and actively manage the Louisiana black bear. The LDWF Plan has the stated objective of maintaining a sustainable black bear population in suitable habitat even after the bear is delisted. Additionally, Louisiana, Mississippi, and Texas have developed and are distributing public education and bear safety informational material. LDWF regularly sponsors and will continue to provide public education and outreach as described in the Plan.
The purpose of the PDM plan is to detect any declines in Louisiana black bear populations (at extremely early stages) upon delisting, and the PDM plan includes threshold triggers that would allow for corrective actions to be taken before the species would require protection of the Act. The PDM plan focuses on the subpopulations and habitat features that we relied on to demonstrate the black bear's recovery. Only in Category III of the PDM plan's “Definition of Response Triggers for Potential Monitoring Outcomes” (Service 2016c, p. 33) is metapopulation reassessed, in the event of individual subpopulation declines or habitat loss, as part of a decision to reassess the bear's status.
Regardless of the method used to estimate historical population numbers, it is important to note that the recovery status of the Louisiana black bear is not contingent upon such figures. We determined that the Louisiana black bear has reached recovery because its metapopulation has long-term viability, there is adequate long-term protection of its habitat; and it no longer faces long-term threats to its viability.
We believe that the commenter intended to recommend that the LARB subpopulation be listed as a “Distinct Population Segment (DPS).” Under the Act, a listable entity is a species, subspecies, or a DPS of a vertebrate species. The DPS Policy (61 FR 4722, February 7, 1996), requires the Service first to determine whether a vertebrate population is discrete and, if the population is discrete, then to determine whether the population is significant. Lastly, if the population is determined to be both discrete and significant, then the DPS Policy requires the Service to evaluate the conservation status of the population to determine whether or not the DPS falls within the Act's definition of an “endangered species” or a “threatened species.” Due to the mobility of Louisiana black bears, their ability to disperse long distances, and existing genetic and GPS studies (Laufenberg and Clark 2014), we do not believe this factor is met. As such, the LARB does not qualify as a DPS.
The commenter referenced Figure 15A in Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 54) as providing evidence that the UARB subpopulation is largely or entirely descended from Minnesota bears. We agree that these data indicate an affinity of UARB bears with Minnesota bears; however, the commenter did not acknowledge the additional all-population and the WRB-TRB clustering analyses that indicated at least five genetically distinct subpopulations (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, pp. 60-63). Under that scenario, the UARB subpopulation is distinguishable from the Minnesota population. The commenter describes the UARB area as a bear-free zone at the time of the Minnesota releases (all released bears were tagged) but Taylor (1971, p. 66) observed a large untagged male bear in that area after the releases. The commenter contends that this individual was an offspring of a released bear; however, the presence of suitable bear habitat in the area, and the documented wide-ranging habits of male black bears support the possibility that this was a bear “native” to the area.
Prior to listing, Pelton (1989, p. 5) argued there was considerable evidence that a pure strain of
The commenter suggested that the TRB subpopulation maintained the best genetic purity of the Louisiana black bear and is at risk from genetic introgression; however, the data shows that this subpopulation was experiencing immigration of Arkansas bears at the time of listing. At that time, questions regarding interchange between WRB bears and the TRB subpopulation generated considerable discussion about whether or not the WRB bears should be considered Louisiana black bears. Subsequently, Miller et al. (1998, p. 337) found a high level of genetic similarity between WRB and TRB populations and suggested it indicated gene flow had occurred between those populations. Most recently, Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 63) documented numerous bears with evidence of WRB ancestry in the TRB subpopulation and some Mississippi populations. Therefore, we stand by our assertion that the introduction of gene flow among the TRB, WRB, TRC, and UARB subpopulations benefits the Louisiana black bear and has improved its population health. This assertion is supported by our peer reviewers. However, this position does not mean that we have dismissed concerns regarding the matter of hybridization and the Louisiana black bear as suggested by the commenter.
In the final listing rule (57 FR 588, January 7, 1992), we acknowledged that the Louisiana black bear was not a geographic isolate. Numerous studies (many funded by the Service) have produced differing and sometime conflicting results with no definitive, widely accepted conclusion. We listed the taxonomic entity defined as the Louisiana black bear in 1992 to be protective of the subspecies in recognition of those concerns, and we and our many partners have worked to recover this entity. We have determined that the threats to the taxonomic entity currently classified as Louisiana black bear have been eliminated or reduced. In acknowledgment of interchange that is occurring at the contact zone between the Louisiana and American black bear subspecies, we are not aware of threats to the American black bear population. Interest in the correct classification of black bear subspecies continues. Recent analyses by Puckett et al. (2015 p. 9) provide yet another interpretation and suggest that previously identified American black bear (
Current observations support the fact that the Louisiana black bear is not geographically isolated from the American black bear (see Comment 37). Kennedy (2006, p. 23) suggested that WRB bears probably consisted of individuals with some genetic and morphometric combination of both subspecies as well as some individuals sharing similarities in those characters with both subspecies. He suggested this finding could be taken to support Hall's (1981) delineation of southern Arkansas as a zone of contact between the two subspecies. Kennedy was reluctant to assign the WRB bears to a subspecific status, suggesting they occur in a zone of intergradation between the two subspecies where populations may contain characteristics of both subspecies (2006, pp. 26-27). Given the difficulties in determining subspecific status where two subspecies meet (Pelton 1989, p. 23; Hall 1981, pp. viii-vix), documentation of intergradation between the two subspecies, and the amount of uncertainty remaining regarding taxonomy of bears in this zone, we continued to base our delineation of Louisiana black bear range as described by Hall (1981). We have determined that the threats to the taxonomic entity currently classified as Louisiana black bear have been eliminated or reduced.
With respect to the FNWR, it is located in southern Arkansas just north of the Louisiana border and the UONWR is located directly south, in Louisiana. From 2000 through 2003, the Arkansas Fish and Game Commission (AFGC) in cooperation with FNWR staff reintroduced 46 adult black bear females and 112 cubs from the native population at WRB to the FNWR (Wear et al. 2005, p. 1,367) in order to restore black bears to that area. Additional bears were moved through 2007, resulting in a total of 55 adult females and 116 cubs being released at the FNWR (Service 2015, p. 71). Research was conducted on the factors related to the population establishment of black bears on FNWR and reported by Wear et al. (2005).
Numerous bears were documented as moving from FNWR into Louisiana. For example, females were known to move to the UONWR and elsewhere and establish recently documented breeding subpopulations referred to here as satellite subpopulations (it is unknown if these bears bred with bears from Arkansas, Louisiana, or Mississippi). One male bear, released as a cub at FNWR, was subsequently recaptured in the WRB population in Arkansas, and one year later was documented as traveling to Lake Ophelia NWR in central Louisiana. Due to the logistical difficulty in conducting detailed long-term population studies on a species with individuals with large home ranges that have the potential to disperse long distances, such studies have focused on the original subpopulations identified in the recovery plan as important to recovery. This circumstance does not mean that other subpopulations were not protected by the Act; and research and habitat restoration efforts were focused on the Louisiana black bear within its entire listed range.
We have not included the Arkansas FNWR subpopulations in the Louisiana Black Bear Recovery Plan for the reasons described above, nor did we feel it necessary to modify the recovery plan to specifically include the TRC subpopulation. Recovery opportunities not available when a recovery plan is finalized can contribute significantly to recovery without necessitating plan revisions. This situation is the case for the efforts that established the TRC subpopulation, using a “soft release” methodology not previously tested. The exchange between existing subpopulations fostered by the TRC subpopulation contributes directly to achieving the recovery criteria. We mention other satellite populations in Louisiana and Mississippi for which we have known but limited data (
Consistent with this published research, we define “Louisiana black bear corridor” as a landscape that consists of “stepping stones” of habitat such as large forested tracts that support reproducing subpopulations, smaller forested blocks that support one or more reproductive-aged females, and the matrix of riparian corridors, agricultural fields, and other undeveloped lands that are located to allow interchange between the existing subpopulations. In addition to all of the above-referenced research findings, Hilty et al. (2006, pp. 192-193), in their book on corridor ecology, support this definition stating that “functional connectivity for some biota may not require a connection of relatively intact natural habitat but could involve stepping stones of habitat or protected areas that are not physically connected” and that “stepping-stone connectivity might be better than continuous corridors given the life history of some species.” Additional discussion of corridors is provided in the section entitled Delisting Criterion 2.
With respect to the second issue, overall, the Louisiana black bear metapopulation (TRB, UARB, and TRC) has an estimated probability of long-term persistence (more than 100 years) of 0.996 under even the most conservative scenario (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 82). There is evidence of interchange of bears between the TRB, UARB, TRC, WRB, and Mississippi subpopulations including documented interchange occurring “from the UARB to the TRB by way of the TRC” (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, pp. 2, 84). The stability of the Louisiana black bear metapopulation coupled with recent and significant habitat gains since the time of listing indicates that the Louisiana black bear has recovered and is no longer threatened by habitat loss (from any source including development and conversion to agriculture). Furthermore, we will be monitoring these subpopulations closely as described in our PDM plan. A more detailed discussion of Louisiana black bear population dynamics and habitat trends is presented in this rule (see Factors A and D).
Although no specific data were provided regarding the extent of bald cypress removal within portions of the Atchafalaya Basin that have been designated as Louisiana black bear critical habitat, we acknowledge that timber is routinely harvested from its swamps and BLH forests. We also recognize that large trees with cavities often provide high-quality den sites for bears (particularly females with young-of-the-year cubs). In fact, to afford additional protection to denning bears, the Service through the final Louisiana black bear listing rule had extended legal protection to candidate and actual den trees in breeding habitat (57 FR 588, January 7, 1992). Because of generally low elevations and frequent riverine flooding, there is no breeding habitat (
Regarding the loss and/or conversion of habitat within the Atchafalaya Basin, it has been documented that there has been increased and substantial sedimentation within the Atchafalaya Basin with certain areas exhibiting “the highest documented sedimentation rates in forested wetlands of the United States” (Hupp et al. 2008, p. 139). Sedimentation increases elevation, and areas that were once wet will be naturally colonized with vegetation that will ultimately result in upland forests (Hupp et al. 2008, p. 127) that are more suitable for bear foraging and habitation. LeBlanc et al. (1981, p. 65) estimate that more than 35,000 ac (14,000 ha) of lakes and cypress may convert to higher elevation forests within the Basin by the year 2030. For these reasons, we believe that the extent of higher quality forested land within the Atchafalaya Basin will continue to increase over time. In the more than two decades since the bear was listed, we have not seen any scientific evidence demonstrating the need to regulate timber harvests for Louisiana black bear conservation purposes. In fact, timber management often provides or enhances black bear habitat by leaving downed tree tops and creating openings that provide cover and foraging opportunities (Weaver 1999, pp. 126-128; Hightower et al. 2002, p. 14; Weaver et al. 1990b, p. 344; Lindzey and Meslow 1977, p. 424).
We acknowledge that relatively small-scale developments have impacted forests within the range of the Louisiana black bear. However, there are multiple legal mechanisms currently in place to protect much of the habitat that currently supports the Louisiana black bear breeding subpopulations or that serves as corridors between those subpopulations. All available data suggest that those mechanisms (such as the Food Security Act of 1985 and the Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972 [a.k.a, the Clean Water Act]) have afforded sufficient protections to Louisiana black bear habitat. In fact, an analysis of data obtained from the Corps' wetland regulatory program demonstrates that substantially more forested habitat is restored through compensatory wetland mitigation than is eliminated via permitted wetland development projects (Table 10). While we acknowledge that consultation under section 7 of the Act will no longer be required for the Louisiana black bear, the Service will continue to provide comments to the Corps on proposed Clean Water Act permit authorizations throughout the range of the Louisiana black bear through our authorities under the Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act (16 U.S.C. 661 et seq.). The Service reviews all individual permit applications advertised by the Corps, and we will continue to provide specific comments and recommendations to reduce negative effects to fish and wildlife, including species that are not protected by the Act. Finally, it should be noted that there are over 637,000 ac (257,784 ha) of permanently protected lands within the Louisiana black bear HRPA. Those lands are protected via ownership by a State or Federal government agency or by a permanent easement. All such voluntary permanent easements will be maintained regardless of whether the bear is delisted. A more detailed discussion and associated data regarding Louisiana black bear habitat protection is presented in the sections entitled Recovery Criteria: Criterion (3), and Factors A and D (including Figure 2,
We could find no records documenting the Service's rejection of any formal land donation offers of occupied Louisiana black bear habitat. We do acknowledge, however, that the Service does not accept all land donation offers. We evaluate numerous factors, in addition to suitability of the habitat for listed species, in deciding whether to accept a land donation (
Similarly, we acknowledge that I-20 through Madison Parish has also been both a source of mortality and a partial obstacle to Louisiana black bear movement in northeast Louisiana. To improve the ability of bears to cross and transverse that roadway and the surrounding landscape, we developed and successfully implemented a large-scale habitat restoration project, which was accomplished through a cooperative effort with the NRCS and resulted in the designation of a WRP Special Project Area for this region. Although that area of I-20 has numerous large bridges over river and stream crossings that provide safe passage opportunities for bears, we have also developed plans in coordination with several partners (
That said, we do not believe any road mortalities in either of these areas would be at a level that would cause this animal to be threatened in the foreseeable future (see Summary of Factors Affecting the Species).
(1) We should not delist the Louisiana black bear because of the failure of the Service and LDWF to relocate bear populations to areas that could support them (specifically Kisatchie National Forest, the Pearl River Swamp, the Big Thicket area of Texas, and forests in western Mississippi);
(2) We consider establishing an east-west corridor (perhaps in the vicinity of the coast) to complement the current north-south distribution of bears and habitat;
(3) Bears in the TRC and north-central Louisiana [should] be considered separately from the TRB subpopulation, and should have their status maintained as listed regardless of whether the TRB subpopulation is delisted;
(4) The Louisiana black bear has not recovered within a significant portion of its range and the status of subpopulations in Arkansas and Mississippi should be considered in our decision to delist this subspecies.
Specifically regarding any future harvest of the Louisiana black bear, the LDWF Plan stated that “at no time would harvest be allowed if existing data and simulated population dynamics models indicate harvest could potentially compromise Louisiana black bear sustainability” (Davidson et al. 2015, p. 55). Additionally, the Black Bear management plans for Mississippi and Texas (see Factor D below) are protective of bear populations. Regarding the comment to modify the PDM plan to specify a specific time period before hunting would be allowed, we prefer to rely on scientific data to make such decisions. Post-delisting monitoring is designed to ensure Louisiana black bear status does not deteriorate and if a substantial decline in the species (numbers of individuals or populations) or an increase in threats is identified, to enact measures to halt the decline so that reproposing the species as threatened or endangered is not needed. Monitoring activities are focused on trends and populations' vital statistics (
The LDWF Plan was developed by the LDWF under their State management authorities, not under Federal authority; the State will assume long-term management of Louisiana black bears upon delisting. Upon delisting, as stated in the LDWF Plan: “it is the responsibility of LDWF to ensure Louisiana black bear subpopulations persist into the future.” The LDWF Plan details current and future courses of action for promoting the continued persistence and long-term sustainability of the Louisiana black bear within Louisiana. Individuals having questions or concerns with the LDWF Plan may contact the LDWF.
The LDWF Plan was available for public review (see the State Comments section). In our proposed rule, we stated that the LDWF Plan, and all literature referenced in our proposed rule, was available from our office upon request. In addition, the LDWF Plan was presented to and reviewed by the LWFC in February 2015, subsequently subjected to a 30-day public review and comment period, and published on the LDWF Web site (
We published the draft PDM plan with the proposed rule in order to allow for public input and scientific peer review before it is finalized. The Service encouraged all partners to use the public comment period to submit comments on the PDM plan. Comments addressing the PDM plan have been addressed where appropriate, and the final PDM plan is available with this delisting action.
This section contains updated information and associated analysis from that presented in the proposed rule (80 FR 29394, May 21, 2015). Updated information includes data provided as part of public comments received, recent publications (Puckett et al. 2015), and additional information received by peer reviewers.
Section 4 of the Act and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for listing species, reclassifying species, or removing species from listed status. “Species” is defined by the Act as including any species or subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct vertebrate population segment of fish or wildlife that interbreeds when
(A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range;
(B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes;
(C) disease or predation;
(D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or
(E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.
We must consider these same five factors in delisting a species.
A recovered species is one that no longer meets the Act's definition of endangered or threatened. Determining whether the status of a species has improved to the point that it can be delisted or downlisted requires consideration of whether the species is endangered or threatened because of the five categories of threats specified in section 4(a)(1) of the Act identified above. For species that are already listed as endangered or threatened, this analysis of threats is an evaluation of both the threats currently facing the species and the threats that are reasonably likely to affect the species in the foreseeable future following the delisting and the removal of the Act's protections.
A species is an “endangered species” for purposes of the Act if it is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range and is a “threatened species” if it is likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The word “range” in the
The Act does not define the term “foreseeable future.” For the purpose of this rule, we define the “foreseeable future” to be the extent to which, given the amount and substance of available data, we can reasonably anticipate events or effects, or reliably extrapolate threat trends, such that we believe that reliable predictions can be made concerning the future as it relates to the status of the Louisiana black bear. In considering the foreseeable future as it relates to the status of the Louisiana black bear, we considered the factors affecting the Louisiana black bear, historical abundance trends, and ongoing conservation efforts.
The following analysis examines all five factors currently affecting, or that are likely to affect, the Louisiana black bear within the foreseeable future.
The final rule that listed the Louisiana black bear as a threatened subspecies stated that it “meets the criteria for protection under the Act on the basis of past habitat loss alone” (57 FR 588, January 7, 1992). It also identified the threat of further loss of occupied habitats due to conversion to agriculture or other non-timber uses on top of past severe losses that occurred (historical modification and reduction and reduced quality of habitat, primarily as a result of conversion to agriculture), the lack of protection of privately owned woodlands in the north Atchafalaya and Tensas River Basins, and inadequacy of existing regulatory protections to protect Louisiana black bear habitat (see Factor D below for regulatory mechanism discussion).
We present multiple habitat assessment metrics to establish trends within the LMRAV and the Louisiana black bear HRPA. This relatively high level of redundancy is provided to demonstrate that habitat trends have been accurately identified, and to compensate for the limitations in geographic information system (GIS) technology at the time of listing of the Louisiana black bear. GIS technology was in its infancy in the 1990s, so our ability to accurately delineate the extent and distribution of Louisiana black bear habitat at the time of listing was determined from a best professional estimate based on hand-drawn maps. In addition, the geographic areas used for those initial estimates were not often well described; and varied by study, making successive temporal comparisons difficult. Advances in technology, including GIS and remotely sensed data (
According to Haynes (2004, p. 172), the forested wetlands of the LMRAV have been reduced from historical estimates of 21 to 25 million acres (8.5 to 10 million ha) to a remnant 5 to 6.5 million acres (2 to 2.6 million ha). Significant increases in soybean prices in the late 1960s and early 1970s provided the impetus for the large-scale conversion of forested habitat to agriculture, which was facilitated by improved flood control, drainage, and technology (Wilson et al. 2007, pp. 7-8). Allen et al. (2004, p. 4) concurred that the primary cause of BLH forest loss has been conversion to agricultural production. According to Creasman et al. (1992) as cited by Haynes (2004, p. 170), approximately 78 percent of the bottomland forests in Arkansas, Louisiana, and Mississippi had been lost to conversion at the time of listing. When the bear was listed in 1992, the Service recognized that the rate of loss of bear habitat had leveled off (Service 1992, p. 592). Since that time (1990-2010), forested habitat within the LMRAV has increased (Oswalt 2013, p. 4).
The BBCC Black Bear Restoration Plan states that the recovery criteria standard of long-term habitat and corridor protection could involve a projection of future habitat trend based on historical trends in acreage and habitat type/quality (BBCC 1997, p. 58). In that regard, Schoenholtz et al. (2001, p. 612; 2005, p. 413) described a “promising or encouraging” trend in the annual increase of afforestation (planting of trees to create forested habitat) in the LMRAV. Available data indicate that, over the past three decades, forest restoration in the LMRAV portions of Louisiana, Mississippi, and Arkansas has increased dramatically, and has led to a significant removal of land from agricultural production for the purpose of hardwood forest establishment (Gardiner and Oliver 2005, p. 243; and Oswalt 2013, p. 6). In some areas, these gains have been especially noteworthy. For example, West Carroll Parish, Louisiana, experienced a 92 percent loss of forested area from 1950 (45 percent forest) to 1980 (8 percent forest), but by 2013, the parish was approximately 18 percent forested (Oswalt 2013, p. 4).
As stated in Table 1, occupied breeding habitat for the bear at the time of listing was roughly 340,400 acres (138,000 ha). The current occupied breeding habitat has grown based on implementation of recovery actions by the Service and numerous partners to more than 1,800,000 acres (728,435 ha)—more than five times larger—by the end of 2014. Examples of actions that have helped reduce habitat loss or improve suitable habitat for the
A major factor in this positive habitat trend is the success of incentive-based private land restoration programs, such as WRP, which was established by the Food Security Act of 1990. The WRP has been “perhaps the most significant and effective wetland restoration program in the world” (Haynes 2004, p. 173). According to Haynes (2004, p. 173), within 12 years of the Louisiana black bear being listed as a threatened species, an estimated 450,000 to 550,000 ac (182,000 to 222,000 ha) of BLH forest had been restored in the LMRAV. Since 1992, more than 148,000 ac (60,000 ha) of land has been permanently protected and/or restored in the HRPA via the WRP program (mostly in the TRB and UARB areas) (see Table 2). The entire 148,000 ac (60,000 ha) of restored land benefits movement between bear populations, with approximately 97,000 ac (39,000 ha) directly benefitting breeding populations (see Table 2). The use of the Louisiana Black Bear Habitat Restoration Planning Maps in conjunction with the WRP has not only increased the total amount of available Louisiana black bear habitat, but has also allowed us and our partners to directly focus on addressing the recovery criteria. When WRP permanent easement lands are added to the habitat protected on Federal and State NWRs or WMAs, mitigation banks, and the numerous Corps fee title and easements (as discussed in detail in the Factor D section), approximately 638,000 ac (258,000 ha) have been permanently protected and/or restored within the HRPA in Louisiana (see Table 3) versus the 227,200 ac (91,945 ha) estimated to exist in 1991 (Service 2014, p. 74, Table 6), an estimated increase of more than 280 percent in protected habitat status.
Although not permanently protected, an additional 122,000 ac (49,000 ha) of lands currently enrolled in 10- to 15-year agreements via the CRP program of the Farm Service Agency (FSA) within the HRPA (Table 4) provide short-term habitat that can be used by bears for foraging/denning and travel.
Many of the remaining forested wetland areas have been protected within the Service's NWRs, in National Forests, in State WMAs, and on USDA WRP or other conservation easement sites (King et al. 2006). The Partners for Fish and Wildlife Program provides conservation delivery adjacent to or nearby such protected areas to help meet our strategy of expanding main conservation areas and linking habitat by reducing fragmentation. Numerous projects administered through this program have provided direct habitat benefits for the Louisiana black bear. Additional details regarding the effectiveness of this program can be found in the Factor D section, titled Partners for Fish and Wildlife Act Regulations.
It should also be noted that in Louisiana there are approximately 480,000 ac (195,000 ha) of public lands (
Even bear populations in a relatively large habitat patch are not necessarily ensured long-term survival without recolonization by bears from adjacent patches (Clark 1999, p. 111). Anderson (1997, p. 73) observed that males may not be as affected by fragmentation as females. Louisiana black bears have been observed to occur in open areas such as fields (Anderson 1997, p. 45). Tracking the dispersal of translocated females demonstrated that bears can disperse through fragmented landscapes (Benson 2005, p. 98). The results of genetic analyses indicated differentiation between the three Louisiana subpopulations present at listing (TRB, UARB, and LARB) partially as the result of restricted gene flow (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 84). Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 24) analyzed connectivity between Louisiana black bear subpopulations using a combination of genetic markers (differentiating resident from immigrant bears and within-population genetic structure) and actual bear movements as recorded by global positioning system (GPS) data and step-selection function (SSF) models. Tools like SSF models are relatively new powerful models used to quantify and to simulate the routes and rates of interchange selected by animals moving through the landscape. The SSF models can be used to identify landscape features that may facilitate or impede interchange or dispersal. The results of connectivity modeling indicated that, in general, the bears selected a movement direction as distance to natural cover and agriculture decreased and distance to roads increased (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, pp. 70-71). Those models also predicted occasional crossing of habitat gaps (even large ones) by both males and females.
When Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 85) examined the potential effect of continuous corridors on bear dispersal, they concluded that, while such corridors may be important, they were not more effective than the presence of a broken habitat matrix such as that currently surrounding Louisiana black bear subpopulations. The genetic and GPS data used in Laufenberg and Clark's study (2014, p. 86) generally agreed with the connectivity model results, which indicated interchange was occurring between some Louisiana black bear subpopulations and unlikely to occur between others (see Recovery Criteria discussion). Laufenberg and Clark (2014, p. 90) concluded that a patchwork of natural land cover between Louisiana black bear breeding subpopulations may be sufficient for movement of individuals to occur between subpopulations (at least for males).
In east Texas, habitat fragmentation may become a concern as timberland owners dissolve their holdings over much of southeast Texas lands (Barker et al. 2005, p. 26). Future water reservoir developments further threaten the highest quality habitat remaining in East Texas (Barker et al. 2005, p. 26). However, this area is not currently supporting breeding populations, and habitat restoration activities continue in Texas. Between 2008 and 2011, more than 500 ac (200 ha) have been restored and 1,550 ac (630 ha) have been enhanced in east Texas via the Hardwood Habitat Cooperative program.
In summary, there are about 460,000 ac (186,000 ha) of Federal- and State-owned conservation lands managed for wildlife in Louisiana and Mississippi that directly support the Louisiana black bear. Those areas will continue to remain permanently protected following publication of this final rule. Since listing, more than 4,000 ac (1,600 ha) of Federal land that benefits bears has been acquired, including new NWRs (such as Bayou Teche NWR in Louisiana in 2001) and other areas. In addition to the permanently protected habitat in public ownership, we have worked with States and landowners to secure 148,000 ac (60,000 ha) of permanent WRP easements. Regardless of whether the protections of the Act are removed for the bear, these voluntary permanent easements protect wetlands and ensure that habitat will be maintained (see Factor D for associated regulatory protections). In addition to the approximately 638,000 ac (258,000 ha) of permanently protected habitat (refer to Table 3), there are roughly 122,000 ac (49,000 ha) of habitat enrolled in CRP (with 10- to 15-year contracts), which also provides benefits to the Louisiana black bear.
Forested wetlands throughout the range of the Louisiana black bear habitat that are not protected through direct public ownership or easements on private lands will continue to receive protection through section 404 of the CWA and the “Swampbuster” provisions of the Food Security Act of 1985 as described in Factor D. Forested habitat trends in the LMRAV indicate that those regulations have provided adequate long-term protection of Louisiana black bear habitat since the listing of the Louisiana black bear in 1992. BLH forest loss in the LMRAV has been reversed with substantial gains in forested habitat being realized within both the LMRAV and the more restrictive HRPA.
To further evaluate forested wetland habitat trends within the HRPA, we employed a GIS analysis of landscape changes in which classified habitat types were monitored over time. To increase the confidence level of that analysis, we evaluated two independent sets of imagery (image dates were based on availability). The results of both methodologies (shown in Tables 7 and 8) demonstrate significant gains in potential bear habitat within the Louisiana black bear HRPA in recent decades. Those results are consistent with government agency records for forested habitat restoration through programs such as WRP, CRP, and wetland mitigation banking.
In 1992, when the Louisiana black bear was listed, the lack of habitat protection within the Atchafalaya River Basin was considered a significant component of the overall habitat loss threat to Louisiana black bears. The final rule that listed the Louisiana black bear as a threatened subspecies states that “privately owned lands of the Atchafalaya River Basin south of U.S. 190 may remain exposed to threat from clearing and conversion to agricultural uses” (Service 1992, p. 591). It further states that approximately one-half of the forests in the northern Atchafalaya River Basin and the Tensas River Basin are “privately owned and under no protection through conservation easements or acquisition” (Service 1992, p. 591). The Corps' Feasibility Study for the Atchafalaya Basin Floodway System projected the “conversion of about 200,000 ac [81,000 ha] of forestland to agricultural land” within the Lower Atchafalaya Basin Floodway (Corps 1982, p. 29). Partly in response to the threat of land-use conversion and the potential to affect its potential use as a floodway, the Corps' Atchafalaya Basin Multi-Purpose Plant authorized the acquisition of more than 300,000 ac (121,000 ha) of non-developmental easements on private lands and the fee-title purchase of more than 50,000 ac (20,000 ha) of land for conservation
Developmental and environmental provisions of those easements prohibit the conversion of these lands from existing uses (
Although trends related to agricultural conversion of forested land have been reversed since the listing of the Louisiana black bear, another possible source of future habitat loss may be development associated with increased urbanization. To assess potential future habitat losses associated with development, we acquired population trend projections for all of the parishes within the Louisiana black bear HRPA. Population projections are available through year 2030; see Table 9. The Louisiana Parish Population Projections Series (2010-2030) were developed by Louisiana State University—Department of Sociology for the State of Louisiana, Office of Information Technology, Division of Administration (
Of the 17 parishes included within our Louisiana Black Bear Habitat Restoration Planning Area, 15 were projected to experience human population declines, including several that may experience substantial reductions (population declines of 10-23 percent). St. Landry and St. Martin Parishes were the only parishes within our analysis polygon with projected population growth over the next 15 years (though increases of only 3.88 and 5.07 percent, respectively, are expected). Significant portions of those parishes, including their largest urban areas where most future population growth and associated development would be expected, occur outside of the HRPA. In summary, based on our review of the available human population projections, it appears that there is an extremely low threat of future Louisiana black bear habitat loss from urban expansion or other types of development.
Under current landscape conditions and forested habitat extent, the subpopulations within the Tensas and Upper Atchafalaya River Basins (specifically the TRB, UARB, and TRC) have an overall probability of persistence of approximately 100 percent (0.996; Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 2). This indicates that current available habitat is sufficient in quality and quantity to meet long-term survival requirements of the Louisiana black bear. Much of that habitat is protected and the extent of protected habitat continues to increase. Since the listing of the Louisiana black bear in 1992, voluntary landowner-incentive based programs and environmental regulations have not only stopped the net loss of forested lands in the LMRAV, but have resulted in significant habitat gains within both the LMRAV and the Louisiana black bear HRPA. We do not have any data indicating that future enrollment in voluntary landowner-incentive based programs would deviate significantly from recent historical trends.
A substantial amount of private land that supports Louisiana black bears is not encumbered by conservation easements. To conservatively estimate long-term habitat availability for the Louisiana black bear, those lands were excluded from much of our analyses (Tables 2, 3, 5, and 6). Those lands largely consist of forested habitats that are occasionally to frequently flooded and would not be suitable for conversion to agriculture or development without the construction of significant flood control features. The construction of such features or other activities would eliminate or reduce existing wetland habitat (including forested wetlands) and would be regulated via the Food Security Act of 1985 and/or section 404 of the CWA (refer to the Factor D section for further discussions on long-term protections afforded to private land through existing regulatory mechanisms). Following the listing of the Louisiana black bear, more than 460,000 ac (186,000 ha) of available and restored habitat is now held in Federal and State ownership, and a substantial portion of restored habitats are protected with perpetual non-developmental easements (through the WRP or wetland mitigation banking programs). Additionally, remnant and restored forested wetlands are protected through applicable conservation regulations (
Recreational hunting is not a threat because there has been no existing functional mechanism to hunt or take bears in the States in their range since 1984 (refer to Factor E discussion for a discussion of mortality due to poaching). Also, when this rule goes into effect as specified above in
When we listed the Louisiana black bear in 1992, we did not consider disease or predation to be limiting or threatening to the Louisiana black bear (57 FR 588, January 7, 1992). Several diseases and parasites have been reported for black bears but are not considered to have significant population impacts (Pelton 2003, p. 552). Limited information has been collected in the wild on diseases or parasites of black bears and causes of cub mortality (LeCount 1987, p. 75). Natural predation has been documented as a result of cannibalism by other bears and cub predation by other animals (LeCount 1987, pp. 77-78; Rogers 1987, p. 54; Pelton 2003, p. 552). Rogers (1987, pp. 53-54) documented four yearling bears that had been eaten (including one that had been eaten by its mother) but could not determine if they had been killed or scavenged and noted that small bears in poor condition would be more susceptible to predation. Cannibalism rates are not likely to regulate population growth (Rogers 1987, p. 55). It is unknown how many juvenile males are killed (rather than dispersed from the area) by adults, but that mortality probably has little effect on population growth due to the polygamous (having more than one mate) mating system of bears (Rogers 1987, p. 55). O'Brien's (2010, p. 17) literature review of black bear disease indicated bears may be susceptible to a number of parasitic, bacterial, and viral diseases but none are likely to cause high morbidity or mortality. Similarly, Pelton (1982, p. 511) listed the following diseases of black bears—liposarcoma and unidentified tumors, Elokomin fluke, rabies, and several bacterial and parasitic infestations—noting that none appeared to have significant effects on population regulation and LeCount (1987, p. 79) did not believe disease represented a substantial mortality factor for bear populations. Disease vectors are monitored by the LDWF whenever bears are handled. During the period extending from 1992 through 2014, researchers documented 11 black bear mortalities as a result of sickness or injury (Davidson and Murphy 2015, p. 1).
We have no evidence or data indicating that disease or predation present a threat to the Louisiana black bear population.
Overharvest was identified as one of the factors that resulted in low Louisiana black bear numbers. When this rule goes into effect, protections afforded by the Act will be removed; however, Louisiana black bears will remain protected from take by State laws throughout its historical range (Louisiana: Title 56, Chapter 8, Part IV. Threatened or Endangered Species; Mississippi: Title 49, Chapter 5-Fish, Game and Bird Protections and Refuges, Nongame Endangered Species Conservation; Texas: Title 5. Wildlife and Plant Conservation, Subtitle B. Hunting and Fishing, Chapter 68. Endangered Species).
The LDWF Plan was finalized in 2015 (Davidson et al. 2015). The management objective for that Plan is to maintain a sustainable black bear population in suitable habitat and has the following key requirements: sufficient habitat available within dispersal distance, maintaining connectivity among subpopulations, and continued monitoring of subpopulation demographics (Davidson et al. 2015, p. 2). The LDWF identified three bear management actions it will implement: (1) Continued public education and outreach; (2) minimizing human-bear conflicts; and (3) bear harvest as a management action if such actions do not impede sustainability of bears (as determined by the ongoing population monitoring program as described in the LDWF Plan (Davidson et al. 2015, pp. 32-33, 55-56).
The MDWFP is responsible for administering the many State-owned wildlife management areas in Mississippi. The WMAs within the MAVU include Leroy Percy WMA (2,664 ac (1,078 ha)), Shipland WMA (4,269 ac (1,728 ha)), Copiah County WMA (6,830 ac (2,764 ha)), and O'Keefe WMA (5,918 ac (2,395 ha)). Those areas are managed according to the MDWFP Strategic Plan (MDWFP undated, p. 17) and are actively managed to provide for a diversity of wildlife species. The management goals are to manage agency-owned lands for the long-term conservation of wildlife habitat and for multiple user groups to enjoy diverse outdoor recreational opportunities that are consistent with natural resource management goals.
An overriding consideration reflected in these plans is that fish and wildlife conservation has first priority in refuge management, and that public use be allowed and encouraged as long as it is compatible with, or does not detract from, the Refuge System mission and refuge purpose(s).
Each NWR within the Louisiana black bear range addresses management actions for maintaining appropriate bear habitat on their lands and are listed below: Tensas River NWR (Service 2009a, pp. 77-78); Bayou Teche NWR (Service 2009b, p. 34); Atchafalaya NWR (Service 2011, pp. 68-75); Grand Cote NWR (Service 2006a, p. 54); Upper Ouachita NWR (Service 2008a, pp. 85-86); Lake Ophelia NWR (Service 2005a, pp. 49-50); Bayou Cocodrie NWR (Service 2004, p. 40); Hillside, Matthews Brake, Morgan Brake, Panther Swamp, Theodore Roosevelt, and Yazoo NWRs (Service 2006c, pp. 92-93); Coldwater and Tallahatchie NWRs (Service 2005b, pp. 78-79); and St. Catherine Creek NWR (Service 2006b, p. 58).
