Page Range | 21699-22021 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
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81 FR 22021 - Amending Executive Order 12137 | |
81 FR 22019 - National Former Prisoner of War Recognition Day, 2016 | |
81 FR 22017 - Pan American Day and Pan American Week, 2016 | |
81 FR 22015 - National Volunteer Week, 2016 | |
81 FR 22011 - National Crime Victims' Rights Week, 2016 | |
81 FR 21932 - Order of Suspension of Trading; In the Matter of Business Marketing Services, Inc., Diversified Corporate Resources, Inc., Great Lakes Recreation Co., Green Nature USA, Inc., Green St. Energy, Inc., International Total Services, Inc., J.P. Cabot Realty, Inc., Multicom Publishing, Pan American Resources, Inc., Printron, Inc., Seaboard Associates, Inc., Sona Mobile Holdings Group, Ltd., Standard Holdings Group, Ltd., TraceGuard Technologies, Inc., Tradings.net, Inc., US-Worldlink.com, Inc., Versadial, Inc., Voxcorp, Inc., and W3OTC, Inc. | |
81 FR 21949 - Meeting of the Regional Resource Stewardship Council; Correction | |
81 FR 21909 - Temporary Emergency Committee of the Board of Governors; Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 21882 - Circulatory System Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 21887 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Meetings | |
81 FR 21884 - National Institute on Deafness and Other Communication Disorders; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 21908 - Mail Classification Change | |
81 FR 21881 - Board of Scientific Counselors, National Center for Health Statistics (BSC, NCHS) | |
81 FR 21880 - Mine Safety and Health Research Advisory Committee, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (MSHRAC, NIOSH) | |
81 FR 21878 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
81 FR 21878 - Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or Advisory Board), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH): Notice of Charter Re-establishment | |
81 FR 21880 - Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices: Notice of Charter Renewal | |
81 FR 21906 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
81 FR 21881 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
81 FR 21837 - Privacy Act of 1974; Amended System of Records | |
81 FR 21752 - Acequinocyl; Pesticide Tolerances | |
81 FR 21830 - Significant New Use Rule on Certain Chemical Substances | |
81 FR 21950 - Notice of Request To Release Airport Property | |
81 FR 21882 - Announcing the Award of a Single Source Expansion Supplement to Community Action Partnership in Washington, DC | |
81 FR 21905 - Proposed Extension of Existing Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 21883 - Public Meeting of the Presidential Commission for the Study of Bioethical Issues | |
81 FR 21862 - Availability of Final NPDES General Permit for Stormwater Discharges From Small Municipal Separate Storm Sewer Systems in Massachusetts | |
81 FR 21949 - Advisory Committee on International Economic Policy | |
81 FR 21840 - Freshwater Crawfish Tail Meat from the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and New Shipper Reviews; 2013-2014 | |
81 FR 21843 - Certain Steel Grating From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Administrative Review and Preliminary Determination of No Shipments; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 21842 - United States Investment Advisory Council | |
81 FR 21864 - Orientation Session for the Chemical Safety Advisory Committee; Notice of Public Meeting | |
81 FR 21887 - Chemical Security Assessment Tool (CSAT) | |
81 FR 21891 - Exercise of Authority under Section 212(d)(3)(B)(i) of the Immigration and Nationality Act | |
81 FR 21851 - Cheniere Marketing, LLC & Corpus Christi Liquefaction, LLC, Cheniere Marketing, LLC, Corpus Christi Liquefaction, LLC, Sabine Pass Liquefaction, LLC, Statement Regarding Change in Control | |
81 FR 21808 - Proposed Priorities, Requirements, and Definitions-Disability Innovation Fund-Transition Work-Based Learning Model Demonstrations | |
81 FR 21863 - Extension of Public Comment Period for the Draft EPA-USGS Technical Report: Protecting Aquatic Life From Effects of Hydrologic Alteration | |
81 FR 21952 - Internal Revenue Service Advisory Council (IRSAC); Nominations | |
81 FR 21840 - Manufacturing Council: Renewal of the Manufacturing Council Charter | |
81 FR 21706 - Classes of Poultry | |
81 FR 21756 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Pacific Cod in the Bering Sea Subarea of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
81 FR 21849 - Negotiation of a Reciprocal Defense Procurement Memorandum of Understanding With the Ministry of Defense of Latvia | |
81 FR 21870 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
81 FR 21699 - Margin Protection Program for Dairy | |
81 FR 21881 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
81 FR 21847 - Fisheries of the South Atlantic; South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council)-Scientific and Statistical Committee Meeting; Social and Economic Sciences Panel Meeting | |
81 FR 21848 - Fisheries of the Gulf of Mexico; Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR); Gulf of Mexico Data-limited Species (Red Drum, Lane Snapper, Wenchman, Yellowmouth Grouper, Speckled Hind, Snowy Grouper, Almaco Jack, Lesser Amberjack) | |
81 FR 21758 - Eligibility of Honduras To Export Poultry Products to the United States | |
81 FR 21858 - City of Loveland, Co; Notice of Authorization for Continued Project Operation | |
81 FR 21861 - Yuba County Water Agency; Notice of Authorization for Continued Project Operation | |
81 FR 21860 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance | |
81 FR 21862 - Live Oak Solar, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 21859 - Commission Information Collection Activities (FERC-539); Comment Request; Extension | |
81 FR 21850 - Notice of Intent To Grant Partially Exclusive Patent License; BladeBeam, Inc. | |
81 FR 21850 - Notice of Availability of Government-Owned Inventions; Available for Licensing | |
81 FR 21898 - Notice of 2-year Extension of the Temporary Closure of the Ash Springs Recreation Site on Public Lands in Lincoln County, NV | |
81 FR 21949 - SJI Board of Directors Meeting | |
81 FR 21944 - Social Security Ruling, SSR 16-4p; Titles II and XVI: Using Genetic Test Results To Evaluate Disability | |
81 FR 21907 - Proposed Emergency Preparedness Frequently Asked Questions | |
81 FR 21846 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Meeting | |
81 FR 21951 - Developing Evidence Based Fatigue Risk Management Guidelines for Emergency Medical Services: First Expert Panel Meeting | |
81 FR 21873 - GSA Labor-Management Relations Council Meeting Cancellation | |
81 FR 21768 - Airworthiness Directives; International Aero Engines AG Turbofan Engines | |
81 FR 21870 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 21837 - South Central Idaho Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 21892 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Permit Applications | |
81 FR 21904 - Petitions for Modification of Application of Existing Mandatory Safety Standards | |
81 FR 21951 - Notice To Rescind a Notice of Intent for an Environmental Impact Statement for the Kake Access Project in Southeast Alaska | |
81 FR 21899 - Notice of Inventory Completion: History Colorado, Formerly Colorado Historical Society, Denver, CO | |
81 FR 21902 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: History Colorado, formerly Colorado Historical Society, Denver, CO | |
81 FR 21899 - Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: History Colorado, Formerly Colorado Historical Society, Denver, CO | |
81 FR 21901 - Notice of Inventory Completion: U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management, Nevada State Office, Reno, NV | |
81 FR 21903 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Reinstatement, With Change, of a Previously Approved Collection for Which Approval Has Expired: 2016 Law Enforcement Administrative and Management Statistics (LEMAS) Survey | |
81 FR 21872 - Submission for OMB Review; Change Order Accounting | |
81 FR 21909 - Public Company Accounting Oversight Board; Notice of Filing of Proposed Amendments to Board Rules Relating to Inspections | |
81 FR 21876 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 21878 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 21865 - Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
81 FR 21867 - Information Collections Approved by the Office of Management and Budget | |
81 FR 21868 - Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
81 FR 21869 - Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau; Federal Advisory Committee Act; Task Force on Optimal Public Safety Answering Point Architecture | |
81 FR 21885 - Office of the Director, Office of Science Policy, Office of Biotechnology Activities; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 21885 - National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 21885 - National Eye Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 21886 - National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 21884 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 21886 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 21849 - Public Availability of Fiscal Year 2015 Service Contract Inventory | |
81 FR 21847 - Ocean Exploration Advisory Board | |
81 FR 21935 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Relating to PIXL | |
81 FR 21933 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ISE Mercury; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Limit Mandatory Participation in Scheduled Functional and Performance Testing Under Regulation SCI to Only Those Primary Market Makers That Meet Specified Criteria | |
81 FR 21928 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule To Amend the Fees Schedule | |
81 FR 21931 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change Relating to LMMs and DPMs | |
81 FR 21921 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rules 7015(g)(1) and 7034 | |
81 FR 21914 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change To Require Registration as Securities Traders of Associated Persons Primarily Responsible for the Design, Development, Significant Modification of Algorithmic Trading Strategies or Responsible for the Day-to-Day Supervision of Such Activities | |
81 FR 21924 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change To Adopt FINRA Rule 3210 (Accounts at Other Broker-Dealers and Financial Institutions), as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 1 and Partial Amendment No. 2, in the Consolidated FINRA Rulebook | |
81 FR 21916 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To List and Trade Shares of the WBI Tactical Rotation Shares Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
81 FR 21950 - Aerospace Fuel, Engine Oil, and Hydraulic Hose Assemblies | |
81 FR 21836 - Kootenai National Forest; Fortine Ranger District; Montana; Ten Lakes Travel Management Project | |
81 FR 21845 - Nondestructive Evaluation Techniques for Assessing Alkali-Silica Reaction Degradation of Concrete Consortium | |
81 FR 21860 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 21859 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 21857 - Records Governing Off-the-Record Communications; Public Notice | |
81 FR 21856 - Public Utility District No. 2 of Grant County; Notice of Application and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 21861 - Grand River Dam Authority; Notice Granting Waiver Request To Reduce Comment Period From 60 to 30 Days on Draft Amendment Application | |
81 FR 21861 - Tennessee Gas Pipeline Company, L.L.C.; Notice of Revised Schedule for Environmental Review of the Triad Expansion Project | |
81 FR 21853 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 21858 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 21839 - Environmental Technologies Trade Advisory Committee Public Meeting | |
81 FR 21943 - Texas Disaster Number TX-00465 | |
81 FR 21943 - Mississippi Disaster Number MS-00084 | |
81 FR 21951 - Reports, Forms and Record Keeping Requirements; Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review | |
81 FR 21943 - Louisiana Disaster Number LA-00062 | |
81 FR 21874 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 21850 - Notice of Public Meeting for EAC Standards Board (Correction) | |
81 FR 21871 - Information Collection; Notification of Ownership Changes | |
81 FR 21873 - Information Collection; Contract Funding-Limitation of Costs/Funds | |
81 FR 21870 - Submission for OMB Review; Economic Price Adjustment | |
81 FR 21735 - Establishment of Class E Airspace, South Bend, WA | |
81 FR 21772 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and E Airspace and Revocation of Class E Airspace; Sioux City, IA | |
81 FR 21774 - Proposed Amendment of Class E Airspace for the Following Louisiana Towns; De Quincy, LA; Minden, LA; Slidell, LA; and Revocation of Class E Airspace; Homer, LA | |
81 FR 21814 - Finding of Attainment and Approval of Attainment Plan for Klamath Falls, Oregon Fine Particulate Matter Nonattainment Area | |
81 FR 21730 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 21762 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 21716 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 21732 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 21770 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation | |
81 FR 21766 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (Formerly Known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Airplanes | |
81 FR 21709 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
81 FR 21953 - Debt Management Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 21726 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 21722 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 21711 - Airworthiness Directives; SOCATA Airplanes | |
81 FR 21795 - Deemed Distributions Under Section 305(c) of Stock and Rights to Acquire Stock | |
81 FR 21747 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Texas; Control of Air Pollution From Nitrogen Compounds State Implementation Plan | |
81 FR 21775 - Rules of Practice for Adjudicative Proceedings | |
81 FR 21955 - National Organic Program; Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices | |
81 FR 21713 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters (formerly Eurocopter France) | |
81 FR 21735 - Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Arizona; Regional Haze Federal Implementation Plan; Reconsideration | |
81 FR 21720 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Commodity Credit Corporation
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Forest Service
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Navy Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Mine Safety and Health Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Commodity Credit Corporation and Farm Service Agency, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule amends the regulations for the Margin Protection Program for Dairy (MPP-Dairy) to allow dairy operations to update their production history when a son, daughter, grandchild, or spouse of a child or grandchild of a current producer participating in the MPP-Dairy program joins the operation. In addition, this rule provides for a later due date for the payment of the entire premium and clarifies that dairy operations that purchase buy-up coverage on less than 90 percent of their production history will also receive catastrophic coverage on the balance, up to 90 percent of the production history. The rule also makes corrections and clarifications.
This rule is effective April 13, 2016.
For MPP-Dairy: Danielle Cooke; telephone: (202) 720-1919. Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication should contact the USDA Target Center at (202) 720-2600.
On August 29, 2014, the Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC) and Farm Service Agency (FSA) published a final rule titled “Margin Protection Program for Dairy and Dairy Product Donation Program” (79 FR 51453-51470). The final rule implemented MPP-Dairy and DPDP as authorized in the Agricultural Act of 2014 (the 2014 Farm Bill, Pub. L. 113-79). FSA operates both programs using CCC funds. Following the August 2014 final rule, in response to public comments on the final rule, FSA and CCC published a comment period extension on October 30, 2014, (79 FR 64503) for the final rule; comments were accepted through December 15, 2014. This rule makes regulatory changes to MPP-Dairy in response to the public comments and also makes minor corrections and clarifications. Specifically, this rule:
• Allows dairy operations to update their production history once during the term of the contract (through December 31, 2018) to accommodate intergenerational transfers where a son, daughter, grandchild, or spouse of a child or grandchild joins the dairy operation;
• Clarifies that dairy operations that purchase buy-up coverage on less than 90 percent of their production history will also receive catastrophic coverage on the balance, up to 90 percent of the production history;
• Sets a later final premium payment due date to allow greater flexibility for dairy operations in making payments; and
• Includes technical amendments that make minor corrections and clarify the effects of failure to pay administrative or premium fees.
Subtitle D, sections 1401-1410, of the 2014 Farm Bill (7 U.S.C. 9051-9060) authorizes MPP-Dairy to provide risk management coverage that will pay producers when the difference between the price of milk and the cost of feed (the margin) falls below a certain dollar amount selected by the producer. Producers are eligible for catastrophic level margin protection (based on a $4 margin and 90 percent production history coverage) for their dairy operations by paying an administrative fee, and are also able to purchase greater coverage (up to $8 margin on 25 to 90 percent of production history) for an additional premium.
A production history is established when a dairy operation first registers to participate in MPP-Dairy. The production history is based on the operation's production from 2011 through 2013, as specified in the 2014 Farm Bill. For entirely new operations or operations with less than a full year of production history prior to the 2014 Farm Bill, it is based on the number of cows and the national average production per cow (the “national rolling herd average data”) or an extrapolation from the operation's actual production data. As specified in section 1405 of the 2014 Farm Bill, once an operation has bought MPP-Dairy coverage, FSA will only update the production amount that can be covered to reflect annual changes in the national average milk production. (For example, if national milk production increases 5 percent in a year, operations can buy MPP-Dairy coverage on up to 5 percent more production the following year, up to 90 percent of production). Section 1410 of the 2014 Farm Bill also specifically requires that the Secretary promulgate regulations that prohibit a dairy producer from reconstituting an operation for the purpose of receiving margin protection payments. The intent of these provisions is to ensure that the risk management coverage does not encourage excess production that could drive down the price of milk, which would be counterproductive for a price-based risk management program.
In the August 29, 2014, final rule, FSA requested comments about the establishment of additional production history and any limitations for such a production increase under MPP-Dairy since that final rule only addressed additional production history for the annual adjustment based on an increase to the national average milk production. The final rule did not address the establishment of additional production history for a participating dairy operation in specific instances, such as when a descendent of the current producer joins a participating dairy operation.
The ability to transfer the dairy business from one generation to the next has become increasingly difficult in the past decade due to increased market volatility and the large capital investment required to start a dairy operation. While the August 29, 2014, regulation does allow for new covered production for entirely new operations, many new dairy farmers get started by joining their family's existing dairy operation, due to the capital costs involved. Under the August 29, 2014, rule, if an existing family-owned dairy operation with MPP-Dairy coverage added more cows to support a family
In response to the August 29, 2014, final rule, FSA received 38 comments. Comments were submitted by individuals, insurance providers, industry groups (including coalitions, associations, farm credit organizations, dairy cooperatives, and milk marketing companies), and a State Department of Agriculture.
The preamble to the August 29, 2014, final rule asked for public input on three specific questions about intergenerational transfers and family members, as well as general comments on other aspects of MPP-Dairy. All of the comments received on intergenerational transfers supported provisions to allow additional production history under certain circumstances, with various suggestions for what eligibility requirements should be. A summary of the input received on three questions, and our responses, is provided below, followed by a discussion of other general comments received.
Comment: Yes, the provisions in the final rule hinder intergenerational transfers. Under current MPP-Dairy rules, once the production history for a dairy operation under MPP-Dairy is established, other than the annual production increase, the production history cannot not be adjusted to support the income needs of two or more families (or one extended family) in instances when a dairy farmer wants to bring on a son or daughter or spouse of a son or daughter and add more cows to the herd.
Response: We agree. The average age of dairy farmers in the United States is 62 years old; allowing intergenerational transfers of production history will facilitate the transfer of dairy operations to the next generation, which is particularly important for small family operations. Therefore, this rule will amend production history requirements to add § 1430.105(g) to specify that a dairy operation may add additional production history for an intergenerational transfer when a lineal descendant, or spouse thereof, joins a participating dairy operation. In addition, this rule adds a definition of “intergenerational transfer” to § 1430.102. Only sons, daughters, grandchildren, and their spouses are included in the definition. Intergenerational transfers to more distant non-lineal relatives such as cousins, nieces, or nephews will not result in eligibility for additional production history, nor will transfers to siblings.
Comment: Suggestions included:
• Allow a one-time reorganization of the ownership structure to allow for children, grandchildren, or their spouses joining the farm, but specify that the additional member(s) must meet certain requirements, such as minimum labor contribution and equity ownership standards; significant equity ownership should be at least 10 percent individually or at least 25 percent collectively, if multiple new members are joining the dairy operation at the same time;
• Require that the farm provide adequate supporting documentation of a legitimate restructure within a family operation that includes verifiable financial investments proportionate to the income needs of the new farmer and the size of the dairy operation;
• Restrict it to a lineal descendant or their spouse, not a distant relative;
• Determine additional production history using similar provisions for establishing production history for new dairy operations in § 1430.105(b) where the additional production quantity would be estimated based on the number of additional cows added to the herd multiplied by the national “rolling herd average” production data published by the Secretary; and
• To ensure all production from the additional member is protected, either allow an operation's base to be a rolling average of the last 3 years of production or allow 50 percent of production above the base, including the adjustment for the average national increase to be included with the base calculation during times when MPP-Dairy activates.
Response: This rule amends production history requirements to allow for a one-time restructuring of currently established production history for a dairy operation when a son, daughter, grandchild, or spouse of child or grandchild of a current operation member joins an MPP-Dairy participating operation, to accommodate the transfer of a dairy from one generation to a subsequent generation. The increase to the production history will be based on how many cows are being added and the national rolling herd average data (national average annual production per cow) in effect at the time of the intergenerational transfer. The operation must certify to equity and labor contributions by the new member(s) as well, as specified in this rule. The certification must show that the new member(s) has a significant equity ownership in the participating MPP-Dairy operation; “significant equity ownership” will be at levels determined by the Deputy Administrator and announced on the FSA Web site (
The participating dairy operation will have the option for coverage of the additional production history to begin with either the next consecutive 2-month period following notification to FSA, or January 1 following notification.
For cow purchases made by the new members between January 1, 2016, and June 30, 2016, the operation must notify FSA during the coverage year 2017 registration and annual coverage election period that begins July 1, 2016. For cow purchases made on or after July 1, 2016, notification to FSA must be made within 60 days of purchasing the additional cows.
Participating dairy operations in which an intergenerational transfer occurred in calendar year 2014 or 2015 will have an opportunity to increase the dairy operation's production history during the 2017 registration period. The 2014 and 2015 intergenerational transfers will have to meet the same requirements specified for all intergenerational transfers, except for the 60-day notification period applicable only to the purchase of additional cows made on or after July 1, 2016. The opportunity to increase production history based on an intergenerational transfer that occurred in 2014 or 2015 will only be available during the registration and annual coverage election period that begins July 1, 2016. This provision only applies to an increase in production history for 2016 and subsequent year coverage. These dairy operations will have the option for their coverage to begin on either the consecutive 2-month period
Premiums for additional production coverage will be due at the same time as the premium on existing production, if the notification is made between January 1 and August 31, prior to the September 1 premium deadline, or immediately if notification is made during September 1 to December 31.
Comments: Suggestions included:
• Yes, there should be a cap on the additional production quantity resulting from the intergenerational transfer in order to discourage gaming of the system;
• A production quantity capped at 4 million pounds is consistent with other limitations of the same production quantity specified in the 2014 Farm Bill with respect to the 2-tier premium rate schedule that increases premium rates for production history in excess of 4 million pounds;
• For the production increase, use a percentage based on the farm's production history and the total number of members receiving income from the farm, compared before and after the new generation was included;
• The production allowance increase should be proportionate to the income needs of the new farmer and not proportional to the size of the dairy;
• Up to 4 million pounds of new production history can be added to the established production history for a member joining the dairy operation with a pro-rated accommodation for growth beyond that limit.
Response: The suggested 4 million pound cap is consistent with the intent of the 2014 Farm Bill to support modest-sized family farms, as demonstrated in the 2-tier premium structure where the discounted first tier is set at 4 million pounds. Therefore, this rule caps the production history increase for an intergenerational transfer at a maximum of 4 million pounds.
Comment: Producers who bought coverage above the minimum catastrophic level on some production should receive catastrophic level coverage on all production history up to 90 percent. In the current regulations, producers must choose either a buy-up coverage or catastrophic coverage, but not both. Providing catastrophic level coverage to all participants on 90 percent of production is a reasonable interpretation of the 2014 Farm Bill intent.
Response: After careful analysis, we agree, and are changing the regulations to allow participants who purchase buy-up level coverage on less than 90 percent of their production history to receive in addition catastrophic level coverage on the balance, up to 90 percent of their production history. The total coverage cannot exceed the statutory maximum of 90 percent of production history. We believe that MPP-Dairy will be improved by allowing operations that cover from 25 percent to 85 percent of their production history at a buy-up coverage level from $4.50 to $8.00 per cwt, to also be covered for the balance of their established production history at the $4.00 catastrophic level. For example, if an operation purchased buy-up coverage at the 50 percent level, then that operation will receive catastrophic level coverage for the next 40 percent resulting in total coverage of 90 percent. This provision would not affect an operation purchasing buy-up coverage at the 90 percent level since it would already be covered at the maximum statutory percentage. This change will allow producers to better meet their risk management needs and will not discourage producers from electing buy-up coverage with greater protection. Therefore, this rule revises § 1430.108 to make the changes to how payments will be calculated. The change will provide producers with more risk management options and may increase producer participation in MPP-Dairy. Implementation of this change will begin with the 2016 coverage year. Since MPP-Dairy's inception, margin levels have been consistently above the $4.00 catastrophic level; so, implementing this policy will have no immediate impact on current MPP-Dairy participants.
Comment: Clarify inconsistencies in the premium payment schedule in § 1430.107(g)(2), which requires 50 percent of the total premium payment by February 1 of the coverage year and the balance by June 1; and the Fact Sheet and forms that say 25 percent by February 1 of the coverage year and the balance by the June 1. The Fact Sheet and forms for MPP Dairy are not consistent with the rule.
Premium payment options should be allowed on a monthly or bi-monthly basis rather than annually or semi-annually. A premium payment option should allow milk marketing companies to collect and send premium payments to FSA on behalf of the dairy operation by way of milk check deductions of premiums on a monthly basis by the dairy operation's milk marketing company.
Response: We agree that MPP-Dairy would be improved by providing additional premium payment options. Therefore, effective with the 2016 coverage year, rather than require the balance of the premium collection in two payment installments by June 1 of the coverage year, the rule will change § 1430.107 to require 100 percent of the payment by September 1 of the coverage year. This would allow dairy producers to make arrangements with their milk marketing companies to prorate and deduct their premium payment from their monthly milk check and to send the CCC payments to FSA on behalf of the producer. We will correct the Fact Sheet and forms as noted in the comment when this rule is published.
This rule makes conforming changes in § 1430.107(g)(2), (h), (i), and (j). For example, due to the split premiums provision in the August 29, 2014, regulation, an option had been included to deduct premium balances from MPP-Dairy payments. Now that the premium payment is due in a single payment, that option is being removed from § 1430.107(g)(2), (h), (i).
Comment: Dairy producers should be able to participate in both the Livestock Gross Margin for Dairy Producers (LGM-Dairy) Program and MPP-Dairy. They should be able to buy LGM-Dairy coverage on milk not covered under MPP-Dairy up to 100 percent of their dairy operation's total production.
Revise the rules to allow dairy operations to choose annually whether or not to participate in LGM-Dairy or MPP-Dairy and not require mandatory participation in MPP-Dairy through 2018 to allow flexibility to move back and forth from LGM-Dairy and MPP-Dairy.
Response: The 2014 Farm Bill specifies that a dairy operation may participate in either LGM-Dairy or MPP-Dairy, but not both. Therefore, we do not have statutory authority to make either of these changes to the regulations. Additionally, section 1404 of the 2014 Farm Bill specifies that the MPP-Dairy administrative fee must be paid annually by the participant; so, clearly the intent of the legislation is that participants continue participation for the duration of MPP-Dairy (because
Comments: Make an adjustment to increase the overall production history established for a dairy operation to allow for greater protection and the expansion or growth of the operation. New production rules should allow for full recognition of growth up to 4 million pounds and then a base that would allow some pro-rated accommodation for growth beyond that limit. Recognize new milk marketings for farms in transition as new operations and allow beginning farmers to adjust production history when purchasing an existing dairy operation. Allow production adjustments for disaster counties.
Response: The 2014 Farm Bill clearly limits increases in production history to annual adjustments to reflect any increase in the national average milk production per cow, with limited authority to update production history for changes in ownership structure. The 2014 Farm Bill does not provide the authority to add production history for other reasons, including business expansions or declared disaster counties, and specifically prohibits reconstitutions for the purpose of increasing MPP-Dairy payments. The new provisions in this rule for adjustments to production history for intergenerational transfers is based on the authority of section 1401(5)(B) of the 2014 Farm Bill that allows for the Secretary to determine additional ownership structures to be covered by the definition of a dairy operation, in this case the addition of a son, daughter, grandchild, or spouse of a child or grandchild to the dairy operation. Since the 2014 Farm Bill does not authorize any other reasons for adjustments to the established production history for the dairy operation, no change is being made in response to these comments.
Comments: For the production history covered under MPP-Dairy, allow extrapolation for a full 12 months of production as is done for new operations for those producers who missed some production months in 2013 during the period between of January 2, 2013 through February 7, 2014.
Response: Producers that marketed milk from January 2, 2013, through February 7, 2014 (date of 2014 Farm Bill enactment) do not meet the legislative definition of a new dairy operation because they would have been marketing milk for more than 12 months; therefore, the date of the 2014 Farm Bill enactment was used as a benchmark to establish the 12-month period from which to determine new operations. Defining the 12-month period from any other date would exclude more dairy operations from eligibility. Therefore, no change is being made in response to this comment.
Comment: MPP-Dairy payments should be made on a monthly or bi-monthly basis rather than on a consecutive 2-month period when a payment is triggered.
Response: The 2014 Farm Bill specifies the schedule for MPP-Dairy payments. We have no authority to implement a different schedule. Therefore, no change is being made in response to this comment.
Comment: The premium discount applicable to the first 4 million pounds of production history in 2014 and 2015 should continue for the duration of MPP-Dairy. Premiums would continue to rise to the point that they are unaffordable for farmers because there is no margin trigger to reduce production because of price losses due to over-production.
Response: The annual premium rates listed in the regulation are specified in the 2014 Farm Bill. FSA has no authority to set different premium rates other than those in the 2014 Farm Bill. Therefore, no change is being made in response to these comments.
Comments: For coverage under MPP-Dairy, documented production over the national average of production per cow should be insured.
Organic farms should have more coverage because of higher overall feed costs that make their margins lower than conventional farms.
Response: The 2014 Farm Bill does not authorize additional coverage for production over the national average or different coverage for organic farmers. Therefore, no change is being made in response to these comments.
Comment: For the cost of production in relation to feed costs and milk prices, the 2014 Farm Bill should have been similar to that of the Federal Milk Marketing Improvement Act of 2011 (S. 1640, 112th Congress) to provide adequate prices to farmers. MPP-Dairy did not adequately cover the farmers cost of production and is inadequate protection on feed cost. Feed prices are higher on the west coast and prices for specific feed ingredients used in calculating the margin have not dropped much in that region of the United States.
Response: Congress did not enact the bill titled “Federal Milk Marketing Improvement Act of 2011.” We are required to implement MPP-Dairy as specified in the 2014 Farm Bill. The 2014 Farm Bill specified that the margin is to be calculated using a national average feed cost and the national all-milk price. Therefore, no change is being made in response to these comments.
Comment: The affiliation test for what constitutes a new dairy operation is impractical. Producers that have collectively more than a 50 percent ownership in another dairy operation should be able to get coverage for a new operation, if they can demonstrate that the operation is separate and distinct from the existing dairy operation, but the new and existing dairy operation would be restricted from selling or exiting the dairy business.
Response: Section 1410 of the 2014 Farm Bill specifically states that the regulations must prohibit producers from dairy operation reconstitutions for the purposes of receiving MPP-Dairy payments. The provision in § 1430.103 that a new dairy operation will be treated as an affiliated dairy operation if the producers in the new operation own 50 percent of an existing dairy operation is consistent with the farm reconstitution provisions in 7 CFR part 718, which are intended to prohibit reconstitutions for the purposes of increasing other CCC and FSA program payments. FSA believes the provisions to accommodate new dairy operations as specified in the current rule are within the 2014 Farm Bill authority, and are consistent with how reconstitutions and base acres are handled in the regulations for other CCC and FSA programs. The provisions in this rule for intergenerational transfers are intended to address expansions of existing dairy operations to add additional family members within the same operation. Also, we have no authority to prevent any dairy operation from selling or shutting down. No change is made in response to this comment.
Comment: Are MPP-Dairy funds sufficient to reimburse farmers in the event of a shortfall? Will funds be invested within insurance companies?
Response: FSA administers MPP-Dairy using CCC funds and not through private insurance companies; therefore, FSA may use CCC borrowing authority to replenish funds as necessary. Private insurers are not involved in MPP-Dairy.
This final rule revises § 1430.104(b)(1), to correct wording that allows a new dairy operation to elect coverage that begins the next consecutive 2-month period following the submission date of the registration and coverage election rather than the approval date of the MPP-Dairy coverage application.
This final rule also revises §§ 1430.106(c), 1430.109(a)(2), and 1430.112(b) to clarify the effects of failure to pay the administrative or premium fees. Failure to pay the administrative fee timely will result in loss of coverage for the applicable calendar year; however, coverage for the applicable calendar year may be reinstated with the next consecutive 2-month period if paid late and the appropriate CCC form is submitted to FSA. In the case of unpaid premiums, coverage will be reduced to the catastrophic level and no payment will be earned at the buy-up level for the rest of the year. This rule also amends § 1430.112(b) to correct the cross reference from § 1430.108 to § 1430.109.
This final rule also revises §§ 1430.106(a) and 1430.107(l) to correct that fees should be made payable to CCC rather than to FSA.
This rule amends §§ 1430.107 and 1430.111 to remove provisions that only applied to the 2014 and 2015 coverage years.
In general, the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requires that a notice of proposed rulemaking be published in the
The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) provides generally that before rules are issued by Government agencies, the rule is required to be published in the
Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” and Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasized the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) designated this rule as not significant under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” and therefore, OMB has not reviewed this rule.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA, Pub. L. 104-121), generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to the notice and comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedure Act or any other law, unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act because the 2014 Farm Bill exempts this rule from notice and comment rulemaking under 5 U.S.C. 553 with respect to MPP-Dairy and therefore, FSA is not required by any law to publish a proposed rule for public comment for this rulemaking.
The environmental impacts of this final rule have been considered in a manner consistent with the provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321-4347), the regulations of the Council on Environmental Quality (40 CFR parts 1500-1508), and the FSA regulations for compliance with NEPA (7 CFR part 799). FSA has determined that the provisions identified in this final rule are administrative in nature, intended to clarify the mandatory requirements of the programs, as defined in the 2014 Farm Bill, and do not constitute a major Federal action that would significantly affect the quality of the human environment, individually or cumulatively. The discretionary feature of the rule include when operations can increase production history and what coverage they will receive. These discretionary provisions are purely administrative and would not alter any environmental impacts resulting from implementing the mandatory program. Therefore, as this rule presents administrative clarifications only, FSA will not prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement for this regulatory action.
Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” requires consultation with State and local officials. The objectives of the Executive Order are to foster an intergovernmental partnership and a strengthened Federalism, by relying on State and local processes for State and local government coordination and review of proposed Federal Financial assistance and direct Federal development. For reasons specified in the final rule related notice regarding 7 CFR part 3015, subpart V (48 FR 29115, June 24, 1983), the programs and activities within this rule are excluded from the scope of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform.” This rule will not preempt State or local laws, regulations, or policies unless they represent an irreconcilable conflict with this rule. The rule will have a retroactive effect that will allow a production history increase for dairy operations that had an intergenerational transfer occur in calendar year 2014 or 2015. However, there will not be any retroactive payments for the production history increase. Before any judicial action may be brought regarding the provisions of this rule, the administrative appeal provisions of 7 CFR parts 11 and 780 are to be exhausted.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 13132, “Federalism.” The policies contained in this rule do not have any substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the Federal government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, except as required
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
FSA has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under Executive Order 13175. If a Tribe requests consultation, FSA will work with the USDA Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions, and modifications identified in this rule are not expressly mandated by the 2014 Farm Bill.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA, Pub. L. 104-4) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments, or the private sector. Agencies generally need to prepare a written statement, including a cost-benefit analysis, for proposed and final rules with Federal mandates that may result in expenditures of $100 million or more in any year for State, local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector. UMRA generally requires agencies to consider alternatives and adopt the more cost effective or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule. This rule contains no Federal mandates, as defined in Title II of UMRA, for State, local, and Tribal governments or the private sector. Therefore, this rule is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of UMRA.
This rule is not a major rule under SBREFA. Therefore, FSA is not required to delay the effective date for 60 days from the date of publication to allow for Congressional review. Therefore, the rule is effective when published in the
The title and number of the Federal Domestic Assistance Program found in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance to which this rule applies are:
10. 116—Margin Protection Program-Dairy
The regulations in this rule are exempt from the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), as specified in subsection 1601(c)(2)(B) of the 2014 Farm Bill, which provides that these regulations be promulgated and administered without regard to the Paperwork Reduction Act.
FSA and CCC are committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Dairy products, Fraud, Penalties, Price support programs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons discussed above, the regulations at 7 CFR part 1430 are amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 8773, 9051-9060, and 9071 and 15 U.S.C. 714b and 714c.
(d) Once the production history of a participating dairy operation is established as specified in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, the production history will be adjusted upward by FSA only to reflect any increase in the national average milk production, as determined by the Deputy Administrator, except as provided by paragraph (g) of this section.
(g) The established production history of a participating dairy operation may be adjusted upward once during the term of the contract for an intergenerational transfer based on the purchase of additional cows by the new family member(s). The increase in the established production history of the participating dairy operation will be determined on the basis of the national rolling herd average data for the current year in effect at the time of the intergenerational transfer and the quantity of the production history increase will be limited to an amount not more than 4 million pounds. The additional quantity of production history will receive coverage at the same elected coverage threshold and coverage percentage in effect for the participating dairy operation at the time the production history increase takes effect. Intergenerational transfers will not be allowed if the participating dairy operation's current annual production and the increase in herd size by the new member(s) is less than the operation's established production history.
(1) The dairy operation must notify FSA, using the appropriate CCC form(s), of the intergenerational transfer within 60 days of the purchase of the cows, except that for purchases made for intergenerational transfers occurring
(2) All of the items specified in this paragraph must be documented in the notification to FSA and self-certified by the current and new member(s) for the intergenerational transfer to be considered eligible for additional production history, except that intergenerational transfers that occurred in 2014 and 2015 that otherwise meet the requirements of this paragraph will be considered during the registration and annual coverage election period for coverage year 2017 established by the Deputy Administrator for the purposes of adding the new member(s) to the participating dairy operation. However, there will not be any retroactive payments based on a production history increase for the intergenerational transfer. All of the following information is subject to verification by CCC. Refusal to allow CCC or any other agency of USDA to verify any information provided will result in disapproval of the intergenerational transfer.
(i) Documentation that the new member(s) joining the operation have purchased the dairy cows being added to the dairy operation;
(ii) Certification that each new member will have a share of the profits or losses from the dairy operation commensurate with such person's contributions to the dairy operation;
(iii) Certification that each new member has a significant equity ownership in the participating dairy operation at levels determined by the Deputy Administrator and announced on the FSA Web site,
(iv) Certification that each new member is a lineal descendant or spouse thereof of a current member of the participating dairy operation;
(v) Agreement that each new member will contribute labor in the dairy operation at a minimum of 35 hours per week or have a plan for transition to full-time, subject to FSA county committee review and approval, if only working seasonally or part-time;
(vi) Certification that the dairy operation will be the principal source of non-investment earned income for each new member; and
(vii) Documentation of the participating dairy operation's current annual marketings as of the date of the intergenerational transfer.
The revision and addition read as follows:
(a) Dairy operations must pay an initial administrative fee to CCC in the amount of $100 at the time of initial registration to participate in MPP-Dairy. Each approved participating dairy operation must also pay a $100 administrative fee each year through 2018. Annual administrative fees are due and payable to CCC through the administrative county FSA office no later than the close of business on the last day of the annual election period established by the Deputy Administrator for each applicable calendar year of margin protection coverage under MPP-Dairy. The administrative fee paid is non-refundable.
(c) * * * However, coverage for the applicable calendar year, at the catastrophic level only, may be reinstated if the administrative fee is paid late, effective the consecutive 2-month period following payment of the late-filed administrative fee plus applicable charges, if any, and submission to FSA of the appropriate CCC form.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(d) The premium per cwt of milk, based on the elected percentage of coverage of production history is specified in the following table.
(g) A participating dairy operation is required to pay the annual premium calculated as specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section for the applicable calendar year, according to either of the following options:
(2) In total no later than September 1 of the applicable calendar year of coverage, unless otherwise specified by the Deputy Administrator.
(h) If the total premium is not paid for an applicable calendar year of coverage as specified in paragraph (g) of this section, the participating dairy operation will only be covered at catastrophic level coverage beginning with the September-October consecutive 2-month period and for the remainder of the applicable coverage year.
(i) Annual premium balances due CCC from a participating dairy operation for a calendar year of coverage must be paid in full no later than September 1 of the applicable calendar year or within a grace period determined by the Deputy Administrator, if applicable.
(j) A participating dairy operation with an unpaid premium balance for a calendar year of coverage will lose eligibility for buy-up coverage for the subsequent coverage year if the premium is not paid in full by the close of the coverage election period, and will have its current buy-up level coverage reduced to the catastrophic level, as provided in § 1430.109.
(m) In the case of an intergenerational transfer, the additional premium, if any, is due September 1 if the notification of the transfer is made to FSA between January 1 and September 1 of the applicable calendar year, and immediately, if the notification is made
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(c)
(a) * * *
(2) Upon such failure to pay when due after initial approved registration, loses coverage under MPP-Dairy until such administrative fee or premium is paid in full, and once paid, coverage will begin with the next consecutive 2-month period. Failure to pay the premium fee when due will reduce coverage to the catastrophic level for the September and October period and November and December period in that coverage year.
(a) A producer may participate in either MPP-Dairy through a dairy operation or the LGM-Dairy program operated by RMA, but not both.
(b) Producers in dairy operations participating in MPP-Dairy must certify at the time of registration and annually during each coverage election period that they will not have an LGM-Dairy policy in effect during the calendar year the dairy operation is requesting coverage.
(c) A participating dairy operation may be required to provide proof, to the satisfaction of FSA, of the cancellation or expiration of any previous LGM-Dairy policy.
(b) Failure to pay administrative fees and premiums will result in the loss or reduction of coverage, as applicable, and the participating dairy operation remains obligated to pay such administrative fees and premiums as specified in § 1430.109.
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Final rule.
The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is amending the definition and standard of identity for the “roaster” or “roasting chicken” poultry class to better reflect the characteristics of “roaster” chickens in the market today. “Roasters” or “roasting chickens” are described in terms of the age and ready-to-cook (RTC) carcass weight of the bird. Genetic changes and management techniques have continued to reduce the grow-out period and increased the RTC weight for this poultry class. Therefore, FSIS is amending the “roaster” definition to remove the 8-week minimum age criterion and increase the RTC carcass weight from 5 pounds to 5.5 pounds. FSIS is taking this action in response to a petition submitted by the National Chicken Council.
Rosalyn Murphy-Jenkins, Director, Labeling and Program Delivery Staff, Office of Policy and Program Development, FSIS, USDA; Telephone (301)504-0879.
The Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) prohibits the distribution of poultry products that are adulterated or misbranded (21 U.S.C. 458). The PPIA also authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to prescribe, among other things, definitions and standards of identity or composition for poultry products whenever the Secretary determines that such action is necessary for the protection of the public (21 U.S.C. 457(b)). Poultry classes were established by USDA to aid in labeling poultry (9 CFR 381.170). The classes were based primarily on the age and sex of the bird. FSIS uses poultry class standards to ensure that poultry products are labeled in a truthful and non-misleading manner.
On August 19, 2015, FSIS published a proposed rule to amend the definition and standard of identity for the “roaster” or “roasting chicken” poultry
On November 18, 2013, before the January 1, 2014, effective date for the 2011 final rule, the National Chicken Council (NCC) petitioned FSIS to amend the definition and standard of identity for the “roaster” chicken class to remove the 8-week minimum age requirement and to increase the RTC carcass weight to 5.5 pounds (
FSIS, in consultation with USDA's Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS), conducted a preliminary review of the NCC petition and supporting data and tentatively concluded that the petition had merit. Therefore, in the December 27, 2013, edition of the
In July 2014, FSIS, in consultation with AMS, completed its review of the NCC petition and concluded that the available data supported the requested action (see the August 19, 2015 proposed rule “Classes of Poultry” (80 FR 50228)). On July 23, 2014, FSIS sent a letter to the NCC informing the organization that the Agency had decided to grant the petition (
FSIS received four comments on the proposed rule, one from an organization representing the chicken industry and three from private citizens.
An organization representing the chicken industry strongly supported the proposed amendment because of the positive impacts on the poultry industry. According to the comment, such impacts include: (1) Aiding in the orderly and efficient marketing of classes of poultry in the United States, (2) eliminating the burden of periodically amending the regulation to reflect industry advancements in breeding by removing the minimum age requirement, and (3) reducing the cost for producers to efficiently raise birds. The organization also commented that efficient raising of birds would keep the cost of the final product lower for consumers because companies would not need to continue to pay for birds' feed until the birds reach eight weeks.
The following is a summary of other relevant issues raised in the comments opposed to the rule and FSIS's responses.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This final rule has been designated a “non-significant” regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866.
FSIS affirms the preliminary regulatory impact analysis
Amending the poultry class definition of “roaster” will benefit consumers by ensuring that chickens labeled as “roasters” continue to meet consumer expectations, and that the labels are truthful and not misleading. Consequently, consumers will be able to make informed purchase decisions.
The FSIS Administrator has determined that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
FSIS has reviewed this rule under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) and has determined that the information collection related to labeling has been approved by OMB under OMB control number 0583-0092.
FSIS does not anticipate many label changes as a result of the change to the “roaster” definition because establishments that produce chickens that comply with the “roaster” poultry class standard are already labeling these birds as “roasters.”
This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under this rule: (1) All State and local laws and regulations that are inconsistent with this rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect will be given to this rule; and (3) no administrative proceedings will be required before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” E.O. 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
FSIS has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under E.O. 13175. If a Tribe requests consultation, FSIS will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.), should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
Food grades and standards, Poultry and poultry products.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, FSIS amends 9 CFR part 381, as follows:
7 U.S.C. 138f, 450; 21 U.S.C. 451-470; 7 CFR 2.7, 2.18, 2.53.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii)
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. This AD was prompted by the discovery of a number of incorrectly calibrated angle of attack (AOA) transducers installed in the stall protection system. This AD requires replacement of affected AOA transducers. We are issuing this AD to detect and replace incorrectly calibrated AOA transducers; incorrect calibration of the transducers could result in late activation of the stick pusher.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Cesar Gomez, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Branch, ANE-171, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7318; fax 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2015-18, dated July 16, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. The MCAI states:
It was discovered that a number of AOA transducers installed on Bombardier CL-600-2C10, CL-600-2D15, CL-600-2D24, and CL-600-2E25 aeroplanes were incorrectly calibrated due to a quality control problem at both the production and repair facilities. Incorrect calibration of the AOA transducer could result in a late activation of the stick pusher.
This [Canadian] AD mandates the replacement of the incorrectly calibrated AOA transducer.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We considered the one comment received. The commenter supported the NPRM.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-27-069, dated March 30, 2015. This service information
We estimate that this AD affects 400 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it would take about 4 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $10,000 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $4,136,000, or $10,340 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the Bombardier, Inc. airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD.
(1) Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, serial numbers 10002 through 10999 inclusive.
(2) Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes and Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, serial numbers 15001 through 15990 inclusive.
(3) Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes, serial numbers 19001 through 19990 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by the discovery of a number of incorrectly calibrated angle of attack (AOA) transducers installed in the stall protection system. We are issuing this AD to detect and replace incorrectly calibrated AOA transducers; incorrect calibration of the transducers could result in late activation of the stick pusher.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 2,500 flight hours or 12 months, whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD, replace the AOA transducers identified in paragraph 1.A., “Effectivity,” of Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-27-069, dated March 30, 2015, with correctly calibrated AOA transducers, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-27-069, dated March 30, 2015.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install, on any airplane, an AOA transducer having a part number or serial number identified in paragraph 1.A., “Effectivity,” of Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-27-069, dated March 30, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2015-18, dated July 16, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-27-069, dated March 30, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9,
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are superseding airworthiness directive (AD) 92-06-10 for SOCATA Models MS 880B, MS 885, MS 892A-150, MS 892E-150, MS 893A, MS 893E, MS 894A, MS 894E, Rallye 100S, Rallye 150ST, Rallye 150T, Rallye 235E, and Rallye 235C airplanes. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as fatigue failure of the nose landing gear wheel axle. We are issuing this AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in the AD as of May 18, 2016.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact SOCATA, Direction des services, 65921 Tarbes Cedex 9, France; phone: +33 (0) 5 62 41 73 00; fax: +33 (0) 5 62 41 76 54; email:
Albert Mercado, Aerospace Engineer, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4119; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to SOCATA Models MS 880B, MS 885, MS 894A, MS 893A, MS 892A-150, MS 892E-150, MS 893E, MS 894E, Rallye 100S, Rallye 150T, Rallye 150ST, Rallye 235E, and Rallye 235C airplanes. That NPRM was published in the
The NPRM proposed to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products and was based on mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country. The MCAI states that:
A nose landing gear (NLG) wheel axle rupture occurred in service. The results of the technical investigation revealed that this failure was due to premature wear.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to cracks in the axle and detachment of axle and wheel, possibly resulting in failure of the NLG with consequent damage to the aeroplane and injury to occupants.
To address this potential unsafe condition, DGAC France issued AD 91-163(A) (later revised twice) to require repetitive detailed inspections (DET) of the NLG wheel axle and replacement of the NLG wheel axle attachment screws in accordance with the instructions of SOCATA Service Bulletin (SB) 150-32.
Since DGAC France AD 91-163(A)R2 was issued, new findings led to an adjustment of the inspection interval. Consequently, SOCATA issued SB 150-32, now at Revision 3.
The MCAI can be found in the AD docket on the Internet at:
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (81 FR 2134, January 15, 2016) or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (81 FR 2134, January 15, 2016) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (81 FR 2134, January 15, 2016).
We reviewed Daher-Socata Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 150-32, Revision 3, dated September 2015. The service bulletin describes procedures for inspection of the nose gear wheel axle. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 77 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 10 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $500 per product.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the AD on U.S. operators to be $103,950, or $1,350 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective May 18, 2016.
This AD supersedes AD 92-06-10 Amendment 39-8190 (57 FR 8063; March 6, 1992) (“AD 92-06-10”).
This AD applies to SOCATA Models MS 880B, MS 885, MS 892A-150, MS 892E-150, MS 893A, MS 893E, MS 894A, MS 894E, Rallye 100S, Rallye 150ST, Rallye 150T, Rallye 235E, and Rallye 235C airplanes, all serial numbers, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 32: Landing Gear.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as fatigue failure of the nose landing gear wheel axle. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct chafing and cracking of the nose gear wheel axle, which could lead to failure of the nose landing gear with consequent damage to the airplane and/or occupants.
Do the actions in paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(5) of this AD, including all subparagraphs. If the initial actions of paragraphs (f)(1), (f)(2), (f)(3), and (f)(4) of this AD have already been done before the effective date of this AD, then do the repetitive actions of these paragraphs at the specified times.
(1) Do a detailed visual inspection of the intersection between the axle radius and the nose landing gear fork area for chafing at whichever occurs later in paragraph (f)(1)(i) or (f)(1)(ii) of this AD and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 200 hours time-in-service (TIS) following Daher-Socata Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 150-32, Revision 3, dated September 2015:
(i) Upon accumulating 200 hours TIS since the airplane's first flight or 200 hours TIS since the last inspection required by AD 92-06-10; or
(ii) Within the next 50 hours TIS after May 18, 2016 (the effective date of this AD) or within 500 hours TIS since the last inspection required by AD 92-06-10, whichever occurs first.
(2) Do a dye penetrant inspection on the nose wheel axle for cracks, distortion, and nicks or wear at whichever occurs later in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this AD and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 200 hours time-in-service (TIS) following Daher-Socata Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 150-32, Revision 3, dated September 2015:
(i) Upon accumulating 200 hours TIS since the airplane's first flight or 200 hours TIS since the last inspection required by AD 92-06-10; or
(ii) Within the next 50 hours TIS after May 18, 2016 (the effective date of this AD) or within 500 hours TIS since the last inspection required by AD 92-06-10, whichever occurs first.
(3) If any cracks or damage is found in any inspection required by paragraphs (f)(1) or (f)(2) in this AD, contact SOCATA for FAA-approved repair or replacement instructions approved specifically for this AD and, before further flight, implement those instructions. Use the contact information found in paragraph (j) of this AD to contact SOCATA.
(4) Replace the nose landing gear wheel axle attachment screws with new screws at whichever occurs later in paragraph (f)(4)(i) or (f)(4)(ii) of this AD following Daher-Socata Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 150-32, Revision 3, dated September 2015:
(i) Upon accumulating 2,000 hours TIS since airplane's first flight or 2,000 hours TIS since last nose landing gear wheel attachment screw replacement with new screws; or
(ii) Within 50 hours TIS since April 17, 1992 (the effective date retained from AD 92-06-10).
(5) After May 18, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), a used nose landing gear or a used nose landing gear wheel axle may be installed provided it has been inspected and found free of cracks and/or damage and the nose landing gear wheel axle attachment screws have been replaced with new screws as specified in paragraphs (f)(1), (f)(2), and (f)(4) of this AD.
This AD allows credit for the inspections required in paragraph (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this AD, if done before May 18, 2016 (the
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, Standards Office, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. Send information to ATTN: Albert Mercado, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4119; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
(2) Airworthy Product: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority (or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product is airworthy before it is returned to service.
Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2015-0203, dated October 7, 2015; and Daher-Socata Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 150-32, Revision 2, dated January 1994, for related information. The MCAI can be found in the AD docket on the Internet at:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Daher-Socata Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 150-32, Revision 3, dated September 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For SOCATA service information identified in this AD, contact SOCATA, Direction des services, 65921 Tarbes Cedex 9, France; phone: +33 (0) 5 62 41 73 00; fax: +33 (0) 5 62 41 76 54; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. In addition, you can access this service information on the Internet at
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters. This AD requires repetitive inspections of a certain part-numbered main rotor hub torsion bar (torsion bar). This AD was prompted by several cases of corrosion in the metal strands of the torsion bar. The actions of this AD are intended to detect corrosion and prevent failure of the torsion bar, loss of a main rotor blade, and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain document listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Robert Grant, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
On November 19, 2015, at 80 FR 72390, the
The NPRM was prompted by AD No. 2014-0216, dated September 24, 2014, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, to correct an unsafe condition for Airbus Helicopters Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters. EASA advises that several cases of cracks were found on the PU coating of part-numbered 704A33633274 torsion bars installed on military Model SA341 helicopters. EASA states that these parts can also be installed on civilian Model SA341 and SA342 helicopters. According to EASA, analysis of the cracked torsion bars showed small areas of superficial corrosion on the strands inside the bars can also develop during the manufacturing process. EASA states that cracking of the PU coating near these areas and the associated penetration of water can lead to further and deeper development of the corrosion. EASA advises that this condition, if not detected and corrected, allows water to penetrate into the torsion bar causing corrosion and failure of the metal strands inside the bar. Failure of the metal strands could lead to torsion bar failure, resulting in an in-flight loss of a main rotor blade and consequent loss of control of the helicopter.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we did not receive any comments on the NPRM (80 FR 72390, November 19, 2015).
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
We consider this AD to be an interim action. If final action is later identified, we might consider further rulemaking.
This AD requires you to replace a torsion bar instead of returning it to the manufacturer for examination.
Eurocopter (now Airbus Helicopters) has issued Gazelle Inspection—Check 65.12.607, “Main Rotor Head: Torsion Tie-Back Check (Post MOD 076171),” dated August 2008, of the Eurocopter Gazelle Helicopter Maintenance Manual, Tome 1, which describes inspecting the torsion bars for a crack in the PU coating and for corrosion and thickness of the bushings.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
Airbus Helicopters has also issued Alert Service Bulletin No. SA341/SA342-05.40, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014 (ASB), for Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters certificated by the FAA, and military Model SA341B, C, D, E, F, and H and SA342K, L, L1, M, M1, and Ma helicopters. The ASB specifies repetitively inspecting the torsion bars in accordance with certain work cards, including work card 65.12.607. These inspections are part of Airbus Helicopters' current maintenance program, and the ASB revises the compliance time interval for the inspections.
We estimate that this AD affects 33 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. We estimate $85 per work-hour for labor. We estimate 8 work-hours to inspect each helicopter at an estimated cost of $680 per helicopter and $22,440 for the U.S. fleet per inspection cycle. Replacing a torsion bar will cost $7,020 for required parts; no additional labor is necessary.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Model SA341G and SA342J helicopters with a main rotor head torsion bar (torsion bar) part number 704A33633274 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack in the coating of the torsion bar resulting in corrosion. This condition could result in failure of a torsion bar, loss of a main rotor blade, and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD becomes effective May 18, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) For each torsion bar with less than 5 years since the first date of installation on any helicopter, within the compliance time shown in Table 1 to paragraph (e)(1) of this AD:
(i) Remove the torsion bar and, using a magnifying glass with a maximum magnification level of 10X, visually inspect for a crack in the polyurethane (PU) coating of the torsion bar as depicted in Figure 1 of Gazelle Inspection—Check 65.12.607, “Main Rotor Head: Torsion Tie-Back Check (Post MOD 076171),” dated August 2008, of the Eurocopter Gazelle Helicopter Maintenance Manual, Tome 1. This type of task is commonly called a “work card” and will be referenced in this AD as “the work card.” Consider two cracks that are less than 5 mm (.196 in) apart as a single crack. If there is a crack in the PU coating that is more than 5 mm (.196 in), replace the torsion bar before further flight. Do not rework the PU coating of the torsion bar in any way.
(ii) Inspect the angle, dimension alpha, as depicted in View on Arrow F of Figure 1 of the work card. If the angle is 7 or more degrees, replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(iii) Inspect each bushing for corrosion on the inside diameter. If any corrosion cannot be removed by rubbing it with an abrasive pad, replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(iv) Using an outside micrometer, measure the thickness, dimension a, of each bushing as depicted in Detail AA of Figure 1 of the work card. If the thickness is less than 37.520 mm (1.477 in), replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(v) Using an inside micrometer, measure the inside diameter, dimension b, of each bushing as depicted in Detail AA of Figure 1 of the work card. If the diameter is larger than 21.040 mm (.828 in), replace the torsion bar before further flight.
(vi) Inspect the two faces of each bushing for missing varnish. If varnish is missing from more than 15% of the surface area on a face of a bushing, before further flight, remove all varnish using 400-grit abrasive paper. Finish with an abrasive pad and apply a coat of P05 paint to the face of the bushing.
(2) For each torsion bar with 5 or more years since the first date of installation on any helicopter, within the compliance time shown in Table 2 to paragraph (e)(2) of this AD, do the inspections required by paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (vi) of this AD.
(3) Repeat the inspections required by paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (vi) of this AD as follows:
(i) For torsion bars with less than 6 years since the date of installation on any helicopter, at intervals not to exceed 420 hours TIS or 24 months, whichever occurs first.
(ii) For torsion bars with 6 or more years since the date of installation on any helicopter, at intervals not to exceed 420 hours TIS or 12 months, whichever comes first.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Robert Grant, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
(1) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB No. SA341/SA342-05.40, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference, contains additional information about the subject of this final rule. For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(2) The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2014-0216, dated September 24, 2014. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6700, Main Rotor.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Gazelle Inspection—Check 65.12.607, “Main Rotor Head: Torsion Tie-Back Check (Post MOD 076171),” dated August 2008, of the Eurocopter Gazelle Helicopter Maintenance Manual, Tome 1.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Eurocopter service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of fractured forward attach fittings of the inboard flap outboard aft flap track. The fractured fittings were determined to be the result of corrosion pits forming on the inside diameter of the fittings. This AD requires an inspection for the affected part number and serial number of the main flap; various additional repetitive inspections of the fitting, if necessary; and replacement of the fitting or nested bushing installation, if necessary, which would terminate the inspections. This AD also provides an optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fracture of the fitting, which could result in the loss of the inboard aft flap and could lead to a punctured fuselage, causing injury to the flightcrew and passengers, and damage to the airplane.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Eric Lin, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-917-6412; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment. Benjamin Kerensa commented that he supports the NPRM.
Boeing requested that we change the phrase “inboard flap of the main flap” to “main flap of the inboard flap assembly” in paragraphs (g) and (h) of the proposed AD. Boeing stated that this would clarify the inspection location.
We agree with the commenter's request for the reason provided by the commenter. We have revised paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD accordingly.
Boeing requested that we revise the terminating action specified in paragraph (k)(1) of the proposed AD. Boeing recommended that at the end of paragraph (k)(1) of the proposed AD, we add the following language, “Prior to accomplishing this option, the inspections of paragraph (h) must be accomplished and no cracking must have been found during that inspection.” Boeing commented that the bushing replacement is only a terminating action if the fitting has been verified to be crack free.
We agree to clarify the terminating action. As specified in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, if cracking is found during an inspection that is part of the terminating action, a fitting replacement must be done instead of the terminating action. In addition, Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, specifies that if corrosion cannot be removed during the terminating action, a fitting replacement must be done instead of the terminating action.
Therefore, we have revised paragraph (k)(1) of this AD to specify that the terminating action is acceptable provided no cracking is found during any inspection specified in Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, and all corrosion has been removed.
We have also clarified the terminating actions specified in paragraphs (h), (i), (j), (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(3) of this AD to specify the terminating actions apply only to that fitting on which the terminating action is done.
In addition, we have clarified the actions specified in paragraphs (i)(3)(i), (i)(3)(ii), and (i)(3)(iii) of this AD by specifying the actions include doing all applicable related investigative actions. Also, we have clarified the actions specified in paragraphs (j)(1) and (j)(2) of this AD by specifying the actions include doing all applicable related investigative and corrective actions.
Boeing and American Airlines (AA) requested that we clarify that the terminating action can be done instead of the inspections. AA commented to revise the terminating action paragraph to state the following:
If any inboard flap of the main flap having an affected part number and serial number is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Except as provided by paragraph (l) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do the terminating action in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of this AD or do the inspections specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, until a terminating action in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of this AD is done.
AA commented that this change would align the proposed rule with paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” table 1 and table 2, of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. AA also stated that this would clearly indicate that the terminating action would preclude having to accomplish first the initial inspection requirement in paragraph (h) of the proposed AD. Boeing requested that we add a sentence to the end of paragraph (h) to specify that the inspections are not required for any affected inboard flap assembly where one of the terminating actions specified in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of the proposed AD have been done.
We agree with the commenters' request. We have revised paragraph (h) of this AD to clarify that the terminating actions may preclude the initial inspections because rework or replacement of the parts prevent the unsafe condition.
Delta Airlines (DAL) requested that we clarify whether paragraph (c) of the proposed AD is intended for all Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes, or all Model 777-200, -200LR, -300 and -300ER series airplanes, identified as Groups 1, 2, and 4 airplanes in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
DAL stated that paragraph (c) of the proposed AD does not contain Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, to identify the airplane's applicability for the proposed AD. DAL commented that in the proposed rule under “Differences Between This Proposed AD and the Service Information,” the airplane's applicability is stated. DAL also stated that the same paragraph states that the proposed AD is applicable only to Groups 1, 2, and 4 airplanes (Model 777-200, -200LR, -300 and -300ER series airplanes) specified in Boeing Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. DAL commented that a review of the “Compliance” paragraph in the service information indicates that the FAA will possibly release an AD for airplanes in Groups 1, 2, and 4.
We agree with the commenter's request to clarify the applicability of this AD. This AD applies to all Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes as specified in paragraph (c) of this AD. The description of Groups 1, 2, and 4 airplanes in section 1.A., “Effectivity,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, specifies Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes. Additionally, as noted in the service information, the table of variable numbers given in section 1.A., “Effectivity,” only reflects up to line number 1322, and affected airplanes after line number 1322 will be added to the profile page of MyBoeingFleet.com. Therefore, this AD applies to all Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. The service information describes procedures for an inspection for the affected part number and serial number of the main flap; various additional repetitive inspections of the fitting, if necessary; and replacement of the fitting or nested bushing installation, if necessary, which would terminate the inspections. The service information also describes an optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 148 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that will be required based on the results of the inspection. The nested bushing installation of the attach fitting and the fitting replacement are also optional terminating actions. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft on which these actions might be done.
According to the manufacturer, all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by reports of fractured forward attach fittings of the inboard flap outboard aft flap track. The fractured fittings were determined to be the result of corrosion pits forming on the inside diameter of the fittings. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fracture of the fitting, which could result in the loss of the inboard aft flap and could lead to a punctured fuselage, causing injury to the flightcrew and passengers, and damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (l) of this AD: Do an inspection of the main flap of the inboard flap assembly for affected part and serial numbers, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number and serial number of the inboard flap can be conclusively determined from that review.
If any main flap of the inboard flap assembly having an affected part number and serial number is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Except as provided by paragraph (l) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do the terminating action specified in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of this AD, or do the inspections specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, until a terminating action in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of this AD is done. Accomplishing a terminating action specified in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of this AD terminates the inspections required by this paragraph for that fitting only.
(1) At the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap: Do a detailed inspection for cracking and bushing migration, and a high frequency eddy current inspection for cracking, in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(2) At the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap: Do a detailed inspection for cracking and bushing migration, and an ultrasound inspection for cracking, in accordance with Part 3 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
If any bushing migration but no cracking is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do the actions specified in paragraphs (i)(1) through (i)(3) of this AD. Accomplishment of a terminating action specified in paragraph (i)(3) or (k) of this AD terminates the actions required by this paragraph for that fitting only.
(1) Apply corrosion inhibiting compound BMS 3-23, Type II, around the bushing flanges on each side of the fitting, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. Re-apply the corrosion inhibiting compound at the time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(2) Repeat the inspections specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, except inspect for cracking only.
(3) Do a terminating action specified in paragraph (i)(3)(i), (i)(3)(ii), or (i)(3)(iii) of this AD.
(i) Install a nested bushing to the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap, including doing all applicable related investigative actions, in accordance with Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(ii) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with an aluminum fitting, including doing all applicable related investigative actions, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(iii) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with a titanium fitting, including doing all applicable related investigative actions, in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
If any cracking is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) or (i)(3) of this AD: At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do a terminating action specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (j)(2) of this AD. Replacement of the forward attach fitting as specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (j)(2) of this AD terminates the actions in this AD for that fitting only.
(1) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with an aluminum fitting, including doing all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(2) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with a titanium fitting, including doing all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(1) Installation of the nested bushing to the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap, in accordance with Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, terminates the requirements of this AD for that fitting only, provided no cracking is found during any inspection specified in Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, and all corrosion has been removed.
(2) Replacement of the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with an aluminum fitting, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, terminates the requirements of this AD for that fitting only.
(3) Replacement of the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with a titanium fitting, in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, terminates the requirements of this AD for that fitting only.
Where Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, dated January 29, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Multi Operator Message MOM-MOM-13-
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (o)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (n)(4)(i) and (n)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Eric Lin, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-917-6412; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (p)(3) and (p)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports indicating that the ram air turbine (RAT) assembly may fail to operate if deployed at low airspeeds. This AD requires replacing either the RAT pump and control module assembly or the entire RAT assembly. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the RAT assembly to operate at low air speeds. The volume fuse on the RAT assembly may be activated in-flight before the RAT is deployed. This may lead to improper pump hydraulic pressure offloading when the RAT is needed. Failure of the RAT to operate in an all engine out event would result in loss of control of the airplane.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sean J. Schauer, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6479; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
United Airlines stated that it supports the NPRM.
Boeing requested that we revise the NPRM to state that the RAT minimum design speed is 120 knots, not 130 knots. Boeing explained that the RAT will remain operational as the airplane decelerates through the minimum RAT design speed of 120 knots, not 130 knots. Boeing expressed that the performance of the RAT was shown to meet the Boeing Model 787 requirement that specifies 120 knots as the minimum RAT design speed.
We agree that the RAT will remain operational as the airplane decelerates through the minimum RAT design speed of 120 knots, not 130 knots. However, that specific information is in the preamble of the NPRM, which is not restated in this final rule. Therefore, no changes have been made to this final rule in this regard.
The Air Line Pilots Association requested that we revise the compliance time of 36 months, to 12 months because the 36 months compliance time is too long, and that 12 months would be more suitable.
We disagree with the request to revise the compliance time. No data was submitted to substantiate the request made by the commenter. Engineering analysis indicates that 36 months is an appropriate compliance time to complete the required actions of this AD, and provides an acceptable level of safety. Most ADs, including this one, permit operators to accomplish the requirements of an AD at a time earlier than the specified compliance time; therefore, an operator may choose to perform the actions required by this AD earlier then the specified compliance time. We have made no changes to this final rule in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290015-00, Issue 002, dated November 25, 2014. The service information describes procedures for replacing either the RAT pump and control module assembly or the RAT assembly including an installation test and corrective actions if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 12 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290015-00, Issue 002, dated November 25, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 29, Hydraulic Power.
This AD was prompted by reports indicating that the ram air turbine (RAT) assembly may fail to operate if deployed at low airspeeds. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the RAT assembly to operate at low air speeds. The volume fuse on the RAT assembly may be activated in-flight before the RAT is deployed. This may lead to improper pump hydraulic pressure offloading when the RAT is needed. Failure of the RAT to operate in an all engine out event would result in loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, replace the RAT pump and control module assembly or the RAT assembly, including an installation test and applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290015-00, Issue 002, dated November 25, 2014. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290015-00, Issue 001, dated September 4, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Sean J. Schauer, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM 130S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6479; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (k)(3) and (k)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290015-00, Issue 002, dated November 25, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes, and all Airbus Model A340-200, -300, -500, and -600 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of blockage of Angle of Attack (AOA) probes during climb, leading to activation of the Alpha Protection (Alpha Prot) while the Mach number increased. This activation could cause a continuous nose-down pitch rate that cannot be stopped with backward sidestick input, even in the full backward position. For certain airplanes, this AD requires replacing certain AOA sensors (probes) with
This AD becomes effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1138; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes; and all Airbus Model A340-200, -300, -500, and -600 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0134, dated July 8, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes; and all Model A340-200, -300, -500, and -600 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
An occurrence was reported where an Airbus A321 aeroplane encountered a blockage of two Angle of Attack (AOA) probes during climb, leading to activation of the Alpha Protection (Alpha Prot) while the Mach number increased. The flight crew managed to regain full control and the flight landed uneventfully. It was determined that the affected AOA probes are also fitted on A330 and A340 aeroplanes.
When Alpha Prot is activated due to blocked AOA probes, the flight control laws order a continuous nose down pitch rate that, in a worst case scenario, cannot be stopped with backward sidestick inputs, even in the full backward position. If the Mach number increases during a nose down order, the AOA value of the Alpha Prot will continue to decrease. As a result, the flight control laws will continue to order a nose down pitch rate, even if the speed is above minimum selectable speed, known as VLS.
This condition, if not corrected, could result in loss of control of the aeroplane.
Investigation results indicated that aeroplanes equipped with certain UTC Aerospace (UTAS, formerly known as Goodrich) AOA sensors, or equipped with certain SEXTANT/THOMSON AOA sensors, appear to have a greater susceptibility to adverse environmental conditions than aeroplanes equipped with the latest Thales AOA sensor, Part Number (P/N) C16291AB, which was designed to improve AOA indication behaviour in heavy rain conditions.
Having determined that replacement of these AOA sensors is necessary to achieve and maintain the required safety level of the aeroplane, EASA issued [an AD ***], to require modification of the aeroplanes by replacement of the affected P/N sensors, and, after modification, prohibits (re-) installation of those P/N AOA sensors. That [EASA] AD also required repetitive detailed visual inspections (DET) and functional heating tests of certain Thales AOA sensors and provided an optional terminating action for those inspections.
Since EASA AD 2015-0089 was issued, based on further analysis results, Airbus issued Operators Information Transmission (OIT) Ref. 999.0017/15 Revision 1, instructing operators to speed up the removal from service of UTAS P/N 0861ED2 AOA sensors.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of EASA [AD ***], which is superseded, but reduces the compliance times for aeroplanes with UTAS P/N 0861ED2 AOA sensors installed.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Since we issued the NPRM Airbus has issued the following service information:
• Service Bulletin A330-34-3215, Revision 03, dated July 23, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-4215, Revision 03, dated July 27, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-5062, Revision 02, dated July 24, 2015.
We have revised paragraph (j) of this AD to refer to this revised service information.
We have also added a new paragraph (l) to this AD, and reidentified subsequent paragraphs, to give credit for doing the actions using the following service information:
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3215, Revision 02, dated March 29, 2010.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4215, Revision 02, dated March 29, 2010.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5062, Revision 01, dated March 29, 2010.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comment received on the NPRM and the FAA's response.
Airbus asked that we reduce the compliance time from 22 months to 12 months for P/N 0861ED removal, and from 7 months to 3 months for P/N 0861ED2 removal.
We do not agree with the request, as no supporting data was provided by the commenter. We contacted Airbus to determine if there was a justification for reducing the compliance times specified in the proposed AD. We noted that reducing the compliance times would necessitate (under the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act) reissuing the notice, reopening the period for public comment, considering additional
In developing an appropriate compliance time, we considered the safety implications, parts availability, and normal maintenance schedules for timely accomplishment of replacing the AOA sensors, as well as the compliance times required by the EASA AD. In consideration of these factors, we have determined that the compliance time, as proposed, represents an appropriate time in which the AOA sensors can be replaced in a timely manner within the fleet, while still maintaining an adequate level of safety. Most ADs, including this one, permit operators to accomplish the requirements of an AD at a time earlier than the specified compliance time; therefore, an operator may choose to replace the AOA sensors earlier. We have not changed this final rule in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Airbus has issued the following service information:
• Service Bulletin A330-34-3215, Revision 03, dated July 23, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A330-34-3228, dated October 7, 2009.
• Service Bulletin A330-34-3315, dated March 26, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-4215, Revision 03, dated July 27, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-4234, dated October 7, 2009.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-4294, dated March 26, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-5062, Revision 02, dated July 24, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-5070, dated October 9, 2009.
• Service Bulletin A340-34-5105, dated March 26, 2015.
The service information describes procedures for replacing certain pitot probes with certain new pitot probes. The service information also describes procedures for inspections and functional heat testing of certain pitot probes, and replacement if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 55 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective May 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Airbus Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, -243F, -301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A340-211, -212, -213, -311, -312, -313, -541, and -642 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 34, Navigation.
This AD was prompted by a report of blockage of two Angle of Attack (AOA) probes during climb, leading to activation of the Alpha Protection (Alpha Prot) while the Mach number increased. This activation could cause a continuous nose-down pitch rate that cannot be stopped with backward sidestick input, even in the full backward position. We are issuing this AD to prevent erroneous AOA information and Alpha Prot activation due to blocked AOA probes, which could result in a continuous nose-down command and consequent loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For airplanes on which any UTAS AOA sensor having part number (P/N) 0861ED or P/N 0861ED2 is installed: At the applicable time specified in paragraph (h) of this AD, replace all Captain and First Officer AOA sensors (probes) having P/N 0861ED or 0861ED2 with AOA sensors having Thales P/N C16291AB, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3315, dated March 26, 2015 (for Model A330 airplanes).
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4294, dated March 26, 2015 (for Model A340-200 and -300 airplanes).
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5105, dated March 26, 2015 (for Model A340-500 and -600 airplanes).
Do the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD at the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) For airplanes with AOA sensors having P/N 0861ED: Within 22 months after the effective date of this AD.
(2) For airplanes with AOA sensors having P/N 0861ED2: Within 7 months after the effective date of this AD.
For airplanes on which any SEXTANT/THOMSON AOA sensor having P/N 45150320 is installed: Within 22 months after the effective date of this AD, replace all SEXTANT/THOMSON AOA sensors (probes) having P/N 45150320 with AOA sensors having Thales P/N C16291AB, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3228, dated October 7, 2009 (for Model A330 airplanes).
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4234, dated October 7, 2009 (for Model A340-200 and -300 airplanes).
For airplanes on which one or more Thales AOA sensor having P/N C16291AA is installed: Before the accumulation of 17,000 total flight hours on the AOA sensor since first installation on an airplane, or within 6 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later; and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 3,800 flight hours; do a detailed inspection of the three AOA sensors at FINs 3FP1, 3FP2, and 3FP3 for discrepancies (
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3215, Revision 03, dated July 23, 2015 (for Model A330 airplanes).
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4215, Revision 03, dated July 27, 2015 (for Model A340-200 and -300 airplanes).
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5062, Revision 02, dated July 24, 2015 (for Model A340-500 and -600 airplanes).
If any discrepancy is found during any inspection required by paragraph (j) of this AD, or if any test is failed during the heating test required by paragraph (j) of this AD: Before further flight, replace all affected AOA sensors with sensors identified in paragraph (k)(1) or (k)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (j)(1), (j)(2), or (j)(3) of this AD.
(1) Replace with AOA sensors having Thales P/N C16291AA, on which the inspection and test required by paragraph (j) of this AD were passed.
(2) Replace with AOA sensors having Thales P/N C16291AB.
This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (l)(1), (l)(2), and (l)(3) of this AD, which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3215, Revision 02, dated March 29, 2010.
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4215, Revision 02, dated March 29, 2010.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5062, Revision 01, dated March 29, 2010.
(1) The actions specified in paragraphs (g), (i), (j), and (k) of this AD are not required, provided that the conditions specified in paragraphs (m)(1)(i), (m)(1)(ii), and (m)(1)(iii) of this AD are met.
(i) Airbus Modification 58555 (installation of Thales P/N C16291AB AOA sensors) has been embodied in production.
(ii) Airbus Modification 46921 (installation of UTAS AOA sensors) has not been embodied in production.
(iii) No AOA sensor having SEXTANT/THOMSON P/N 45150320 or UTAS P/N 0861ED or P/N 0861ED2 has been installed on the airplane since date of issuance of the original airworthiness certificate or date of issuance of the original export certificate of airworthiness.
(2) The actions specified in paragraphs (g) and (i) of this AD are not required, provided that all conditions specified in paragraphs (m)(2)(i), (m)(2)(ii), and (m)(2)(iii) of this AD are met.
(i) Only AOA sensors with part numbers approved after the effective date of this AD have been installed.
(ii) The AOA sensor part number is approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
(iii) The installation is accomplished in accordance with airplane modification instructions approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; the EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA.
Replacement of all Thales AOA sensors having P/N C16291AA with Thales AOA sensors having P/N C16291AB, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (n)(1), (n)(2), or (n)(3) of this AD, terminates the repetitive inspections and functional heating tests required by paragraph (j) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3228, dated October 7, 2009 (for Model A330 airplanes).
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4234, dated October 7, 2009 (for Model A340-200 and -300 airplanes).
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5070, dated October 9, 2009 (for Model A340-500 and -600 airplanes).
(1) For airplanes on which only Thales P/N C16291AB AOA sensors are installed as of the effective date of this AD: No person may install, on any airplane, a Thales AOA sensor having P/N C16291AA as of the effective date of this AD.
(2) For airplanes on which the modification specified in paragraph (n) of this AD has been done: No person may install, on any airplane, a Thales AOA sensor
(3) For airplanes on which Thales P/N C16291AA or P/N C16291AB AOA sensors are installed as of the effective date of this AD: No person may install, on any airplane, a UTAS AOA sensor having P/N 0861ED or P/N 0861ED2, or a SEXTANT/THOMSON AOA sensor having P/N 45150320, as of the effective date of this AD.
(4) For airplanes on which the replacement required by paragraph (i) of this AD has been done: No person may install, on any airplane, a UTAS AOA sensor having P/N 0861ED or P/N 0861ED2, or a SEXTANT/THOMSON AOA sensor having P/N 45150320, after accomplishing the replacement.
(5) For airplanes on which the replacement required by paragraph (g) of this AD has been done: No person may install, on any airplane, a UTAS AOA sensor having P/N 0861ED or P/N 0861ED2, or a SEXTANT/THOMSON AOA sensor having P/N 45150320, after accomplishing the replacement, except that a UTAS AOA sensor having P/N 0861ED may be installed in the standby position of that airplane.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0134, dated July 8, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (r)(3) and (r)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3215, Revision 03, dated July 23, 2015.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3228, dated October 7, 2009.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-34-3315, dated March 26, 2015.
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4215, Revision 03, dated July 27, 2015.
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4234, dated October 7, 2009.
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-4294, dated March 26, 2015.
(vii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5062, Revision 02, dated July 24, 2015.
(viii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5070, dated October 9, 2009.
(ix) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-34-5105, dated March 26, 2015.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2013-22-11 for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-400 and -400D series airplanes. AD 2013-22-11 required repetitive inspections to detect cracks in the floor panel attachment fastener holes of certain upper deck floor beam upper chords, repetitive inspections, corrective actions if necessary, and replacement of the upper deck floor beam upper chords. Since we issued AD 2013-22-11, we received a report that certain fastener holes in the upper deck floor beam upper chords may not have been inspected in accordance with AD 2013-22-11. This AD adds additional repetitive inspections for cracks for certain airplanes, and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking in certain upper chords of the upper deck floor beam. Such cracks could become large and cause the floor beams to become severed and result in rapid decompression or reduced controllability of the airplane.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2013-22-11, Amendment 39-17643 (78 FR 66254, November 5, 2013), (“AD 2013-22-11”). AD 2013-22-11 applied to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-400 and -400D series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment. United Airlines supported the NPRM.
Boeing requested that paragraph (m)(4), “Exceptions to Service Information Specifications,” of the proposed AD be revised. Boeing stated that Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 1, dated September 19, 2012, which is included in paragraph (m)(4), has the same compliance time as table 3 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014; therefore, Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, should also be included in paragraph (m)(4) of the proposed AD.
For the reason provided by the commenter we agree to include Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, in paragraph (m)(4) of this AD. We have also revised paragraph (m)(4) of this AD by removing the reference to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 1, dated September 19, 2012, because this AD only refers to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, for compliance times.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the change described and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. The service information describes procedures for upper deck floor beam upper chord inspection and repair at floor panel attachment fastener holes in section 41 and section 42. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 84 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide a cost estimate for the repair or modification specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation
We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2013-22-11, Amendment 39-17643 (78 FR 66254, November 5, 2013) (“AD 2013-22-11”).
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-400 and -400D series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that certain upper chords of the upper deck floor beam are subject to widespread fatigue damage. This AD was also prompted by reports that certain fastener holes in the upper deck floor beam upper chords in Section 41, may not have been inspected in accordance with AD 2013-22-11. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking in certain upper chords of the upper deck floor beam, which could become large and cause the floor beams to become severed and result in rapid decompression or reduced controllability of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, do open hole or surface high frequency eddy current inspections (HFEC) for cracking of the floor panel attachment holes in the upper deck floor beam upper chords, in accordance with Part 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. If any crack is found during any inspection, before further flight, repair in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, or repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, until an action specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD is done.
(1) Doing a repair as a hole modification in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(2) of this AD, terminates the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD for the modified hole only.
(2) Doing a modification in accordance with Figure 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(2) of this AD, terminates the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD for the modification only.
For airplanes on which a repair specified in Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, is done, or a modification specified in Figure 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, is done: At the applicable time specified in table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(3) of this AD, do open hole or surface HFEC for cracking of repaired or modified floor panel attachment holes in the upper deck floor beam upper chords, in accordance with Part 1 or Part 3, as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. If any crack is found during any inspection required by this paragraph, before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014.
For airplanes identified in Group 1 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014: At the applicable time specified in table 3 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(4) of this AD, do open hole or surface HFEC inspections of the floor panel attachment holes in the upper deck floor beam upper chords, in accordance with Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. If any crack is found during any inspection required by this paragraph, before further flight, repair in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(2) of this AD. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in table 3 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, until an action specified in paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD is done.
(1) Doing a repair as a hole modification in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(2) of this AD, terminates the inspections required by paragraph (i) of this AD for that modified hole only.
(2) Doing a modification in accordance with Figure 21 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21,
For airplanes identified in Group 1 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, on which a repair specified in Part 5 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, is done or the modification specified in Figure 21 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, is done: At the applicable time specified in table 4 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(3) of this AD, do open hole or surface HFEC inspections of repaired or modified floor panel attachment holes in the upper deck floor beam upper chords, in accordance with Part 4 or Part 6, as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. If any crack is found during any inspection by this paragraph, before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in table 4 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014.
At the applicable time specified in table 5 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014: Replace all upper deck floor beam upper chords, in accordance with Part 7 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. Within 20,000 flight cycles after doing the replacement, do the inspections specified in paragraphs (g) and (i) of this AD, as applicable. Thereafter, repeat the inspections required by paragraphs (g) and (i) of this AD, as applicable, at the times specified in paragraphs (g) and (i) of this AD.
For airplanes identified in Group 2 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014: At the applicable time specified in table 6 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m)(1) of this AD, at all plugged or reused floor panel attachment holes in the affected floor beam upper chords, do a surface HFEC inspection of the upper deck floor beam upper chords and detailed inspection for cracks on the vertical flange, in accordance with Part 8 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014. If any crack is found during any inspection required by this paragraph, before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable time specified in table 6 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014.
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the Revision 2 date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014; specifies to contact Boeing for certain procedures: Do the specified actions before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD.
(3) Where table 2 or table 4 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, specifies to contact Boeing for inspections and compliance times: Before further flight, contact the Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, for inspections and compliance times and accomplish the inspections at the given times.
(4) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the Revision 1 date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after December 10, 2013 (the effective date of AD 2013-22-11).
(1) This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (o) of AD 2013-22-11, with new reference to paragraph (h) of this AD. This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before December 10, 2013 (the effective date of AD 2013-22-11), using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, dated August 21, 2008, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2009-10-16, Amendment 39-15901 (74 FR 22424, May 13, 2009).
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (g) through (k) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 1, dated September 19, 2012, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2013-22-11.
(1) The Manager, Seattle ACO, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (p) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 2013-22-11 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraphs (g) through (k) of this AD.
For more information about this AD, contact Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2688, Revision 2, dated August 21, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; phone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of missing fasteners in certain locations of the fuselage during production. This AD would require inspecting for missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fasteners; and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the fuselage due to missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fasteners, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1138; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0197, dated September 4, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes. The MCAI states:
During inspection of various fuselage areas on some A330-200F aeroplanes on the production line, prior to delivery, some fasteners were found missing.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to crack initiation and propagation, possibly resulting in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
To address this condition, Airbus issued several Service Bulletins (SB), providing inspection and modification instructions, as applicable.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires detailed inspections of the affected areas and, depending on findings, accomplishment of the applicable corrective actions.
Corrective actions include replacing any missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fasteners, and repair of any discrepancy (deformation or cracking of the fastener rows) of the affected fuselage frame areas. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed the following Airbus service information, which describes procedures for inspecting for missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fasteners; and corrective actions.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3202, dated May 6, 2014.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3212, dated May 6, 2014.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3213, dated May 6, 2014.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3214, dated May 6, 2014.
We also reviewed the following Airbus service information, which describes procedures for modification of certain sections of the fuselage.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3216, dated May 6, 2014.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3217, dated May 6, 2014.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3218, dated May 6, 2014.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3219, dated May 6, 2014.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 3 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take about 10 work-hours per product to comply with the basic inspection requirements of this AD, and 1 work-
In addition, we estimate that any necessary modification will take about 40 work-hours and require parts costing $210, for a cost of $3,610 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action.
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition repairs specified in this AD.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes, certificated in any category; manufacturer serial numbers 1004, 1032, 1051, 1062, 1070, 1092, 1115, 1136, 1148, 1164, 1175, 1180, 1320, 1332, 1344, 1350, 1368, 1380, 1386, 1406, 1414, 1418, and 1428.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report of missing fasteners in certain locations of the fuselage during production. We are issuing this AD to prevent cracking of the fuselage due to missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fasteners, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 72 months since first flight of the airplane: Do a detailed inspection of all applicable fuselage zones for missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fasteners, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(4) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3202, dated May 6, 2014.
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3212, dated May 6, 2014.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3213, dated May 6, 2014.
(4) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3214, dated May 6, 2014.
If any missing, damaged, or incorrectly installed fastener is found during the detailed inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, do a detailed inspection for discrepancies (deformation or cracking) of the adjacent fastener rows of the applicable fuselage zones, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(4) of this AD.
(1) If no discrepancy is found, before further flight, modify the affected fuselage zone, in accordance with the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (h)(1)(i) through (h)(1)(iv) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3216, dated May 6, 2014.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3217, dated May 6, 2014.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3218, dated May 6, 2014.
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3219, dated May 6, 2014.
(2) If any discrepancy is found, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
Submit a report (including both positive and negative findings) to Airbus, Customer Services Directorate, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex France, Attn: SDC32 Technical Data and Documentation Services; fax: (+33) 5 61 93 28 06; email:
(1) For airplanes on which the inspection specified in paragraph (g) of this AD is accomplished on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after performing the inspection.
(2) For airplanes on which the inspection specified in paragraph (g) of this AD is accomplished before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0197, dated September 4, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3202, dated May 6, 2014.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3212, dated May 6, 2014.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3213, dated May 6, 2014.
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3214, dated May 6, 2014.
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3216, dated May 6, 2014.
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3217, dated May 6, 2014.
(vii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3218, dated May 6, 2014.
(viii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3219, dated May 6, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and F4-600R series airplanes, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes), modified by a particular supplemental type certificate (STC). This AD was prompted by a report of chafing found on the overflow sensor harness of the surge tank, and subsequent contact between the electrical wiring and fuel tank structure. This AD requires a one-time inspection for damage of the outer tank overflow sensor harness, and repair if necessary. This AD also requires modification of the sensor harness. We are issuing this AD to prevent chafing of the harness and subsequent contact between the electrical wiring and fuel tank structure, which could result in electrical arcing and a fuel tank explosion.
This AD becomes effective May 18, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 18, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Simmonds Precision Products, Inc., A UTC Aerospace Company, 100 Panton Road, Vergennes, VT 05491; phone 802-877-2911; fax 802-877-4444; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Marc Ronell, Aerospace Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, ANE-150, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7776; fax: 781-238-7170; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and F4-600R series airplanes, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes), modified by a particular STC. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2013-0193, dated August 23, 2013 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A300 series airplanes and all Model A300-600 series airplanes.
The MCAI corresponds to FAA AD 2015-03-03, Amendment 39-18099 (80 FR 11101, March 2, 2015) (“AD 2015-03-03”), which applies to Airbus Model A300 series airplanes and Model A300-600 series airplanes, all serial numbers, except for airplanes modified by STC ST00092BO (
In AD 2015-03-03, we explained that airplanes that have had the in-tank fuel quantity system modified by STC ST00092BO cannot accomplish the actions required by AD 2015-03-03 by using Airbus Service Bulletin A300-28-6109, Revision 01, dated December 20, 2013.
We also stated that we were considering separate rulemaking to require the procedures and compliance time specified in UTC Aerospace Systems Service Bulletin 300723-28-03 (V-1577), dated October 10, 2014, for airplanes modified by STC ST00092BO. We have determined that further rulemaking is indeed necessary, and this AD follows from that determination.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We have considered the comments received. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
FedEx asked that we extend the compliance time required by paragraph (g) of the proposed AD from 12 to 30 months. FedEx stated that AD 2015-03-03 required accomplishing the inspection and rerouting within 30 months. FedEx added that, in both AD 2015-03-03 and the NPRM, improper harness routing is the root cause of the issue, and stated that airplanes having STC ST00092BO have equal susceptibility to harness chafing damage as those identified in AD 2015-03-03. FedEx suggested that a 30-month compliance time would still provide an acceptable level of safety. FedEx added that it is expecting to wait four to six months for one of the required materials, and the availability of its installation tool has not been confirmed. FedEx also stated that a longer compliance time would allow it to minimize the operational impact and accomplish the potentially lengthy service information at C-checks.
We do not agree with the commenter's request to extend the compliance time, because the request is not supported by any analysis or supporting data. This compliance time is shorter to account for the time already elapsed for airplanes having STC ST00092BO. In developing an appropriate compliance time for the actions specified in this AD, we considered the safety implications and normal maintenance schedules for the timely accomplishment of the specified actions. We have determined that the proposed 12-month compliance time will ensure an acceptable level of safety and allow the actions to be done during scheduled maintenance intervals for most affected operators. However, affected operators may request an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) to request an extension of the compliance time under the provisions of paragraph (i) of this AD by submitting data and analysis substantiating that the change would provide an acceptable level of safety. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
FedEx stated that, although the referenced service information specifies 14 work-hours per airplane for accomplishing both actions, the number of work-hours could be closer to 24, especially if a harness is replaced.
We infer that the commenter is requesting that the work-hour estimate specified in the “Costs of Compliance” section be increased. We partially agree with the request. We provided our best estimate for the work hours based on the information received from the airplane manufacturer and specified in the referenced service information. However, we do not know the number of work-hours it would take to replace a harness, and as stated in the “Costs of Compliance” section, we have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions. We have not changed this final rule in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
UTC Aerospace Systems has issued Service Bulletin 300723-28-03 (V-1577), Revision 01, dated July 20, 2015. The service information describes procedures for an inspection for damage of the outer tank of the overflow sensor harness, repair, and modification of the sensor harness. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business
We estimate that this AD affects 65 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it takes about 3 work-hours per product to comply with the inspection required by this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this inspection required by this AD on U.S. operators to be $16,575, or $255 per product.
We estimate that it takes about 11 work-hours per product to comply with the modification requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts cost about $100 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this modification on U.S. operators to be $67,275, or $1,035 per product.
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective May 18, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes specified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4) of this AD; certificated in any category; modified by Simmonds Precision Products, Inc., Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST00092BO (
(1) Model A300 B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes.
(2) Model A300 B4-605R and B4-622R airplanes.
(3) Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes.
(4) Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by a report of chafing found on the overflow sensor harness of the surge tank, and subsequent contact between the electrical wiring and fuel tank structure. We are issuing this AD to prevent chafing of the harness and subsequent contact between the electrical wiring and fuel tank structure, which could result in electrical arcing and a fuel tank explosion.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD: Do the actions required by paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of UTC Aerospace Systems Service Bulletin 300723-28-03 (V-1577), Revision 01, dated July 20, 2015.
(1) Perform a one-time general visual inspection for damage of the outer tank sensor harness, and if any damage is found on the expando sleeving, before further flight, do a detailed inspection of the underlying wires for exposed conductor wires. If any exposed conductor wire is found, before further flight, replace the outer wing harness assembly.
(2) Install new brackets and re-route the surge tank overflow sensor harness.
(3) Modify the harness protection.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using UTC Aerospace Systems Service Bulletin 300723-28-03 (V-1577), dated October 10, 2014. This service information is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) The Manager, Boston Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), ANE-150, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Marc Ronell, Aerospace Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, ANE-150, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7776; fax: 781-238-7170; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (k)(3) and (k)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) UTC Aerospace Systems Service Bulletin 300723-28-03 (V-1577), Revision 01, dated July 20, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Simmonds Precision Products, Inc., A UTC Aerospace Company, 100 Panton Road, Vergennes, VT 05491; phone 802-877-2911; fax 802-877-4444; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, correction.
This action corrects administrative errors in a final rule published in the
Effective 0901 UTC, May 26, 2016. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.9 and publication of conforming amendments.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; Telephone: (425) 203-4511.
The FAA published a final rule in the
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, in the
On page 12002, column 1, line 17, remove “Paragraph 5000 Class D Airspace”, and add in its place “Paragraph 6005. Class E airspace Areas Extending Upward from 700 feet or more Above the Surface of the Earth.”
On page 12002, column 1, line 19 and 20, remove “ANM WA E5 Willapa Harbor Heliport, South Bend, WA [New]” and add in its place “ANM WA E5 South Bend, WA [New].”
On page 12002, column 1, lines 27, 28, 34 and 35, after the word `Harbor' add the word `Heliport'.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is revising portions of the Arizona Regional Haze Federal Implementation Plan (FIP) applicable to the Coronado Generating Station (Coronado) and the Cholla Power Plant (Cholla). In response to a petition for reconsideration from the Salt River Project Agricultural Improvement and Power District (SRP), the owner and operator of Coronado, we are replacing a plant-wide compliance method with a unit-specific compliance method for determining compliance with the best available retrofit technology (BART) emission limits for nitrogen oxides (NO
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2015-0165. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Vijay Limaye, U.S. EPA, Region 9, Planning Office, Air Division, Air-2, 75 Hawthorne Street, San Francisco, CA 94105; telephone number: (415) 972-3086; email address:
Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
For the purpose of this document, we are giving meaning to certain words or initials as follows:
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Congress created a program for protecting visibility in the nation's national parks and wilderness areas in 1977 by adding section 169A to the Clean Air Act (CAA). This section of the CAA establishes as a national goal the “prevention of any future, and the remedying of any existing, impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I Federal areas which impairment results from man-made air pollution.”
The Arizona Department of Environmental Quality (ADEQ) submitted a Regional Haze SIP (“Arizona Regional Haze SIP”) under Section 308 of the RHR to EPA Region 9 on February 28, 2011. The Arizona Regional Haze SIP included BART determinations for NO
In the final Arizona Regional Haze FIP, we set a plant-wide NO
In addition, we included in the FIP two additional requirements that apply to all affected sources, including Coronado. First, we promulgated a work practice standard that requires that pollution control equipment be designed and capable of operating properly to minimize emissions during all expected operating conditions.
We received a petition from SRP on February 4, 2013, requesting partial reconsideration and administrative stay of our final rule under section 307(d)(7)(B) of the CAA and section 705 of the Administrative Procedure Act.
On March 31, 2015, the EPA proposed action on reconsideration of the compliance method and NO
We proposed to set a separate rolling 30-BOD lb/MMBtu limit for each of the two Coronado Units, based on the following compliance method:
The 30-day rolling average NO
In developing a proposed emission limit for Unit 1, we considered information and analyses provided by SRP, including two reports prepared by S&L and RMB concerning the achievability of various NO
In our evaluation of the 2013 S&L report, we found that the scenarios examined by S&L were realistic depictions of load profile scenarios historically experienced by the Coronado units. In particular, we found that S&L's scenario 5c, which consists of low-load cycling operations (with SCR and steam reheat assumed) and three cold startups within a 30-day period was a reasonable and conservative representation of expected future operations at Coronado Unit 1, in light of the number of startup events that have historically occurred and SRP's expectation that the Coronado units will experience greater periods of operation in load-following service or nonoperation in the future. Accordingly, we proposed to find that an emission rate of 0.065 lb/MMBtu, which corresponds to S&L's scenario 5c, was a reasonable estimate of average SCR performance for Unit 1.
We were unable to evaluate fully the RMB Report because it lacked documentation regarding many of its components. In addition, we found that the data set for NO
Based on these proposed findings, we proposed to set an emission limit for Coronado Unit 1 of 0.065 lb/MMBtu on a rolling 30-BOD basis. Please refer to
In proposing an emission limit for Coronado Unit 2, we considered information provided by SRP concerning Unit 2's design parameters and the installation of a low-load temperature control system for Unit 2. We found that this information supported SRP's assertion that the emission limit in the Consent Decree of 0.080 lb/MMBtu represents BART for Unit 2. In particular, we noted that “the fact that SRP has already installed a low-load temperature-control system at this unit in order to meet the 0.080 lb/MMBtu limit suggests that a lower limit would not be achievable on a 30-BOD basis.”
In addition to the revisions to the continuously applicable numeric emission limits for each unit, we proposed to revise the work practice standard at 40 CFR 52.145(f)(10) to require continuous operation of pollution control equipment at each unit at all times the unit is in service “in a manner consistent with technological limitations, manufacturer's specifications, and good engineering and good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions.”
As noted in our proposal, the Arizona Regional Haze FIP incorporates by reference certain provisions of the ACC that establish an affirmative defense that sources may seek to assert in an enforcement action for violations that result from excess emissions due to malfunctions.
The final element of our proposed action on reconsideration was an analysis of whether the proposed revisions to the FIP would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment, reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA.
Our proposed action provided a 45-day public comment period. During this period, we received two comment letters: one from Earthjustice on behalf of National Parks Conservation Association and Sierra Club and one from SRP. In addition, after the close of the comment period, we received a comment letter from the Eastern Arizona Counties Organization (ECO).
We are cognizant of the commenter's concern that accounting for operating events and conditions that occur relatively infrequently could result in an emission limit that is higher than what would be warranted based solely on normal, steady-state operations. Such a limit provides a larger compliance margin during periods of normal, steady-state operations, when these operating events and conditions are not occurring. However, we disagree with the commenter's argument that separate limits for each mode of operation or load profile are needed. We recognize that the EPA's SSM SIP Policy as of 2015 contemplates the potential use of “. . . special, alternative emission limitations that apply during startup or shutdown if the source cannot meet the otherwise applicable emission limitation . . .”
The commenter is suggesting that the FIP should take this approach for Coronado. We acknowledge that in general this approach would be consistent with our 2015 SSM SIP Policy, but our SSM Policy also contemplates the use of a single appropriately set numerical limit with a relatively long averaging period that is a weighted average of the levels of emission control during steady-state operation, startup, and shutdown. The EPA notes, however, that the averaging period for an emission limitation must be appropriate for the type of SIP provision at issue,
As described in the S&L report, periods of low load operation generally consist of operation between loads of 138 MW to 270 MW (operation above 270 MW can be considered “high” load). Broadly speaking, the temperature in the SCR system will fall below 599 degrees F during these periods of low load operation, which is the minimum temperature required for effective NO
The commenter noted that it was unable to identify a 30-day period with two or three cold starts along with significant low-load cycling at Unit 1 during the period from 2012-2014. We reviewed operating data beyond the most recent 3-year period and found three 30-day periods with multiple startup events.
Similarly, the commenter asserted that it had not identified a 30-day period of significant low-load cycling at Unit 1 during the period from 2012-2014. We agree that historical operations at the Coronado units do not reflect 30 consecutive days of low-load cycling operations. As noted in our proposed rule, this assumption is based on SRP's expectation that the Coronado units will experience greater periods of low-load cycling operation in the future, as well as nonoperation, given the expanded role of renewable energy and reduced reliance on fossil fuels in electricity generation. More recent data from the first 9 months of 2015 indicate increased low-load cycling operations and startup events relative to historical patterns.
In sum, based upon historical operations, particularly the modest amount of low-load cycling operations engaged in by the Coronado units, Scenario 5c (
SRP also commented that RMB provided a UPL statistical analysis “merely as a check against its primary analysis, which is analytical assessment of years of available emissions data from comparable units.” The commenter noted that:
In its analytical assessment, RMB simply determined the 99th percentile value of hundreds of 30-day average emission rates that it was able to calculate from the available emission data. There was no need to rely on a statistical tool such as the UPL to predict what the 99th percentile would be because there are adequate data to calculate that value directly.
With regard to the variability derived by the RMB report, we agree that measurement and process variability should be accounted for in establishing an emission limit that is achievable, and that incorporates an appropriate compliance margin. The UPL methodology would be one way to account for the possible impact of process and measurement variability. As explained in our proposed rule, however, we do not believe it is necessary or appropriate to use the UPL methodology in this instance, given the size and scope of the data set available. The commenter provided no assertions or arguments that contradict our finding that use of the UPL methodology is inappropriate in this instance. Indeed, the commenter actually acknowledges that use of the UPL is not appropriate in this instance given the available data.
For similar reasons, we disagree with SRP's suggestion that we should simply have used the 99th percentile emissions rate. As with UPL analyses, the EPA has previously used the 99th percentile (described in some contexts as the 99th confidence level) when establishing emission limits for entire source categories based on emission data set collected from a subset of the sources in each category. In such cases, it is appropriate to take additional measures, such as use of the 99th confidence level, to address concerns about variations not captured or accounted for in the development of the data set. In this instance, by contrast, the proposed 0.065 lb/MMBtu emission limit was developed from emission data from the specific unit in question—either from CEMS data collected from Unit 1 or from SCR vendor estimates developed specifically for Unit 1. Although we recognize that this does not eliminate all concerns regarding variability and uncertainty, we do not consider the measures proposed by the commenter to be appropriate in this instance given the substantially site-specific nature of the data underlying the proposed emission limit. Moreover, neither S&L nor RMB calculated a 99th percentile emission rate for Coronado Unit 1 based on the use of SCR. Accordingly, we do not agree that use of the 99th percentile emissions is necessary to account for process and measurement variability.
More broadly, while we have not explicitly quantified a portion of the compliance margin specifically to account for process and measurement variability (
Accordingly, we are finalizing a rolling 30-BOD NO
Further, the commenter asserted that had the low-load temperature control system operated at this load range, the corresponding NO
For example, the first instance listed by the commenter (hours 13 to 15 on June 1, 2014) are the final 3 hours of a 15-hour-long startup event, in which Unit 2 starts at zero load, proceeds to full load, and engages in high-load cycling on a continuous basis for the next 5 weeks.
More broadly, the commenter raises concerns regarding whether these instances of SCR nonoperation are indicative of the low-load temperature control system being improperly installed or operated. The 2014 AMPD data supplied by the commenter do not appear to contain any periods of operation that correspond to low-load cycling. Therefore, it is not possible to readily evaluate the effectiveness of the low-load temperature control system based on these data alone. In preparing our final action on reconsideration, we have reviewed 2015 AMPD data in order to determine if the low-load temperature control system is being operated during periods of low-load cycling. We have identified several periods of low-load cycling in 2015, and note that the emission rates achieved during these periods are consistent with operation of the SCR system.
We also disagree with the commenter's second assertion, that 30-day NO
In sum, in our 2015 proposed action on reconsideration, we proposed a BART limit of 0.080 lb/MMBtu for Unit 2 based on information and analysis provided by SRP indicating that the Unit 2 SCR system was designed to meet the 2012 Consent Decree emission limit of 0.080 lb/MMBtu, and that SRP had since installed a low-load temperature control system on Unit 2 to meet that emission limit. Because the information provided by the commenter does not alter the data, analysis, or reasoning underlying this proposed limit, we are finalizing a rolling 30-BOD limit of 0.080 lb/MMBtu for Unit 2.