Participating landowners may request other prohibited uses such as haying, grazing, or harvesting timber. When evaluating compatible uses, the NRCS evaluates whether the proposed use is consistent with the long-term protection and enhancement of the wetland resources for which the easement was established and Federal funds expended. Requests may be approved if the NRCS determines that the activity both enhances and protects the purposes for which the easement was acquired and would not adversely affect habitat for migratory birds and threatened and endangered species. NRCS retains the right to cancel an approved compatible use authorization at any time if it is deemed necessary to protect the functions and values of the easement. According to the authorizing language (16 U.S.C. 3837a(d)), compatible economic uses, including forest management, are permitted if they are consistent with the long-term protection and enhancement of the wetland resources for which the easement was established. Should such a modification be considered, NRCS would consult with the Service prior to making any changes.
According to the WRP Manual, prior to making a decision regarding easement modification, the NRCS must:
(1) Consult with the Service;
(2) evaluate any modification request under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA);
(3) investigate whether reasonable alternatives to the proposed action exist; and
(4) determine whether the easement modification is appropriate considering the purposes of WRP and the facts surrounding the request for easement modification or termination.
Any WRP easement modification, must:
(1) Be approved by the Director of the NRCS in consultation with the Service (the National WRP Program Manager must coordinate the consultation with the Service at the national level);
(2) not adversely affect the wetland functions and values for which the easement was acquired;
(3) offset any adverse impacts by enrolling and restoring other lands that provide greater wetland functions and values at no additional cost to the government;
(4) result in equal or greater ecological (and economic) values to the U.S. Government;
(5) further the purposes of the program and address a compelling public need; and
(6) comply with applicable Federal requirements, including the Act, NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321
The WRP manual states that “NRCS will not terminate any of its easements, except for a partial termination that may be authorized as part of an easement modification request . . . in which additional land will be enrolled in the program in exchange for the partial termination.” Therefore, based on our assessment of these requirements, the termination of an entire WRP easement, or a reduction in the total acreage of WRP lands via authorized modifications, appears highly improbable. In addition, we have partnered with NRCS to administer WRP in Louisiana since the inception of that program in 1992. Following a comprehensive review of our local files and a search of national WRP records, we have been unable to find a single instance of a WRP easement being terminated in the history of that program (which includes nearly 10,000 projects on approximately 2 million ac (800,000 ha) of land nationwide).
In response to the considerable wetland habitat conversion throughout the LMRAV, and fueled by the ongoing clearing of the Lake Long tract, the Avoyelles Sportsmen's League and partnering organizations sued the Corps and EPA for allegedly failing to properly enforce section 404 of the CWA. On March 12, 1981, a U.S. District Court (Western District of Louisiana—Alexandria Division) ruled in favor of the plaintiffs with a decision that would substantially alter the regulatory scope and enforcement authority of the Corps and EPA under the CWA. The decision noted: (1) The term “wetland vegetation” was more broadly defined, which would ultimately result in the reclassification of many areas that were previously considered non-wetland (such as the Lake Long tract), and (2) the Corps' and EPA's jurisdiction were expanded beyond the limited scope of dredge and fill regulation to include all activities that may result in the placement or redistribution of earthen material, such as mechanized land clearing (
To summarize, though the CWA was enacted in 1972, it was a full decade later before the authority and associated protection that it affords to forested wetlands was legally recognized. In the interim, and in the decade prior, the BLH forests of the LMRAV were decimated (Creasman et al. 1992; Haynes 2004, pp. 170, 172) ultimately constituting the primary threat that warranted the listing of the Louisiana black bear (Service 1992, p. 592). After the new legal protection of forested wetlands defined via the Avoyelles Sportsmen's League rulings on CWA authority, the trend of BLH forest loss in the LMRAV was reversed. Available data regarding the extent of forested wetlands in the LMRAV (
Mitigation banking has been an additional factor responsible for alleviating wetland losses associated with the Corps' wetland regulatory program. Persons obtaining a wetland development permit from the Corps (pursuant to section 404 of the CWA and/or section 10 of the Rivers and Harbors Act) that authorizes impacts to waters of the United States, including wetlands, are typically required to compensate for wetland losses in a manner that ensures project implementation would result in no net loss of wetlands. Mitigation banks are intended to provide a mechanism to assist permit applicants, who may be unable or unwilling to implement an individual compensatory mitigation project, in complying with those mitigation requirements. The design and implementation of compensatory wetland mitigation projects (particularly wetland mitigation banks) are accomplished through a coordinated effort among the Corps, the Service, and other State and Federal environmental resource management agencies, and are individually authorized by a mitigation banking instrument (MBI). With a high degree of specificity, MBIs mandate restoration practices, contingencies and remedial actions, long-term monitoring and maintenance, adherence to performance standards, financial assurances, and the establishment of perpetual conservation servitudes. Without exception, wetland mitigation banks are restored and managed with the intent of providing the full array of wetland functions and values (such as providing habitat for a multitude of wildlife species, which typically includes the Louisiana black bear).
For permitted projects that would impact Louisiana black bear habitat, the Service routinely requests that any associated wetland mitigation project (or wetland mitigation bank option) be sited in a location, and conducted in a manner, that would result in the restoration of suitable Louisiana black bear habitat including all of the various functions that would be potentially impacted by the corresponding development project (
Our analysis of impacts and mitigation associated with the Corps' wetland regulatory program suggests that substantially more forested habitat is restored through compensatory wetland mitigation than is eliminated via permitted wetland development projects (see Table 11). That analysis was conducted over a 5-year period spanning July 1, 2009, through July 31, 2014. According to personnel within the Corps' wetland regulatory program, a standardized electronic database to track permitted projects was not developed until 2004, and was not reliably used by permit analysts until 2009. Therefore, there is no reliable database to query such records prior to that time. Note that the corresponding table displays permitted wetland losses and approved wetland mitigation banks that would be available to offset those losses. We were unable to obtain the baseline data necessary to calculate a loss-to-gain wetland habitat ratio. However, personnel within the Corps' wetland regulatory program evaluated their records for specific mitigation requirements associated with each permitted activity and estimated that the ratio of wetland habitat gains from compensatory mitigation to wetland habitat losses attributed to permitted projects is 6:1 (Stewart 2014).
The results of our GIS landscape analysis indicate that the recent (post 1990) positive trends in forested habitat extent within the LMRAV (as documented above) have also been realized within our more focused HRPA. Regardless of our methodology (1-meter DOQQ analysis or 30-meter NLCD analysis), the analyses yielded similar results. There has been a significant gain in the acreage of potential Louisiana black bear habitat within the HRPA since the 1992 listing of the Louisiana black bear (see Tables 7 and 8). Our review of available literature and research, in conjunction with our own analyses, suggest that those gains are the result of both voluntary private land restoration programs (mainly CRP and WRP) and wetland regulatory mechanisms (primarily section 404 of the CWA).
The documented trends in Louisiana black bear population growth and population viability validate the assertion that existing environmental regulatory mechanisms and conservation measures are sufficient for the Louisiana black bear. We do not have any other data indicating that current regulatory mechanisms are inadequate to provide long-term protection of the Louisiana black bear and its habitat. Accordingly, we conclude that existing regulatory mechanisms are adequate to address the threats to the Louisiana black bear posed by the other listing factors, especially habitat loss.
Louisiana black bears are currently, and will continue to be, protected from taking, possession, and trade by State laws throughout their historical range. Regulatory mechanisms that currently protect Louisiana black bear habitat through conservation easements or ownership by State and Federal agencies will remain in place (
Our knowledge of bear behavior coupled with the habitat in existence at that time would support the presence of males in or traveling through that area. This, in combination with the findings presented by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, pp. 60-63), would support our assumption that the UARB is not strictly composed of Minnesota bears and our inclusion of that subpopulation in our recovery assessment.
The most recent unified analyses of genetic data by Laufenberg and Clark (2014, pp. 50-58) found varying levels of genetic structure among pairs of subpopulations and identified five genetically distinct groups (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 60) and an affinity between Minnesota and UARB subpopulations (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 84).
The analyses concluded that differentiation between the Louisiana black bear subpopulations within the LMRAV can be explained as the result of restricted gene flow, accelerated genetic drift, and differing levels of genetic introgression as a result of the Minnesota introductions (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 84). The results also show some interchange of Louisiana black bear subpopulations with Arkansas populations and found affinities to the WRB subpopulation and Minnesota bears. The level of genetic affinity or differentiation between the Louisiana black bear subpopulations and the WRB subpopulation and Minnesota bears is not sufficient evidence for determining taxonomic status (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 85). Thus, while recent genetic analyses results did indicate the existence of some effects of the Minnesota reintroductions (as postulated at listing; the data do not indicate that the UARB subpopulation is completely composed of Minnesota bears), those effects do not seem to be great enough to pose a significant threat to this subspecies' genetic integrity by hybridization as speculated at listing. In fact, genetic exchange that is occurring among bears from Louisiana, Mississippi, and Arkansas can be considered a positive genetic and demographic contribution to the Louisiana black bear (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 85) (see the Distribution and Taxonomy section).
Biological and historical evidence suggests that the Louisiana black bear is well-adapted to endure the projected effects of climate change throughout its range. As stated above, Louisiana black bears inhabit more than 1.4 million ac (approximately 576,000 ha) of habitat in all or portions of 21 Louisiana parishes and 6 Mississippi counties. It is a generalist that uses a variety of habitat types within and adjacent to the LMRAV, including forested wetlands, scrub-shrub, marsh, spoil banks, and upland forests (including upland hardwoods and mixed pine-hardwood forests). On a larger scale and to make a comparison to the Louisiana black bear's capability to use many habitat types, American black bears (in the other portions of the United States and Canada) are known to inhabit vast mountainous areas, coastal plains, chaparral and pinyon-juniper woodlands (
The Louisiana black bear is capable of efficiently traversing the landscape, and individual bears incorporate relatively large expanses of habitat within their respective home ranges (which varies based on gender and subpopulation). Home ranges vary from approximately 1,000 ac [400 ha] to 84,000 ac [34,000 ha] (Beausoleil 1999, p. 60; Wagner 1995, p. 12). Numerous long-distance movements of the Louisiana black bear have been confirmed, and there is documented evidence of dispersal throughout most of their current range (Figure 1 in Davidson et al. 2015, p. 24). In the event habitat is lost due to the effects of climate change effects (such as extreme flooding or drought), Louisiana black bears have demonstrated the ability not only to move at a relatively rapid pace to more suitable areas, but also to adapt to a wide range of potential habitats and food sources.
Habitat supporting the LARB subpopulation (population range from 136 to 194 adult bears (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 45)) of the Louisiana black bear is more vulnerable to the effects of climate change than other subpopulations due to its occurrence within low-elevation coastal habitats that are susceptible to flooding from extreme rainfall events, significant tidal surges (including those associated with tropical weather systems), and riverine flooding. That subpopulation occurs entirely within the Louisiana Coastal Zone, which was delineated by the Louisiana Department of Natural Resources—Office of Coastal Management (LDNR-OCM) based on storm surge data, geology, elevation, soils, vegetation, predicted subsidence/sea level rise, and boundaries of existing coastal programs (LDNR-OCM 2010, pp. 54-60). Based on the current sea level rise estimates (
The Service estimated that more than 35,000 ac (14,000 ha) of lakes and cypress-tupelo swamps would convert to higher elevation forests within the ARB by the year 2030 (LeBlanc et al. 1981, p. 65). This prediction is supported by studies documenting increased sedimentation within the Basin (Hupp et al. 2008, p. 139). Sedimentation increases elevation, and areas that were once wet will be naturally colonized with vegetation that will ultimately result in upland forests (Hupp et al. 2008, p. 127) that are more suitable for bear foraging and habitation. Even if the most conservative models were exceeded and the entire coastal zone of Louisiana was subject to permanent inundation in the future (prior to projected habitat changes in the Atchafalaya Basin), only a relatively small proportion of Louisiana black bears and their habitat would be affected. Specifically, more than 80
A specific illustration of the resilience of the Louisiana black bear to survive and adapt to extreme climatic events occurred during the recent operation of the Morganza Floodway. The UARB subpopulation occupies a 175-square-mile (453-square-km) area within and adjacent to the Morganza Floodway. Much of the area inhabited by the UARB subpopulation is subject to extreme flooding, especially when Mississippi River stages rise to levels that warrant the Corps' operation of the Morganza Floodway (which has occurred only twice, in 1973 and 2011). The 2011 operation of the Morganza Flood Control Structure coincidentally occurred during an ongoing 6-year Louisiana black bear genetics and population dynamics study that included both radio telemetry and mark-recapture (via hair snares and genetics analyses) methods within and adjacent to the Morganza Floodway (O'Connell-Goode et al. 2014, pp. 479-482). Approximately 60 percent of the breeding habitat that supports the UARB subpopulation was covered in floodwaters, ranging in depth from approximately 10 to 20 feet (3 to 6 meters; O'Connell-Goode et al. 2014, p. 477). Study results indicate that most bears (88.7 percent) maintained residence within the Morganza Floodway (presumably in the remaining 40 percent of available habitat that was less severely flooded) throughout the 56-day operational period of the Morganza Flood Control Structure (O'Connell-Goode et al. 2014, p. 482). A small number of bears did temporarily disperse to higher elevation forests, but most returned to their original home ranges following floodwater recession. The study concluded that the 2011 operation of the Morganza Flood Control Structure had “no negative biological effects” on adult Louisiana black bears within the UARB subpopulation (O'Connell-Goode et al. 2014, p. 483). Based on their adaptability, mobility, and demonstrated resiliency, and the lack of evidence suggesting that previous and ongoing climate change has had any adverse impact on the Louisiana black bear or its habitats, we conclude that the effects of climate change are not a threat to the Louisiana black bear now or within the foreseeable future.
Based on recent genetic analyses, the effects of Minnesota bear reintroductions, while evident to some extent in the UARB subpopulation, do not represent a threat to the Louisiana black bear. Other potential threats such as anthropogenic sources of mortality (
The primary factors that led to the Louisiana black bear's listing under the Act were historical modification and reduction of habitat, the reduced quality of remaining habitat due to fragmentation, and the threat of future habitat conversion and human-related mortality. An indirect result of habitat fragmentation was isolation of the already small bear populations, subjecting them to threats from factors such as demographic stochasticity and inbreeding. We have carefully assessed the best scientific and commercial information available regarding the threats faced by the Louisiana black bear. These threats have been removed or ameliorated by the actions of multiple conservation partners over the last 20 years. Research has documented that the four main Louisiana subpopulations (TRB, TRC, UARB, and LARB) are stable or increasing (Hooker 2010, O'Connell 2013, Troxler 2013, Laufenberg and Clark 2014, entire documents respectively). Emigration and immigration (
An assessment of the need for a species' protection under the Act is based on whether a species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so because of any of five factors described in the Summary of Factors Affecting the Species. As required by section 4(a)(1) of the Act, we conducted a review of the status of this species and assessed the five factors to evaluate whether the Louisiana black bear is endangered or threatened throughout all of its range. We examined the best scientific and commercial information available regarding the past, present, and future threats faced by the Louisiana black bear and its habitat. We reviewed the information available in our files and other available published and unpublished information, and we consulted with recognized experts and other Federal, State, and Tribal agencies.
In considering what factors might constitute threats, we must look beyond the mere exposure of the species to the factor to determine whether the exposure causes actual impacts to the species. If there is exposure to a factor, but no response, or only a positive response, that factor is not a threat. If there is exposure and the species responds negatively, the factor may be a threat and we then attempt to determine how significant the threat is. If the threat is significant, it may drive,
During our analysis, we did not identify any factors that reach a magnitude that threaten the continued existence of the species. Significant impacts at the time of listing that could have resulted in the extirpation of all or parts of populations have been eliminated or reduced since listing, and we do not expect any of these conditions to substantially change post-delisting and into the foreseeable future. We conclude that the previously recognized impacts to the Louisiana black bear from the present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range and effects of climate change (Factors A and E), and isolation from genetic exchange (Factor E), have been ameliorated or reduced such that the Louisiana black bear is no longer in danger of extinction throughout all of its range or likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range. We, therefore, conclude that the Louisiana black bear is no longer in danger of extinction throughout its range, nor is it likely to become so in the foreseeable future.
Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is in danger of extinction or likely to become so throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Having determined that the Louisiana black bear is not endangered or threatened throughout all of its range, we next consider whether there are any significant portions of its range in which the Louisiana black bear is in danger of extinction or likely to become so. We published a final policy interpreting the phrase “Significant Portion of its Range” (SPR) (79 FR 37578; July 1, 2014). The final policy states that (1) if a species is found to be endangered or threatened throughout a significant portion of its range, the entire species is listed as endangered or threatened, respectively, and the Act's protections apply to all individuals of the species wherever found; (2) a portion of the range of a species is “significant” if the species is not currently endangered or threatened throughout all of its range, but the portion's contribution to the viability of the species is so important that, without the members in that portion, the species would be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future, throughout all of its range; (3) the range of a species is considered to be the general geographical area within which that species can be found at the time the Service makes any particular status determination; and (4) if a vertebrate species is endangered or threatened throughout a significant portion of its range, and the population in that significant portion is a valid Distinct Population Segment (DPS), we will list the DPS rather than the entire taxonomic species or subspecies.
The procedure for analyzing whether any portion is a SPR is similar, regardless of the type of status determination we are making. The first step in our analysis of the status of a species is to determine its status throughout all of its range. If we determine that the species is in danger of extinction, or likely to become endangered in the foreseeable future throughout all of its range, we list the species as an endangered species or threatened species and no SPR analysis will be required. If the species is neither in danger of extinction nor likely to become so throughout all of its range, as we have found here, we next determine whether the species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so throughout a significant portion of its range. If it is, we will continue to list the species as an endangered species or threatened species, respectively; if it is not, we conclude that listing the species is no longer warranted.
When we conduct an SPR analysis, we first identify any portions of the species' range that warrant further consideration. The range of a species can theoretically be divided into portions in an infinite number of ways. However, there is no purpose in analyzing portions of the range that have no reasonable potential to be significant or in analyzing portions of the range in which there is no reasonable potential for the species to be endangered or threatened. To identify only those portions that warrant further consideration, we determine whether substantial information indicates that: (1) The portions may be “significant” and (2) the species may be in danger of extinction there or likely to become so within the foreseeable future. Depending on the biology of the species, its range, and the threats it faces, it might be more efficient for us to address the significance question first or the status question first. Thus, if we determine that a portion of the range is not “significant,” we do not need to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened there; if we determine that the species is not endangered or threatened in a portion of its range, we do not need to determine if that portion is “significant.” In practice, a key part of the determination that a species is in danger of extinction in a significant portion of its range is whether the threats are geographically concentrated in some way. If the threats to the species are affecting it uniformly throughout its range, no portion is likely to have a greater risk of extinction, and thus would not warrant further consideration. Moreover, if any concentration of threats apply only to portions of the range that clearly do not meet the biologically based definition of “significant” (
We emphasize that answering these questions in the affirmative is not a determination that the species is endangered or threatened throughout a significant portion of its range—rather, it is a step in determining whether a more detailed analysis of the issue is required.
If we identify any portions that may be both (1) significant and (2) endangered or threatened, we engage in a more detailed analysis to determine whether these standards are indeed met. The identification of an SPR does not create a presumption, prejudgment, or other determination as to whether the species in that identified SPR is endangered or threatened. We must go through a separate analysis to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened in the SPR. To determine whether a species is endangered or threatened throughout an SPR, we will use the same standards and methodology that we use to determine if a species is endangered or threatened throughout its range.
Depending on the biology of the species, its range, and the threats it faces, it may be more efficient to address the “significant” question first, or the status question first. Thus, if we determine that a portion of the range is
Applying the process described above for the Louisiana black bear, we have already determined that the species is no longer endangered or threatened throughout its range. We next identified portions of the Louisiana black bear's range that may be significant, and examined whether any threats are geographically concentrated in some way that would indicate that those portions of the range may be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future. In Louisiana, both the Louisiana and Mississippi black bear breeding populations occur in the LMRAV. These subpopulations make up the majority of the overall Louisiana black bear population, providing the primary contributions to the conservation of the species, and all face the same type of potential threats—primarily habitat conversion. We have already discussed that trends in that threat have been significantly reduced and in some cases reversed (see Factors A and D). As discussed above, estimates of persistance probability over 100 years of the TRB and the UARB subpopulations were greater than 95 percent except for the two most conservative models for the UARB (long-term viability estimates of 85 percent and 92 percent). While these two subpopulations may be significant, information and analyses indicates that the species is unlikely to be in danger of extinction or to become so in the foreseeable future in these portions. Therefore, these portions do not warrant further consideration to determine whether they are a significant portion of its range.
We next examined whether any threats are geographically concentrated in some way that would indicate the species could be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so, in that area. Through our review of potential threats, we identified the LARB subpopulation as one that that may be at greater risk of extinction due to its additional potential threats from future anticipated development and sea level rise. We thus considered whether this subpopulation may warrant further consideration as a significant portion of the Louisiana black bear's range. The LARB is located within the coastal area of Louisiana in St. Mary, Iberia, and Vermillion Parishes in forested habitat similar to other Louisiana black bear subpopulations. That subpopulation is separated from the other subpopulations and the habitat between them within the Basin is believed to be too wet currently to support breeding females, although bears have been observed along the higher areas on both sides of the Basin. The probability of interchange between the LARB and the other subpopulations is low (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 93); however, reports of bear live-captures, known natal dens, and confirmed sightings indicate bears can and do move out (at least temporarily) of this subpopulation (Figure 1 in Davidson et al. 2015, p. 24). Dispersal by male bears of more than 100 miles is not unusual and combined with the documented occurrences of bears (likely males) on the higher portions (levees and ridges) of the Basin spanning the area between the UARB and LARB subpopulations, movement of individuals among other subpopulations cannot be ruled out. Increased sedimentation is occurring in the interconnecting habitat in the Basin (Hupp et al. 2008, p. 139) as predicted by LeBlanc et al. (1981, p. 65). The increase in sedimentation is resulting in higher elevations within the Basin that will produce suitable bear habitat (
Additionally, range expansion by bears from the northern subpopulations would take advantage of the improved Basin habitats. At the current time, the LARB subpopulation is stable to increasing, although we did not have data to determine its long-term viability. The LARB has been characterized by some, based on its genetic uniqueness, as more representative of the Louisiana black bear and thus should be given special consideration for its integrity (Triant et al. 2003, p. 647). However, Csiki et al. (2003, p. 699) suggested that the distinctness of the Louisiana black bear was the result of a genetic bottleneck rather than a true genetic difference. Since 2003, our understanding of genetic markers has improved. Studies by Troxler (2013) and Laufenberg and Clark (2014) reached similar conclusions (
Habitat supporting the LARB subpopulation (population range from 136 to 194 adult bears (Laufenberg and Clark 2014, p. 45)) of the Louisiana black bear is more vulnerable to one of the particular effects of global climate change, the long term threat of sea level rise, than other subpopulations due to its occurrence within low-elevation coastal habitats. However, as discussed above, in the event of coastal bear habitat loss due to climate change effects, bears have demonstrated the ability to adapt and would likely move into more suitable areas. Additionally, any long-term threat of sea level rise would likely be ameliorated to some extent by the projected successional changes in the Atchafalaya Basin that would eventually convert many of its swamps to BLH forest, thus improving the suitability of that habitat for the Louisiana black bear. Although this portion of the range may have a concentration of threats, the subpopulation is currently stable or increasing. However, the lack of data make it difficult to predict long-term viability for this portion of the range, but if the current stability or increasing size continues, it is unlikely that the subspecies would be in danger of extinction (or likely to become so) in this portion of its range. Additionally, the long-term viability estimates for the TRB and UARB subpopulations (greater than 95 percent for over 100 years), which make up the majority of the overall Louisiana black bear population, make is unlikely that the loss of the LARB subpopuation would cause the Louisiana black bear to be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future, throughout all of its range. Because we conclude the available information does not indicate that this portion may be both in danger of extinction and likely to be significant, this portion does not warrant further consideration.
We also evaluated whether the other occurrences in Mississippi and northern Louisiana that we cannot currently consider self-sustaining, and may therefore have a higher risk of extinction, could be considered a significant portion of the species' range. We determined that those subpopulations have formed as the result of emigration from nearby subpopulations and are not genetically unique (in other words, they do not contribute substantially to the genetic diversity or representation of the species). These subpopulations indicate the health of their parent subpopulations, but are not so large themselves that their loss would affect the health or conservation status of the other subpopulations. These areas, individually or collectively, are therefore unlikely to constitute a significant portion of the species' range.
Surveys indicate that Louisiana black bear subpopulations have been maintained and are well-established and that remaining factors that may affect the Louisiana black bear occur at
In conclusion, we find that the Louisiana black bear is no longer in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range, nor is it likely to become endangered in the foreseeable future. Therefore, at this time, the Louisiana black bear no longer meets the definitions of endangered or threatened under the Act, and we are removing the Louisiana black bear from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife.
Section 4(g)(1) of the Act requires us, in cooperation with the States, to implement a monitoring program for not less than 5 years for all species that have been delisted due to recovery. PDM refers to activities undertaken to verify that a species delisted due to recovery remains secure from the risk of extinction after the protections of the Act no longer apply. The primary goal of PDM is to ensure that the species' status does not deteriorate, and if a decline is detected, to take measures to halt the decline so that proposing it as threatened or endangered is not again needed. If, at any time during the monitoring period, data indicate that protective status under the Act should be reinstated, we can initiate listing procedures, including, if appropriate, emergency listing under section 4(b)(7) of the Act. At the conclusion of the monitoring period, we will review all available information to determine if relisting, the continuation of monitoring, or the termination of monitoring is appropriate.
The purpose of this post-delisting monitoring is to verify that a species remains secure from risk of extinction after it has been removed from the protections of the Act. The monitoring is designed to detect the failure of any delisted species to sustain itself without the protective measures provided by the Act. Section 4(g) of the Act explicitly requires us to cooperate with the States in development and implementation of post-delisting monitoring programs, but we remain responsible for compliance with section 4(g) and, therefore, must remain actively engaged in all phases of post-delisting monitoring. We also seek active participation of other entities that are expected to assume responsibilities for the species' conservation post-delisting.
The Service developed a final PDM plan in cooperation with the LDWF (Service 2016). The PDM plan is designed to verify that the Louisiana black bear remains secure from the risk of extinction after removal from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife by detecting changes in its status and habitat throughout its known range. The PDM plan consists of: (1) A summary of the species' status at the time of delisting; (2) an outline of the roles of PDM cooperators; (3) a description of monitoring methods; (4) an outline of the frequency and duration of monitoring; (5) an outline of data compilation and reporting procedures; and (6) a definition of thresholds or triggers for potential monitoring outcomes and conclusions of the PDM effort.
The PDM plan provides for monitoring Louisiana black bear populations following the same sampling protocol used by the LDWF and USGS prior to delisting. Monitoring will consist of two components: (1) Population demographics and vital statistics monitoring consisting of: regular live-capture (including collection of genetic material), radio-collaring, winter den checks, and radio-telemetry monitoring to estimate recruitment, survival, genetic exchange, and cause-specific mortality in a timely manner; and non-invasive mark-recapture methods to estimate change in population size, apparent survival, per-capita recruitment, and genetic exchange for future viability analyses, and if needed, maintaining a database of reliable public sightings to track geographic distribution; and (2) a habitat-based component consisting of periodic assessments of habitat abundance, persistence, and any changes in protection using interpretation of remotely sensed data and updated GIS information (
Multiple monitoring strategies will be used for the individual subpopulations in order to ensure that demographics and habitat status will be captured at differing time periods and scale, respectively. Because the TRB and UARB subpopulations were identified as necessary for recovery and delisting (Service 1995, p. 14) of the subspecies, intensive monitoring will occur annually for 7 years within each of these subpopulations following the delisting of the subspecies to monitor Louisiana black bear population vital rates. Although monitoring of the TRC and LARB subpopulations will occur during the 7-year period, it will be less intensive than that of the monitoring for TRB and UARB.
The final PDM plan identifies measurable management thresholds and responses for detecting and reacting to significant changes in Louisiana black bear protected habitat, distribution, and persistence. If monitoring detects declines equaling or exceeding these thresholds, the Service in combination with the LDWF and other partners will investigate causes of these declines, including considerations of habitat changes, substantial human persecution, stochastic events, or any other significant evidence. Such investigation will determine if the Louisiana black bear warrants expanded monitoring, additional research, additional habitat protection, or relisting as an endangered or a threatened species under the Act.
We will post the final PDM plan and any future revisions on our national Web site (
This final rule revises 50 CFR 17.11(h) by removing the Louisiana black bear from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife. In addition, the rule revises § 17.11(h) to remove similarity of appearance protections for the American black bear, which are in effect within the historical range of the Louisiana black bear. This designation is assigned for law enforcement purposes to an unlisted species that so closely resembles the listed species that its taking represented an additional threat to the Louisiana black bear at the time of listing. With the final delisting of the Louisiana black bear, such a designation would no longer be necessary. Therefore, as of the effective date of this rule (see
This rule does not contain any new collections of information that require approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175, and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. We have determined that no tribal lands or interests are affected by this rule.
A complete list of all references cited in this final rule is available at
The primary authors of this rule are staff members of the Service's Louisiana Fish and Wildlife Service Office (see
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; availability of draft Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan Supplement: Revised Demographic Criteria and draft 2016 Conservation Strategy, and announcement of public informational meetings and hearings.
The best available scientific and commercial data indicate that the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem (GYE) population of grizzly bears (
○ On April 11, 2016, in Cody, Wyoming. The public informational meeting will run from 2 p.m. to 4 p.m., and the public hearing will run from 5 p.m. to 8 p.m.
○ On April 12, 2016, in Bozeman, Montana. The public informational meeting will run from 2 p.m. to 4 p.m., and the public hearing will run from 5 p.m. to 8 p.m.
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We request that you submit written comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on
○ Holiday Inn, 5 East Baxter Lane, Bozeman, MT 59715.
○ Holiday Inn, 1701 Sheridan Ave., Cody, WY 82414.
More information on the public informational meetings and public hearings is provided under Public Informational Meetings and Public Hearings, below.
Dr. Christopher Servheen, Grizzly Bear Recovery Coordinator, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, University Hall, Room #309, University of Montana, Missoula, MT 59812; telephone 406-243-4903; facsimile 406-243-3212. For Tribal inquiries, contact Ivy Allen, Native American Liaison, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; telephone: 303-236-4575. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
Section 4 of the Act and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for revising the Federal Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants. Rulemaking is required to remove a species from the Federal Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants. Accordingly, we are issuing this proposed rule to identify the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem (GYE) grizzly bear DPS and revise the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife. The population is stable, threats are sufficiently minimized, and a post-delisting monitoring and management framework has been developed and will be incorporated into regulatory documents. The best scientific and commercial data available, including our detailed evaluation of information related to the population's trend and structure, indicate that the distinct population segment of grizzly bears in the GYE has recovered and threats have been reduced such that this DPS no longer meets the definition of threatened, or endangered, under the Act. To ensure consistency in management approaches regardless of listed status, concurrent with publication of this proposed rule, we are releasing a draft supplement to the 1993 Recovery Plan's demographic recovery criteria for this population of grizzly bears and a draft of the 2016 Conservation Strategy for public comment. If we finalize this proposal to identify the GYE DPS and remove that DPS from the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife, there would be no change to the threatened status of the remaining grizzly bears in the lower 48 States, which would remain protected by the Act.
This proposed action is authorized by the Act. We are proposing to amend § 17.11(h), subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations by revising the listing for “Bear, grizzly” under “Mammals” in the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife to remove the GYE grizzly bear DPS.
We have not analyzed the costs or benefits of this rulemaking action because the Act precludes consideration of such impacts on listing and delisting determinations. Instead, listing and delisting decisions are based solely on the best scientific and commercial information available regarding the status of the subject species.
The Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem (GYE) refers to the larger ecological system containing and surrounding Yellowstone National Park. The GYE includes portions of five National Forests; Yellowstone National Park, Grand Teton National Park, and the John D. Rockefeller Memorial Parkway (administered by Grand Teton National Park); and State, Tribal, and private lands. While there is no distinct boundary to the GYE, it is generally defined as those lands surrounding Yellowstone National Park with elevations greater than 1,500 meters (m) (4,900 feet (ft)) (see USDA Forest Service 2004, p. 46; Schwartz
On July 28, 1975, we published a rule to designate the grizzly bear as threatened in the conterminous (lower 48) United States (40 FR 31734). Accordingly, we developed a Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1982) and updated that plan as necessary (72 FR 11376, March 13, 2007; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, 2007
We intend that any final action resulting from this proposal will be based on the best available scientific and commercial data and will be as accurate and as effective as possible. Therefore, we invite Tribal and governmental agencies, the scientific community, industry, and other interested parties to submit comments or recommendations concerning any aspect of this proposed rule, the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy, and the draft Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan Supplement: Revised Demographic Criteria for the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem. Comments should be as specific as possible.
To issue a final rule to implement this proposed action, we will take into consideration all comments and any additional information we receive. Such communications may lead to a final rule that differs from this proposal.
You may submit your comments and materials concerning the proposed rule by one of the methods listed in
We will post your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—on
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
In accordance with our policy, “Notice of Interagency Cooperative Policy for Peer Review in Endangered Species Act Activities,” which was published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we will seek the expert opinion of at least three appropriate specialists who are independent of the Service, the States, and the Interagency Grizzly Bear Study Team (IGBST) regarding scientific data and interpretations contained in this proposed rule. Those experts will each submit separate opinions for the Service to consider. We will send copies of this proposed rule, the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy, and the draft Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan Supplement: Revised Demographic Criteria to the peer reviewers immediately following publication of this proposed rule in the
We are holding two public informational meetings and public hearings on the dates listed above in
We cannot accept verbal testimony at any of the public informational meetings; verbal testimony can only be accepted at the public hearings. Anyone wishing to make an oral statement at a public hearing for the record is encouraged to provide a written copy of their statement to us at the hearing. In the event there is a large attendance, the time allotted for oral statements may be limited. Speakers can sign up at a hearing if they desire to make an oral statement. Oral and written statements receive equal consideration. There are no limits on the length of written comments submitted to us.
Persons with disabilities needing reasonable accommodations to participate in a public informational meeting or public hearing should contact the person listed under
Grizzly bears (
Grizzly bears are generally larger than other bears and average 200 to 300 kilograms (kg) (400 to 600 pounds (lb)) for males and 110 to 160 kg (250 to 350 lb) for females in the lower 48 States (Craighead and Mitchell 1982, pp. 517-520; Schwartz
Adult grizzly bears are normally solitary except when females have dependent young (Nowak and Paradiso 1983, p. 971), but they are not territorial and home ranges of adult bears
Young, female grizzly bears establish home ranges within or overlapping their mother's (Waser and Jones 1983, p. 361; Schwartz
Grizzly bears have a promiscuous mating system (Hornocker 1962, p. 70; Craighead and Mitchell 1982, p. 522; Schwartz
Grizzly bears usually dig dens on steep slopes where wind and topography cause an accumulation of deep snow and where the snow is unlikely to melt during warm periods. Grizzly bears in the lower 48 States occupy dens for 4 to 6 months each year, beginning in October or November (Linnell
In preparation for hibernation, bears increase their food intake dramatically during a stage called hyperphagia (Craighead and Mitchell 1982, p. 544). Hyperphagia occurs throughout the 2 to 4 months prior to den entry (
The GYE is a highly diverse landscape containing a wide array of habitat types and bear foods. Plant communities vary from grasslands at lower elevations (<1,900 m (6,230 ft)) to conifer forests at mid-elevations and subalpine and alpine meadows at higher elevations (>2,400 m (7,870 ft)). Grizzly bears are extremely omnivorous, display great diet plasticity—even within a population (Edwards
Grizzly bear diets are highly variable among individuals, seasons, and years (Servheen 1983, pp. 1029-1030; Mattson
Due to their high fat content, whitebark pine seeds can be an important fall food for bears in the GYE when they are available (Mattson and Jonkel 1990, p. 223; Mattson
Grizzly bears use a variety of habitats in the GYE (LeFranc
The GYE is part of the Middle Rockies ecoregion (Omernik 1987, pp. 120-121; Woods
The primary factor affecting grizzly bears at both the individual and population level is excessive human-caused mortality. Regulating human-caused mortality through habitat management is an effective approach, as evidenced by increasing grizzly bear populations in the lower 48 States where motorized access standards exist (
The scientific discipline that informs decisions about most wildlife population management is population ecology: the study of how populations change over time and space and interact with their environment (Vandermeer and Goldberg 2003, p. 2; Snider and Brimlow 2013, p. 1). Ultimately, the goal of population ecology is to understand why and how populations change over time. Wildlife managers and population ecologists monitor a number of factors to gauge the status of a population and make scientifically informed decisions. These measures include population size, population trend, density, and occupied range.