First, the commenter argued that the court's decision in
Second, SRP noted that, in the proposed SSM SIP Call, the EPA had only proposed to interpret the CAA to bar affirmative defense type provisions in SIPs and had also proposed to provide states 18 months to submit SIP revisions to remove affirmative defenses for exceedances due to malfunctions. The commenter thus asserted that the EPA should allow the SSM SIP Call rulemaking to proceed, rather than “predetermine the outcome of that rulemaking by removing the affirmative defense from the Arizona Regional Haze FIP far in advance of [the] timeline applicable to the SIP call rulemaking.”
Third, SRP asserted that “[t]he U.S. Constitution also supports retention of the affirmative defense for malfunctions.” In particular, the commenter noted that the U.S. Supreme Court has held that the Eighth Amendment, including protections against excessive fines and punishments, may apply to government action in a civil context as well as in a criminal context. SRP claimed that significant penalties are not proportional to an offense caused by unavoidable events, such as excess emissions during malfunction events. Furthermore, the commenter argued that “imposing liability for `unavoidable' and therefore innocent conduct would infringe on substantive due process principles under the Fifth Amendment.” SRP asserted that affirmative defense provisions “avoid unjust punishment while at the same time placing on the source the burden of demonstrating that the offense actually was `unavoidable' (and that punishment therefore would be unjust).” Again citing
Finally, SRP stated that the affirmative defense “was an integral part of the agreed-upon emission limits established in the [Coronado] Consent Decree” and “was integral to the analyses submitted by SRP in support of its Petition for Reconsideration and the proposed emission limits SRP submitted to EPA for NO
First, we do not agree with the commenter's suggestion that we are free to ignore the
The EPA is revising its interpretation of the CAA with respect to affirmative defenses based upon a reevaluation of the statutory provisions that pertain to enforcement of SIP provisions in light of recent court opinions. Section 113(b) provides courts with explicit jurisdiction to determine liability and to impose remedies of various kinds, including injunctive relief, compliance orders and monetary penalties, in judicial enforcement proceedings. This grant of jurisdiction comes directly from Congress, and the EPA is not authorized to alter or eliminate this jurisdiction under the CAA or any other law. With respect to monetary penalties, CAA section 113(e) explicitly includes the factors that courts and the EPA are required to consider in the event of judicial or administrative enforcement for violations of CAA requirements, including SIP provisions. Because Congress has already given federal courts the jurisdiction to determine what monetary penalties are appropriate in the event of judicial enforcement for a violation of a SIP provision, neither the EPA nor states can alter or eliminate that jurisdiction by superimposing restrictions on that jurisdiction and discretion granted by Congress to the courts. Affirmative defense provisions by their nature purport to limit or eliminate the authority of federal courts to determine liability or to impose remedies through factual considerations that differ from, or are contrary to, the explicit grants of authority in section 113(b) and section 113(e).
The commenter has offered nothing to refute this interpretation of the CAA. Instead, the commenter suggests that the EPA should not apply the
With regard to the other judicial decisions cited by the commenter, the
Finally, while the
Second, as noted previously, the EPA has finalized the SSM SIP Call and determined that AAC R18-2-310(B) and AAC R18-2-310(C) are substantially inadequate to meet CAA requirements.
Third, the commenter's constitutional arguments appear to suggest that the existing CAA enforcement provisions are facially unconstitutional. We do not agree. The CAA does not mandate that any penalty be automatically assessed for a violation. Rather, the CAA establishes a maximum civil penalty in section 113(b), but then expressly provides in section 113(e) the criteria that the EPA (in administrative enforcement) or the courts (in judicial enforcement) “shall take into consideration (in addition to other factors as justice may require).” These criteria explicitly include consideration of “good faith efforts to comply.” Whether in administrative enforcement or judicial enforcement, there is a process through which the alleged violator may raise any legal or equitable arguments it may have based on the facts and circumstances of the violation. Thus, the CAA on its face does not mandate the imposition of any penalty automatically, much less one that is
Fourth, we acknowledge that, as in the
Finally, we do not agree that removal of the affirmative defense from the Arizona Regional Haze FIP necessitates an increase in the emission limits for NO
It should also be noted that our removal of the affirmative defense from the Arizona Regional Haze FIP does not alter the terms of the Coronado Consent Decree, which includes an affirmative defense applicable only to stipulated penalties for violations of the Consent Decree itself.
In sum, we do not agree that the affirmative defense applicable to violations due to malfunctions should be retained in the Arizona Regional Haze FIP or that the emission limits in the FIP should be revised upward in light of the removal of the defense.
The EPA is taking final action to revise the Arizona Regional Haze FIP to replace a plant-wide BART compliance method and emission limit for NO
We find that this revision will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment, reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. The Arizona Regional Haze FIP, as revised by this action, will result in a significant reduction in emissions compared to current levels (roughly 5,000 tpy). Although this revision will allow a marginal increase in emissions after December 2017 from the Coronado facility as compared to the prior FIP (roughly 233 tpy), the FIP as a whole will still result in an overall NO
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income, or indigenous populations. We expect that Coronado will install the same control technology in order to meet the revised emission limits as would have been necessary to meet the previously finalized limits. As noted previously, this revision to the FIP will allow for an increase in NO
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. This rule applies to only two facilities and is therefore not a rule of general applicability.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA. This rule applies to only two facilities. Therefore, its recordkeeping and reporting provisions do not constitute a “collection of information” as defined under 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c).
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities. Firms primarily engaged in the generation, transmission, and/or distribution of electric energy for sale are small if, including affiliates, the total electric output for the preceding fiscal year did not exceed 4 million megawatt hours. Each of the owners of facilities affected by this rule, SRP, APS and PacifiCorp, exceeds this threshold.
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. It will not have substantial direct effects on any Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets EO 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards. The EPA is not revising any technical standards or imposing any new technical standards in this action.
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income, or indigenous populations. The results of this evaluation are contained in section VI previously.
Pursuant to CAA section 307(d)(1)(B), this action is subject to the requirements of CAA section 307(d), as it revises a FIP under CAA section 110(c).
This rule is exempt from the CRA because it is a rule of particular applicability.
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 13, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this rule for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. See CAA section 307(b)(2).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen oxides, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Visibility.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(f) * * *
(3) * * *
(i)
(5) * * *
(ii) * * *
(A)
(B)
(10)
(ii)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving revisions to the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Texas through the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ) on July 10, 2015. The Texas SIP submission revises 30 Texas Administrative Code (TAC) Chapter 117 rules for control of nitrogen compounds to assist the Dallas-Fort Worth (DFW) moderate nonattainment area (NAA) in attaining the 2008 eight-hour ozone (O
This rule is effective on May 13, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2015-0497. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Mr. James E. Grady, (214) 665-6745;
Throughout this document, “we,” “our,” or “us” each mean “the EPA.”
The background for this action is discussed in detail in the December 21, 2015 proposal (80 FR 79279). In that document, the EPA proposed to approve the submitted 30 TAC Chapter 117 SIP revision (submitted on July 10, 2015) as assisting the DFW area into attainment of the 2008 8-Hour O
The Proposal and the technical support documents (TSDs) that accompanied the proposed rule provide detailed descriptions of the revisions and the rationale for the proposed decisions. Please see the docket for these and other documents regarding the Proposal. The public comment period for the Proposal closed on January 20, 2016.
The EPA received one comment email dated December 30, 2015, from TCEQ. The EPA's response to the comment is below.
(3) Stationary gas turbines:
(A) with a horsepower (hp) rating of less than 10,000 hp, 0.55 lb/MMBtu;
(B) with a hp rating of 10,000 hp or greater, 0.15 lb/MMBtu.
Please refer to Table 1 below for a list of NO
With one exception the EPA is approving all modified, repealed and new sections of 30 TAC Chapter 117 submitted by Texas on July 10, 2015 as part of the SIP revision.
Table 3 contains a list of the sections of Chapter 117 with adopted subchapters, divisions, and key sections with approved new requirements associated with the July 10, 2015 DFW 2008 eight-hour O
Per TCEQ's request, the following sections listed in Table 4 below will not become a part of the EPA-approved Texas SIP. These rules pertain mainly to the control of carbon monoxide and ammonia emissions, which are not O
Table 5 contains subchapters, divisions, and key sections approved for repeal from the SIP by the TCEQ. The TCEQ adopts the repeal of existing Subchapters B and C in Division 2 as well as sections § 117.9010 and 117.9110 of Subchapter H in Division 1 because compliance dates for sources of NO
A complete summary along with all non-substantive changes pertaining to reformatting, restructuring, reorganizing, and administrative revisions are referenced in the Technical Support Document (TSD), “30 Texas Administrative Code (TAC) Chapter 117 Control of Air Pollution from Nitrogen Compounds,” a copy of which is posted in the docket of this rule.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the revisions to the Texas regulations as described in the Final Action section above. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 13, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Hydrocarbons, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Ozone, Reasonably available control technology, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
The amendments read as follows:
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation increases an existing tolerance for residues of acequinocyl in or on “Hop, dried cones.” Arysta LifeScience requested this tolerance increase under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective April 13, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before June 13, 2016, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0382, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0382 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before June 13, 2016. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0382, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for acequinocyl including exposure resulting from the tolerance established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with acequinocyl follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
The absorption, metabolism, distribution, and excretion (ADME) of acequinocyl are well characterized. Acequinocyl exhibits marginal absorption into the plasma (13-16% for the 10 mg/kg low dose and 8-9% for the 500 mg/kg high dose) and relatively rapid and complete excretion (24 hours for the low dose and 72 hours for the high dose), primarily via the bile and feces (82.6%) in rats. Acequinocyl undergoes nearly complete metabolism to hydrolysis products and a glucuronide conjugate. There was no evidence for selective tissue accumulation or sequestration.
Across species, durations and routes of exposure (oral and dermal), the primary effects in the acequinocyl hazard database are indicative of toxicity to the liver (hepatocyte vacuolization, brown pigmented cells and perivascular inflammatory cells in liver) and hematopoietic system (hemorrhage, increased clotting factor times and increased platelet counts). In an acute neurotoxicity study, there were no effects up to the limit dose (2,000 mg/kg). In a guideline immunotoxicity study, there were also no effects up to the highest dose tested (45 mg/kg/day). In rats and rabbits, there was no evidence of increased quantitative or qualitative fetal susceptibility with clinical signs and gross necropsy findings seen in maternal animals at similar or lower doses than those producing resorptions. In the rat 2-generation reproductive toxicity study, offspring effects at the mid- and high-doses consisted of swollen body parts, protruding eyes, clinical signs, delays in pupil development, and increased mortality occurring mainly after weaning, however these effects were observed at the same doses as parental effects, and a clear NOAEL was established which is being used in endpoint selection. There were no effects on reproductive parameters. There was no concern for genotoxicity or mutagenicity. There was no evidence of carcinogenic potential in either the rat or mouse carcinogenicity studies, or in the genotoxicity and mutagenicity studies indicating that acequinocyl is “not likely” to be carcinogenic to humans.
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by acequinocyl as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for acequinocyl used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III. B. of the final rule published in the
1.
i.
No such effects were identified in the toxicological studies for acequinocyl; therefore, a quantitative acute dietary exposure assessment is unnecessary.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Pesticide Root Zone Model/Exposure Analysis Modeling System (PRZM/EXAMS) and Screening Concentration in Ground Water (SCI-GROW) models, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of acequinocyl for chronic exposure assessments are estimated to be 6.69 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 3.6 × 10
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For the chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 6.69 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
4.
EPA has not found acequinocyl to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and acequinocyl does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that acequinocyl does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
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i. The toxicity database for acequinocyl is complete.
ii. There is no indication that acequinocyl is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that acequinocyl results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to acequinocyl in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by acequinocyl.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
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Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in an aggregate MOE of 22,000 for adults 20-49 years old. Because EPA's level of concern for acequinocyl is a MOE of 100 or below, this MOE is not of concern.
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An intermediate-term adverse effect was identified; however, acequinocyl is not registered for any use patterns that would result in intermediate-term residential exposure. Intermediate-term risk is assessed based on intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no intermediate-term residential exposure and chronic dietary exposure has already been assessed under the appropriately protective cPAD (which is at least as protective as the POD used to assess intermediate-term risk), no further assessment of intermediate-term risk is necessary, and EPA relies on the chronic dietary risk assessment for evaluating intermediate-term risk for acequinocyl.
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Adequate enforcement methodology (high-performance liquid chromatography methods with tandem mass-spectroscopy detection (HPLC/MS/MS)) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established an MRL for acequinocyl on hops.
Therefore, the existing tolerance for residues of acequinocyl, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on “Hop, dried cones” is increased from 4.0 ppm to 15 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a) * * *
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; modification of a closure.
NMFS is opening directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Bering Sea subarea of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (BSAI). This action is necessary to fully use the B season apportionment of the 2016 total allowable catch (TAC) of Pacific cod allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), April 11, 2016, through 2400 hrs, A.l.t., June 10, 2016. Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., A.l.t., April 28, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0118, by any of the following methods:
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Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
NMFS closed directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI under
NMFS has determined that as of April 7, 2016, approximately 1,500 metric tons of Pacific cod remain in the B season apportionment of the 2016 TAC of Pacific cod allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI. However, NMFS closed directed fishing for Pacific cod in the Aleutian Island subarea of the BSAI under § 679.20(d)(1)(iii) on March 22, 2016 (81 FR 16096, March 25, 2016). Therefore, in accordance with § 679.25(a)(1)(i), (a)(2)(i)(C), and (a)(2)(iii)(D), and to fully use the B season apportionment of the 2016 TAC of Pacific cod allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI, NMFS is terminating the directed fishing closure for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI and is opening directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Bering Sea subarea of the BSAI. This action does not open directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Aleutian Island subarea of the BSAI. The Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, (Regional Administrator) considered the following factors in reaching this decision: (1) The current catch of Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI and, (2) the harvest capacity and stated intent on future harvesting patterns of vessels in participating in this fishery.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the opening of directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Bering Sea subarea of the BSAI. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery, to allow the industry to plan for the fishing season, and to avoid potential disruption to the fishing fleet and processors. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of April 7, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Without this inseason adjustment, NMFS could not allow the fishery for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI to be harvested in an expedient manner and in accordance with the regulatory schedule. Under § 679.25(c)(2), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action to the above address until April 28, 2016.
This action is required by § 679.25 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is proposing to add Honduras to the list of countries eligible to export poultry products to the United States. The FSIS review of Honduras' laws, regulations, and inspection system demonstrated that its poultry slaughter inspection system is equivalent to the system FSIS has established under the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) and its implementing regulations.
At this time, because Honduras advised FSIS that it intends to export raw poultry products, such as whole carcasses, to the United States, FSIS has only assessed Honduras' poultry slaughter establishments. Thus, should this proposed rule become final, Honduras would only be eligible to export raw poultry products to the United States. Should Honduras express interest in exporting processed poultry product, such as cooked or canned product, to the United States, they would need to request an equivalence determination. Honduras would be required to submit additional records for FSIS to review and conduct an audit as appropriate.
Under this proposal, slaughtered poultry or parts thereof produced in certified Honduran establishments would be eligible for export to the United States. All such products would be subject to re-inspection at United States ports of entry by FSIS inspectors.
Submit comments on or before June 13, 2016.
FSIS invites interested persons to submit comments on this notice. Comments may be submitted by one of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: This Web site provides the ability to type short comments directly into the comment field on this Web page or attach a file for lengthier comments. Go to
• Mail, including CD-ROMs, etc.: Send to Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Food Safety and Inspection Service, Docket Clerk, Patriots Plaza 3, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Mailstop 3782, Room 8-163A, Washington, DC 20250-3700.
• Hand- or courier-delivered submittals: Deliver to Patriots Plaza 3, 355 E Street SW., Room 8-163A, Washington, DC 20250-3700.
Dr. Daniel Engeljohn, Assistant Administrator, Office of Policy and Program Development; Telephone: (202) 205-0495.
FSIS is proposing to amend its poultry products inspection regulations to add Honduras to the list of countries eligible to export poultry products to the United States (9 CFR 381.196(b)). Honduras is not currently listed as eligible to export poultry products to the United States. Honduras is currently eligible for the export of raw and processed meat products. If this proposed rule is finalized, establishments in Honduras will be eligible to export raw poultry to the United States. However, because of animal disease restrictions, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) regulations restrict Honduras from shipping raw poultry product to the U.S. Newcastle disease (ND) is considered by APHIS to exist in all regions of the world except those listed in paragraph (a)(2) of 9 CFR 94.6. Because Honduras is not listed, the APHIS regulation restricts the importation of poultry carcasses, meat, parts or products of carcasses, and eggs (other than hatching eggs) of poultry, game birds, or other birds from Honduras. Honduras has requested APHIS' recognition of their ND status as ND free, and APHIS is conducting a review and evaluation. If APHIS determines that the request can be safely granted, it will state its intent and make its evaluation available for public comment through a document published in the
Section 17 of the PPIA (21 U.S.C. 466) prohibits importation into the United States of slaughtered poultry, or parts or products thereof, of any kind unless they are healthful, wholesome, fit for human food, not adulterated, and contain no dye, chemical, preservative, or ingredient that renders them unhealthful, unwholesome, adulterated, or unfit for human food. Under the PPIA and the regulations that implement it, poultry products imported into the United States must be produced under standards for safety, wholesomeness, and labeling accuracy that are equivalent to those of the United States. Section 381.196 of Title 9 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) sets out the procedures by which foreign countries may become eligible to export poultry and poultry products to the United States.
Section 381.196(a) requires a foreign country's poultry inspection system to include standards equivalent to those of the United States and to provide legal authority for the inspection system and its implementing regulations that is equivalent to that of the United States. Specifically, a country's legal authority and regulations must impose requirements equivalent to those of the United States with respect to: (1) Ante-mortem and post-mortem inspection by, or under the direct supervision of, a veterinarian; (2) official controls by the national government over establishment construction, facilities, and equipment;
In addition to a foreign country's legal authority and regulations, the program itself must be equivalent to the United States. Specifically, the program organized and administered by the national government must impose requirements equivalent to those of the United States with respect to: (1) Organizational structure and staffing, so as to ensure uniform enforcement of the requisite laws and regulations in all certified establishments; (2) ultimate control and supervision by the national government over the official activities of employees or licensees; (3) qualified inspectors; (4) enforcement and certification authority; (5) administrative and technical support; (6) inspection, sanitation, quality, species verification, and residue standards; and (7) any other inspection requirements (9 CFR 381.196(a)(2)(i)).
The foreign country's inspection system must ensure that establishments preparing poultry or poultry products for export to the United States, and their products, comply with requirements equivalent to those of the PPIA and the regulations promulgated by FSIS under the authority of that statute. The foreign country certifies the appropriate establishments as having met the required standards and advises FSIS of those establishments that are certified or removed from certification. Before FSIS will grant approval to the country to export poultry or poultry products to the United States, FSIS must first determine that reliance can be placed on the certification of establishments by the foreign country.
As indicated above, a foreign country's inspection system must be evaluated by FSIS before eligibility to export poultry products to the United States can be granted. This evaluation consists of two processes: A document review and an on-site review. The document review is an evaluation of the laws, regulations, and other written materials used by the country to effect its inspection program. To help the country in organizing its material, FSIS provides the country with a series of questions asking for detailed information about the country's inspection practices and procedures in six areas or equivalence components: (1) Government Oversight, (2) Statutory Authority and Food Safety Regulations, (3) Sanitation, (4) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Systems, (5) Chemical Residue Testing Programs, and (6) Microbiological Testing Programs. FSIS evaluates the information submitted to verify that the critical points in the six equivalence components are addressed satisfactorily with respect to standards, activities, resources, and enforcement. If the document review is satisfactory, an on-site review is scheduled using a multi-disciplinary team to evaluate all aspects of the country's inspection program. This comprehensive process is described more fully on the FSIS Web site at
The PPIA and implementing regulations require that foreign countries be listed in the CFR as eligible to export poultry products to the United States. FSIS must engage in rulemaking to list a country as eligible. Countries found eligible to export poultry or poultry products to the United States are listed in the poultry inspection regulations at 9 CFR 381.196(b). Once listed, it is the responsibility of the eligible country to certify that establishments meet the requirements to export poultry or poultry products to the United States and to ensure that products from these establishments are safe, wholesome, and not misbranded. To verify that products imported into the United States are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled and packaged, FSIS re-inspects and randomly samples those products before they enter the United States commerce.
In 2003, the government of Honduras submitted an initial equivalence application and requested that FSIS conduct a review of Honduras' poultry slaughter inspection system to establish eligibility to export raw poultry products to the United States. FSIS conducted a document review of Honduras' poultry (slaughter) inspection system to determine whether that system was equivalent to that of the United States. Honduras only expressed interest in exporting raw poultry carcasses to the United States, and Honduras does not have a poultry processing establishment. Therefore, FSIS did not obtain documentation for an equivalence review of such a system. FSIS concluded on the basis of the review of Honduras' poultry slaughter system that Honduras' laws and regulations are equivalent to the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) and implementing regulations.
Accordingly, FSIS proceeded with an initial on-site audit of Honduras' poultry slaughter system in November 2005, to verify whether Honduras' National Plant and Animal Health Service (SENASA), which is Honduras' central competent authority for food inspection, effectively implemented a poultry inspection system equivalent to that of the United States. The audit resulted in the identification of systemic deficiencies within the following three equivalence components: Government Oversight, Sanitation, and HACCP. The audit found that SENASA did not have adequate government oversight and administrative controls over the inspection system. Also SENASA did not properly stage the necessary number of post-mortem inspectors at the evisceration line. In addition, the audit found during pre-operational sanitation verification inspection, SENASA did not implement procedures to ensure all shackles checked in a 15 foot section were not free of protein residue, fat particles from the previous day's production and dried paint droplets. Likewise, the audit found that SENASA failed to verify whether establishments met HACCP requirements within the system. SENASA took corrective actions to address all of the audit findings, either at the time of the finding, or after the distribution of the Final Audit Report on March 7, 2006. FSIS reviewed the proffered corrective actions and determined that they would be sufficient to prevent re-occurrence.
FSIS conducted a second on-site audit in June 2009, to verify whether all outstanding issues identified during the previous audit had been resolved. The 2009 audit verified that the implementation of Honduras' corrective actions to the previous audit findings were implemented as described and were working as intended.
However, the 2009 audit resulted in the identification of systemic deficiencies that had not been identified in the previous audit. The deficiencies related to the equivalence components of Sanitation, HACCP, and Microbiological Testing Programs. Specifically, the 2009 audit found that, with regard to Sanitation, SENASA did not implement procedures to verify
After the 2009 on-site audit, Honduras developed a comprehensive corrective action plan to address the findings identified during the 2009 on-site audit. Its corrective actions included implementing new regulations, procedures, measures, and verification activities to ensure uniformity in conducting official inspection activities. FSIS reviewed Honduras' corrective action plan and concluded that Honduras had satisfactorily addressed all audit findings.
FSIS conducted a third on-site audit in September, 2014, to verify that Honduras had satisfactorily addressed all the findings of the November 2005 and June 2009 audits, and had met the FSIS criteria for all six equivalence components. The evaluation of all documentation provided by Honduras since the 2009 audit (corrective actions taken in response to the 2009 audit findings, regulatory updates, new performance standards, new microbiological laboratory procedures/analyses) supported the decision to perform another audit. The auditor verified that all corrective actions to the 2009 audit findings were implemented as described, and working as intended. There were no new audit findings observed by the auditor during the 2014 on-site audit. The resolution of previous audit findings, and the absence of new audit findings supports the conclusion that the Honduran poultry regulatory system cumulatively achieves a level of protection equivalent to that provided by the United States' poultry inspection system.
In summary, FSIS has completed the document review, on-site audits, and verification of corrective actions as part of the equivalence process, and all outstanding issues have been resolved. FSIS has tentatively concluded that, as implemented, Honduras' poultry inspection system (slaughter) is equivalent to the United States' poultry inspection system. The full report on Honduras' poultry inspection system (slaughter) can be found on the FSIS Web site at
At this time, Honduras intends to certify only one establishment as eligible to export product to the U.S. The establishment intends to export raw poultry product. Should this proposed rule become final, the government of Honduras must certify to FSIS those establishments that wish to export poultry products to the United States and that operate in accordance with requirements equivalent to that of the United States (9 CFR 381.196(a)). FSIS will verify that the establishments certified by Honduras' government are meeting the United States requirements through verification audits of Honduras' poultry inspection system.
Although a foreign country may be listed in FSIS regulations as eligible to export poultry to the United States, the exporting country's products must also comply with all other applicable requirements of the United States. These requirements include restrictions under 9 CFR part 94 of the United States Department of Agriculture's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) regulations, which also regulate the exportation of poultry products from foreign countries to the United States. At this time, APHIS does not allow Honduras to export raw poultry to the US because Honduras is not recognized by APHIS as a region free of Newcastle disease (ND).
If this proposed rule is adopted and should APHIS allow Honduras to export raw poultry to the US in the future, all slaughtered poultry, or parts and products thereof, exported to the United States from Honduras will be subject to re-inspection at the U.S. ports of entry for, but not limited to, transportation damage, product and container defects, labeling, proper certification, general condition, and accurate count.
In addition, FSIS will conduct other types of re-inspection activities, such as taking product samples for laboratory analysis for the detection of drug and chemical residues, pathogens, species, and product composition. Products that pass re-inspection will be stamped with the official United States mark of inspection and allowed to enter United States commerce. If they do not meet United States requirements, they will be refused entry and within 45 days must be exported to the country of origin, destroyed, or converted to animal food (subject to approval of FDA), depending on the violation. The import re-inspection activities can be found on the FSIS Web site at
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This proposed rule has been designated a “non-significant” regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the proposed rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866.
If this proposed rule is finalized, establishments in Honduras will be eligible to export raw poultry to the United States. However, because of animal disease restrictions, APHIS regulations currently prohibit Honduras from immediately shipping raw poultry product to the U.S. Honduras' establishments are currently eligible to export raw and processed beef and veal, raw and processed lamb and mutton, raw and processed goat as well as processed pork. According to data from the government of Honduras, if this proposed rule is finalized, Honduras intends to certify one establishment as eligible to export raw poultry to the United States.
The U.S. poultry industry is one of the most competitive agricultural industries in the world. U.S. establishments slaughtered 17.9 million MT of young chickens in 2014.
The importation of poultry products from Honduras is expected to have a minimal impact on the United States poultry market. Should the proposed rule become final, FSIS estimates Honduras' exports would comprise 0.6 percent (10,211 MT from Honduras compared to a U.S. slaughter volume of 17.9 million MT in 2014) of the United States market annually the first three years. FSIS estimates Honduras' exports would continue to comprise 0.6 percent of the United States market the fourth year and increase 0.7 percent the fifth year. FSIS projects that Honduras would not alter the United States poultry supply and would not have an impact on domestic poultry prices. Therefore, FSIS projects that establishments in the U.S. would not see the negative effects that could come from a decrease in price as a result of increased competition.
Companies based in Honduras that export to the United States or U.S. companies that export products from Honduras to the U.S. would incur standard costs such as export fees and freight and insurance costs. However, those companies would be willing to bear these costs because of the expected benefits associated with selling their products to the U.S.
Should this proposed rule become final, we would see an increase in trade between Honduras and the United States. The volume of poultry exported from Honduras is likely to be small and is expected to have little to no effect on U.S. poultry supplies or prices. Therefore, consumers will not benefit from a decrease in price that would result from increased competition. However, Latin American preferences for dark meat compliment American preferences for white meat. Therefore, Honduras' establishments will benefit if they export surplus white meat to the United States. While the export of white meat from Honduras may be minimal compared to overall U.S. consumption, these exports may be significant enough in the long run to have an effect on domestic prices in Honduras.
In addition, the Dominican Republic-Central America-United States Free Trade Agreement (CAFTA-DR), implemented in 2006, sought to level the playing field and increase trade between the United States and the six CAFTA-DR trading partners, including Honduras.
The FSIS Administrator has made a preliminary determination that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities in the United States, as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
No new paperwork requirements are associated with this proposed rule. Foreign countries wanting to export poultry and poultry products to the United States are required to provide information to FSIS certifying that their inspection system provides standards equivalent to those of the United States, and that the legal authority for the system and their implementing regulations are equivalent to those of the United States. FSIS provided Honduras with questionnaires asking for detailed information about the country's inspection practices and procedures to assist that country in organizing its materials. This information collection was approved under OMB number 0583-0153. The proposed rule contains no other paperwork requirements.
FSIS and the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) are committed to achieving the purposes of the E-Government Act (44 U.S.C. 3601,
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.), should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Imported products.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, FSIS is proposing to amend 9 CFR part 381 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 138f, 450; 21 U.S.C. 451-470; 7 CFR 2.7, 2.18, 2.53.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM); reopening of comment period.
We are revising an earlier proposed airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 767-200, -300, and -400ER series airplanes. The NPRM proposed an inspection for plastic couplings, corrective actions if necessary, and installation of new spray shrouds. The NPRM was prompted by a report of the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display system malfunctioning during flight. This action revises the NPRM by adding, for certain airplanes, a general visual inspection of the spray shield and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this supplemental NPRM (SNPRM) to prevent an uncontrolled water leak from a defective potable water system coupling, which could cause the main equipment center (MEC) line replaceable units (LRUs) to become wet, resulting in an electrical short and potential loss of several functions essential for safe flight. Since these actions impose an additional burden over that proposed in the NPRM, we are reopening the comment period to allow the public the chance to comment on these proposed changes.
We must receive comments on this SNPRM by May 31, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Stanley Chen, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6585; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We issued an NPRM to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 767-200, -300, and -400ER series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Since we issued the NPRM, Boeing has issued Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015. Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015, adds, for certain airplanes, a general visual inspection of the spray shield to determine if it has two slits and is installed correctly, and related investigative and corrective actions if
We gave the public the opportunity to comment on the NPRM. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Aviation Partners Boeing (APB) stated that the installation of winglets per supplemental type certificate ST01920SE (
We agree with the commenter that STC ST01920SE (
Boeing requested that we revise the NPRM to refer to Boeing Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, and to note that no more work is necessary on any airplanes on which the actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, have been done (the NPRM referred to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, as the appropriate source of service information). Boeing also stated that the revision includes some minor changes in the Work Instructions and corrects some part numbers in the Material Information section. Boeing noted that the revised service information includes the statement “no more work is necessary on any airplane(s) changed in accordance with the original issue of the service bulletin.”
We agree to include the latest revision of the service information in this proposed AD. As stated previously, Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015, has been issued. This proposed AD would require that all actions be completed using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015. We have also added a new paragraph (k) to this proposed AD to give credit for actions done before a certain date using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767- 38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, and Boeing Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. We have redesignated subsequent paragraphs accordingly.
Boeing requested that we revise the “Inspection and Installation” paragraph (paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (in the NPRM)) to delete the following sentence:
Do all applicable corrective actions within the compliance time identified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD.”
We do not agree to revise this proposed AD to delete the sentence as requested because the sentence is necessary to indicate the compliance time for the corrective actions. We have made no changes to this proposed AD in this regard.
Boeing requested that we revise the Costs of Compliance section of the NPRM to account for the hours to perform the leak test on each airplane. Boeing explained that Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, contains estimates of 3 work-hours for the leak test. Boeing reasoned that the hours to perform the leak test following any coupling replacement were not included in the cost estimate.
We agree to revise the Costs of Compliance section of this SNPRM to add the costs to perform a leak test, for the reason indicated by Boeing. We have included this cost in the “Related investigative actions” row of the on-condition costs.
United Airlines (UA) requested that we revise the “Parts Installation Prohibition” paragraph (paragraph (i) of the proposed AD (in the NPRM)) to refer to part number (P/N) “CA620 series” or P/N “CA625 series,” instead of simply “P/N CA620” or “P/N CA625.” UA explained that calling out P/N CA620 or P/N CA625 comprises only a portion of the part number.
We agree to revise the “Parts Installation Prohibition” paragraph (paragraph (j) of this proposed AD, which was referred to as paragraph (i) of the proposed AD (in the NPRM)) to specify P/N “CA620 series” or P/N “CA625 series,” for the reason explained by UA. A complete part number is formatted to provide information;
UA explained that Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, refers to Subject 38-10-00, Potable Water System, of Chapter 38, Water/Waste, of the Boeing 767 AMM as an accepted procedure to do a potable water system leak test on any replaced coupling and repair any leak. UA stated that the leak test on “any replaced coupling” in the potable water supply lines is only a portion of the referenced procedure, yet Subject 38-10-00, Potable Water System, of Chapter 38, Water/Waste, of the Boeing 767 AMM encompasses the water system as a whole. Steps (a) through (c) of paragraph G.9 in AMM 38-10-10 apply to the fill, drain, and overflow port, whereas step (d) applies to the water lines that supply lavatory and galley water. UA interpreted this requirement as referencing the steps in the Subject 38-10-00, Potable Water System, of Chapter 38, Water/Waste, of the Boeing 767 AMM that apply to any replaced coupling for compliance purposes.
We agree to clarify. Only the steps in the AMM for a leak test that apply to any replaced coupling must be done for compliance purposes. We have made no changes to this proposed AD in this regard.
UA requested that we revise paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (in the NPRM) to add an alternative leak test, or protection of the electronics during the leak test. UA stated that Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013, specifies a
We disagree with the commenters request to add an alternative leak test, or to require protection of the electronics during the leak test. However, we agree that operators can take optional protective measures to cover or shield their equipment against water spray during the leak test. We have added note 1 to paragraph (g) of this proposed AD for clarification. We have determined that an alternative leak test is not necessary, and no requirement for electronics protection is needed. If present after the couplings have been swapped, the leak should be detected soon after the leak test is initiated, so the potential amount of water leaked would be minimal. If the sleeve was not properly installed, it should be obvious because the coupling could not be fully closed without the secondary retention strap secured. If damage to the O-ring occurred when the sleeve was installed, the leakage would be minimal. The electronics are contained inside panels and racks, and minimal water leakage should not be a problem. Only an undetected leak for extended duration, or major leaks spraying water all over, would be problematic since the racks/panels are not waterproof.
We are proposing this SNPRM because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs. Certain changes described above expand the scope of the NPRM. As a result, we have determined that it is necessary to reopen the comment period to provide additional opportunity for the public to comment on this SNPRM.
This SNPRM would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The phrase “related investigative actions” is used in this proposed AD. “Related investigative actions” are follow-on actions that (1) are related to the primary action, and (2) further investigate the nature of any condition found. Related investigative actions in an AD could include, for example, inspections.
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. “Corrective actions” are actions that correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015. The service information describes procedures for a general visual inspection for plastic potable water couplings and applicable related investigative and corrective actions; installation of new spray shrouds; and a general visual inspection of the spray shield to determine if it has two slits, and is installed correctly, and applicable related investigative and corrective actions. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 136 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 31, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 767-200, -300, and -400ER series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 38, Water/Waste.
This AD was prompted by a report of the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display system malfunctioning during flight. We are issuing this AD to prevent an uncontrolled water leak from a defective potable water system coupling, which could cause the main equipment center (MEC) line replaceable units (LRUs) to become wet, resulting in an electrical short and potential loss of several functions essential for safe flight.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For Groups 1 through 3, Configuration 1 airplanes; Groups 4 through 8 airplanes; Group 9, Configuration 1 airplanes; Group 10 airplanes; Group 11, Configuration 1 airplanes; and Groups 12 and 13 airplanes; as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015: At the applicable times identified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015, except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, do a general visual inspection for plastic potable water couplings, do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, and install new spray shrouds (including a new hose assembly, as applicable), in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions within the applicable compliance time identified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015, except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD.
Operators can take optional protective measures to cover or shield their equipment against water spray when performing the Potable Water System Leakage Test, as specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015.
For Groups 1 through 3, 9, and 11, Configuration 2 airplanes; as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015: Within 72 months after the effective date of this AD, do a general visual inspection of the spray shield to determine if it has two slits and is installed correctly, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight.
Where paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install any plastic potable water coupling having part number (P/N) CA620 series or P/N CA625 series on any airplane.
For Groups 4 through 8, 10, 12, and 13 airplanes, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 2, dated August 10, 2015: This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, dated November 12, 2013; or Boeing Service Bulletin 767-38A0073, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014; which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair,
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (l)(4)(i) and (l)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Stanley Chen, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6585; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of main landing gear (MLG) access doors detaching from the airplane as a result of excessive vibration and metal fatigue in the attach fittings. This proposed AD would require modification of the MLG access door by replacing seals in the MLG fairing and, for certain airplanes, adding an additional bolt. We are proposing this AD to prevent a fracture in the MLG access door associated with excessive vibration and metal fatigue in the attach fittings. This condition could lead to MLG access door detachment and consequent impact of flight controls, resulting in reduced control of an airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 31, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact EADS-CASA, Military Transport Aircraft Division (MTAD), Integrated Customer Services (ICS), Technical Services, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone +34 91 585 55 84; fax +34 91 585 55 05; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Shahram Daneshmandi, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1112; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued Airworthiness Directive 2015-0225, dated November 18, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness
Occurrences of Main Landing Gear (MLG) Access Door detachment were reported. Subsequent investigation determined that the detachments of the MLG Door occurred during maneuvers performed at high speed and with high sideslip angle on airplanes not modified in accordance with the instructions EADS-CASA [European Aeronautic Defence and Space Company-Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A]. Service Bulletins (SBs) SB-235-52-0061 and SB-235-52-0068. Based on the investigation results, it was determined that the fracture mechanism was associated with excessive deformation that could produce scooping in the forward edge combined with an excessive vibration of the MLG Access Door.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to MLG Access Door detachment and consequent impact of flight controls, resulting in reduced control of an airplane and possible injury of persons on the ground.
To address this potential unsafe condition, EADS-CASA issued SB-235-52-0061 and SB-235-52-0068 to provide modification instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires modification of MLG Access Doors and prohibits installation of a MLG Access Door sealing part number (P/N) CAN36032R. This AD also prohibits installation of not modified MLG Access Doors.
Required actions include modification of the MLG access door by replacing seals in the MLG fairing and, for certain airplanes, adding an additional bolt. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
EADS CASA has issued the following service information:
• EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-52-0061, Revision 1, dated October 24, 2014. The service information describes procedures for modifying the MLG access door by installing an additional bolt.
• EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-52-0068, Revision 2, dated January 9, 2015. The service information describes procedures for modifying the MLG access door by installing an improved fairing seal.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 30 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take up to 60 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost up to $12,684 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $533,520, or up to $17,784 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 31, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (formerly known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Model CN-235, CN 235-200, and CN 235-300 airplanes, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by reports of main landing gear (MLG) access doors detaching from the airplane as a result of excessive vibration and metal fatigue in the attach fittings. This condition could lead to MLG access door detachment and consequent impact of flight controls, resulting in reduced control of an airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) For all airplanes: Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, modify each MLG access door by installing an improved fairing seal, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-52-0068, Revision 2, dated January 9, 2015.
(2) For all Model CN-235-200 airplanes: Concurrently with the action required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, modify each affected MLG access door by installing an additional bolt, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-52-0061, Revision 1, dated October 24, 2014.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD, using EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-52-0068, Revision 1, dated October 24, 2014; or SB-235-52-0068, dated July 15, 2002; which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g)(2) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-52-0061, dated October 31, 1996, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) For airplanes modified as specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable, before the effective date of this AD: As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install a seal having part number CAN36032R on any MLG access door.
(2) For airplanes not modified as specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable, before the effective date of this AD: After accomplishing the actions required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable, no person may install a seal having part number CAN36032R on any MLG access door.
(3) As of the effective date of this AD, installation of a MLG access door on an airplane is allowed, provided the MLG access door is modified as required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2015-0225, dated November 18, 2015, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact EADS-CASA, Military Transport Aircraft Division (MTAD), Integrated Customer Services (ICS), Technical Services, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone +34 91 585 55 84; fax +34 91 585 55 05; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain International Aero Engines AG (IAE) V2500-A1 turbofan engines. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of an uncontainment caused by a high-pressure turbine (HPT) seal release. This proposed AD would require removing from service the HPT No. 4 bearing front seal seat, part numbers (P/Ns) 2A0066, 2A1998, and 2A3432, and the HPT No. 4 bearing rear seal seat, P/Ns 2A0067, 2A1999, and 2A3433, and replacement with parts eligible for installation. This proposed AD would also require inspecting the HPT rotor and stator assembly, and, if necessary, their replacement with parts that are eligible for installation. We are proposing this AD to prevent failure of the HPT stage 2 seals, uncontained HPT seal release, damage to the engine, and damage to the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by June 13, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact International Aero Engines AG, 400 Main Street, East Hartford, CT 06118; phone: 800-565-0140; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Brian Kierstead, Aerospace Engineer,
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We received a report of an uncontained part release which breached an HPT case. This event resulted in an engine fire and exhaust gas temperature over-limit readings. Subsequent investigation has shown that the preliminary cause was blockage at the No. 4 bearing seal seat anti-weep grooves. Blockage of these grooves could allow oil to escape the No. 4 compartment and migrate to the HPT. Oil migration to the HPT could result in oil ignition and could eventually result in a stage 2 air-seal fracture. This condition, if not corrected, could result in failure of the HPT stage 2 seals, uncontained HPT seal release, damage to the engine, and damage to the airplane.
We reviewed IAE Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) V2500-ENG-72-0670, dated March 14, 2016. The NMSB identifies affected engines and provides guidance for replacing the No. 4 bearing front and rear seal seats and for inspecting the HPT rotor and stator assembly. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require removing from service the HPT No. 4 bearing front seal seat, P/Ns 2A0066, 2A1998, and 2A3432, and the HPT No. 4 bearing rear seal seat, P/Ns 2A0067, 2A1999, and 2A3433, and replacement with parts eligible for installation. This proposed AD would also require inspecting the HPT rotor and stator assembly, and, if necessary, their replacement with parts that are eligible for installation.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 0 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate that it would take about 10 hours to perform the seal seat replacement. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. We also estimate the cost of No. 4 bearing front and rear seal seats to be $13,562. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $0.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by June 13, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to International Aero Engines AG (IAE) V2500-A1 turbofan engines with serial numbers listed in Effectivity Data of IAE Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) V2500-ENG-72-0670, dated March 14, 2016.
This AD was prompted by a report of an uncontainment caused by a high-pressure turbine (HPT) seal release. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the HPT stage 2 seals, uncontained HPT seal release, damage to the engine, and damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Prior to accumulating 500 cycles in service after the effective date of this AD,
(i) Remove from service No. 4 bearing front seal seat part numbers (P/Ns) 2A0066, 2A1998, 2A3432; and No. 4 bearing rear seal seat, P/Ns 2A0067, 2A1999, 2A3433, and replace with parts eligible for installation.
(ii) Inspect the HPT rotor and stator assembly. Use the Accomplishment Instruction, Part C, Section 1.B of IAE NMSB V2500-ENG-72-0670, dated March 14, 2016 to perform the inspection.
(2) For any parts that fail the inspection required by paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this AD, before further flight, remove and replace with parts eligible for installation.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Brian Kierstead, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7772; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) IAE NMSB V2500-ENG-72-0670, dated March 14, 2016, can be obtained from IAE, using the contact information in paragraph (g)(3) of this proposed AD.
(3) For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact International Aero Engines AG, 400 Main Street, East Hartford, CT 06118; phone: 800-565-0140; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by investigation results that determined that a certain thickness of the fuel tank panels is insufficient to meet the certification requirements. This proposed AD would require inspecting the thickness of the fuel tank panels, and repair if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct improper thickness of the fuel tank panels. Improper thickness increases the risk of damaging and puncturing a fuel tank wall panel as a result of a high energy lightning strike, which could lead to loss of electrical power and/or other essential functions, possibly resulting in reduced control of the airplane or ignition of a fuel tank.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 31, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0216, dated October 28, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. The MCAI states:
Several rear fuselage tanks of the Falcon 7X were assembled on the production line with a lateral panel, which had been excessively chemically-milled in some areas. Investigation results determined that the remaining thickness is insufficient to meet the certification requirements. Dassault Aviation identified the individual aeroplanes that are potentially affected by this production deficiency. Due to this reduced thickness, the risk of damaging and puncturing a fuel tank wall panel as a result of a high energy lightning strike is increased.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to loss of electrical power and/or other essential functions, possibly resulting in reduced control of the aeroplane or ignition of a fuel tank.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Dassault Aviation published Service Bulletin (SB) 7X-245 to provide inspection and repair instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time inspection of
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Dassault Aviation has issued Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015. The service information describes procedures for measuring fuel tank panel thickness, and repair if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 6 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it would take about 8 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $0 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $4,080, or $680 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 20 work-hours and require parts costing $2,244, for a cost of $3,944 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by May 31, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers (S/Ns) 17 through 21 inclusive, S/Ns 86 through 90 inclusive, S/Ns 115 through 119 inclusive, S/Ns 129 through 138 inclusive, and S/N 155.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by investigation results that determined that a certain thickness of the fuel tank panels is insufficient to meet the certification requirements. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct improper thickness of the fuel tank panels. Improper thickness increases the risk of damaging and puncturing a fuel tank wall panel as a result of a high energy lightning strike, which could lead to loss of electrical power and/or other essential functions, possibly resulting in reduced control of the airplane or ignition of a fuel tank.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 99 months or 4,100 flight cycles, whichever occurs first since the date of first delivery of the airplane, inspect for improper thickness of the fuel tank panels, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015. If improper thickness is found during this inspection, before further flight, repair the fuel tank panels, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0216, dated October 28, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D and E airspace at Sioux Gateway/Col. Bud Day Field, Sioux City, IA, due to the decommissioning of the Gateway non-directional radio beacon (NDB) and cancellation of the NDB approaches at the airport. The Class E airspace area designated as an extension would be removed as it is no longer needed. Advances in Global Positioning System (GPS) capabilities have made this action necessary for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the airport. This action also would update the geographic coordinates for Martin Field, NE, to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2016.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-7487; Airspace Docket No. 15-ACE-7, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and E airspace at Sioux Gateway/Col. Bud Day Field, Sioux City, IA.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-7487/Airspace Docket No. 15-ACE-7.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document would amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class E surface area airspace and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Sioux Gateway/Col. Bud Day Field, Sioux City, IA. The Class E airspace area designated as an extension also would be removed as the extension is no longer needed. Decommissioning of the Gateway NDB and cancellation of the NDB approaches due to advances in GPS capabilities have made airspace reconfiguration is necessary at this airport. The geographic coordinates noted in Class D and E surface area airspace for South Sioux City, Martin Field, NE, also would be adjusted.
Class D and E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000, 6002, 6004 and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,600 feet MSL within a 4.3-mile radius of Sioux Gateway/Col. Bud Day Field, excluding that airspace within a 1-mile radius of South Sioux City, Martin Field. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
Within a 4.3-mile radius of Sioux Gateway/Col. Bud Day Field, excluding that airspace within a 1-mile radius of the South Sioux City, Martin Field. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.8-mile radius of Sioux Gateway Airport/Col. Bud Day Field, and within 3.9 miles each side of the 319 ° radial of the Sioux City VORTAC extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 14.4 miles northwest of the VORTAC, and within 4 miles each side of the 001 ° bearing from Sioux Gateway Airport/Col. Bud Day Field extending from the 6.8-mile radius of the airport to 12 miles northwest of the airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at De Quincy Industrial Airpark, De Quincy, LA; Minden-Webster Airport, Minden, LA; and Slidell, Airport, Slidell, LA. Decommissioning of non-directional radio beacon (NDB), cancellation of NDB approaches, and implementation of area navigation (RNAV) procedures have made this action necessary for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the above airports. This action also proposes to remove Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Homer Municipal Airport, Homer, LA, as controlled airspace is no longer needed. Additionally, the geographic coordinates at De Quincy Industrial Airpark, Minden-Webster Airport, and Slidell Airport would be adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2016.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-4429; Airspace Docket No. 16-ASW-8, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class E airspace at De Quincy Industrial Airpark, De Quincy, LA; Homer Municipal Airport, Homer, LA; Minden-Webster Airport, Minden, LA; and Slidell, Airport, Slidell, LA.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-4429/Airspace Docket No. 16-ASW-8.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document would amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.5-mile radius of De Quincy Industrial Airpark, De Quincy, LA; within a 6.5-mile radius of Minden-Webster Airport, Minden, LA; and within a 6.5-mile radius of
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.5-mile radius of De Quincy Industrial Airpark.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Minden-Webster Airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Slidell Airport, and within 4.0 miles each side of the 360° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.5-mile radius to 9.2 miles north of the airport, and within 4.0 miles each side of the 180° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.5-mile radius to 9.0 miles south of the airport.
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The United States Consumer Product Safety Commission (“Commission,” “CPSC,” or “we”) is issuing this notice of proposed rulemaking (“NPR”) to update the Commission's Rules of Practice for Adjudicative Proceedings, (“Rules of Practice” or “Rules”). We are proposing to modernize the Rules of Practice to reflect changes in civil and administrative litigation since adoption of the Rules in 1980. Specifically, we propose changes to the Rules pertaining to discovery, electronic filing, the use of electronically stored information (“ESI”), and updates to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (“Federal Rules”), upon which our Rules are based. We also propose to update requirements for pleadings, motions, and motions for summary decisions, clarifications on the computation of time, and clarification on when amendments or supplemental pleadings require Commission approval. Additionally, we propose allowing a Presiding Officer to exercise discretion to avoid unnecessary delay or wasteful discovery and to consolidate cases in their entirety, or partially, for any purpose that serves the ends of justice. We also propose to set deadlines for the issuance of an Initial or Recommended Decision. Finally, we propose to remove outdated references to the Equal Access to Justice Act. We believe the proposed Rules will increase the efficiency of discovery, minimize the potential for delay in adjudicative proceedings, and ensure that, to the extent possible, Commission adjudicative proceedings address and resolve crucial issues of consumer product safety in a fair and impartial manner. This NPR seeks comments on the proposed changes to the Rules.
Submit comments by June 13, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC 2016-0006, electronically or in writing, by any of the following methods:
Mary B. Murphy, Assistant General Counsel, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 E. West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814-4408; email:
The Commission is proposing to amend the agency's Rules of Practice for Adjudicative Proceedings. 16 CFR part 1025. The proposed rule reflects changes in civil and administrative litigation since adoption of the Rules in 1980.
The Consumer Product Safety Act (15 U.S.C. 2064(c), (d), (f); 2076(b)) (“CPSA”), the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (
Under the Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”) (5 U.S.C. 500
The Rules of Practice were first proposed by the Commission in 1974, for use on an interim basis. (39 FR 26848, July 23, 1974). In 1977, the Commission revised the Rules of Practice, publishing them for use on an interim basis and for public comment. (42 FR 31431 (interim rules); 42 FR 36818 (issuing correction). In 1980, after considering public comments and the Commission's experiences with the existing interim rules, the Commission adopted the Rules of Practice. (45 FR 29215, May 1, 1980). The Commission last amended the Rules of Practice in 1982 to make them applicable to hearings required by section 15 of the FHSA (47 FR 46845, Oct. 21, 1982).
On May 12, 2015, the Commission voted to direct staff to present for Commission consideration a revision of the Rules of Practice, with the goal of streamlining future adjudications and aligning the Rules of Practice with the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
Since the 1980s, when the Commission last amended the Rules of Practice, the Commission's model, the Federal Rules, have been substantially revised. Among other things, these changes altered the pretrial process, providing new discovery standards intended to increase the speed and efficiency of litigation.