While population size is a well-known and easily understood metric, it only provides information about a population at a single point in time. Wildlife managers often want to know how a population is changing over time and why. Population trend is determined by births, deaths, and how many animals move into or out of the population (
In its simplest form, population trend is driven by births and deaths. Survival and reproduction are the fundamental demographic vital rates driving whether the grizzly bear population increases, decreases, or remains stable. When wildlife biologists refer to demographic vital rates, they are referring to all of the different aspects of reproduction and survival that cumulatively determine a population's trend (
No population can grow forever because the resources it requires are finite. This understanding led ecologists to develop the concept of carrying capacity (expressed as the symbol “K”). This is the maximum number of individuals a particular environment can support over the long term without resulting in population declines caused by resource depletion (Vandermeer and Goldberg 2003, p. 261; Krebs 2009, p. 148). Classical studies of population growth occurred under controlled laboratory conditions where populations of a single organism, often an insect species or single-celled organism, were allowed to grow in a confined space with a constant supply of food (Vandermeer and Goldberg 2003, pp. 14-17). Under these conditions, K is a constant value that is approached in a predictable way that can be described by a mathematical equation. However, few studies of wild populations have demonstrated the stability and constant population size suggested by this equation. Instead, many factors affect carrying capacity of animal populations in the wild, and populations usually fluctuate above and below carrying capacity, resulting in relative population stability over time (
When a population is at or near carrying capacity, mechanisms that regulate or control population size fall into two broad categories: density-dependent effects and density-independent effects. Generally, factors that limit population growth more strongly as population size increases are density-dependent effects, or intrinsic factors, usually expressed through individual behaviors, physiology, or genetic potential (McLellan 1994, p. 15). Extrinsic factors, such as drought or fire that kill individuals regardless of how many individuals are in a population, are considered density-independent effects (Colinvaux 1986, p. 172). These extrinsic factors may include changes in resources, predators, or human impacts. Population stability (
Population viability analyses (PVAs) are another tool population ecologists often use to assess the status of a population by estimating its likelihood of persistence in the future. Boyce
Prior to the arrival of Europeans, the grizzly bear occurred throughout the western half of the contiguous United States, central Mexico, western Canada, and most of Alaska (Roosevelt 1907, pp. 27-28; Wright 1909, pp. vii, 3, 185-186; Merriam 1922, p. 1; Storer and Tevis 1955, p. 18; Rausch 1963, p. 35; Herrero 1972, pp. 224-227; Schwartz
By the 1950s, with little or no conservation effort or management directed at maintaining grizzly bears anywhere in their range, the GYE population had been reduced in numbers and was restricted largely to the confines of Yellowstone National Park and some surrounding areas (Craighead
Grizzly bear recovery has required, and will continue to require, cooperation among numerous government agencies and the public for a unified management approach. To this end, there are three interagency groups that help guide grizzly bear management in the GYE. The Interagency Grizzly Bear Study Team (IGBST), created in 1973, provides the scientific information necessary to make informed management decisions about grizzly bear habitat and conservation in the GYE. Since its formation in 1973, the published work of the IGBST has made the GYE grizzly bear population the most studied in the world. The wealth of biological information produced by the IGBST over the years includes 30 annual reports, hundreds of articles in peer-reviewed journals, dozens of theses, and other technical reports (see:
The second interagency group guiding grizzly bear conservation efforts is the Interagency Grizzly Bear Committee (hereafter referred to as the IGBC). Created in 1983, its members coordinate management efforts and research actions across multiple Federal lands and States to recover the grizzly bear in the lower 48 States (USDA and USDOI 1983, entire). The objective of the IGBC is to change land management practices to more effectively provide security and maintain or improve habitat conditions for the grizzly bear (USDA and USDOI 1983, entire). IGBC members include upper level managers from all affected State and Federal agencies (USDA and USDOI 1983, entire).
The third interagency group guiding management of the GYE grizzly bear population is a subcommittee of the IGBC: The Yellowstone Ecosystem Subcommittee. Formed in 1983 to coordinate recovery efforts specific to the GYE, the Yellowstone Ecosystem Subcommittee includes mid-level managers and representatives from the Service; the five GYE National Forests (the Shoshone, Beaverhead-Deerlodge, Bridger-Teton, Custer-Gallatin, and Caribou-Targhee); Yellowstone National Park; Grand Teton National Park; the Wyoming Game and Fish Department (WGFD); the Montana Department of Fish, Wildlife, and Parks (MTFWP); the Idaho Department of Fish and Game (IDFG); the Bureau of Land Management (BLM); county governments from each affected State; the Northern Arapahoe Tribe; and the Eastern Shoshone Tribe (USDA and USDOI 1983). The IGBST is an advisor to the subcommittee providing all the scientific information on the GYE grizzly bear population and its habitat.
In accordance with section 4(f)(1) of the Act, the Service completed a Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan (Recovery Plan) in 1982 (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1982, p. ii). Recovery plans serve as road maps for species recovery—they lay out where we need to go and how to get there through specific actions. Recovery plans are not regulatory documents and are instead intended to provide guidance to the Service, States, and other partners on methods of minimizing threats to listed species and on criteria that may be used to determine when recovery is achieved.
The Recovery Plan identified six recovery ecosystems within the conterminous United States thought to support grizzly bears. Today, grizzly bear distribution is primarily within and around the areas identified as Recovery Zones (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, pp. 10-13, 17-18), including: (1) The GYE in northwest Wyoming, eastern Idaho, and southwest Montana (24,000 sq km (9,200 sq mi)) at more than 700 bears (Haroldson
In 1993, the Service completed revisions to the Recovery Plan to include additional tasks and new information that increased the focus and effectiveness of recovery efforts (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, pp. 41-58). In 1996 and 1997, we released supplemental chapters to the Recovery Plan to direct recovery in the Bitterroot and North Cascades Recovery Zones, respectively (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1996; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1997). In the GYE, we updated both the habitat and demographic recovery criteria in 2007 (72 FR 11376, March 13, 2007). We proposed revisions to the demographic recovery criteria in 2013 (78 FR 17708, March 22, 2013) and are proposing additional revisions concurrent with this proposed rule to reflect the best available science. Below, we report the status of both the habitat and demographic recovery criteria in the GYE.
In 1979, the IGBST developed the first comprehensive “Guidelines for Management Involving Grizzly Bears in the Greater Yellowstone Area” (hereafter referred to as the Guidelines) (Mealey 1979, pp. 1-4). We determined in a biological opinion that implementation of the Guidelines by Federal land management agencies would promote conservation of the grizzly bear (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1979, p. 1). Beginning in 1979, the five affected National Forests (Beaverhead-Deerlodge, Bridger-Teton, Caribou-Targhee, Custer-Gallatin, and Shoshone), Yellowstone and Grand Teton National Parks, and the BLM in the GYE began managing habitats for grizzly bears under direction specified in the Guidelines.
In 1986, the IGBC modified the Guidelines to more effectively manage habitat by mapping and managing according to three different management situations (USDA Forest Service 1986, pp. 35-39). In areas governed by “Management Situation One,” grizzly bear habitat maintenance and improvement and grizzly bear-human conflict minimization received the highest management priority. In areas governed by “Management Situation Two,” grizzly bear use was important, but not the primary use of the area. In areas governed by “Management Situation Three,” grizzly bear habitat maintenance and improvement were not management considerations.
The National Forests and National Parks delineated 18 different bear management units (BMUs) within the GYE Recovery Zone to aid in managing habitat and monitoring population trends. Each BMU was further subdivided into subunits, resulting in a total of 40 subunits contained within the 18 BMUs (see map at
On June 17, 1997, we held a public workshop in Bozeman, Montana, to develop and refine habitat-based recovery criteria for the grizzly bear, with an emphasis on the GYE. This workshop was held as part of the settlement agreement in
There is no published method to deductively calculate minimum habitat values required for a healthy and recovered population. Grizzly bears are long-lived opportunistic omnivores whose food and space requirements vary depending on a multitude of environmental and behavioral factors and on variation in the experience and knowledge of each individual bear. Grizzly bear home ranges overlap and change seasonally, annually, and with reproductive status. While these factors make the development of threshold habitat criteria difficult, habitat criteria may be established by assessing what habitat factors in the past were compatible with a stable to increasing grizzly bear population, and then using these habitat conditions as threshold values to be maintained to ensure a healthy population (
The habitat-based recovery criteria established objective, measurable values for levels of motorized access, secure habitat, developed sites, and livestock allotments (
Additionally, we developed several monitoring items that may help inform management decisions or explain population trends: (1) Trends in the location and availability of whitebark pine, cutthroat trout, army cutworm moths, and winter-killed ungulate carcasses; and (2) grizzly bear mortality numbers, locations, and causes; grizzly bear-human conflicts; nuisance bear
Because we used easily recognized boundaries to delineate the boundaries of the proposed GYE grizzly bear DPS, it includes both suitable and unsuitable habitat (figure 2). For the purposes of this proposed rule, “suitable habitat” is considered the area within the DPS boundaries capable of supporting grizzly bear reproduction and survival now and in the foreseeable future. We have defined “suitable habitat” for grizzly bears as areas having three characteristics: (1) Being of adequate habitat quality and quantity to support grizzly bear reproduction and survival; (2) being contiguous with the current distribution of GYE grizzly bears such that natural recolonization is possible; and (3) having low mortality risk as indicated through reasonable and manageable levels of grizzly bear mortality.
Our definition and delineation of suitable habitat is built on the widely accepted conclusions of extensive research (Craighead 1980, pp. 8-11; Knight 1980, pp. 1-3; Peek
For our analysis of suitable habitat, we considered the Middle Rockies ecoregion, within which the GYE is contained (Omernik 1987, pp. 120-121; Woods
Human-caused mortality risk also can impact which habitat might be considered suitable. Some human-caused mortality is unavoidable in a dynamic system where hundreds of bears inhabit large areas of diverse habitat with several million human visitors and residents. The negative impacts of humans on grizzly bear survival and habitat use are well documented (Harding and Nagy 1980, p. 278; McLellan and Shackleton 1988, pp. 458-459; Aune and Kasworm 1989, pp. 83-103; McLellan 1989, pp. 1862-1864; McLellan and Shackleton 1989, pp. 377-378; Mattson 1990, pp. 41-44; Mattson and Knight 1991, pp. 9-11; Mace
Because urban sites and sheep allotments possess high mortality risks for grizzly bears, we did not include these areas as suitable habitat (Knight
Finally, dispersal capabilities of grizzly bears were considered in our determination of which potential habitat areas might be considered suitable. Although the Bighorn Mountains west of I-90 near Sheridan, Wyoming, are grouped within the Middle Rockies ecoregion, they are not connected to the current distribution of grizzly bears via suitable habitat or linkage zones, nor are there opportunities for such linkage. The Bighorn Mountains are comprised of 6,341 sq km (2,448 sq mi) of habitat that is classified as part of the Middle
Some areas that do not meet our definition of suitable habitat may still be used by grizzly bears (4,635 sq km (1,787 sq mi)) (Schwartz
According to the habitat suitability criteria described above, the GYE contains approximately 46,035 sq km (17,774 sq mi) of suitable grizzly bear habitat within the DPS boundaries; or roughly 24 percent of the total area within the DPS boundaries (see figure 2, above). This amount of suitable habitat is sufficient to meet all habitat needs of a recovered grizzly bear population and provide ecological resiliency to the population through the availability of widely distributed, high-quality habitat that will allow the population to respond to environmental changes. Grizzly bears currently occupy about 90 percent of that suitable habitat (42,180 sq km (16,286 sq mi)) (Haroldson 2015,
The 1993 Recovery Plan identified three demographic parameters that should be measured to assess recovery in the GYE. The first criterion established a minimum population size. The second criterion ensured reproductive females were distributed across the Recovery Zone, and the third criterion created total mortality limits that would allow the population to achieve recovery. Since the 1993 Recovery Plan was released, we have evaluated and updated how we assess those recovery criteria as newer, better science became available. These revisions include implementing new scientific methods to determine the status of the GYE grizzly bear demographic monitoring area (DMA) population, estimate population size, and determine what levels of mortality the population could withstand without causing population decline (
In 2013, we proposed to change two of the recovery criteria for the Yellowstone Ecosystem in the Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan (78 FR 17708; March 22, 2013). Changes were proposed for the demographic goal of maintaining a minimum population of 500 animals and at least 48 females with cubs, and to eliminate this criterion's dependence on a specific counting method; and to revise the area where the population would be counted and where total mortality limits would apply. We chose to revise the criteria because they no longer represented the best scientific data or the best technique to assess recovery of the GYE grizzly bear DMA population (78 FR 17708; March 22, 2013). Specifically, these criteria warrant revision because: (1) Updated demographic analyses for 2002-2011 indicate that the rate of growth seen during the 1983-2001 period has slowed and sex ratios have changed; (2) there is consensus among scientists and statisticians that the area within which we apply total mortality limits should be the same area we use to estimate population size; and (3) the population has basically stabilized inside the DMA since 2002, with an average population size between 2002-2014 of 674 using the model-averaged Chao2 population estimation method (95% Confidence Interval (CI) = 600-747). This stabilization is evidence that the population is close to its carrying capacity as evidenced by density dependent regulation occurring inside the DMA (van Manen
We released these proposed revisions related to population size and total mortality limits for public comment in 2013 (78 FR 17708; March 22, 2013) but did not finalize them so that we could consider another round of public comments on these revisions in association with the comments on this proposed rule. Further proposed revisions to the Recovery Plan Supplement: Revised Demographic Criteria and the draft 2016 Conservation
Below, we summarize relevant portions of the demographic analyses contained in the IGBST's 2012 report (IGBST 2012, entire) and compare them with the previous results of Schwartz
Schwartz
Mortality reduction is a key part of any successful management effort for grizzly bears; however, some mortality, including most human-caused mortality, is unavoidable in a dynamic system where hundreds of bears inhabit large areas of diverse habitat with several million human visitors and residents. Adult female mortality influences the population trajectory more than mortality of males or dependent young (Eberhardt 1977, p. 210; Knight and Eberhardt 1985, p. 331; Schwartz
The Recovery Plan and subsequent supplements to it (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1982, pp. 33-34; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, pp. 20-21; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2007
A minimum population size of at least 500 animals within the DMA will assure genetic health. Population size will be quantified by methods established in published, peer-reviewed scientific literature and calculated by the IGBST using the most updated protocol, as posted on their Web site. This number will ensure the short-term fitness of the population is not threatened by losses in genetic diversity in such an isolated population. Five hundred is a minimum population threshold. The goal is to maintain the population well above this threshold to ensure that genetic issues are not a detriment to the short-term genetic fitness of the GYE grizzly bear population. If the population declined to 500, more than one third of the suitable habitat in the DMA would be unoccupied (van Manen 2015,
The model-averaged Chao2 method is currently the best available science to estimate the total population size in the GYE. The IGBST has been calculating population size on an annual basis using the model-averaged Chao2 (see glossary) estimate since 2002, and this method has been published in the peer-reviewed scientific literature. The model-averaged Chao2 method is the population estimate method that has the lowest amount of annual variation, and it is the most sensitive method to detect increasing or decreasing population trends over time. As the grizzly bear population has increased, model-averaged Chao2 estimates have become increasingly conservative (
The population had stabilized 2002-2014 at a mean model-averaged Chao2 population size of 674 (95% CI = 600-757), which is very similar to the population size of 683 when the Yellowstone population was previously delisted in 2007 (72 FR 14866; March 29, 2007). The population has now naturally stabilized because of density-dependent population effects that resulted in reduced survival of subadults. The existence of lower subadult survival and occupancy by grizzly bears in almost all suitable habitat inside the DMA has been demonstrated by van Manen
The Conservation Strategy is the management plan that institutionalizes the successful program that resulted in the recovery of the GYE population. The Conservation Strategy will guide post-delisting management, just as it has guided management in the GYE since 2007. Recovery of the GYE grizzly bear population is the result of ongoing partnerships between Federal, Tribal, and State agencies; the governors of these States; county and city governments; educational institutions; numerous nongovernmental organizations; private landowners; and the public who live, work, and recreate in the GYE. Just as recovery of the GYE grizzly bear population could not have occurred without these excellent working relationships, maintenance of a recovered grizzly bear population requires continued application of the management actions and partnerships that resulted in the recovery of the grizzly bears and their habitat, and this is what the Conservation Strategy does. Grizzly bears are a “conservation-reliant” species because of their low resiliency to excessive human-caused mortality and the manageable nature of this threat (Scott
In order to document the regulatory mechanisms and coordinated management approach necessary to ensure the long-term maintenance of a recovered population, the Recovery Plan calls for the development of “a conservation strategy to outline habitat and population monitoring that will continue in force after recovery” (Recovery Plan Task Y426) (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, p. 55). To accomplish this goal, a Conservation Strategy Team was formed in 1993. This team included biologists and managers from the Service, National Park Service,
In March 2000, a draft Conservation Strategy for the GYE was released for public review and comment (65 FR 11340; March 2, 2000). Also in 2000, a Governors' Roundtable was organized to provide recommendations from the perspectives of the three States that would be involved with grizzly bear management after delisting. In 2003, the draft Final Conservation Strategy for the Grizzly Bear in the GYE was released, along with drafts of State grizzly bear management plans (all accessible at
The purposes of the Conservation Strategy and associated State and Federal implementation plans are to: (1) Describe, summarize, and implement the coordinated efforts to manage the grizzly bear population and its habitat to ensure continued conservation of the GYE grizzly bear population; (2) specify and implement the population/mortality management, habitat, and nuisance bear standards to maintain a recovered grizzly bear population for the future; (3) document specific State and Federal regulatory mechanisms and legal authorities, policies, management, and monitoring programs that exist to maintain the recovered grizzly bear population; and (4) document the actions that participating agencies have agreed to implement (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Executive Summary).
Implementation of the Conservation Strategy by all agency partners will coordinate management and monitoring of the GYE grizzly bear population and its habitat after delisting. The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy establishes and details a regulatory framework and authority for Federal and State agencies to take over management of the GYE grizzly bear population from the Service. The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy also identifies, defines, and requires adequate post-delisting monitoring to maintain a healthy GYE grizzly bear population (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapters 2 and 3). The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy has objective, measurable habitat and population standards, with clear State and Federal management responses if deviations occur (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 6). It represents 20 years of a collaborative, interagency effort among the members of the Yellowstone Ecosystem Subcommittee. State grizzly bear management plans were developed in all three affected States (Idaho, Montana, and Wyoming). Revised state plans will be incorporated into the final 2016 Conservation Strategy as appendices to ensure that the plans and the Conservation Strategy are consistent and complementary (accessible at
The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy identifies and provides a framework for managing habitat within the PCA and managing demographic parameters within the DMA (see figure 2, above). The PCA contains adequate seasonal habitat components for a portion of the recovered GYE grizzly bear population for the future and to allow bears to continue to expand outside the PCA. The PCA includes approximately 51 percent of suitable grizzly bear habitat within the GYE and approximately 75 percent of the population of female grizzly bears with cubs (Haroldson 2014,
The 2016 Conservation Strategy will be implemented and funded by Federal, Tribal, and State agencies within the GYE. The signatories to the final 2016 Conservation Strategy have a demonstrated track record of funding measures to ensure recovery of this grizzly bear population for more than 3 decades. The Service intends to continue contributing funding to the implementation of the 2016 Conservation Strategy. In general, the Forest Service and National Park Service will be responsible for habitat management to reduce the risk of human-caused mortality to grizzly bears while the National Park Service, and State and Tribal wildlife agencies, will be responsible for managing the population within specific total mortality limits. The Forest Service and National Park Service collectively manage approximately 98 percent of lands inside the PCA. Specifically, Yellowstone National Park; Grand Teton National Park; and the Shoshone, Beaverhead-Deerlodge, Bridger-Teton, Caribou-Targhee, and Custer-Gallatin National Forests are the Federal entities responsible for implementing the 2016 Conservation Strategy. Affected National Forests and National Parks have incorporated, or will incorporate before a final rule is issued, the habitat standards and criteria into their Forest Plans and National Park management plans and/or Superintendent's Compendia via appropriate amendment processes so that they are legally applied to these public lands within the GYE (see Grand Teton National Park 2006, p. 1; USDA Forest Service 2006
If this proposed rule is made final, the Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Coordinating Committee (hereafter referred to as the YGCC) will replace the Yellowstone Ecosystem Subcommittee as the interagency group coordinating implementation of the 2016 Conservation Strategy's habitat and population standards, and monitoring (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 6). Similar to the Yellowstone Ecosystem Subcommittee, the YGCC members include representatives from Yellowstone and Grand Teton National Parks, the five affected National Forests, BLM, USGS, IDFG, MTFWP, WGFD, one member from local county governments within each State, and one member from the Shoshone Bannock, Northern Arapahoe, and Eastern Shoshone Tribes. All meetings will be open to the public. Besides coordinating management, research, and financial needs for successful conservation of the GYE grizzly bear population, the YGCC will review the IGBST Annual Reports and review and respond to any deviations from habitat or population standards. As per the implementation section of the 2016 Conservation Strategy, the YGCC will coordinate management and implementation of the 2016 Conservation Strategy and work together to rectify problems and to assure that the habitat and population standards and total mortality limits will be met and maintained.
The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy is an adaptive, dynamic document that establishes a framework to incorporate new and better scientific information as
Section 4 of the Act and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for listing species, reclassifying species, or removing species from listed status. “Species” is defined by the Act as including any species or subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct vertebrate population segment of fish or wildlife that interbreeds when mature (16 U.S.C. 1532(16)). We, along with the National Marine Fisheries Service (now the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration—Fisheries), developed the Policy Regarding the Recognition of Distinct Vertebrate Population Segments (DPS policy) (61 FR 4722; February 7, 1996), to help us in determining what constitutes a distinct population segment (DPS). Under this policy, the Service considers two factors to determine whether the population segment is a valid DPS: (1) Discreteness of the population segment in relation to the remainder of the taxon to which it belongs; and (2) the significance of the population segment to the taxon to which it belongs. If a population meets both tests, it is a DPS, and the Service then evaluates the population segment's conservation status according to the standards in section 4 of the Act for listing, delisting, or reclassification (
As of February 9, 2016, of the 436 native vertebrate listings, 89 are listed as less than an entire taxonomic species or subspecies (henceforth referred to in this discussion as populations) under one of several authorities, including the “distinct population segment” language in the Act's definition of species (section 3(16)). Twenty-three of these 89 populations, which span 5 different taxa, predate the 1996 DPS Policy; as such, the final listing determinations for these populations did not include formal policy-based analyses or expressly designate the listed entity as a DPS. In several instances, however, the Service and National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) have established a DPS and revised the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife in a single action, as shown in the following examples.
In February 1985, the Service delisted the brown pelican (
Our authority to make these determinations and to revise the list accordingly is a reasonable interpretation of the language of the Act, and our ability to do so is an important component of the Service's program for the conservation of endangered and threatened species. Our authority to revise the existing listing of a species (the grizzly bear in the lower 48 States) to identify a GYE DPS and determine that it is healthy enough that it no longer needs the Act's protections is found in the precise language of the Act. Moreover, even if that authority were not clear, our interpretation of this authority to make determinations under section 4(a)(1) of the Act and to revise the endangered and threatened species list to reflect those determinations under section 4(c)(1) of the Act is reasonable and fully consistent with the Act's text, structure, legislative history, relevant judicial interpretations, and policy objectives.
On December 12, 2008, a formal opinion was issued by the Solicitor, “U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Authority Under Section 4(c)(1) of the Endangered Species Act to Revise Lists of Endangered and Threatened Species to `Reflect Recent Determinations' ” (U.S. DOI 2008). The Service fully agrees with the analysis and conclusions set out in the Solicitor's opinion. This proposed action is consistent with the opinion. The complete text of the Solicitor's opinion can be found at
We recognize that our interpretation and use of the DPS policy to revise and delist distinct population segments has been challenged in
In the 1993 Grizzly Bear Recovery Plan, the Service identifies six grizzly bear Recovery Zones and identifies unique demographic recovery criteria for each one. The 1993 Recovery Plan states that it is the intent of the Service to delist individual populations as they achieve recovery (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, p. ii). The Service has proceeded in a manner consistent with the Recovery Plan with respect to
Under our DPS Policy, a population of a vertebrate taxon may be considered discrete if it satisfies either one of the following conditions: (1) It is markedly separated from other populations of the same taxon (
Although the DPS Policy does not allow State or other intra-national governmental boundaries to be used as the basis for determining the discreteness of a potential DPS, an artificial or human-made boundary may be used to clearly identify the geographic area included within a DPS designation. Easily identified human-made objects, such as the center line of interstate highways, Federal highways, and State highways are useful for delimiting DPS boundaries. Thus, the proposed GYE grizzly bear DPS consists of: That portion of Idaho that is east of Interstate Highway 15 and north of U.S. Highway 30; that portion of Montana that is east of Interstate Highway 15 and south of Interstate Highway 90; and that portion of Wyoming that is south of Interstate Highway 90, west of Interstate Highway 25, west of Wyoming State Highway 220, and west of U.S. Highway 287 south of Three Forks (at the 220 and 287 intersection, and north of Interstate Highway 80 and U.S. Highway 30) (see DPS boundary in figure 2, above). Due to the use of highways as easily described boundaries, large areas of unsuitable habitat are included in the proposed DPS boundaries.
The core of the proposed GYE grizzly bear DPS is the Yellowstone PCA (24,000 sq km (9,200 sq mi)) (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, p. 39). The Yellowstone PCA includes Yellowstone National Park; a portion of Grand Teton National Park; John D. Rockefeller Memorial Parkway; sizable contiguous portions of the Shoshone, Bridger-Teton, Caribou-Targhee, Custer-Gallatin, and Beaverhead-Deerlodge National Forests; BLM lands; and surrounding State and private lands (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, p. 39). As grizzly bear populations have rebounded and densities have increased, bears have expanded their range beyond the PCA, into other suitable habitat in the DMA. Grizzly bears now occupy about 44,624 sq km (17,229 sq mi) or 89 percent of the GYE DMA (Haroldson 2015,
The GYE grizzly bear population is the southernmost population remaining in the conterminous United States and has been physically separated from other areas where grizzly bears occur for at least 100 years (Merriam 1922, pp. 1-2; Miller and Waits 2003, p. 4334). The nearest population of grizzly bears is found in the NCDE approximately 160 km (100 mi) to the north. Although their range continues to expand north (Bjornlie
Genetic data also support the conclusion that grizzly bears from the GYE are separated from other grizzly bears. Genetic studies estimating heterozygosity (which provides a measure of genetic diversity) show 60 percent heterozygosity in the GYE grizzly bears compared to 67 percent in the NCDE grizzly bears (Haroldson
Based on the best available scientific data about grizzly bear locations and movements, we find that the GYE grizzly bear population and other remaining grizzly bear populations are markedly, physically separated from each other. Therefore, the GYE grizzly bear population meets the criterion of discreteness under our DPS Policy. Occasional movement of bears from
If we determine a population segment is discrete under one or more of the conditions described in the Service's DPS policy, its biological and ecological significance will then be considered in light of Congressional guidance that the authority to list DPS's be used “sparingly” while encouraging the conservation of genetic diversity (see Senate Report 151, 96th Congress, 1st Session). In carrying out this examination, we consider available scientific evidence of the population's importance to the taxon (
New information since the publication of the March 29, 2007, final rule (72 FR 14866) and the 2011 status review (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2011) calls into question whether the GYE is truly a unique ecological setting. Previously, we concluded that the GYE was a unique ecological setting because grizzly bears were more carnivorous there than in other ecosystems in the lower 48 States and that they still used whitebark pine seeds extensively while other populations no longer did.
Based on previous research, we found that meat constitutes 45 percent and 79 percent of the annual diet for females and males in the GYE, respectively (Jacoby
We also previously concluded the GYE grizzly bear population exists in a unique ecological setting because it is able to use whitebark pine seeds as a major food source (see 72 FR 14866; March 29, 2007). We considered the use of whitebark pine seeds by GYE grizzly bears unique because in most areas of its range, whitebark pine has been significantly reduced in numbers and distribution due to the introduced pathogen white pine blister rust (
In light of these new data indicating grizzly bears in the GYE do not consume more meat than other populations in the lower 48 States and their use of whitebark pine has waned, we no longer consider the GYE grizzly bear population to meet the DPS policy standard for significance based on its persistence in an ecological setting unusual or unique for the taxon.
Given the grizzly bear's historic occupancy of the conterminous United States and the portion of the historic range the conterminous United States represent, recovery in the lower 48 States where the grizzly bear existed in 1975 when it was listed has long been viewed as important to the taxon (40 FR 31734; July 28, 1975). The GYE grizzly bear population is significant in achieving this objective, as it is one of only five known occupied areas and one unoccupied area and constitutes approximately half of the estimated number of grizzly bears remaining in the conterminous 48 States. As noted above,
Several studies have documented some level of genetic differences between grizzly bears in the GYE and other populations in North America (Paetkau
In summary, while we no longer consider the GYE grizzly bear population to be significant due to unique ecological conditions or marked genetic differences, we still conclude that the GYE grizzly bear population is significant because the loss of this population would result in a significant gap in the range of the taxon.
Based on the best scientific and commercial data available, as described above, we find that the GYE grizzly bear population is discrete from other grizzly bear populations and significant to the remainder of the taxon (
Section 4 of the Act and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for listing species, reclassifying species, or removing species from listed status. “Species” is defined by the Act as including any species or subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct vertebrate population segment of fish or wildlife that interbreeds when mature (16 U.S.C. 1532(16)). A species may be determined to be an endangered or threatened species due to one or more of the five factors described in section 4(a)(1) of the Act: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. We must consider these same five factors in delisting a species. We may delist a species according to 50 CFR 424.11(d) if the best available scientific and commercial data indicate that the species is neither endangered nor threatened for the following reasons: (1) The species is extinct; (2) the species has recovered and is no longer endangered or threatened; and/or (3) the original scientific data used at the time the species was classified were in error.
A recovered species is one that no longer meets the Act's definition of endangered or threatened. A species is endangered for purposes of the Act if it is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range (SPR) and is threatened if it is likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The word “range” in these definitions refers to the range in which the species currently exists. Determining whether a species is recovered requires consideration of the same five categories of threats specified in section 4(a)(1) of the Act. For species that are already listed as endangered or threatened, this analysis of threats is an evaluation of both the threats currently facing the species and the threats that are reasonably likely to affect the species in the foreseeable future following the removal of the Act's protections.
In considering what factors might constitute threats, we must look beyond the exposure of the species to a particular factor to evaluate whether the species may respond to the factor in a way that causes actual impacts to the species. If there is exposure to a factor and the species responds negatively, the factor may be a threat, and during the five-factor threats analysis, we attempt to determine how significant a threat it is. The threat is significant if it drives or contributes to the risk of extinction of the species such that the species warrants listing as endangered or threatened as those terms are defined by the Act. However, the identification of factors that could affect a species negatively may not be sufficient to justify a finding that the species warrants listing. The information must include evidence sufficient to suggest that the potential threat is likely to materialize and that it has the capacity (
Factor A requires the Service to consider present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of grizzly bear habitat or its range. Here, the following
Habitat destruction and modification were contributing factors leading to the listing of the grizzly bear as a threatened species under the Act in 1975 (40 FR 31734; July 28, 1975). Both the dramatic decreases in historical range and land management practices in formerly secure grizzly bear habitat led to the 1975 listing (40 FR 31734; July 28, 1975). For consideration under the Act, the word range applies to where the species currently exists. To address this source of population decline, the IGBST was created in 1973, to collect, manage, analyze, and distribute science-based information regarding habitat and demographic parameters upon which to base management and recovery. Then, in 1983, the Interagency Grizzly Bear Committee (IGBC) was created to coordinate management efforts across multiple Federal lands and different States within the various Recovery Zones ultimately working to achieve recovery of the grizzly bear in the lower 48 States. Its objective was to change land management practices on Federal lands that supported grizzly bear populations at the time of listing to provide security and maintain or improve habitat conditions for the grizzly bear. Since 1986, National Forest and National Park plans have incorporated the Interagency Grizzly Bear Guidelines (USDA Forest Service 1986, pp. 1-2) to manage grizzly bear habitat in the Yellowstone PCA.
Management improvements made as a result of the Interagency Grizzly Bear Guidelines include, but are not limited to: (1) Federal and State agency coordination to produce nuisance bear guidelines that allow a quick response to resolve and minimize grizzly bear-human confrontations; (2) reduced motorized access route densities through restrictions, decommissioning, and closures; (3) highway design considerations to facilitate population connectivity; (4) seasonal closure of some areas to all human access in National Parks that are particularly important to grizzly bears; (5) closure of many areas in the GYE to oil and gas leasing, or implementing restrictions such as no surface occupancy; (6) elimination of six active and four vacant sheep allotments on the Caribou-Targhee National Forest since 1998, resulting in an 86 percent decrease in total sheep animal months inside the Yellowstone PCA; and (7) expanded information and education programs in the Yellowstone PCA to help reduce the number of grizzly bear mortalities caused by big-game hunters (outside National Parks). Overall, adherence to the Interagency Grizzly Bear Guidelines has changed land management practices on Federal lands to provide security and to maintain or improve habitat conditions for the grizzly bear. Implementation of these guidelines has led to the successful rebound of the GYE grizzly bear population, allowing it to significantly increase in size and distribution since its listing in 1975.
Concurrent with this proposed rule, an interagency group representing pertinent State and Federal parties is releasing a draft 2016 Conservation Strategy for the grizzly bear in the GYE to guide management and monitoring of the habitat and population of GYE grizzly bears after delisting. The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy will be the most recent iteration of the Conservation Strategy, which was first published in final form in 2007 (see our notice of availability published on March 13, 2007, at 72 FR 11376). The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy incorporates the explicit and measurable habitat criteria established in the “Recovery Plan Supplement: Habitat-based Recovery Criteria for the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem” (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2007
As per the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and the habitat-based recovery criteria discussed above, the PCA will be a core secure area for grizzly bears where human impacts on habitat conditions will be maintained at or below levels that existed in 1998 (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, chapter 3). Specifically, the amount of secure habitat will not decrease below 1998 levels while the number of developed sites and livestock allotments will not increase above 1998 levels. The 1998 baseline for habitat standards was chosen because the levels of secure habitat and developed sites on public lands remained relatively constant in the 10 years preceding 1998 (USDA Forest Service 2004, pp. 140-141), and the selection of 1998 assured that habitat conditions existing at a time when the population was increasing at a rate of 4 to 7 percent per year (Schwartz
Motorized access affects grizzly bears primarily through increased human-caused mortality risk (Schwartz
The primary concern related to developed sites is direct mortality from bear-human encounters and unsecured attractants. Secondary concerns include temporary or permanent habitat loss and displacement due to increased length of time of human use and increased human disturbance to surrounding areas. In areas of suitable habitat inside the PCA, the National Park Service and the Forest Service enforce food storage rules aimed at decreasing grizzly bear access to human foods (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 1). These regulations will continue to be enforced and are in effect for nearly all currently occupied grizzly bear habitat within the GYE grizzly bear DPS boundaries (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 1). In conclusion, because the National Parks and National Forests within the PCA will continue to manage developed sites at 1998 levels within each bear management subunit and because food storage rules will be enforced on these public lands, we do not foresee that the existing number of, nor an increase in the number of, developed sites inside the PCA will pose a threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now, or in the future.
Approximately 14 percent (45/311) of all human-caused grizzly bear mortalities in the GYE between 2002 and 2014 were due to management removal actions associated with livestock depredations. This human-caused mortality is the main impact to grizzly bears in the GYE associated with livestock. Increased chances of grizzly bear conflict related to livestock have been minimized through requirements to securely store and/or promptly remove attractants associated with livestock operations (
The 2007 Conservation Strategy and Forest Service Record of Decision implementing their forest plan amendments (USDA Forest Service 2006
A total of 106 livestock allotments existed inside the PCA in 1998. Of these allotments, there were 72 active and 13 vacant cattle allotments and 11 active and 10 vacant sheep allotments, with a total of 23,090 animal months (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Appendix E). Sheep animal months are calculated by multiplying the permitted number of animals by the permitted number of months. Any use of vacant allotments will only be permitted if the number and net acreage of allotments inside the PCA does not increase above the 1998 baseline. Since 1998, the Caribou-Targhee National Forest has closed six sheep allotments within the PCA, while the Shoshone National Forest has closed two sheep allotments and the Gallatin National Forest has closed four (Greater Yellowstone Area Grizzly Bear Habitat Modeling Team, p. 86). This has resulted in a reduction of 21,120 sheep animal months, a 91 percent reduction,
Recreation in the GYE can be divided into six basic categories based on season of use (winter or all other seasons), mode of access (motorized or non-motorized), and level of development (developed or dispersed) (USDA Forest Service 2006
This potential stressor on the GYE grizzly bear population would exist regardless of listed status and will be addressed in the same way whether this population is listed or delisted, through ongoing information and education campaigns. These outreach efforts are an important contributing factor to successful grizzly bear conservation and would continue under the 2016 Conservation Strategy. In conclusion, because the few motorized access routes inside the PCA will not increase, because the number and capacity of developed sites on public lands within the PCA will not increase, and because the National Parks and National Forests within the PCA will continue to educate visitors on its lands about how to recreate safely in bear country and avoid grizzly bear-human conflicts, we do not expect that the current level of recreation, nor increases in recreation, will constitute a threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now, or in the future.
Disturbance in the den could result in increased energetic costs (increased activity and heart rate inside the den) and possibly den abandonment, which, in theory, could ultimately lead to a decline in physical condition of the individual or even cub mortality (Swenson
Swenson
In summary, the available data about the potential for disturbance while denning and den abandonment from nearby snowmobile use are extrapolated from studies examining the impacts of other human activities and are identified as “anecdotal” in nature (Swenson
Conversely, vegetation management may result in positive effects on grizzly bear habitat once the project is complete, provided key habitats such as riparian areas and known food production areas are maintained or enhanced. For instance, tree removal for thinning or timber harvest and prescribed burning can result in localized increases in bear foods through increased growth of grasses, forbs, and berry-producing shrubs (Zager
Changes in the distribution, quantity, and quality of cover are not necessarily detrimental to grizzly bears as long as they are coordinated on a BMU or subunit scale to ensure that grizzly bear needs are addressed throughout the various projects occurring on multiple jurisdictions at any given time. Although there are known, usually temporary, impacts to individual bears from timber management activities, these impacts have been adequately mitigated using the Interagency Grizzly Bear Guidelines in place since 1986, and will continue to be managed at levels acceptable to the grizzly bear population under the 2016 Conservation Strategy. Therefore, we do not expect that vegetation management inside the PCA will constitute a threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now, or in the future.
In suitable habitat outside of the PCA within the DPS boundaries, the Forest Service, BLM, and State wildlife agencies will monitor habitat and population criteria to prevent potential threats to habitat, ensuring that the measures of the Act continue to be unnecessary (Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting Advisory Team 2002, pp. 2-3; MTFWP 2002, p. 2; WGFD 2005, p. 1; USDA Forest Service 2006
Of the 22,783 sq km (8,797 sq mi or 5.6 million acres) of suitable habitat outside of the PCA within the DPS boundaries, the Forest Service manages 17,292 sq km (6,676 sq mi), or 76 percent. Of the 76 percent of suitable habitat outside of the PCA that the Forest Service manages, nearly 80 percent (13,685 sq km (5,284 sq mi)) is Designated Wilderness Area (6,799 sq km (2,625 sq mi)), Wilderness Study Area (708 sq km (273 sq mi)), or Inventoried Roadless Area (6,179 sq km (2,386 sq mi)). These designations provide regulatory mechanisms outside of the Act and the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy that protect grizzly bear habitat from increases in motorized use, oil and gas development, livestock allotments, and timber harvest. These designations are further described in Factor D. This large area of widely distributed habitat allows for continued population expansion and provides additional resiliency to environmental change.
Wilderness areas outside of the PCA are protected from new road construction, livestock allotments, developed sites, and mining claims by the Wilderness Act of 1964, 16 U.S.C. 1131
Wilderness study areas are designated by Federal land management agencies (
Inventoried Roadless Areas currently provide 4,891 sq km (1,888 sq mi) of secure habitat for grizzly bears outside of the PCA within the DPS boundaries. This amount of secure habitat is less than the total area contained within Inventoried Roadless Areas (6,179 sq km (2,386 sq mi)) because some motorized use is allowed due to roads that existed before the area was designated as roadless. Thus, a certain amount of road use is grandfathered in to the designation of Inventoried Roadless Areas. The 2001 Roadless Areas Conservation Rule (66 FR 3244, January 12, 2001; hereafter referred to as the “Roadless Rule”) prohibits new road construction, road re-construction, and timber harvest in Inventoried Roadless Areas. Additional information about the Roadless Rule is provided in Factor D. This restriction on road building makes mining activities and oil and gas production much less likely because access to these resources becomes cost-prohibitive or impossible without new roads. Potential changes in the management of these areas are not anticipated because the Roadless Rule was upheld by the Tenth Circuit Court of Appeals in 2011. (See
Based on the amount of Wilderness, Wilderness Study Area, and Inventoried Roadless Area, an estimated 71 percent (12,396 of 17,291 sq km (4,786 of 6,676 sq mi)) of suitable habitat outside the PCA on Forest Service lands within the DPS is currently secure habitat and is likely to remain secure habitat. Because grizzly bears would remain on the Forest Service Sensitive Species list after delisting (USDA Forest Service 2006
Both Federal and State agencies are committed to managing habitat so that the GYE grizzly bear DPS remains recovered and is not likely to become endangered in all or a significant portion of its range in the foreseeable future (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, entire; Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting Advisory Team 2002, pp. 2-3; MTFWP 2002, p. 2; WGFD 2005, p. 1) (see Factor D discussion, below). In suitable habitat outside of the PCA, restrictions on human activities are more flexible, but the Forest Service, BLM, and State wildlife agencies will still carefully manage these lands, monitor bear-human conflicts in these areas, and respond with management as necessary to reduce such conflicts to account for the complex needs of both grizzly bears and humans (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 4; Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting
By and large, habitat management on Federal public lands is directed by Federal land management plans, not State management plans. However, the three State grizzly bear management plans recognize the importance of areas that provide security for grizzly bears in suitable habitat outside of the PCA within the DPS boundaries on Federal lands. For example, the Montana and Wyoming plans recommend limiting average road densities to 1.6 km/2.6 sq km (1 mi/sq mi) or less in these areas (MTFWP 2002, pp. 32-34; WGFD 2005, pp. 22-25). Both States have similar standards for elk habitat on State lands and note that these levels of motorized access benefit a variety of wildlife species while maintaining reasonable public access. Similarly, the Idaho State plan recognizes that management of motorized access outside the PCA should focus on areas that have road densities of 1.6 km/2.6 sq km (1 mi/sq mi) or less. The area most likely to be occupied by grizzly bears outside the PCA in Idaho is on the Caribou-Targhee National Forest. The 1997 Targhee Forest Plan includes motorized access standards and management prescriptions outside the PCA that provide for long-term security in 59 percent of existing secure habitat outside of the PCA (USDA Forest Service 2006
In 2004, there were roughly 150 active cattle allotments and 12 active sheep allotments in suitable habitat outside the PCA within the DPS boundaries (USDA Forest Service 2004, p. 129). The Targhee Forest closed two of these sheep allotments in 2004, and there have not been any new allotments created since then (USDA Forest Service 2006
There are over 500 developed sites on the five National Forests in the areas identified as suitable habitat outside the PCA within the DPS boundaries (USDA Forest Service 2004, p. 138). While grizzly bear-human conflicts at developed sites on public lands do occur, the most frequent reason for management removals are conflicts on private lands (Servheen
According to current Forest Plan direction, less than 19 percent (3,213 sq km (1,240 sq mi)) of suitable habitat outside the PCA within the DPS boundaries on Forest Service land allows surface occupancy for oil and gas development, and 11 percent (1,926 sq km (744 sq mi)) has both suitable timber and a management prescription that allows scheduled timber harvest. The primary impacts to grizzly bears associated with timber harvest and oil and gas development are increases in road densities, with subsequent increases in human access, grizzly bear-human encounters, and human-caused grizzly bear mortalities (McLellan and Shackleton 1988, pp. 458-459; McLellan and Shackleton 1989, pp. 377-379; Mace
Ultimately, the five affected National Forests (the Beaverhead-Deerlodge, Bridger-Teton, Caribou-Targhee, Custer-Gallatin, and Shoshone) will manage the number of roads, livestock allotments, developed sites, timber harvest projects, and oil and gas wells outside of the PCA in the DMA to allow for a recovered grizzly bear population. The National Forest plans that provide for this management are further described below in the discussion of Factor D, below. Because the grizzly bear will be classified as a “species of conservation concern”—or the equivalent management designation—on Forest Service lands if this proposal is made final, components of land management plans and individual projects must provide appropriate ecological conditions and habitats necessary to continue to provide for a recovered population (USDA Forest Service 2006
Rapidly accelerating growth of human populations in some areas outside of the PCA continues to define the limits of grizzly bear range, and will likely limit the expansion of the GYE grizzly bear population onto private lands in some areas outside the PCA. Urban and rural sprawl (low-density housing and associated businesses) has resulted in increasing numbers of grizzly bear-human conflicts with subsequent increases in grizzly bear mortality rates. Private lands account for a disproportionate number of bear deaths and conflicts (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2007
In summary, the following factors warranted consideration as possible threats to the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem grizzly bear DPS under Factor A: (1) Motorized access management, (2) developed sites, (3) livestock allotments, (4) mineral and energy development, (5) recreation, (6) snowmobiling, (7) vegetation management, (8) climate change, and (9) habitat fragmentation. Restrictions on motorized access, developed sites, and livestock allotments ensure that they will be maintained at or below 1998 levels, a time when the population was increasing at a rate of 4 to 7 percent per year (Schwartz
Within suitable habitat, different levels of management and protection are applied to areas based on their level of importance. Within the PCA, the portion of the range where 75 percent of the females with cubs live (Schwartz
Suitable habitat outside the PCA provides additional ecological resiliency and habitat redundancy to allow the population to respond to environmental changes. Habitat protections specifically for grizzly bear conservation are not necessary here because other binding regulatory mechanisms are in place for nearly 60 percent of the area outside the PCA. In these areas, the Wilderness Act, the Roadless Areas Conservation Rule, and National Forest Land Management Plans limit development and motorized use, as is further described in Factor D. Management of individual projects on public land outside the PCA will continue to consider and minimize impacts on grizzly bear habitat. Efforts by nongovernmental organizations and State and county agencies will seek to minimize bear-human conflicts on private lands (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 4). These and other conservation measures discussed in the “
Other management practices on Federal lands have been changed to provide security and to maintain or improve habitat conditions for grizzly bears. All operating plans for oil and gas leases must conform to secure habitat and developed site standards, which require mitigation for any change in secure habitat. Recreation inside the GYE is limited through existing road and developed site standards. Additionally, information and education campaigns educate visitors about how to recreate safely in bear country and avoid bear-human conflicts. There are no data available on the impacts of snowmobiling on grizzly bears to suggest an effect on grizzly bear survival or recovery of the population. Although vegetation management may temporarily impact individual grizzly bears, these activities are coordinated on a BMU or subunit scale according to the Interagency Grizzly Bear Guidelines to mitigate for any potentially negative effect. As a result of vegetation management, there may also be positive effects on grizzly bears where key habitats are maintained or enhanced. The habitat changes that are predicted under climate change scenarios are not expected by most grizzly bear biologists to directly threaten grizzly bears. The potential for changes in the frequency and timing of grizzly bear-human interactions is discussed below under Factor E. Finally, there are no data to indicate that habitat fragmentation is occurring within the GYE.
In summary, the factors discussed under Factor A continue to occur across the range of the GYE grizzly bear population but are sufficiently ameliorated so they only affect a small proportion of the population. Despite these factors related to habitat, the population has increased and stabilized while its range has expanded. Therefore, based on the best available information and on continuation of current regulatory commitment, we do not consider the present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range to constitute a threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now, or in the future.
When grizzly bears were listed in 1975, we identified “indiscriminate illegal killing” and management removals as primary threats to the population. We now consider mortalities including management removals and illegal killings under Factor C, under the “Human-Caused Mortality” section. This section evaluates legal grizzly bear hunting for commercial and recreational purposes in the GYE if this population were no longer protected from this type of take by the Act. No grizzly bears have been removed from the GYE since 1975 for
To achieve mortality management in the area appropriate to the long-term conservation of the GYE population and to assure that the area of mortality management was the same as the area where the population estimates are made, the Service, based on recommendations in an IGBST report (2012), has proposed to modify the area where mortalities are counted against the total mortality limits to be the same area that is monitored to annually estimate population size. The basis for this area, called the demographic monitoring area (DMA), was the boundary developed in 2007 by the Service (2007
The population has basically stabilized inside the DMA since 2002, with the model-averaged Chao2 population estimate for 2002-2014 being 674 (95% CI = 600-747). This stabilization over 13 years is strong evidence that the population is exhibiting density-dependent population regulation inside the DMA, and this has recently been documented (van Manen
Accordingly, the agencies implementing the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy have decided that the population in the DMA will be managed around the long-term average population size for 2002-2014 of 674 (95% CI = 600-747)(using the model-averaged Chao2 estimate). The population inside the DMA has stabilized itself at this population size through density-dependent regulation. The model-averaged Chao2 method will be used by the IGBST to annually estimate population size inside the DMA (in their entirety: Keating
• Below 600: No discretionary mortality would be allowed unless necessary to address human safety issues.
• Between 600 and 673: Total mortality limits would be less than 7.6 percent for independent females (>2 years old), 15 percent for independent males (>2 years old), and less than 7.6 percent for dependent young.
• At 674: Total mortality limits would be 7.6 percent for independent females, 15 percent for independent males, and 7.6 percent for dependent young.
• Between 675 and 747: Total mortality limits would not exceed 9 percent for independent females, 20 percent for independent males, and 9 percent for dependent young.
• Greater than 747: Total mortality limits would not exceed 10 percent for independent females, 22 percent for independent males, and 10 percent for dependent young.
If this proposed rule is made final, grizzly bears will be classified as a game species throughout the GYE DPS boundaries outside National Parks and the Wind River Indian Reservation in the States of Wyoming, Montana, and Idaho. While we anticipate the States will desire to institute a carefully regulated hunt with ecosystem-wide coordinated total mortality limits, we do not expect grizzly bear trapping to occur due to public safety considerations and the precedent that there has never been public grizzly bear trapping in the modern era. The States of Montana, Idaho, and Wyoming do not permit public trapping of any bears currently, and there is no information to indicate they will begin. Public trapping is not identified as a possible management tool in any of their State management plans. Hunting on the Wind River Reservation will be at the discretion of the Tribes and only be available to Tribal members (Title XVI Fish and Game Code, Eastern Shoshone and Northern Arapaho Tribes 2009, p. 9). The National Park Service will not allow grizzly bear hunting within
If State agencies decide to establish hunting seasons, the following regulatory mechanisms must be in place by law and regulation for delisting to occur. The States will enact specific regulations that will serve as adequate
• Suspending all discretionary mortality inside the DMA, except if required for human safety, if the model-averaged Chao2 population estimate falls below 600;
• Suspending grizzly bear hunting inside the DMA if total mortality limits for any sex/age class (as per tables 1 and 2, above, and table 3, below) are met at any time during the year;
• Female grizzly bear with young will not be available for recreational harvest; and
• In a given year, discretionary mortality will only be allowed if non-discretionary mortality (see Factor C discussion, below) does not meet or exceed total mortality limits for that year.
• Any mortality that exceeds total mortality limits in any year will be subtracted from that age/sex class total mortality limit for the following year to assure that long-term mortality levels remain within prescribed limits inside the DMA.
In addition to the regulatory mechanism above, if total mortality limits for independent females, or independent males, or dependent young are exceeded for 3 consecutive years, and the model-averaged population estimate falls below 612 (the lower limit of the 90% CI), the IGBST will complete a biology and monitoring review to evaluate the impacts of these total mortality levels on the population and present it to the YGCC and the public. The States will coordinate via a signed MOU to manage total mortalities within the DMA to be within the age/sex mortality limits as per tables 1 and 2, above, and table 3, below.
The mortalities in table 3 are the total number of allowable mortalities inside the DMA from all causes for different population sizes. Total mortality limits in table 3 for each sex/age class are based on the size of each sex/age cohort, which changes with population size.
There are mortalities that occur every year due to multiple sources including management removals, illegal kills, self-defense, calculated unknown/unreported mortalities, natural mortalities, and other causes such as vehicle collisions. These are considered background levels of mortality and must be taken into account in any calculation and allocation of additional mortality available for hunting in order to remain within the total mortality limits. The expected numbers of background mortalities inside the DMA are calculated by taking the average number of mortalities from the most recent 4-year period from all sources, other than grizzly bear hunting, including calculated unknown/unreported numbers. Because background mortality levels vary from year to year, averaging these over several years is a reasonable predictor of these numbers. This average number of expected background mortalities for independent females and males is then subtracted from the total number of allowable mortalities for the most recent population estimate as per table 3. The resulting number is the expected number of independent female and male bears available for hunting allocation.
As an example, the average background mortality from 2012 to 2015 was 37 (15 females and 22 males) independent bear deaths/year due to management removals, illegal kills, calculated unknown/unreported, natural causes, and other deaths. These are from inside the DMA only. In this example, with an average background mortality of 37 (15 females and 22 males), if the DMA population in a given year was at 674 bears as calculated by the modeled-averaged Chao 2 method, using table 3 there would be 3 female bears and 13 male bears available for discretionary hunting mortality (18−15 = 3 independent females and 35−22 = 13 independent males). Once either one of these mortality limits was met in any year, the state regulatory mechanisms closing hunting seasons would apply. For the 2015 DMA population estimate of 717, the total allowable mortality for independent females is 22 and for independent males is 50. Applying the average background mortality of 15 and 22 for independent females and independent males, respectively, that would allow for a discretionary mortality inside the DMA of 22−15 = 7 independent females and 50−;22 = 28 independent males. If the average background mortality was higher than the 2012-2015 average of 37, there may not be any discretionary mortality in a given year. Concurrently, if the average background mortality declined, there may be additional discretionary mortality available.
These examples serve to explain the process that will be used to determine discretionary mortality. Within these mortality limits, state fish and wildlife agencies have discretion to determine whether they intend to propose a grizzly bear hunting season and/or how much discretionary mortality (within allowable limits) to allocate to hunting.
This proposed rule is based on these anticipated changes to Wyoming,
Other regulations, such as timing and location of hunting seasons, should seasons be implemented, would be devised by the States to minimize the possibility that total mortality limits of independent females are exceeded within the DMA (Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting Advisory Team 2002, p. 20; WGFD 2004, p. 20; MFWP 2013, p. 61).
To assure that the distribution criterion (16 of 18 bear management units within the Recovery Zone must be occupied by females with young, with no 2 adjacent bear management units unoccupied, during a 6-year sum of observations) is maintained, the IGBST will annually monitor and report the distribution of reproducing females. If the necessary distribution of reproducing females is not met for three consecutive years, the IGBST will complete a biology and monitoring review to evaluate the impacts of reduced distribution of reproducing females on the population and present it to the YGCC. This biology and monitoring review will consider the significance of the reduced distribution of reproducing females and make recommendations to increase their distribution as necessary.
If this proposed rule is made final, the Service may initiate a formal status review and could emergency relist the GYE grizzly population until the formal status review is complete under the following conditions: (1) If there are any changes in Federal, State, or Tribal laws, rules, regulations, or management plans that depart significantly from the specifics of population or habitat management detailed in this proposed rule and significantly increase the threat to the population; or (2) if the population falls below 500 in any year using the model-averaged Chao2 method, or counts of females with cubs fall below 48 for 3 consecutive years; or (3) if independent female total mortality limits as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above, are exceeded for 3 consecutive years and the population is fewer than 600; or (4) if fewer than 16 of 18 bear management units are occupied by females with young for 3 consecutive 6-year sums of observations. Such a status review would be necessary for relisting the grizzly population should that be warranted.
In areas of the GYE grizzly bear DPS outside the DMA boundaries, respective States and Tribes may establish hunting seasons independent of the total mortality limits inside the DMA. Hunting mortality outside the DMA boundary would not threaten the GYE grizzly bear DPS because total mortality limits are in place as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above, for the source population within the DMA boundary.
To increase the likelihood of occasional genetic interchange between the GYE grizzly bear population and the NCDE grizzly bear population, the State of Montana has indicated they will manage discretionary mortality in this area in order to retain the opportunity for natural movements of bears between ecosystems. Maintaining the presence of non-conflict grizzly bears in areas between the NCDE management area and the DMA of the GYE, such as the Tobacco Root and Highland Mountains, would likely facilitate periodic grizzly bear movements between the NCDE and GYE.
To ensure total mortality rates remain consistent with population objectives after delisting, the IGBST will conduct a demographic review of population vital rates (table 2, item #7) at least every 5 to 10 years in perpetuity. The results of these reviews will be used to make appropriate adjustments to assure adherence to the population objective to maintain the average population from 2002-2014 inside the DMA and to maintain a recovered population in accordance with the recovery criteria. The 5- to 10-year time interval was selected based on life-history characteristics of bears and methodologies in order to obtain estimates with acceptable levels of uncertainty and statistical rigor (Harris
In summary, commercial and recreational hunting warranted consideration as possible threats to the GYE grizzly bear DPS under Factor B. These three regulatory commitments will need to be in place exist prior to issuance of a final rule:
(1) The States will ensure the application of the details in tables 1, 2, and 3, above, regarding annual total mortality levels for each age/sex class are based on annual IGBST model-averaged Chao2 population estimates; and
(2) The States will implement and maintain by law and regulation, as detailed above and in tables 1, 2, and 3, management responses to any departures from total mortality limits for independent females, independent males, and dependent young to maintain the population inside the DMA around the average population size from 2002-2014; and
(3) The State of Montana will manage discretionary mortality in the area between the GYE and the NCDE in order to retain the opportunity for natural movements of bears between ecosystems.
In addition, the Service may initiate a status review with possible emergency relisting act if: (1) There are any changes in Federal, State, or Tribal laws, rules, regulations, or management plans that depart significantly from the specifics of population or habitat management detailed in this proposed rule and significantly increase the threat to the population; or (2) the population falls below 500 in any year using the model-averaged Chao2 method or counts of females with cubs fall below 48 for 3 consecutive years; or (3) independent female total mortality limits as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above, are exceeded for 3 consecutive years and the population is fewer than 600; or (4) fewer than 16 of 18 bear management units are occupied by females with young for 3 consecutive 6-year sums of observations.
If these commitments are implemented into regulations, they would ameliorate impacts related to commercial and recreational hunting such that hunting would not threatehn the the GYE grizzly bear DPS in the future. Should Wyoming, Montana, and/or Idaho fail to make the changes necessary detailed above to support a recovered grizzly bear population, or deviate significantly from the changes in law and regulation described above and in tables 1, 2, and 3, above, delisting could not occur. In addition to State laws and regulations, the IGBST will conduct a demographic review of the population vital rates every 5 to 10 years on which allowable total mortality limits are based to assure adherence to the population objective. We consider the regulatory commitment outlined in this section by State and Federal agencies to reasonably ensure conservation of the GYE grizzly bear DPS. Because of these detailed State and Federal regulatory commitments, we conclude that commercial and recreational hunting will not constitute a substantial threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now, or in the future.
Factor C requires the Service to consider disease or predation affecting the continued existence of a species. In addition to natural disease and predation, we consider here human-
Although grizzly bears have been documented with a variety of bacteria and other pathogens, parasites, and disease, fatalities are uncommon (LeFranc
Grizzly bears are occasionally killed by other wildlife. Adult grizzly bears kill cubs, sub-adults, or other adults (Stringham 1980, p. 337; Dean
This section discusses all sources of human-caused mortality except legal hunting, which is discussed above under Factor B. Excessive human-caused mortality was the primary factor contributing to grizzly bear decline during the 19th and 20th centuries (Leopold 1967, p. 30; Koford 1969, p. 95; Servheen 1990, p. 1; Servheen 1999, pp. 50-52; Mattson and Merrill 2002, pp. 1129, 1132; Schwartz
From 1980 to 2002, 66 percent (191) of the 290 known grizzly bear mortalities were human-caused (Servheen
We define poaching as intentional, illegal killing of grizzly bears. People may kill grizzly bears for several reasons, including a general perception that grizzly bears in the area may be dangerous, frustration over depredations of livestock, or to protest land-use and road-use restrictions associated with grizzly bear habitat management (Servheen
State and Federal law enforcement agents have cooperated to ensure consistent enforcement of laws protecting grizzly bears. Currently, State and Federal prosecutors and enforcement personnel from each State and Federal jurisdiction work together to make recommendations to all jurisdictions, counties, and States, on uniform enforcement, prosecution, and sentencing relating to illegal grizzly bear kills. This cooperation means illegal
If we delist the GYE DPS, all three affected States and the Eastern Shoshone and Northern Arapaho Tribes of the Wind River Reservation will classify grizzly bears in the GYE as game animals, which cannot be taken without authorization by State or Tribal wildlife agencies (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 7; Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting Advisory Team 2002, pp. 18-21; MTFWP 2002, p. 2; WGFD 2005, p. 20; Eastern Shoshone and Northern Arapaho Tribes 2009, p. 9). In other words, it will still be illegal for private citizens to kill grizzly bears unless it is in self-defense (as is currently allowed under the Act's protections), or if they have a hunting license issued by State or Tribal wildlife agencies, or in the Montana portion of the DPS, if a grizzly bear is caught in the act of attacking or killing livestock (87-6-106 MCA). With respect to the last exception, there must be injured or dead livestock associated with any grizzly bear killed in defense of livestock in Montana. There are no documented cases of livestock owners or herders actually observing a grizzly bear depredating on livestock since records began being kept in 1975. Before that time, it would have been legal for a livestock operator to kill a grizzly bear just for being present. Details surrounding these mortalities are scant. States will continue to enforce, prosecute, and sentence poachers just as they do for any game animal such as elk, black bears, and cougars. Although it is widely recognized that poaching still occurs, this illegal source of mortality is not significant enough to hinder population stability for the GYE grizzly bear population (IGBST 2012, p. 34) or range expansion (Pyare
Information and education programs, (which are described in detail in Factor E), with a long record of implementation and will continue under the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy continue after delisting, have helped minimize the potential threat of poaching. More specifically, these programs address illegal killing by working to change human values, perceptions, and beliefs about grizzly bears and Federal regulation of public lands (Servheen
From 2002 to 2014, humans killed 97 grizzly bears in self-defense or defense of others in the GYE. This constituted nearly 31 percent of known grizzly bear mortalities during this time period (Haroldson 2014,
Another primary source of human-caused mortality is agency removal of nuisance bears following grizzly bear-human conflicts. Between 2002 and 2014, agency removals resulted in 135 mortalities, accounting for 43 percent of human-caused mortalities. This type of grizzly bear mortality is allowed under the Act through a 4(d) rule (50 CFR 17.40(b)). While lethal to the individual grizzly bears involved, these removals promote conservation of the GYE grizzly bear population by minimizing illegal killing of bears, providing an opportunity to educate the public about how to avoid conflicts, and promoting tolerance of grizzly bears by responding promptly and effectively when bears pose a threat to public safety.
Conflicts at developed sites (on either public or private lands) were responsible for 90 of the 135 agency removals between 2002 and 2014. These conflicts usually involve attractants such as garbage, human foods, pet/livestock/wildlife foods, livestock carcasses, and wildlife carcasses, but also are related to attitudes, understanding, and tolerance toward grizzly bears. Mandatory food storage orders on public lands decrease the chances of conflicts while State and Federal information and education programs reduce grizzly bear-human conflicts on both private and public lands by educating the public about potential grizzly bear attractants and how to store them properly. Accordingly, roughly 68 percent of the total budgets of the agencies responsible for implementing the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and managing the GYE grizzly bear population post-delisting is for grizzly bear-human conflict management, outreach, and education (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Appendix F). To address public attitudes and knowledge levels, information and education programs present grizzly bears as a valuable public resource while acknowledging the potential dangers associated with them and ways to avoid conflicts (for a detailed discussion of information and education programs, see Factor E discussion, below). These outreach programs have been successful, as evidenced by a stable to increasing grizzly bear population despite large increases in people living and recreating in the GYE over the last 3 decades. Information and education programs are an integral component of the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and will continue to be implemented by all partners whether the GYE grizzly bear is listed or not.
Agency removals due to grizzly bear conflicts with livestock accounted for nearly 15 percent (45 out of 311) of known mortalities between 2002 and 2014, and 33 percent of management removals (45 out of 135) (Haroldson 2014,
The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and State grizzly bear management plans will guide decisions about agency removals of nuisance bears post-delisting and keep this source of human-caused mortality within the total mortality limits for each age/sex class as per table 2, above. The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy is consistent with current protocols (USDA Forest Service 1986, pp. 53-54), emphasizing the individual's importance to the entire population. Females will continue to receive a higher level of protection than males. Location, cause of incident, severity of incident, history of the bear, health, age, and sex of the bear, and demographic characteristics are all considered in any relocation or removal action. Upon delisting, State, Tribal, and National Park Service bear managers would continue to coordinate and consult with each other and other relevant Federal agencies (
Overall, we consider agency management removals a necessary component of grizzly bear conservation. Nuisance bears can become a threat to human safety and erode public support if they are not addressed. Without the support of the people that live, work, and recreate in grizzly bear country, conservation will not be successful. Therefore, we do not consider management removals a threat to the GYE grizzly bear population now, or in the future. However, we recognize the importance of managing these sanctioned removals within sustainable levels, and Federal, Tribal, State management agencies are committed to working with citizens, landowners, and visitors to address unsecured attractants to reduce the need for grizzly bear removals.
Humans kill grizzly bears unintentionally in a number of ways. From 2002 to 2014, there were 34 accidental mortalities and 23 mortalities associated with mistaken identification (totaling 18 percent of known mortality for this time period) (Haroldson 2014,
Mistaken identification of grizzly bears by black bear hunters is a manageable source of mortality. The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy identifies information and education programs targeted at hunters that emphasize patience, awareness, and correct identification of targets to help reduce grizzly bear mortalities from inexperienced black bear and ungulate hunters (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 5). Beginning in license year 2002, the State of Montana required that all black bear hunters pass a Bear Identification Test before receiving a black bear hunting license (see
The IGBST prepares annual reports analyzing the causes of conflicts, known and probable mortalities, and proposed management solutions (Servheen
In summary, the following factors warranted consideration as possible threats to the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem grizzly bear DPS under Factor C: (1) Natural disease, (2) natural predation, and (3) human-caused mortality, other than legal hunting. Both natural disease and natural predation are rare occurrences and therefore not considered a threat to the GYE grizzly bear population. Human-caused mortality, other than legal hunting, includes illegal poaching, defense of life and property mortality, accidental mortality, and management removals. Information and education programs reduce human-caused mortality by: (1) Changing human perceptions and beliefs about grizzly bears; (2) educating recreationists and hunters on how to avoid encounters and conflicts, how to react during a bear encounter, use of bear spray, and proper food storage; and (3) education of black bear hunters on bear identification.
When grizzly bears were listed in 1975, we identified “indiscriminate illegal killing,” and management removals as threats to the population. By defining a recovered population as one that “can sustain the existing level of known and estimated unknown, unreported human-caused mortality that exists within the ecosystem,” the 1993 Recovery Plan recognized that eliminating all human-caused mortality was not possible or necessary (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 1993, p. 41). Documentation of a stable to increasing population trend (Schwartz
Overall, from 2002 to 2014, the GYE grizzly bear population incurred an average of 23.9 human-caused grizzly bear mortalities per year (Haroldson 2014,
Grizzly bear populations declined in part because there were inadequate regulatory mechanisms in place to protect habitat (40 FR 31734; July 28, 1975). Once grizzly bears were listed under the Act, they immediately benefited from its regulatory framework that included prohibition of take—broadly defined under the Act to include harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct—and that requires Federal agencies to consult with the Service to ensure any project funded, authorized, or carried out by them does not jeopardize the continuing existence of a listed species. Grizzly bears benefitted from the requirement that Federal agencies ensure their actions will not likely jeopardize the continued existence of the species. They also benefitted from the development and implementation of recovery plans. The regulatory framework and tools provided by the Act have improved the status of the GYE grizzly bear population to the point where the population has recovered and delisting is now appropriate. Below, we consider the adequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms that would remain in place if this grizzly bear population is delisted and the Act no longer applies.
Laws and regulations of the Federal, Tribal, and State governments provide the legal authority for grizzly bear population and habitat management, monitoring, information and education programs, and conflict response. Grizzly bear habitat management is accomplished primarily by the Forest Service and NPS. Ninety-eight percent of lands within the PCA and 88 percent of lands within all suitable habitat are managed by one of these agencies. While the Forest Service and NPS are responsible for habitat management, the NPS, States, and Tribes share responsibility for population management (
The management of grizzly bears and their habitat draws from the laws and regulations of the Federal, State, and Tribal agencies in the proposed GYE DPS boundaries (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, chapter 7). These laws and regulations provide the legal authority for controlling mortality, providing secure habitats, managing grizzly bear-human conflicts, controlling hunters, limiting access where necessary, controlling livestock grazing, maintaining information and education programs to control conflicts, monitoring populations and habitats, and requesting management and petitions for relisting if necessary. Recovery of the Yellowstone grizzly bear population is the result of ongoing partnerships between Federal and State agencies, the governors of these States, county and city governments, educational institutions, numerous nongovernmental organizations, private landowners, and the public who live, work, and recreate in the GYE. Just as recovery of the Yellowstone grizzly bear population could not have occurred without these excellent working relationships, maintenance of a recovered grizzly population will be the result of the continuation of these partnerships. The State plans and the State regulations describe and summarize the coordinated efforts required to manage the GYE grizzly bear population and its habitat such that its recovery is ensured. These State-based documents specify the general population, habitat, and nuisance bear management protocols necessary to manage human-caused mortality risk and maintain a recovered grizzly bear population. The State plans do not currently include detailed laws or regulations in reference to hunting management as described above under Factor B. The Federal and State plans and regulations document the existing Federal and State regulatory mechanisms and legal authorities, policies, management, and post-delisting monitoring plans that exist to maintain the recovered grizzly bear population. The primary components of habitat and population management committed to in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy have been (or will be) incorporated into legally binding frameworks such as National Forest Land Resource Management Plans, National Park Superintendent Compendiums, Tribal ordinances, and State Fish and Game Commission management regulations. The 2016 Conservation Strategy will remain in effect in perpetuity, beyond delisting and the 5-year monitoring period required by the Act as grizzly bears, like many other species, will always be “conservation-reliant” (Scott
The Forest Service manages nearly 68 percent (31,234 of 46,035 sq km (12,060 of 17,774 sq mi)) of suitable grizzly bear habitat within the GYE. Because the Forest Service does not manage direct take of grizzly bears, they amended their Land Management Plans in 2006 to include legally binding habitat standards. These amendments required levels of secure habitat, developed sites, and livestock allotments inside the PCA to be maintained at or improved upon 1998 levels to minimize human-caused mortality risk (USDA Forest Service 2006
While the habitat standards in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy that were incorporated into Forest Plans assure secure habitat and minimal human-caused mortality risk inside the PCA, other regulatory mechanisms ensure sufficient habitat protections outside the PCA. Of the 22,783 sq km (8,797 sq mi) of suitable habitat outside the PCA, the Forest Service manages 17,292 sq km (6,676 sq mi), or 76 percent. Of this 76 percent of suitable habitat outside of the PCA but within the DMA that the Forest Service manages, 39 percent is Designated Wilderness Area, 4 percent is Wilderness Study Area, and 36 percent is Inventoried Roadless Area. These designations provide regulatory mechanisms that protect grizzly bear habitat from increases in motorized use, oil and gas development, livestock allotments, and timber harvest.
Specifically, the Wilderness Act of 1964 does not allow road construction, new livestock allotments, or new oil, gas, and mining developments in designated Wilderness Areas. This means the 6,799 sq km (2,625 sq mi) of secure habitat outside of the PCA in Wilderness Areas is protected by an existing regulatory mechanism. This secure suitable habitat is biologically significant to the GYE grizzly bear DPS because it will allow population expansion into these areas that are minimally affected by humans. Wilderness study areas are designated by Federal land management agencies (
Inventoried Roadless Areas currently provide 4,891 sq km (1,888 sq mi) of secure habitat for grizzly bears outside of the PCA within the DPS boundaries. The 2001 Roadless Rule prohibits road
If delisting occurs, the Forest Service will classify grizzly bears in the GYE as a “species of conservation concern”—or the equivalent management designation—and will manage activities to provide for the needs of a recovered population (USDA Forest Service 2006
The National Park Service manages 20 percent (9,407 of 46,035 sq km (3,632 of 17,774 sq mi)) of suitable habitat within the DPS boundaries, all of which is in the PCA. Yellowstone National Park incorporated the habitat, population, monitoring, and nuisance bear standards described in the 2007 Conservation Strategy into their Superintendent's Compendium in 2014 (Yellowstone National Park 2014, p. 18) and Grand Teton National Park will do the same in their 2016 Compendium, before this proposed action is finalized. Grizzly bear hunting is not allowed in Yellowstone National Park or Grand Teton National Park. Within the John D. Rockefeller Jr. Memorial Parkway, the Secretary of the Interior is required to permit hunting in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, with exceptions for public safety, administration, or public use and enjoyment.