Prominent among these changes were detailed rules requiring parties to cooperate in pre-discovery and pre-trial planning. For example, the Federal Rules now require an affirmative pre-discovery disclosure by each party of information, documents, ESI, and other evidence that the party may use to support its claims or defenses. The Federal Rules also require participation by parties in pre-discovery and pretrial conferences, with the aim of focusing the issues to be adjudicated. Along with these changes have come new limits on formal discovery tools, including interrogatories, document requests, and depositions. In addition to proposing that our Rules of Practice follow the scope of discovery stated in Rule 26 of the Federal Rules, we are proposing to follow, with certain changes, the Federal Rules' procedures on mandatory disclosures of information and the Federal Rules' limits on formal discovery tools, by adhering to the Federal Rules on interrogatories, requests for documents and things, depositions, and requests for admission. We believe that changing our Rules of Practice to require affirmative pre-discovery disclosure, mandate participation in pre-discovery and prehearing conferences, and impose limits on wasteful discovery practices will streamline the adjudicative process, and thereby, advance our goal of establishing expeditious and fair proceedings.
Recent changes in the Federal Rules have also placed substantial focus on the discretionary powers of Presiding Officers. Under these rules, the judge or magistrate may limit or expand discovery, and on motion, or on his or her own initiative, may tailor the pace of the adjudication and the scope and length of discovery based on the issues in each case. We are proposing to follow, with appropriate changes, the Federal Rules' emphasis on empowering the Presiding Officer to use his or her discretion to control the pace and
The Federal Rules provide substantial guidance on the discoverability and use of ESI because, increasingly, information is stored in digital form. Our proposed Rules of Practice would largely follow the Federal Rules' guidance on the discoverability of electronic evidence.
In addition to aligning our Rules of Practice with the Federal Rules, the changes we propose would increase the efficiency and decrease the burden of preparing for and litigating administrative hearings. For example, we propose to update our Rules of Practice on consolidating cases to allow the Presiding Officer to consolidate cases, fully or partially, for discovery and/or for hearing, on a party's motion, or at the Presiding Officer's discretion.
Additional proposed changes would adapt the Rules of Practice to the general needs of administrative litigation, based on the experiences of Commission staff in adjudicative proceedings. In each case, we propose to emphasize the discretion of the Presiding Officer to facilitate quick, fair, and efficient discovery and trial of adjudicative matters. Although we would vest significant discretion in the Presiding Officer, we would, nevertheless, seek to impose timelines on the adjudicative proceeding and deadlines on the Presiding Officer, requiring initial decisions to be made within set time frames.
Another important reason for updating our Rules of Practice is to clarify the process for amending complaints authorized by the Commission. We propose to update our Rules of Practice to provide clearer guidance on when amendments require Commission consideration.
We also propose to revise our Rules of Practice to permit electronic filing and service of pleadings and documents and to discourage filing of paper documents. Likewise, we propose to revise the existing requirement that the Commission's Secretariat maintain an official paper file, a practice that is cumbersome and fails to reflect significant technological advancements. We also propose to revise our Rules of Practice regarding service of process to accommodate electronic service of most documents and pleadings and to recognize the use of common carriers in the delivery of paper documents. Likewise, we propose to clarify our Rules of Practice regarding motions for summary decisions, amending that section to follow more closely the Federal Rules.
The proposal would revise § 1025.1, Scope of rules, to clarify that, in addition to adjudicative proceedings related to the CPSA, the FHSA, and the FFA, the Commission also is empowered to conduct adjudications under the PPPA and the VGBA. Specifically, our proposed revision would clarify that the Commission may conduct adjudicative proceedings under Section 4(c) of the PPPA and Section 1404 of the VGBA. We propose to add appropriate references to these statutes and make additional minor changes for clarity in our Rules of Practice.
In addition, the proposal would revise § 1025.1 to remove the existing statement that the Rules of Practice govern adjudicative proceedings for the assessment of civil penalties under section 20(a) of the CPSA. Pursuant to a statutory change, such actions are now litigated in U.S. District Court, rather than before the Commission. Therefore, the current language in our Rules of Practice is unnecessary and inaccurate, as is a statement on the limited scope of discovery in civil penalty cases, which we also propose to remove.
We also propose new language in § 1025.1 to establish the Commission's health and safety mission as a critical concern the Presiding Officer must take into account when establishing deadlines and managing cases. When a matter fails to proceed in a timely manner, it not only results in increased costs and uncertainty for the parties and participants, it can also undermine the agency's statutory obligation to protect the public against unreasonable risks of injury and death associated with consumer products. The Commission expects that the Presiding Officer shall, whenever possible, and in in the interest of protecting public health and safety, expedite proceedings by setting shorter time limitations than the maximum limits imposed by the rules, with the goal of issuing an Initial Decision within 1 year from the date of the complaint.
As part of our goal of aligning the Rules of Practice with the updated Federal Rules, we also propose to add a statement to § 1025.1, indicating that, except where stated otherwise, parties shall follow the Federal Rules on certain discovery matters. We believe that following the Federal Rules on discovery matters would streamline the discovery process, and thereby introduce increased efficiencies to advance our goal of avoiding unnecessary delay. Through this change, we would redefine the scope of discovery to encompass Rule 26 of the Federal Rules, and would follow generally, with some stated exceptions discussed below, the Federal Rules' procedures on pretrial discovery, including interrogatories (Fed. R. Civ. P. 33); production of documents, electronically stored information, and tangible things (Fed. R. Civ. P. 34); requests for admission (Fed. R. Civ. P. 36); and depositions (Fed. R. Civ. P. 30-32). We would not follow the Federal Rules on subpoenas, which by statute, requires Commission approval. We also propose additional minor and non-substantive changes to the Rules of Practice for clarity.
One of our goals in revising our Rules of Practice is to update the Rules of Practice to reflect current litigation practices and advances in technology. To recognize that ESI,
We also propose several additional non-substantive changes, including a new § 1025.3(f) that would reference our rule on
Section 1025.11 sets out requirements for the filing of a complaint in an adjudicative proceeding. In § 1025.11(a), we propose revisions to reflect organizational changes within the Commission since adoption of the current Rules of Practice. Complaint Counsel would be authorized to sign a complaint following Commission approval, rather than the Assistant Executive Director for Compliance and Enforcement, as the current rule requires.
Currently, § 1025.11(b)(3) requires that a complaint contain “[a] list and summary of documentary evidence supporting the charges.” We propose eliminating this requirement given the mandatory disclosures of evidence set forth in Federal Rule 26(a)(1)(A), which we propose following as part of § 1025.31,
We propose adding a new § 1025.11(d) to clarify that a Commission action to obtain a preliminary injunction from a federal district court pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 2064(g) shall not serve as the basis to stay proceedings under these rules. In light of the extensive time frame for resolving matters in adjudicative proceedings, it is the Commission's strong expectation that if the respondent fails to agree to stop sale and distribution of a product which the Commission has reason to believe presents a substantial product hazard, Commission staff will, within a reasonable amount of time following the commencement of proceedings under this part 1025, apply to a district court of the United States for the issuance of a preliminary injunction (pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 2064(g)) to restrain the distribution in commerce of such product pending the completion the adjudicative proceedings. For this reason, and in furtherance of its mission to protect public health and safety, the Commission strongly urges the Presiding Officer to, whenever practicable, shorten the time limitations imposed by these rules and endeavor to issue an Initial Decision as soon as possible.
We also propose several additional minor and non-substantive changes in grammar throughout this paragraph.
Section 1025.13, titled,
The Commission proposes to amend § 1025.13 to require that the Presiding Officer refer to the Commission any amendment that would (1) have the effect of adding to or removing from the litigation any party or count, (2) fall outside the scope of an authorized complaint, or (3) broaden staff's authority under a complaint.
As an initial matter, we are proposing to revise the title of this section to
To emphasize our preference for electronic filing, we propose to omit existing language stating that documents “may be filed in person or by mail.” We also propose changes, consistent with our proposal on electronic filing, establishing the filing date for documents. Electronically filed documents would be deemed filed on the date of the electronic filing; however, recognizing the broad discretion afforded the Presiding Officer, we propose adding language stating that the Presiding Officer may allow alternative methods of filing, by order, and that such order shall state the applicable date on which such pleadings or documents are deemed filed.
New language in proposed § 1025.14(c) would also eliminate our current requirement that three copies of pleadings be filed, a superfluous requirement in an era where digital copies are created easily. Under our proposed change, a single electronic copy must be filed with the Secretariat and the Presiding Officer; however, we propose to add language that acknowledges that the Presiding Officer may order paper filings.
In § 1025.14(d), we would require that the original of each document that is filed electronically be signed electronically.
Section 1025.14(e) currently anticipates filing of paper documents, and sets standards for such filings. We propose to amend this paragraph to establish requirements that address the electronic filing of pleadings and documents. In § 1025.14(e)(1), we would require an electronic address in addition to a mailing address. Section 1025.14(e)(2) would require filing electronic text documents in a format that uses 12-point font with double spacing and prints on standard letter-sized paper with 1-inch margins. This paragraph also would include the requirement that electronic documents and files that cannot be readily printed, such as large spreadsheets, videos, or photographs, be identified by technical format and also include information on the program or protocol required to review the information. The font, spacing and margin requirements are consistent with Rule 32 of the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and Rule 102(a)(b) of the U.S. District Court for the District of Maryland.
We also propose to update § 1025.14(e)(3), which currently states:
In § 1025.15(a) we would make several non-substantive changes, including a clarification of the title to make clear that the computation of time refers to days. We also would make clear that “day” means calendar day. We further propose to clarify the existing language to state that the day on which the event triggering the period shall not be included in the calculation of time, but each calendar day thereafter shall; and that if the last day of the time period falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the time period shall be tolled until the next day that is not a weekend or a legal holiday. We also propose to update this section to delete references to specified legal holidays in the existing rule and refer instead to the legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103. This revision would include Martin Luther King, Jr.'s birthday as a holiday and would allow the Rules of Practice to reflect any changes to the list of legal public holidays made in the future.
We further propose to amend § 1025.15(b) to state that whenever a party is required or permitted to do an act within a prescribed period after service of a document and the Presiding Officer permits service by mail, three (3) days shall be added to the prescribed period. This amendment recognizes that while electronic service is preferred, service by mail may be allowed by order of the Presiding Officer; if such service is made by mail, three additional days would be added to the date by which the recipient must perform a subsequent action.
In § 1025.15(c) regarding the extension of time limits, we propose to add language clarifying that initial decisions are decisions issued under § 1025.51 of the Rules of Practice.
We also propose to add a new paragraph (d), which would be titled
We propose several changes to § 1025.16, titled,
We also propose in § 1025.16(b)(3) to add “a limited liability company” to the list of corporate entities that may be served, and would add “entity” in the title of the paragraph, for clarity. We propose this change to capture the types of legal entities that exist and may be the subject of an administrative complaint. Finally, we propose to add language in new § 1025.16(b)(4) that, recognizing the preference for electronic service of documents, clarifies the circumstances in which delivery of a document to an address is appropriate.
In § 1025.16(c), we would establish electronic service as the primary mode of service for other documents, unless otherwise ordered by the Presiding Officer or agreed to by the parties. Proposed changes to § 1025.16(e), which provides a form for certificates of service, and § 1025.16(f), which sets the date of service of documents, would provide for electronic filing. Consistent with the establishment of electronic filing, we propose to delete reference in § 1025.16(e) to “the original of every document,” and instead, require that “every document” be accompanied by a certificate of service.
We are proposing to revise § 1025.17(a), (b), and (c) to identify accurately the Secretariat of the Commission. We also propose to correct a typographical error in § 1025.17(c)(5). We do not intend these changes to be substantive.
We are proposing to revise § 1025.18(a)(1) for clarity. The general word “class” would be replaced with the more specific phrase “class of respondents.”
We propose to revise the title of § 1025.19, currently
We propose to add a new § 1025.19(b), including insertion of a title, for clarity.
We propose changes to § 1025.21,
Under proposed § 1025.21(a), the parties would be required to conduct a preliminary meeting no later than 5 days after the answer is due by the last answering party. At the preliminary meeting, the parties would be directed to discuss the nature and basis of their claims and defenses and the possibilities for settlement or resolution of the case. The proposed change also would require parties to attempt to agree on a proposed discovery plan with a schedule for depositions of fact witnesses, the production of documents and ESI, and the timing of expert discovery. In addition, the proposed revision would require the parties to seek agreement on the scope of electronic discovery, including specified time periods for which electronic information is sought, and agree on the format in which electronic discovery would be produced. The parties also would be required to develop a preliminary time estimate for the evidentiary hearing and to attempt to reach agreement on any other matters to be determined at the prehearing conference. We believe these changes would help expedite the process by setting an earlier deadline for a meeting of the parties and by having the parties resolve issues through mutual agreement.
Under proposed § 1025.21(b), which would be titled,
In § 1025.21 we also propose to re-designate existing paragraph (b),
Under proposed § 1025.21(d), the Presiding Officer would be required to enter an order setting forth the results of the initial prehearing conference, establishing a timeline for discovery, motions, and any other appropriate matters. We make this proposal to address the inadequacy of the current requirement that the Presiding Officer issue a prehearing order only after the conclusion of the final prehearing conference, a point late in the process that does not provide sufficient time for potential resolution of issues. We believe that the parties and the Presiding Officer would benefit from establishing a schedule earlier in the proceedings, and we also trust that such a schedule would clarify issues and expedite the proceedings. In addition, in § 1025.21 we propose to re-designate existing paragraph (d),
Under proposed § 1025.21(f), we would require a final prehearing conference as close to the evidentiary hearing as practicable. Under the current rules, it is not clear that such a conference should occur; our proposed change would make clear that such a conference would be mandatory. We believe that such a conference would benefit the parties and the Presiding Officer by focusing the issues before the hearing and resolving final evidentiary matters.
We are proposing to revise this section to require the filing of prehearing briefs, which, under the current Rules, are discretionary. We believe that prehearing briefs should be mandatory because information contained in these briefs would set the necessary framework for the proceeding, clarifying the facts to be proven, the order of proof, and the issues to be decided.
We propose to change this section to clarify rules governing the filing of motions. Under the current rule, all motions, except for disqualification motions, must be addressed to the Presiding Officer. Our proposed revision to § 1025.23(a) would add subpoena applications to the list of motions that would not be addressed to the Presiding Officer. We propose this change because subpoena applications follow distinct procedures set forth in § 1025.38(c), discussed below. In § 1025.23(b), we propose a minor, non-substantive clarification, changing “Secretary” to “Secretariat.” Proposed changes in § 1025.23(c) would include a revision of the title to
Section 1025.24 currently lists four exceptions to the general rule against interlocutory appeals. Proposed § 1025.24 would add a fifth exception, permitting interlocutory appeal where the Presiding Officer grants or denies a motion to amend a complaint under § 1025.13. The proposed revisions to § 1025.13 are intended to reiterate that only the Commission is empowered to issue administrative complaints and that any amendments cannot have that effect without Commission approval. This revision to § 1025.13 is intended to ensure that, if a party believes the Presiding Officer has improperly ruled on such an amendment without Commission approval, that party will have the opportunity to appeal that ruling immediately, without being
We propose to revise § 1025.24(b)(1)(ii) to clarify that nature of the proceeding from which an interlocutory appeal may be filed. We propose to revise § 1025.24(b)(2) to state that the Commission may decide a petition for an interlocutory appeal based on the existing record, or the Commission may request additional briefing and oral presentation. As written, the rule currently imposes an obligation on the Commission to decide the petition or request further briefing. Our proposed change makes clear that such a binary decision is not required and that the Commission has the option of deciding the petition based on the record, or the Commission may request further briefing or oral presentation.
We are proposing changes to § 1025.25(a) to align our rule more closely with Rule 56 of the Federal Rules. Under our current Rules of Practice, the movant does not have to file a statement of material facts not in dispute, nor does the respondent have to file a statement of material facts that respondent contends are in dispute. The proposed change would require that motions and oppositions to motions be accompanied by separate statements of material facts about which the movant asserts there is no dispute and about which the opposing party contends there is a genuine dispute. We believe this change will enhance efficiency because filing statements of material fact would help pinpoint the primary issues in dispute. We also propose to revise § 1025.25(a) to conform to changes we propose to § 1025.21, discussed above, to state that a summary decision motion be filed in accordance with any prehearing order issued by the Presiding Officer. The time for filing the motion would also be defined, providing that such motions to be filed up to thirty (30) days following the close of discovery. We are proposing this change because we believe this time period would afford the Presiding Officer sufficient time to carefully consider such motions, and would encourage resolution of part or all the matter well in advance of the scheduled hearing date.
We also propose to revise § 1025.25(b) to require that a response to a summary decision motion be accompanied by a statement of material facts that the opposing party contends are in dispute, a change that will enhance focus on the main issues in dispute. We also propose to modify § 1025.25(c) to add specific items in the record that should be considered by the Presiding Officer in resolving the motion, a change that mirrors Rule 56 of the Federal Rules.
We are proposing to revise § 1025.26(b) to clarify that motions that request that the Presiding Officer transmit a proposed consent agreement to the Commission must be filed
In § 1025.26(c)(1) through (4), we propose a number of non-substantive editorial changes. In § 1025.26(c)(5), we propose to add language that an offer of settlement should also include a list of “acts or practices that the respondent shall affirmatively undertake.” This addition acknowledges the authority of the Commission, after an opportunity for hearing, to order a firm to undertake certain actions pursuant to section 15(d) of the CPSA.
Under current § 1025.26(d), the Presiding Officer may transmit to the Commission offers of settlement that meet the requirements of form and content set forth in § 1025.26(c). We propose to revise this paragraph to require the Presiding Officer to transmit all non-frivolous, non-duplicative settlement offers to the Commission, removing the discretion provided to the Presiding Officer in the current rule. We propose this change because we believe the Commission should review all non-frivolous, non-duplicative settlements with the goal of advancing resolution of a matter, if possible. In addition, we propose that, to be transmitted, such an offer must comply with the requirements of § 1025.26(b), as well as § 1025.26(c).
We also are proposing non-substantive changes in § 1025.26(e) and (g).
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.31(a) to require parties to conduct discovery in accordance with Rule 26 of the Federal Rules, with several exceptions, discussed below. Rule 26 imposes a number of requirements, such as requiring initial disclosures, prehearing conferences, scope of discovery, and limitations on the timing, frequency and extent of discovery. Rule 26 also sets forth provisions governing discovery of material prepared in anticipation of trial, expert discovery, and requests for protective orders. Under the current rule, methods, sequence and scope of discovery are addressed in a general fashion. We believe that adopting the detailed procedures set forth in Rule 26 will achieve earlier and more meaningful coordination between the parties and will advance the efficient progress of an adjudicative proceeding.
Although we intend largely to follow Rule 26, we propose to depart from Rule 26 procedures in a number of ways. Specifically, regarding the time periods for discovery, we will not follow Rule 26 guidance and will instead allow schedules to be set at the discretion of the Presiding Officer, unless a specific time frame is set forth in our rules. We expect the Presiding Officer to set appropriate timelines as the facts may dictate or the comparative complexity of a matter requires. We also expect that, whenever possible, the Presiding Officer will shorten schedules, particularly where expedited hearings would serve the public interest, or where issues do not require expert discovery or lengthy evidentiary hearings.
In addition, in proposed § 1025.31(a), we would require that initial disclosure of information be produced no later than 5 days after the preliminary meeting of the parties. This proposed rule shortens the 14-day time frame for such disclosures that is afforded under the Federal Rule, a step that furthers coordination among the parties and encourages expeditious resolution of issues. We also propose that our proceedings not adhere to Rule 26 requirements that experts must produce a written report (Rule 26(a)(2)(B)) because such reports may not be practicable in adjudicative matters that proceed on an expedited schedule. We also adopt the provisions governing protective orders in Rule 26(c), but we have modified the Rule to recognize that in adjudicative proceedings under part 1025, such motions shall be made to
Additionally, we propose changes in newly designated § 1025.31(b),
We propose to revise this section to follow Rule 33 of the Federal Rules (
Because we propose to follow the Federal Rules on interrogatories, we also propose to omit § 1025.32(a) through (d) of the current rules.
The Commission proposes to revise the title to
We propose to revise this section to follow, with one exception, Rule 36 of the Federal Rules (
For efficiency reasons and ease of practice, we propose largely to follow the Federal Rules on depositions, which are familiar to most practitioners. Specifically, the Commission proposes to revise this section to follow Rule 30 (
We propose these changes because the procedures set forth in Federal Rule 30, for example, would facilitate the noticing of depositions by the parties and encourage cooperation among the litigants during the discovery process. Under our current rule, parties are required to obtain leave of the Presiding Officer to notice all depositions, and there is no limit on the number of depositions that may be noticed. Federal Rule 30 allows parties to notice depositions without leave in most circumstances, including if the parties have stipulated to the deposition and the deposition would not result in more than 10 depositions being taken by each party. In addition, a party wishing to depose a nonparty under the current rule is required to apply for a subpoena; Federal Rule 30 has no such requirement, which will expedite the discovery process. Our current rules also do not limit the length of a deposition, which can lead to protracted and costly depositions; Federal Rule 30, however, establishes a limit on the length of a deposition, limiting depositions to one 7- hour day, unless otherwise ordered by the court.
We also propose following Federal Rule 31, titled,
The Commission proposes to revise this section to include a requirement that motions to compel discovery include a certification that the movant has, in good faith, conferred or attempted to confer with the person or party failing to make disclosure. This change is consistent with the requirements in the Federal Rules (see Federal Rule 37(a)(1)), and we believe this change would encourage resolution
We propose to update this section to make it consistent with our proposed changes on electronic filing, discussed above, and for clarity.
We would revise § 1025.38(b) to properly identify the Secretariat. In addition, we propose to amend § 1025.38(c) and (d) to clarify the content of, and application process for, subpoenas. Specifically, we propose to remove the paper filing requirement, eliminate the requirement that applications be submitted in triplicate, and delete other requirements related to paper filing.
Additionally, in § 1025.38(e), we propose to allow subpoena service to nonparties, as set forth in § 1025.16(b)(2) through (5), which allows for service by a variety of means, but does not permit electronic service. Because nonparties may not have verified electronic addresses, and certification of receipt is not required, service of a subpoena by the other specified methods is more reliable. For parties, we propose allowing for service in any of the methods set forth in § 1025.16(b)(1) through (5). We believe these proposed changes would increase the efficiency of subpoena service because the revisions allow for multiple methods of service, and, in particular, permit electronic service among parties, where the parties have agreed to such methods of service or the Presiding Officer has permitted these methods of service. Additionally, § 1025.38(f) would permit, in addition to mail carrier service, return of service of subpoenas by commercial carrier, a change that reflects common practice today. We also propose to eliminate the requirement that a copy of the subpoena be returned to the Secretary. In addition to other minor and non-substantive changes in § 1025.38(g), we propose to clarify that a motion to quash or limit should be ruled on by the Commission as a time critical matter in accordance with the Commission Decision Making Procedures.
We propose deleting this section and other distinctions relating to the Flammable Fabrics Act (“FFA”) throughout these rules because they are no longer necessary in light of the Commission's enhanced authority set forth in section 214 of the Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act of 2008, which permits the Commission to take action under section 15 of the Consumer Product Safety Act for violations of that statute and any other Act enforced by the Commission.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.41(a) to clarify that Commissioners and their staffs should not attend or view public hearings concerning matters that may become subject of review by the Commission as the appellate body. We also propose to revise § 1025.41(b) to clarify that adjudicative proceedings shall be held in one location, absent unusual circumstances. Based on staff experience and common practice in other agencies, we also propose to limit the duration of a proceeding to no more than 210 hours, absent a showing of good cause. We believe this provides ample time for the proper conduct of most hearings, but allows flexibility to alter the time frame if circumstances warrant. We propose other minor, non-substantive changes in § 1025.41(c) for clarity.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.42(a)(6) to state that, in addition to procedural motions, the Presiding Officer is empowered to consider and rule on evidentiary motions and other issues, as appropriate. We propose other minor, non-substantive changes in § 1025.42(a)(3) and (b), for clarity. In proposed § 1025.42(d), we make clear that, in addition to the Commission, a Presiding Officer shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision of, a Commissioner or a member of a Commissioner's staff in performance of the adjudicative function.
In § 1025.42(e), we propose to clarify that the Commission shall consider a motion to disqualify the Presiding Officer only if the matter has been decided and appealed to the Commission. In addition, we propose other minor, non-substantive changes.
The Commission proposes to supplement § 1025.43(a) to provide specific examples of the ways in which the Federal Rules of Evidence may be relaxed to best serve the interests of justice. More specifically, the proposal states that evidence constituting hearsay may be admitted if it is relevant, material, and bears satisfactory indicia or reliability so that its use is fair. In addition, we are proposing a minor, non-substantive change in § 1025.43(d)(1)(i) for uniformity. We also propose to remove an unnecessary “reserved” paragraph in § 1025.43(e) and re-designate paragraph (f) as paragraph (e).
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.44(a) to align our rule on experts more closely with the standard set forth in Rule 702 of the Federal Rules of Evidence (
We also propose revising § 1025.44(b) to make clear that the Presiding Officer has the authority to order expert testimony to be in writing and filed on the record. In addition, we propose to clarify that the Presiding Officer has the discretion to allow live testimony in lieu of a written submission. This change would be in keeping with our goal of vesting broad discretion with the Presiding Officer in the conduct of a proceeding.
We propose to revise § 1025.44(c) and (d) to conform to our proposed revision in § 1025.44(b).
We propose to revise § 1025.45(b) to correct typographical and grammatical errors, and to clarify the standard that applies to
The Commission proposes to revise this section to make the filing of post-hearing briefs mandatory. Under the current rule, parties may file post hearing briefs, but are not required to do so. Because we believe the public and the Presiding Officer would benefit from
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.47(a) of this section to delete the requirement for an “official court reporter of the Commission” because the Commission has no official court reporter. The revised language would require that a hearing shall be “recorded and transcribed by a court reporter under the supervision of the Presiding Officer.” We are proposing other non-substantive changes for clarity, including a revision to the appendix citation in the Federal Advisory Committee Act.
The Commission proposes to revise this section to require that the official docket be maintained electronically, in keeping with changes we are proposing throughout our Rules of Practice to update our procedures to reflect advances in technology. We also propose to delete the statement that the docket would be available for inspection by the public during normal business hours as unnecessary because the docket would be available electronically. We propose other non-substantive changes for clarity.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.49(a) to allow parties to modify this provision by agreement.
Under current § 1025.51(a), the Presiding Officer shall endeavor to file an Initial Decision within sixty (60) days after the record closes in a case, or after the filing of post-hearing briefs, whichever is later. The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.51(a) to require the Presiding Officer to file the Initial Decision within a fixed deadline of 60 days. This change is consistent with the Commission's goal of avoiding unnecessary delay and ensuring that a matter progresses in a timely manner to serve the interests of justice.
The current rules impose numerous interim deadlines, but do not explicitly provide for a total time limit from complaint to Initial Decision. Staff advises that most cases will take more than 1 year for the Presiding Officer to render an Initial Decision. The Commission believes that the Presiding Officer has considerable discretion in managing cases to ensure the timely and efficient resolution of proceedings, and the Commission expects that the Presiding Officer shall endeavor to make those proceedings as swift as practicable in the interest of due process and the protection of consumer health and safety.
The administrative procedures at sister agencies such as the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”), the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (“CFPB”), and the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”) employ other practices on ways to make adjudicatory proceedings more efficient, including a fixed time limit from issuance of complaint to evidentiary hearing as required by FTC Rule 16 CFR 3.11 (Commencement of Proceedings), a fixed time limit from complaint to initial decision as required by SEC Rule, 17 CFR 201.360(a)(2) (Initial Decision of Hearing Officer) and CFPB Rule, 12 CFR 1081.400(a) (Recommended Decision of the Hearing Officer), and changes to the rules that limit the scope of discovery available to parties in administrative proceedings as has been adopted by the SEC and CFPB. The Commission seeks comment on whether CPSC should adopt similar practices.
We also propose to revise § 1025.51(c) to make clear that the Commission may order that an individual, other than the Presiding Officer, may make and file an Initial Decision, if the Presiding Officer is disqualified under § 1025.42(e).
We are proposing to revise § 1025.51(d) to limit the authority of the Presiding Officer to reopen the proceedings to only those circumstances “where the interests of justice so require.” We propose this change to emphasize the need for finality and to ensure timely disposition of a matter.
We are proposing a minor, non-substantive change for consistency.
The Commission proposes to revise the title of § 1025.53(a) to
In addition, we propose to revise § 1025.53(b) to limit appeal briefs to thirty (30) pages. Currently, the rule does not impose a page limit, and we believe parties should be encouraged to file concise pleadings. We also propose to amend § 1025.53(c) to impose the same 30-page restriction on answering briefs that applies to appeal briefs. In § 1025.53(f), we would clarify that reply briefs are not required, but if filed, they shall not exceed fifteen (15) pages.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.55 to remove the word “endeavor.” By doing so, the Commission commits to issue its final decision on appeal or review within 90 days after the filing of all briefs or after receipt of transcript of the oral argument, whichever is later. We are also proposing a minor, non-substantive change in § 1025.55(a) for clarity.
We are proposing minor, non-substantive changes for clarity and to correct a typographical error.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.57(a) and (b) to clarify that Commission orders in adjudicative proceedings under the CPSA or the FFA become effective upon receipt by the Respondent.
In § 1025.57(b)(1), we propose an additional, non-substantive change for clarity. In § 1025.57(b)(2), we propose corrections for citation errors.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.58(c)(2) for clarity.
In proposed § 1025.58(e)(2), we make clear that the Commission may direct the Presiding Officer to conduct additional hearings if the pleadings raise substantial factual issues. We are proposing this change because as written it is unclear under whose auspices such a hearing would be conducted and recognize that such a hearing should be conducted by the Presiding Officer as the finder of fact. We further propose to clarify in this section, consistent with proposed changes to § 1025.46, to state that post hearing briefs are mandatory. We propose one other non-substantive change for clarity.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.63(a) and (b) to conform the requirement for the filing of a notice of appearance to our proposed electronic filing changes to § 1025.14 of the Rules of Practice.
In § 1025.63(b), we propose other minor, non-substantive changes for clarity.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.65(a) for clarity.
The Commission proposes to revise § 1025.66(d) for clarity.
The Commission proposes to retitle this section to:
We propose to add a new § 1025.68(b) to state that, except to the extent required for disposition of
The Commission also proposes to revise § 1025.68(d) to add paragraph (d)(3) to state that
We also propose changes in § 1025.68(e) to clarify that the procedures for handling prohibited
In § 1025.68(g), we propose changes to be consistent with the proposed changes to this section discussed above, and we also propose that sanctions shall apply to any person or party who makes or causes a prohibited
We propose other minor, non-substantive changes for clarity.
To clarify that Commission staff charged with investigative and prosecutorial responsibilities may not advise a decision maker or otherwise participate in a decision in a proceeding, we propose to add a new § 1025.69 titled,
The Commission proposes to revise this section to remove outdated and confusing references to the Equal Access to Justice Act (“EAJA”). As written, the rule substantially re-states EAJA requirements existing when the rule was adopted initially. Many elements of those requirements are no longer current. To avoid updating these rules each time an element of the EAJA is changed, we propose removing references to specific EAJA requirements and stating instead that the EAJA applies to certain adjudicative proceedings before the Commission. We propose stating generally that applications for fees and expenses may be made according to the EAJA, as interpreted by the federal courts and guidance provided by the U.S. Department of Justice (“DOJ”). Such interpretative case law and DOJ guidance provide ample direction for applicants, the Presiding Officer, and the Commission in the application for, and consideration of, a request for attorney's fees and other expenses. We do not believe our proceedings warrant particularized requirements regarding EAJA and that the guidance provided by the DOJ, and as interpreted by federal courts, would be sufficient for applicants to proceed with an EAJA claim. We note too that other federal agencies, such as the CFPB, have adopted rules of practice without reference to EAJA. Because we believe DOJ and federal court guidance is sufficient, we propose to omit language in § 1025.70(a) and the entirety of § 1025.70(b) through (h). We are also proposing several minor, non-substantive changes for clarity.
Consistent with our goal of following DOJ and federal court guidance on EAJA, we propose omitting this section.
Consistent with our goal of following DOJ and federal court guidance on EAJA, we propose omitting this section.
We are proposing to omit this appendix, which contains a suggested
The Commission's regulations address whether the Commission is required to prepare an environmental assessment or an environmental impact statement. 16 CFR part 1021. These regulations provide a categorical exclusion for certain CPSC actions that normally have “little or no potential for affecting the human environment.” 16 CFR 1021.5(c)(l). This proposed rule falls within the categorical exclusion.
Under section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”), when the APA requires an agency to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking, the agency must prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (“IRFA”), assessing the economic impact of the proposed rule on small entities. 5 U.S.C. 603(a). As noted, the Commission is proposing to update its Rules of Practice for Adjudicative Proceedings. Although the Commission is choosing to issue the rule through notice and comment procedures, the APA does not require a proposed rule when an agency issues rules of agency procedure and practice (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). Therefore, no IRFA is required under the RFA. Moreover, the proposed rule would not establish any mandatory requirements and would not impose any obligations on small entities (or any other entity or party).
The Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) establishes certain requirements when an agency conducts or sponsors a “collection of information.” 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520. The proposed rule would amend the Commission's Rules of Practice to adopt modern adjudicative procedures. The proposed rule would not impose any information collection requirements. The existing Rules of Practice and the proposed revision do not require or request information from firms, but rather, explain procedures for adjudicatory hearings. Thus, the PRA is not implicated in this proposed rulemaking.
According to Executive Order 12988 (February 5, 1996), agencies must state in clear language the preemptive effect, if any, of new regulations. Section 26 of the CPSA explains the preemptive effect of consumer product safety standards issued under the CPSA. 15 U.S.C. 2075. The proposed Rules of Practice do not set consumer product safety standards. Rather, the proposed Rules of Practice is an adoption of updated rules of agency procedure and practice. Therefore, section 26 of the CPSA would not apply to this rulemaking.
In accordance with the APA's general requirement that the effective date of a rule be at least 30 days after publication of the final rule, the Commission proposes that the effective date be 30 days after the date of publication of a final rule in the
The Commission requests comments on all aspects of the proposed rule. Comments should be submitted in accordance with the instructions in the
Administrative practice and procedure, Consumer protection.
For the reasons set forth in the Preamble, the Commission proposes to amend 16 CFR part 1025 to read as follows:
Authority: 15 U.S.C. 45, 1192, 1194, 1197(b), 1274, 1473(c), 2064, 2066(b), 2076, 8003.
The Rules in this part govern procedures in adjudicative proceedings relating to the provisions of sections 15(c), (d), and (f) and 17(b) of the Consumer Product Safety Act (15 U.S.C. 2064(c), (d), (f); 2066(b)), section 15 of the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (15 U.S.C. 1274), sections 3 and 8(b) of the Flammable Fabrics Act (15 U.S.C. 1192, 1197(b)), section 4(c) of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (15 U.S.C. 1473(c)), and section 1404 of the Virginia Graeme Baker Pool and Spa Act (15 U.S.C. 8003), which are required to be determined on the record after opportunity for a public hearing. This part may also be applied to such other adjudicative proceedings as the Commission, by order, shall designate. A basic intent of the Commission in the development of these Rules has been to promulgate a single set of procedural rules which can accommodate both simple matters and complex matters in adjudication. To accomplish this objective, broad discretion has been vested in the Presiding Officer who will hear a matter being adjudicated to allow him/her to alter time limitations and other procedural aspects of a case, as required by the complexity of the particular matter involved. A major concern of the Commission is that all matters in adjudication move forward in a timely manner, consistent with the Constitutional due process rights of all parties. Therefore, the Presiding Officer should, whenever appropriate, expedite the proceedings by setting shorter time limitations than those generally applicable under this part. For example, the time limitation for discovery, as provided in § 1025.31(d), may be shortened, consistent with the extent of discovery reasonably necessary to prepare for the hearing. Except where stated otherwise, discovery matters shall be governed by the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(e)
(f)
(g)
(i)
(n)
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a)
(b) * * *
(3) A clear and concise statement of the charges, sufficient to inform each respondent with reasonable definitiveness of the factual basis or bases of the allegations of violation or hazard.
(d)
The Presiding Officer may allow appropriate amendments and supplemental pleadings which do not unduly broaden the issues in the proceedings or cause undue delay. If any proposed amendment or supplemental pleading would have the effect of adding or removing any persons as a respondent to the complaint or adding or removing any count, or if the Presiding Officer determines that the amendments or supplemental pleadings do not fall within the scope of an authorized complaint, broaden the authority granted staff in a complaint, unduly broaden the issues in the proceedings, or would cause undue delay, the Presiding Officer shall refer such amendments or supplemental pleadings to the Commission for decision.
(a)
(c)
(d) * * *
(1) The original of each document filed shall be signed by a representative of record for the party or participant; or in the case of parties or participants not represented, by the party or participant; or by a partner, officer or other appropriate official of any corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association, who files an appearance on behalf of the party or participant. Documents electronically filed shall be signed electronically.
(e)
(2) Electronic text documents shall be filed in a format that prints on paper approximately 8
(3) Documents that fail to comply with this section may be returned by the Secretariat or Presiding Officer. Electronic documents and files that cannot be opened or read may be returned by the Secretariat or Presiding Officer. For good cause shown, the Presiding Officer may allow deviation from the form prescribed in this section.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(c)
(d)
(e)
I hereby certify that I have served the attached document upon all parties and participants of record in these proceedings by emailing, mailing postage prepaid, or delivering in person, a copy to each on ____.
(f)
(a) * * *
(1) The class of respondents is so numerous or geographically dispersed that joinder of all members is impracticable;
(f) * * *
(4) Dealing with other procedural matters. The orders may be combined with a prehearing order under § 1025.21 and may be altered or amended as may be necessary.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(1) A proposed discovery plan specifically addressing a schedule for depositions of fact witnesses, the production of documents and electronically stored information, and the timing of expert discovery. The parties' agreement regarding electronically stored information should include the scope of and a specified time period for the exchange of such information and the format for the discovery of such information;
(2) A preliminary estimate of the time required for the evidentiary hearing; and
(3) Any other matters to be determined at the prehearing conference.
(b)
(1) The factual and legal theories of the parties;
(2) The current status of any pending motions or petitions;
(3) A proposed date for the evidentiary hearing, and a schedule of proceedings that is consistent with the date of the evidentiary hearing;
(4) Steps taken to preserve evidence relevant to the issues raised by the claims and defenses;
(5) The scope of anticipated discovery, any limitations on discovery, and a proposed discovery plan, including the disclosure of electronically stored information;
(6) Issues that can be narrowed by agreement or by motion, suggestions to expedite the presentation of evidence at trial, and any request to bifurcate issues, claims or defenses; and
(7) Other possible agreements or steps that may aid in the just and expeditious disposition of the proceeding and to avoid unnecessary cost.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
Not later than ten (10) days prior to the hearing, unless otherwise ordered by the Presiding Officer, the parties shall simultaneously serve and file prehearing briefs, which should set forth:
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(c)
The addition and revision read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(v) Grants or denies a motion under § 1025.13 unless the Commission has issued a decision under § 1025.13.
(2) * * * The Commission may decide the petition, or may request such further briefing or oral presentation as it deems necessary.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) An admission of all jurisdictional facts;
(2) An express waiver of further procedural steps and of all rights to seek judicial review or otherwise to contest the validity of the Commission order;
(3) A statement that the allegations of the complaint are resolved by the consent agreement and order;
(4) A description of the alleged hazard, noncompliance, or violation;
(5) As appropriate, a listing of the acts or practices from which the respondent shall refrain and those acts or practices that the respondent shall affirmatively undertake; and
(6) As appropriate, a detailed statement of the corrective action(s) which the respondent shall undertake. In proceedings arising under Section 15 of the Consumer Product Safety Act, 15 U.S.C. 2064, this statement shall contain all the elements of a “Corrective Action Plan,” as outlined in the Commission's Interpretation, Policy, and Procedure for Substantial Product Hazards, 16 CFR part 1115.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a) Unless otherwise provided by statute, the parties shall conduct discovery in accordance with and subject to Rule 26 of the Federal Rules, as specified in this part. Unless specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section or provided for in this part, the time frames set for all actions described in Rule 26 shall be set by the Presiding Officer.
(1) Initial disclosures of information required in Federal Rule 26(a)(1)(C) shall be produced no later than 5 days after the preliminary meeting of the parties as set forth in § 1025.21(a).
(2) Federal Rule 26(a)(2)(B) (Witnesses Who Must Provide a Written Report) shall not apply.
(3) Federal Rule 26(c) (Protective Orders) shall apply with the following exceptions: Motions for protective orders shall be made to and decided by the Presiding Officer; Federal Rule 26(c)(3) shall not apply.
(4) Federal Rule 26(f) (Conference of the Parties: Planning for Discovery) shall not apply. The conference of the parties and joint discovery planning required in Federal Rule 26(f) shall take place as set forth in § 1025.21, or as otherwise ordered by the Presiding Officer.
(b)
This section shall be governed by Rule 33 of the Federal Rules.
This section shall be governed by Rule 34 of the Federal Rules, with the following exception: Requests for subpoenas shall be governed by § 1025.38.
This section shall be governed by Rule 36 of the Federal Rules, except that Rule 37(a)(5) award of expenses shall not apply.
This section shall be governed by Rules 30-32 of the Federal Rules, with the following exceptions: Requests for subpoenas shall be governed by § 1025.38; and Federal Rule 37(a)(5) award of expenses shall not apply.
If a party fails to respond to discovery, in whole or in part, the party seeking discovery may move within twenty (20) days for an order compelling an answer, or compelling inspection or production of documents, or otherwise compelling discovery. The motion must include a certification that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with the person or party failing to make disclosure or discovery in an effort to obtain it without action by the Presiding Officer. For purposes of this section, an evasive or incomplete response is to be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(3) To rule upon offers of proof, and receive relevant, competent, and probative evidence;
(6) To consider and rule, orally or in writing, upon all procedural, evidentiary, and other motions and issues appropriate in adjudicative proceedings;
(9) To take any action authorized by this part or the provisions of title 5, United States Code, sections 551-559.
(b)
(d)
(e) * * *
(2) Whenever, for good and reasonable cause, any party considers the Presiding Officer to be disqualified to preside, or to continue to preside, in any adjudicative proceedings, that party may file with the Secretariat a motion to disqualify and remove, supported by affidavit(s) setting forth the alleged grounds for disqualification. A copy of
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(d) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Generally known within the jurisdiction of the Commission; or
(a)
(1) The expert's scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will help the trier of fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue;
(2) The testimony is based on sufficient facts or data;
(3) The testimony is the product of reliable principles and methods; and
(4) The expert has reliably applied the principles and methods to the facts of the case.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(2) The reasons for granting
(3) The terms and conditions imposed by the Presiding Official, if any, limiting access to or use of the
(e)
(f)
Within a reasonable time after the closing of the record and receipt of the transcript, all parties shall file, and participants may file simultaneously unless otherwise ordered by the Presiding Officer, post-hearing briefs, including proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, as well as a proposed order. The Presiding Officer shall establish a date certain for the filing of the briefs, which shall not exceed fifty (50) days after the closing of the record except in unusual circumstances. The briefs shall be in writing and shall be served upon all parties. The briefs of all parties shall contain adequate references to the record and authorities relied upon, but shall not exceed thirty (30) pages, excluding covers, indexes, table of contents, list of citations, and list of references. Replies, if permitted by the Presiding Officer, shall be filed within fifteen (15) days of the date for the filing of briefs unless otherwise established by the Presiding Officer.
(a)
The official docket in any adjudicatory proceedings shall be maintained electronically by the Secretariat as set forth in § 1025.14 and shall be made available to the public.
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d) * * *
(1) At any time prior to, or concomitant with, the filing of the Initial Decision, the Presiding Officer may reopen the proceedings for the reception of further evidence where the interests of justice so require.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(f)
The revision reads as follows:
(c) Except as otherwise ordered by the Commission, the Commission shall file its Decision within ninety (90) days after the filing of all briefs or after receipt of transcript of the oral argument, whichever is later.
(a)
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(2)
(d) * * *
(2)
(a)
(b)
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b) Except as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section,
(1) By any interested person not employed by the Commission to any decision-maker; or
(2) By a decision maker to any interested person not employed by the Commission.
(c)
(i) The Commissioners and their staffs;
(ii) The Administrative Law Judges and their staffs;
(iii) The General Counsel and his/her staff, unless otherwise designated by the General Counsel.
(2)
(i) Written and not served on all parties; or
(ii) Oral and without advance notice to all parties to the proceedings and opportunity for them to be present.
(d)
(1)
(2) Any staff communication concerning judicial review or judicial enforcement in any matter pending before or decided by the Commission.
(3) Communications by any party to the Commission concerning a proposed settlement agreement that has been transmitted to the Commission.
(e)
(2)
(ii) The recipient of the communication shall forward to the Secretariat or the Presiding Officer, as appropriate, a signed and dated statement containing such of the following information as is known to him/her.
(A) The title and docket number of the proceedings;
(B) The name and address of the person making the communication and his/her relationship (if any) to the parties and/or participants to the proceedings;
(C) The date and time of the communication, its duration, and the
(D) A brief statement of the substance of the matters discussed; and
(E) Whether the person making the communication persisted in doing so after being advised that the communication was prohibited.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(f)
(g)
5 U.S.C. 504, 551
An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Commission in a case, other than a Commissioner, may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.
The Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504 (called “the EAJA” in this subpart), provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible persons who are parties to certain adversary adjudicative proceedings before the Commission. Applications for such fees and expenses may be made according to the EAJA, as interpreted by the federal courts and guidance provided by the U.S. Department of Justice.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains proposed regulations regarding deemed distributions of stock and rights to acquire stock. The proposed regulations would resolve ambiguities concerning the amount and timing of deemed distributions that are or result from adjustments to rights to acquire stock. The proposed regulations also would provide additional guidance to withholding agents regarding their current withholding and information reporting obligations under chapters 3 and 4 with respect to these deemed distributions. The proposed regulations would affect corporations issuing rights to acquire stock, their shareholders and holders of these rights, and withholding agents with respect to these deemed distributions.
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by July 12, 2016.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-133673-15), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, PO Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC, 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-133673-15), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC, 20224 or sent electronically, via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations under section 305, Maurice M. LaBrie, (202) 317-5322; concerning the proposed regulations under sections 860G, 861, 1441, 1461, 1471, and 1473, Subin Seth, (202) 317-6942; concerning the proposed regulations under section 6045B, Pamela Lew, (202) 317-7053; concerning submission of comments, contact Regina Johnson, (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
This document contains proposed regulations that amend 26 CFR part 1 under sections 305, 860G, 861, 1441, 1461, 1471, 1473, and 6045B of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (Code) concerning deemed distributions that are or result from adjustments to rights to acquire stock.
Final regulations under section 305 were published in the
Final regulations under sections 1441 and 1461 were published in the
Final regulations under section 6045B were published in the
Section 305 and the regulations thereunder apply to actual and deemed distributions by a corporation of its own stock and rights to acquire its own stock. Section 305(a) provides the general rule that the receipt of these distributions is not included in the gross income of the recipient; however, under section 305(b)(1) through (b)(5) certain actual and deemed distributions of stock and stock rights are treated as distributions of property to which section 301 applies. For example, under section 305(b)(2), if a distribution (or series of distributions) by a corporation has the result of a receipt of property by some shareholders and an increase in the proportionate interests of other shareholders in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation, all the distributions are treated as distributions of property to which section 301 applies.
Section 305(c) authorizes the Secretary to prescribe regulations to treat changes in the conversion ratio of instruments convertible into stock and other events having similar effects as distributions to shareholders whose proportionate interests in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation are increased by such events.
Under section 305(d)(1) and current § 1.305-1(d), for purposes of section 305 and the regulations thereunder, the term
The term
The term
The term
The term
The term
Under current § 1.305-1(b)(1), when a distribution of stock (including a right to acquire stock) is a distribution of property to which sections 305(b) and 301 apply, the amount of the distribution is the fair market value, on the date of the distribution, of the stock or right to acquire stock that is distributed.
A corporation may issue rights to acquire its stock in a number of forms, including warrants, subscription rights, options, convertible instruments that give the holder a right to convert the instruments into shares of stock in the issuing corporation, and similar instruments. In any of these forms, rights to acquire stock may provide for applicable adjustments that grant deemed shareholders economic benefits that correspond to distributions of stock, cash, or other property made to actual shareholders. Similarly, rights to acquire stock may provide for adjustments to prevent actual shareholders' interests from being diluted as a result of distributions of stock, cash, or other property to deemed shareholders (that is, holders of rights to acquire stock).
An applicable adjustment to a convertible instrument may consist of an increase in the number of shares of stock a holder would receive upon conversion. Similarly, an applicable adjustment to a warrant, subscription right, stock right, option, or similar right to acquire stock may consist of an increase in the number of shares the holder would receive upon exercise. In either situation, the applicable adjustment may have the effect of increasing the deemed shareholders' proportionate interests in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation. If this increase has a result described in section 305(b), then under section 305(c) the applicable adjustment is a deemed distribution to the deemed shareholder, and section 301 applies to the deemed distribution.
Under current § 1.305-7(b)(1), an applicable adjustment made pursuant to a bona fide, reasonable adjustment formula that has the effect of preventing dilution of a shareholder's interest is not a deemed distribution of stock to which sections 305(b) and 301 apply. However, also under current § 1.305-7(b)(1), an applicable adjustment to compensate for a distribution of cash or property to actual shareholders that is taxable under section 301, 356(a)(2), 871(a)(1)(A), 881(a)(1), 852(b), or 857(b) is not considered as made pursuant to such a bona fide, reasonable adjustment formula, and therefore may be a distribution to which sections 305(b) and 301 apply.
The Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that, under section 305(b) and (c) and the regulations thereunder, it is clear that an applicable adjustment is a deemed distribution to which section 301 applies, if: (i) The applicable adjustment increases the proportionate interest of an actual shareholder or a deemed shareholder in the corporation's assets or earnings and profits; (ii) such increase in proportionate interest has a result described in section 305(b); and (iii) the anti-dilution exception of § 1.305-7(b)(1) does not apply. For example, it has been the position of the Treasury Department and the IRS for over forty years that, under section 305(b) and (c) and the regulations thereunder, an increase in the conversion ratio of a convertible debt instrument may be treated as a deemed distribution to the deemed shareholder that holds the instrument, and, if so treated, section
The current regulations are unclear, however, as to the amount of a deemed distribution to a deemed shareholder. The current regulations may reasonably be interpreted as providing either that such a deemed distribution is treated as a distribution of a right to acquire stock (the amount of which is the fair market value of the right), or that such a distribution is treated as a distribution of the actual stock to which the right relates (the amount of which is the fair market value of the stock). Accordingly, for deemed distributions to deemed shareholders occurring before final regulations are published, the IRS will not challenge either position.
The current regulations are also unclear as to the timing of such a distribution. Under the proposed regulations, such a distribution generally would be deemed to occur at the time the applicable adjustment occurs, in accordance with the instrument setting forth the terms of the right to acquire stock, but in no event later than the date of the distribution of cash or property that results in the deemed distribution (taking into account § 1.305-3(b)).
These proposed regulations would amend the current regulations under section 305(b) and (c) only to clarify the amount and timing of such deemed distributions, not the fact of their occurrence, which is clear under current law.
After studying this area, the Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that a deemed distribution of a right to acquire stock is more accurately viewed as a distribution of additional rights to acquire stock, the amount of which is the fair market value of the right.
Under the terms of a convertible instrument, a distribution of cash or property to actual shareholders may increase the number of shares the holder of the convertible instrument would receive upon conversion. Similarly, a distribution of cash or property to actual shareholders may increase the number of shares the holder of other rights to acquire stock, such as warrants or options, would receive upon exercise. In either case, the increase is an applicable adjustment and a deemed distribution of additional rights to acquire stock to the holders of the rights to acquire stock. Under the proposed regulations, the amount of the deemed distribution would be the excess of (i) the fair market value of the right to acquire stock immediately after the applicable adjustment over (ii) the fair market value of the right to acquire stock without the applicable adjustment. In determining the fair market value of a right to acquire stock, any particular facts pertaining to the deemed shareholder's rights, including the number of actual shares of stock or rights to acquire stock held by such deemed shareholder, would be disregarded.