Together, the Eastern Shoshone Tribe and the Northern Arapaho Tribe manage wildlife and its habitat within the boundaries of the Wind River Reservation (see figure 2, above). Less than 3 percent of suitable habitat (1,360 sq km (525 sq mi)) is potentially affected by Tribal decisions, so their habitat management would never constitute a threat to the GYE grizzly bear population. No Tribal managed land occurs within the PCA. The Tribes' Grizzly Bear Management Plan (2009) will facilitate grizzly bear occupancy in areas of suitable habitat on the Wind River Reservation and allows grizzly bears access to high-elevation whitebark pine and army cutworm moth aggregation sites, thus allowing for additional resiliency of the GYE grizzly bear DPS in response to changing environmental conditions. The Wind River Reservation Forest Management Plan calls for no net increase in roads in the Wind River Roadless Area and the Monument Peak area of the Owl Creek Mountains. In the remaining portion of Tribal lands occupied by grizzly bears, open road densities of 1.6 km/sq km (1 mi/sq mi) or less will be maintained (Eastern Shoshone and Northern Arapaho Tribes 2009, p. 11). These Tribes do not allow hunting by non-Tribal members. If a limited hunt is approved by applicable Tribal mechanisms, it must be consistent with the demographic standards described under Factor B of this proposed rule and in the Tribal Grizzly Bear Management Plan (Eastern Shoshone and Northern Arapaho Tribes 2009, pp. 2, 9).
The three State grizzly bear management plans direct State land management agencies to maintain or improve habitats that are important to grizzly bears and to monitor population criteria outside the PCA. Idaho, Montana, and Wyoming have developed management plans for areas outside the PCA to: (1) Assure that the measures of the Act continue to be unnecessary for the grizzly bears in the GYE DPS; (2) support expansion of grizzly bears beyond the PCA, into areas of biologically and socially acceptable suitable habitat; and (3) manage grizzly bears as a game animal, including allowing regulated hunting when and where appropriate (in their entirety: Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting Advisory Team 2002; MTFWP 2002, 2013; WGFD 2005). The plans for all three States were completed in 2002, with Wyoming's plan amedned in 2005 and Montana's plan updated in 2013, and grizzly bears within the GYE DPS will be incorporated into existing game species management plans should we delist them.
If delisting is made final, the States of Wyoming, Montana, and Idaho will classify grizzly bears as game animals throughout the DPS boundaries. This status provides legal protection to grizzly bears by prohibiting unlimited or unwarranted killing of grizzly bears by the public. The regulatory mechanism proposed by States discussed under Factor B and in tables 1, 2, and 3, above, that would govern potential hunting seasons must be in place by law and regulation in each State for delisting to occur. We expect that these State statutory and regulatory changes will be made within the next several months.
Other regulations, such as timing and location of seasons, seasonal closure procedures, and licenses and fees would be devised by the States to minimize the possibility that total mortality limits of independent females are exceeded within the DMA (Idaho's Yellowstone Grizzly Bear Delisting Advisory Team 2002, p. 20; WGFD 2004, p. 20; MFWP 2013, p. 61).
Any grizzly bear hunting within the DMA would only occur if total annual mortality limits specified for the GYE grizzly bear DMA population are not exceeded as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above. Hunting limits would be regulated by State regulations as described above. The killing of grizzly bears in self-defense or defense of others by humans will continue to be allowed under both Federal (
The management of nuisance bears within the GYE grizzly bear DPS boundaries would be based upon existing laws and authorities of State wildlife agencies and Federal land management agencies, and directed by protocols established in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and State management plans. Inside the National Parks, Yellowstone or Grand Teton National Park grizzly bear biologists will continue to respond to grizzly bear-human conflicts. In all areas outside of the National Parks, State and Tribal wildlife agencies will continue responding to grizzly bear-human conflicts. The focus and intent of nuisance grizzly bear management inside and outside the PCA will be predicated on strategies and actions to prevent grizzly bear-human conflicts. State and Tribal management plans and State regulations provide the necessary regulatory framework and guidelines to State wildlife agencies for managing and maintaining a recovered GYE grizzly bear DPS inside of the DMA. Any
It is anticipated that take of grizzly bears would therefore would likely be strictly limited by hunting seasons and quotas and legally enforceable through laws and regulations concerning grizzly bears and other game animals in each State. We expect that State wildlife commissions would also promulgate regulations with commitments to coordinate hunting limits within the DMA among jurisdictions and within the total mortality limits calculated annually by the IGBST (see tables 1, 2, and 3, above, for details on these mortality limits) as described under Factor B. These regulations would constitute legally enforceable regulatory mechanisms and these regulations must be adopted and in place before the Service goes forward with a final delisting rule.
In summary, when the listing of the grizzly bear population was finalized in 1975, the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms was identified under Factor D as one of the threats to the population. Legally enforceable regulatory mechanisms that would be in place if this proposed rule is finalized and the GYE grizzly bear DPS is delisted include National Park Superintendent's Compendiums, the Forest Service Amendment for Grizzly Bear Habitat Conservation for the GYE National Forests, the Wind River Reservation regulations, and State Fish and Game Commission laws and regulations as per tables 1, 2, and 3 and as described under Factor B, above.
In addition to these regulatory mechanisms, after delisting, the Service will initiate a status review with possible emergency listing if changes in Federal, State, or Tribal laws, rules, regulations, or management plans depart significantly from the management details described in this section, thereby compromising implementation of the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy. In total, these mechanisms would provide an adequate regulatory framework within which the GYE grizzly bear population would continue to experience long-term population health within the DMA.
Based on this information, it is reasonable to conclude existing regulatory mechanisms, and those that would be enacted before this proposed rule is made final, are adequate to protect the GYE grizzly bear population if the protections of the Act were no longer in place. Therefore, based on the best available information, we conclude that the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms will not constitute a threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now or in the future if the appropriate regulatory mechanisms are adopted and maintained by the States in enforceable regulations before this proposed rule becomes final.
Factor E requires the Service to consider other natural or manmade factors affecting the continued existence of a species. Here, four other considerations warrant additional discussion regarding the GYE grizzly bear DPS: (1) Genetic health; (2) changes in food resources; (3) climate change; and (4) human attitudes toward grizzly bear conservation.
The isolated nature of the GYE grizzly bear population was identified as a potential threat when listed in 1975. Declines in genetic diversity are expected in isolated populations (Allendorf
Effective population size is a metric used by geneticists to distinguish between total population size and the actual number of individuals available to reproduce at any given time. For example, many individuals in a population may be too young to reproduce and, therefore, are not part of the “effective population size.” Short-term fitness (
While this current effective population size of approximately 469 animals is adequate to maintain genetic health in this population, 1 to 2 effective migrants from other grizzly bear populations every 10 years would maintain or enhance this level of genetic diversity and therefore assure genetic health in the long term (Mills and Allendorf 1996, pp. 1510, 1516; Newman and Tallmon 2001, pp. 1059-1061; Miller and Waits 2003, p. 4338) and benefit its long-term persistence (Boyce
To document natural connectivity between the GYE and the NCDE, Federal and State agencies will continue to monitor bear movements on the northern periphery of the GYE grizzly bear DPS boundaries and the southern edges of the NCDE using radio-telemetry and will collect genetic samples from all captured or dead bears to document possible gene flow between these two ecosystems (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 2). These genetic samples will detect migrants using an “assignment test” to identify the area from which individuals are most likely to have originated based on their unique genetic signature (Paetkau
Genetic concerns are not currently a threat to the GYE grizzly bear population (Miller and Waits 2003, p. 4338; Kamath
The IGBST currently monitors the productivity of four common grizzly bear foods in the GYE: whitebark pine seeds, army cutworm moths, winter-killed ungulates, and spawning cutthroat trout. While these are some of the highest calorie food sources available to grizzly bears in the GYE (Mealey 1975, pp. 84-86; Pritchard and Robbins 1990, p. 1647; Craighead
Grizzly bears primarily consume elk and bison as winter-killed carrion in the early spring, but also kill calves opportunistically and prey upon adults weakened during the fall breeding season. The availability of these ungulates is threatened by brucellosis (
A decline in the Yellowstone cutthroat trout population has resulted from a combination of factors: the introduction of nonnative lake trout (
Army cutworm moths aggregate on remote, high-elevation talus slopes where grizzly bears forage on them from mid-summer to late summer. Grizzly bears could potentially be disturbed by backcountry visitors (White
More details on the specific ways in which changes in ungulates, cutthroat trout, and army cutworm moths could affect the GYE grizzly bear population are discussed in detail in the 2007 final rule (72 FR 14866, March 29, 2007, pp. 14,928-14,933). Our analysis focuses on the potential impacts that the loss of whitebark pine could have on the GYE grizzly bear population. While we discussed notable declines in whitebark pine due to mountain pine beetle in the 2007 final rule, the data used to estimate population growth only went through 2002. The Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals questioned our conclusions about future population viability based on data gathered before the sharp decline in whitebark pine began (
Whitebark pine still faces the same threats reported in our 2007 final rule and reiterated in our 12-month finding for whitebark pine (76 FR 42631; July 19, 2011). Whitebark pine is currently warranted for protected status under the Act but that action is precluded by higher priority actions. This status is primarily the result of direct mortality due to white pine blister rust and mountain pine beetles but also less obvious impacts from climate change and fire suppression. For more details on the status of whitebark pine, please see the 2013 candidate notice of review (78 FR 70104; November 22, 2013).
During years of low whitebark pine seed availability, we know grizzly bear-human conflicts may increase as bears use lower elevation, less secure habitat within their home ranges (Gunther
For the Food Synthesis Report, the IGBST developed a comprehensive set of research questions and hypotheses to evaluate grizzly bear responses to changes in food resources. Specifically, the IGBST asked eight questions: (1) How diverse is the diet of GYE grizzly bears? (2) Has grizzly bear selection of whitebark pine habitat decreased as tree mortality increased? (3) Has grizzly bear body condition decreased as whitebark pine declined? (4) Has animal matter provided grizzly bears with an alternative food resource to declining whitebark pine? (5) Have grizzly bear movements increased during the period of whitebark pine decline (2000-2011)? (6) Has home range size increased as grizzly bears sought alterative foods, or has home range size decreased as grizzly bear density increased? (7) Has the number of human-caused grizzly bear mortalities increased as whitebark pine decreased? (8) Are changes in vital rates during the last decade associated more with decline in whitebark pine resources than increases in grizzly bear density? The preliminary answers to these questions are contained in the Synthesis Report and the final results have been (or will be) published in peer-reviewed journals (in their entirety: Schwartz
Key findings of the Synthesis Report are summarized below. To address the first question about how diverse GYE grizzly bear diets are, Gunther
In response to the seventh question, while land managers have little influence on how calories are spread across the landscape, we have much more influence on human-caused mortality risk. Consistent with findings from earlier studies, Haroldson
In response to the eight question, the IGBST found that while whitebark pine seed production can influence reproductive rates the following year, the overall fecundity rates during the last decade (2002-2011) did not decline when compared with data from 1983-2001 (IGBST 2013, p. 32). This is important because fecundity rates are a function of both litter size and the likelihood of producing a litter, the two ways in which whitebark pine seed production may affect reproduction. Although Schwartz
In contrast to previous studies that concluded increased mortality in poor whitebark pine years led to population decline in those years (Pease and Mattson 1999, p. 964), the IGBST found the population did not decline despite increased mortality in poor whitebark pine years. The conclusions of Pease and Mattson (1999, p. 964) are flawed. First and foremost, estimating population growth for individual, non-consecutive years, as Pease and Mattson (1999, p. 962) did, is “not legitimate” and results in an “incorrect estimate” (Eberhardt and Cherry 2000, p. 3257). Even assuming their methods of separating out individual, non-consecutive years of data for a species whose reproduction and survival are inextricably linked to multiple, consecutive years (
Earlier studies suggested that increased grizzly bear mortalities in poor whitebark pine years are a result of bears roaming more widely in search of foods and exposing themselves to higher mortality risk in roaded habitats at lower elevations. However, Costello
We recognize that changes in food resources can have some influence on population vital rates. These research questions and results do not refute that possibility, but the preponderance of evidence supports the conclusion that bears are finding sufficient alternative food resources to maintain body condition (Schwartz
While there was some concern that the rapid loss of whitebark pine could result in mortality rates similar to those experienced after the open-pit garbage dumps were closed in the early 1970s (Schwartz
Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem grizzly bears have high diet diversity (Gunther
The IGBST will continue to monitor annual production of common foods, grizzly bear-human conflicts, survival rates, reproductive rates, and the causes and locations of grizzly bear mortality, as detailed in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapters 3 and 4). These data provide the 2016 Conservation Strategy's signatory agencies with the scientific information necessary to inform and implement adaptive management (Holling 1978, pp. 11-16) actions in response to ecological changes that may impact the future of the GYE grizzly bear population. These management responses may involve increased habitat protection, increased mortality management, or a status review and emergency relisting of the population if management actions are unable to address the problems.
Grizzly bears are resourceful omnivores that will make behavioral adaptations regarding food acquisition (Schwartz
In
In summary, the best scientific and commercial data available regarding grizzly bear responses to food losses suggest this issue is not a threat to the GYE grizzly bear population and is not an impediment to long-term population persistence. Therefore, we conclude that changes in food resources do not constitute a threat to the GYE grizzly bear DPS now, nor is it anticipated to in the future.
Our analyses under the Act include consideration of observed or likely environmental changes resulting from ongoing and projected changes in climate. As defined by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the term “climate” refers to the mean and variability of different types of weather conditions over time, with 30 years being a typical period for such measurements, although shorter or longer periods also may be used (IPCC 2013
Scientific measurements spanning several decades demonstrate that changes in climate are occurring. In particular, warming of the climate system is unequivocal, and many of the observed changes in the last 60 years are unprecedented over decades to millennia (IPCC 2013
Examples of various other observed and projected changes in climate and associated effects and risks, and the bases for them, are provided for global and regional scales in recent reports issued by the IPCC (in their entirety: 2013
Scientists use a variety of climate models, which include consideration of natural processes and variability, as well as various scenarios of potential levels and timing of greenhouse gas emissions, to evaluate the causes of changes already observed and to project future changes in temperature and other climate conditions. Model results yield very similar projections of average global warming until about 2030, and thereafter the magnitude and rate of warming vary through the end of the century depending on the assumptions about population levels, emissions of greenhouse gases, and other factors that influence climate change. Thus, absent extremely rapid stabilization of greenhouse gas emissions at a global level, there is strong scientific support for projections that warming will continue through the 21st century, and that the magnitude and rate of change will be influenced substantially by human actions regarding greenhouse gas emissions (IPCC 2013
Global climate projections are informative, and, in some cases, the only or the best scientific information available for us to use. However, projected changes in climate and related impacts can vary substantially across and within different regions of the world (in their entirety: IPCC 2013
The hydrologic regime in the Rocky Mountains has changed and is projected to change further (Bartlein
The effects related to climate change may result in a number of changes to grizzly bear habitat, including a reduction in snowpack levels, shifts in denning times, shifts in the abundance and distribution of some natural food sources, and changes in fire regimes. Most grizzly bear biologists in the United States and Canada do not expect habitat changes predicted under climate change scenarios to directly threaten grizzly bears (Servheen and Cross 2010, p. 4). These changes may even make habitat more suitable and food sources more abundant. However, these ecological changes may also affect the timing and frequency of grizzly bear-human interactions and conflicts (Servheen and Cross 2010, p. 4).
Because timing of den entry and emergence is at least partially influenced by food availability and weather (Craighead and Craighead 1972, pp. 33-34; Van Daele
The effects related to climate change could create temporal and spatial shifts in grizzly bear food sources (Rodriguez
Fire regimes can affect the abundance and distribution of some vegetative bear foods (
Public support is paramount to any successful large carnivore conservation program (Servheen 1998, p. 67). Historically, human attitudes played a primary role in grizzly bear population declines by promoting a culture and government framework that encouraged excessive, unregulated, human-caused mortality. Through government-endorsed eradication programs and perceived threats to human life and economic livelihood, humans settling the West were able to effectively eliminate most known grizzly bear populations after only 100 years of westward expansion.
We have seen a change in public perceptions and attitudes toward the grizzly bear in the last several decades. The same government that once financially supported active extermination of the bear now uses its resources to protect the great symbol of American wildness. This change in government policy and practice is a product of changing public attitudes about the grizzly bear. Although attitudes about grizzly bears vary geographically and demographically, there has been a revival of positive attitudes toward the grizzly bear and its conservation (Kellert
Public outreach presents a unique opportunity to effectively integrate human and ecological concerns into comprehensive programs that can modify societal beliefs about, perceptions of, and behaviors toward grizzly bears. Attitudes toward wildlife are shaped by numerous factors including basic wildlife values, biological and ecological understanding of species, perceptions about individual
Traditionally, residents of the GYE involved in resource extraction industries, such as loggers, miners, livestock operators, and hunting guides, are opposed to land-use restrictions that place the needs of the grizzly bear above human needs (Kellert 1994, p. 48; Kellert
Ultimately, the future of the grizzly bear will be based on the people who live, work, and recreate in grizzly bear habitat and the willingness and ability of these people to learn to coexist with the grizzly bear and to accept this animal as a cohabitant of the land. Other management strategies are unlikely to succeed without effective and innovative public information and education programs. The objective of the public outreach program is to proactively address grizzly bear-human conflicts by informing the public about the root causes of these conflicts and providing suggestions on how to prevent them. By increasing awareness of grizzly bear behavior and biology, we hope to enhance public involvement and appreciation of the grizzly bear. In addition to public outreach programs, the States have implemented other programs to help reduce conflicts with the people that are directly affected by grizzly bears. These efforts include livestock carcass removal programs, electric fencing subsidies for apiaries and orchards, and sharing costs of bear-resistant garbage bins where appropriate.
Although some human-caused grizzly bear mortalities are unintentional (
From 1980 through 2002, at least 36 percent (72 out of 196) of human-caused mortalities may have been avoided if relevant information and education materials had been presented, understood, and used by involved parties (Servheen
Outside the PCA, State wildlife agencies recognize that the key to preventing grizzly bear-human conflicts is providing information and education to the public. State grizzly bear management plans also acknowledge that this is the most effective long-term solution to grizzly bear-human conflicts and that adequate public outreach programs are paramount to ongoing grizzly bear survival and successful coexistence with humans in the GYE so that the measures of the Act continue to not be necessary. All three States have been actively involved in information and education outreach for over a decade and their respective management plans contain chapters detailing efforts to continue current programs and expand them when possible. For example, the WGFD created a formal grizzly bear-human conflict management program in July 1990, and has coordinated an extensive information and education program since then. Similarly, since 1993, MTFWP has implemented countless public outreach efforts to minimize bear-human conflicts, and the IDFG has organized and implemented education programs and workshops focused on private and public lands on the western periphery of the grizzly bear's range.
Compensating ranchers for losses caused by grizzly bears is another approach to build support for coexistence between livestock operators and grizzly bears. In cases of grizzly bear livestock depredation that have been verified by USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's Wildlife Services, IDFG, MTFWP, or WGFD, affected livestock owners are compensated. Since 1997, compensation in Montana and Idaho has been provided primarily by private organizations, principally Defenders of Wildlife. Since the program's inception in 1997, the Defenders of Wildlife Grizzly Bear Compensation Trust paid over $400,000 to livestock operators in the northern Rockies for confirmed and probable livestock losses to grizzly bears (Edge 2013, entire). In 2013, the State of Montana passed legislation establishing a compensation program for direct livestock losses caused by grizzly bears (MCA 2-15-3113). In light of this legislation, Defenders of Wildlife stopped their compensation program in Montana and redirected funds to other conflict prevention programs. Defenders of Wildlife continues to compensate livestock producers in Idaho. In Wyoming, compensation has always been paid directly by the State. Upon delisting, both Idaho and Wyoming's grizzly bear management plans call for
Factor E requires the Service to consider other natural or man-made factors affecting a species' continued existence. The following factors warranted consideration as possible threats to the GYE grizzly bear population: (1) Genetic health, (2) potential changes in food resources, (3) climate change, and (4) human attitudes toward grizzly bear recovery. We do not consider genetic concerns to be a threat for the following reasons: we have an effective population size more than four times that recommended by the best available science; we know levels of genetic diversity have not declined in the last century; we know current levels of genetic diversity are sufficient to support healthy reproduction and survival; and we know that genetic contribution from individual bears outside of the GYE will not be necessary for the next several decades (Miller and Waits 2003, p. 4338; Kamath
Many of the threats faced by grizzly bears are interrelated and could be synergistic. Principal threats discussed above include habitat loss through road building and the resulting increased human access to grizzly bear habitat, human-caused mortality of grizzly bears, and the legal mechanisms that direct habitat and population management. The principal threats assessed in previous sections may cumulatively impact the GYE grizzly bear population beyond the scope of each individual threat. For example, the loss of whitebark pine could lead to lower survival rates at the same time of the year when grizzly bears are vulnerable to human-caused mortality from elk hunting. Alternatively, expected increases in human populations across the West and climate change both have the potential to increase grizzly bear conflicts and human-caused mortality. Historically, each of these factors impacted grizzly bears in the GYE and cumulatively acted to reduce their range and abundance over time. Today, these stressors have been adequately mitigated and do not impact the GYE grizzly bear population with the same intensity.
While these numerous stressors on grizzly bear persistence are challenging to conservation, our experience demonstrates that it is possible for large carnivore conservation to be compatible with them (Linnell
The primary factors related to past habitat destruction and modification have been reduced through changes in management practices that have been or will be formally incorporated into regulatory documents. Maintenance of the 1998 baseline values for secure habitat, developed sites on public lands, and livestock allotments inside the PCA will adequately ameliorate the multitude of stressors on grizzly bear habitat such that they do not become threats to the GYE grizzly bear population in the future. We expect many of the threats discussed under Factor A to continue to occur at some level, but they are sufficiently ameliorated so they only affect a small proportion of the population. If and when delisting occurs, the GYE National Forests and National Parks will continue to implement and maintain the 1998 baseline. Together, these two Federal agencies manage 98 percent of lands within the PCA and 88 percent of all suitable habitat within the DPS boundaries. Suitable habitat outside the PCA provides additional ecological resiliency and habitat redundancy to allow the population to respond to environmental changes. Habitat protections specifically for grizzly bear conservation are not necessary here because other binding regulatory mechanisms that limit development and
The resumption of legal grizzly bear hunting for commercial and recreational purposes in the GYE was the primary post-delisting threat to the population under Factor B. Since 1975, no grizzly bears have been removed from the GYE for commercial, recreational, scientific, or education purposes. Inside the DMA, the population has stabilized since 2002 and is exhibiting density dependent population regulation (van Manen
When grizzly bears were listed in 1975, we identified “indiscriminate illegal killing,” and management removals as threats to the population under Factor C. In response, we implemented demographic recovery criteria to maintain a minimum population size, a well-distributed population, and establish total mortality limits based on scientific data and direct monitoring of the population. Since implementing these criteria, the GYE grizzly bear population has tripled in size and range (Eberhardt
The importance of regulatory mechanisms and effective wildlife management infrastructure to large carnivore conservation cannot be understated, as stated under Factor D (see Linnell
Other factors, under Factor E, we considered that could become threats to the GYE grizzly bear population included: (1) Genetic health, (2) potential changes in food resources, (3) climate change, and (4) human attitudes toward grizzly bear recovery. Essentially, the management response to all of these potential threats would be to limit human-caused mortality through conflict prevention and management as well as managing discretionary mortality. Because of the manageable nature of these potential threats through conflict prevention and response efforts and the large amount of suitable, secure habitat within the GYE we do not expect other natural or manmade factors to become threats to the GYE grizzly bear population.
Many of the threats faced by grizzly bears are interrelated and could cumulatively impact the GYE grizzly bear population through excessive grizzly bear mortality. While these numerous stressors on grizzly bear persistence are challenging to conservation, our experience demonstrates it is possible for large carnivore conservation to be compatible with them (Linnell
An assessment of the need for a species' protection under the Act is based on whether a species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so because of any of five factors: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. As required by section 4(a)(1) of the Act, we conducted a review of the status of this species and assessed the five factors to evaluate whether the GYE grizzly bear DPS is endangered or threatened throughout all of its range. We examined the best scientific and commercial information available regarding the past, present, and future threats faced by the species.
In considering what factors might constitute threats, we must look beyond the mere exposure of the species to the factor to determine whether the exposure causes actual impacts to the species. If there is exposure to a factor and the species responds negatively, the factor may be a threat and we then attempt to determine how significant the threat is. If the threat is significant, it may drive, or contribute to, the risk of extinction of the species such that the species warrants listing as endangered or threatened as those terms are defined by the Act. Alternatively, some threats may be significant enough to contribute to the risk of extinction but are adequately ameliorated through active conservation and management efforts so that the risk is low enough that it does
As demonstrated in our five-factor analysis, threats to this population and its habitat have been sufficiently minimized and the GYE grizzly bear DPS is a biologically recovered population. Multiple, independent lines of evidence support this interpretation. Counts of females with cubs-of-the-year have increased. Since at least 2001, the demographic recovery criterion that requires 16 of the 18 BMUs to be occupied with females with young has been met. The Recovery Plan target for a minimum population size of 500 animals inside the DMA to assure genetic health has been met since at least 2007, using the conservative model-averaged Chao2 estimate. Calculations of population trajectory derived from radio-monitored female bears show an increasing population trend at a rate of 4 to 7 percent per year from 1983 through 2001 (Eberhardt
Grizzly bears occupied 84 percent of suitable habitat within the DPS boundaries as of 2014 (Haroldson 2014,
During our analysis, we did not identify any factors alone or in combination that are likely to reach a magnitude that would threaten the continued existence of the species. Significant threats identified at the time of listing that could have resulted in the extirpation of the population have been eliminated or reduced since listing. We conclude that known impacts to the GYE grizzly bear population from the loss of secure habitat and development on public lands (Factor A); unregulated, excessive human-caused mortality (Factors B and C); a lack of regulatory mechanisms to manage habitat and population (Factor D); and genetic isolation, changes to food resources, climate change, or negative public attitudes (Factor E), do not rise to a level of significance, such that the population is in danger of extinction now or in the future. Thus, based on our assessment of the best scientific and commercial information available and on our expectation that current management practices will continue into the future, and that State regulations will be in place prior to delisting to regulate total mortality as per table 2 and Factor B, above, we therefore determine that the GYE grizzly bear DPS has recovered to the point at which protection under the Act is no longer required. The best scientific and commercial data available indicate that the GYE grizzly bear DPS is no longer endangered or threatened should appropriate regulatory mechanisms be developed by the States, as described in this proposed rule.
Having determined that the GYE grizzly bear DPS is not in danger of extinction or likely to become so in the foreseeable future throughout all of its range, we next consider whether there are any significant portions of its range in which the GYE grizzly bear DPS is in danger of extinction or likely to become so. Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is in danger of extinction or likely to become so throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The Act defines “endangered species” as any species, which is “in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range,” and “threatened species” as any species which is “likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” The term “species” includes “any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment [DPS] of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature.” We published a final policy interpreting the phrase “significant portion of its range” (SPR) (79 FR 37578; July 1, 2014). The final policy states that (1) if a species is found to be endangered or threatened throughout a significant portion of its range, the entire species is listed as endangered or threatened, respectively, and the Act's protections apply to all individuals of the species wherever found; (2) a portion of the range of a species is “significant” if the species is not currently endangered or threatened throughout all of its range, but the portion's contribution to the viability of the species is so important that, without the members in that portion, the species would be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future, throughout all of its range; (3) the range of a species is considered to be the general geographical area within which that species can be found at the time the Service or the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) makes any particular status determination; and (4) if a vertebrate species is endangered or threatened throughout an SPR, and the population in that significant portion is a valid DPS, we will list the DPS rather than the entire taxonomic species or subspecies.
The SPR policy is applied to all status determinations, including analyses for the purposes of making listing, delisting, and reclassification determinations. The procedure for analyzing whether any portion is an SPR is similar, regardless of the type of status determination we are making. The first step in our analysis of the status of a species is to determine its status throughout all of its range. If we determine that the species is in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future, throughout all of its range, we list the species as an endangered species (or threatened species) and no SPR analysis will be required. If the species is neither in danger of extinction nor likely to become so throughout all of its range, we next determine whether the species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so throughout a significant portion of its range. If it is, we list the species as an endangered species or threatened species, respectively; if it is not, we conclude that listing the species is not warranted.
When we conduct an SPR analysis, we first identify any portions of the species' range that warrant further consideration. The range of a species can theoretically be divided into
If we identify any portions or a range that may both (1) be significant and (2) contain populations that are in danger of extinction or likely to become so, we engage in a more detailed analysis to determine whether these standards are indeed met. As discussed above, to determine whether a portion of the range of a species is significant, we consider whether, under a hypothetical scenario, the portion's contribution to the viability of the species is so important that, without the members in that portion, the species would be in danger of extinction or likely to become so in the foreseeable future throughout all of its range. This analysis will consider the contribution of that portion to the viability of the species based on principles of conservation biology. Contribution would be evaluated using the concepts of redundancy, resiliency, and representation. (These concepts can similarly be expressed in terms of abundance, spatial distribution, productivity, and diversity.) The identification of an SPR does not create a presumption, prejudgment, or other determination as to whether the species in that identified SPR is endangered or threatened. We must go through a separate analysis to determine whether the species is in danger of extinction or likely to become so in the SPR. To determine whether a species is endangered or threatened throughout an SPR, we will use the same standards and methodology that we use to determine if a species is endangered or threatened throughout its range.
Depending on the biology of the species, its range, and the threats it faces, it may be more efficient to address the “significant” question first, or the status question first. Thus, if we determine that a portion of the range is not “significant,” we do not need to determine whether the species is endangered or threatened there; if we determine that the species is not endangered or threatened in a portion of its range, we do not need to determine if that portion is “significant.”
Applying the process described above, we evaluated the range of the GYE grizzly bear population to determine if any area could be considered a significant portion of its 50,280 sq km (19,413 sq mi) range (Bjornlie
After determining there are no natural divisions delineating separate portions of the GYE grizzly bear population, we next examined whether any threats are geographically concentrated in some way that would indicate the species could be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so, in that area. Through our review of potential threats, we identified greater mortality risk in the areas on the periphery of the population's range. More grizzly bear mortality occurs toward the periphery of its range, as evidenced by lower population growth rates in these areas (Schwartz
Because we identified areas on the periphery of the range as warranting further consideration due to the geographic concentration of mortality risk there, we then evaluated whether these areas are significant to the GYE grizzly bear population such that, without the members in that portion, the entire population would be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future, throughout all of its range.
These peripheral areas do not support grizzly bear reproduction or survival because bears that repeatedly come into conflict with humans or livestock are usually either relocated or removed from these areas. Bears in these peripheral areas will not establish self-sustaining, year-round populations due to a lack of suitable habitat, land ownership patterns, and the lack of traditional, natural grizzly bear foods (
The core population inside the DMA is resilient, and its distribution provides the necessary redundancy to offset loss of individual bears in peripheral areas. The areas that may experience higher mortality rates represent a very small proportion of the range, and an even smaller proportion of the total number of animals in the GYE grizzly bear population. Moreover, if bears in these peripheral areas were in fact lost, that would not appreciably reduce the long-term viability of the GYE grizzly bear population, much less cause the population in the remainder of its range to be in danger of extinction or likely to become so. Therefore, there is not substantial information that the peripheral portions of the GYE grizzly bear population's range are significant to the rest of the population.
After careful examination of the GYE grizzly bear population in the context of our definition of “significant portion of its range,” we determined areas on the periphery of the range warranted further consideration because human-caused mortality risk threats are geographically concentrated there. After identifying these areas, we evaluated whether they were significant and determined they were not significant because, even without the grizzly bears in these areas, the GYE grizzly bear DPS would not be in danger of extinction, or likely to become so in the foreseeable future. These areas will likely never contribute meaningfully to the GYE grizzly bear population because of lack of suitable habitat and loss of traditional grizzly bear foods (
This proposal, if made final, would revise 50 CFR 17.11(h) to remove the GYE grizzly bear DPS from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife. The prohibitions and conservation measures provided by the Act, particularly through sections 7 and 9, would no longer apply to this DPS. Federal agencies would no longer be required to consult with the Service under section 7 of the Act in the event that activities they authorize, fund, or carry out may affect the GYE grizzly bear population. However, actions within the DPS would still be managed by State, Tribal, and Federal laws, regulations, policies, and management plans ensuring enforcement of the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy. Delisting the GYE grizzly bear DPS is expected to have positive effects in terms of management flexibility to the States and local governments. The full protections of the Act, including section 4(d)(50 CFR 17.40) would still continue to apply to grizzly bears in other portions of the lower 48-States outside the GYE grizzly bear DPS' boundaries. Those grizzly bears outside the GYE DPS will remain fully protected by the Act.
Section 4(g)(1) of the Act requires us to implement a system, in cooperation with the States, to monitor for at least 5 years all delisted and recovered species. The primary purpose of this requirement is to ensure that the recovered species does not deteriorate, and if an unanticipated decline is detected, to take measures to halt the decline to avoid relisting. If data indicate that protective status under the Act should be reinstated, we will initiate listing procedures, including, if appropriate, emergency listing. For the GYE grizzly bear population, the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy serves as the post-delisting monitoring plan. The 2016 Conservation Strategy will remain in effect beyond the 5-year monitoring period required by the Act because grizzly bears are a “conservation-reliant” species (Scott
To ensure the long-term conservation of grizzly bear habitat and continued recovery of the GYE grizzly bear population, several monitoring programs and protocols have been developed and integrated into land management agency planning documents. The draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and appended State grizzly bear management plans satisfy the requirements for having a post-delisting monitoring plan for the GYE grizzly bear population. Monitoring programs and a coordinated approach to management would continue in perpetuity. Monitoring programs will focus on assessing whether demographic and habitat standards described in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy are being achieved and maintained.
Within the PCA, the IGBST will continue to monitor habitat standards and adherence to the 1998 baseline. The IGBST will report on levels of secure habitat, developed sites, and livestock allotments annually and these will not be allowed to deviate from 1998 baseline values unless changes were to be beneficial to grizzly bears (USDA Forest Service 2006
Within the DMA, the IGBST will continue to document population trends, distribution, survival and birth rates, and the presence of alleles from grizzly bear populations outside the GYE grizzly bear DPS boundaries to document gene flow into the population. Throughout the DPS boundaries, locations of grizzly bear mortalities on private lands will be provided to the IGBST for incorporation into their annual report. To examine reproductive rates, survival rates, causes of death, and overall population trends, the IGBST will radio collar and monitor a minimum of 25 adult female grizzly bears every year. These bears will be spatially distributed throughout the ecosystem so they provide a representative sample of the entire population inside the DMA. Mortalities will be monitored and reported annually and maintained in accordance with the total mortality limits and population objectives in table 2, above.
Outside of the PCA, the GYE National Forests will monitor agreed-upon habitat parameters in suitable habitat and will calculate secure habitat values outside of the PCA every 2 years and submit these data for inclusion in the IGBST's annual report (USDA Forest Service 2006
In the 2007 final rule (72 FR 14866; March 29, 2007), we reported habitat quality and effectiveness values for 1998 using the Cumulative Effects Model and associated 1998 habitat data (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2007, appendix F). Since 1998, the value of the Cumulative Effects Model has been questioned (Boyce
While the inverse relationship between whitebark pine cone production and grizzly bear conflicts in the Yellowstone Ecosystem has been documented (Mattson
To address the possible “lag effect” associated with slow habitat degradation taking a decade or more to translate into detectable changes in population size (see Doak 1995), the IGBST will monitor a suite of indices simultaneously to provide a highly sensitive system to monitor the health of the population and its habitat and to provide a sound scientific basis to respond to any changes or needs with adaptive management actions (Holling 1978, pp. 11-16). This “lag effect” is only a concern if the sole method to detect changes in habitat is monitoring changes in total population size (see Doak 1995, p. 1376). The monitoring systems in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 2) are far more detailed and sophisticated and would detect changes in vital rates in response to habitat changes sooner than the system described by Doak (1995, pp. 1371-1372). The IGBST will be monitoring a suite of vital rates including survival of radio-collared bears, mortality of all bears, reproductive success, litter size, litter interval, number of females with cubs, distribution of females with cubs, and overall population trajectory, in addition to the physical condition of bears by monitoring body mass and body fat levels of each bear handled. Because of the scope of monitoring, we feel confident that we will be able to detect the consequences of significant changes in habitat.
Monitoring systems in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy allow for adaptive management (Holling 1978, pp. 11-16) as environmental issues change. The agencies have committed in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy to be responsive to the needs of the grizzly bear through adaptive management (Holling 1978, pp. 11-16) actions based on the results of detailed annual population and habitat monitoring. These monitoring efforts would reflect the best scientific and commercial data and any new information that has become available since the delisting determination. The entire process would be dynamic so that when new science becomes available it will be incorporated into the management planning and monitoring systems outlined in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, chapters 2, 3, and 4). The results of this extensive monitoring would allow wildlife and land managers to identify and address potential threats preemptively, allowing those managers and the Service to ensure that the GYE grizzly bear population remains a recovered population.
The YGCC will use the IGBST's monitoring results and annual reports to determine if the population and habitat standards are being adhered to. The States, Tribes, and National Parks will use the IGBST's annually produced model-averaged Chao2 population estimates to set and establish total mortality limits within the DMA as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above. The 2016 Conservation Strategy signatories have agreed that if there are deviations from certain population or habitat standards, the IGBST will conduct a Biology and Monitoring Review as described under Factor B, above. A Biology and Monitoring Review would be initiated if any of the following scenarios occur (as further described under Factor B, above): (1) Exceeding the total mortality limit for independent females for 3 consecutive years; (2) exceeding the total mortality limits for independent males for 3 consecutive years; (3) exceeding the total mortality limit for dependent young for 3 consecutive years; (4) failure to meet the distribution criterion requiring sightings of females with offspring in at least 16 of 18 BMUs in 2 consecutive years. In addition to the scenarios described under Factor B, a Biology and Monitoring Review by the IGBST would be initiated if there were a failure to meet any of the habitat standards described in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy pertaining to levels of secure habitat, developed sites, and livestock allotments. These IGBST reviews were established to detect deviations that may occur due to normal variability or chance events and do not necessarily mean the GYE grizzly bear's status is deteriorating. As such, they are more easily activated than those that trigger a Service status review under the Act. These triggers could indicate the need to adjust management approaches and are intended to provide the YGCC with ample time to respond with
An IGBST Biology and Monitoring Review examines habitat management, population management, or monitoring efforts of participating agencies with an objective of identifying the source or cause of failing to meet a habitat or demographic goal. This review also will provide management recommendations to correct any such deviations. A Biology and Monitoring Review could occur if funding becomes inadequate to the implementation of the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy to such an extent that it compromised the recovered status of the GYE grizzly bear population. If the review is triggered by failure to meet a population goal, the review would involve a comprehensive review of vital rates including survival rates, litter size, litter interval, grizzly bear-human conflicts, and mortalities. The IGBST will attempt to identify the reason behind any variation in vital rates such as habitat conditions, poaching, excessive roadkill, etc., and determine if these compromise the recovered status of the population. Similarly, if the review was triggered by failure to meet a habitat standard, the review would examine what caused the failure, whether this requires that the measures of the Act are necessary to assure the recovered status of the population, and what actions may be taken to correct the problem. The IGBST would complete this review and release it to the public within 6 months of initiation and make it available to the YGCC and the public.
The YGCC responds to a Biology and Monitoring Review with actions to address deviations from habitat standards or, if the desired population and habitat standards specified in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy cannot be met in the opinion of the YGCC, the YGCC could petition us for relisting (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service 2016, Chapter 6). Because the YGCC possesses substantial information about the population's status, the Service would respond by conducting a status review to determine if relisting is warranted.
The Service can also initiate a status review independent of the IGBST or the YGCC should the total mortality limits be exceeded by a significant margin or routinely violated or if substantial management changes occur significant enough to raise concerns about population level impacts. Emergency relisting of the population is an option we can and will use, if necessary, in accordance with section 4(g)(2) of the Act, if the threat(s) were severe and immediate (16 U.S.C. 1533(g)). Such an emergency relisting would be effective the day the rule is published in the
Should we finalize this proposal and delist the GYE grizzly bear population, we will use the information in IGBST annual reports and adherence to total mortality limits as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above, to determine if a formal status review is necessary. Because we anticipate the YGCC and IGBST are fully committed to maintaining GYE grizzly bear population management and habitat management through implantation of the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and State and Federal management plans, and to correct any problems through the process established in the draft 2016 Conservation Strategy and described in the preceding section, we created a higher threshold for criteria that would trigger a formal Service status review. Specifically, the following scenarios would result in a formal status review by the Service: (1) Any changes in Federal, State, or Tribal laws, rules, regulations, or management plans that depart significantly from the specifics of population or habitat management detailed in this proposed rule and significantly increase the threat to the population; or (2) if the population falls below 500 in any year using the model-averaged Chao2 method, or counts of females with cubs fall below 48 for 3 consecutive years; or (3) if independent female total mortality limits as per tables 1, 2, and 3, above, are exceeded for 3 consecutive years and the population is fewer than 600; or (4) if fewer than 16 of 18 bear management units are occupied by females with young for 3 consecutive 6-year sums of observations. For example, if independent female total mortality limits were exceeded in 3 of 4 years, but they were not 3 consecutive years, the Service would conduct a status review.
Status reviews and relisting decisions would be based on the best available scientific and commercial data available. If a status review is triggered, the Service would evaluate the status of the GYE grizzly bear population to determine if relisting is warranted. We would make prompt use of the Act's emergency listing provisions if necessary to prevent a significant risk to the well-being of the GYE grizzly bear population. We have the authority to emergency relist at any time, and a completed status review is not necessary to exercise this emergency relisting authority.
We are required by Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
• Be logically organized;
• Use the active voice to address readers directly;
• Use clear language rather than jargon;
• Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
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If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments (59 FR 22951), E.O. 13175, and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretarial Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with Tribes in developing programs for
Beginning in April 2014, the Grizzly Bear Recovery Program sent via registered mail consultation invitation letters to the four Tribes having treaty interests in the proposed GYE grizzly bear delisting area: Northern Arapaho, Eastern Shoshone, Northwestern Band of the Shoshone Nation, and Shoshone-Bannock Tribes. Over the next year, the Service was made aware of many more Tribes having an interest in the GYE grizzly bear and expanded our efforts in explaining the status of the bear and offering government-to-government consultation to Tribes. On February 17, 2015, the Service sent letters offering government-to-government consultation to 26 Tribes. On June 15, 2015, the Service sent out a second round of letters to 48 Tribes, offering another opportunity for consultation, followed by personal phone calls or emails from Service leadership to the 48 Tribes, personally inviting them to engage in government-to-government consultation. On August 13, 2015, the Service met with the Rocky Mountain Tribal Leaders Council in Billings, Montana, and invited Tribal representative to engage in consultation concerning the bear. On October 29, 2015, the Service sent letters to 53 Tribes, which included all Tribes, Tribal Councils, and First Nations in Canada that have contacted the Service regarding the GYE grizzly bear population. The letters invited Federal Tribes to engage in government-to-government consultation, and invited all Tribes to participate in a Tribal webinar and conference call. To date, the Service has conducted five Tribal consultations. The Service will conduct two additional Tribal consultation meetings with federally recognized Tribes. The locations for these meetings are not yet available; we will post them on our Web site at
A complete list of all references cited in this proposed rule is available at
The primary authors of this proposed rule are staff members of the Service's Grizzly Bear Recovery Office (see
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and record keeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we hereby propose to amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
(h) * * *
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule discusses the implementation of a new Medicare payment model under section 1115A of the Social Security Act (the Act). We propose the Part B Drug Payment Model as a two-phase model that would test whether alternative drug payment designs will lead to a reduction in Medicare expenditures, while preserving or enhancing the quality of care provided to Medicare beneficiaries. The first phase would involve changing the 6 percent add-on to Average Sales Price (ASP) that we use to make drug payments under Part B to 2.5 percent plus a flat fee (in a budget neutral manner). The second phase would implement value-based purchasing tools similar to those employed by commercial health plans, pharmacy benefit managers, hospitals, and other entities that manage health benefits and drug utilization. We believe this model will further our goals of smarter, that is, more efficient spending on quality care for Medicare beneficiaries.
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Comments received timely will also be available for public inspection as they are received, generally beginning approximately 3 weeks after publication of a document, at the headquarters of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244, Monday through Friday of each week from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m. To schedule an appointment to view public comments, phone 1-800-743-3951.
Because of the many terms to which we refer by acronym in this proposed rule, we are listing these abbreviations and their corresponding terms in alphabetical order below:
Part B includes a limited drug benefit that encompasses drugs and biologicals described in section 1861(t) of the Act. For the purposes of this proposed rule, the term “drugs” refers to drugs and biologicals paid under the Part B program, as well as biosimilars. Currently covered Part B drugs fall into three general categories: drugs furnished incident to a physician's services, drugs administered via a covered item of durable medical equipment (DME), and other drugs specified by statute. Based on our claims data, we estimate total Part B payments for separately paid drugs in 2015 were $22 billion (this includes cost sharing). In 2007, the total payments were $11 billion; the average annual increase since 2007 has been 8.6 percent.
The purpose of this proposed rule is to test a new payment model called the Part B Drug Payment Model under the authority of the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation (Innovation Center). Section 1115A of the Act authorizes the Innovation Center to test innovative payment and service delivery models to reduce program expenditures while preserving or enhancing the quality of care furnished to Medicare, Medicaid, and Children's Health Insurance Program beneficiaries. We propose to exercise this authority to test whether the alternative drug payment designs discussed in this proposed rule will lead to spending our dollars more wisely for drugs paid under Part B, that is, a reduction in Medicare expenditures, while preserving or enhancing the quality of care provided to Medicare beneficiaries.
Many Part B drugs, including drugs furnished in the hospital outpatient setting, are paid using the methodology in section 1847A of the Act. In most cases, this means payment is based on the Average Sales Price (ASP) plus a statutorily mandated 6 percent add-on. Under this methodology, expensive drugs receive higher add-on payment amounts than inexpensive drugs while there are no clear incentives for providing high value care, including drug therapy. We propose a two phase model to test whether alternative payment approaches for Part B drugs improve value (relative to current drug payment approaches under Part B), improve outcomes and reduce expenditures for Part B drugs. This model's goals are also consistent with the Administration's broader strategy to encourage better care, smarter spending, and healthier people by paying providers and suppliers for what works, unlocking health care data, and finding new ways to coordinate and integrate care to improve quality. (
Medicare pays for most drugs that are administered in a physician's office or the hospital outpatient department at ASP+ 6 percent as described in section 1847A of the Act. The payment for these drugs does not include costs for administering the drug to a patient (for example by injection or infusion); payments for these physician and hospital services are made separately, and payment amounts are determined under the physician fee schedule (PFS) (
The following paragraphs present a brief summary of our proposals. Additional details are discussed later in this proposed rule. We propose two phases for the Part B Drug Payment Model. In phase I of the model, we propose implementing a variation to the add-on component of Part B drug payment methodology in different geographic areas of the country. We would test whether the proposed alternative approach for the ASP add-on payment, which is discussed later in this proposed rule, would strengthen the financial incentive for physicians to choose higher value drugs. To eliminate selection bias, we are proposing to require participation for all providers and suppliers furnishing any Part B drugs included in the Part B Drug Payment Model who are located in the geographic areas that are selected for inclusion in the model. We propose to implement this first phase of the overall model no earlier than 60 days following display of the final rule. While this approach addresses the add-on to the manufacturer's ASP, it does not directly address the manufacturer's ASP, which is a more significant driver of drug expenditures than the add-on payment amount for Part B drugs. For a given HCPCS code, the add-on represents about 6 percent of an ASP-based Part B drug payment; the remaining 94 percent of the payment is calculated from the manufacturers' reported ASP data.
In phase II of this model, we propose to implement value-based purchasing (VBP) in conjunction with the phase I variation of the ASP add-on payment amount for drugs paid under Part B. Phase II would use tools currently employed by commercial health plans, pharmacy benefit managers (PBMs), hospitals, and other entities that manage health benefits and drug utilization. These tools have been used for years with positive results, and we believe that some of these successful approaches may be adaptable to Part B. We propose to apply one or more tools, such as indication-based pricing, reference pricing, and clinical decision support tools to Part B drugs. We will test whether the implementation of the tools affects expenditures and outcomes.
In addition to the proposals and comment solicitations associated with phase I and phase II, we also solicit comments on how to create value-based purchasing arrangements with manufacturers under Medicare fee-for-service (FFS) payment for drugs; on whether we should consider implementing an updated version of the Competitive Acquisition Program (CAP); and whether we should pursue a more bundled or episode-based approach that moves beyond an FFS payment structure. We would consider all comments on these two solicitations for future rulemaking.
Under the model, we propose that providers and suppliers, in a selected geographic area, who are furnishing a covered and separately paid Part B drug that is included in this model, would receive alternative Part B drug payments. Within such selected areas, examples of providers and suppliers that Medicare commonly pays for Part B drugs include: physicians, durable medical equipment (DME) suppliers (including certain pharmacies that furnish Part B drugs), and hospital outpatient departments that furnish and bill for Part B drugs. There will be no specific enrollment activities for providers, suppliers, or beneficiaries in this model; the furnishing of Part B drugs in a particular geographic area will determine participation. We propose to require all providers and suppliers to participate in the model if furnishing Part B drugs included in the model and located in a geographic area that is chosen for participation in the model. We propose to determine a provider or supplier's specific geographic location based on the service location ZIP code for physician drug claims, the beneficiary ZIP code for DME supply claims, and the ZIP code for the address associated with the CMS certification number (CCN) for hospital outpatient claims. We propose to use Primary Care Service Areas (PCSAs) as the geographic area. We propose random assignment of all PCSAs to one of four groups: the three test arms (paying a modified ASP add-on amount, implementation of VBP tools, and both modified ASP add-on and VBP tools at the same time) or a fourth control group. We propose to include the majority of drugs paid under Part B in the model; in general, this means drugs that appear on the quarterly ASP Price Files. We propose to exclude some categories of drugs, including drugs separately billed by End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) facilities from the proposed Part B Drug Payment Model.
We propose that the model would run for five years; phase I would begin in the fall of 2016 (no earlier than 60 days after the rule is finalized). During phase I, providers and suppliers that participate in the model would receive payments with either the existing statutory add-on amount or payments with the modified add-on amount. Phase II would begin no sooner than January 1, 2017. When phase II begins, providers and suppliers selected to participate in the VBP arms would begin receiving VBP-based payments for certain drugs and would participate in other VBP activities, such as feedback on prescribing patterns. Providers and suppliers in geographic areas selected for one arm of the model will experience both phase I pricing and phase II VBP pricing. We expect that phase II could take several years to fully implement. Our goal is to have both phases of the model in full operation during the last three years of the proposed five year duration to fully evaluate changes and collect sufficient data.
In section III of this proposed rule, we propose to test an alternative to the ASP add-on payment in phase I of the model. We would assign providers and suppliers to the alternative ASP add-on approach or to the control group. We propose to use ASP+2.5 percent plus a flat fee as the alternative add-on amount; however, we also discuss and solicit comments on whether an additional approach, such as ASP + a tiered percentage add-on amount should be tested. We invite comment on whether these two approaches are sufficiently different to warrant separate arms under this model. The aggregate value of the phase I add-on that is paid each year is proposed to be budget neutral meaning that the initial total payments under the model will be based on the most recently available calendar year claim's total Part B drug payment amount for separately paid drugs and then updated annually. In other words, we are not proposing a reduction to total spending for Part B drugs. Instead, we propose to test redistribution of the add-on payment on Part B drugs expenditure and outcomes. Additional detail about phase I appears in section III.A. of this proposed rule.
In phase II of the model, we propose to test the application of a group of value-based purchasing tools that commercial and Medicare Part D plans use to improve patient outcomes and manage drug cost. We review several different tools, including value-based pricing, clinical decision support tools, and we discuss the potential applicability to the Part B drug and hospital outpatient benefits. Additional detail about phase II appears in section
We also solicit comment on creating value-based purchasing arrangements directly with manufacturers, taking an episode-based or bundled pricing approach, and applicability of the Part B Drug CAP.
We note that there are possibilities of overlap between the Part B Drug Payment Model and the Medicare Shared Savings Program, the Medicare Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Demonstration, and other Innovation Center payment models, such as the Oncology Care Model (OCM) and the Bundled Payments for Care Improvement (BPCI) initiative. In general, we propose not to exclude beneficiaries, suppliers (including physicians), or providers in the Part B Drug Payment Model from other Innovation Center models or CMS programs, such as the Medicare Shared Savings Program, as detailed in section III.E. of this proposed rule. We acknowledge that there is potentially greater overlap between this proposed model and OCM than other models. We propose to include OCM practices in the Part B Drug Payment Model, but we request comment on the best approach for handling that overlap and on whether we should exclude OCM practices and their comparison practices from the Part B Drug Payment Model.
Under phase I we propose to modify the ASP add-on amount to be 2.5 percent plus a flat fee of $16.80. We propose to establish the amount of the flat fee to ensure total estimated payments under this model are budget neutral to aggregate Part B spending, using the most recent year of available claims data. For phase I of this model, budget neutrality calculations were done using CY 2014 claims processed through June 30, 2015. We present the redistributional impacts among practitioners and hospitals in section IX. of this proposed rule. In general, phase I has the overall effect of modestly shifting money from hospitals and specialties that use higher cost drugs, such as ophthalmology, to specialties that use lower cost drugs, including primary care, pain management, and orthopedic specialties. In aggregate, rural practitioners are estimated to experience a net benefit and rural hospitals are estimated to experience smaller reductions than urban hospitals. Overall, spending on drugs furnished in the office setting increases while spending on drugs furnished in the hospital setting decreases.
We intend to achieve savings through behavioral responses to the revised pricing, as we hope that the revised pricing will remove any excess financial incentive to prescribe high cost drugs over lower cost ones when comparable low cost drugs are available. In other words, we believe that removing the financial incentive that may be associated with higher add-on payments will lead to some reduction in expenditures during phase I of the proposed model. An exact estimate of the amount of savings that might be achieved through behavioral responses is not readily available. Prior research on behavioral changes following modifications to drug margins suggests that the modifications we propose to the 6 percent add-on are likely to change prescribing behavior.
In phase II, we propose applying VBP tools including value-pricing and clinical decision support tools. The pricing under this phase would not be budget neutral, and we intend to achieve savings. We invite extensive comment throughout this proposed rule on the applicability of various value-based purchasing tools to the Part B and hospital outpatient drug benefit. We do not believe that we have enough detail on the structure of the final VBP component to quantify potential savings at this time. As with phase I, we believe that implementation of these tools will result in some reduction in expenditures. We invite comment on the extent of savings that might be achieved based on experience with these VBP tools.
This section describes the drugs that are furnished and paid under Part B; the providers and suppliers that furnish them; and the drugs, participants, and geographic areas that would be included in the model.
Part B currently covers and pays for a limited number of prescription drugs. As stated earlier, for the purposes of this proposed rule, the term “drugs” will refer to drugs and biologicals paid under Part B and also includes biosimilars. Drugs paid under Part B generally fall into three categories: drugs furnished incident to a physician's service in the physician office or hospital outpatient settings, drugs administered via a covered item of DME, and other categories of drugs specified by statute (generally in section 1861(s)(2) of the Act).
The majority of Part B drug expenditures are for drugs furnished incident to a physician's service. Drugs furnished incident to a physician's service are typically injectable drugs that are administered in a non-facility setting (covered under section 1861(s)(2)(A) of the Act) or in a hospital outpatient setting (covered under section 1861(s)(2)(B) of the Act). Examples of “incident to” drugs include injectable drugs used to treat macular degeneration, intravenously administered drugs used to treat cancer, injectable drugs used in connection with the treatment of cancer, and injectable biologicals used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. The statute (sections 1861(s)(2)(A) and 1861(s)(2)(B) of the Act) limits “incident to” services to drugs that are not usually self-administered; self-administered drugs, such as orally administered tablets and capsules are not paid for under the “incident to” provision. Payment for drugs furnished incident to a physician's service falls under section 1842(o) of the Act. In accordance with section 1842(o)(1)(C) of the Act, most “incident to” drugs are paid under the methodology in section 1847A of the Act.
Part B also pays for drugs that are infused through a covered item of DME, such as drugs administered with an intravenous pump and inhalation drugs administered through a nebulizer. Medicare payments for these drugs are described in section 1842(o)(1)(D) of the Act for DME infusion drugs and section 1842(o)(1)(G) of the Act for inhalation drugs.
Finally, Part B covers and pays for a number of drugs with specific benefit categories defined under section 1861(s) of the Act including—immunosuppressive drugs; hemophilia blood clotting factors; certain oral anti-cancer drugs; certain oral antiemetic drugs; pneumococcal pneumonia, influenza and hepatitis B vaccines; erythropoietin for trained home dialysis patients; certain other drugs separately billed by ESRD facilities; and certain osteoporosis drugs. Payment for many of these drugs falls under section 1842(o) of the Act, and in accordance with section 1842(o)(1)(C) of the Act, most, but not all, drugs with specific benefit categories are paid under the methodology in section 1847A of the Act. As discussed below, we propose to include the majority of Part B drugs in this model.
Types of providers and suppliers that are paid for all or some of the Medicare covered Part B drugs that they furnish include physicians, pharmacies, DME suppliers, hospital outpatient departments, and ESRD facilities. We propose to include the majority of Part B drugs in the Part B Drug Payment Model and therefore we anticipate that few providers, and physicians and other suppliers that currently furnish Part B drugs would be excluded. However, some may experience limited impact from participation if they prescribe or furnish a low volume of drugs paid under the Part B benefit. Based on payment data for Part B drugs, among the providers, physician, and DME suppliers that furnish Part B drugs, we anticipate that physicians and outpatient hospitals will see the greatest impact from this proposed model.
In section IX, Regulatory Impact Analysis, we discuss the potential effects of this model on suppliers and providers, including rural hospitals. Although the impact on rural hospitals is expected to be minimal (see Table 2) and the impact on rural physician specialties is generally favorable (when compared to urban specialties) (see Table 1), we are soliciting comments on the potential effect that this model may have on rural practices, how rural practices may differ from non-rural practices and whether rural practices should be considered separately from other practice locations. On a similar note, we are also soliciting comments on the potential effect that this model may have on small practices, how small practices (for example, solo practices and practices with two to nine eligible professionals) may differ from large practices and whether small practices should be considered separately from other practices.
Although the Part B drug benefit is generally considered to be limited in scope, the Part B drug benefit includes many categories of drugs, and encompasses a variety of care settings, and payment methodologies. In accordance with section 1842(o)(1)(C) of the Act, most Part B drugs are paid based on the ASP methodology described in section 1847A of the Act. However, at times Part B drugs are paid based on Wholesale Acquisition Cost (WAC), as authorized under section 1847A(c)(4) of the Act (see 75 FR 73465-6, the section titled Partial Quarter ASP data), or average manufacturer price (AMP)-based price substitutions, as authorized under section 1847A(d) of the Act (see 77 FR 69140). Also, in accordance with section 1842(o) of the Act, other payment methodologies may also be applied to Part B drugs: average wholesale price (AWP)-based payments (using the AWP in effect in October 1, 2003) are made for certain drugs infused with covered DME; and AWP-based payments (using current AWP) are made for influenza, pneumococcal pneumonia and hepatitis B vaccines (section 1842(o)(1)(A)(iv) of the Act). We also use current AWP to make payment for very new drugs without ASP under the OPPS (80 FR 70426 and 80 FR 70442-3; Medicare Claims Processing Manual 100-04, Chapter 17, Section 20.1.3). With the exception of the following: influenza vaccine payment amounts, which are updated annually near the beginning of each flu season (
With limited exceptions that are discussed in this section below, we propose to include all Part B drugs in this model. We would overlay payment amounts for Part B drugs (which are also referred to as payment allowance limits) on the quarterly ASP Drug Pricing Files (see
• Drugs and biologicals (including biosimilars) with HCPCS codes that are nationally priced under the methodology described in section 1847A of the Act, including ASP and WAC-based payment amounts, and drugs (and biologicals) paid separately under OPPS. Because OPPS pass-through drugs described in section 1833(t)(6) of the Act are paid ASP+6 percent, which is the same payment as separately paid drugs under the OPPS, we propose including all OPPS pass-through drugs in the model. In phase I, for drugs paid based on ASP and WAC, the 6 percent add-on will be replaced with the updated add-on amount (discussed in section III.A. of this proposed rule). In phase I, for HCPCS codes with AMP-based payments, the lower of the quarter's AMP-based payment amount (that is, the AMP-based amount on the quarterly ASP files) or the model payment amount would be used; in other words, if the model-based payment is lower than the AMP-substitution-based payment determined under the authority in
• Non-infused drugs furnished by DME suppliers (including the limited number of Part B drugs dispensed by pharmacies), such as immunosuppressives, oral chemotherapy, oral antiemetics, inhalation drugs used with DME, and clotting factors. Payment for these drugs is typically based on the ASP, but additional fees are also paid by Medicare for dispensing, supplying, or furnishing some of these drugs in accordance with section 1842(o) of the Act. We believe that it is important for the model to include drugs that are used outside of the incident-to setting. Also, we believe that it is important to understand the impact of other payment-related financial incentives that are associated with the drug payment, therefore we propose that phase II of this model may incorporate changes to the furnishing, supplying and dispensing fees that are associated with these drugs. (Note that this subset of drugs that are furnished by DME suppliers does not include drugs that are infused with covered DME. DME infusion drugs are discussed later in this section.)
• Intravenously and subcutaneously administered immunoglobulin G (IgG). This includes products administered in the office as well as intravenous products administered in the home to patients with primary immunodeficiency under the benefit described in section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act. Payment for intravenously administered IgG used in these situations is typically based on the ASP (section 1842(o)(1)(E)), while payment for subcutaneously infused IgG will depend on who furnishes the drug. For example, physicians would typically be paid an ASP-based amount while DME suppliers would be paid an amount based on the AWP.
We do not believe that all Part B drugs are appropriate candidates for inclusion in this phase of the model, and we propose to exclude the following categories of drugs:
• Contractor-priced drugs, including drugs that do not appear on the quarterly national ASP price file. Because pricing for contractor-priced drugs may vary, we are limiting the model to drugs that are nationally priced by CMS. Contractor-priced drugs (which are not nationally priced) would continue to be priced by contractors as described in the Medicare Claims Processing Manual 100-04, Chapter 17, Section 20.1.3. However, in situations where the previous manual citation either permits contractors to contact us to obtain payment limits for drugs not included in the quarterly ASP or Not Otherwise Classified (NOC) drug file, or when contractors have the authority to independently determine a payment amount, we propose that contractors would be permitted to utilize reductions to the add-on percentage that they calculate. For example if a contractor currently uses a WAC-based payment amount and adds a 6 percent add-on under existing authority, the add-on percentage could be decreased to correspond to the model arm that is being evaluated in that area. We propose to implement this approach by issuing subregulatory instructions to contractors that would allow them to utilize the modified add-on percentage for contractor-based claims. We seek comments on whether we should permit contractors to alter the add-on percentage for drug payment amounts that are determined by contractors during this model. Contractor-priced drugs include certain radiopharmaceuticals that are furnished in the physician's office (therapeutic radiopharmaceuticals paid separately under the OPPS for hospital outpatients are discussed later in this rule).
• Influenza, pneumococcal pneumonia and hepatitis B vaccines paid under the benefit described in section 1861(s)(10) of the Act. Payment amounts for these vaccines are not determined using the methodology in section 1847A. We consider these items to be preventive services (for more information about preventive services, see
• Drugs infused with a covered item of DME in phase I. Payment for this subset of DME drugs is made based on the AWP in effect on October 1, 2003. We propose to exclude this category of drugs from phase I of the model so that DME policy can focus on issues related to DME and so that the model does not interfere with decisions related to the inclusion or exclusion of these drugs in DME competitive bidding. However, OIG has pointed out concerns related to mismatch between acquisition costs and payment for this group of drugs (OEI-12-12-00310, February 2013. See
• ESRD drugs paid under the authority in section 1881 of the Act. Many ESRD drugs are bundled with services, and relatively few drugs are still paid separately. Given adoption of bundled payments for renal dialysis services and the diminishing number of drugs that are paid separately in this setting, we do not believe that including ESRD drugs in the proposed Part B Drug Payment Model is prudent.
• Blood and blood products. Blood and blood products are prepared in blood banks (rather than drug manufacturing facilities), and have different distribution channels than drugs that are paid under Part B. ASP sales data and compendia pricing for many of these products are not available.
We are also concerned about how to treat drugs that are in short supply. Due to access concerns related to drug shortages, under current Part B drug payment, we exclude drugs that are in short supply from AMP-based price substitution and, instead, we utilize the ASP+6 percent payment amount. The exclusion criteria for the AMP price substitution and the process for determining whether a drug is in short supply are described in the CY 2013 Medicare PFS rule with comment (77 FR 69141). To maintain access to drugs that are in short supply, we believe that incorporating a safeguard is prudent. Thus, for drugs that are included in the model and are reported by the FDA to be in short supply (for example on the FDA Current Drug Shortage list at
We considered proposing to pay the greater of the following: the applicable arm's model payment amount, or the current quarter's statutory payment amount (which is often ASP+6 percent). We believe that this approach could increase payment compared to the model intervention for many drugs that are in short supply; however, we have no evidence that leads us to believe that this approach would have any meaningful positive effect on the resolution of a drug shortage. We are also concerned that incorporating this approach in this model would not provide us reliable information on how pricing impacts the focus, size, and
The new proposed § 511.200, found in subpart C of this proposed rule, reflects the drugs that we propose to include in the model. Section 511.300(c)(1) addresses drugs that are in short supply.
We propose that providers and suppliers in selected geographic areas furnishing covered and separately paid Part B drugs that are included in this model, under phase I, would receive an alternative add-on to the ASP for Part B drug payments. Under phase II of the proposed model, providers and suppliers in other distinct and/or overlapping geographic areas would receive VBP payments (see sections III.A and B. of this proposed rule for a description of the proposed alternative Part B drug payments; note that one arm combines an alternative ASP add-on payment and VBP). We are interested in testing and evaluating the impact of an alternative ASP payment for Part B drugs alone in phase I of the proposed model, and in phase II, we are interested in testing and evaluating the impact of VBP tools alone and simultaneously in combination with alternative ASP payments (see Table 1 in section I).
The Part B Drug Payment Model requires the participation of all providers and suppliers furnishing covered and separately paid Part B drugs that are included in this model. We believe a model in which participation is required of all providers and suppliers furnishing included Part B drugs in the selected geographic areas is appropriate to ensure that observed outcomes in each arm of the model do not suffer from selection bias inherent in a voluntary participation model and that observed outcomes can be generalized to all providers and suppliers billing Part B drugs. The voluntary structure of some 1115A model initiatives has facilitated testing new payment methodologies that differ significantly from current payment structures, such as BPCI. Voluntary participation can limit the generalizability of model results as voluntary model participants may not be broadly representative of all entities who could be affected by the model. Before BPCI models were scheduled to end, CMS launched the Comprehensive Joint Replacement (CJR) initiative after realizing that the full potential of new payment models requires the engagement of an even broader set of providers and suppliers than have participated to date, including those who may only be reached when new payment models are applied to an entire class of providers of a service. Requiring participation in the Part B Drug Payment Model ensures that the broadest set of providers and suppliers are included in the model from the start. Mandatory participation allows us to observe the experiences of an entire class of providers and suppliers with various characteristics, such as different geographies, patient populations, and specialty mixes, and to examine whether these characteristics impact the effect of the model on prescribing patterns and Medicare Part B drug expenditures.
In determining which providers and suppliers to include in the model, we considered whether the model should be limited to specific specialties that prescribe (or furnish) a significant portion of high cost drugs only or to any entity prescribing drugs for certain indications. Limiting the model to specific specialties that are associated with high cost drug payments would not allow us to observe overall changes in prescribing patterns by practitioners for all Part B drugs. Many types of providers and suppliers furnish Part B drugs that are of low or medium cost in addition to high cost drugs. Medium and low-cost drugs may also be affected by statutory pricing, and CMS believes that understanding their prescribing patterns may be as important as understanding high cost drug prescribing patterns.
Similarly, limiting the model to drugs that only treat a specific indication also would not allow us to assess the full impact of proposed payment changes on Part B expenditures and outcomes as drugs that treat a specific indication rarely represent the full range of drug treatment options that are typically available in Part B, and could miss attributes such as the presence of substitutable therapies and a wide range of pricing. Therefore, given the authority in section 1115A(a)(5) of the Act, which allows the Secretary to elect to limit testing of a model to certain geographic areas, we propose to require all providers and suppliers in selected geographic areas furnishing and receiving separate payment for the drugs separately paid under Part B that are included in this proposed model to take part in the model. We discuss our consideration of geographic area selection and random assignment methodology in more detail below.
In determining the most appropriate geographic unit for this model, we considered five options: (1) States; (2) Core Based Statistical Areas (CBSA);
For phase I of the model, we are proposing an alternative ASP payment method to be tested against the current ASP+6 percent method (see section III of this proposed rule), that creates three requirements for the selection of geographic areas. First, the areas need to be sufficiently large so that most providers and suppliers do not have practice locations in multiple areas. A provider or supplier with practice locations in multiple areas may be subject to multiple payment changes. This situation could create an unnecessary administrative burden for the provider or supplier. It may also create an opportunity for a provider or supplier to attempt to influence a patient to receive a medically appropriate drug paid under Part B at the practice location that provides higher payment to the provider or supplier. Moreover, we want to test the alternative payment methods in circumstances that most closely resemble how Part B drug payment policy currently is implemented, with only one payment methodology applicable to a particular provider or supplier for a particular Part B drug. Under all of these circumstances, a larger unit of analysis is preferred.
Second, the areas need to be sufficient in number to ensure adequate statistical power for the evaluation of the model. In general, the larger the number of geographic units available for assignment to the intervention and comparison groups, the greater our ability to determine whether measured differences between the intervention and comparison groups are attributable to the effects of the model or to random chance. Thus, in choosing a unit of analysis, a choice that creates more independent geographic units is preferred.
Third, the areas need to have characteristics that are relatively more similar when comparing one to another so that observed changes at the area level can be more clearly attributed to
In general, with geographic areas as the unit of analysis, larger areas are likely to exhibit more substantial cross-area variation with respect to relevant characteristics such as the total number of beneficiaries as well as variations in the number of beneficiaries per square mile, or beneficiary population density. While, as noted above, stratification can help reduce the differences between the intervention and comparison areas with respect to observed characteristics, when areas vary widely and there are relatively few potential areas to test, stratification may have a limited ability to ensure balance with respect to observed characteristics and thereby increase the power of a test.
In selecting the most appropriate geographic unit for the model, the first option that we considered for a unit of analysis was entire states. States represent a sufficiently large area so as to prevent most individual providers or suppliers from experiencing multiple interventions under the model simultaneously. However, states as a unit of analysis also would greatly limit the number of independent geographic areas subject to selection under the model and, therefore, would decrease the statistical power of the model test to the extent that none of the anticipated changes in Part B drug use or expenditures due to the model interventions could be measured with statistical confidence.
For the second option, we considered CBSAs, a Census-defined core area containing a substantial population nucleus together with adjacent communities that have a high degree of economic and social integration. There are 929 CBSAs, which include 388 Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSAs), with an urban core population of at least 50,000, and 541 Micropolitan Statistical Areas (μSA), with an urban core population of at least 10,000 but less than 50,000. All remaining areas within a state that are not included in CBSAs are lumped into one area designated as Outside Core Based Statistical Areas.
For the third option, we considered HRRs, which represent regional health care markets for tertiary medical care. There are 306 HRRs, which include at least one city where both major cardiovascular surgical procedures and neurosurgery are performed.
Fourth, we considered the smallest geographic unit directly linkable to Medicare Part B claims, the U.S. Postal Service's five digit ZIP codes.
In seeking an area definition that is sufficiently large to minimize the potential for exposing providers or suppliers to multiple test payment alternatives, while sufficiently small to ensure a sufficient numbers of areas, and to limit cluster effects due to differences that cannot be balanced using stratification, we considered aggregations of contiguous ZIP codes. Random aggregations of contiguous ZIP codes can be developed to optimize the characteristics required for a robust test of the model. Developing a unit of analysis tailored to the model test has merit, but the goal of this model is not to develop a new unit of analysis, and the process for doing so would require considerable resources for definition and validation. We would prefer to adopt an existing geographic unit of analysis that meets the requirements for testing the model.
Finally, we considered PCSAs, which were defined and updated under contract to the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) by The Dartmouth Institute.