Also, under the terms of a convertible debt instrument or other right to acquire stock, a payment of cash or property to the holder may cause a reduction in the number of shares the holder would receive upon conversion or exercise. Such a reduction is an applicable adjustment that increases the actual shareholders' proportionate interests in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation. Thus, the applicable adjustment results in a deemed distribution of stock to the actual shareholders, and section 301 applies to the deemed distribution. Under the proposed regulations, the amount of this deemed distribution would be the fair market value of the stock deemed distributed, determined in accordance with § 1.305-3(e),
When an applicable adjustment is or results in a deemed distribution under proposed § 1.305-7(c)(1) or (2), the deemed distribution occurs at the time such applicable adjustment occurs, in accordance with the instrument setting forth the terms of the right to acquire stock, but in no event later than the date of the distribution of cash or property that results in the deemed distribution (taking into account § 1.305-3(b)). For such an applicable adjustment relating to a right to acquire publicly-traded stock, if the instrument setting forth the terms of such right does not set forth the date and time the applicable adjustment occurs, the deemed distribution would occur immediately prior to the opening of business on the ex-dividend date for the distribution of cash or property that results in the deemed distribution. For such an applicable adjustment relating to a right to acquire non-publicly traded stock, if the instrument setting forth the terms of such right does not set forth the date and time the applicable adjustment occurs, the deemed distribution occurs on the date that a holder is legally entitled to the distribution of cash or property that results in the deemed distribution.
This section provides a discussion of the proposed rules regarding deemed distributions under section 305(c). Section 4 of the preamble provides a discussion of the proposed rules regarding substitute dividend payments that are deemed payments determined with respect to a deemed distribution under section 305(c). The proposed rules that would apply for deemed payments are analogous to the proposed rules that would apply to deemed distributions.
Sections 1441 and 1442 (referred to herein as “chapter 3”) require all persons having the control, receipt, custody, disposal, or payment of items of income subject to withholding of any nonresident alien, foreign partnership, or foreign corporation to withhold tax at a 30-percent rate unless a reduced rate of withholding applies. Amounts subject to withholding include amounts from sources within the United States that are fixed or determinable annual or periodical income, which generally includes, among other things, interest, dividends, and similar types of investment income. § 1.1441-2(b)(1)(i). Under § 1.1441-2(e)(1), “a payment” is considered made to a person “if that person realizes income whether or not such income results from an actual transfer of cash or other property.” For this purpose, a payment is considered made when the amount would be includible in the income of the beneficial owner under the U.S. tax principles governing the cash basis method of accounting. § 1.1441-2(e)(1).
On March 18, 2010, the Hiring Incentives to Restore Employment Act of 2010, Public Law 111-147 (H.R. 2847), added chapter 4 to the Code (sections 1471 through 1474, commonly known as “FATCA”). Chapter 4
These proposed regulations would provide guidance to withholding agents regarding their obligations to withhold under chapters 3 and 4 on deemed distributions under section 305(c). Withholding agents have commented that ambiguities in the current law have made it difficult for them to satisfy their withholding obligations. In particular, withholding agents have commented that these deemed distributions often occur when there is no cash payment that corresponds to the deemed distribution, which makes it difficult for them to satisfy their withholding obligation on the date of the deemed distribution. In addition, withholding agents commented that they often lack knowledge of the fact that a deemed distribution on a security has been made and are therefore unable to withhold on the date of the deemed distribution.
Proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(i) would clarify that a withholding agent has an obligation to withhold on a deemed distribution (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) that is made on a security. Proposed § 1.1441-7(a)(4) would clarify that an issuer of a security upon which a deemed distribution is made and any person that holds directly or indirectly (for example, through an account maintained for an intermediary) a security on behalf of the beneficial owner of the security, or a flow-through entity that owns directly or indirectly (through another flow-through entity) a security, is considered to have custody of or control over the deemed distribution made on the security and, therefore, is a withholding agent with respect to the distribution.
Under current § 1.1441-2(d)(1), a withholding agent does not have an obligation to withhold on a payment when it lacks control over, or custody of, money or property of the recipient, or knowledge of the facts giving rise to the payment (the general exception). This general exception does not apply when, in relevant part, the payment is a distribution with respect to stock. The proposed regulations, however, would allow a withholding agent (other than the issuer of the specified security) to benefit from a new exception to withholding in proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4) for deemed distributions (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) of stock or a right to acquire stock on a specified security (as defined in § 1.6045-1(a)(14)). Under this new exception, a withholding agent (other than the issuer of the specified security) would have an obligation to withhold on such a deemed distribution only if, before the due date (not including extensions) for filing Form 1042, Annual Withholding Tax Return for U.S. Source Income of Foreign Persons, with respect to the calendar year in which the deemed distribution occurred, either (i) the issuer meets its reporting requirements under § 1.6045B-1 (by furnishing an issuer statement or publicly reporting the information required under that section) or (ii) the withholding agent has actual knowledge that a deemed distribution has occurred, in which case the obligation to withhold would not arise until January 15 of the year following the calendar year of the deemed distribution.
Once the requirements of proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(i) have been satisfied, a withholding agent would have an obligation to withhold on a deemed distribution. Except as provided in § 1.1441-5 regarding the time to withhold for partnerships and trusts, under proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(ii), a withholding agent would be required to satisfy its withholding obligation by withholding on the earliest of (i) the date on which a future cash payment is made with respect to the security; (ii) the date on which the security is sold, exchanged, or otherwise disposed of (including a transfer of the security to another account not maintained by the withholding agent or a termination of the account relationship); or (iii) the due date (not including extensions) for filing Form 1042 with respect to the calendar year in which the deemed distribution occurred. Under this approach, a withholding agent that continues to directly or indirectly hold or own the security when the requirements of proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(i) are satisfied generally would be able to satisfy its withholding obligation by withholding on future cash payments on the security (for example, an interest payment on a convertible bond). If, however, the security is disposed of before sufficient future cash payments have been made on the security, the withholding agent would be required to withhold at the time of disposition and generally would be expected to do so by, for example, withholding on the proceeds from the disposal, liquidating other property held in custody for the beneficial owner, or obtaining other funds directly or indirectly from the beneficial owner to satisfy the withholding.
If there are not sufficient future cash payments on the security and the security has not been disposed of or transferred before the due date (not including extensions) for filing Form 1042 with respect to the calendar year in which the deemed distribution occurred, then, to avoid having to pay the tax out of the withholding agent's own funds, the withholding agent may apply current § 1.1461-2(b) in order to collect the underwithheld amount. Under these rules, the withholding agent can satisfy the tax by withholding on other cash payments made to the same beneficial owner or by liquidating other property held in custody for the beneficial owner or over which it has control. The proposed regulations would amend current § 1.1461-2(b) to clarify that a withholding agent may obtain the property from which to withhold under these rules through additional contributions obtained directly or indirectly from the beneficial owner. The proposed regulations also would add a sentence to current § 1.1461-2(b) to clarify that a withholding agent that satisfies its obligation to withhold under § 1.1461-2(b) will not be subject to any penalties for failure to deposit or failure to pay under sections 6656, 6672, and 7202 when it deposits the amounts obtained in this manner by the due date (not including extensions) for filing Form 1042 with respect to the calendar year in which the deemed distribution occurred. These clarifications reflect the IRS interpretation of current § 1.1461-2(b) in applying these penalties, and thus no penalties will be imposed for withholding agents that apply these rules to satisfy their obligations to withhold before the effective date of these regulations.
When the requirements of proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(i) are satisfied after a withholding agent has terminated its relationship with the beneficial owner
Proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(iii) would provide that a withholding agent may treat certain foreign entities (qualified intermediaries, withholding foreign partnerships, withholding foreign trusts, and U.S. branches treated as U.S. persons) as assuming primary chapter 3 withholding responsibilities for a deemed distribution on a specified security only if (i) the withholding agent provides the foreign entity with a copy of the issuer statement described in § 1.6045B-1(b)(1) within 10 days of the issuer furnishing the statement to the holder of record or its nominee, or (ii) the issuer has met the public reporting requirements under § 1.6045B-1(a)(3). The foreign entity would have an obligation to withhold on the deemed distribution only if it receives a copy of the issuer statement or if the issuer has met the public reporting requirements by the due date (not including extensions) for filing Form 1042 with respect to the calendar year in which the deemed distribution occurred. A withholding agent that fails to provide a copy of the issuer statement to a foreign entity (in the absence of public reporting) would not be permitted to treat the foreign entity as having assumed primary withholding responsibilities for the deemed distribution and would therefore have to withhold and report based on the information that it has regarding the recipient of the deemed distribution. The purpose of this proposed rule is to ensure that foreign entities that assume primary withholding responsibilities for deemed distributions will possess the information described in § 1.6045B-1 to meet their withholding and information reporting obligations, as these entities (or their nominees) may not be holders of record that otherwise would receive the issuer statement described in § 1.6045B-1(b)(1).
Under proposed § 1.1441-3(c)(5), a withholding agent (other than the issuer of the specified security) would be permitted to rely on the information that an issuer provides on an issuer statement described in § 1.6045B-1(b)(1) or on a public Web site described in § 1.6045B-1(a)(3) to determine the proper amount of withholding on a deemed distribution on a specified security unless it knows that the information is incorrect or unreliable. Additionally, a foreign entity that has assumed primary withholding responsibilities would be permitted to rely on the copy of the issuer statement described in § 1.6045B-1(b)(1) that it receives from another withholding agent under the circumstances described in proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(iii) unless it knows that the information is incorrect or unreliable.
The proposed regulations would add language to § 1.1441-2(d)(1) to clarify that a withholding agent does not lack control over money or property if it directs another person to make a payment, and that a withholding agent does not lack knowledge of the facts that give rise to a payment merely because the withholding agent does not know the character or source of the payment for U.S. tax purposes. The proposed regulations also would add an example to § 1.1441-2(d)(1) of when a withholding agent lacks knowledge of the facts that give rise to a payment. These clarifications and the example are consistent with similar rules in current § 1.1471-2(a)(4)(i) that apply for chapter 4 purposes.
The proposed regulations also would make nonsubstantive changes to reorganize the structure of current § 1.1441-2(d)(1).
The proposed regulations would modify the regulations under chapter 4 to provide guidance similar to the rules described in proposed §§ 1.1441-2(d)(1), 1.1441-2(d)(4), 1.1441-3(c)(5), and 1.1441-7(a)(4) for withholding on a deemed distribution (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) that is a withholdable payment under chapter 4. The amendment to proposed § 1.1461-2(b) that clarifies that a withholding agent may obtain additional contributions of property directly or indirectly from a beneficial owner and the new sentence added to proposed § 1.1461-2(b) regarding penalties also would apply to withholding agents adjusting underwithholding under chapter 4 through cross-reference in § 1.1474-2(b). The proposed regulations also would make nonsubstantive changes to reorganize the structure of current § 1.1471-2(a)(4)(i), which are consistent with the organizational changes proposed for current § 1.1441-2(d)(1).
Section 1.861-3(a)(6) provides that a substitute dividend payment made to a transferor in a securities lending transaction or sale-repurchase transaction is sourced in the same manner as a dividend on the transferred securities. The regulations define a substitute dividend payment as “a payment, made to the transferor of a security in a securities lending transaction or a sale-repurchase transaction, of an amount equivalent to a dividend distribution which the owner of the transferred security is entitled to receive during the term of the transaction.” These proposed regulations would modify § 1.861-3(a)(6) to clarify that a substitute dividend payment includes a deemed payment made in the amount (as determined under § 1.305-7(c)(4)) of a deemed distribution (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)).
These proposed regulations would provide that the general exception to withholding in § 1.1441-2(d)(1)(i) does not apply for deemed payments (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)). However, proposed § 1.1441-2(d)(4) would allow a withholding agent to benefit from the same exception to withholding that would apply to deemed distributions (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) on a specified security for deemed payments (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)) that are determined with respect to a deemed distribution on a specified security. Thus, a withholding agent would have an obligation to withhold on such a deemed payment only if, before the due date (not including extensions) for filing Form 1042, Annual Withholding Tax Return for U.S. Source Income of Foreign Persons, with respect to the calendar year in which the deemed distribution on a specified security occurred, either (i) the issuer meets its reporting requirements under § 1.6045B-1 (by furnishing an issuer statement or publicly reporting the information required under that section) or (ii) the withholding agent has actual knowledge that a deemed distribution has occurred, in which case the obligation to withhold would not arise until January 15 of the year following the calendar year of the deemed distribution or the deemed payment. If a withholding agent has an obligation to withhold on a deemed payment (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)) under § 1.1441-2(d)(4)(i), it would be required
To facilitate broker reporting of a security's adjusted basis to the holder of the security under section 6045, section 6045B provides that, according to the forms or regulations prescribed by the Secretary, an issuer of a specified security (for example, stock, a convertible debt instrument, or a warrant) must report certain information relating to an organizational action that affects the basis of the security to both the IRS and the holders of the security. Under section 6045B and current § 1.6045B-1, an issuer must file an issuer return (Form 8937, Report of Organizational Actions Affecting Basis of Securities) with the IRS by the earlier of 45 days after the organizational action or January 15 of the calendar year following the organizational action. In addition, the issuer must send a written statement (for example, a copy of the issuer return) to holders by January 15 of the calendar year following the organizational action. In lieu of filing the issuer return with the IRS and furnishing the written statement to holders, current § 1.6045B-1(a)(3) permits an issuer to post the required information on its public Web site by the due date for reporting the issuer return to the IRS. Under current § 1.6045B-1, however, an issuer is not required to send a statement to exempt recipients, such as C corporations and foreign persons, nor is an issuer required to file an issuer return if the issuer reasonably determines that all of the holders of the security are exempt recipients. An issuer must comply with current § 1.6045B-1 for an organizational action that occurs on or after the applicability date prescribed in current § 1.6045B-1(j). For example, an issuer of a convertible debt instrument must comply with current § 1.6045B-1 for an organizational action that occurs after December 31, 2015.
An applicable adjustment, including a conversion ratio adjustment, is an organizational action that often will affect the holder's basis in a specified security. For example, the instructions to Form 8937 provide that if a conversion ratio adjustment on a convertible debt instrument occurring after December 31, 2015, results in a distribution under section 305(c) (for example, because it is made in conjunction with a cash distribution to shareholders), the issuer of the debt instrument must file Form 8937.
Brokers and withholding agents have expressed concerns about the difficulty of complying with their reporting and withholding obligations in the absence of information about the fact and amount of a deemed distribution under section 305(c), including a deemed distribution under section 305(c) resulting from an applicable adjustment. Even after December 31, 2015, when issuers are generally required to report an applicable adjustment on a convertible debt instrument, brokers and withholding agents may not have the necessary information to comply with their reporting and withholding obligations because of the exempt recipient exception for providing a written statement (and assuming that the issuer does not choose the public reporting alternative). In response to these concerns, § 1.6045B-1(i)(2) of the proposed regulations would require that an issuer provide an issuer return to the IRS and a written statement to each holder of record of a specified security (or to the holder's nominee) relating to a deemed distribution under section 305(c) on the security, without regard to any of the general exceptions in the current regulations under section 6045B or in the instructions to Form 8937. The proposed regulations, like the current regulations, permit an issuer to not provide an issuer return to the IRS or a written statement to the holders regarding the deemed distribution if the issuer satisfies the public reporting requirements in current § 1.6045B-1(a)(3).
Section 1.6045B-1 generally applies when a deemed distribution affects the basis of a specified security. It is expected that similar principles would apply under section 6042 with respect to reporting of deemed distributions made to U.S. persons on Form 1099-DIV. Comments are requested on the implementation of Form 1099-DIV reporting on these amounts.
The proposed regulations under section 305 would apply to deemed distributions occurring on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
The proposed regulations under sections 860G, 861, 1441, 1461, 1471, and 1473 would apply to payments made on or after the date of publication. A withholding agent, however, may rely on the proposed regulations under sections 861, 1441, 1471, and 1473 for all deemed distributions under section 305(c) or, to the extent applicable, deemed payments (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)) occurring on or after January 1, 2016 until the date of publication. No inference as to the application of these provisions under current law is intended by permitting reliance on these proposed regulations. A withholding agent also may rely on the proposed regulations under section 1461 for any payments occurring on or after January 1, 2016 until the date of publication, including for any deemed distribution under section 305(c) or deemed payment (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)) for which the withholding agent failed to withhold.
Section 1.6045B-1(i)(2) would apply to a deemed distribution under section 305(c) occurring on or after the date of publication. In addition, an issuer would report the amount and timing of a deemed distribution in accordance with the proposed regulations under section 305 for a deemed distribution occurring on or after the date of publication. For purposes of reporting the amount of a deemed distribution occurring prior to the date of publication, an issuer may determine the amount of the deemed distribution by treating such distribution either as a distribution of a right to acquire stock, or as a distribution of the shares of stock that would be received upon exercise of the right. In addition, an issuer may rely on § 1.305-7(c)(5) of the proposed regulations to determine the date of a deemed distribution occurring prior to the date of publication.
IRS Revenue Rulings cited in this preamble are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (or Cumulative Bulletin) and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS Web site at
The IRS will modify, clarify, or obsolete publications as necessary to conform to these proposed regulations as of the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required. It also has been determined that section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 5) does not apply to these regulations.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6), it is hereby certified that the proposed regulations under section 6045B in this document will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Any effect on small entities by the rules in the proposed regulations flows directly from section 403 of the Energy Improvement and Extension Act of 2008, Division B of Public Law 110-343 (122 Stat. 3765, 3854 (2008)) (the Act).
Section 403(d) of the Act added section 6045B, which requires an issuer, including an issuer that is a small entity, to report certain information relating to any organizational action by the issuer that affects the basis of a specified security. In general, an issuer reports the information required under section 6045B to the IRS and to holders or nominees on Form 8937. The proposed regulations limit reporting to the information necessary to meet the Act's requirements. In addition, the proposed regulations retain the rule in the current regulations under section 6045B that permits an issuer to report each action publicly on its Web site instead of filing a return and furnishing each holder or nominee a statement about the action. The proposed regulations therefore do not add to the statutory impact on small entities but instead eases this impact to the extent the statute permits. Moreover, any economic impact on small entities is expected to be minimal.
Therefore, because the proposed regulations in this document will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required.
Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.
Before the proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any comments that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the “Addresses” heading. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on all aspects of the proposed regulations. All comments will be available for public inspection and copying upon request, or at
The principal authors of these regulations are: With respect to the regulations under section 305, Maurice M. LaBrie of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Corporate); with respect to the regulations under sections 860G, 861, 1441, 1461, 1471, and 1473, Subin Seth of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (International); and with respect to the regulations under section 6045B, Pamela Lew of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Financial Institutions and Products), all within the Office of Chief Counsel, IRS. Other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in developing the regulations.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(b) * * *
(3) For rules determining the amount of the distribution for certain transactions, such as periodic redemptions or applicable adjustments (as defined in § 1.305-7(a)) of rights to acquire stock that are treated as distributions under section 305(b) and (c),
(d)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(i) A right of a holder of a convertible instrument (including a debt instrument that is convertible into shares of stock and stock that is convertible into shares of another class of stock) to convert the instrument into one or more shares of stock of the corporation issuing the instrument;
(ii) A warrant, subscription right, stock right, or other option to acquire shares of stock of the corporation issuing the instrument;
(iii) A right to acquire stock of the corporation issuing such right similar to the rights described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section; and
(iv) A right to receive an amount of cash or other property determined in whole or in part by reference to the value of a specified number of shares of stock (whether or not in lieu of such stock) of the corporation issuing the right.
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i) The right to acquire stock is a nonqualified stock option without a readily ascertainable fair market value (
(ii) Section 83(a) applies to the right to acquire stock or the stock to which the right relates or the stock is subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture, and the holder of the right has not made an election under section 83(b).
(e)
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(e)
* * *
(ii) M pays an annual cash dividend on the class A stock. At the beginning of the second year, when the conversion ratio is increased to 1.05 shares of class A stock for each share of class B stock, an applicable adjustment occurs, as defined in § 1.305-7(a), and a distribution of rights to acquire 0.05 shares of class A stock is deemed made under section 305(c) and § 1.305-7(c)(1) with respect to each share of class B stock. The proportionate interests of the class B shareholders in the assets or earnings and profits of M are increased, and the transaction has the effect described in section 305(b)(2). Accordingly, sections 305(b)(2) and 301 apply to the transaction. The amount of the deemed distribution is determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(4)(ii), and the date and time of the deemed distribution are determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(5).
* * *
(ii) In 2017, a $1 cash dividend per share is declared and paid on the class B stock. Pursuant to the terms of the class B stock, on the date of payment, the conversion ratio of the class B stock is reduced. The reduction in conversion ratio is an applicable adjustment, as defined in § 1.305-7(a). Under section 305(c) and § 1.305-7(c)(2), the reduction is a deemed distribution of stock to the class A shareholders, since their proportionate interest in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation is increased, and the transaction has the effect described in section 305(b)(2). Accordingly, sections 305(b)(2) and 301 apply to the transaction. The amount of the distribution is determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(4)(ii), and the date and time of the deemed distribution are determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(5).
(iii) In the following year a cash dividend is paid on the class A stock but not on the class B stock, and the conversion ratio of the class B stock increases. The increase in the conversion ratio of the class B shares is an applicable adjustment. Under section 305(c) and § 1.305-7(c)(1), the adjustment is a deemed distribution of rights to acquire stock to the class B shareholders since their proportionate interest in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation is increased, and the transaction has the effect described in section 305(b)(2). Accordingly, sections 305(b)(2) and 301 apply to the transaction. The amount of the distribution is determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(4)(i), and the date and time of the deemed distribution are determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(5).
(f)
(a)
(1) With respect to a convertible instrument and a holder thereof, an increase in the conversion ratio or a reduction in the conversion price of such instrument;
(2) With respect to a warrant, subscription right, stock right, option, or other similar right and a holder thereof, an increase in the number of shares to be received by the holder upon exercise or a reduction in exercise price;
(3) With respect to a convertible instrument and a holder of actual stock into which such instrument may be converted, an increase in the conversion price or a reduction in the conversion ratio of such instrument;
(4) With respect to a warrant, subscription right, stock right, option, or similar right and a holder of actual stock into which such instrument is exercisable, an increase in the exercise price or a reduction in the number of shares to be received by the holder upon exercise; and
(5) An adjustment in the terms of a right to acquire stock having an effect similar to the effects of the adjustments described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section, including, for example, an extension or reduction of the term during which a right to acquire stock may be exercised.
(b)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A) The fair market value of the right to acquire stock held by the deemed shareholder immediately after the applicable adjustment, over
(B) The fair market value, determined immediately after the applicable adjustment, of such right to acquire stock as if no applicable adjustment had occurred.
(ii)
(iii)
(A) Any particular facts pertaining to the deemed shareholder, including the number of rights or shares such deemed shareholder owns, will be disregarded, and
(B) Any value or reduction in value attributable to the possibility of future applicable adjustments that may result from actual or deemed distributions will not be taken into account.
(5)
(6)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(d)
(i) It is pursuant to a plan to periodically increase a shareholder's proportionate interest in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation, or
(ii) A shareholder owning preferred stock with dividends in arrears exchanges his stock for other stock and, as a result, increases his proportionate interest in the assets or earnings and profits of the corporation. An increase in a preferred shareholder's proportionate interest occurs in any case where the fair market value or the liquidation preference, whichever is greater, of the stock received in the exchange (determined immediately following the recapitalization), exceeds the issue price of the preferred stock surrendered.
(2)
(i) The amount by which the fair market value or the liquidation preference, whichever is greater, of the stock received in the exchange (determined immediately following the recapitalization) exceeds the issue price of the preferred stock surrendered, or
(ii) The amount of the dividends in arrears.
(3)
(4)
(e)
(f)
(g)
The additions read as follows:
(a) * * * * *
(6)
(d)
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(d) * * *
(1)
(A) Control over, or custody of, money or property owned by the recipient or beneficial owner from which to withhold an amount; and
(B) Knowledge of the facts that give rise to the payment.
(ii)
(A) The withholding agent is related (within the meaning of section 482) to the recipient or the beneficial owner of the payment;
(B) The payment is a distribution with respect to stock (including a deemed distribution (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) of stock or a right to acquire stock);
(C) The amounts are described in § 1.860G-3(b)(1) (regarding certain partnership allocations of REMIC net income with respect to a REMIC residual interest);
(D) The lack of control over or custody of money or property from which to withhold is part of a pre-arranged plan known to the withholding
(E) The payment is a deemed payment (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6));
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
A, an individual, owns stock in DC, a domestic corporation, through a custodian, Bank 1. A also has a money market account at Bank 2. DC pays a dividend of $1,000 that is deposited in A's custodial account at Bank 1. A then directs Bank 1 to transfer $1,000 to A's money market account at Bank 2. With respect to the payment of the dividend into A's custodial account with Bank 1, both DC and Bank 1 are withholding agents making a payment of an amount subject to withholding for which they have custody, control, and knowledge.
(4)
(A) The issuer of the specified security reports the information required under § 1.6045B-1 regarding the deemed distribution before the due date (not including extensions) for the withholding agent to file Form 1042 for the calendar year in which the deemed distribution or the deemed payment occurred; or
(B) The withholding agent has actual knowledge of the deemed distribution before the due date (not including extensions) for it to file Form 1042 for the calendar year in which the deemed distribution or the deemed payment occurred, but in such case the requirements of this paragraph (d)(4)(i) will not be considered to be met until January 15 of the year following the calendar year in which the deemed distribution or the deemed payment occurred.
(ii)
(A) The date on which a payment of cash is made with respect to the security or the securities lending or sales-repurchase transaction;
(B) The date on which the security is sold, exchanged, or otherwise disposed of (including a transfer of the security to a separate account not maintained by the withholding agent or a termination of the account relationship); or
(C) The due date (not including extensions) for the withholding agent to file Form 1042 for the calendar year in which the deemed distribution or the deemed payment occurred.
(iii)
(iv)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(f)
The addition reads as follows:
(c) * * *
(5)
(ii)
The addition reads as follows:
(a) * * *
(4)
(5) * * * Paragraph (a)(4) of this section applies to payments made on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
(b)
(d) * * * Paragraph (b) of this section applies to payments made on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) * * *
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(A)
(1) Control over, or custody of, money or property owned by the recipient or beneficial owner from which to withhold an amount, and
(2) Knowledge of the facts that give rise to the payment.
(B)
(1) The withholding agent is related (within the meaning of section 482) to the recipient or the beneficial owner of the payment;
(2) The payment is with respect to stock (including a deemed distribution (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) of stock or a right to acquire stock) or other securities; however, the limited exception from the obligation to withhold on a deemed distribution provided in § 1.1441-2(d)(4) also applies to a deemed distribution that is a withholdable payment under chapter 4;
(3) The lack of control over or custody of money or property from which to withhold is part of a pre-arranged plan known to the withholding agent to avoid withholding under section 1471 or 1472;
(4) The amounts are described in § 1.860G-3(b)(1) (regarding certain partnership allocations of REMIC net income with respect to a REMIC residual interest);
(5) Any of the special rules described in § 1.1441-2(d)(2) or (3), regarding the obligation of a withholding agent with respect to cancellation of debt or the satisfaction of tax liability following underwithholding by a withholding agent, apply with respect to the payment (by applying such rules to payments that are withholdable payments under chapter 4); or
(6) The payment is a deemed payment (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)); however, the limited exception from the obligation to withhold on a deemed payment provided in § 1.1441-2(d)(4) also applies to a deemed payment that is determined with respect to a deemed distribution on a specified security and that is a withholdable payment under chapter 4.
(C)
(D)
(c) * * * Paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section applies to payments made on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
The additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(vii) * * *
(A) * * * For purposes of determining the amount of a deemed distribution (as defined in § 1.305-1(d)(7)) on a specified security (as defined in § 1.6045-1(a)(14)) or a deemed payment (as defined in § 1.861-3(a)(6)) that is determined with respect to a deemed distribution on a specified security, a withholding agent other than the issuer of the specified security may rely on issuer reporting by applying the rule under § 1.1441-3(c)(5)(i) to deemed distributions or deemed payments that are withholdable payments under chapter 4.
(d) * * *
(7)
(f) * * * Paragraphs (a)(2)(vii) and (d)(7) of this section apply to payments made on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
(i)
(2)
(3)
(i) The date of the deemed distribution under section 305(c) as determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(5) (pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section); and
(ii) The amount of the deemed distribution under section 305(c) as determined in accordance with § 1.305-7(c)(4) (pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section).
(4)
Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services, Department of Education.
Proposed priorities, requirements, and definitions.
The Assistant Secretary for Special Education and Rehabilitative Services proposes priorities, requirements, and definitions under the Disability Innovation Fund (DIF) Program. The Assistant Secretary may use these priorities, requirements, and definitions for competitions in fiscal year (FY) 2016 and later years. The Assistant Secretary takes this action to identify, develop, implement, and evaluate effective work-based learning models that will help students with disabilities prepare for postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment. The models must be delivered through a coordinated system of transition services.
We must receive your comments on or before May 13, 2016.
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or by postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email or those submitted after the comment period. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
•
•
The U.S. Department of Education's (Department) policy is to make all comments received from members of the public available for public viewing in their entirety on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
RoseAnn Ashby, telephone: (202) 245-7258, or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
We invite you to assist us in complying with the specific requirements of Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 and their overall requirement of reducing regulatory burden that might result from these proposed priorities, requirements, and definitions. Please let us know of any further ways we could reduce potential costs or increase potential benefits while preserving the effective and efficient administration of the program.
During and after the comment period, you may inspect all public comments about this notice by accessing
Despite emphasis on providing transition services under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) and Rehabilitation Act, students with disabilities continue to face challenges as they transition from school to post-school activities, including postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment. These students often have lower high school graduation rates, lower postsecondary enrollment rates, and higher unemployment rates than their peers without disabilities (Leucking & Leucking, 2015).
To address these concerns, the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act of 2014 (WIOA) strengthened the emphasis on providing services and supports to students and other youth with disabilities to achieve competitive integrated employment. For example, the Rehabilitation Act, as amended by WIOA, not only expands the population of students with disabilities who may receive services but also broadens the scope of services and supports that State vocational rehabilitation (VR) agencies may provide to students with disabilities who are transitioning from secondary school to postsecondary education and employment.
In particular, new section 113 of the Rehabilitation Act requires that pre-employment transition services, including work-based learning experiences, job exploration counseling, workplace readiness training, counseling on opportunities for enrollment in comprehensive transition or postsecondary educational programs at institutions of higher education, and instruction in self-advocacy, be made available to students with disabilities who are eligible or potentially eligible for services under the State VR services program. To ensure that pre-employment transition services improve outcomes for students with disabilities, State VR agencies will require models of effective interventions that can be tailored to meet the diverse needs of these students across the Nation.
The body of literature on transition services identifies work-based learning as a key component in improving outcomes for youth with disabilities. Work-based learning links knowledge gained through work with classroom or related instruction. Work-based learning experiences range in intensity, structure, and scope, and consist of a diverse set of activities such as site visits, job shadowing, paid and unpaid internships, and apprenticeships. Under section 113 of the Rehabilitation Act, work-based learning experiences provided to students with disabilities through the State VR services program may include in-school or after-school opportunities or experiences outside the traditional school setting, such as internships, that are provided in an integrated environment to the maximum extent possible.
Research has shown a strong relationship between work experiences during secondary school, particularly paid employment, and post-school employment for youth with disabilities. These experiences provide exposure to a range of career options that are otherwise typically limited for youth with disabilities. Work-based learning has long been shown to improve students' self-esteem, to teach and reinforce basic academic and technical skills, to promote an understanding of workplace culture and expectations, and to develop a network for future jobs searches (Luecking, 2009).
According to the National Collaborative on Workforce and Disability for Youth, quality work-based learning experiences are structured, appropriate to the age and stage of life of the individual, provide exposure to a wide range of work sites, and involve youth in choosing their experiences.
The Department therefore believes that providing effective work-based learning experiences in integrated settings, with coordination among State VR agencies, State and local educational agencies, and other key partners, can improve post-school outcomes for students with disabilities. However, additional evidence is needed to identify and develop interventions and strategies that provide effective work-based learning experiences in integrated settings and the conditions and circumstances under which interventions are most effective in improving competitive integrated employment outcomes for students with disabilities, especially the coordination of efforts with key partners that are necessary for the success of such interventions.
Through the DIF Program, the Department has the opportunity to award cooperative agreements to identify and demonstrate work-based learning interventions for students with disabilities that are supported by evidence and will be rigorously evaluated. We believe that the best
Luecking, D.M., & Luecking, R.G. (2015). Translating Research into a Seamless Transition Model. Career Development and Transition for Exceptional Individuals, 38(1), 4-13.
Luecking, R.G. (2009). The Way to Work: How to Facilitate Work Experiences for Youth in Transition. Baltimore, MD: Paul H. Brookes Pub.
National Collaborative on Workforce and Disability for Youth (NCWD/Youth). Work-Based Learning Jump Start. Available at:
We give priority to model demonstration projects designed to identify, develop, implement, and evaluate effective work-based learning models that will help ensure that students with disabilities (as defined in this notice) are prepared for postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment (as defined in this notice). The model demonstration projects must provide effective work-based learning experiences in integrated settings, in coordination with other transition services, including pre-employment transition services (as defined in this notice), to students with disabilities, through State VR agencies, in collaboration with local educational agencies (LEAs) or, where appropriate, State educational agencies (SEAs) and other local partners.
We give priority to projects supported by evidence of promise (as defined in this notice).
We give priority to projects that conduct evaluations that meet the What Works Clearinghouse Evidence Standards (as defined in this notice) with reservations.
When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the
To be considered for funding under Proposed Priority 1, applicants must describe their plans to carry out the following project requirements—
(a) Develop and implement a project design that is supported by strong theory (as defined in this notice) that supports the effectiveness (
(b) Develop and implement a project demonstrating effective practices and strategies in the use of work-based learning experiences in integrated settings to prepare students with disabilities for postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment. The model must be implemented at multiple local sites to ensure its replicability;
(c) Establish partnerships with the LEA or, as appropriate, the SEA, institutions of higher education, employers, and providers or other agencies that are critical to the development of work-based learning experiences in integrated settings for students with disabilities. At a minimum, the partnership must include representatives from the LEA, workforce training providers (
(d) Provide career exploration and counseling to assist students in identifying possible career pathways (as defined in this notice) and the relevant work-based learning experiences;
(e) Develop work-based learning experiences in integrated settings, at least one of which must be a paid experience, that—
(1) Provide exposure to a wide range of work sites to help students make informed choices about career selections;
(2) Are appropriate for the age and stage in life of each participating student, ranging from site visits and tours, job shadowing, service learning, apprenticeships, and internships;
(3) Are structured and linked to classroom or related instruction;
(4) Use a trained mentor to help structure the learning at the worksite;
(5) Include periodic assessment and feedback as part of each experience; and
(6) Fully involve students with disabilities and, as appropriate, their representative in choosing and structuring their experiences;
(f) Provide instruction in employee rights and responsibilities, as well as positive work skills, habits, and behaviors that foster success in the workplace;
(g) Identify and provide support services, as appropriate, including transportation, that are needed to ensure the student's success in participating in work-based learning experiences;
(h) Identify, provide, or arrange for accommodations or assistive technology needed to ensure the student's success in participating in work-based learning experiences;
(i) Develop and implement a plan to measure the model demonstration project's performance and outcomes, including an evaluation of the effectiveness of the practices and strategies implemented by the project. A detailed and complete evaluation plan must include—
(1) A formative evaluation plan, consistent with the project's logic model (as defined in this notice), that—
(i) Includes evaluation questions, source(s) for data, a timeline for data collection, and analysis plans;
(ii) Shows how the outcome (
(iii) Outlines how these data will be reviewed by project staff, when they will be reviewed, and how they will be used during the course of the project to adjust the model or its implementation to increase the model's usefulness, generalizability, and potential for sustainability; and
(2) A summative evaluation plan, including a timeline, to collect and analyze data on students and their outcomes over time, both for students with disabilities served by the project and for students with disabilities in a comparison group not receiving project services. The plan must show how the student outcome and implementation data collected by the project will be used separately or in combination to demonstrate the effectiveness of the model.
(j) Collect data necessary to evaluate the outcomes of the project, including the progress of the project in achieving its goals and outcomes, which, at a minimum, must include:
(1) The relevant available RSA-911 Case Service Report data for each student in the project;
(2) The number of students in the work-based learning project;
(3) The number of students in the project who complete at least one work-based learning experience;
(4) The number of work-based learning experiences that each student completes during the project;
(5) The types of work-based learning experiences in which students participated; and
(6) The number of students who attain a recognized post-secondary credential and the type of credentials attained;
(7) The number of students who obtain competitive integrated employment; and
(8) An unduplicated count of students who obtain a recognized postsecondary credential and competitive integrated employment.
To be considered for funding under Proposed Priority 1, an applicant also must provide the following with its application:
(a) A detailed review of the literature that supports the potential effectiveness of the proposed demonstration project, its components, and strategies for work-based learning experiences for students with disabilities;
(b) A logic model;
(c) A description of the applicant's plan for implementing the project, including a description of—
(1) A cohesive, articulated model of partnership and coordination among the participating agencies and organizations;
(2) The coordinated set of effective practices and strategies in the use and development of work-based learning models that are aligned with employment, training, and education programs and reflect the needs of employers and students with disabilities; and
(3) How the proposed project will—
(i) Involve employers in the project design and in partnering with project staff to develop integrated job shadowing, internships, apprenticeships, and other paid and unpaid work-based learning experiences that are designed to increase the preparation of students with disabilities for postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment;
(ii) Conduct outreach activities to identify students with disabilities for whom the work-based learning experiences would enable them to achieve competitive integrated employment; and
(iii) Identify innovative strategies, including development, implementation, and evaluation of approved models, methods, and measures, that will increase the preparation of students with disabilities for postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment;
(d) A description of the methods and criteria that will be used to select the site(s) at which the project activities will be implemented;
(e) Documentation (
(f) A plan for evaluating the project's performance, including an evaluation of the effectiveness of the practices and strategies implemented by the project, in achieving project goals and objectives. Specifically, the evaluation plan must include a description of—
(1) A formative evaluation plan, consistent with the project's logic model, that includes the following:
(i) The key questions to be addressed by the project evaluation and the appropriateness of the methods for how each question will be addressed;
(ii) How the methods of evaluation will provide valid and reliable performance data on relevant outcomes (as defined in this notice), particularly postsecondary and competitive integrated employment outcomes, including the source(s) for the data and the timeline for data collection;
(iii) A clear and credible analysis plan, including a proposed sample size and minimum detectable effect size that aligns with the expected project impact, and an analytic approach for addressing the research questions; and
(iv) How the key components of the project, as well as a measurable threshold for acceptable implementation and outcome data, will be reviewed and used to improve;
(2) A summative evaluation plan, including—
(i) How the outcomes and implementation data collected by the project will be used, separately or in combination, to demonstrate the effectiveness of the model; and
(ii) How the outcomes for students with disabilities served by the project will be compared with the outcomes of students with disabilities not receiving project services.
(g) A plan for systematic dissemination of project findings, templates, resources, and knowledge gained that will assist State and local VR and educational agencies in adapting or replicating the model work-based learning demonstration developed and implemented by the project, which could include elements such as development of a Web site, resources (
(h) An assurance that the employment goal for all students served under this priority will be competitive integrated employment, including customized or supported employment (as defined in this notice); and
(i) An assurance that the project will collaborate with other work-based learning initiatives.
To meet Proposed Priority 2, applicants must meet the following requirements:
(a) Applicants must identify and include a detailed review of up to two cited studies that meet the evidence of promise standard.
(b) The links for the citations submitted for this priority must be provided on the Abstract and Information page of the application.
(c) Applicants must specify on the Abstract and Information page the findings in the studies that are cited as evidence of promise for the proposed project and ensure that the citations and links are from publicly or readily available sources. Studies of fewer than 10 pages may be attached in full under Other Attachments in Grants.gov.
To meet Proposed Priority 3, applicants must describe in their applications how they would meet the following program requirements:
(a) Conduct an independent evaluation (as defined in this notice) of
(b) Use methods of evaluation that will produce evidence about the project's effectiveness that meets the What Works Clearinghouse Evidence Standards with reservations.
(c) Make broadly available the results of any evaluations it conducts of its funded activities, digitally and free of charge, through formal (
(d) Cooperate on an ongoing basis with any technical assistance provided by the Department or its contractor and comply with the requirements of any evaluation of the program conducted by the Department.
We propose one new definition for use in connection with the proposed priorities. The remaining definitions listed in this section are established defined terms in WIOA, the Rehabilitation Act, or 34 CFR part 77. We do not propose to alter those definitions, but list them here for the convenience of the reader.
The Assistant Secretary proposes the following definition for this program. We may apply this definition in any year in which this program is in effect.
(a) Aligns with the skill needs of industries in the economy of the State or regional economy involved;
(b) Prepares an individual to be successful in any of a full range of secondary or postsecondary education options, including apprenticeships registered under the Act of August 16, 1937 (commonly known as the “National Apprenticeship Act”; 50 Stat. 664, chapter 663; 29 U.S.C. 50
(c) Includes counseling to support an individual in achieving the individual's education and career goals;
(d) Includes, as appropriate, education offered concurrently with and in the same context as workforce preparation activities and training for a specific occupation or occupational cluster;
(e) Organizes education, training, and other services to meet the particular needs of an individual in a manner that accelerates the educational and career advancement of the individual to the extent practicable;
(f) Enables an individual to attain a secondary school diploma or its recognized equivalent, and at least one recognized postsecondary credential; and
(g) Helps an individual enter or advance within a specific occupation or occupational cluster.
Source: Section 3(7) of WIOA.
(a) For which an individual—
(1) Is compensated at a rate that—
(i)(A) Is not less than the higher of the rate specified in section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1)) or the rate specified in the applicable State or local minimum wage law; and
(B) Is not less than the customary rate paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by other employees who are not individuals with disabilities, and who are similarly situated in similar occupations by the same employer and who have similar training, experience, and skills; or
(ii) In the case of an individual who is self-employed, yields an income that is comparable to the income received by other individuals who are not individuals with disabilities, and who are self-employed in similar occupations or on similar tasks and who have similar training, experience, and skills; and
(2) Is eligible for the level of benefits provided to other employees;
(b) That is at a location where the employee interacts with other persons who are not individuals with disabilities (not including supervisory personnel or individuals who are providing services to such employee) to the same extent that individuals who are not individuals with disabilities and who are in comparable positions interact with other persons; and
(c) That, as appropriate, presents opportunities for advancement that are similar to those for other employees who are not individuals with disabilities and who have similar positions.
Source: Section 7(5) of the Rehabilitation Act.
(A) Job exploration by the individual;
(B) Working with an employer to facilitate placement including—
(i) Customizing a job description based on current employer needs or on previously unidentified and unmet employer needs;
(ii) Developing a set of job duties, a work schedule and job arrangement, and specifics of supervision (including performance evaluation and review), and determining a job location;
(iii) Representation by a professional chosen by the individual, or self-representation of the individual, in working with an employer to facilitate placement; and
(iv) Providing services and supports at the job location.
Source: Section 7(7) of the Rehabilitation Act.
(i) There is at least one study that is a—
(A) Correlational study with statistical controls for selection bias;
(B) Quasi-experimental design study that meets the What Works Clearinghouse Evidence Standards with reservations; or
(C) Randomized controlled trial that meets the What Works Clearinghouse Evidence Standards with or without reservations.
(ii) The study referenced in paragraph (i) of this definition found a statistically significant or substantively important (defined as a difference of 0.25 standard deviations or larger) favorable association between at least one critical component and one relevant outcome presented in the logic model for the proposed process, product, strategy, or practice.
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
(a) Has a physical or mental impairment which for such individual constitutes or results in a substantial impediment to employment; and
(b) Can benefit in terms of an employment outcome from vocational rehabilitation services provided pursuant to Title I, III, or VI of the Rehabilitation Act.
Source: Section 7(20) of the Rehabilitation Act.
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
Source: Sections 7(30) and 113 of the Rehabilitation Act.
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
(A)(1) Is not younger than the earliest age for the provision of transition services under section 614(d)(1)(A)(i)(VIII) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1414(d)(1)(A)(i)(VIII)); or
(2) If the State involved elects to use a lower minimum age for receipt of pre-employment transition services under the Rehabilitation Act, is not younger than that minimum age; and
(B)(1) Is not older than 21 years of age; or
(2) If the State law for the State provides for a higher maximum age for receipt of services under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1400
(C)(1) Is eligible for, and receiving, special education or related services under Part B of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1411
(2) Is a student who is an individual with a disability, for purposes of section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act.
Source: Section 7(37)(A) of the Rehabilitation Act.
(A)(i) For whom competitive integrated employment has not historically occurred; or
(ii) For whom competitive integrated employment has been interrupted or intermittent as a result of a significant disability; and
(B) Who, because of the nature and severity of their disability, need intensive supported employment services and extended services after the transition described in section (7)(13)(C) of the Rehabilitation Act, in order to perform the work involved.
Source: Section 7(38) of the Rehabilitation Act.
Source: 34 CFR 77.1(c).
We will announce the final priorities, requirements, and definitions in a notice in the
This notice does
Under Executive Order 12866, the Secretary must determine whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action likely to result in a rule that may—
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities in a material way (also referred to as an “economically significant” rule);
(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles stated in the Executive order.
This proposed regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by OMB under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
We have also reviewed this proposed regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—
(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);
(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with
(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);
(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and
(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.
Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”
We are issuing these proposed priorities, requirements, and definitions only on a reasoned determination that their benefits would justify their costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that would maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Department believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.
We also have determined that this regulatory action would not unduly interfere with State, local, and tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.
In accordance with both Executive orders, the Department has assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action. The potential costs are those resulting from statutory requirements and those we have determined as necessary for administering the Department's programs and activities.
The benefits of similar demonstration projects have been well established over the years through the successful completion and dissemination of the results of similar projects. For example, the projects first funded in FY 2007 to demonstrate collaborative practices that lead to postsecondary education and employment of youth with disabilities have served as a rich source of practices for the VR field. These proposed priorities, requirements, and definitions would promote projects that would serve as models in developing and implementing work-based learning strategies for students with disabilities that could be replicated by other State VR agencies so that such agencies could improve postsecondary education and competitive integrated employment outcomes for students with disabilities.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps ensure that: The public understands the Department's collection instructions, respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
These proposed priorities contain information collection requirements that are approved by OMB under the Disability Innovation Fund program—Transition Work-Based Learning Model Demonstrations 1820-0018; this proposed regulation does not affect the currently approved data collection.
This document provides early notification of our specific plans and actions for this program.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to make a finding of attainment by the attainment date for the Klamath Falls, Oregon nonattainment area (the area) based upon quality-assured, quality-controlled, and certified ambient air monitoring data showing that the area has monitored attainment of the 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
The EPA also proposes to approve revisions to Oregon's State Implementation Plan (SIP) consisting of the Klamath Falls Fine Particulate Matter Attainment Plan (attainment plan) and approve and incorporate by reference associated revisions to the Oregon Administrative Rules (OAR),
The attainment plan addressed the nonattainment planning requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act). The attainment plan included comprehensive base year and attainment year emissions inventories for direct PM
Comments must be received on or before May 13, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2013-0005 at
Justin A. Spenillo at (206) 553-6125,
Throughout this document, wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On July 18, 1997, the EPA established the 1997 PM
On October 17, 2006, the EPA strengthened the 24-hour PM
On January 4, 2013, the D.C. Circuit Court issued a decision in
Prior to the January 4, 2013 Court decision, states had worked towards meeting the air quality goals of the 2006 PM
The ODEQ submitted an attainment plan for Klamath Falls on December 12, 2012. The plan included measures to demonstrate attainment in December 2014. Concurrent with the December 31, 2014 deadline for submitting any supplements necessary to address possible subpart 4 elements, Klamath Falls came into attainment based on 2012-2014 monitoring data. Leading up to December 31, 2014 deadline, both the ODEQ and the EPA followed monitoring data closely to ensure that the area was meeting targets consistent with the modeling demonstration submitted in the attainment plan. Because the area was on a path toward attainment by December 2014 and the submitted attainment plan substantively addressed the specific PM
With respect to the requirements for attainment plans, the EPA notes that the general nonattainment area planning requirements are found in subpart 1, and the moderate area planning requirements for particulate matter are found in subpart 4. The EPA has a longstanding general guidance document that interprets the 1990 amendments to the CAA commonly referred to as the “General Preamble” (57 FR 13498, April 16, 1992). The General Preamble addresses the relationship between subpart 1 and subpart 4 requirements and provides recommendations to states for meeting statutory requirements for particulate matter nonattainment planning. Specifically, the General Preamble explains that requirements applicable to moderate area nonattainment SIPs are set forth in subpart 4, but such SIPs must also meet the general nonattainment planning provisions in subpart 1, to the extent these provisions “are not otherwise subsumed by, or integrally related to,” the more specific subpart 4 requirements (57 FR 13538, April 16, 1992). Additionally, the EPA proposed the
The requirements of subpart 1 for attainment plans include: (1) The section 172(c)(1) requirements for reasonably available control measures (RACM), reasonably available control technology (RACT) and attainment demonstrations; (2) the section 172(c)(2) requirement to demonstrate reasonable further progress (RFP); (3) the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories; (4) the section 172(c)(5) requirements for a nonattainment new source review (NSR) permitting program; and (5) the section 172(c)(9) requirement for contingency measures.
The subpart 4 requirements for moderate areas are generally comparable with the subpart 1 requirements and include: (1) The section 189(a)(1)(A) NSR permit program requirements; (2) the section 189(a)(1)(B) requirements for attainment demonstration; (3) the section 189(a)(1)(C) requirements for RACM; and (4) the section 189(c) requirements for RFP and quantitative milestones. In addition, under subpart 4 the moderate area attainment date is no later than the end of the 6th calendar year after designation.
The EPA evaluated the ODEQ's attainment plan for the Klamath Falls area for the 2006 24-hr PM
The Klamath Falls area has a history of successfully addressing particulate matter for over 25 years. In 1987, the EPA designated Klamath Falls a nonattainment area for PM
In 1997, the EPA revised the particulate standard to include PM
Pursuant to sections 179(c) and 188(b)(2) of the Act, the EPA has the responsibility of determining within six months of the applicable attainment date whether nonattainment areas attained the NAAQS based on certified air quality data. The EPA reviewed the PM
Additionally, the EPA is proposing to determine that the area has clean data for the 2006 24-hour PM
The proposed finding of attainment by the attainment date and clean data determination that the air quality data shows attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
In accordance with Sections 172(c) and 189 of the CAA, the attainment plan that the ODEQ submitted for the Klamath Falls area included comprehensive base year and attainment year emissions inventories that addressed direct particulate matter emissions and all particulate matter precursors, analyzed RACM and RACT, demonstrated attainment through selected permanent and enforceable control strategies, included required contingency measures, and addressed reasonable further progress and quantitative milestone requirements through the attainment demonstration. The attainment plan's strategy for controlling direct and precursor PM
The rule revisions submitted by the ODEQ and the ordinances passed by Klamath County support the implementation of these control measures in a manner that is both permanent and enforceable. The EPA approved, on August 25, 2015, the baseline emissions inventory and control measures associated with this attainment plan (80 FR 51470). By including these measures in the SIP, the state has made them permanent and enforceable, and with the EPA's approval of these control measures on August 25, 2015, the measures have become federally enforceable. This submittal also addresses transportation conformity budgets and the EPA's proposed approval to exclude data from wildfire exceptional events affecting data on September 25, 2009 (for purposes of the attainment demonstration), August 25, 2012, August 28, 2012, August 31, 2012, July 30, 2013, and August 5, 2013 (for purposes of the finding of attainment) that affected the regulatory monitor in Klamath Falls.
The baseline emission inventory requirements were approved in an action completed on August 25, 2015 (80 FR 51470). The approved emissions inventory covered direct PM
The December 12, 2012 attainment plan submitted by the ODEQ included revisions to a number of administrative rules to implement the attainment plan for the Klamath Falls area. These revisions consisted of updates to identify the Klamath Falls
The applicable attainment planning requirements under subpart 4 (section 189(a) and (b)) depend on whether the nonattainment area is classified as moderate or serious. In response to the Court's decision in
The CAA requirements of subpart 4 include a demonstration that a nonattainment area will meet applicable NAAQS within the timeframe provided in the statute (Section 189(c)(1)). For the 2006 PM
Section 189(a)(1)(B) requires that a moderate area nonattainment plan contain either a demonstration that the plan will provide for attainment by the applicable attainment date, or a demonstration that attainment by such date is impracticable. In the attainment demonstration section of the Klamath Falls PM
Using the values in Table 1, results from the roll-forward modeling showed that the control strategies would achieve a future year design value of 35 μg/m
The ODEQ included a number of supplemental analyses in the attainment plan for a weight of evidence demonstration of attainment, as recommended by the EPA's modeling guidance. Attachments 3.3 b-e, g-o, w, and y of the submitted plan (located in the docket) describe the Klamath Falls airshed, the source sector contributions, and the ability of emission controls to reduce PM
The ODEQ identified wood burning emissions as the most significant source sector in the emissions inventory and thus the key source sector to attainment with its readily available emissions reductions. Accordingly, in formulating an emissions control strategy, the ODEQ conducted detailed wood burning surveys for the Klamath Falls area, assessed the contribution of secondary organic aerosol to overall PM
In addition to demonstrating attainment using the roll-forward model, the ODEQ also conducted an unmonitored area analysis (UMAA) to demonstrate that other parts of the nonattainment area would also meet the 2006 24-hour PM
All attainment demonstrations must project air quality below the standard using standard modeling techniques. The ODEQ submitted a modeled demonstration that is consistent with the recommendations contained in EPA's modeling guidance document “Guidance on the Use of Models and Other Analyses for Demonstrating Attainment of Air Quality Goals for Ozone, PM
To determine which control strategies to implement, the ODEQ began by characterizing the area's emissions. Along with developing the 2008 baseline emissions inventory, the ODEQ also conducted a series of analyses to better understand particulate matter in Klamath Falls. This included conducting and reviewing studies, analyzing filter samples, and modeling.
For modeling attainment in Klamath Falls, the ODEQ used a roll-forward model as the basis for projecting future design values and the effect of control strategies. A standard roll-forward model assumes all sources contribute to the Peterson School monitor in proportion to their weight in the emissions inventory. This is a reasonable assumption for most source categories which were mostly direct PM
The relative change in modeled, species-specific PM
The ODEQ applied the species-specific RRFs to the baseline 2006-2010 monitored data based on the EPA's guidance to estimate 2014 design values. The modeling projected an attainment date of December 2014 which the area achieved. The EPA carefully evaluated the ODEQ's modeling demonstration and concluded that it adequately meets the current EPA modeling requirements, and uses acceptable modeling techniques to project attainment by the December 2014 attainment date.
In addition, the EPA believes that the attainment demonstration modeling submitted by the ODEQ meets subpart 4 requirements. First, section 189(a)(1)(B) provides that for a moderate nonattainment area, a state must submit either a demonstration (including air quality modeling) that the plan will provide for attainment by the applicable attainment date or a demonstration that attainment by such date is impracticable. The applicable attainment date for moderate areas in section 188(c)(1) of subpart is as expeditiously as practicable but no later than the end of the sixth calendar year after the area's designation, or, as applied to Klamath Falls, December 2015. The ODEQ's modeling demonstrated attainment by December 2014, which is a year earlier than the December 2015 attainment deadline. Second, the modeling relied upon by the ODEQ included both direct PM
In evaluating the Klamath Falls attainment plan under the requirements of subpart 4, control of direct PM
The EPA's interpretation of section 189(e) and section 172 indicates that consideration of all precursors is necessary for PM
While subpart 4 expressly requires control of precursors from major stationary sources where direct PM from major sources is controlled unless certain conditions are met, other sources of precursors may also need to be controlled for the purposes of demonstrating attainment as expeditiously as practicable in a given area. Thus, a state should evaluate all economically and technologically feasible control measures for direct PM
As discussed in the EPA's 1992 General Preamble, in the event that a state's attainment plan includes controls on major stationary sources for PM
The General Preamble describes the assessment of precursors as specific to each nonattainment area, and acknowledges that the determination of precursor significance would likely vary based on the characteristics of the area-wide nonattainment problem. The General Preamble further provides that in making a determination regarding the significance of precursors, the EPA will
For the reasons discussed in this section, the EPA believes that the ODEQ's attainment plan adequately evaluated emissions of direct PM
The ODEQ's attainment plan for Klamath Falls focused on controlling direct PM
As described in Section II. Finding of Attainment, the Klamath Falls area met the 2006 24-hour PM
As previously discussed in the Attainment Demonstration section III. E., the ODEQ demonstrated the ability to reduce the emissions in Klamath Falls below 35 μg/m
The ODEQ determined that direct PM
The SANDWICH chemical speciation analysis determined that PM
The 2008 emissions inventory compiled by the ODEQ calculated a direct PM
According to the SANDWICH and PSU analyses secondary PM
The 2008 baseline emission inventory for NO
Other secondary species were similarly small components and were generally emitted by multiple source categories. While VOCs were the largest source of precursor emissions on a pound per day basis (2,910.4 tpy annually; 22,754 lbs/day during wintertime episodes), the anthropogenic secondary organic carbon produced from such emissions only contributed 3% of the PM
With respect to emissions of PM
In summary, the ODEQ provided data and analyses indicating that direct PM
The Klamath Falls attainment plan addressed the RACT/RACM requirement under subpart 1. It did not directly discuss whether the analysis and selection of RACT/RACM also meets the subpart 4 requirements determined to be applicable in
The general SIP planning requirements for nonattainment areas under subpart 1 include section 172(c)(1), which requires implementation of all RACM (including RACT). The CAA section 172(c) indicates that what constitutes RACM or RACT is related to what is necessary for attainment in a given area, as the provision states that nonattainment plans shall provide for attainment of the NAAQS in the area covered by the attainment plan.
The EPA based its remanded 2007 PM
The SIP planning requirements under subpart 4 likewise impose upon states an obligation to develop attainment plans that impose RACM and RACT on sources within a nonattainment area. Section 189(a)(1)(C) requires that states with areas classified as moderate nonattainment areas must have SIP provisions to assure that RACM and RACT level controls are implemented by no later than four years after
The EPA's existing guidance for RACM and RACT under subpart 4 is comparable to the approach that the EPA set forth in the 2007 PM
With respect to RACT requirements, the EPA's existing guidance in the General Preamble: (1) Noted that RACT has historically been defined as “the lowest emission limit that a source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility;” (2) noted that RACT generally applies to stationary sources, both stack and fugitive emissions; (3) suggested that major stationary sources be the minimum starting point for a state's RACT analysis; and (4) recommended that states evaluate RACT not only for major stationary sources, but for other source categories as needed for attainment and considering the feasibility of controls. 57 FR 13540 at 13541, April 16, 1992.
For both RACM and RACT, the EPA notes that an overarching principle is that if a given control measure is not needed to attain the relevant NAAQS in a given area as expeditiously as practicable, then that control measure would not be required as RACM or RACT because it would not be reasonable to impose controls that are not in fact needed for attainment purposes. In both the 2007 PM
In its submitted attainment plan for the Klamath Falls area, the ODEQ addressed the RACM and RACT requirements of subpart 1 as interpreted by the EPA in the remanded 2007 PM
1. First, the ODEQ ascertained that control of direct PM
The EPA agrees that there are not additional reasonable controls available to reduce emissions of SO
2. Second, the ODEQ evaluated the relevant emissions sources in the area. The ODEQ's control strategy focused primarily on RACM from “non-point sources” (
3. Third, the ODEQ has a demonstrated history of implementation success with respect to particulate matter control strategies. Given that the Klamath Falls area devised control measures to address nonattainment for PM
In addition to considering the range of implemented strategies that had effectively controlled emissions to attain the PM
The RACT/RACM adopted and updated by the ODEQ for the Klamath Falls area were projected to reduce the 24-hour PM
As seen in Table 3, the most important control strategies address residential wood combustion because the emissions inventory and source-receptor analyses identified residential wood combustion as the most significant contributor to PM
The woodstove change-out program in Klamath Falls has proven effective for meeting the PM
Previous wood burning curtailment programs were important in helping this area attain the 1987 PM
Together, the woodstove change-out and curtailment programs account for over 95% of the calculated PM
Additional control strategies, listed in Table 3, include the following: The Oregon Heat Smart program, that requires removal of uncertified woodstoves upon the sale of homes (0.3 µg/m
Existing controls on industrial sources are also implemented within the Klamath Falls nonattainment area. The stationary sources identified in the ODEQ's RACT analysis already had limits in place for direct PM
For on-road mobile sources, in the 2014 attainment year inventory the ODEQ projected significant NO
As shown in table 1, the control strategies included in the attainment plan were projected to provide direct PM
4. Fourth, the ODEQ and the KAQAC identified and evaluated a wide range of additional potential control measures as described in the KAQAC report. The KAQAC report evaluated additional control measures for purposes of determining if they could reasonably provide additional substantive emissions reductions. Between March 2011 and February 2012, the KAQAC met 13 times to review the state of air quality in Klamath Falls and develop recommendations of suggested control measures for approval by the Klamath County Commissioners and incorporation into the ODEQ's attainment plan as RACT/RACM. The KAQAC reviewed 79 control measures and evaluated the measures in light of factors such as environmental, health, economic, social, and technological feasibility. The KAQAC's findings and recommendations are summarized in the ODEQ's Klamath Falls attainment plan and presented in attachments 3.3p-q.
Although the ODEQ and Klamath County considered a wide range of additional strategies, a majority of the strategies were eliminated as not reasonable because they were determined to be technologically or economically infeasible. For this reason, many of these control measures were screened out early in the process through application of the EPA's criteria for determination of RACT/RACM, and were therefore not quantified for purposes of determining if they would advance the attainment date by one
In the Klamath Falls Attainment Plan (pages 45-47), the ODEQ applied the primary control measures to the base year design value to demonstrate that they would be able to bring the Klamath Falls future design value below the 35 µg/m
As described in this action, the exceedances at the Peterson School monitor were from direct PM
Under the attainment plan requirements, an area must implement all reasonably available control measures that would advance the date of attainment by one year, or as expeditiously as possible. In the attainment demonstration submitted in the Klamath Falls attainment plan, the ODEQ identified that the area would attain the standard by December 2014. As the area already attained the 2006 24-hr PM
The EPA proposes to find that the ODEQ's attainment plan meets the RACM/RACT requirements for the 2006 PM
The EPA proposes to conclude that the ODEQ's attainment plan analysis sufficiently evaluated the relevant sources and controls and appropriately selected RACM/RACT measures that meet the requirements of subparts 1 and 4 and provided for the timely attainment of the 2006 PM
Contingency measures are additional measures to be implemented in the event that an area fails to attain a standard by its applicable attainment date, or fails to meet Reasonable Further Progress (RFP). These measures must be fully adopted rules or control measures that take effect without any further action by the state or the EPA. Contingency measures should also contain trigger mechanisms and an implementation schedule. In addition, they should be measures not already included in the SIP control strategy, and should provide for emission reductions equivalent to one year of RFP.
The ODEQ developed contingency measures for the Klamath Falls PM
For PM
While the ODEQ's attainment plan was developed to meet the subpart 1 RFP requirements, the EPA is also evaluating the plan to determine whether it meets the subpart 4 quantitative milestones requirement. That section is comparable to the requirements of section 172(c)(1), in that it requires attainment plans under subpart 4 to meet a RFP requirement. However, section 189(c) also provides that an attainment plan should have quantitative milestones which are to be achieved every three years until the area is redesignated to attainment, and which demonstrate reasonable further progress toward attainment by the applicable attainment date. The EPA's General Preamble and Addendum provide guidance interpreting this statutory provision and are useful to evaluate this requirement of subpart 4.
In particular, the EPA's guidance recommendations with respect to section 189(c) include several relevant features: (1) That the control measures comprising the RFP should be implemented and in place to meet the milestone requirement; (2) that it is reasonable for the three year periods for milestones to run from the date that the attainment plan submission is due; and (3) that the precise form quantitative milestones should take is not specified and they may take whatever form would allow progress to be quantified or measured adequately.
First, although not presented as control measures that would achieve reductions by a specified three year milestone, the ODEQ's attainment plan contained control measures that were already implemented and in place and, in fact, were achieving necessary emission reductions to meet RFP and quantitative milestone requirements. For example, the woodstoves change-out program commenced in 2008 and achieved sustained and quantifiable emission reductions between 2008 and 2011. The ODEQ calculated the emissions reductions associated with the number of woodstoves exchanged in each of those years. In addition, the ODEQ quantified the estimated number of woodstove change-outs resulting from implementation of the Heat Smart program and the associated emissions reductions for each calendar year. These values in turn were relied upon to demonstrate attainment of the 2006 24-hour NAAQS by the attainment date (refer to Table 9 and Table 10 in Attachment 3.3a).
Second, even under the more aggressive 18-month statutory attainment plan due date in subpart 4, the control measures in the ODEQ's attainment plan were in place and achieving reductions within three years of submission. The Klamath Falls area was designated nonattainment in November 2009, and under subpart 4 an attainment plan would have been due in June 2011. As noted in the RACM/RACT discussion (section III.E), the attainment plan consisted of control measures including past strategies implemented prior to 2008 and new strategies implemented after 2012. The past strategies included the woodstove change-out program with emission reductions achieved through implementation in 2008-2011, the Oregon Heat Smart program, and the woodstove curtailment program. While not explicitly identified as quantitative measures in the 2012 ODEQ submission, the state relied upon these primary control measures in the attainment plan to provide the bulk of the emissions reductions needed to bring the area into attainment, and were achieving reductions well within three years from the subpart 4 attainment plan submission date. In addition, there is no need to evaluate whether the attainment plan accounts for a second three-year milestone because the plan demonstrates attainment in December 2014 before the occurrence of the second milestone.
Third, the ODEQ's attainment plan provided information sufficient to quantify the amount of emissions reductions to be achieved by pollutant and control measure by the December 2014 attainment date. The quantification of reductions is found in the emissions inventory table in the attainment plan and emissions inventory, as well as calculated from the emissions reductions associated with each control strategy in the attainment demonstration (Table 3, above). Thus, the attainment plan did quantify the emission reductions that would occur at a point in time that was appropriate for a three year milestone, regardless of what the statutory SIP submission date was under either subpart 1 or subpart 4. The ODEQ's attainment plan contained control measures that achieved annual emissions reductions and associated air quality improvements between the time of the nonattainment designation and the time the area attained the standard that are sufficient to demonstrate RFP under subpart 1. The timely implementation of these control measures may be viewed as satisfying the quantitative milestone requirements that apply under subpart 4.
The EPA proposes to approve the submitted Klamath Falls attainment plan as meeting both the RFP and quantitative milestone requirements. The plan provides sufficient data and analyses that demonstrate emission reductions that provide reasonable progress towards attainment in December 2014. The key control strategies for attainment were implemented and achieving emissions reductions prior to the attainment plan due date under subpart 4 and within the three-year quantitative milestone requirement. This is consistent with the purpose of the milestone requirement which is to “provide for emission reductions adequate to achieve the standards by the applicable attainment date” (H.R. Rep. No. 480, 101st Cong. 2d Sess. 267 (1990)). The ODEQ demonstrated progress toward attainment in December 2014 and successfully implemented the control measures expected to achieve the NAAQS by this date. Furthermore, since Klamath Falls has attained the 2006 PM
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires Federal actions in nonattainment and maintenance areas to “conform to” the goals of SIPs. This means that such actions will not cause or contribute to violations of a NAAQS, worsen the severity of an existing violation, or delay timely attainment of any NAAQS or any interim milestone. Actions involving Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) funding or approval are subject to the national transportation conformity rule (40 CFR part 93, subpart A) as well as the Oregon transportation conformity SIP which cites the national rule (77 FR 60627, October 4, 2012). Under this rule, metropolitan planning organizations (MPOs) in nonattainment and maintenance areas coordinate with state air quality and transportation agencies, the EPA, and the FHWA and FTA to demonstrate that their long-range transportation plans (“plans”) and transportation improvement programs (TIPs) conform to applicable SIPs. This is typically determined by showing that estimated emissions from existing and planned highway and transit systems are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budgets (budgets) contained in a SIP.
For motor vehicle emissions budgets to be approvable, they must meet, at a minimum, the EPA's adequacy criteria (40 CFR 93.118(e)(4)). The EPA has reviewed the motor vehicle emissions budgets listed above in Table 4 and found that they are consistent with the attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
The CAA allows for the exclusion of air quality monitoring data from design value calculations when there are exceedances caused by events, such as wildfires, that meet the criteria for an exceptional event identified in the EPA's implementing regulations, the Exceptional Events Rule at 40 CFR 50.14. Emissions from wildfires influenced PM
The EPA proposes to find that the Klamath Falls area attained the 2006 24-hour PM
The EPA is proposing to approve regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the rules described in this preamble and listed in Table 5 below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land in Oregon or any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
EPA is proposing significant new use rules (SNURs) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) for three chemical substances which were the subject of premanufacture notices (PMNs). This action would require persons who intend to manufacture (defined by statute to include import) or process any of the chemical substances for an activity that is designated as a significant new use by this proposed rule to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing that activity. The required notification would provide EPA with the opportunity to evaluate the intended use and, if necessary, to prohibit or limit the activity before it occurs.
Comments must be received on or before May 13, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0388, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture, process, or use the chemical substances contained in this proposed rule. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
Manufacturers (including importers) or processors of one or more subject chemical substances (NAICS codes 325 and 324110),
This action may also affect certain entities through pre-existing import certification and export notification rules under TSCA. Chemical importers are subject to the TSCA section 13 (15 U.S.C. 2612) import certification requirements promulgated at 19 CFR 12.118 through 12.127 and 19 CFR 127.28. Chemical importers must certify that the shipment of the chemical substance complies with all applicable rules and orders under TSCA. Importers of chemicals subject to these SNURs must certify their compliance with the SNUR requirements. The EPA policy in support of import certification appears at 40 CFR part 707, subpart B. In addition, any persons who export or intend to export a chemical substance to a proposed or final rule are subject to the export notification provisions of TSCA section 12(b) (15 U.S.C. 2611(b)) (see § 721.20), and must comply with the export notification requirements in 40 CFR part 707, subpart D.
1.
2.
EPA is proposing these SNURs under TSCA section 5(a)(2) for three chemical substances which were the subject of PMNs P-15-221, P-15-247, and P-15-278. These SNURs would require persons who intend to manufacture or process any of these chemical substances for an activity that is designated as a significant new use to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing that activity. In accordance with the procedures at § 721.160(c)(3)(i), in the
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(2)) authorizes EPA to determine that a use of a chemical substance is a “significant new use.” EPA must make this determination by rule after considering all relevant factors, including the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in Unit III. Once EPA determines that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use, TSCA section 5(a)(1)(B) requires persons to submit a significant new use notice (SNUN) to EPA at least 90 days before they manufacture or process the chemical substance for that use. Persons who must report are described in § 721.5.
General provisions for SNURs appear in 40 CFR part 721, subpart A. These provisions describe persons subject to the rule, recordkeeping requirements, exemptions to reporting requirements, and applicability of the rule to uses occurring before the effective date of the final rule. Provisions relating to user fees appear at 40 CFR part 700. According to § 721.1(c), persons subject to these SNURs must comply with the same SNUN requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as submitters of PMNs under TSCA section 5(a)(1)(A). In particular, these requirements include the information submission requirements of TSCA section 5(b) and 5(d)(1), the exemptions authorized by TSCA section 5(h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(3), and (h)(5), and the regulations at 40 CFR part 720. Once EPA receives a SNUN, EPA may take regulatory action under TSCA section 5(e), 5(f), 6, or 7 to control the activities for which it has received the SNUN. If EPA does not take action, EPA is required under TSCA section 5(g) to explain in the
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA states that EPA's determination that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use must be made after consideration of all relevant factors, including:
• The projected volume of manufacturing and processing of a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use changes the type or form of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use increases the magnitude and duration of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The reasonably anticipated manner and methods of manufacturing, processing, distribution in commerce, and disposal of a chemical substance.
In addition to these factors enumerated in TSCA section 5(a)(2), the statute authorized EPA to consider any other relevant factors.
To determine what would constitute a significant new use for the chemical substances that are the subject of these SNURs, EPA considered relevant information about the toxicity of the chemical substances, likely human exposures and environmental releases associated with possible uses, and the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in this unit.
EPA is proposing significant new use and recordkeeping requirements for three chemical substances in 40 CFR part 721, subpart E. In this unit, EPA provides the following information for each chemical substance:
• PMN number.
• Chemical name (generic name, if the specific name is claimed as CBI).
• Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry number (assigned for non-confidential chemical identities).
• Public comments and EPA's response to comments on the three direct final SNURs
• Basis for the TSCA non-section 5(e) SNURs (
• Tests recommended by EPA to provide sufficient information to evaluate the chemical substance (see Unit VII. for more information).
• CFR citation assigned in the regulatory text section of this proposed rule.
The regulatory text section of this proposed rule specifies the activities designated as significant new uses. Certain new uses, including production volume limits (
During review of the PMNs submitted for the chemical substances that are subject to these SNURs, EPA determined that one or more of the criteria of concern established at § 721.170 were met. For additional discussion on these chemical substances, see Units II. and IV. of this proposed rule.
EPA is proposing these SNURs for specific chemical substances which
• EPA would receive notice of any person's intent to manufacture or process a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use before that activity begins.
• EPA would have an opportunity to review and evaluate data submitted in a SNUN before the notice submitter begins manufacturing or processing a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use.
• EPA would be able to regulate prospective manufacturers or processors of a listed chemical substance before the described significant new use of that chemical substance occurs, provided that regulation is warranted pursuant to TSCA sections 5(e), 5(f), 6, or 7.
Issuance of a SNUR for a chemical substance does not signify that the chemical substance is listed on the TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory (TSCA Inventory). Guidance on how to determine if a chemical substance is on the TSCA Inventory is available on the Internet at
To establish a significant new use, EPA must determine that the use is not ongoing. The chemical substances subject to this proposed rule have undergone premanufacture review. In cases where EPA has not received a notice of commencement (NOC) and the chemical substance has not been added to the TSCA Inventory, no person may commence such activities without first submitting a PMN. Therefore, for chemical substances for which an NOC has not been submitted EPA concludes that the designated significant new uses are not ongoing.
When chemical substances identified in this proposed rule are added to the TSCA Inventory, EPA recognizes that, before the rule is effective, other persons might engage in a use that has been identified as a significant new use. The identities of the three chemical substances subject to this proposed rule have been claimed as confidential and EPA has received no post-PMN
Therefore, EPA designates April 13, 2016 as the cutoff date for determining whether the new use is ongoing. Persons who begin commercial manufacture or processing of the chemical substances for a significant new use identified as of that date would have to cease any such activity upon the effective date of the final rule. To resume their activities, these persons would have to first comply with all applicable SNUR notification requirements and wait until the notice review period, including any extensions, expires. If such a person met the conditions of advance compliance under § 721.45(h), the person would be considered exempt from the requirements of the SNUR. Consult the
EPA recognizes that TSCA section 5 does not require developing any particular test data before submission of a SNUN. The two exceptions are:
1. Development of test data is required where the chemical substance subject to the SNUR is also subject to a test rule under TSCA section 4 (see TSCA section 5(b)(1)).
2. Development of test data may be necessary where the chemical substance has been listed under TSCA section 5(b)(4) (see TSCA section 5(b)(2)).
In the absence of a TSCA section 4 test rule or a TSCA section 5(b)(4) listing covering the chemical substance, persons are required only to submit test data in their possession or control and to describe any other data known to or reasonably ascertainable by them (see 40 CFR 720.50). However, upon review of PMNs and SNUNs, the Agency has the authority to require appropriate testing. Descriptions of tests are provided for informational purposes. EPA strongly encourages persons, before performing any testing, to consult with the Agency pertaining to protocol selection. To access the OCSPP test guidelines referenced in this document electronically, please go to
The recommended tests specified in Unit IV. may not be the only means of addressing the potential risks of the chemical substance. However, submitting a SNUN without any test data may increase the likelihood that EPA will take action under TSCA section 5(e), particularly if satisfactory test results have not been obtained from a prior PMN or SNUN submitter. EPA recommends that potential SNUN submitters contact EPA early enough so that they will be able to conduct the appropriate tests.
SNUN submitters should be aware that EPA will be better able to evaluate SNUNs which provide detailed information on the following:
• Human exposure and environmental release that may result from the significant new use of the chemical substances.
• Potential benefits of the chemical substances.
• Information on risks posed by the chemical substances compared to risks posed by potential substitutes.
According to § 721.1(c), persons submitting a SNUN must comply with the same notification requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as persons submitting a PMN, including submission of test data on health and environmental effects as described in 40 CFR 720.50. SNUNs must be submitted on EPA Form No. 7710-25, generated using e-PMN software, and submitted to the Agency in accordance with the procedures set forth in 40 CFR 720.40 and 721.25. E-PMN software is available electronically at
EPA has evaluated the potential costs of establishing SNUN requirements for potential manufacturers and processors of the chemical substances subject to this proposed rule, during the development of the direct final rule. EPA's complete economic analysis is available in the docket under docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0388.
This proposed rule would establish SNURs for three chemical substances that were the subject of PMNs. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled
According to PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
The information collection requirements related to this proposed rule have already been approved by OMB pursuant to PRA under OMB control number 2070-0012 (EPA ICR No. 574). This proposed rule would not impose any burden requiring additional OMB approval. If an entity were to submit a SNUN to the Agency, the annual burden is estimated to average between 30 and 170 hours per response. This burden estimate includes the time needed to review instructions, search existing data sources, gather and maintain the data needed, and complete, review, and submit the required SNUN.
Send any comments about the accuracy of the burden estimate, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden, including through the use of automated collection techniques, to the Director, Collection Strategies Division, Office of Environmental Information (2822T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001. Please remember to include the OMB control number in any correspondence, but do not submit any completed forms to this address.
On February 18, 2012, EPA certified pursuant to RFA section 605(b) (5 U.S.C. 601
1. A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
2. The SNUR submitted by any small entity would not cost significantly more than $8,300.
A copy of that certification is available in the docket for this proposed rule.
This proposed rule is within the scope of the February 18, 2012 certification. Based on the Economic Analysis discussed in Unit IX. And EPA's experience promulgating SNURs (discussed in the certification), EPA believes that the following are true:
• A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
• Submission of the SNUN would not cost any small entity significantly more than $8,300.
Therefore, the promulgation of the SNUR would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Based on EPA's experience with proposing and finalizing SNURs, State, local, and Tribal governments have not been impacted by these rulemakings, and EPA does not have any reasons to believe that any State, local, or Tribal government would be impacted by this proposed rule. As such, EPA has determined that this proposed rule would not impose any enforceable duty, contain any unfunded mandate, or otherwise have any effect on small governments subject to the requirements of UMRA sections 202, 203, 204, or 205 (2 U.S.C. 1501
This proposed rule would not have a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999).
This proposed rule would not have Tribal implications because it is not expected to have substantial direct effects on Indian Tribes. This proposed rule would not significantly nor uniquely affect the communities of Indian Tribal governments, nor would it involve or impose any requirements that affect Indian Tribes. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this proposed rule.
This proposed rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because this is not an economically significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866, and this proposed rule does not address environmental health or safety risks disproportionately affecting children.
This proposed rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because this proposed rule is not expected to affect energy supply, distribution, or use and because this proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
In addition, since this proposed rule would not involve any technical standards, NTTAA section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note), would not apply to this proposed rule.
This proposed rule does not entail special considerations of environmental justice related issues as delineated by Executive Order 12898, entitled “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations” (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, it is proposed that 40 CFR chapter I be amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2625(c).
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) NIOSH-certified power air purifying respirator with a hood or helmet and with appropriate gas/vapor (acid gas, organic vapor, or substance specific) cartridges in combination with HEPA filters.
(B) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece, hood, or helmet.
(C) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator with a full facepiece.
(ii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) NIOSH-certified power air purifying respirator with a hood or helmet and with appropriate gas/vapor (acid gas, organic vapor, or substance specific) cartridges in combination with HEPA filters.
(B) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece, hood, or helmet.
(C) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator with a full facepiece.
(ii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved]
(b)
(1)
(2)
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement.
This project includes specific changes to existing over-snow motorized and non-snow mechanized transport (including bicycles) on public access routes (roads and trails), areas, and prohibitions within the Ten Lakes Travel Management Project area.
Comments concerning the scope of the analysis must be received 30 days from the date of publication of this notice in the
Send written comments to Project Leader Amanda Villwock, Eureka Ranger Station, 949 US Hwy 93 N, Eureka, MT 59917. Comments may also be sent via email to
Amanda Villwock, Project Leader, at 406-296-7145 or
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m., Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of this project is to develop a travel management plan (winter and summer) for the Ten Lakes Wilderness Study Area (WSA) to comply with the terms of the 2007 Settlement Agreement with the Montana Wilderness Association and to maintain wilderness character and the potential for inclusion in the National Wilderness Preservation system that existed in 1977. The project boundary contains the WSA and adjacent areas that are common entrance points to the WSA.
Alternative 2, the Proposed Action, includes summer and winter travel management. This includes over-snow vehicle travel and non-snow trail management (mechanized and non-mechanized).
Over-snow vehicle travel contains two distinct seasons. Season 1 (December 1-March 31) proposes to allow over-snow vehicle travel on 36,700 acres and 51.6 miles of designated over-snow motorized routes. Approximately 15,840 of those acres are within the WSA, or 46 percent of the WSA. Season 2 (April 1-May 31) proposes to allow over-snow vehicles on 43.2 miles of designated motorized over-snow vehicle routes, with no travel off designated routes. No travel would occur within the WSA.
Northern Region Forest Service Manual Supplement No. 2300-2008-1, section 2329 (Management of Wilderness Study Areas) states that mountain bikes may be allowed on trails that had established motor bike use in 1977, or on other non-motorized trails as long as the aggregate amount of mountain bike use maintains the wilderness character of the WSA as it existed in 1977 and maintains potential for inclusion in the National Wilderness Preservation System. In 1977, 15.9 miles of trail in the area that would become the WSA were open to motorized vehicles yearlong. Thus, manual direction could allow for some mechanized use in the WSA.
Non-snow trail management proposes 20.3 miles of trail available for mechanized use, or 24% of the project area, with 8.7 miles of trail within the WSA. All trails will allow non-motorized and non-mechanized uses like hiking and horses. No non-snow motorized use is proposed.
The Responsible Official is the Fortine District Ranger.
The framework for the Decision includes determining the appropriate routes and areas of over-snow motorized and non-snow mechanized use in the Ten Lakes WSA, that will maintain its wilderness character and the potential for inclusion in the National Wilderness Preservation system as they existed in 1977. Decisions made outside of the WSA are relative to common access points to the WSA and how they effect levels of use and enforcement in the WSA.
Issues identified by the interdisciplinary team and scoping comments include effects to wilderness character as it existed in 1977, effects to the local economy, effects to the human environment, and effects to wildlife from motorized use.
This notice of intent initiates a second scoping process, which guides the development of the environmental impact statement. Scoping occurred in April of 2015, with a letter and information about the Proposed Action sent to interested parties. Comments received led to the development of the Alternatives and the decision to analyze the project in an environmental impact statement.
It is important that reviewers provide their comments at such times and in such manner that they are useful to the agency's preparation of the environmental impact statement. Therefore, comments should be provided prior to the close of the comment period and should clearly articulate the reviewer's concerns and contentions.
Comments received in response to this solicitation, including names and addresses of those who comment, will be part of the public record for this proposed action. Comments submitted anonymously will be accepted and considered, however.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The South Central Idaho Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Jerome, Idaho. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held on May 11, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Idaho Department of Fish and Game, 324 South 417 East, Jerome, Idaho.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Julie Thomas, Designated Federal Officer, by phone at 208-737-3262 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is:
1. Oral presentations from individuals or groups proposing projects for funding;
2. A question and answer period for proponents; and
3. Reports from other projects presented at the end of the day.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by April 18, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time for oral comments must be sent to Julie Thomas, Designated Federal Officer, Sawtooth National Forest Supervisors Office 2647 Kimberly Road East, Twin Falls, Idaho, 83301; by email to
National Institute of Standards and Technology, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of Proposed Amendment to Privacy Act System of Records and Deletion of a System of Records: COMMERCE/NIST-1, NIST Associates.
This notice announces the Department of Commerce's (Department's) proposal to amend and combine the systems of records entitled “COMMERCE NBS-1” and “COMMERCE NBS-3” into the system of records entitled “NIST-1, NIST Associates.” The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is amending these systems of records to combine and update these two prior SORNs, and to facilitate the processing, tracking, management, planning, control, support of, and reporting about NIST Associates (NA) during their tenure at NIST. The system of records entitled “COMMERCE/NBS-3, Research Associates,” will be abolished upon final publication of the
To be considered, written comments must be submitted on or before May 13, 2016. Unless comments are received, the amended system of records will become effective as proposed on May 23, 2016. If comments are received, the Department will publish a subsequent notice in the
Comments may be mailed to: Director, Management and Organization Office, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive-Stop 1710, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
Director, Management and Organization Office, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive-Stop 1710, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
NAs can be either a domestic or foreign associate. A domestic associate is any non-NIST employee who is a U.S. citizen, comes to a NIST campus and/or uses NIST information technology resources, and is either working in a lab (for any period of time) or will be on campus for more than ten working days. A foreign associate is any technically qualified person who is not a U.S. citizen and is sponsored by an organization other than NIST, or is self-employed, or is working at NIST under the auspices of a NIST funding agreement (contract, grant, cooperative agreement, or simplified acquisition), and collaborates with NIST on research projects and/or technical activities of mutual interest. A foreign associate may be an employee of a foreign government agency, federal, state, or local government agency, for-profit company, non-profit organization (including a college or university), or be a postgraduate researcher or graduate student, or be self-employed.
COMMERCE/NIST-1, NIST Associates
None.
Locations where the primary records are maintained:
• Domestic Guest Researcher (DGR) Records-NIST Technology Partnerships Office (TPO), 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• Foreign Guest Researcher (FGR) Records-NIST International and Academic Affairs Office (IAAO), 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• NIST Research Experience for Teachers (RET) Records-NIST International and Academic Affairs Office (IAAO), 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• Facility User (FU) Records-NIST Center for Neutron research, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• Research Associates (RA) Records as listed on Cooperative Research and Development Agreements (CRADA)-NIST Technology Partnerships Office, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• Sole Proprietorship Contractors (SPC)-NIST Office of Acquisition Agreements Management, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
Individuals not employed by NIST but having access to NIST facilities under various cooperative, collaborative, and contractual agreements. These include but in the future may not be limited to Foreign and Domestic Guest Researchers, Research Associates, Facility Users, Contractor Employee Personnel, Sole Proprietorship Contractors, Employees of Other Government Agencies, Student Program Participants, and other Collaborators.
Agreements between NIST and NAs. Typical data also includes but is not limited to name, address, date of birth, social security number, personal contact information, email address, telephone numbers, other names, education, visa and passport information, work location, financial and pay data, project descriptions, etc.
27 Stat. 395 and 31 Stat. 1039, and all existing, applicable NIST and Department policies, regulations and directives concerning the tracking, security processing, and support of NAs during their tenure at NIST.
The purpose is to facilitate the processing, tracking, management, planning, control, support of and reporting about NAs during their tenure at NIST.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act, all or a portion of the records or information contained in this system may be disclosed to authorized entities, as is determined to be relevant and necessary, outside the Department as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
1. In the event that a system of records maintained by the Department to carry out its functions indicates a violation or potential violation of law or contract, whether civil, criminal or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or particular program statute or contract, or rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant thereto, or the necessity to protect an interest of the Department, the relevant records in the system of records may be referred, as a routine use, to the appropriate agency, whether federal, state, local or foreign, charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute or contract, or rule, regulation or order issued pursuant thereto, or protecting the interest of the Department.
2. A record from this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to a federal, state or local agency maintaining civil, criminal or other relevant enforcement information or other pertinent information, such as current licenses, if necessary to obtain information relevant to a Department decision concerning the assignment, hiring or retention of an individual, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant or other benefit.
3. A record from this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to a federal, state, local, or international agency, in response to its request, in connection with the assignment, hiring or retention of an individual, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an individual, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by the requesting agency, to the extent that the information is relevant and necessary to the requesting agency's decision on the matter.
4. A record from this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, in the course of presenting evidence to a court, magistrate or administrative tribunal, including disclosures to opposing counsel in the course of settlement negotiations.
5. A record in this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to a Member of Congress submitting a request involving an individual when the individual has requested assistance from the Member with respect to the subject matter of the record.
6. A record in this system of records which contains medical information may be disclosed, as a routine use, to the medical advisor of any individual submitting a request for access to the record under the Act and 15 CFR part 4b if, in the sole judgment of the Department, disclosure could have an adverse effect upon the individual, under the provision of 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(3) and implementing regulations at 15 CFR part 4b.
7. A record in this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to the Office of Management and Budget in connection with the review of private relief legislation as set forth in OMB Circular No. A-19 at any stage of the legislative coordination and clearance process as set forth in that Circular.
8. A record in this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to the Department of Justice in connection with determining whether disclosure thereof is required by the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
9. A record in this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to a contractor of the Department having need for the information in the performance of the contract, but not operating a system of records within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 552a(m).
10. A record in this system may be transferred, as a routine use, to the Office of Personnel Management: for personnel research purposes; as a data source for management information; for the production of summary descriptive statistics and analytical studies in support of the function for which the records are collected and maintained; or for related manpower studies.
11. A record from this system of records may be disclosed, as a routine use, to the Administrator, General Services Administration (GSA), or his designee, during an inspection of records conducted by GSA as part of that agency's responsibility to recommend improvements in records management practices and programs, under authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and § 2906. Such disclosure shall be made in accordance with the GSA regulations governing inspection of records for this purpose, and any other relevant (
12. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to appropriate agencies, entities and persons when: (1) It is suspected or determined that the security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has been compromised; (2) the Department has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed compromise there is a risk of harm to economic or property interests, identity theft or fraud, or harm to the security or integrity of this system or whether systems or programs (whether maintained by the Department or another agency or entity) that rely upon the compromised information; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Department's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
Disclosure to consumer reporting agencies pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12) may be made from this system to “consumer reporting agencies” as defined in the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)) and the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966 (31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3)).
NA information is stored and maintained in electronic form in system folders and/or databases, within a controlled environment with access restricted to authorized personnel (see Safeguards below for full list of those with access to system).
Records are retrieved by name and/or social security number.
Privacy Act data,
Levels of access to NAIS Privacy Act data are granted to individuals based on NA processing roles and responsibilities that define specific mission-related needs-to-know. Included in these roles and responsibilities are the following:
a. Initiators—those creating and inputting new data records.
b. Approving Officials—those signing off on NA agreements.
c. Reviewing Officials—those reviewing NA agreements but not signing off.
d. Records Updaters—those directed to update or correct information in NA records.
Physical security and IT security of the NAIS IT assets is assured by all relevant NIST policies and procedures that are applicable to the e-Approval infrastructure of which NAIS is an IT application.
Current NIST and Department policies and regulations concerning the retention and disposition of Privacy Act data apply.
• For DGRs and RAs, the System Manager will be appointed by the Director, NIST Technology Partnerships Office (TPO) from TPO staff. DGR agreements (NIST-1296) are maintained by the Office of Human Resource Management Onboarding Office, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• For FGRs and all other foreign NAs, the System Manager will be appointed by the Director, NIST International and Academic Affairs Office (IAAO) from IAAO staff, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• For all Contractor Employees and SPCs, the Associate Director for Management Resources (ADMR) is the System Manager; the ADMR may delegate this duty to a staff member, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• For FU Records, the System Manager is the Director for the NIST Center for Neutron Research, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• For Employees of Other Government Agencies, the System Manager is the Director, Office of Human Resources Management, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• For Student Program Participants, depending upon the program, the System Manager is the Director, Office of Human Resources Management, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
• For RETs Records, the System Manager is NIST International and Academic Affairs Office (IAAO), 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899
Information may be obtained from the Director, Management and Organization Office, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive-Stop 1710, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
Requests from individuals should be addressed to the same address provided in the Notification Procedure above.
The Department's rules for access, for contesting content, and for appealing initial determinations by the individuals concerned appear in 15 CFR part 4b. Use same address provided in the Notification Procedure above.
Information that may be entered into the NAIS will come from the subject individuals and those authorized by these individuals to furnish information.
None.
International Trade Administration, DOC.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a meeting of the Environmental Technologies Trade Advisory Committee (ETTAC).
The teleconference meeting is scheduled for Tuesday, May 3, 2016, at 3:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT). Please register by 5:00 p.m. EDT on Friday, April 29, 2016 to listen in on the teleconference meeting.
The meeting will be held via teleconference. For logistical reasons, all participants are required to register in advance by the date specified above. Please contact Ms. Maureen Hinman at the contact information below to register and obtain call-in information.
Ms. Maureen Hinman, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries (OEEI), International Trade Administration, Room 4053, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (Phone: 202-482-0627; Fax: 202-482-5665; email:
The meeting will take place from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. EDT. The general meeting is open to the public and time will be permitted for public comment from 4:00-4:30 p.m. EDT. Those interested in attending must provide notification by Friday, April 29, 2016 at 5:00 p.m. EDT, via the contact information provided above. Written comments concerning ETTAC affairs are welcome any time before or after the meeting. Minutes will be available within 90 days of this meeting.
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of charter renewal.
On March 25, 2016, the Department of Commerce Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Administration renewed the charter for the Manufacturing Council (Council) for a two-year period, ending March 24, 2018. The Council is a federal advisory committee under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2).
Archana Sahgal, Director, ITA Office of Advisory Committees and Industry Outreach, Room 4043, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: 202-482-4501, email:
The Manufacturing Council (Council) was established by the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) pursuant to duties imposed by 15 U.S.C. 1512 upon the Department, in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. App., and with the concurrence of the General Services Administration. In renewing the Council, the Department affirms that the advisory committee is necessary and in the public interest.
The Council shall identify and recommend ways for the U.S. Government to respond to the challenges facing United States manufacturers and shall identify and recommend programs and policies to help United States manufacturers maintain competitiveness both at home and abroad.
The Council functions solely as an advisory committee in accordance with the provisions of FACA. In particular, the Council shall advise the Secretary on government policies and programs that affect United States manufacturing and provide a means of ensuring regular contact between the U.S. Government and the manufacturing sector. The Council shall act as a liaison among the stakeholders represented by the membership, and may provide a forum for those stakeholders on current and emerging issues in the manufacturing sector. The Council shall recommend ways to ensure that the United States remains the preeminent destination for investment in manufacturing throughout the world.
The Council shall report to the Secretary on its activities and recommendations regarding United States manufacturing. In creating the reports, the Council should: Survey and evaluate the manufacturing activities of the stakeholders represented by the membership; identify and examine specific problems facing the manufacturing industry; examine the needs of the industry to expand the Council's efforts; and recommend specific solutions to these problems and needs.
Additional information regarding the Council is available at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On October 7, 2015, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published in the
Hermes Pinilla or Minoo Hatten, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3477 or (202) 482-1690, respectively.
On October 3, 2013, the Department published the
The Department gave interested parties an opportunity to comment on the
We conducted these reviews in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and 751(a)(2)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).
The merchandise subject to the antidumping duty order is freshwater crawfish tail meat, which is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings 1605.40.10.10, 1605.40.10.90, 0306.19.00.10, and 0306.29.00.00. On February 10, 2012, the Department added HTSUS classification number 0306.29.01.00 to the scope description pursuant to a request by U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP). The HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes only. The written description of the scope is dispositive. A full description of the scope of the order is contained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum,
All issues raised in the case briefs by parties to these reviews are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised is attached to this notice as an appendix. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically
For the final results of the administrative review, we determine that the following percentage weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period September 1, 2013, through August 31, 2014:
For the final results of the new shipper reviews, the Department determines that a dumping margin of 42.45 percent exists for merchandise produced and exported by Hubei Yuesheng Aquatic Products Co., Ltd. and a dumping margin of 26.10 percent exists for merchandise produced and exported by Weishan Hongda Aquatic Food Co., Ltd., covering the period September 1, 2013, through August 31, 2014.
The Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by these reviews.
For these final results, we divided the total dumping margins (calculated as the difference between normal value and export price) for each of the respondents' importers or customers by the total number of kilograms the exporter sold to that importer or customer. We will direct CBP to assess the resulting per-kilogram dollar amount against each kilogram of merchandise in each of that importer's/customer's entries during the review period.
For entries that were not reported in the U.S. sales databases submitted by companies individually examined during these reviews, the Department will instruct CBP to liquidate such entries at the PRC-wide rate. We intend to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of these final results of reviews.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of the administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For subject merchandise exported by the companies listed above, the cash deposit rate will be the rate
With respect to Hubei Yuesheng, a respondent in the new shipper review, the Department established a combination cash deposit rate for this company consistent with its practice, as follows: (1) For subject merchandise produced and exported by Hubei Yuesheng the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the final results of the new shipper review; (2) for subject merchandise exported by Hubei Yuesheng, but not produced by Hubei Yuesheng, the cash deposit rate will be the rate for the PRC-wide entity; and (3) for subject merchandise produced by Hubei Yuesheng, but not exported by Hubei Yuesheng, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the exporter.
With respect to Hongda, a respondent in the new shipper review, the Department established a combination cash deposit rate for this company consistent with its practice, as follows: (1) For subject merchandise produced and exported by Hongda the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the final results of the new shipper review; (2) for subject merchandise exported by Hongda, but not produced by Hongda, the cash deposit rate will be the rate for the PRC-wide entity; and (3) for subject merchandise produced by Hongda, but not exported by Hongda, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the exporter.
These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
We intend to disclose the calculations performed regarding these final results within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
These final results of reviews are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1), 751(a)(2)(B)(iv), 751(a)(3), 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h), 351.214 and 351.221(b)(4).
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of an opportunity to apply for membership on the United States Investment Advisory Council.
The Secretary of Commerce has established the first-ever federal advisory committee to solicit input on strategies to attract and retain foreign direct investment to the United States, the United States Investment Advisory Council (IAC). The establishment of this federal advisory committee is necessary to provide input to the Secretary of Commerce on the development and implementation of strategies and programs to attract and retain foreign investment in the United States and to support the position of the United States as the world's preeminent destination for foreign direct investment. The Department of Commerce is seeking applications for membership on the IAC.
All applications for immediate consideration for appointment must be received by the Office of Advisory Committees and Industry Outreach by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT) on May 10, 2016. After that date, ITA will continue to accept applications under the notice for a period of up to two years from the deadline to fill any vacancies that may arise.
Please submit applications by email to
Office of Advisory Committees and Industry Outreach, United States Investment Advisory Council Executive Secretariat, Room 4043, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington DC 20230,
The United States Investment Advisory Council (IAC) is established in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. App., to advise the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) on matters relating to the promotion and retention of foreign direct investment in the United States (FDI).
The Department of Commerce, International Trade Administration, Office of Advisory Committees and Industry Outreach, is accepting applications for membership on the IAC. The IAC functions solely as an
The IAC shall consist of no more than twenty members appointed by the Secretary. Members shall represent companies and organizations investing, seeking to invest, seeking foreign investors, or facilitating investment across many sectors, including but not limited to:
U.S.-incorporated companies that are majority-owned by foreign companies or by a foreign individual or individuals, or that generate significant foreign direct investment (
U.S. companies or entities whose business includes FDI-related activities or the facilitation of FDI; and
Economic development organizations and other U.S. governmental and non-governmental organizations and associations whose missions or activities include the promotion or facilitation of FDI.
Members shall be selected based on their ability to carry out the objectives of the IAC, in accordance with applicable Department of Commerce guidelines, in a manner that ensures that the IAC is balanced in terms of points of view, demographics, industry subsector, geography of the source and the destination of the FDI, and company size. Members shall represent a broad range of products and services and shall be drawn from large, medium, and small enterprises, private-sector organizations involved in investment, and other investment-related entities including non-governmental organizations, associations, and economic development organizations.
Priority may be given to executives (Chief Executive Officer, Executive Chairman, President, or comparable level of responsibility).
Members shall serve in a representative capacity, representing the views and interests of their sponsoring entity and those of their particular sector (if applicable). Members are not special government employees and will receive no compensation for their participation in IAC activities. Members will not be reimbursed for travel expenses related to IAC activities. Appointments to the IAC shall be made without regard to political affiliation. Because the IAC will advise the Secretary on U.S. international competitiveness in attracting and retaining FDI, each member must be a U.S. national.
Each member shall be appointed for a term of two years and will serve at the pleasure of the Secretary. The Secretary may at his/her discretion reappoint any member to an additional term or terms, provided that the member proves to work effectively on the IAC and that his/her knowledge and advice is still needed.
The Secretary shall designate a Chair and Vice Chair from among the members.
The IAC will meet a minimum of two times a year with, to the extent practical, additional meetings called at the discretion of the Secretary or his/her designee. Meetings will be held in Washington, DC or elsewhere in the United States, or by teleconference, as feasible. Members are expected to attend a majority of IAC meetings.
To be considered for membership, submit the following information by 5:00 p.m. EDT on May 10, 2016 to the email address listed in the
1. Name and title of the individual requesting consideration.
2. A sponsor letter from the applicant on the sponsoring entity's letterhead containing a brief statement of why the applicant should be considered for membership on the IAC. This sponsor letter should also address the applicant's experience and leadership related to foreign direct investment.
3. The applicant's personal resume and short bio (less than 300 words).
4. An affirmative statement that the applicant meets all eligibility criteria, including an affirmative statement that the applicant is not required to register as a foreign agent under the Foreign Agents Registration Act of 1938, as amended.
5. Information regarding the ownership and control of the sponsoring entity, including the stock holdings as appropriate.
6. The sponsoring entity's size, place of incorporation, product or service line, major markets in which the entity operates, and the entity's export or import experience.
7. A profile of the entity's foreign direct investment activities, including investment activities, investment plans, investment-facilitation activities, or other foreign direct investment activities.
8. Brief statement describing how the applicant will contribute to the work of the IAC based on his or her unique experience and perspective (not to exceed 100 words).
9. All relevant contact information, including mailing address, fax, email, phone number, and support staff information where relevant.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective April 13, 2016.
The Department of Commerce (“Department”) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain steel grating (“steel grating”) from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”) for the period of review (“POR”) July 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015. This review covers two PRC companies.
Lilit Astvatsatrian, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6412.
The Department published the notice of initiation of this administrative review on September 2, 2015.
The Department has exercised its discretion to toll all administrative deadlines due to the recent closure of the Federal Government because of Snowstorm “Jonas.” Thus, all of the deadlines in this segment of the proceeding have been extended by four business days. The revised deadline for the preliminary results of review is now April 7, 2016.
The products covered by this order are certain steel grating, consisting of two or more pieces of steel, including load-bearing pieces and cross pieces, joined by any assembly process.
The Department conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”). For a full discussion of the decisions taken in these preliminary results,
Ningbo Haitian failed to submit a separate rate application or separate rate certification. Therefore, the Department preliminarily determines that Ningbo Haitian has not demonstrated its eligibility for a separate rate status and is part of the PRC-wide entity.
Yantai Xinke submitted a timely-filed certification that it had no exports, sales, or entries of subject merchandise during the POR.
Consistent with our practice in NME cases, the Department is not rescinding this administrative review for Yantai Xinke, but intends to complete the review and issue appropriate instructions to CBP based on the final results of the review.
The Department preliminarily determines that Ningbo Haitian is not eligible for separate rates status. Moreover, the Department preliminarily determines that Yantai Xinke did not have reviewable transactions during the POR.
Interested parties are invited to comment on the preliminary results and may submit case briefs and/or written comments, filed electronically using ACCESS, within 30 days of the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii).
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties, who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, filed electronically using ACCESS. Electronically filed case briefs/written comments and hearing requests must be received successfully in their entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Unless extended, the Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act.
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
Additionally, pursuant to the Department's practice in NME cases, if we continue to determine that Yantai Xinke had no shipments of subject merchandise, any suspended entries of subject merchandise from Yantai Xinke will be liquidated at the PRC-wide rate.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For previously investigated or reviewed PRC and non-PRC exporters, which are not under review in this segment of the proceeding but which have separate rates, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the exporter-specific rate published for the most recent period; (2) for all PRC exporters of subject merchandise that have not been found to be entitled to a separate rate, including Ningbo Haitian, the cash deposit rate will be the PRC-wide rate of 145.18 percent; and (3) for all non-PRC exporters of subject merchandise, which have not received their own rate, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the PRC exporter(s) that supplied that non-PRC exporter. These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213.
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Commerce.
Notice; request for information.
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is establishing the Non-destructive Evaluation Techniques for Assessing alkali-silica reaction (ASR) Degradation of Concrete Consortium (“Consortium”) and invites organizations to participate in this Consortium. The Consortium will examine non-destructive evaluation (NDE) technologies that can be used to determine the presence and the evolution of ASR in concrete members. This notice is the initial step for the Consortium to provide participants' access to NIST concrete specimens constructed as large reinforced concrete blocks with ASR reactive aggregates (“NIST ASR Specimens”). Participants will use NIST ASR Specimens to determine whether NDE technologies are effective in identifying and quantifying degree of expansion and degradation of concrete members due to ASR. Participation in this Consortium is open to all eligible organizations, as described below.
NIST will accept responses for participation in this Consortium from prospective participants until May 13, 2016.
Information in response to this notice and requests for additional information about the Consortium can be directed via mail to Fahim Sadek, NIST Consortium Manager, Engineering Laboratory, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 8611, Gaithersburg, Maryland 20899, or via electronic mail to
For further information about partnership opportunities or about terms and conditions of NIST's Cooperative Research and Development Agreement (CRADA), please contact Honeyeh Zube, CRADA and License Officer at the National Institute of Standards and Technology's Technology Partnerships Office, by written correspondence to 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 2200, Gaithersburg, Maryland 20899, by electronic mail to
ASR is a concrete degradation mechanism in which the alkalis that are typically found in Portland cement react with certain amorphous or micro-crystalline siliceous phases in the aggregate and, in the presence of moisture, form an expansive gel. The gel generates macroscopic expansions within the concrete, which causes the concrete to crack and change its mechanical properties. NIST and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) are engaged in ongoing research to develop a standardized method for quantifying the degree of degradation resulting from ASR. NIST's research includes the construction of four large reinforced concrete specimens with a length of 16 feet and a cross section of 3.5 feet by 6 feet. Three of the specimens will be cast with reactive aggregates resulting in low-, mid-, and high-ASR expansion, while the fourth specimen will be cast with non-reactive aggregates. The NIST ASR Specimens will be conditioned in a large curing chamber at the NIST, under controlled temperature and humidity, for a duration of three (3) years.
The purpose of this Consortium is for participants to evaluate technologies that can be used to quantify the magnitude and evolution of expansion and degradation in structural concrete members. The intent is for eligible participants to use the NIST ASR Specimens as a testbed, free of charge, for experimenting with various non-invasive, non-destructive techniques to detect and monitor the progress of the concrete degradation over time.
To ensure safe laboratory procedures, each participant will need to conduct his/her operations in a manner consistent with NIST's safety policies and procedures. The participant will need to provide information regarding the technical qualifications of his/her personnel who would conduct laboratory work at NIST (“Participant Project Team”). Furthermore, the participant will need to provide a proposed safety standard operation procedure (SSOP) that would require approval from the NIST Consortium Manager. Each participant will be responsible for its Participant Project Team. Each member of the Participant Project Team working in the laboratory housing the NIST ASR Specimens will be required to take a one-time laboratory safety awareness training by NIST prior to accessing the laboratory. This training will require less than two (2) hours, and may take place before the first day of the Participant's Project Team's scheduled access to the NIST ASR specimens.
To minimize disruption to NIST's ongoing laboratory work, participants' access to the specimens will be limited. Because the kinetics of the expansion cannot be predicted accurately, NIST may not be able to provide the participants with advance notice regarding the availability of the NIST ASR Specimens to the participants for measurements. NIST will inform the participants only after the specimen undergoes a measureable change in expansion. Unless a periodic access schedule is already in place between NIST and a participant, the participant would need to be able to arrive, set-up, and conduct its measurements with as little as one (1) week of notice. In general, it is expected that the NIST ASR Specimens will be available to the participants for measurements about one (1) month after casting of the NIST ASR Specimens, and periodically for the three (3) months thereafter. NIST also intends to provide each participant with one (1) day per scheduled visit to set up the NDE equipment and to complete data collection. Participants must not employ NDE measurement processes that can alter the physical or chemical state of the existing concrete blocks.
Any data and intellectual property resulting from the research under this Consortium will be owned by the party that developed the data or intellectual property. NIST will not seek any patent protection on any invention conceived by NIST employees under this Consortium. Each participant in the Consortium will be required to inform NIST of any intellectual property developed by the members of its Participant Project Team in the performance of the research under this Consortium. Any intellectual property conceived by a member of its Participant Project Team will be subject to a non-exclusive, non-transferrable, paid-up license to practice to have practiced the intellectual property for government purposes, including research purposes. Each participant may use its own results for internal research, but a participant may not disclose the results to the public or any other third party without the prior written permission of NIST Consortium Manager.
(1) Can the NDE technology quantify, or does it have the potential to quantify, the mechanical properties of the concrete throughout the reinforced concrete block?
(2) Can the NDE technology quantify, or does it have the potential to quantify, the degree of expansion/crack development throughout the reinforced concrete block?
(3) Can the NDE technology quantify, or does it have the potential to quantify, the degree of the ASR reaction throughout the concrete block?
(4) Can the NDE technology quantify, or does it have the potential to quantify, the degree of expansion/stress on the surface of the reinforced concrete block?
A responding organization should not include any business proprietary information in its response to this request for information. NIST will not treat any information provided in response to this request as proprietary information.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's (Council)
The meeting will be held Monday, May 2, 2016, from 9:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. For agenda details, see
The meeting will be held via Webinar with a telephone-only connection option:
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D. Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council; telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The purpose of the meeting is to create Fishery Performance Reports by the Council's
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
The Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) and the Socio-Economic Panel (SEP) of the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a meeting.
The Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee and its Socio-Economic Panel will meet May 3, 2016 through May 5, 2016.
The Socio-Economic Panel meeting will be held on Tuesday, May 3, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 12 p.m. The Scientific and Statistical Committee meeting will begin at 1:30 p.m. on Tuesday, May 3, 2016, and end at 3 p.m. on Thursday, May 5, 2016, to view the agenda, see
The meetings and workshop will be held at the Town & Country Inn and Suites, 2008 Savannah Hwy, Charleston, SC 29407; phone 800/334-6660 or 843/571-1000; fax 843/766-9444.
Kim Iverson, Public Information Officer, 4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405; phone 843/571-4366 or toll free 866/SAFMC-10; FAX 843/769-4520; email:
The items of discussion in the meeting agenda are as follows:
1. Discussion of Optimum Yield.
2. Review decision tree for management.
3. Discuss proposed management measures for
4. Discuss portfolio approach in social effects analyses.
5. Receive an update on recent and developing Council actions, including the Citizen Science Initiative, Visioning, and all active amendments.
1. Receive an update on 2015 Landings, Annual Catch Limits (ACLs), Acceptable Biological Catches (ABCs) and Accountability Measures (AMs), the Marine Resources Monitoring, Assessment, and Prediction (MARMAP) Fishery Independent Index, and recent Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) activities.
2. Receive an update on the Mid-Atlantic SSC meeting regarding
3. Review a new bag and size limit analysis methodology.
4. Review the South Atlantic For-Hire Reporting Amendment and discus the data collection variables.
5. Review Snapper Grouper Amendment 41 for
6. Receive an update on the proposed SEDAR research track to be used in lieu of a Benchmark stock assessment.
7. Review the stock assessments for
8. Discuss and apply the National Marine Fisheries Service Assessment Prioritization to South Atlantic stocks.
9. Discuss the findings of the
10. Receive an update on the Council's Citizen Science Initiative.
11. Review a proposed Decision Tool for
12. Review Snapper Grouper Amendment 37 for
13. Discuss proposed management options for
14. Discuss revisions to the ABC Control Rule.
15. Review the report of the Socio-Economic Panel.
16. Receive an update on the Council's work plan and current amendments.
17. Hold elections for the Chair and Vice-Chair.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
Written comment on SSC agenda topics is to be distributed to the Committee through the Council office, similar to all other briefing materials. Written comment to be considered by the SSC shall be provided to the Council office no later than one week prior to an SSC meeting. For this meeting, the deadline for submission of written comment is 12 p.m. Tuesday, April 26, 2016. Two opportunities for comment on agenda items will be provided during SSC meetings and noted on the agenda. The first will be at the beginning of the meeting, and the second near the conclusion, when the SSC reviews its recommendations.
This meeting is accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the SAFMC office (see
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Office of Ocean Exploration and Research (OER), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of public meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a forthcoming meeting of the Ocean Exploration Advisory Board (OEAB). OEAB members will discuss and provide advice on Federal ocean exploration programs, with a particular emphasis on National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Office of Ocean Exploration and Research (OER) activities; federal ocean exploration partners, including the National Science Foundation and the National Atmospheric and Space
The meeting will be held at Venable LLC, 575 7th Street NW., Washington, DC.
The OEAB expects that public statements at its meetings will not be repetitive of previously submitted verbal or written statements. In general, each individual or group making a verbal presentation will be limited to three minutes. The Designated Federal Officer must receive written comments by April 19, 2016 to provide sufficient time for OEAB review. Written comments received after April 19, 2016 will be distributed to the OEAB but may not be reviewed prior to the meeting date. Seats will be available on a first-come, first-served basis.
Mr. David McKinnie, Designated Federal Officer, Ocean Exploration Advisory Board, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 7600 Sand Point Way NE., Seattle, WA 98115, (206) 526-6950.
NOAA established the OEAB under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) and legislation that gives the agency statutory authority to operate an ocean exploration program and to coordinate a national program of ocean exploration. The OEAB advises NOAA leadership on strategic planning, exploration priorities, competitive ocean exploration grant programs and other matters as the NOAA Administrator requests.
OEAB members represent government agencies, the private sector, academic institutions, and not-for-profit institutions involved in all facets of ocean exploration—from advanced technology to citizen exploration.
In addition to advising NOAA leadership, NOAA expects the OEAB to help to define and develop a national program of ocean exploration—a network of stakeholders and partnerships advancing national priorities for ocean exploration.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of SEDAR 49 Data Workshop for Gulf of Mexico Data-limited Species.
The SEDAR 49 assessment of the Gulf of Mexico Data-limited Species will consist of: A Data Workshop; A series of Assessment Webinars; and a Review Workshop.
The SEDAR 49 Data Workshop will begin at 1 p.m. on Monday, May 2, 2016, and end at 12 p.m. on Friday, May 6, 2016; the Assessment Webinars and Review Workshop dates and times will publish in a subsequent issue in the
The SEDAR 49 Data Workshop will be held at the Doubletree by Hilton New Orleans, 300 Canal Street, New Orleans, LA, 70130; 800-222-TREE.
Julie Neer, SEDAR Coordinator; phone 843/571-4366 or toll free 866/SAFMC-10; FAX 843/769-4520; email:
The Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a three step process including: (1) Data Workshop; (2) Assessment Process utilizing webinars; and (3) Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a data report which compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment Process is a stock assessment report which describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The assessment is independently peer reviewed at the Review Workshop. The product of the Review Workshop is a Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, HMS Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include: Data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations (NGOs); international experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and federal agencies.
The items of discussion in the Data Workshop agenda are as follows:
1. An assessment data set and associated documentation will be developed.
2. Participants will evaluate all available data and select appropriate sources for providing information on life history characteristics, catch statistics, discard estimates, length and age composition, and fishery dependent and fishery independent measures of stock abundance, as specified in the Terms of Reference for the workshop.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the council office (see
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”) is publishing notice to advise the public of the availability of CFTC's Fiscal Year (“FY”) 2015 Service Contract Inventory.
Questions regarding the service contract inventory should be directed to Sonda R. Owens in the Financial Management Branch, Procurement Section, at 202-418-5182 or
In accordance with Section 743 of Division C of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-117, 123 Stat. 3034, CFTC is publishing this notice to advise the public of the availability of the FY 2015 Service Contract Inventory. CFTC has posted its inventory and a summary of the inventory on the CFTC homepage at the following link:
This inventory provides information on service contract actions over $25,000 that were awarded in FY 2015. The information is organized by function to show how contracted resources are distributed throughout the agency. The inventory has been developed in accordance with guidance issued on November 5, 2010 by the Office of Management and Budget's Office of Federal Procurement Policy (“OFPP”) and any subsequent guidance issued on the subject matter. OFPP's November 5, 2010 guidance is available at
Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice.
On behalf of the U.S. Government, DoD is contemplating negotiating and concluding a Reciprocal Defense Procurement (RDP) Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the Ministry of Defense of Latvia. DoD is requesting industry feedback regarding its experience in public defense procurements conducted by or on behalf of the Latvian Ministry of Defense or Armed Forces.
Comments must be received by May 13, 2016.
Submit comments to Defense Procurement and Acquisition Policy, Attn: Lt Col Judy Anderson, 3060 Defense Pentagon, Room 5E621, Washington, DC 20301-3060; or by email to
Lt Col Judy Anderson, Senior Analyst, Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology and Logistics (OUSD (AT&L)), Defense Procurement and Acquisition Policy, Contract Policy and International Contracting; Room 5E621, 3060 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3060; telephone 703-695-7197.
DoD has concluded RDP MOUs with 23 qualifying countries, as defined in the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.003, at the level of the Secretary of Defense and his counterpart. The purpose of an RDP MOU is to promote rationalization, standardization, and interoperability of conventional defense equipment with allies and other friendly governments. These MOUs provide a framework for ongoing communication regarding market access and procurement matters that enhance effective defense cooperation.
RDP MOUs generally include language by which the Parties agree that their defense procurements will be conducted in accordance with certain implementing procedures. These procedures relate to—
• Publication of notices of proposed purchases;
• The content and availability of solicitations for proposed purchases;
• Notification to each unsuccessful offeror;
• Feedback, upon request, to unsuccessful offerors concerning the reasons they were not allowed to participate in a procurement or were not awarded a contract; and
• Provision for the hearing and review of complaints arising in connection with any phase of the procurement process to ensure that, to the extent possible, complaints are equitably and expeditiously resolved.
Based on the MOU, each country affords the other country certain benefits on a reciprocal basis consistent with national laws and regulations. The benefits that the United States accords to the products of qualifying countries include—
• Offers of qualifying country end products are evaluated without applying the price differentials otherwise required by the Buy American statute and the Balance of Payments Program;
• The chemical warfare protection clothing restrictions in 10 U.S.C. 2533a and the specialty metals restriction in 10 U.S.C. 2533b(a)(1) do not apply to products manufactured in a qualifying country; and
• Customs, taxes, and duties are waived for qualifying country end products and components of defense procurements.
If DoD (for the U.S. Government) concludes an RDP MOU with the Ministry of Defense of Latvia, then Latvia would be listed as one of the qualifying countries in the definition of qualifying country at DFARS 225.003, and offers of products of Latvia or that contain components from Latvia would be afforded the benefits available to all qualifying countries. This also means
While DoD is evaluating Latvia's laws and regulations in this area, DoD would benefit from U.S. industry's experience in participating in Latvia's public defense procurements. DoD is, therefore, asking U.S. firms that have participated or attempted to participate in procurements by or on behalf of Latvia's Ministry of Defense or Armed Forces to let us know if the procurements were conducted with transparency, integrity, fairness, and due process in accordance with published procedures, and if not, the nature of the problems encountered.
DoD is also interested in comments relating to the degree of reciprocity that exists between the United States and Latvia when it comes to the openness of defense procurements to offers of products from the other country.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
The following invention is assigned to the United States Government as represented by the Secretary of the Navy and made available for licensing by the Department of the Navy: U.S. Patent Application No. 13/584934—“Multiple radios per node network architecture.”
Request for copies of the U.S. Patent Application cited should be directed to Space and Naval Warfare Systems Center Pacific, Office of Research and Technology Applications, Code 72120, 53560 Hull St., Bldg A33, Room 2531, San Diego, CA 92152-5001.
Martin Machniak, Office of Research and Technology Applications, Space and Naval Warfare Systems Center Pacific, Code 72120, 53560 Hull St, Bldg A33, Room 2308, San Diego, CA 92152-5001, telephone 619-553-6416, Email:
35 U.S.C. 207, 37 CFR part 404.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
The Department of the Navy hereby gives notice of its intent to grant to BladeBeam, Inc., a revocable, nonassignable, partially exclusive license in the United States to practice the Government-Owned inventions described in U.S. Patent Application No. 13/584934—“Multiple radios per node network architecture.”
Anyone wishing to object to the grant of this license must file written objections along with supporting evidence, if any, no later than April 28, 2016.
Written objections are to be filed with the Office of Research and Technology Applications, Space and Naval Warfare Systems Center Pacific, Code 72120, 53560 Hull St, Bldg A33, Room 2531, San Diego, CA 92152-5001.
Martin Machniak, Office of Research and Technology Applications, Space and Naval Warfare Systems Center Pacific, Code 72120, 53560 Hull St, Bldg A33, Room 2308, San Diego, CA 92152-5001, telephone 619-553-6416, E-Mail:
35 U.S.C. 207, 37 CFR part 404.
U.S. Election Assistance Commission.
Thursday, April 14, 2016, 9:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m. and Friday, April 15, 2016, 8:10 a.m.-12:00 p.m. (Executive Board Session: Thursday, April 14, 2016, 7:30 p.m.).
The Sheraton Carlsbad Hotel, 5480 Grand Pacific Drive, Carlsbad, CA 92008, Phone: (760) 827-2400.
EAC is correcting the original notice that published on March 30, 2016 to reference that the meeting is being held in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), and to provide instructions on the submission of relevant public statements regarding the meeting.
The Standards Board will conduct committee breakout sessions and hear committee reports. The Board will discuss and vote on proposed Bylaws amendments, and will fill vacancies on the Executive Board of the Standards Board. The Executive Board will elect new officers, appoint Standards Board committee members and chairs, and consider other administrative matters.
Members of the public may submit relevant written statements to the Standards Board with respect to the meeting no later than 5:00 p.m. EDT on Tuesday, April 12, 2016. Statements may be sent via email at
This meeting will be open to the public.
Office of Fossil Energy, DOE.
Notice of change in control.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice (Notice) of receipt of a statement regarding change in control, filed January 15, 2016 (Statement), by Cheniere Marketing, LLC (CMI), Corpus Christi Liquefaction, LLC (CCL), and Sabine Pass Liquefaction, LLC (SPL) in the above-referenced dockets. The Statement updates equity ownership information regarding Cheniere Energy, Inc. (Cheniere), a publicly-traded company.
Protests, motions to intervene or notices of intervention, as applicable, and written comments are to be filed using procedures detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, April 28, 2016.
Electronic Filing by email:
U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34), Office of Regulation and International Engagement, Office of Fossil Energy, P.O. Box 44375, Washington, DC 20026-4375.
U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34), Office of Regulation and International Engagement, Office of Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
Larine Moore or Benjamin Nussdorf, U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34), Office of Regulation and International Engagement, Office of Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9478; (202) 586-7893.
Edward Myers, U.S. Department of Energy (GC-76), Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Electricity and Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9793.
CMI is a limited liability company organized under the laws of Delaware, and a wholly-owned direct subsidiary of Cheniere. CCL is a limited liability company organized under the laws of Delaware, and a wholly-owned indirect subsidiary of Cheniere. SPL is a limited liability company organized under the laws of Delaware, and a wholly-owned indirect subsidiary of Cheniere Energy Partners, L.P. (CQP), a publicly-traded limited partnership that is, in turn, an indirect subsidiary of Cheniere.
The Statement refers to numerous proceedings before DOE/FE involving exports and imports of LNG and natural gas to and from countries with which the United States has entered into a free trade agreement requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas (FTA countries) and other countries (non-FTA countries). Consistent with the revised procedures established by DOE/FE for reviewing changes in control (CIC Revised Procedures),
The Statement asserts the following Carl Icahn-affiliated investment vehicles, together with Mr. Icahn individually, beneficially own, in the aggregate, approximately 13.8% of Cheniere's issued and outstanding common stock: High River Limited Partnership, Hopper Investments, LLC, Barberry Corp., Icahn Partners Master Fund LP, Icahn Offshore LP, Icahn Onshore LP, Icahn Capital LP, IPH GP LLC, Icahn Enterprises Holdings L.P., Icahn Enterprises G.P. Inc., and Beckton Corp. (the “Icahn Companies”). The Icahn Companies' acquisition of Cheniere common stock resulted from multiple open-market transactions. Cheniere has also appointed to its Board of Directors (“Board”), of which there are now eleven members, two individuals who are managing directors of Icahn Capital L.P.
Further, the Statement asserts the following Seth Klarman-affiliated investment vehicles, together with Mr. Klarman individually, beneficially own, in the aggregate, approximately 15.01% of Cheniere's issued and outstanding common stock: The Baupost Group, L.L.C. and SAK Corporation (the “Klarman Companies”). The Klarman Companies' acquisition of Cheniere common stock resulted from multiple open-market transactions on behalf of various private investment limited partnerships for which The Baupost Group, L.L.C. acts as an investment adviser and general partner.
The Statement recognizes that the ownership interests acquired by the Icahn Companies' and the Klarman Companies' in Cheniere's common stock may trigger the 10% rebuttable presumption of a change in control for CCL and CMI. However, the Statement asserts that the presumption is rebutted as to CCL and CMI because (1) there has been no change in ownership of CCL or CMI, and one or both of them will remain the holder(s) of their respective authorizations and, in the case of CCL, the applicant in Docket No. 15-97-LNG; (2) there has been no change in operation or manner in which CCL and CMI are managed; and (3) the transactions described in the Statement did not grant the Icahn Companies or the Klarman Companies the power to direct the management or policies of CCL or CMI, or provide a veto right over other shareholders.
With respect to SPL, the Statement asserts that the Icahn Companies' and the Klarman Companies' transactions do not trigger the 10% rebuttable presumption because the indirect ownership stakes of the Icahn Companies and the Klarman Companies in SPL do not equate to 10% or more of the outstanding voting securities for SPL. Additionally, the Statement asserts that even were DOE to determine that the 10% threshold had been reached, the presumption is rebutted because (1) there has been no change in ownership of SPL and it will remain the holder of its current authorizations and the applicant in Docket No. 15-63-LNG; (2) there has been no change in the operation or manner in which SPL is managed or the terms of its associated export operations; and (3) neither the Icahn Companies or the Klarman Companies have acquired the power to direct the management or policies of SPL or a veto right over other shareholders.
Additional details can be found in the Statement, posted on the DOE/FE Web site at:
DOE/FE will review the Statement in accordance with its Procedures for Changes in Control Affecting Applications and Authorizations to Import or Export Natural Gas (CIC Procedures). Pursuant to the Revised CIC Procedures, DOE/FE will (1) give immediate effect to the amendment of pending applications for non-FTA export authorizations and modifications of previously issued non-FTA export authorizations, but will accept and consider answers to these amendments and modifications in response to this Notice before taking further action; and (2) give immediate effect to the modification of pending applications for FTA export authorizations, pending applications for natural gas import authorizations, previously issued FTA export authorizations, and previously issued natural gas import authorizations, but no further action will be taken as to these proceedings.
Protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, and written comments are invited in response to this Notice only as to the amendment of previously issued non-FTA export authorizations, as described.
DOE will give effect to the change in control in accordance with its CIC procedures. Interested persons will be provided 15 days from the date of publication of this Notice in the
In response to this Notice, interested persons will be provided 15 days from the date of publication of this Notice in order to move to intervene, protest, and answer the statement of change in control. All protests, comments, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention must meet the requirements specified by DOE's regulations in 10 CFR part 590.
Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods: (1) Preferred method: emailing the filing to
Additional procedures will be used as necessary to achieve a complete understanding of the facts and issues. If an additional procedure is scheduled, notice will be provided to all parties. If no party requests additional procedures, a final order may be issued based on the official record in accordance with 10 CFR 590.316.
The Notice is available for inspection and copying in the Office of Regulation and International Engagement docket room, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC, 20585. The docket room is open between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
The Notice and any filed protests, motions to intervene or notice of interventions, and comments will also be available electronically by going to the following DOE/FE Web address:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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This constitutes notice, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2201(b), of the receipt of prohibited and exempt off-the-record communications.
Order No. 607 (64 FR 51222, September 22, 1999) requires Commission decisional employees, who make or receive a prohibited or exempt off-the-record communication relevant to the merits of a contested proceeding, to deliver to the Secretary of the Commission, a copy of the communication, if written, or a summary of the substance of any oral communication.
Prohibited communications are included in a public, non-decisional file associated with, but not a part of, the decisional record of the proceeding. Unless the Commission determines that the prohibited communication and any responses thereto should become a part of the decisional record, the prohibited off-the-record communication will not be considered by the Commission in reaching its decision. Parties to a proceeding may seek the opportunity to respond to any facts or contentions made in a prohibited off-the-record communication, and may request that the Commission place the prohibited communication and responses thereto in the decisional record. The Commission will grant such a request only when it determines that fairness so requires. Any person identified below as having made a prohibited off-the-record communication shall serve the document on all parties listed on the official service list for the applicable proceeding in accordance with Rule 2010, 18 CFR 385.2010.
Exempt off-the-record communications are included in the decisional record of the proceeding, unless the communication was with a cooperating agency as described by 40 CFR 1501.6, made under 18 CFR 385.2201(e)(1)(v).
The following is a list of off-the-record communications recently received by the Secretary of the Commission. The communications listed are grouped by docket numbers in ascending order. These filings are available for electronic review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
The Loveland Hydroelectric Project is located in Larimer County, Colorado on the Big Thompson River.
The license for Project No. 2829 was issued for a period ending March 8, 2016. Section 15(a) (1) of the FPA, 16 U.S.C. 808(a)(1), requires the Commission, at the expiration of a license term, to issue from year-to-year an annual license to the then licensee under the terms and conditions of the prior license until a new license is issued, or the project is otherwise disposed of as provided in section 15 or any other applicable section of the FPA. If the project's prior license waived the applicability of section 15 of the FPA, then, based on section 9(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 558(c), and as set forth at 18 CFR 16.21(a), if the licensee of such project has filed an application for a subsequent license, the licensee may continue to operate the project in accordance with the terms and conditions of the license after the minor or minor part license expires, until the Commission acts on its application. If the licensee of such a project has not filed an application for a subsequent license, then it may be required, pursuant to 18 CFR 16.21(b), to continue project operations until the Commission issues someone else a license for the project or otherwise orders disposition of the project.
If the project is subject to section 15 of the FPA, notice is hereby given that an annual license for Project No. 2829 is issued to the licensee for a period effective March 9, 2016 through March 8, 2017 or until the issuance of a new license for the project or other disposition under the FPA, whichever comes first. If issuance of a new license (or other disposition) does not take place on or before March 8, 2017, notice is hereby given that, pursuant to 18 CFR 16.18(c), an annual license under section 15(a)(1) of the FPA is renewed automatically without further order or notice by the Commission, unless the Commission orders otherwise.
If the project is not subject to section 15 of the FPA, notice is hereby given that the licensee, City of Loveland, Colorado, is authorized to continue operation of the Loveland Hydroelectric Project, until such time as the Commission acts on its application to surrender its license.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Description: § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to WMPA SA No. 3636, Queue No. X1-085 per Assignment to be effective 8/12/2013.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Notice of information collection and request for comments.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on the currently approved information collection, FERC-539 (Gas Pipeline Certificates: Import & Export Related Applications).
Comments on the collection of information are due June 13, 2016.
You may submit comments (identified by Docket No. IC16-8-000) by either of the following methods:
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Ellen Brown may be reached by email at
The regulatory functions of section 3 are shared by the Commission and the Secretary of Energy, Department of Energy (DOE). The Commission has the authority to approve or disapprove the construction and operation of particular facilities, the site at which such
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meeting related to the transmission planning activities of NorthWestern Corporation, Deseret Generation & Transmission Cooperative, Inc., Portland General Electric Company, Idaho Power Company, and PacifiCorp:
The above-referenced meeting will be held at: Embassy Suites by Hilton Portland Airport, 7900 NE 82nd Ave., Portland, OR 97220.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at
The discussions at the meeting described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact Natalie Propst, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-8896 or
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This notice identifies the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission staff's revised schedule for the completion of the Environmental Assessment (EA) for Tennessee Gas Pipeline Company, L.L.C.'s (Tennessee) Triad Expansion Project. The previous notice of schedule, issued on December 9, 2015, identified April 6, 2016 as the issuance date of the EA. On February 12, 2016, Commission staff received supplemental information regarding a route variation from Tennessee that requires a revised schedule for issuance of the EA.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the final EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. Go to
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission issued a public notice of GRDA's waiver request on March 16, 2016 requesting comments, motions to intervene, and protests by March 31, 2016. The Modoc Tribe of Oklahoma filed a protest and comments on March 31, 2016. However, the protest and comments are related to any final amendment application GRDA may file with the Commission. The protest and comments did not address the waiver request described in the Commission's public notice. No other protests or comments were received. Since there were no objections to GRDA's waiver request to reduce the comment period from 60 to 30 days as described above, the waiver is approved and comments on GRDA's draft amendment application must be submitted to GRDA within the requested 30-day period (due by April 14, 2016).
Note that the Modoc Tribe's concerns and comments contained in its March 31, 2016 letter, have been filed with the Commission and will be considered in the Commission's review of any final amendment application GRDA files with the Commission.
On April 28, 2014 Yuba County Water Agency, licensee for the Yuba River Project, filed an Application for a New License pursuant to the Federal Power Act (FPA) and the Commission's regulations thereunder. The Yuba River Project facilities are located on the Yuba River, North Yuba River, the Middle
The license for Project No. 2246 was issued for a period ending March 31, 2016. Section 15(a)(1) of the FPA, 16 U.S.C. 808(a)(1), requires the Commission, at the expiration of a license term, to issue from year-to-year an annual license to the then licensee under the terms and conditions of the prior license until a new license is issued, or the project is otherwise disposed of as provided in section 15 or any other applicable section of the FPA. If the project's prior license waived the applicability of section 15 of the FPA, then, based on section 9(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 558(c), and as set forth at 18 CFR 16.21(a), if the licensee of such project has filed an application for a subsequent license, the licensee may continue to operate the project in accordance with the terms and conditions of the license after the minor or minor part license expires, until the Commission acts on its application. If the licensee of such a project has not filed an application for a subsequent license, then it may be required, pursuant to 18 CFR 16.21(b), to continue project operations until the Commission issues someone else a license for the project or otherwise orders disposition of the project.
If the project is subject to section 15 of the FPA, notice is hereby given that an annual license for Project No. 2246 is issued to the licensee for a period effective April 1, 2016 through March 31, 2017 or until the issuance of a new license for the project or other disposition under the FPA, whichever comes first. If issuance of a new license (or other disposition) does not take place on or before March 31, 2017, notice is hereby given that, pursuant to 18 CFR 16.18(c), an annual license under section 15(a)(1) of the FPA is renewed automatically without further order or notice by the Commission, unless the Commission orders otherwise.
If the project is not subject to section 15 of the FPA, notice is hereby given that the licensee, Yuba County Water Agency., is authorized to continue operation of the Yuba River Project, until such time as the Commission acts on its application for a subsequent license.
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Grande Prairie Wind, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is April 27, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of availability of final NPDES general permit.
The Director of the Office of Ecosystem Protection, EPA—Region 1, is providing a notice of availability of the final National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) general permit for stormwater discharges from small Municipal Separate Storm Sewer systems (MS4s) to certain waters of the Commonwealth of Massachusetts. The final Massachusetts small MS4 general permit establishes Notice of Intent (NOI) requirements, prohibitions, and management practices for stormwater discharges from small MS4s in Massachusetts. The final Massachusetts small MS4 general permit reflects modifications to the draft small MS4 general permit released for comment on September 30, 2014 and replaces the 2003 small MS4 general permit for MS4 operators within the Commonwealth of Massachusetts.
The Massachusetts small MS4 general permit shall be effective on July 1, 2017 and will expire at midnight on June 30, 2022. In accordance with 40 CFR part 23, this permit shall be considered issued for the purpose of judicial review at 1:00 p.m. eastern standard time on April 27, 2016. Under section 509(b) of the Clean Water Act, judicial review of this general permit can be requested by filing a petition for review in the United States Court of Appeals within 120 days after the permit is considered issued. Under section 509(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act, the requirements in this permit may not be challenged later in civil or criminal proceedings to enforce these requirements. In addition, this permit may not be challenged in other agency proceedings.
Newton Tedder, Stormwater and Construction Permits Section OEP 06-4, Environmental Protection Agency, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, Boston, Massachusetts 02109-3912; 617-918-1038;
EPA is reissuing three final NPDES permits for discharges of stormwater from small MS4s to certain waters within the Commonwealth of Massachusetts. The three general permits are:
While these are technically distinct permits, for convenience they have been grouped into a single document and this document refers to the “permit” in the singular. The final general permit, appendices and attachments, as well as response to comments on the draft permit and supplemental fact sheet information are available at
The conditions in the general permit are established pursuant to Clean Water Act (CWA) section 402(p)(3)(iii) to ensure that pollutant discharges from small MS4s are reduced to the Maximum Extent Practicable (MEP), protect water quality, and satisfy the appropriate requirements of the CWA. Further information on the requirements of the permit related to MEP and water quality may be found in EPA's Response to Comments document on the above Web site.
EPA issued a final general permit to address stormwater discharges from small MS4s in Massachusetts and New Hampshire on May 1, 2003. The 2003 general permit required small MS4 operators to develop and implement a Stormwater Management Program (SWMP) designed to control pollutants to the maximum extent practicable and protect water quality. This final general permit for Massachusetts MS4s builds on the requirements of the 2003 general permit. During 2010, EPA drafted two separate Small MS4 general permits to replace the 2003 Small MS4 permit for eligible operators located in Massachusetts; one for operators located in the North Coastal watershed and the other for those located in the Interstate, Merrimack and South Coastal watersheds. Based on comments and information gathered while developing responses, EPA modified the initial draft general permits and issued a draft permit covering all eligible operators in Massachusetts pursuant to 40 CFR 124.6. EPA took public comments on this draft permit from September 30, 2014 to February 27, 2015. EPA received over 150 unique written letters and oral comments on the draft permit. Concurrent with the release of the final permit and supplemental materials EPA will make available a Response to Comments received on the draft permit. The Response to Comments will be available on the EPA Web site listed above. Changes to the permit resulting from public comments include, but are not limited to: Reduction of certain reporting requirements and metrics, reorganization of certain requirements for clarity, and extension of deadlines for certain required tasks and reports within the permit.
In order for a small MS4 operator to obtain authorization to discharge, it must submit a complete and accurate NOI containing the information in Appendix E of the general permit. The NOI must be submitted on or before September 29, 2017 (90 days from the effective date of the final permit). A small MS4 operator must meet the eligibility requirements of the general permit found in Part 1.2 and Part 1.9 prior to submission of its NOI. A small MS4 operator will be authorized to discharge under the permit upon receipt of written notice from EPA following a public notice of the submitted NOI. EPA will authorize the discharge, request additional information, or require the small MS4 to apply for an alternative permit or an individual permit. NOIs may be submitted electronically to EPA at
In accordance with the Endangered Species Act (ESA), EPA has updated the provisions and necessary actions and documentation related to potential impacts to endangered species from discharges and related actions under the Massachusetts small MS4 general permit. EPA has obtained concurrence from the appropriate federal services (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and National Marine Fisheries Service) regarding the requirements of this general permit.
In accordance with the National Historic Preservation Act, EPA has established provisions and documentation requirements for operators seeking coverage under the Massachusetts small MS4 general permit to ensure that discharges or actions taken under this permit will not adversely affect historic properties and places.
This action is being taken under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice; extension of comment period.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is extending the comment period for the draft technical report:
Comments must be received on or before June 17, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0335, to the
Diana Eignor, Health and Ecological Criteria Division, Office of Water (Mail Code 4304T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 566-1143; email address:
On March 1, 2016 (81 FR 10620), EPA and United States Geological Survey (USGS) announced the availability of the draft technical report:
The original deadline to submit comments was May 2, 2016. This action extends the comment period for 45 days. Written comments must now be received by June 17, 2016. The draft report and other supporting materials may also be viewed and downloaded from EPA's Web site at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
There will be a half-day orientation meeting of the new Chemical Safety Advisory Committee (CSAC). At this meeting, entitled “Orientation Session of the Chemical Safety Advisory Committee (CSAC),” the CSAC will consider and review background information on the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), the TSCA Work Plan Chemical Program, and aspects of TSCA risk assessment approaches.
The meeting will be held on May 11, 2016, from approximately 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. (EST). This is an open public meeting that will be conducted over the Internet using Adobe Connect. Registration is required to attend this meeting. Please visit:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets, is available at
Scott Lynn, Ph.D., DFO, Office of Science Coordination and Policy (7201M), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 564-2631; email address:
This action is directed to the public in general. This action may, however, be of interest to those involved in the manufacture, processing, distribution, disposal, and/or the assessment of risks involving chemical substances and mixtures. Since other entities may also be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
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You may participate in this meeting by following the instructions in this unit. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, it is imperative that you identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0234 in the subject line on the first page of your request.
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Office of Prevention Pesticides and Toxics (OPPT) manages programs under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), 15 U.S.C. 2601
The CSAC was established under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, section 9(a), to provide advice and recommendations on the scientific basis for risk assessments, methodologies, and pollution prevention measures or approaches. The CSAC is composed of 10 members who serve as regular government employees (RGEs) or special government employees (SGEs). A copy of the CSAC charter is available on the EPA Web site at
During the meeting scheduled for May 11, 2016, entitled “Orientation Session of the Chemical Safety Advisory Committee (CSAC),” the CSAC will receive a background briefing including an overview of priority projects within EPA's OPPT, the TSCA, the TSCA Work Plan Chemical Program, and aspects of OPPT's risk assessment approaches. The briefing will provide an orientation for this new committee in preparation for upcoming reviews. The EPA is not presenting a charge or questions for the committee's deliberation at this meeting.
EPA's background documents, related supporting materials, CSAC composition (
CSAC will prepare meeting minutes approximately 90 days after the meeting. The meeting minutes will be posted in the OPPT Docket at
5 U.S.C. App. 2§ 9 (c).
This document was received for publication by the Office of the Federal Register on April 8, 2016.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before May 13, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.
On October 14, 2008, the Commission released an Order on Reconsideration, FCC 08-239, addressing certain issues raised in petitions for reconsideration and/or clarification filed in response to the Commission's Report and Order and Third Order on Reconsideration (Junk Fax Order), FCC 06-42. In document FCC 08-239, the Commission clarified that: (1) Facsimile numbers compiled by third parties on behalf of the facsimile sender will be presumed to have been made voluntarily available for public distribution so long as they are obtained from the intended recipient's own directory, advertisement, or Internet site; (2) reasonable steps to verify that a recipient has agreed to make available a facsimile number for public distribution may include methods other than direct contact with the recipient; and (3) a description of the facsimile sender's opt-out mechanism on the first Web page to which recipients are directed in the opt-out notice satisfies the requirement that such a description appear on the first page of the Web site.
The Commission believes these clarifications will assist senders of facsimile advertisements in complying with the Commission's rules in a manner that minimizes regulatory compliance costs while maintaining the protections afforded consumers under the Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA).
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has received Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for a revision of a currently approved public information collection pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number, and no person is required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. Comments concerning the accuracy of the burden estimates and any suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the person listed in the
Cathy Williams, Office of the Managing Director, at (202) 418-2918, or email:
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
47 CFR 74.787(a)(5)(v) states that an application for an digital to digital replacement translator may be filed by a full power television station that can demonstrate that a portion of its digital service area will not be served by its full, post-incentive auction digital facilities. The service area of the replacement translator shall be limited to only a demonstrated loss area.
However, an applicant for a replacement digital television translator may propose a de minimis expansion of its full power pre-transition analog service area upon demonstrating that it is necessary to replace its post-incentive auction digital loss area.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before May 13, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
The information collection requirements in this collection are needed to determine the technical, legal, and other qualifications of applicants and licensees to operate a radio station and to determine whether grant of an authorization serves the public interest, convenience and necessity. Without such information, the Commission could not determine whether to permit respondents to provide communications services in the United States. Therefore, the Commission would not be able to fulfill its statutory responsibilities in accordance with the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, and the obligations imposed on parties to the World Trade Organization Basic Telecom Agreement.
The CBPA sets out certain certification and application procedures for LPTV licensees seeking Class A designation, prescribes the criteria LPTV licensees must meet to be eligible for Class A licenses, and outlines the interference protection Class A applicants must provide to analog, digital, LPTV and TV translator stations.
The CBPA directs that Class A stations must comply with the operating requirements for full-service television broadcast stations. Therefore, beginning on the date of its application for a Class A license and thereafter, a station must be “in compliance” with the Commission's operating rules for full-service television stations, contained in 47 CFR part 73.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), this notice advises interested persons that the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC) Task Force on Optimal Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) Architecture (Task Force) will hold its seventh meeting.
May 6, 2016.
Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305 (Commission Meeting Room), 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Timothy May, Federal Communications Commission, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, 202-418-1463, email:
The meeting will be held on May 6, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. in the Commission Meeting Room of the FCC, Room TW-305, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554. The Task Force is a Federal Advisory Committee that studies and reports findings and recommendations on PSAP structure, architecture, operations, and funding to promote greater efficiency of PSAP operations, security, and cost containment during the deployment of Next Generation 911 systems. On December 2, 2014, pursuant to the FACA, the Commission established the Task Force charter for a period of two years, through December 2, 2016. At this meeting, the Task Force will hear overview presentations of 2016 tasks from the Task Force's three working groups; specifically Working Group 1—Optimal Approach to Cybersecurity, Working Group 2—Optimal Approach to NG911 Architecture Implementation, and Working 3—Optimal Approach to NG911 Resource Allocation.
Members of the general public may attend the meeting. The FCC will attempt to accommodate as many attendees as possible; however, admittance will be limited to seating availability. The Commission will provide audio and/or video coverage of the meeting over the Internet from the FCC's Web page at
Open captioning will be provided for this event. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. Requests for such accommodations should be submitted via email to
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than April 28, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis (David L. Hubbard, Senior Manager) P.O. Box 442, St. Louis, Missouri 63166-2034. Comments can also be sent electronically to
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B. Federal Reserve Bank of Minneapolis (Jacquelyn K. Brunmeier, Assistant Vice President) 90 Hennepin Avenue, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55480-0291:
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Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management
Submit comments on or before May 13, 2016.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Mr. Michael O. Jackson, Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA, 202-208-4949 or email
The FAR clause 16.203, Fixed-price contracts with economic price adjustment, and associated clauses at 52.216-2, 52.216-3, and 52.216-4, provide for upward and downward revision of the stated contract price upon occurrence of specified contingencies. In order for the contracting officer to be aware of price changes, the firm must provide pertinent information to the Government. The information is used to determine the proper amount of price adjustments required under the contract.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary; whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0068, Economic Price Adjustment, in all correspondence.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning notification of ownership changes.
Submit comments on or before June 13, 2016.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0115, Notification of Ownership Changes by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Kathyln Hopkins, Procurement Analyst, Office of Acquisition Policy, GSA, 202-969-7226 or email
Allowable costs of assets are limited in the event of change in ownership of a contractor. Contractors are required to provide the Government adequate and timely notice of this event per the FAR clause at 52.215-19, Notification of Ownership Changes.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning change order accounting. A notice was published in the
Submit comments on or before May 13, 2016.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0026, Change Order Accounting, by any of the following methods:
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Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by inputting “Information Collection 9000-0026, Change Order Accounting” under the heading “Enter Keyword or ID” and selecting “Search”. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “Information 9000-0026, Change Order Accounting”. Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0026, Change Order Accounting” on your attached document.
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Mr. Michael O. Jackson, Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA, 202-208-4949, or email
FAR 43.205 allows a contracting officer, whenever the estimated cost of a change or series of related changes under a contract exceeds $100,000, to assert the right in the clause at FAR 52.243-6, Change Order Accounting, to require the contractor to maintain separate accounts for each change or series of related changes. Each account shall record all incurred segregable, direct costs (less allocable credits) of work, changed and unchanged, allocable to the change. These accounts are to be maintained until the parties agree to an equitable adjustment for the changes or until the matter is conclusively disposed of under the Disputes clause. This requirement is necessary in order to be able to account properly for costs associated with changes in supply and research and development contracts that are technically complex and incur numerous changes.
One respondent submitted public comments on the extension of the previously approved information collection. The analysis of the public comments is summarized as follows:
Comment: The commenter suggested ways to improve the utility of the Information Collection. The recommendations are designed to enhance the data collected regarding the administration of change orders. If adopted, the commenter stated the proposed changes would provide for the collection of essential data, in a more readily accessible format that can assist Executive Branch managers and facilitate the conduct of essential Congressional oversight.
Response: This comment is out of scope because the commenter wants to improve the utility of the Information Collection. They did not express an opinion on whether the stated number of burden hours is out of sync with what they believe to be the actual number of hours a contractor expends to comply with the clause.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Obtaining Copies of Proposals: Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-501-4755.
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0026, Change Order Accounting, in all correspondence.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning limitation of costs/funds.
Submit comments on or before June 13, 2016.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0074, Contract Funding—Limitation of Costs/Funds by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Kathlyn Hopkins, Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA 202-969-7226 or email
Firms performing under incrementally funded Federal contracts are required to notify the contracting officer in writing whenever they have reason to believe—
(1) The costs the contractors expect to incur under the contracts in the next 60 days, when added to all costs previously incurred, will exceed 75 percent of the estimated cost of the contracts; or
(2) The total cost for the performance of the contracts will be greater or substantially less than estimated. As a part of the notification, the contractors must provide a revised estimate of total cost.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Office of Human Resources Management (OHRM), General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of meeting cancellation.
The GSA Labor-Management Relations Council (GLMRC) previously announced in its March 25, 2016
April 13, 2016.
Ms. Paula Lucak, GLMRC Designated Federal Officer (DFO) at the General Services Administration, OHRM, 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC. 20405, telephone at 202-739-1730, or email at
The GSA Labor-Management Relations Council (GLMRC) previously announced in its March 25, 2016
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the proposed information collection project:
Comments on this notice must be received by June 13, 2016.
Written comments should be submitted to: Doris Lefkowitz, Reports Clearance Officer, AHRQ, by email at
Copies of the proposed collection plans, data collection instruments, and specific details on the estimated burden can be obtained from the AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer.
Doris Lefkowitz, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, (301) 427-1477, or by email at
This two-year project is an important first step to fully understanding measurement for performance improvement in medical groups. This exploratory research is expected to set the stage for informing future research and policy discussions, both of which could ultimately have a more direct impact on providers, payers, and patients. As a critical first step this research breaks new ground in an important area of health care research by looking at the current landscape to better understand how medical groups are using measurement internally to improve performance and what that means to them, and how internal measurement relates to external measurement obligations and identifying where the gaps are.
Project success for this exploratory work will be more relevant given the complete context of the current landscape of performance measurement, gleaned through an environmental scan, expert input, and qualitative data collection. Ultimately, success will be measured by our ability to answer the research questions that are guiding this research project (see below).
The overall goal of AHRQ's Measurement for Performance Improvement in Physician Practices project is to identify the current gaps in our knowledge about how practices are using data, if at all, for performance improvement. AHRQ has developed this project to address the lack of current evidence on internal performance measurement in medical groups, identifying the following research questions:
• What gaps exist in the research literature regarding management for performance improvement in medical groups?
• What factors, both internal and external, drive efforts to use measurement to improve medical group performance?
• How are measures used to support internal management and improvement processes?
• What additional activities support use of internal performance measures?
• How are internal performance measures derived and reported? What specific measures, benchmarks, and comparisons are used?
• How have physicians responded to these measurement processes?
• What are the perceived benefits of internal measurement activities? What types of costs and other burdens are directly associated with internal measurement? How feasible is it to specify actual costs of reporting?
• What implications does evidence on internal measurement for performance improvement have for payers, policy makers, executives in delivery systems, and clinical leaders?
• Identify specific measures/metrics used internally by medical groups to assess performance and support improvement activities.
• Describe how internal measurement activities/measures are used in medical groups to support improvement in individual, team, or organizational performance including, but not limited to, how these activities are tied to “internal” financial incentives.
• Identify types of costs and other types of burdens (
• Based on the findings, identify implications, potential impacts, and future research opportunities for payers, regulators, and medical groups regarding internal measurements for performance improvement.
Efforts to improve performance among health care providers through measurement and reporting have evolved over time and have taken many forms and many names. For example, Triple Aim, Public Reporting, Performance Measurement, Quality Improvement, Pay for Performance are all common concepts today. And, most health care providers, including medical groups, are monitoring their performance using a wide array of quality measures that reflect care processes, clinical outcomes, and patient experiences. Increasing numbers of providers are required to report their performance on quality measures by
Little is known, however, about how providers make use internally of measures that are required by external bodies for payment or reporting. Nor is it known what other measures providers collect and use to improve performance. This project aims to fill this knowledge gap. In doing so, it may also inform payment and reporting initiatives by providing indications of the degree to which providers view externally mandated measures as valuable for their internal quality assessment and reporting efforts.
As an initial step in understanding the landscape of measurement for performance improvement, this research will look to understand how medical groups define and measure performance improvement.
This work is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractor, Westat, pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on health care and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the quality, effectiveness, efficiency, appropriateness and value of health care services and with respect to quality measurement and improvement. 42 U.S.C. 299a(a)(1) and (2).
For this study, AHRQ will conduct field data collection through semi-structured in-depth interviews. The unit of analysis for this work is the medical group. To understand measurement for performance improvement in each medical group, AHRQ will interview up to 5 administrators and frontline clinicians per medical group. Interviews with both administrators and clinicians will be facilitated using the same protocol. As discussed below, given the different levels of involvement and experience with internal performance measurement, interviews will vary in detail and thus length. But, as AHRQ works to uncover the story of each medical group involved in the study, the same guiding protocol will apply. AHRQ will audio-record and professionally transcribe each interview conducted. And, all interviews will be loaded into Dedoose for coding and analysis.
The information collected in the data collection effort will be used for one main purpose: Identify the current gaps in internal measurement in physician practices. The results from the data collection will give AHRQ a snapshot on the current practices being undertaken for internal performance measurement and inform best next steps to move beyond this exploratory research phase.
The intended target audiences expected to benefit most from the project include the medical groups using this information to improve performance, the health care professionals who work in these medical groups working to improve their care to patients, and the patients that can benefit from improved care. One way this research could benefit these audiences is by informing payment and reporting initiatives by providing indications of the degree to which providers view externally mandated measures as valuable for their internal quality assessment and reporting efforts.
Exhibit 1 shows the estimated annualized burden hours for the participants' time to take part in this research. To recruit medical groups to participate, AHRQ will engage groups in a short call to assess interest and obtain a commitment to participate. AHRQ expects the need to reach out to approximately 100 medical groups to obtain a sample of 45 groups that are conducting some type of measurement for internal performance improvement, are interested in taking part, and are able to take part during the data collection window. In-depth, semi-structured qualitative interviews will then be conducted with up to 5 staff members at 45 medical groups using a single protocol. AHRQ will target small (2-9 eligible professionals (EP)), medium (10-24 EPs), and large (25+ EPs) medical groups from across the Unites States. The goal is to recruit approximately 3 administrators and 2 frontline clinicians in each Group, understanding that depending on the size and organization of the medical group staff members may operate in multiple roles.
Based on the pilot study conducted for this project, AHRQ estimates that the recruitment call will average 15 minutes, and that the longest interviews will be 1.5 hours. These longest interviews will be with the highest level administrators working on internal performance measurement at the most complex medical groups. AHRQ believes these will be the largest medical groups that are part of complex systems and payment relationships. These complex organizational relationships will require more time to understand in order to understand the place, role, and operation of internal measurement for performance improvement within the group. For equivalent administrators from medium and small groups, AHRQ estimates the longest interviews will be 1.25 hours. For all other administrators and frontline clinicians, AHRQ estimates the interviews will be 1 hour.
The total annualized burden is estimated to be 295 hours. Again, interviews with both frontline clinicians and all medical group administrators will use the same protocol. The screening call will be an informal conversation in which AHRQ looks to learn if the medical group self-identifies as using measurement for performance improvement and provides consent to take part. AHRQ will answer any questions the medical group has about the study on this call and confirm some basic, publicly available background information about the group that AHRQ has obtained is accurate and up to date. This background information will help put the information learned during the interview in better context. The types of background information AHRQ is looking at includes medical group size, organizational structure, specialty mix, and payment relationships.
Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annualized cost burden associated with the participants' time to take part in this research. The total cost burden is estimated to be $27,270.45.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the “National Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Registry.” The National ALS Registry collects information from persons with ALS to better describe the prevalence and potential risk factors for ALS.
Written comments must be received on or before June 13, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. ATSDR-2016-0005 by any of the following methods:
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All public comment should be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking portal (Regulations.gov) or by U.S. mail to the address listed above.
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
The National Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Registry (OMB Control No. 0923-0041, Expiration Date 09/30/2016)—Revision—Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR).
On October 10, 2008, President Bush signed S. 1382: ALS Registry Act which amended the Public Health Service Act to provide for the establishment of an Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Registry. The activities described are part of the ongoing effort to maintain the National ALS Registry.
First approved in 2010 for self-registration, the primary goal of the surveillance system/registry remains to obtain reliable information on the incidence and prevalence of ALS and to better describe the demographic characteristics (age, race, sex, and geographic location) of persons with ALS (PALS). Those interested in participating in the National ALS Registry must answer a series of validation questions and if determined to be eligible they can register.
The secondary goal of the surveillance system/registry is to collect additional information on potential risk factors for ALS, including, but not limited to, family history of ALS, smoking history, military service, residential history, life-time occupational exposure, home pesticide use, hobbies, hormonal and reproductive history (women only), caffeine use, trauma, health insurance, open-ended supplemental questions, and clinical signs and symptoms. After registration, participants complete as many as 16 voluntary survey modules, each taking five minutes (maximum 80 minutes). In addition, in Year 1, a disease progression survey for new registrants is completed at 0, 3, and 6 months. In Years 2 and 3, the disease progression survey is repeated at the yearly anniversary and at 6 months. For burden estimation, the number of disease progression survey responses per year has been rounded up to 3 times.
A biorepository component is being added to increase the value of the National ALS Registry to researchers. As part of registration the participant can request additional information about the biorepository and provide additional contact information. A geographically representative sample will be selected to provide specimens. There are two types of specimen collections, in-home and postmortem. The in-home collection includes blood, urine, hair and nails. The postmortem collection includes the brain, spinal cord, cerebral spinal fluid (CSF), bone, muscle, and skin.
In addition to fulfilling the two-part Congressional mandate, the Registry is designed to be a tool for ALS researchers. Now that the Registry has matured, ATSDR will make data and specimens available to approved researchers and has added a respondent type. Researchers can request access to specimens, data, or both collected by the National ALS Registry for their research projects. ATSDR will review applications for scientific validity and human subjects' protection and make data/specimens available to approved researchers.
ATSDR is collaborating with ALS service organizations to conduct outreach activities through their local chapters and districts as well as on a national level. They provide ATSDR with information on their outreach efforts in support of the Registry on a monthly basis.
There are no costs to the respondents other than their time. The total number of burden hours requested is 1,986 hours.
Pursuant to Executive Order 13708 and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463) of October 6, 1972, the Director, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the re-establishment of the Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health, Department of Health and Human Services, extending through September 30, 2017.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of applications in response to Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA), PAR 15-353, Centers for Agricultural Safety and Health.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the Environmental Public Health Tracking Network, an information system which collects data from (1) other CDC programs such as the National Center for Health Statistics, (2) other federal agencies such as the Environmental Protection Agency, (3) publically accessible systems such as the Census Bureau, and (4) funded and unfunded state and local health departments (SLHD).
Written comments must be received on or before June 13, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0037 by any of the following methods:
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All public comment should be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking portal (Regulations.gov) or by U.S. mail to the address listed above.
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Environmental Public Health Tracking Network (Tracking Network)—Existing Collection in Use without an OMB Control Number—National Center for Environmental Health (NCEH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
In September, 2000, the Pew Environmental Health Commission issued a report entitled “America's Environmental Health Gap: Why the Country Needs a Nationwide Health Tracking Network.” In this report, the Commission documented that the existing environmental health systems were inadequate and fragmented and recommended a “Nationwide Health Tracking Network for disease and exposures.” In response to the report, Congress appropriated funds in the fiscal year 2002's budget for the CDC to establish the National Environmental Public Health Tracking Network (Tracking Network).
Continuously since 2008, and at the national level, the program collects data from (1) other CDC programs such as the National Center for Health Statistics, (2) other federal agencies such as the Environmental Protection Agency, (3) publically accessible systems such as the Census Bureau, and (4) funded and unfunded state and local health departments (SLHD). These data are integrated into and disseminated from the Tracking Network and used for analyses which can inform national programs, interventions, or policies; guide further development and activities within the Tracking Program; or advance the practice and science of environmental public health tracking. The Tracking Program also collects information from funded SLHD to monitor their progress related to their funding and for program evaluation. This information collection request is focused on data and information gathered by the Tracking Program from SLHD.
Due to voluntary program efforts to continuously improve compliance, the CDC recently determined that the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) should apply to the Tracking Network collections. Thus, the CDC requests a three-year PRA clearance to collect these data.
One part of the collection involves health, exposure, and hazard data from SLHD. The Tracking Network provides the United States with accurate and timely standardized data from existing health, exposure, and hazard surveillance systems and supports ongoing efforts within the public health and environmental sectors. The goal of the Tracking Network is to improve health tracking, exposure and hazard monitoring, and response capacity. When such data are available, the Tracking Program obtains data from national or public sources in order to reduce the burden on SLHD. When data are not available nationally or publically, the Tracking Program relies on funded SLHD to obtain and submit these data to the Tracking Network. Data from unfunded SLHD are accepted but not requested or solicited.
Data submitted annually by SLHD to the Tracking Program include: (1) Birth defects prevalence,(2) childhood lead blood levels, if a SLHD does not already report such data to CDC, (3) community drinking water monitoring, (4) emergency department visits, (5) hospitalizations, and (6) radon testing. The Tracking Program receives childhood lead blood levels data from CDC's Childhood Lead Poisoning Prevention Program (under the Healthy Homes and Lead Poisoning Surveillance System [HHLPSS—OMB Control No. 0920-0931, expiration date 5/31/2018]). A metadata record, a file describing the original source and collection procedures for the data being submitted, is also submitted with each dataset (1 per dataset for a total of 6 metadata records per year) using the Tracking Program's metadata creation tool.
Standardized extraction, formatting, and submission processes are developed in collaboration between CDC and SLHD for each dataset. Additions or modifications to these standardized datasets will also be developed collaboratively in order to improve the accuracy, completeness, efficiency, or utility of data submitted to CDC. Such changes will occur at most once a year. Examples of changes to data processes may include: (1) Addition of new variables or outcomes, (2) updates to case definitions, (3) modifications to temporal or spatial aggregation, and (4) changes in formatting for submission. As required, the Tracking Network will submit future additions and modifications as non-substantive change requests or revision information collection requests.
The other part of the collection involves program monitoring information from funded SLHD. In addition to standard reporting required by CDC's Procurement and Grants Office, the Tracking Program also collects information from funded SLHD for the purposes of program evaluation and monitoring. This information includes performance measures collected quarterly, a communications plan collected annually, an earned values management report collected quarterly, an evaluation plan collected annually, and Web site analytics
There are no costs for the respondents other than their time. The total estimated time burden is 25,320 hours. This estimate includes the time it takes to extract the data from the original data source(s), standardize and format the data to match the corresponding Tracking Network data form, and submit the data to the Tracking Network. In some cases, the data at the source are centralized and easily extracted. In other cases, like for radon data, the data are not. In those cases, the number of hours for extracting and standardizing the data is much greater. Four respondents have been added to the 26 SLHDs the program currently funds to account for the data voluntarily received from unfunded SLHDs and to allow for potential program growth over the next three years.
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the following meeting for the aforementioned committee:
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
This gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463) of October 6, 1972, that the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services, has been renewed
For information contact: Amanda Cohn M.D., Designated Federal Officer, Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services, 1600 Clifton Road NE., Mailstop A27, Atlanta, Georgia 30329-4027, telephone (404) 639-6039 or fax (404) 315-4679.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of applications in response to Funding Opportunity Announcement, RFA-CE-16-001: Research Grants for Preventing Violence and Violence Related Injury (R01).
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS) announces the following meeting of the aforementioned committee.
Requests to make oral presentations should be submitted in writing to the contact person listed below. All requests must contain the name, address, telephone number, and organizational affiliation of the presenter.
Written comments should not exceed five single-spaced typed pages in length and must be received by May 4, 2016.
The agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In compliance with the requirements of Section 506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 370 L'Enfant Promenade SW., Washington, DC 20447, Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Office of Community Services, ACF, HHS.
Notice of award of a single-source expansion supplement to Community Action Partnership in Washington, DC, to create a new learning cluster focused on child poverty in rural communities and expanding access to multi-generational programs.
The Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Office of Community Services (OCS), Division of State Assistance announces a single-source program expansion supplement in the amount of $50,000 to Community Action Partnership in Washington, DC 20036. The supplement will support the creation of a new learning cluster focused on addressing child poverty in rural communities and tribal lands and increasing access to multi-generational programs. This effort supports a recent Administration initiative,
The period of support is May 15, 2015-September 29, 2015.
Seth Hassett, Division Director, Office of Community Services, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201. Telephone: 202-401-2333; Email:
The White House Rural Council recently launched Rural Impact, a new effort to bring together federal agencies and public and private partners to support a multi-generational approach to investing in rural families and communities. HHS is a member of the federal interagency team that supports this effort. Within HHS, the Administration for Children and Families, including the Office of Community Services, has a significant reach into rural America funding a wide range of services and projects that help rural families and communities.
This program is authorized by Sections 674(b)(2)(A) and 678A of the CSBG Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 9903(b)(2)(A) and 9913).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces a forthcoming meeting of a public advisory committee of the Food and Drug Administration
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact AnnMarie Williams,
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Office of the Secretary, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, Presidential Commission for the Study of Bioethical Issues, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice of meeting.
The Presidential Commission for the Study of Bioethical Issues (the Commission) will conduct its twenty fifth meeting on May 3, 2016. At this meeting, the Commission will reflect on the past, present, and future impact of national bioethics advisory bodies. Topics will include the history of national bioethics advisory bodies and their contributions to health policy, perspectives about similar bodies elsewhere, and discussion about what the future holds for groups like the Commission.
The meeting will take place May 3, 2016, from 9 a.m. to approximately 5 p.m.
Grand Hyatt Washington Hotel, 1000 H St. NW., Washington, DC 20001
Lisa M. Lee, Executive Director, Presidential Commission for the Study of Bioethical Issues, 1425 New York Avenue NW., Suite C-100, Washington, DC 20005. Telephone: 202-233-3960. Email:
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, Public Law 92-463, 5 U.S.C. app. 2, notice is hereby given of the twenty fifth meeting of the Commission. The meeting will be open to the public with attendance limited to space available. The meeting will also be webcast at
Under authority of Executive Order 13521, dated November 24, 2009, the President established the Commission. The Commission is an expert panel of not more than 13 members who are drawn from the fields of bioethics, science, medicine, technology, engineering, law, philosophy, theology, or other areas of the humanities or social sciences. The Commission advises the President on bioethical issues arising from advances in biomedicine and related areas of science and technology. The Commission seeks to identify and promote policies and practices that ensure scientific research,
The main agenda for the Commission's twenty fifth meeting is to reflect upon the role of national bioethics advisory bodies, both in the US and abroad, in the past, present, and future. The Commission welcomes input from anyone wishing to provide public comment on any issue before it. Respectful consideration of opposing views and active participation by citizens in public exchange of ideas enhances overall public understanding of the issues at hand and conclusions reached by the Commission. The Commission is particularly interested in receiving comments and questions during the meeting that are responsive to specific sessions. Written comments will be accepted in advance, during, and after the meeting and are especially welcome. Comments will be publicly available, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that they contain. Trade secrets should not be submitted.
Written comments will be accepted by email to
Anyone planning to attend the meeting who needs special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify Esther Yoo by telephone at (202) 233-3960, or email at
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Council on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Eye Council.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Open: 8:30 a.m. to 1:00 p.m.
Closed: 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the meeting of the
Under authority 42 U.S.C. 217a, Section 222 of the Public Health Service Act, as amended, the Department of Health and Human Services established the National Science Advisory Board for Biosecurity (NSABB) to provide advice regarding federal oversight of dual use research—defined as legitimate biological research that generates information and technologies that could be misused to pose a biological threat to public health and/or national security. The NSABB is currently charged with providing formal recommendations to the United States Government on a conceptual approach for the evaluation of proposed gain-of-function studies.
The meeting will be open to the public and will also be webcast as space will be limited. Persons planning to attend or view via the webcast may pre-register online via the link provided below or by calling Palladian Partners, Inc. (Contact: Ida Donner or Carly Sullivan at 301-273-2817). Online and telephone registration will close at 12:00 p.m. Eastern on May 18, 2016. After that time, attendees may register onsite on the day of the meeting. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should indicate these requirements upon registration on or prior to May 18.
In addition, interested persons may file written comments at any time with the Board via an email sent to
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of meetings of the National Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases Advisory Council.
The meetings will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
National Protection and Programs Directorate, DHS.
30-Day Notice and request for comments; Revision of Information Collection Request: 1670-0007.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS or the Department), National Protection and Programs Directorate (NPPD), Office of Infrastructure Protection (IP), Infrastructure Security Compliance Division (ISCD), will submit the following Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35). The Department previously
In this notice NPPD is: (1) Responding to two commenters who submitted comments in response to the 60-day notice previously published for this ICR and (2) inviting public comment concerning this ICR for an additional 30 days.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until May 13, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB. Comments should be addressed to OMB Desk Officer, Department of Homeland Security, National Protection and Programs Directorate. Comments must be identified by the docket number DHS-2015-0058 and may be submitted using
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Comments that include trade secrets, confidential commercial or financial information, Chemical-terrorism Vulnerability Information (CVI),
The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Chemical Facility Anti-Terrorism Standards (CFATS) Program Manager, DHS/NPPD/IP/ISCD,
Section 550 of the Homeland Security Appropriations Act of 2007, Public Law 109-295 (2006), provided the Department with the authority to regulate the security of high-risk chemical facilities. On April 9, 2007, the Department issued an Interim Final Rule (IFR), implementing this statutory mandate at 72 FR 17688. In December 2014, the President signed into law the Protecting and Securing Chemical Facilities from Terrorist Attacks Act of 2014 (the CFATS Act of 2014), Public Law 113-254, which authorized the Chemical Facility Anti-Terrorism Standards program in the Homeland Security Act of 2002, as amended, Public Law 107-296.
The CFATS regulations (available at 6 CFR part 27) govern the security at covered chemical facilities that have been determined by the Department to be at high risk for terrorist attack. See 6 CFR part 27. The CFATS represent national-level effort to minimize the terrorism risk to such facilities. Its design and implementation balance maintaining economic vitality with securing facilities and their surrounding communities. The regulations were designed to take advantage of protective measures already in place and to allow facilities to employ a wide range of tailored measures to satisfy the regulations' Risk-Based Performance Standards (RBPS).
The Department collects the core regulatory data necessary to implement CFATS through the portions of the CSAT covered under this collection. For more information about CFATS and CSAT, you may access
The Department invited comments on four questions:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In response to the 60-Day Notice that solicited comments about the CSAT ICR, the Department received 12 comments from 2 commenters. The 2 commenters were 1 private citizen and 1 industry association.
The Department did not receive any comments suggesting that the proposed collection of information was not necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency.
This 30-Day Notice relies on the analysis and resulting burden estimates in the 60-day notice for this instrument. The Department also understands CVI training may be required for some Site Security Officer's before being able to submit a Top-Screen. The burden for CVI training is accounted for in ICR: 1670- 30-Day Notice published, in the
This 30-Day notice relies on the analysis and resulting burden estimates in the 60-day notice for this instrument.
This 30-Day Notice relies on the analysis and resulting burden estimates in the 60-day notice for this instrument.
This 30-Day Notice relies on the analysis and resulting burden estimates in the 60-day notice for this instrument.
This 30-Day Notice relies on the analysis and resulting burden estimates in the 60-day notice for this instrument.
Office of the Secretary, DHS.
Notice of Determination.
8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(3)(B)(i).
Following consultations with the Attorney General and the Secretary of State, I have determined that the grounds of inadmissibility at sec. 212(a)(3)(B) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3)(B), bar certain aliens who do not pose a national security or public safety risk from admission to the United States and from obtaining immigration benefits or other status. Accordingly, consistent with prior exercises of the exemption authority, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of State, I hereby conclude, as a matter of discretion in accordance with the authority granted by sec. 212(d)(3)(B)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(3)(B)(i), as amended, as well as the foreign policy and national security interests deemed relevant in these consultations, that sec. 212(a)(3)(B) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3)(B), excluding subclause (i)(II), shall not apply with respect to an alien for any activity or association relating to the following groups:
(a) is seeking a benefit or protection under the INA and has been determined to be otherwise eligible for the benefit or protection;
(b) has undergone and passed all relevant background and security checks;
(c) has fully disclosed, to the best of his or her knowledge, in all relevant applications and interviews with U.S. Government representatives and agents, the nature and circumstances of activities or association falling within the scope of sec. 212(a)(3)(B) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(3)(B);
(d) has not participated in, or knowingly provided material support to, terrorist activities that targeted noncombatant persons or U.S. interests;
(e) poses no danger to the safety and security of the United States; and
(f) warrants an exemption from the relevant inadmissibility provision(s) in the totality of the circumstances.
Implementation of this determination will be made by U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS), in consultation with U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE), or by U.S. consular officers, as applicable, who shall ascertain, to their satisfaction, and in their discretion, that the particular applicant meets each of the criteria set forth above.
This exercise of authority may be revoked as a matter of discretion and without notice at any time, with respect to any and all persons subject to it. Any determination made under this exercise of authority as set out above can inform but shall not control a decision regarding any subsequent benefit or protection application, unless such exercise of authority has been revoked.
This exercise of authority shall not be construed to prejudice, in any way, the ability of the U.S. government to commence subsequent criminal or civil proceedings in accordance with U.S. law involving any beneficiary of this exercise of authority (or any other person). This exercise of authority creates no substantive or procedural right or benefit that is legally enforceable by any party against the
In accordance with sec. 212(d)(3)(B)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(3)(B)(ii), a report on the aliens to whom this exercise of authority is applied, on the basis of case-by-case decisions by the U.S. Department of Homeland Security or by the U.S. Department of State, shall be provided to the specified congressional committees not later than 90 days after the end of the fiscal year.
This determination is based on an assessment related to the national security and foreign policy interests of the United States as they apply to the particular persons described herein and shall not have any application with respect to other persons or to other provisions of U.S. law.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability of permit applications; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications to conduct certain activities with endangered species. With some exceptions, the Endangered Species Act (Act) prohibits activities with endangered or threatened species unless a Federal permit allows such activity. The Act requires that we invite public comment before issuing these permits.
We must receive any written comments on or before May 13, 2016.
Send written comments by U.S. mail to the Regional Director, Attn: Carlita Payne, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Ecological Services, 5600 American Blvd. West, Suite 990, Bloomington, MN 55437-1458; or by electronic mail to
Carlita Payne, (612) 713-5343.
We invite public comment on the following permit applications for certain activities with endangered species authorized by section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, capture and relocate) federally listed mussels throughout the States of Arkansas, Iowa, Illinois, Indiana, Kentucky, Maryland, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Nebraska, New York, Pennsylvania, Oklahoma, Ohio, South Dakota, Tennessee, Virginia, Wisconsin, and West Virginia. The following mussel species are included:
Proposed activities are for the recovery and enhancement of survival of the species in the wild.
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (capture and release) American burying beetle (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) Indiana bat (
Proposed activities are for the recovery and enhancement of survival of the species in the wild.
The applicant requests a permit to take (capture and release) American burying beetle (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (capture and release, capture and hold) American burying beetle (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (capture and release) Higgins eye (pearlymussel) (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) Higgins eye (pearlymussel) (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (capture and release, trap, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (capture and release, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (capture and release, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (capture and release, trap, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, sample, and collect vouchers) scaleshell mussel (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (capture, sample and release, propagate and release) federally listed mussels in the States of Illinois, Indiana, Kentucky, Michigan, Ohio, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia. The following mussel species are included:
Proposed activities are for the recovery and enhancement of survival of the species in the wild.
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (capture and release) Topeka shiner (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (capture and release) federally listed mussels and fish in the States of Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, Tennessee, and Wisconsin. The following mussel and fish species are included:
Proposed activities are for the recovery and enhancement of survival of the species in the wild.
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) American burying beetle (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, handle, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, handle, band, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, handle, band, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, handle, and radio-tag) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (presence and absence surveys, habitat management, and prescribed fire) Karner blue butterfly (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release, handle, radio-tag, trap, collect hair and tissue, and enter hibernacula) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit to take (capture, hold, propagate, and release) Mitchell's satyr butterfly (
The applicant requests a permit to take (capture and release, handle, radio-tag, and enter hibernacula) Indiana bat (
The applicant requests a permit to take (capture and release) Topeka shiner (
The applicant requests a permit renewal, with amendment to take (capture and release) pallid sturgeon (
We seek public review and comments on these permit applications. Please refer to the permit number when you submit comments. Comments and materials we receive are available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the address shown in the
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
This is to notify the public that a 2-year extension of the temporary closure is in effect on public lands at the Ash Springs Recreation Site administered by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Ely District, Caliente Field Office as authorized under the provisions of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976 and pursuant to BLM regulations.
The Ash Springs Recreation Site located in Lincoln County, Nevada, has been closed for public safety purposes and resource protection for federally listed endangered species and BLM sensitive species.
This extension of the temporary closure is in effect on the date of publication of this notice in the
Christopher Carlton, Caliente Field Manager, 775-726-8100, email
The Ash Springs Recreation Site is located approximately 100 miles north of Las Vegas along U.S. Highway 93 in Pahranagat Valley in Lincoln County. The recreation site is defined by an existing fence and the closed lands are limited to the fenced area. The affected public lands are described as follows:
The lands described contain 1.18 acres, more or less, in Lincoln County.
An extension of the temporary closure of the Ash Springs Recreation Site is necessary. The BLM currently is in the process of developing a management plan and environmental assessment (EA). The plan will determine the type and level of recreational uses suitable for the site, while protecting habitat for the endangered White River springfish and for three BLM Nevada sensitive species: Pahranagat naucorid bug, Grated tryonia, and Pahranagat pebblesnail. The BLM will analyze any actions for repairing, rehabilitating, and/or reopening the site through the EA in compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act, incorporating public comments.
The BLM analyzed the original temporary closure through an EA #DOI-BLM-NV-L030-0013-0032-EA. The document analyzed the action of temporarily closing the public lands of
This extended temporary closure order is posted at the BLM Ely District Office, Ely, Nevada, and at the Caliente Field Office, Caliente, Nevada. This extended temporary closure applies to all members of the public except: (1) BLM personnel for administrative purposes; (2) Emergency and law enforcement personnel and vehicles while being used for emergency or administrative purposes; and (3) Any person authorized by the Ely District Manager or the Caliente Field Manager. If the BLM is unable to negate the risks to public safety and endangered species habitat, the BLM may consider other options for managing the site.
43 CFR 8364.1
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
History Colorado, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural items listed in this notice meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request to History Colorado. If no additional claimants come forward, transfer of control of the cultural items to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to History Colorado at the address in this notice by May 13, 2016.
Sheila Goff, 1200 Broadway, Denver, CO 80203, telephone (303) 866-4531, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate cultural items under the control of History Colorado that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects, under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American cultural items. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
In or about 1915, private citizens removed three cultural items from a Ute grave located near the former White River Indian Agency, CO. They were donated to the museum in 1927. The three unassociated funerary objects are one set of thin, undecorated copper bracelets, one leather belt decorated with copper studs, and one rifle fragment. The rifle is of the type used in the early 1870s. The human remains were never in the possession of History Colorado.
Geographical evidence, burial context, and museum records support affiliation with the Ute Indian Tribe of the Uintah & Ouray Reservation, Utah. The three northern Ute bands once living at the White River Indian Agency were removed from Colorado in 1880 and are now part of the Ute Indian Tribe of the Uintah & Ouray Reservation, Utah.
Officials of the History Colorado have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(B), the three cultural items described above are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the unassociated funerary objects and Ute Indian Tribe of the Uintah & Ouray Reservation, Utah.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Sheila Goff, 1200 Broadway, Denver, CO 80203, telephone (303) 866-4531, email
History Colorado is responsible for notifying the Southern Ute Indian Tribe of the Southern Ute Indian Reservation, Colorado; the Ute Indian Tribe of the Uintah & Ouray Reservation, Utah and the Ute Mountain Tribe of the Ute Mountain Reservation, Colorado, New Mexico and Utah that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
History Colorado has completed an inventory of human remains in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and any present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to History Colorado at the address in this notice by May 13, 2016.
Sheila Goff, History Colorado, 1200 Broadway, Denver, CO 80203, telephone (303) 866-4531, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of History Colorado, Denver, CO. The human remains were removed from El Paso County, CO.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3) and 43 CFR 10.11(d). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by History Colorado professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming; Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma); Comanche Nation, Oklahoma; Jicarilla Apache Nation, New Mexico; Kiowa Indian Tribe of Oklahoma; Mescalero Apache Tribe of the Mescalero Reservation, New Mexico; Northern Cheyenne Tribe of the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation, Montana; Pawnee Nation of Oklahoma; Pueblo of San Ildefonso, New Mexico; Pueblo of Santa Clara, New Mexico; Rosebud Sioux Tribe of the Rosebud Sioux Reservation, South Dakota; Southern Ute Indian Tribe of the Southern Ute Reservation, Colorado; Three Affiliated Tribes of the Fort Berthold Reservation, North Dakota; Ute Mountain Tribe of the Ute Mountain Reservation, Colorado, New Mexico & Utah; and the Zuni Tribe of the Zuni Reservation, New Mexico. The Apache Tribe of Oklahoma; Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe of the Cheyenne River Reservation, South Dakota; Crow Creek Sioux Tribe of the Crow Creek Reservation, South Dakota; Crow Tribe of Montana; Fort Sill Apache Tribe of Oklahoma; Oglala Sioux Tribe (previously listed as the Oglala Sioux Tribe of the Pine Ridge Reservation, South Dakota; Ohkay Owingeh, New Mexico (previously listed as the Pueblo of San Juan); Pueblo of San Felipe, New Mexico; Shoshone Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming; and Standing Rock Sioux Tribe of North & South Dakota were invited to consult but did not participate. Hereafter all tribes listed above are referred to as “The Consulted and Invited Tribes.”
In July 2015, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from site 5EP7747 in El Paso, CO. They were discovered while excavating a utility trench during the construction of a large subdivision. The El Paso County Coroner ruled out forensic interest and notified the Office of the State Archaeologist, whose staff subsequently removed the remains and took possession of them. The individual had been buried at depth facing south in a tightly flexed somewhat upright position. Osteological analysis was conducted at the Metropolitan State University of Denver Human Identification Laboratory, where it was determined that the remains were of a Native American juvenile between the ages of 11-15. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
Officials of History Colorado have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on osteological analysis and burial context.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and any present-day Indian tribe.
• According to final judgments of the Indian Claims Commission or the Court of Federal Claims, the land from which the Native American human remains were removed is the aboriginal land of the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming; Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma); and Northern Cheyenne Tribe of the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation, Montana.
• Treaties, Acts of Congress, or Executive Orders, indicate that the land from which the Native American human remains were removed is the aboriginal land of the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming; Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma); and Northern Cheyenne Tribe of the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation, Montana.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of the human remains may be to the Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming; Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (previously listed as the Cheyenne-Arapaho Tribes of Oklahoma); and Northern Cheyenne Tribe of the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation, Montana;
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Sheila Goff, History Colorado, 1200 Broadway, Denver, CO 80203, telephone (303) 866-4531, email
History Colorado is responsible for notifying the “The Consulted and Invited Tribes.” that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM), Nevada State Office, has completed an inventory of human remains, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, and has determined that there is no cultural affiliation between the human remains and any present-day Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request to the BLM. If no additional requestors come forward, transfer of control of the human remains to the Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to the BLM at the address in this notice by May 13, 2016.
Michael Herder, District Manager, Schell Field Office, HC 33 Box 33500, Ely, NV 98301, telephone (775) 289-1868, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3003, of the completion of an inventory of human remains under the control of the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management, Nevada State Office, Reno, NV. The human remains were removed from the Snake Creek Indian Burial Cave in White Pine County, NV.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American human remains. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A detailed assessment of the human remains was made by BLM Schell Field Office professional staff in consultation with representatives of the Confederated Tribes of the Goshute Reservation, Nevada and Utah; Duckwater Shoshone Tribe of the Duckwater Reservation, Nevada; Ely Shoshone Tribe of Nevada; Paiute Indian Tribe of Utah (Cedar Band of Paiutes, Kanosh Band of Paiutes, Koosharem Band of Paiutes, Indian Peaks Band of Paiutes, and Shivwits Band of Paiutes) (formerly Paiute Indian Tribe of Utah (Cedar City Band of Paiutes, Kanosh Band of Paiutes, Koosharem Band of Paiutes, Indian Peaks Band of Paiutes, and Shivwits Band of Paiutes)); Shoshone-Paiute Tribes of the Duck Valley Reservation, Nevada; Skull Valley Band of Goshute Indians of Utah; Te-Moak Tribe of Western Shoshone Indians of Nevada (Four constituent bands: Battle Mountain Band; Elko Band; South Fork Band and Wells Band); and the Yomba Shoshone Tribe of the Yomba Reservation, Nevada.
On an unknown date between July 1984 and January 1988, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were removed from Snake Creek Indian Burial Cave (Site 26WP23) in White Pine County, NV. The BLM Nevada State Office has since placed the human remains at the Nevada State Museum in Carson City, NV. The human remains appear to have been removed from the cave by a paleontologist conducting research in the cave. These human remains are catalogued as AHUR 6024 by the Nevada State Museum, Carson City. The human remains were identified as one adult and one juvenile of indeterminate sex. No known individuals were identified. No associated funerary objects are present.
The burial site is located in a solution karst cave with several connected underground chambers, and a vertical entrance that requires rappelling in from the ground surface. Entering the cave requires a drop of about 35 feet into the main chamber. As a result, it has been a natural trap for animals since the Pleistocene period. The remains of an ice age camel, horse, wolverine, badger, marten, wolf, and other locally extinct fauna along with wood and other organic material, were recovered from the cave by paleontological research conducted after the removal of the human remains reported in this notice.
Archeologists in the early to mid-1900s noted cultural materials in the cave and on the ground outside the mouth of the cave. Those materials, including a ladder and pottery, were identified by archeologists in the 1930s and 1950s as “Puebloan,” or likely associated with the Formative period, which includes several nearby sites now known to be large habitation sites associated with the Fremont culture. However, these artifacts have not been located in current collections and were not found in association with the human remains reported here.
The cave is located in Shoshone, Western Shoshone, or Niwi Territory, adjacent to a historic Shoshone community in an area near the Nevada-Utah border used traditionally by Shoshone and Goshute peoples. In addition, the cave was also used historically as a burial place by Goshute and/or Shoshone people. Early 20th century archeologists concluded that the cave was a Shoshone burial site, as a “cone” of human remains of Shoshone individuals and their belongings was located immediately below the opening of the cave. Consultations between the BLM Nevada State Office and various Native American tribes suggest that the cave may have been the place where the last Shoshone or Goshute Chief was buried. In addition, several tribes have previously indicated that the cave is a sacred place, and a prehistoric burial site.
The majority of the human remains in collection AHUR 6024 appear to have been buried. They are dark in color, soil-stained, and have dirt, root stains, and/or root hairs attached, indicative of either interment, or conditions of natural deposition that would occur over time. These features indicate the human remains may be several hundred to several thousands of years old, depending on preservation, or location of deposition within the cave. Given their estimated age, they appear to pre-date Euro-American settlement in the region. However, given the fact that the human remains are generally fractured, represent only scattered portions of the individuals represented, were not find in a primary burial context, and were not associated with any funerary objects, the BLM could not determine whether the human remains are culturally affiliated with any specific modern tribe.
Officials of the BLM Nevada State Office have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice are Native American based on the location and context of the burial site, skeletal analysis, and historic documentation.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(9), the human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), a relationship of shared group identity cannot be reasonably traced between the Native American human remains and any present-day Indian tribe.
• According to the final judgments of the Indian Claims Commission or the Court of Federal Claims, the land from which the Native American human remains were removed is the aboriginal land of the Confederated Tribes of the Goshute Reservation, Nevada and Utah; Ely Shoshone Tribe of Nevada; the Duckwater Shoshone Tribe of the Duckwater Reservation, Nevada; Shoshone-Paiute Tribes of the Duck Valley Reservation, Nevada; Skull Valley Band of Goshute Indians of Utah; Te-Moak Tribe of Western Shoshone Indians of Nevada (Four constituent bands: Battle Mountain Band; Elko Band; South Fork Band and Wells Band); and the Yomba Shoshone Tribe of the Yomba Reservation, Nevada.
• Pursuant to 43 CFR 10.11(c)(1), the disposition of the human remains may be to the Confederated Tribes of the Goshute Reservation, Nevada and Utah; Ely Shoshone Tribe of Nevada; the Duckwater Shoshone Tribe of the Duckwater Reservation, Nevada; Shoshone-Paiute Tribes of the Duck Valley Reservation, Nevada; Skull Valley Band of Goshute Indians of Utah; Te-Moak Tribe of Western Shoshone Indians of Nevada (Four constituent bands: Battle Mountain Band; Elko Band; South Fork Band and Wells Band); and the Yomba Shoshone Tribe of the Yomba Reservation, Nevada.
Representatives of any Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to request transfer of control of these human remains should submit a written request with information in support of the request to Michael Herder, District Manager, Ely District Office, HC 33 Box 33500, Ely, NV 98301, telephone (775) 289-1868, email
The BLM Nevada State Office is responsible for notifying the Confederated Tribes of the Goshute Reservation, Nevada and Utah; Duckwater Shoshone Tribe of the Duckwater Reservation, Nevada; Ely Shoshone Tribe of Nevada; Paiute Indian Tribe of Utah (Cedar Band of Paiutes, Kanosh Band of Paiutes, Koosharem Band of Paiutes, Indian Peaks Band of Paiutes, and Shivwits Band of Paiutes) (formerly Paiute Indian Tribe of Utah (Cedar City Band of Paiutes, Kanosh Band of Paiutes, Koosharem Band of Paiutes, Indian Peaks Band of Paiutes, and Shivwits Band of Paiutes)); Shoshone-Paiute Tribes of the Duck Valley Reservation, Nevada; Skull Valley Band of Goshute Indians of Utah; Te-Moak Tribe of Western Shoshone Indians of Nevada (Four constituent bands: Battle Mountain Band; Elko Band; South Fork Band and Wells Band); and the Yomba Shoshone Tribe of the Yomba Reservation, Nevada that this notice has been published.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
History Colorado, in consultation with the appropriate Indian tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations, has determined that the cultural items listed in this notice meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects. Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request to History Colorado. If no additional claimants come forward, transfer of control of the cultural items to the lineal descendants, Indian tribes, or Native Hawaiian organizations stated in this notice may proceed.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to History Colorado at the address in this notice by May 13, 2016.
Sheila Goff, 1200 Broadway, Denver, CO 80203, telephone (303) 866-4531, email
Notice is here given in accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), 25 U.S.C. 3005, of the intent to repatriate cultural items under the control of History Colorado that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects, under 25 U.S.C. 3001.
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA, 25 U.S.C. 3003(d)(3). The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the museum, institution, or Federal agency that has control of the Native American cultural items. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Some time prior to 1916, two cultural items were removed from a Ute grave located on the Ute Mountain Ute Reservation in Colorado by an Indian Agent. They were first loaned to the museum in 1916 and later donated. The unassociated funerary objects consist of a small mass of partially melted glass beads and a basketry water jar. The donor reported that the mass of beads was among the belongings of the deceased that had been burned when the individual was originally buried. Ute people traditionally burned the belongings of the deceased as part of the death rite. The basketry water jar had been placed nearby also as part of the death rite. There is no evidence that the human remains came to History Colorado.
Geographical evidence, burial context and practices, and museum records support affiliation with and the Southern Ute Indian Tribe of the Southern Ute Indian Reservation and Ute Mountain Tribe of the Ute Mountain Reservation, Colorado, New Mexico and Utah.
Officials of the History Colorado have determined that:
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(3)(B), the two cultural items described above are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.
• Pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 3001(2), there is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the unassociated funerary objects and the Southern Ute Indian Tribe of the Southern Ute Indian Reservation and the Ute Mountain Tribe of the Ute Mountain Reservation, Colorado, New Mexico and Utah.
Lineal descendants or representatives of any Indian tribe or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice that wish to claim these cultural items should submit a written request with information in support of the claim to Sheila Goff, 1200 Broadway, Denver, CO 80203, telephone (303) 866-4531, email
History Colorado is responsible for notifying the Southern Ute Indian Tribe of the Southern Ute Indian Reservation, Colorado; the Ute Indian Tribe of the Uintah & Ouray Reservation, Utah and the Ute Mountain Tribe of the Ute Mountain Reservation, Colorado, New Mexico and Utah that this notice has been published.
Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Bureau of Justice Statistics, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until May 13, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Shelley S. Hyland, Statistician, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531 (email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.
Notice.
Section 101(c) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 and Title 30 of the Code of Federal Regulations Part 44 govern the application, processing, and disposition of petitions for modification. This notice is a summary of petitions for modification submitted to the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) by the parties listed below.
All comments on the petitions must be received by the MSHA's Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances on or before May 13, 2016.
You may submit your comments, identified by “docket number” on the subject line, by any of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
MSHA will consider only comments postmarked by the U.S. Postal Service or proof of delivery from another delivery service such as UPS or Federal Express on or before the deadline for comments.
Barbara Barron, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances at 202-693-9447 (Voice),
Section 101(c) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act) allows the mine operator or representative of miners to file a petition to modify the application of any mandatory safety standard to a coal or other mine if the Secretary of Labor determines that:
1. An alternative method of achieving the result of such standard exists which will at all times guarantee no less than the same measure of protection afforded the miners of such mine by such standard; or
2. That the application of such standard to such mine will result in a diminution of safety to the miners in such mine.
In addition, the regulations at 30 CFR 44.10 and 44.11 establish the requirements and procedures for filing petitions for modification.
(1) The trailing cables for the 480-volt bolters will not be smaller than No. 4 AWG cable.
(2) All circuit breakers used to protect the No. 4 AWG trailing cable exceeding 700 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 500 amperes. The trip setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed to ensure that the settings on these breakers cannot be changed, and these circuit breakers will have permanent, legible labels. Each label will identify the circuit breaker as being suitable for protecting the cables as listed above.
(3) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units used to protect the No. 4 AWG trailing cable will be calibrated to trip at 500 amperes and they will be sealed.
(4) All components that provide short-circuit protection will have a sufficient interruption rating in accordance with the maximum calculated fault currents available.
(5) During each production day, the trailing cables and the circuit breakers will be examined in accordance with all 30 CFR provisions.
(6) Permanent warning labels will be installed and maintained on the load center identifying the location of each short-circuit protection device. These labels will warn miners not to change or alter the settings of these devices.
(7) If the affected trailing cables are damaged in any way during the shift, the cable will be de-energized and repairs made.
(8) The alternative method will not be implemented until all miners who have been designated to operate the bolters, or any other person designated to examine the trailing cables or trip settings on the circuit breakers, have received the proper training as to the performance of their duties.
(9) Within 60 days after the proposed decision and order becomes final, the petitioner will submit proposed revisions for their approved 30 CFR part 48 training plans to the District Manager. These revisions will specify task training for miners designated to examine the trailing cables for safe operating condition and verify that the short-circuit settings of the circuit-interrupting devices that protect the affected trailing cables do not exceed the settings specified previously in this petition. The training will include the following elements:
(a) The hazards of setting short-circuit interrupting device(s) too high to adequately protect the trailing cables.
(b) How to verify that the circuit interrupting device(s) protecting the trailing cable(s) are properly set and maintained.
(c) Mining methods and operating procedures that will protect the trailing cables against damage.
(d) Proper procedures for examining the trailing cables to ensure that the
The petitioner asserts that the proposed alternative method will at all times guarantee no less than the same measure of protection afforded by the standard.
1. The portals are located at approximate Elevation 1630. We understand the four mine openings within the proposed refuse disposal facility footprint have been abandoned and have dry-stacked, concrete block stoppings. Each of the four openings has a 10±-inch outside diameter high density polyethylene (HDPE) pipe installed through the stopping; however, we understand the pipes have never discharged. The mine dips to the northwest and discharges from two separate sets of down dip openings at Elevation 1595± and Elevation 1601±. These openings should preclude the potential for the mine to flood to the portal area.
2. It is proposed to use coal refuse as a construction material to cover the openings and reclaim the highwall. The material excavated to create the “face-up” for the portal area is no longer available to backfill the openings and eliminate the highwall. Each of the four openings associated with the Marsh Fork Mine portal area will be back-stowed with soil and rock to the stopping. Existing canopies and loose debris will be removed prior to placing the backfill. Although flooding of the mine to the portal area is not expected due to the down dip openings, a redundant underdrain system consisting of durable rock cobbles and a perforated pipe wrapped with filter fabric will be installed at the base of the highwall along the entire portal area. Each of the existing mine entry pipes will be connected to the perforated pipe within the underdrain. The underdrain will be extended to discharge into the refuse facility perimeter ditch. Additional soil and rock will be placed at the openings and along exposed coal seam to result in covering the seam with at least four feet of non-combustible material.
3. As described above, it is proposed that the construction of the Low Gap refuse disposal facility will backfill the portal entries and reclaim the highwall; however 30 CFR 77.214(a) generally states that refuse piles will not be located over abandoned openings. The apparent intent of this regulation is to limit the potential for a “blowout” of mine water and to limit the potential for combustion of the refuse and/or coal seam. The proposed backfill plan described in this petition addresses these concerns and provides a practical method of backfilling the openings with coal refuse that will provide an equivalent or greater measure of protection afforded by the existing standard. Since the mine has two gravity outlets as approximate Elevation 1595 and Elevation 1601 (
4. The proposed soil and rock backfill zone isolates the mine workings and coal seam from the proposed coal refuse fill minimizing any potential for a mine fire to spread to the refuse fill. Any exposed area of the Cedar Grove coal seam within the embankment footprint will be covered with at least four feet of soil and rock as the coal refuse backfill is placed. The coal refuse will be placed in a 2-foot (maximum) thick lifts. This requirement should preclude the potential for the refuse to spontaneously combust.
The petitioner asserts that the proposed alternative method will at all times guarantee no less than the same measure of protection afforded by the standard.
Division of Federal Employees' Compensation, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Department of Labor.
Notice.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA95) [44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)]. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs is soliciting comments concerning the proposed collection: Death Gratuity Forms (CA-40, CA-41, and CA-42). A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the office listed below in the addresses section of this Notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addresses section below on or before June 13, 2016.
Ms. Yoon Ferguson, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW., Room S-32331, Washington, DC 20210, telephone/fax (202) 354-9647, Email
The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008, Public Law 110-181, was enacted on January 28, 2008. Section 1105 of P.L. 110-181 amended the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FECA) creating a new 5 U.S.C. 8102a effective upon enactment. This section established a new FECA death gratuity benefit for eligible beneficiaries of federal employees and Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentality (NAFI) employees who die from injuries incurred in connection
The Department of Labor is particularly interested in comments which:
* Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
* evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
* enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
* minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The Department of Labor seeks extension of approval to collect this information in order to carry out its responsibility to meet the statutory requirements of the Federal Employees' Compensation Act. The information contained in these forms is used by the Division of Federal Employees' Compensation to determine entitlement to benefits under the Act, to verify dependent status, and to initiate, continue, adjust, or terminate benefits based on eligibility criteria.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
National Science Foundation.
Notice; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Pub. L. 104-13. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such
Submit written comments to Suzanne Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Room 1265, Arlington, VA 22230, or by email to
Call or write, Suzanne Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Room 1265, Arlington, VA 22230, or by email to
The PAEMST is a White House program established by Congress in 1983 authorizing the President to bestow up to 108 awards each year to teachers of mathematics and science at the elementary and secondary levels. The NSF is the designated federal agency for administration of this Presidential program. Awards are given to mathematics and science (including computer science) teachers from each of the 50 states and four U.S. jurisdictions. The jurisdictions are Washington, DC; Puerto Rico; Department of Defense Education Activity schools; and the U.S. territories as a group (American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands). The award recognizes those teachers who develop and implement a high-quality instructional program that is informed by content knowledge and enhances student learning. Since the program's inception, more than 4,300 teachers have been recognized for their contributions in the classroom and to their profession. Awardees serve as models for their colleagues, inspiration to their communities, and leaders in the improvement of mathematics and science (including computer science) education.
The State Coordinator (SC) manages the PAEMST program within his or her state or jurisdiction. SCs recruit eligible nominees, select and assign mentors to nominees, coordinate the selection committee, and plan local recognition events within their State. They also carry out the responsibilities as noted in the “Operational Handbook for State-Level Science and Mathematics Coordinators.”
The purpose of this survey is to seek feedback from the 120 SCs regarding PAEMST management within their state or jurisdiction. The NSF, PAEMST support team will ask directed questions using the survey to gather information that may specifically address the methods and recruitment efforts that SCs use to support the attracting of prospective award nominees. Additional survey areas may also include:
• Applicant Mentoring.
• Mentor Training.
• State selection Committee.
• State selection Process.
• Applicant and State Finalist Notification and Recognition.
• In-kind contributions.
The survey will evaluate the impact SCs have on attracting prospective award nominees to PAEMST. This will be conducted as a web-based survey.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of availability; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is making available for comment a set of emergency preparedness frequently asked questions (EPFAQs). These EPFAQs are intended to provide clarification of NRC-endorsed Nuclear Energy Institute guidance related to emergency preparedness (EP) at licensed power reactor sites. The NRC is publishing these draft EPFAQs to inform the public and solicit comments.
Comments must be filed by May 13, 2016. Comments received after this date will be considered, if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
•
•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Don A. Johnson, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington,
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0076 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by the following methods:
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0076 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is requesting comments on these draft EPFAQs. The NRC has developed this program for the staff to provide clarification of endorsed guidance related to EP. This process is intended to describe the manner in which the NRC may provide interested parties an opportunity to share their individual views with the NRC staff regarding the appropriate response to questions raised on the interpretation or applicability of EP regulatory guidance issued by the NRC, before the NRC issues an official response to such questions.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning material changes to the Mail Classification Schedule that would revise the competitive product description for Outbound Priority Mail International. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
Pursuant to 39 CFR 3020.80-.83, the Postal Service filed a formal request and associated supporting information to make material changes to the Mail Classification Schedule (MCS) that would revise the competitive product description for Outbound Priority Mail International in section 2315 of the MCS.
To support its Request, the Postal Service filed a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the Request, the proposed changes to the applicable sections of the MCS, and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials filed under seal. It also filed supporting financial workpapers to show that the changes will not result in the violation of 39 U.S.C. 3633 and 39 CFR 3015.5.
The Commission establishes Docket No. MC2016-118 to consider the Request pertaining to the proposed mail classification changes for Priority Mail International Flat Rate Envelopes and Priority Mail International Small Flat Rate Boxes.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filing is consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart E. Comments are due no later than April 15, 2016. The public portions of the filing can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Katalin K. Clendenin to serve as Public Representative in this docket.
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. MC2016-118 to consider the matters raised in the Request.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Katalin K. Clendenin is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than April 15, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
Tuesday, April 19, 2016, at 11:00 a.m.
Los Angeles, California.
Closed.
1. Strategic Issues.
2. Financial Matters.
3. Executive Session—Discussion of prior agenda items and Board governance.
The General Counsel of the United States Postal Service has certified that the meeting may be closed under the Government in the Sunshine Act.
Requests for information about the meeting should be addressed to the Secretary of the Board, Julie S. Moore, at 202-268-4800.
Pursuant to Section 107(b) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (the “Act” or the “Sarbanes-Oxley Act”),
On October 16, 2007, the Board adopted amendments to its rules related to inspections. The proposed amendments included a new paragraph (e) added to existing Rule 4003 and amendments to paragraphs (b) and (d) of Rule 4003. On October 22, 2007, the Board filed the amendments with the Commission and requested Commission approval (“the original rule filing”). On February 26, 2016 the Board adopted revisions to those proposed amendments and, on March 24, 2016 amended the rule filing to reflect those revisions. The text of the revised proposed amendments is set out below. Language added to the Board's currently effective rules by these amendments is italicized. Language deleted from the Board's currently effective rules is in brackets. Other text in Section 4 of the Board's Rules, including notes to the Rules, remains unchanged and is indicated by “ * * * ” in the text below.
* * *
* * *
(b) At least once in every three calendar years, beginning with the three-year period following the calendar year in which its application for registration with the Board is approved, a registered public accounting firm that, during any of the three prior calendar years, issued an audit report,
* * *
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this Rule, with respect to any registered public accounting firm that became registered in 2003 or 2004—
(1) this Rule does not require the first inspection of the firm sooner than the fourth calendar year following the first calendar year in which the firm, while registered, issued an audit report
(2) this Rule does not require the second inspection of the firm sooner than the fifth calendar year following the first calendar year in which the firm, while registered, issued an audit report
* * *
In its amended filing with the Commission, the Board included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule. The
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires the Board to conduct a continuing program of inspections to assess the degree of compliance with certain requirements by registered public accounting firms and their associated persons in connection with the performance of audits, issuance of audit reports, and related matters involving issuers. In 2003, the Board adopted PCAOB Rule 4003, “Frequency of Inspections.” Rule 4003(b) provides that at least once every three years, any firm that, during any of the three prior calendar years, issues an audit report with respect to at least one issuer but no more than 100 issuers, or plays a substantial role in the preparation or furnishing of an audit report with respect to an issuer, shall be subject to a regular inspection. The Board has adopted amendments relating to Rule 4003(b) that are intended to facilitate the Board's ability to allocate its inspection resources in ways that better serve the public interest and protect investors.
The Board has adopted amendments to eliminate Rule 4003(b)'s provision for triennial inspections of firms that play a substantial role in audits but do not issue audit reports and to provide instead that the Board will, every year, inspect at least five percent of such firms. The Board has also adopted an amendment to provide that no inspection requirement arises under Rule 4003(b) solely because a firm consents to an issuer's use of a previously issued audit report.
The Board's experience in the inspection program has affected the Board's view on the appropriateness of devoting Board resources to inspecting one-third of all “substantial role only” firms every year.
In annual reports on PCAOB Form 2 filed by registered firms for the 12-month reporting period ended March 31, 2015, 571 firms reported having issued audit reports for one to 100 issuers, and 103 firms reported having played a substantial role in at least one issuer audit without having issued audit reports for any issuers. The Board continues to be of the view that it is appropriate to allocate the largest share of its inspection resources toward addressing the policies, practices, and procedures of the firms that are ultimately responsible for the audit report on the issuer's financial statements, and that the Board's rules should not require triennial inspections of “substantial role only” firms. The Board therefore continues to propose eliminating Rule 4003(b)'s requirement for triennial inspections of “substantial role only” firms.
In addition, however, having considered views expressed by SEC staff and taking into account that the Board's inspection staff has over time identified auditing deficiencies in some inspections