Nevertheless, we believe that of all existing units of analysis, PCSAs are the most appropriate unit for testing this model in that they exhibit a desirable mix of size, internal homogeneity relative to differences between areas, and number. This preference is based on the specifics of this model, including the types of services involved, the national scope, and the simultaneous testing of multiple payment alternatives, and is not meant to imply that other units of analysis would not be appropriate in a different model (for example, the MSA used in the CJR model
We propose to require all providers and suppliers furnishing Part B drugs that are included in the model to participate in the Part B Drug Payment Model. Participation means that any claim submitted for a Part B drug in the model will be paid according to the payment applicable for the control group, ASP+6 percent, or one of the proposed test alternatives (see Table 1). We propose the payment method used will be determined by the PCSA associated with the claim. We propose to associate claims with a PCSA on the basis of the ZIP code of the appropriate performing or billing NPI or beneficiary recorded on the claim. The service location ZIP code linked to the performing NPI (recorded in item 32) will be used for practitioner claims (CMS-1500). The ZIP code in the CCN address associated with a hospital will be used for hospital outpatient department claims. The residence ZIP code of the beneficiary receiving a Part B drug will be used for DME claims (CMS-1490S). Each five digit ZIP code identified in U.S. Postal Service ZIP code files is linked to a PCSA. The PCSA associated with the claim in the manner above will be assigned to one of the three test arms or the control arm of this model test (see below for PCSA assignment method). We include a summary table of the proposed model under section I.B.3. of this proposed rule.
There are 7,144 PCSAs in the United States, covering all 50 states.
To test the impact of the model's intervention arms compared to the control (discussed in section III. of this proposed rule and also see summary table in section I.B.3.), we propose to assign all 7,048 PCSAs to an arm of the model test, approximately 1,700 PCSAs to each of the control and three test arms. Under the control arm, we propose a provider or supplier would receive payment for a Part B drug claim according to the current ASP+6 percent methodology. Under the arms with an ASP payment alternative, we propose a provider or supplier would receive payment for a Part B drug claim according to the assigned alternative method, ASP+2.5 percent + flat fee. Under the two model arms with the VBP tools in phase II, we propose a provider or supplier would receive payment for a Part B drug claim according to the assigned payment method, either the current ASP+6 percent methodology or the ASP payment alternative (ASP+2.5 percent + flat fee), but with one or more of the VBP tools discussed in section III.B. The model is designed to allow the simultaneous testing of the ASP payment alternative separately compared to the control without VBP, and with the ASP payment alternative interactively with the VBP tools.
The assignment of each PCSA to an arm of the study will be based on a stratified random approach. We consider a randomized design to be the best method for achieving balance in unobserved confounding factors that otherwise could bias the test results. Randomized designs can be made better with stratification prior to random assignment to assure representation of population subgroups in the sample. Simple random assignment will ensure
The current strata proposed are defined by the number of Medicare beneficiaries being furnished Part B drugs in each PCSA and the mean Part B drug expenditures per beneficiary. These two factors drive the differences among PCSAs for the purpose of this model test and both factors have a significant number of outliers that must be evenly distributed to each arm. Stratification gains are obtained with six or fewer strata within each factor. In this proposed rule, based upon an analysis of the CY 2014 claims for Part B drugs included in this model, we propose to use a single cut point of Part B drug beneficiary counts per PCSA at 1,500 and two cut points for the distribution of mean dollars expended for Part B drugs per beneficiary per PCSA of $500 and $3,000. These three cut points in two factors result in six strata from which the PCSAs will be assigned to the one control and three test arms of the model in equal numbers by simple randomization. We solicit comment from the public regarding additional factors or cut points that may be necessary to achieve balance across the three test arms and the control arm in this model test.
Because we propose to randomly assign PCSAs within each stratum in equal proportion to the one control and three model test arms, the randomized assignment should account for unobservable confounding factors that may affect outcomes of interest while simultaneously assuring that population subgroups are equally represented within each arm of the model. After randomization of the PCSAs, we can adjust our analyses of the model test results to account for any imbalance across the arms of the model in observable characteristics that were not the basis of stratification, such as the beneficiary population's average socio-economic status in a PCSA.
The stratified random sample design cannot support analyses of all potential sub-groups of providers and suppliers, patients, and drugs at the same level of precision or with the same statistical power as it supports the primary analysis of a model test. However, we believe stakeholders will be interested in impacts of the model's interventions on these subgroups. We expect the model evaluation will employ a range of appropriate analytic methods to address questions of interest to stakeholders and to provide additional support to the overall model test analyses. We seek information on which sub-group analyses might be of more interest and which additional analytic methods may be most appropriate. New section 511.105 reflects our proposed definition of geographic areas.
CMS is required to reduce Medicare payments for Part B drugs under the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 (BBEDCA), as amended by the Budget Control Act of 2011. The application of the sequestration requires the reduction of Medicare payments by two percent for many Medicare FFS claims with dates-of-service on or after April 1, 2013. The discussion in this proposed rule does not consider reductions applied to Medicare payment under sequestration, which is independent of Medicare payment policy.
In general, payment for drugs paid under Part B varies over a wide range; drugs may be paid between several dollars per dose to thousands of dollars per dose. Drug therapy may require one or a few doses, or it may require many doses over a long time period, sometimes indefinitely. As we developed potential approaches for evaluating changes to the add-on percentage, we considered the effect of a proposal on the drug price points (that is, high, medium and low cost Part B drugs), as well as the types of drugs that are paid for under Part B. We also considered the effects on entities within the drug supply chain (for example, manufacturers and wholesalers), beneficiaries, providers, suppliers, and the Medicare program. Overall, we believe that phase I of this model will not change how Part B drugs are acquired by providers or suppliers, or how drug manufacturers sell their products to providers, suppliers, or intermediaries such as wholesalers. As discussed in the paragraphs below, phase I would establish payment at ASP plus a 2.5 percent add-on percentage and a flat fee per administration day as a budget neutral test. We propose to derive the flat fee from the difference in total payment between total payments with a 6 percent add-on percentage across Part B drugs in the most recently available calendar year claims', which is CY 2014, and total estimated payment for Part B drugs in the same set of claims with a 2.5 percent add-on percentage to the flat fee. We propose to divide this difference by the total number of encounters per day per drug in the CY 2014 claims data. Because total payments made under this phase are not expected to change considerably, we anticipate that providers or suppliers will continue to buy and bill for Part B drugs that they furnish to their patients. Having established the flat fee for the initial year in 2016, we propose to update the flat fee amount each year by the percentage increase in the consumer price index (CPI) for medical care for the most recent 12-month period. The dollar value of the 2.5 percent add-on percentage would automatically adjust to changes in price levels as ASP changes. The modeling methodology is discussed in section 1 below.
We are proposing a budget neutral approach to isolate the impact of changes to the ASP add-on amount without introducing additional savings as a second potential source of behavioral adjustments. We do not expect a sizable overall reduction in Part B drug spending associated with phase I of this model, but we do anticipate an incentive to use higher value drugs.
In sections 2 and 3, we describe the proposed approaches for modifying the ASP add-on amount. The approaches discussed below are intended to minimize the risk of excessively large or small add-on payments for individual Part B drugs across the range of Part B drug prices. At the same time, our goal is to minimize providers' and suppliers' (including physicians') financial incentives to prescribe more expensive drugs. This phase of the model would not affect other payments that are associated with furnishing a drug such as the clotting factor furnishing fee, or supplying and dispensing fees that are authorized under section 1842(o) of the Act.
To determine the initial aggregate Part B drug annual spending for the implementation of phase I in 2016, we are proposing to use CY 2014 utilization for drugs paid under Part B to calculate the amount of payments that were associated with the 6 percent ASP add-on percentage. For a detailed discussion of those drugs, please see section II.B. of this proposed rule. The data set includes drugs that are in the model.
We begin with CY 2014 Part B institutional hospital outpatient claims and Part B supplier claims data processed through June 30, 2015. We note that the payment amounts on the CY 2014 claims include the effect of sequestration. Therefore, to establish
We propose the following approach to develop the supplier and outpatient hospital claims dataset for modeling purposes; this approach is intended to remove unusable data, errors and inconsistencies in the data set. We propose to exclude all claims billed by providers and suppliers in the state of Maryland as hospital outpatient services are paid under the Maryland All-Payer Model and not at ASP+6 percent. We also propose to exclude claims from American Samoa, Virgin Islands, and Guam because hospitals in these locations are paid at reasonable cost. We propose to remove Medicare secondary payer claims from the modeling dataset because the payment amounts in situations where Medicare is secondary may not reflect the Medicare payment amounts that are determined under statutory authority, such as the methodology in section 1847A of the Act, and used when Medicare is the primary payer. We propose to remove individual lines with units three standard deviations outside the geometric mean units billed by HCPCS, specific to the applicable portion of the dataset (supplier or hospital claims) because we believe that payments deviating from the mean by this amount are likely errors and they do not represent payment amounts that are determined and published in our price files. Additionally, we propose to remove claim lines that were rejected or denied by the claims systems for not meeting the Medicare requirements for payment and restrict the dataset to drugs that we are proposing to include in phase I of the model.
OPPS claims will be handled in a manner that is similar to what we apply in the OPPS rates setting process; the process was established in 2000 and has been updated annually (
We propose a number of exclusions that would apply specifically to supplier claims. We propose to exclude claims with the following facility place of service codes because these places of service are not typically associated with the use of “incident to” drugs: `21' (Inpatient Hospital), `22' (Outpatient Hospital), `23' (Emergency Room-Hospital), `24' (Medicare-participating Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC) for a HCPCS code included on the ASC approved list of procedures), `26' (Military Treatment Facility), `31' (Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) for a Part A resident), `34' (Hospice—for inpatient care), `41' (Ambulance—Land), `42' (Ambulance—Air or Water), `51' (Inpatient Psychiatric Facility), `52' (Psychiatric Facility—Partial Hospitalization), `53' (Community Mental Health Center), `56' (Psychiatric Residential Treatment Center), and `61' (Comprehensive Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility) because the proposed Part B Drug Payment Model would not apply. We propose to remove claims with Carrier number “00882” which are those associated with the Railroad Retirement Board benefit since they are paid under a separate payment methodology.
We propose to exclude DME MAC claims for drugs infused through a covered item of DME from our modeling dataset. As discussed in section II.B. of this proposed rule, we propose to exclude drugs infused with a covered item of DME from phase I of the Part B Drug Payment Model. Therefore, we also propose to remove claim lines for these codes from the set of DME MAC claims to establish the flat fee amount.
In addition to soliciting comment on our proposal to exclude the data that is described above, we are interested in stakeholder comments on whether the CY 2015 claims updated as of March might be appropriate as an alternative dataset to establish the CY 2016 flat fee amount in the final rule. We note that for the final rule, more CY 2014 claims data would be available due to additional claims processing, which we would include in modeling the final rule.
We provide a summary file containing the Part B drug model payment and utilization data used to calculate the flat fee amount on the CMS Web site with display of this proposed rule. The summary file contains no personally identifiable information and we exclude drug codes with low beneficiary volume from the summary file.
As discussed previously, a flat percentage, like the current 6 percent add-on percentage to ASP, may create an incentive for using more expensive drugs because the add-on portion of the payment amount is higher for more expensive products (MedPAC Report to the Congress Medicare and the Health Care Delivery System June 2015, page 68). A flat add-on fee alone, for example $30 per prescribed dose, that does not vary with the cost of the drug may potentially increase the risk of having payments fall below acquisition costs for expensive drugs, particularly for providers and suppliers whose acquisition costs are near or above a drug's ASP. Also, without any sort of limits or constraints, a flat add-on fee that is large (relative to the cost of an inexpensive drug) may also promote the overuse of inexpensive drugs like intravenous fluids and antihistamine injections by creating a profit incentive for overprescribing inexpensive drugs that may be associated with little risk of audits or claim denials.
Changing the add-on amount from a percentage that applies in all circumstances to a lower percentage plus a flat fee that is limited could minimize the potential for underpayment or overpayment across the entire range of prices for Part B drugs. For example, the add-on payment for high cost drugs could be lowered by decreasing the add-on percentage to an amount that minimizes the risk for providers and suppliers losing money on expensive drugs, and the add-on payment for inexpensive drugs could be preserved through the use of a flat fee that covers expected price variations among inexpensive drugs and decreases the risk for underpayment. For inexpensive drugs, inappropriate
A specific approach for the use of an add-on percentage with a flat fee was described by the MedPAC in a recent report (MedPAC Report to the Congress Medicare and the Health Care Delivery System June 2015, pages 65-72). MedPAC modeled this add-on approach as budget neutral in aggregate, meaning that it would not change total Medicare Part B spending. MedPAC evaluated changing the add-on to 2.5 percent of ASP plus a budget neutral flat fee per dose of $14. The result redistributed add-on payments by decreasing payments for expensive drugs in favor of drugs that are paid at lower amounts. Redistribution under this approach favors the provider specialties and suppliers that utilize relatively inexpensive drugs. The June 2015 MedPAC report determined that under this approach physician specialties that heavily utilize drug therapy would see a decrease in drug revenues while specialties that utilize fewer drugs like primary care would see an increase in drug revenue.
We propose to utilize the same basic approach that was described in the June 2015 MedPAC report: A fixed percentage with a flat fee, specifically, a fixed percentage of 2.5 percent and a flat fee of $16.80 per drug per day administered (an example of the approach appears at the end of this paragraph). We propose to update the flat fee amount annually. The flat fee amount of $16.80 was determined using the data set described in section III.A.1. We agree with MedPAC that this approach limits financial incentives for overuse across the range of Part B drugs and the values that we are proposing are similar to those in the MedPAC report. We have chosen a 2.5 percent starting point because we agree with MedPAC's assessment that this value should be sufficient to cover markups from wholesalers, such as prompt pay discounts that are not passed on to purchasers. In the June 2015 report that is cited in this proposed rule, MedPAC stated that there is anecdotal evidence that such markups are between 1 and 2 percent, but MedPAC was not aware of data that could verify this estimate. We are not aware of information that conflicts with the assessment. The proposed add-on fee of $16.80 is also comparable to the MedPAC determined value of $14. In the Part B Drug Payment Model, application of the flat fee would result in the following: a primary care provider would receive $33.60 ($16.80 per drug) for two model drugs given during an office visit in addition to 2.5 percent of the ASP for each of the drugs. If another practitioner, such as a rheumatologist, saw the patient later in the day, and administered one model drug, that practitioner would receive $16.80 in addition to 2.5 percent of the ASP for the prescribed drug.
We propose to keep the 2.5 percent add-on constant over the duration of the model, but propose to update the flat fee each year based on the percentage increase in the CPI Medical Care (MC) for the most recent 12-month period. This update method is stipulated in section 1842(o)(5)(C) of the Act for use with the blood clotting factor furnishing fee. We considered several potential updates including the producer price index for Pharmaceuticals for Human Use (Prescription) or an inflation factor derived from changes in ASP for Part B drugs. We propose the CPI MC because we believe that the flat fee addresses many different services included in drug acquisition activities similar to the services including in furnishing clotting factors. The CPI MC is both widely available and based on an accepted methodology. We solicit comment on whether a different update factor would be more appropriate.
For 2016, we would establish alternative ASP pricing under phase I of the model so that total spending for Part B drugs included in the model under phase I would be equal to aggregate spending for the same set of drugs in our CY 2014 claims data. The dollar value of the flat fee of $16.80 is proposed, but we may refine this figure for the final rule if we use more recent versions of the claims data, which would include additional utilization and payment information. We would plan to update the flat fee for January 2017 using the CPI MC and annually thereafter. We anticipate using a G-code, that providers and suppliers billing in geographic areas assigned to this approach (ASP+2.5 percent + flat fee) would use to bill for the flat fee portion of the payment. We propose to continue our standard practice of updating the weighted average portion of drug payment amount (that is, the ASP+0 portion of the payment) on a quarterly basis using the manufacturers' sales data and the weighted average calculations that are used when determining payment amounts that are set forth in section 1847A(c)(5) of the Act.
We believe that the per drug per day administered limit will mitigate profit-oriented overprescribing of inexpensive drugs, but we are concerned that an add-on that is roughly equal to or slightly more than the cost of a drug may still leave some incentive for overusing some inexpensive drugs. While we expect that contractors will continue to examine claims (as well as patterns of claims) for potentially unnecessary use (that is use that is not reasonable or necessary), we also seek comment on whether additional measures should be taken to limit add-on amounts, especially for very low cost drugs, or whether an alternative approach to calculating the percent and flat fee should be considered, such as an additional one to three tiers of decreasing flat dollar amounts that would provide lower flat fees for very inexpensive drugs, while still maintaining overall budget neutrality.
In addition to MedPAC's discussion for pairing a reduced percentage add-on with a flat fee per drug per day administered, we considered whether it would be helpful to test additional variations of the ASP add-on. As proposed, the model would have four arms: a control and three test arms including, modified ASP add-on only, VBP only, and modified ASP add-on and VBP. However, we are concerned that adding another variation in phase I would increase the number of arms in the model which may negatively impact the statistical power of this model.
We also considered whether other variations of the ASP add-on percentage would be a useful complement to the proposed ASP+2.5 percent + flat fee, such as a higher starting percentage, (instead of 2.5 percent, using 3 percent or 3.5 percent), a flat fee without a percentage add-on in lower quartiles, or a tiered approach in which we would vary the percentage or flat fee add-on across several tiers of drugs defined based on cost.
We considered defining tiers for an alternative approach based on quartiles because they create several steps between the highest and lowest add-on values; however, we also considered whether a different number of steps, such as deciles, or a gradient approach would result in more consistent payments for groups of similar drugs. One method that we considered to create the quartiles was to array the annual payment per beneficiary for each drug from lowest to highest annual payment and then divide the distribution into quartiles based on relatively even number of doses. We established quartiles for drugs with annual per beneficiary payment of greater than $1,000, $50.01 to $1,000,
Ultimately, we were concerned that testing another variation of the add-on percentage modification in phase I would not provide us with significant additional information. We are requesting comments from the public on whether the tiered approach described above, a variation (such as using deciles or a gradient) or another approach for modifying the add-on would be a useful complement to the percentage and flat fee approach that is proposed in section III.A.2. We are interested in gaining perspective on whether the approaches are sufficiently different to justify testing them, noting that adding arms to the study will likely impact the statistical power of this model and other overlapping models, especially the OCM.
We are also interested in understanding whether any advantages from testing these approaches are sufficient to overcome the potentially significant disadvantages of these approaches. In particular, we are concerned that tiered approaches could set a very different add on amounts for each of the four quartiles. This could create large changes (“cliffs”) in payment amounts at the boundaries between quartiles. In addition, tiered approaches that specify varying percentage add-ons by quartile could generate very high percentage add-ons for the bottom three quartiles. This could create incentives for manufacturers and suppliers to vary prices of drugs near the quartile boundaries in order to increase Medicare's payment rate. We are also concerned about the potentially high add-on payments for inexpensive drugs, their impact on providers, suppliers, and patients, and if such an approach were tested, whether additional steps to limit such payments should be considered.
Finally, we are also interested in receiving comment on whether there are any common elements within groups of drugs that might provide a basis for varying the flat fee across groups of drugs that would justify higher payments, such as requirements for cold handling, special packaging, or other contributors to costs. If such factors could be identified, we could also use this information to vary the flat fee appropriately under the ASP+2.5 percent + flat fee proposal.
In the second phase of this model, we propose to implement VBP tools for Part B drugs using value-based pricing and clinical decision support tools—tools often used collectively to manage a prescription drug benefit by commercial health plans, PBMs, hospitals, and other entities that manage health benefits and drug utilization. Medicare Part D plans and the commercial insurance sector have used these tools for years to successfully manage health benefits and drug utilization, and we believe that the approaches, when appropriately structured, may be adaptable to Part B to improve patient care and manage drug spending. The revision to the 6 percent ASP add-on percentage proposed for phase I of this model broadly addresses financial incentives that may affect prescribing. However, these revisions do not directly address differences in payment when there is a group of therapeutically similar drugs, nor are they able to test the benefits of using alternative incentives to improve the effectiveness, safety, and quality of physician prescribing patterns for Part B drugs.
Medicare Part D plans, PBMs, other third party payers, and entities like hospitals use a variety of VBP tools, such as value-based pricing, clinical decision support tools, and rebates and discounts, to improve patient outcomes and manage drug costs.
Below, we propose the types of VBP tools that potentially could be used in the Part B Drug Payment Model to improve patient outcomes and manage drug costs. We propose to implement one or more of the following value-based pricing strategies, including reference pricing, pricing based on safety and cost-effectiveness for different indications, outcomes-based risk-sharing agreements, and discounting or elimination of patient coinsurance amounts. We also propose to implement a tool to support clinical decisions for appropriate drug use and safe prescribing. The tool would provide education and data on the use of certain Part B drugs to prescribers; such information would not be meant to interfere or substitute for medical decision making. New section 511.305 reflects our proposed VBP model requirements. We are mindful that, in particular circumstances, the arrangements discussed here, if not properly structured and operated, could pose a risk of abuse. In adapting and using VBP tools in the Part B Drug Payment Model, one of our goals is to ensure that the model promotes integrity, transparency, and accountability. Finally, we note that we would implement these proposed tools through a contractor, as we do with many Medicare programs. We would retain final review and authority over the final version of any VBP tools implemented under phase II.
The application of the value-based pricing strategies discussed in this section would be limited. We are proposing value-based pricing strategies that include one or more of the following specific tools: reference pricing, indications-based pricing, outcomes-based risk-sharing agreements, and discounting or eliminating patient coinsurance amount. This group of tools would serve as a framework for interventions for selected Part B drugs. We would gather additional information on the proposed tools, including which specific Part B drugs are suitable candidates for the application of specific tools within the group. We would finalize the implementation of specific tools for specific HCPCS codes after soliciting
Value-based pricing for pharmaceuticals involves linking payment for a medicine to patient outcomes and cost-effectiveness rather than solely the volume of sales.
First, providing equal payment for therapeutically similar drug products
We understand that some insurance plans allow providers and suppliers to hold the patient responsible for paying the difference between their prescribed drug and the benchmark set for the group of therapeutically similar drugs. We propose that any version of reference pricing implemented would not allow for balance billing of the beneficiary for any differences in pricing. For example, if reference pricing was implemented for the sodium hyaluronates mentioned previously and the particular sodium hyaluronate product selected by the prescriber had a cost above the reference price defined by CMS for the sodium hyaluronates included in the reference pricing arrangement, the patient could not be held responsible for paying the difference between the reference price and either the statutory payment amount or the cost for the selected drug. By grouping similar drugs into a single payment rate, we give prescribers incentives to use the drug product that provides the most value for the patient.
Second, we propose using value-based pricing to vary prices for a given drug based on its varying clinical effectiveness for different indications that are covered under existing Medicare authority, specifically section 1861(t) of the Act, and existing national and local coverage determinations. This is often called “indications-based pricing.” Drugs are often indicated for more than one condition and may be more effective when used in one condition than another. For example, if a new drug is introduced with indications for treating two types of cancer and this drug did no better in clinical trials than existing treatments for the first type of cancer and significantly better than existing treatments for the second, our use of indications-based pricing might result in lower payments when the drug is used to treat the first type of cancer and higher payments when the drug is used to treat the second type. The Institute for Clinical and Economic Review (ICER) is currently producing reports on high-impact drugs that analyze comparative effectiveness and cost-effectiveness before calculating a benchmark price for each drug.
We propose to use indications-based pricing where appropriately supported by published studies and reviews or evidenced-based clinical practice guidelines, such as the ICER reports, to more closely align drug payment with outcomes for a particular clinical indication. Indications-based pricing decisions would reflect the clinical evidence available and strive to rely on competent and reliable scientific
Third, we propose to allow CMS to enter into voluntary agreements with manufacturers to link health care outcomes with payment. This method is sometimes used in the private sector when relatively few published studies or other pieces of evidence are available to establish a drug's long-term value with regard to the magnitude of patient health outcomes. Payers and pharmaceutical manufacturers contract in outcomes-based risk-sharing agreements to link payment for drugs to patient health outcomes.
We propose that any outcomes-based risk-sharing agreements that we enter into would require a clearly defined outcome goal. We seek comment on methods to collect and measure outcomes, including parameters around standardizing value metrics based on differences in drug treatments and their targeted patient subpopulations. At a minimum, and in addition to sources such as evidence-based literature and best practices, we propose manufacturers provide all competent and reliable scientific evidence to create an accurate picture regarding clinical value for a specific drug; and we also propose that manufacturers provide outcome measures for any outcome-based risk-sharing pricing agreement.
In addition to proposals specifically aimed at improving quality and outcomes and reducing the costs of purchasing for the payer, we also propose a value-based pricing strategy that involves discounting or eliminating patient coinsurance amounts for services that are determined to be high in value in an attempt to tailor incentives. Although many Medicare beneficiaries have wrap-around coverage (which reduces or eliminates cost sharing), reducing cost sharing for certain products can still provide an effective incentive for a subset of the population to encourage use of high-value drug products. Therefore, we propose to waive beneficiary cost sharing from the current 20 percent, meaning that the copayment that is associated with a HCPCS code in phase II of the model could be reduced by CMS to a value that is less than 20 percent and could be waived completely. In addition, consistent with cost sharing approaches for Part B drugs, we propose that beneficiary cost sharing will not exceed 20 percent of the total model-based payment amount for the Part B drug. In other words, this model does not seek to increase cost sharing percentages beyond 20 percent for low-value drugs. We would also like to make clear that cost sharing changes will be applied at the HCPCS level to all drugs NDCs in a HCPCS code; we are not proposing manufacturer-specific or NDC-specific cost sharing amounts, nor are we proposing that providers or suppliers would have flexibility to change or waive cost sharing amounts. By itself, value-based pricing that involves discounting or eliminating patient coinsurance would not be expected to change the overall payment amount. In other words, we are proposing to increase Medicare's payment percentage while maintaining the total allowed charges for the drug using this tool. However, we seek comments on whether more targeted modifications of cost sharing should be considered and how such modifications would avoid creating unintended competitive advantages for drugs within the same HCPCS code or other similar drugs that are paid under other HCPCS codes.
We propose to solicit public feedback on specific pricing proposals for use of all VBP tools. We propose that any CMS approved pricing changes under phase II would allow for the public to provide feedback and would be made public 45 days ahead of implementation . Proposed new § 511.305 reflects these proposals.
We would also engage in educational activities to support implementation and testing of the value-based pricing strategies. We seek comment to define the parameters of these educational activities.
While all proposed Part B drugs would be potentially subject to the value-based pricing strategies outlined here, we seek comment on the potential groups of Part B drugs most suitable for each of the proposed approaches to value-based pricing. We also seek comment on any additional types of value-based pricing that could be considered for future rulemaking for the Medicare Part B Drug Payment Model.
To protect beneficiaries and to allow for the consideration of special circumstances that may warrant the use of non-model payments in certain situations, we are proposing a Pre-Appeals process for certain value-based pricing strategies. The process is discussed in section IV. of this proposed rule.
As noted, we are aware that the value-based pricing tools discussed here could pose a risk of abuse if not properly structured and operated. It is our goal that the Medicare Part B Drug Payment Model promotes integrity, transparency, and accountability. We seek comment on potential safeguards that could be implemented with each of these tools to make certain that the intent of the policy is not undermined.
Another potential component of VBP is the support of accurate clinical decision-making that is based on up-to-date scientific and medical evidence,
We are aware of reports that CDS tools can be effective in changing practice patterns to better align with evidence-based developments and best practices.
We propose a two component CDS tool that consists of an online tool that supports clinical decisions through education and provides feedback based on drug utilization in Medicare claims. The educational tool would be developed by CMS with support from the VBP contractor and would be available to physicians in the VBP arms of the model (see Table 1). Physicians participating in the model would voluntarily access the education tool, meaning that they would have a choice about whether to use the tool and how they would apply information from the tool to their practice. This tool is not intended to act as or replace, in any way, the physician's medical judgment for the treatment of patient-specific clinical conditions nor is the tool intended to replace a practitioner's ability to order reasonable and necessary Part B drugs as appropriate. Rather, the tool is intended to provide information on prescribing for specific indications that reflects up-to-date literature and consensus guidelines. We believe that the availability of this tool could provide physicians with better access to up-to-date information such as guidelines for effective treatments as well as safe and appropriate drug use for specific diagnoses. We anticipate that information would be listed and indexed to correspond to drugs and disease states or conditions that are commonly treated in Part B. However, we would consider alternative approaches for presenting the data, such as the use of a decision-tree format. We seek comment on how to format the educational information. We also envision that the tool would provide information on Part B claim payment patterns for specific drugs and/or indications. This part of the tool could be utilized nationally or within specific geographic areas and could provide feedback on how an individual physician's drug claim patterns compare with local or national data or even recommended guidelines. This information would be solely for feedback and to support a physician's interest in mindful prescribing. We believe that the concept of this tool is consistent with the proposed model's aim as discussed in the introduction to the preamble, to achieve high quality and smarter spending on drugs and biologicals paid under Part B.
We propose the evidence-based part of the CDS tool would encompass specific drugs, groups of similar drugs, or diagnoses that are typically encountered in Part B. The tool would be available online and readily available to participants in the VBP arm of the model and would provide pertinent up-to-date information on drug therapies and treatments for a specific condition. The tool would provide information such as links to evidence-based guidelines for appropriate drug use and updated information on drug safety.
A CDS tool is more likely to be effective in improving the value of payment for prescribed drugs if it adequately reflects the clinical evidence available and strives to rely on objective, high quality evidence from neutral and/or independent sources. We understand that the quality of available evidence can vary for any given drug or indication. High quality evidence is comprehensive, relies on randomized trial designs where possible, and measures outcomes. Research findings should be valid, reliable, and generalizable to the Medicare population. To incorporate information in the CDS tool, we propose that we would follow a hierarchy of evidence review similar to that followed by our Medicare Coverage Advisory Committee, the AHRQ, or the United States Preventive Services Task Force, as well as numerous private bodies such as the National Comprehensive Cancer Network.
In addition to prioritizing review of high quality evidence, CMS would post the evidence base that supports information that is included in the online CDS, and consider feedback from the public on that evidence basis for 30 days before finalizing a CDS tool for a specific indication. We propose that the public would be able to provide feedback on the evidence basis proposed for information that is included in the CDS tool before CMS finalizes the information. We plan to implement the CDS tool incrementally, that is, to begin with a limited number of drugs and/or disease states. We seek comment on which Part B drugs and conditions that are commonly treated by drug therapy would be good candidates for inclusion. We also would allow for feedback on any substantial refinements to an online tool.
In addition to developing an evidence-based component for the tool, we propose creating an online source of data under our section 1115A authority that would provide feedback to physicians in the VBP arms of the model. We propose to use a process similar to that already established for reporting programs such as the Quality and Resource Use Reports (QRURs) that physician group practices and solo practitioners receive nationwide. At this time, we make QRURs available to groups and solo practitioners that participate in the Medicare Shared Savings Program, the Pioneer Accountable Care Organization (ACO) Model, or the Comprehensive Primary Care Initiative. We propose that this online tool under the Part B Drug Payment Model would allow providers and suppliers to access reports on their Medicare Part B drug claims as well as claims patterns in their geographic area and national patterns. We intend for this feedback to allow providers and suppliers to better understand Part B claim payment patterns and identify opportunities for individual improvement. We also believe that this activity will align with our efforts to provide regularly updated feedback to providers and suppliers on metrics such as cost and quality measures. We propose that the CDS tool will be available to physicians (that is, internal use only and non-publicly available) for informational purposes only and will not impact participating physician group practices and solo practitioners' Part B drug payments.
In summary, we are proposing a two-component CDS tool for physicians in the VBP arms of the model. The tool will use high quality evidence to educate physicians on best practices. The tool also would rely on regularly updated claims data reports to provide feedback on prescribing patterns. We seek comments on our proposed approach for identifying high-quality evidence and allowing for public feedback on the evidence basis; the online format of this proposed support tool; the most effective method for physicians to access their reports on prescribing patterns, identifying what content should be included (for example, claim payment/prescribing patterns, resource use, clinical and cost domains, patient clinical and demographic information, information about drug-drug and drug-disease interactions and clinical support guidelines for these interactions, among other factors). We also solicit comment on the level of feedback, and whether personalized reports are necessary. To the extent that such feedback includes personally identifiable information, we would provide such information through the proposed support tool consistent with applicable privacy laws, including, but not limited to, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) Privacy Rule. We solicit comment concerning privacy issues with respect to the proposed support tool.
We are considering the three approaches discussed below: Creating value-based purchasing arrangements for Part B drugs directly with manufacturers, the Part B Drug CAP, and an episode-based or bundled pricing approach for Part B drugs, as potential areas of interest in furthering value for Part B drugs. We solicit comments to determine if any or all are appropriate to pursue as part of the Part B Drug Payment Model or in the near future.
We have received inquiries from manufacturers interested in testing new approaches to paying for medications under Part B that are not accommodated within the current payment system. These approaches are generally built around achievement of clinical outcomes and a new payment flow between CMS and the manufacturer, using a mechanism such as a rebate.
Outcomes-based rebates, for example, appear to be used by industry to measure and reward quality and clinical effectiveness for new drug products. Ideally, outcomes-based rebates lead to payers realizing a reduction in the uncertainty that is associated with a new drug's clinical value, performance, and financial impact, while manufacturers are able to better differentiate and demonstrate the value and effectiveness of their product.
One example of a potential structure would be a “try before you buy” arrangement. For example, for a product that works for some but not all beneficiaries, a manufacturer might offer to provide a partial or full rebate to CMS for the costs of product purchased for patients that do not ultimately benefit from therapy. Because of the time lag involved in assessing response to therapy from claims data sources, a rebate might be the most efficient way to implement such a purchasing agreement.
We solicit comment on the approach described above and on implementing a program to incorporate VBP arrangements created with manufacturers as a part of the VBP tools that will be tested in this model. We also seek comment on a number of specific issues, discussed below, surrounding rebate-based payment structures.
CMS is currently considering whether rebate distributions could be returned to the Medicare Part B Trust Fund, the beneficiary, the provider or supplier, or a combination of the three. Any rebate arrangement would have to conform to the requirements of the Act and federal appropriations law. Comments regarding the construction of these rebate arrangements are especially
Finally, we seek comment on specific approaches that could be used to define rebates, details on how these arrangements could be created, mechanisms that could be used to calculate and distribute rebate amounts, the amount of transparency in any arrangement, how the rebates should be accounted for in manufacturers' ASP reports, other applicable pricing information reported to CMS (for example, for Medicaid purposes), and how we might monitor the prices paid by suppliers and providers for Part B drugs under the proposed model.
Section 1847B of the Act required the implementation of the CAP for drugs that are not paid on a cost or prospective payment basis. The CAP was an alternative to the ASP method that is used to pay for the majority of Part B drugs, particularly drugs that are administered during a physician's office visit. Instead of buying drugs for their offices, physicians who chose to participate in the CAP would place a patient-specific drug order with an approved CAP vendor; the vendor would provide the drug to the office and then bill Medicare and collect cost sharing amounts from the patient. Drugs were supplied in unopened containers (not pharmacy-prepared individualized doses like syringes containing a patient's prescribed dose). Most Part B drugs used in physicians' offices were supplied by the approved CAP vendor. Unlike the “buy and bill” process that is still used to obtain many Part B drugs, physicians who participated in the CAP did not buy or take title to the drug. Physician participation in the CAP was voluntary, but physicians had to elect to participate in the CAP. CAP drug claims were processed by a designated carrier.
We conducted bidding for CAP vendors in 2005. The first CAP contract period ran from July 1, 2006 until December 31, 2008. One drug vendor participated in the program, providing drugs that included approximately 180 HCPCS billing codes (including heavily utilized drugs in Part B) to physicians across the United States and its territories. The parameters for the second round of the vendor contract were essentially the same as those for the first round. While we received several qualified bids for the subsequent contract period, shortly before the second contract period began, contractual issues with the successful bidders led to the postponement of the program, and the CAP has been suspended since January 1, 2009. Details are available in the links at the end of this section.
After the CAP was suspended, we sought additional input from physicians and interested parties about further improvements to the program. For example, we held Open Door Forums, met with stakeholders and encouraged correspondence from stakeholders and physicians who participated in the CAP. Although we received some useful suggestions, several significant concerns could not be addressed under the existing statutory requirements. These concerns included uncertainty about the participation of non-pharmacy entities like wholesalers as approved CAP vendors, and the requirement for a beneficiary-specific order which impacts the use of a consignment model to facilitate emergency deliveries and to manage inventory through automated dispensing systems in the office. Many commenters were also concerned about the complexity of the program and the level of financial risk, particularly for vendors. Also, an evaluation of the program found that it was not associated with savings (
More detailed information about the CAP is available on the following CMS Web page and links within the Web page:
The Part B drug market has evolved significantly since the CAP was suspended in 2009. For example, there has been enormous growth in specialty drugs, both by the number of drugs available and the cost of the products; acquisition of specialty drugs may utilize restricted distribution channels (like specialty distributors or pharmacies as opposed to buying drugs from wholesalers and the manufacturer); and health information technology also has changed the way physicians and distributers manage many drug products.
Although we are not proposing to include a CAP-like alternative in this model at this time, we are interested in receiving comments that would help us determine whether sufficient interest in such a program is present for us to consider developing and testing such an alternative as a part of a future model. We are specifically interested in comments on whether there is a role for a CAP-like alternative to the ASP (buy and bill) process for obtaining drugs that are billed under Part B in the physician's office. Given the length of time that has elapsed since the last solicitation for comments about the CAP in 2010, we are also interested in updated perspectives on issues such as smaller geographic areas, smaller scope
Under the current FFS structure, Medicare makes separate payments for drugs based primarily on the manufacturer's pricing. Medicare also makes separate payments for the administration of these drugs to hospital outpatient settings and physician offices. This payment approach may not encourage practitioners in the physician office or in outpatient hospital settings to consider the total cost of care for treating a beneficiary. Instead, the current FFS drug payment structure may provide an incentive to increase the volume of drugs furnished to beneficiaries and to prescribe more expensive drugs without considering the total cost of care for treating a beneficiary with a particular drug regimen across the episode of care. MedPAC, in its June 2015 report, discussed bundled payments for Part B drugs as a potential approach to obtain better pricing for Part B drugs for beneficiaries compared to current pricing under the FFS system.
In the absence of an episode-based or bundled pricing model for Part B drugs, provider and practitioner prescribing patterns for a given drug treatment regimen under the current FFS payment system may unintentionally de-emphasize the value of drug regimens beyond the immediate care setting and throughout the course of drug therapy. For instance, in situations where drugs represent a small portion of the total cost of the patient's overall treatment therapy across multiple settings, particular attention may not be given to the financial impact of the cost of the drugs relative to the total cost of a patient's care or to the interaction of drug therapy with other aspects of the patient's care.
As part of this proposed rule, we are soliciting comments and suggestions to consider in future rulemaking related to an episode-based or bundled pricing approach for Part B drugs in both physician offices and hospital outpatient settings. The intent of this comment solicitation is to explore an initial framework that could promote greater incentives for improved patient outcomes and financial accountability for episodes of care surrounding particular courses of treatment using particular Part B drugs. CMS is pursuing bundled and episode payments through models such as the BPCI initiatives,
• How CMS could identify groups of similar drugs for inclusion in an episode (for example, are drugs used to treat certain types of arthritis suitable candidates for inclusion in an episode-based or bundled payment model).
• The care settings (for example physician office, outpatient hospital) and disease states that we should consider for an episode-based or bundled pricing model.
• What types of entities/providers and suppliers would be responsible for care under the program and the types of financial relationships would there be if shared savings were considered.
• Measuring and setting outcomes, including parameters around standardizing value metrics based on differences in drug treatments and their targeted patient subpopulations, as well as measures of total cost of care and adjustments for case-mix.
• The scope of the bundle or episode of care, if not considering total cost of care.
• The provider or entity that is responsible for the bundle.
• The length of time the episode should cover.
• The best way to establish pricing for a bundle and whether sharing risk and savings should be considered.
• Whether the bundles should be established prospectively or calculated retrospectively.
We acknowledge that there may be circumstances where a Medicare beneficiary whose Part B drug therapy is paid under the Part B Drug Payment Model may also be assigned to or otherwise accounted for in other payment models, demonstrations, programs, or other initiatives that are being tested by the Innovation Center. In this proposed rule, the term shared savings refers to models in which the payment structure includes a calculation of total savings with CMS and the model participants each retaining a particular percentage of that savings. We note that there is a potential for overlap between the Part B Drug Payment Model and the Medicare Shared Savings Program, the IVIG Demonstration, Innovation Center shared savings models, and other Innovation Center payment models, such as the OCM and the BPCI initiative. For other models tested by the Innovation Center, we have worked to prevent duplication and to monitor arrangements that minimize duplication of effort. We anticipate undertaking similar efforts for the Part B Drug Payment Model.
Unlike the Medicare Shared Savings Program and shared savings models such as the Next Generation ACO model or the Comprehensive ESRD Initiative where performance is measured using expansive measures that examine many facets of a patient's care, the Part B Drug Payment Model is limited to payments for drug therapy. Also, the Part B Drug Payment Model as it is proposed does not define episodes of care and instead makes payments for specific drug claims that are submitted by provider or supplier to the Medicare Administrative
OCM evaluates the impact of appropriately aligned financial incentives to improve care coordination, appropriateness of care, and access to care for beneficiaries undergoing chemotherapy. Under OCM, practices will enter into payment arrangements that include financial and performance accountability for episodes of care surrounding chemotherapy administration to cancer patients. The OCM is one of our key initiatives on alternative payment models, and we are preparing for implementation later this year.
OCM incorporates a two-part payment system for participating practices, creating incentives to improve the quality of care and furnish enhanced services for beneficiaries who undergo chemotherapy treatment for a cancer diagnosis. The two forms of payment include a monthly per-beneficiary-per-month (PBPM) payment for the duration of the episode and the potential for a performance-based payment for episodes of chemotherapy care. The monthly PBPM care management payment supports infrastructure and organizational change to meet the OCM requirements, such as 24/7 access to care, and assists participating practices in effectively managing and coordinating care for oncology patients during episodes of care, while the potential for performance-based payment will give practices incentives to lower the total cost of care and improve care for beneficiaries during treatment episodes.
There will be overlap between the Part B Drug Payment Model presented in this proposed rule and OCM in that both models will affect providers' and suppliers' incentives for the use of oncology drugs, but in different ways. Oncology drugs represent a significant portion of Part B claims and include many high cost drugs. Drug claims under the OCM are paid under the ASP methodology and costs associated with therapy (including drugs) are evaluated periodically. In the impact section to this proposed rule, section IX, we note the percent of total spending attributable to Part B drugs by specialty. Almost 80 percent of oncology practice Medicare FFS revenue is from Part B drugs.
We plan to proceed with both models, and we propose to include OCM practices in all arms of the Part B Drug Payment Model. That is, we would not alter the sampling plan discussed in section II of this proposed rule to exclude practices choosing to participate in OCM or practices that we might identify as the comparison group for OCM. In particular, as described above, the Part B Drug Payment Model is proposed as a national mandatory model so that all practices in selected PCSAs will participate in the Part B Drug Payment Model whether or not they elect to participate in any voluntary models. Selected OCM practices and matched comparison group practices could account for up to almost 40 percent of total Part B drug spending and for 70 percent of Part B spending on oncology drugs depending upon the actual enrollment of number and type of practices in the model. For this reason, we also believe that the remaining oncology spending would not be representative of Part B spending overall and Part B oncology spending in particular. Therefore we are proposing to include all OCM practices, both intervention and comparison group practices, in this model.
We believe that including OCM practices in the Part B Drug Payment Model will not compromise our ability to evaluate effectively the effects of either model. In particular, the stratified random assignment approach used to allocate PCSAs to the treatment and control arms of the Part B Drug Payment Model will ensure that each arm of the Part B Drug Payment Model contains an approximately equal number of OCM participating practices. Since the number of OCM participants will be approximately the same in all arms of the Part B Drug Payment Model, the existence of the OCM should not bias comparisons of outcomes across arms of the Part B Drug Payment Model; thus, the existence of the OCM should not affect our ability to identify the independent effect of the Part B Drug Payment Model (that is, the effect of the Part B Drug Payment Model holding the level of OCM participation constant). Similarly, the stratified random assignment approach used in the Part B Drug Payment Model will ensure that OCM participant and comparison practices are each allocated approximately evenly across the arms of the Part B Drug Payment Model. Since the share of practices allocated to each Part B Drug Payment Model treatment arm will be approximately the same across both the OCM participant and comparison groups, the existence of the Part B Drug Payment Model should not bias comparisons between OCM participants and non-participants and thus should not affect our ability to identify the independent effect of the OCM (that is, the effect of the OCM holding Part B Drug Payment Model activities constant). We seek comment on these conclusions.
The agency continues to assess best methods for addressing the overlap between the two models. We solicit comments on why practices choosing to participate in the OCM should or should not be included in the Part B Drug Payment Model. Should OCM practices be included in this Part B Drug Payment Model as we propose, we solicit comment on the best mechanism to account for the overlap between these two models. We also solicit comments on the generalizability of the results of the Part B Drug Payment Model if the OCM practices and their matched comparison practices are excluded; specifically, on whether the model will produce usable information without the OCM practices and their comparison practices. As we move forward to implement OCM, we will work closely with OCM practices within the context of that voluntary model to adapt to the Part B Drug Payment Model if necessary, for example through modifications to the financial reconciliation methodology.
The Medicare IVIG Demonstration evaluates the benefits of providing payment and items for services needed for the in-home administration of intravenous immune globulin for the treatment of primary immune deficiency disease (PIDD).
Services and items covered under the demonstration are provided and billed by the suppliers that provide the IVIG, which is already covered under Medicare Part B. The demonstration-covered services and items are paid as a single bundle and will be subject to coinsurance and deductible in the same manner as other Part B services. Home health agencies are not eligible to bill for services covered under the
This IVIG demonstration encompasses only the items and services that are needed for the in-home administration of IVIG; payments for IVIG are not changed. We therefore propose not to exclude patients in the IVIG demonstration from inclusion in this model. We seek comment on our proposed approach and the potential interactions with existing models and payment provisions.
Providers, suppliers, and beneficiaries who are included in the model will have access to the existing claims appeals process, as well as a proposed Pre-Appeals Payment Exceptions Review process, to resolve disputes arising from the policies implemented by this model. The process will be developed and finalized by CMS. The phase II contractor's scope of work will also include day-to-day operation of this process. The Payment Exceptions Review process will precede the formal Part B claims appeals process in existing 42 CFR part 405 subpart I and will allow a provider, supplier, or beneficiary to raise issues regarding payment that are included in the VBP tools under phase II before submitting a claim. We anticipate the Payment Exceptions Review process will give providers, suppliers, or beneficiaries the opportunity to preempt potential disputes regarding a model payment, prior to filing a Medicare Appeal under 42 CFR part 405 subpart I.
We propose to establish this Pre-Appeals Payment Exceptions Review process for pricing established under the value-based pricing section of phase II of this model only in order to allow the provider, supplier, or beneficiary an opportunity to dispute payments made under phase II. This process would be in addition to, not in lieu of, the current appeals process, and would be available to any providers, suppliers, or beneficiaries receiving services in PCSAs assigned to one of the VBP arms. Providers, suppliers, and beneficiaries would have the opportunity to appeal any payment determination via the appeals mechanism that currently exist outside of this model.
We propose that the Payment Exceptions Review process would be applicable to phase II payments, described in section III.B of this proposed rule, and would not include modifications to the ASP add-on, described in section III.A of this proposed rule. The Pre-Appeals Payment Exception Review process would allow the provider, supplier, or beneficiary to contact the contractor, before submitting a claim, and explain why an exception to Medicare's pricing policy, as described in section II.B, is warranted in the beneficiary's situation, and explain why the price provided under the phase II pricing policy does not provide accurate compensation for the prescribed drug. The Payment Exceptions decisions would be issued, in writing, within 5 business days of receipt of the request for a payment exception. While a payment exception decision would not confer appeal rights, a provider, supplier, or beneficiary dissatisfied with a payment exception decision or a pricing decision, may still utilize the current appeals process in 42 CFR part 405 subpart I following submission of a claim. Throughout this process, providers and suppliers would be prohibited from charging a beneficiary more than the applicable cost sharing as explained in Section III.B.2, above, even if a payment exceptions request is not approved by the contractor or the payment amount determined by the contractor remains unchanged as a result of the appeals process.
All of the current claims appeals rights will remain in place regardless of participation in this model or the choice to utilize the Pre-Appeals process. We discuss the current appeals process below.
As stated above, the Pre-Appeals process is intended as an option that would precede, not replace, the Medicare claims appeals process that is currently in place. The Pre-Appeals process is voluntary and intended to resolve payment disputes before the appeals process is needed, to minimize the number of formal Medicare appeals. Utilizing, or bypassing, the Pre-Appeals process will not affect the right of a provider, supplier, or beneficiary to access the current appeals process, following submission of a claim. In either the situation where the provider, supplier, or beneficiary submits a request for a Payment Exception, and that request is denied, or where the provider, supplier, or beneficiary does not choose to go through the Pre-Appeals process, the amount that will be paid on a submitted claim is that amount established through phase II pricing policy. The provider, supplier, or beneficiary may choose to appeal the payment amount, under 42 CFR part 405 subpart I, after the phase II price has been paid for a drug.
Under 42 CFR part 405 subpart I, MACs make an initial determination in response to a claim for benefits submitted by a provider, supplier, or beneficiary. We propose that the phase II pricing policy established by Medicare, which is proposed in § 511.305 of this proposed rule, and discussed in section III.B of this proposed rule, and any pricing determination rendered through the Pre-Appeals process will be given substantial deference, but will not be binding on any appeals adjudicator, regardless of whether the party requesting an appeal first utilized the Pre-Appeals process. If the provider, supplier, or beneficiary is dissatisfied with the MAC's initial determination, they may request that the MAC perform a redetermination under 42 CFR 405.940. If the provider, supplier, or beneficiary is dissatisfied with the redetermination, they may then request a reconsideration by the Qualified Independent Contractor (QIC) under 42 CFR 405.960. A provider, supplier, or beneficiary may then request a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) under 42 CFR 405.1000, if the claim(s) at issue meet the amount in controversy requirement ($150 for CY2016). Finally, a provider, supplier or beneficiary may request Appeals Council review under 42 CFR 405.1100,
Section 1115A(d)(1) of the Act provides the Secretary with broad authority to waive the statutory requirements titles XI and XVIII and of sections 1902(a)(1), 1902(a)(13), and 1903(m)(2)(A)(iii) of the Act as may be necessary solely for purposes of carrying out section 1115A of the Act with respect to testing models, described in section 1115A(b) of the Act. To test alternative approaches for Part B drug payments, we propose to use the waiver authority provided to the Secretary under section 1115A of the Act. The purpose of this flexibility would be to allow Medicare to test approaches described in this proposed rule with the goal of increasing the value of drug therapy that is paid under Medicare Part B while improving, or maintaining, the quality of beneficiaries' care as we
First, we propose to waive portions of section 1847A(b)(1) of the Act which specify the 6 percent add-on percentage for payments determined under section 1847A of the Act. Waiving the fixed add-on percentage will allow the agency to modify the add-on percentage for payment determinations made under section 1847A of the Act to test whether modifying the add-on percentage improves provider and supplier financial incentives associated with Part B drug payment. The waiver for the add-on encompasses single source drugs, biologicals, multiple source drugs and biosimilars as described in section 1847A of the Act. The 6 percent add-on is typically used for payments based on the manufacturer's ASP, but as discussed in the CY 2011 PFS rule, the ASP price files also include payments that use 106 percent of WAC. This percentage is consistent with sections 1847A(c)(4)(A) and 1847A(b) of the Act.
We also propose to waive the definitions of single source drug or biological, multiple source drug, and biosimilar biological product in section 1847A(c)(6) of the Act to determine payment for Part B drugs, which are grouped in a way that is different from how they are grouped in the statute. We propose to waive these definitions to test whether paying these types of drugs and biologicals using the pricing approaches described in this proposed rule will reduce expenditures while maintaining or improving quality of care. Alternative payment amounts proposed in this model may involve assigning a HCPCS code payment value with a different payment amount, than what would be determined under section 1847A of the Act. For example, under value-based pricing (Section II.B.2), equal or benchmarked payment for therapeutically similar drug products that are used for a given indication like osteoarthritis is unlikely to be consistent with the statutory definitions of single source drug or biological, multiple source drug, and biosimilar biologicals.
We also propose to waive provisions in section 1847A(b) of the Act that require the assignment of NDCs to HCPCS codes based on whether a drug meets the definition of single source drug or biological, multiple source drug, or biosimilar, which this section defines, and requires the agency to base the determination of the ASP (that is, the ASP+0 percent) on the NDCs from this assignment. We are proposing to waive this statutory requirement for the required approach of assigning NDC's to HCPCS to test changes in these payment limits. As stated in the preceding paragraph, the determination of the model's payment amounts may not be consistent with the statutory definitions of single source drug or biological, multiple source drug, and biosimilar biologicals.
Furthermore, we propose to waive section 1847A(b)(6) of the Act, which specifies how the volume-weighted average sales price is to be used in the calculation of average sales price, so that we can test alternatives to the ASP+6 percent methodology in this model, irrespective of the volume-weighted average payment amount determination. This subsection provides the formula for using volume as a factor for determining the average sales price. Waiving this provision is necessary to test changes to the payment determination methodology that is described in section 1847A of the Act. Consistent with the statutory provisions discussed above, we also propose to waive applicable portions of § 414.904-906 which define and implement payment provisions associated with section 1847A of the Act.
The waiver should also encompass other Part B drug payment methodologies that are used to pay for Part B drugs which are described in section 1842(o) of the Act. Section 1842(o)(1)(D) of the Act requires that infusion drugs furnished through an item of DME be paid at 95 percent of the AWP in effect on October 1, 2003. We are proposing to waive this section to include infusion drugs that are furnished through covered DME items in the model. Immunosuppressive drug supplying fees, inhalation drug dispensing fees and the clotting factor furnishing fees are described in sections 1842(o)(2), 1842(o)(5), 1842(o)(6) of the Act. We propose to waive these provisions to include modifications to the fees in the model. Section 1842(o)(2) of the Act allows Medicare to pay a dispensing fee (less the applicable deductible and coinsurance amounts) to the supplier for certain drugs that are dispensed and then paid under Part B. Section 1842(o)(5) of the Act requires the Secretary to provide a separate payment for items and services related to the furnishing of blood clotting factors. Finally, section 1842(o)(6) of the Act requires the Secretary to pay a supplying fee to pharmacies for certain immunosuppressive, oral anticancer and oral antiemetic drugs (less the applicable deductible and coinsurance amounts).
Further, we propose to waive portions of section 1833 of the Act. Specifically, we propose to waive section 1833(t)(14) of the Act in its entirety, which specifies that the OPPS pays for certain outpatient drugs at acquisition cost plus an adjustment for overhead and handling; this payment is currently set to ASP+6 percent. We propose to waive this provision to test the proposed changes to the ASP+6 percent methodology calculation for drugs and biologicals in the hospital outpatient department setting. Some drugs and biologicals, including certain diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals receive packaged payment. We would not revise our policy for packaging drugs and biologicals with per day costs below a certain threshold at this time for those drugs and biologicals that meet OPPS packaging criteria (we discuss episodes of care in this proposed rule, but do not propose to include episodes or other bundles at this time). We also propose to waive section 1833(t)(6) of the Act, which requires the Secretary to furnish additional pass through payments for certain drugs that are covered under the OPD service or group of services described under this section. This includes orphan drugs, cancer therapy drugs and brachytherapy, radiopharmaceuticals, and certain new drugs. We would waive the requirement that drugs and biologicals with pass-through status receive payment at ASP+6 percent to test changes with either alternative under either phase of the model. We propose to waive these sections of section 1833 of the Act, as well as related regulation text at § 419.64, which provides definitions of terms used in the statute, including cancer therapy drugs, orphan drugs, and radiopharmaceutical drugs. We are waiving these regulatory definitions of terms described in section 1833 of the Act to achieve a waiver of the statutory requirement for pass through payment.
We further propose to waive section 1847B of the Act and portions of § 414.906 through § 414.920 which implement the Part B drug CAP. This section requires the establishment of a CAP and sets forth detailed requirements for the program. We have discussed an alternative to the CAP in this rule and solicited comments about how a similar program may be implemented, but we are not proposing the implementation of the CAP as described in section 1847B of the Act at this time.
Providers and suppliers who participate in this model must comply with all applicable laws and regulations not explicitly waived in this document. We also seek comment on any additional Medicare program rules that it may be necessary to waive using our authority under section 1115A of the Act to effectively test the payment changes, described in this model, as it has been proposed, which we could consider in the context of our early model implementation experience to inform any future proposals we may make.
Our evaluation of the Part B Drug Payment Model would test the proposed innovative health care payment model in this proposed rule to examine its potential to lower program expenditures while maintaining or improving the quality of care furnished to Medicare Program beneficiaries. Under this proposal, the Innovation Center would exercise its authority under section 1115A of the Act to test alternative payment designs for Part B drugs. The evaluation would collect and analyze data primarily to test the hypothesis that these alternative payment designs would lead to both higher quality and more affordable care for Part B Medicare enrollees and reduced Medicare expenditures. Our evaluation of the Part B Drug Payment Model would be used to inform the Secretary and policymakers about the impact of the alternatives tested relative to payment under the traditional Part B drug payment system in the absence of such alternatives. We propose to evaluate this model in a manner similar to other models developed and tested under the Innovation Center authority.
Obtaining information that is representative of a wide and diverse group of providers, suppliers, and beneficiaries will best inform us on about how such a payment model might function were it to be more fully integrated within the Medicare program. Our evaluation approach will compare historic patterns of Part B drug use and Medicare program costs for providers and suppliers, and health outcomes for beneficiaries in response to the alternative interventions proposed in this model (see section III. of this proposed rule).
We propose to apply the model interventions based upon a stratified random assignment of PCSAs, the unit of analysis for the model test (see section II.C. of this proposed rule). Researchers would evaluate separately the impacts of the test interventions by comparing Part B drug use, program costs, and the quality of care for providers, suppliers, and beneficiaries in the areas assigned to each model test arm to those in areas assigned to the control arm. The evaluation will include a range of analytic methods, including regression and other multivariate analyses.
In our design, we primarily examine the impact of the proposed model interventions at the PCSA level. However, to address a broader variety of stakeholders and topics, we also propose to examine the model impact at the provider and supplier level and at the beneficiary level. We anticipate using various statistical methods to address observable factors that could confound or bias our results. We also plan, to the extent possible, to examine and account for the interactions of this model with other ongoing interventions such as the OCM, BPCI, the Pioneer ACO Models, and the Medicare Shared Savings Program. For example, the evaluation of this model may require excluding areas, providers, suppliers, or beneficiaries if including them has the potential to seriously bias the results of an existing model. Alternatively, statistical and other data analytic techniques could help to adjust for the effects of adding the Part B drug model in areas where providers, suppliers, or patients are participating in these other interventions.
Although, we expect to base many of our analyses on secondary data sources such as Medicare FFS claims, we may consider a survey of beneficiaries, suppliers, and providers to provide insight on beneficiaries' experience under the model and additional information on any strategies undertaken by those providing drugs included under this model.
Our evaluation will focus upon whether the intervention reduces costs while improving quality of care. It also could include assessments of patient experience of care, prescribing and utilization patterns, health outcomes, Medicare expenditures, provider and supplier costs, and other potential impacts of interest to stakeholders. Our key evaluation questions would include, but are not limited to, the following:
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In addition, we seek comments on other potential questions for inclusion in the evaluation of the Part B Drug Payment Model.
As stated in section 1115A(d)(3) of the Act, Chapter 35 of title 44, United States Code, shall not apply to the testing and evaluation of models under section 1115A of the Act. As a result, the information collection requirements contained in this proposed rule need not be reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. However, costs incurred through information collections are included in the Regulatory Impact Analysis.
Because of the large number of public comments we normally receive on
We have examined the impacts of this proposed rule, as required by Executive
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This proposed rule has been designated as an economically significant rule under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866 and a major rule under the Contract with America Advancement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121). Accordingly, this proposed rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. We have prepared a regulatory impact analysis that, to the best of our ability, presents the costs and benefits of this proposed rule. We solicit comments on the regulatory impact analysis in the proposed rule.
This proposed rule is necessary to implement and test a new payment and service delivery model under the authority of section 1115A of the Act, which allows the Innovation Center to test innovative payment and service delivery models to reduce program expenditures while preserving or enhancing the quality of care furnished to individuals. The underlying issue addressed by the Part B Drug Payment Model is whether the FFS payment amount for drugs furnished in physician offices and hospital outpatient departments at ASP+6 percent encourages the use of more expensive drugs because the 6 percent add-on generates more revenue for more expensive drugs (see MedPAC Report to the Congress: Medicare and the Health Care Delivery System June 2015, pages 65-72). Medicare pays this price regardless of the price a provider pays to acquire the drug. The ASP methodology does not take into account the effectiveness of a particular drug, nor the cost of comparable drugs, when determining the Medicare payment amount.
This proposed rule creates and tests one alternative payment approach to the ASP add-on amount and whether a combination of value-pricing and clinical decision support tools can change physician and hospital outpatient prescribing patterns. With minor exclusions, we propose to include the vast majority of Part B drugs in this proposed model, and we are requiring all providers and suppliers that furnish those Medicare Part B drugs to beneficiaries in selected geographic areas to participate. Some providers and suppliers will be included in the control group continuing to receive payment at ASP+6 percent. Testing the model in this manner will allow us to learn more about how best to structure FFS incentives for Part B drug payment and whether managing aspects of the Part B drug benefit can improve the value of Medicare spending on drugs. This learning could inform future Medicare payment policy.
As detailed in section III of this proposed rule, we are proposing to establish the CY 2016 alternative ASP add-on amount in phase I as budget neutral to Part B spending using CY 2014 claims data. We propose to update the flat fee amount each year based on the CPI MC. We intend to achieve savings through behavioral responses to the revised pricing, as we hope that the revised pricing removes any excess financial incentive to prescribe high cost drugs over lower cost ones when comparable low cost drugs are available. In other words, we believe that removing the financial incentive that may be associated with higher add-on payments may lead to some savings during phase I of the proposed model. We do not have an exact estimate of the amount of savings that might be achieved through behavioral responses. However, prior research suggests that changes in the 6 percent add-on percentage can change prescribing behavior. For example, in one study, the implementation of ASP+6 percent resulted in providers shifting patients to newer, more expensive drugs which had a higher profit margin under the ASP+6 percent methodology.
In phase II, we are proposing that the VBP component of the model would not be budget neutral. We intend to achieve savings in phase II through the use of value-pricing tools. We invite extensive comment throughout this proposed rule on the applicability of various VBP tools to the Part B and hospital outpatient drug benefit. We do not believe that we have enough detail on the structure of the final value-based purchasing component to quantify potential savings. As with phase I, we note evidence that changes in drug margin and the +6 percent add-on amount have correlated with changes in prescribing patterns. We cannot gauge the magnitude of savings for either proposed phase of the model at this time but we expect both to produce savings. We invite comment on the extent of savings that might be achieved based on commenter experience.
Part B and hospital outpatient spending for separately paid drugs and biologicals is estimated at $21 billion for CY 2016. We propose to assign through the stratified random sample one-half of the PCSAs to the phase I model arms testing payment at ASP+2.5 percent plus a flat fee and that should include roughly one-half of that estimated spending amount within those arms. We estimate that the flat fee would account for roughly $675 million of total Part B drug spending if calculated nationally. In addition to any changes in spending introduced through phase II, we believe that the model's effects will trigger the threshold of “an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more” under E.O. 12866.
The distributional impacts presented here are the projected effects of phase I of the proposed Part B Drug Payment Model implementing alternative ASP
For phase II of this model we do not present distributional impacts. This phase of the proposed model is not budget neutral, and as discussed in section II.B.1., evidence generally suggests that utilizing approaches employed by commercial and Part D plans to contain drug costs and improve value should lead to savings in Part B drug spending. However, the proposed rule invites extensive comment on which VBP tools are appropriately applied to the Part B and hospital outpatient drug benefit. We cannot yet quantify the overall impact of VBP. We invite comment on the extent of savings that might be achieved based on commenter experience, and we anticipate being able to better estimate the probability and magnitude of savings from those comments.
Table 2 shows the estimated impact of this proposed rule on physicians, practitioners, and other suppliers. Table 2 does not show specialties with less than $10 million in total drug spending and includes outpatient hospital spending as a specialty to demonstrate budget neutrality. Overall, Part B drug payment to practitioners, pharmacies, and hospitals by specialty in phase I of this proposed model will not change, as the ASP add-on revision is proposed to be budget neutral.
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Table 3 shows the estimated impact of this proposed rule on hospitals. The table includes cancer and children's hospitals, which are held harmless to their amount prior to the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (BBA) (Pub. L. 105-33). These providers are part of OPPS budget neutrality but would not be affected by the proposed Part B Drug Payment Model due to their hold harmless status. Overall, Part B drug payment to hospitals in the ASP+X phase of the Part B Drug Payment Model, phase 1, will decrease by an estimated 2.3 percent within the context of ASP based drug payment, and by an estimated 0.3 percent in overall hospital spending.
As discussed in section III.B. of this proposed rule, payment to hospitals for low cost drugs is included in the OPPS payment for primary services. We likely overestimate the cost of these drugs in our OPPS rate setting methodology due to our use of an average CCR in our cost estimation methodology. It is important to note that hospitals already receive robust payment for low cost drugs under a different payment methodology in light of the Table 3 conclusion demonstrating an overall −0.3 distribution away from hospitals.
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For phase I of this model, we estimate that the aggregate beneficiary share within the context of the model will remain unchanged as we are establishing the alternative ASP add-on amounts to be budget neutral. Coinsurance for most separately payable drugs is set at 20 percent of the payment rates, while payment for new drugs would also be set at 20 percent of payment based on the OPPS and Part B drug coinsurance requirements. As noted above, we intend to achieve savings through anticipated behavioral response to price changes, although we cannot quantify the amount. To the extent that prescribing patterns do shift toward lower cost drugs under phase I, in aggregate, beneficiaries would benefit along with the Medicare program. We note that individual beneficiaries may see increases or decreases in their cost-sharing responsibility consistent with any redistribution in payment.
For phase II of this model, commercial experience suggests that some savings could be achieved, but we cannot anticipate the magnitude of changes in spending as already discussed. To the extent that savings ultimately are realized, both the beneficiary and Medicare program would benefit. Further, we have proposed in our value-based pricing discussion in section III.A. of this proposed rule, consistent with cost sharing approaches for Part B drugs, that beneficiary cost sharing will not exceed 20 percent of the total model-based payment amount for the Part B drug.
Alternatives to the Part B Drug Payment Model changes that we are proposing and the reasons for our selected alternatives are discussed throughout this proposed rule. In this section, we discuss some of the significant issues and the alternatives considered.
In the context of phase I, we considered several alternative structures for the ASP add-on amount. We first considered proposing a flat fee with no percent add-on. MedPAC discussed this alternative among several in their June 2015 report on Part B drug payment (MedPAC Report to the Congress: Medicare and the Health Care Delivery System June 2015, pages 65-72). Under such an approach, we would pay for an individual drug using baseline ASP amount and redistribute the entire +6 percent add-on amount in the form of a flat fee divided equally among doses of all drugs. This would shift an even greater portion of payments from the high cost drugs to the lower cost drugs even more aggressively than the proposed redistribution of ASP+2.5 percent plus a flat fee of $16.80. Like MedPAC, we believe that some amount of percentage add-on is required to address distribution channel costs associated with wholesalers and others between the manufacturer sales price and the physician purchase of a drug. Converting the ASP add-on payment to a complete flat fee might limit providers' ability to purchase expensive drugs as well as overly incentivize payment for the low cost drugs. We chose not to propose such a payment structure. We also have discussed additional tests of add-on modifications in section III.A.3 of this proposed rule. However, we believe that these approaches are not sufficiently different from the proposed approach to warrant proposal. We also were concerned that additional arms in the model could reduce statistical power. We invited comments on the decision to test one approach, ASP+2.5 percent + flat fee of $16.80.
Regarding the proposed Part B VBP model and its component tools, an alternative that we had considered was establishing episode of care based payments, potentially focused on specific drug treatments. There are a variety of ways to remove financial incentives from the prescribing decision. Clearly embedding decisions about prescribing within a model that pays for care management or rewards changes in total cost of care could create incentives for better quality and lower cost care. We are testing such an approach under the OCM, which we discuss in greater detail under section III. E. of this proposed rule. We chose not to explore an episode of care approach under this proposed Part B Drug Payment Model because of our immediate interest in addressing current incentives in Part B payment for the full range of Part B drugs. Rather than proposing an episode of care based payment built upon drug treatments, we are soliciting comments on an episode approach in section III.D. of this proposed rule for future consideration. We also plan to monitor experiences under the OCM closely to identify other opportunities for similar models that include drug therapies.
As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available on the Office of Management and Budget Web site at
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities, if a rule has a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, most hospitals, practitioners, and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by nonprofit status or by having annual revenues that qualify for small business status under the Small Business Administration standards. For details, see the Small Business Administration's “Table of Small Business Size Standards” at
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 603 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a metropolitan statistical area and has 100 or fewer beds. We estimate that this proposed rule may have a significant impact on small rural hospitals selected for the model. Therefore, we have prepared a regulatory impact analysis that includes the effects of the proposed rule on small rural hospitals.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. That threshold level is currently approximately $144 million. This proposed rule does not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, or for the private sector.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it issues a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct costs on State and local governments, preempts state law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. We have examined the OPPS and MPFS provisions in the Part B Drug Payment Model included in this proposed rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that they will not have a substantial direct effect on state, local or tribal governments, preempt state law, or otherwise have a Federalism implication. As reflected in Table 3 of this proposed rule, we estimate that OPPS payments to governmental hospitals (including state and local governmental hospitals) would decrease payment by 0.4 percent under this proposed rule. While we do not know the number of physician offices with government ownership, we anticipate that it is small. The analyses we have provided in this section of this proposed rule, in conjunction with the remainder of this document, demonstrate that this proposed rule is consistent with the regulatory philosophy and principles identified in Executive Order 12866, the RFA, and section 1102(b) of the Act.
The changes we are proposing to make in this proposed rule will affect all categories of outpatient providers, physicians, practitioners, and other suppliers who furnish drugs that we are proposing to include in the Part B Drug Payment Model. We estimate that the effect of this proposal on physician specialties changes will vary, depending on what drugs they furnish and their clinical patterns. Table 2 demonstrates the estimated impact of the proposal on physician and supplier specialties, which for most would result in changes in drug payments in the range of −3.3 to 50.2 percent and −2.9 to 3.2 percent for overall Medicare payments. We estimate that most classes of hospitals paid under the OPPS will experience a minimal decrease in overall payment related to the proposed Part B Drug Payment Model. Table 3 demonstrates the estimated impact of the proposal, which for most hospital categories would result in decreases in payments for separately paid drugs in the range of −2.5 to −2.0 percent and −0.9 to −0.1 percent for overall Medicare payments. The effect of this proposal on an individual hospital, physician, practitioner, or other supplier will depend on its individual practice patterns.
Administrative practice and procedure, Health facilities, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, under the authority at section 1115A of the Social Security Act, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services proposes to amend 42 CFR Chapter IV by adding Part 511 to Subchapter H to read as follows:
Secs. 1102, 1115A, and 1871 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1315(a), and 1395hh).
(a)
(b)
(1) The participants in the model.
(2) The drugs being tested in the model.
(3) The methodologies for pricing and payment under the model.
(4) Safeguards to ensure preservation of beneficiary choice and beneficiary notification.
For the purposes of this part, the following definitions are applicable:
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(b)
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(2) Specified fees paid in accordance with section 1842(o) of the Act, including those paid for immunosuppressive drugs, inhalation drugs and clotting factors under sections 1842(o)(6), 1842(o)(2), 1842(o)(5) of the Act.
(c)
(2) ESRD drugs paid under the authority in section 1881 of the Act.
(3) Influenza, pneumococcal pneumonia and Hepatitis B vaccines paid under the benefit described in section 1862(s)(10) of the Act.
(4) OPPS drugs that receive packaged payment.
(5) Blood and blood products.
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(1) ASP+6 percent [control].
(2) ASP+2.5 percent plus a flat fee.
(3) Value-based purchasing.
(4) ASP+2.5 plus a flat fee and value-based purchasing.
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(2) ASP add-on will be tested in phases I and II and will be implemented no sooner than 60 days after the rule is finalized. VBP arms are tested in conjunction with ASP add-on in phase II. Phase II will be implemented on or after January 1, 2017.
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(2) The ASP+0 portion of the model payment rates are updated quarterly concurrently with determinations made under § 414.904 of this chapter.
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We waive section 1847B of the Act and portions of §§ 414.906 through 414.920 of this chapter which implement the Part B drug competitive acquisition program (CAP).
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |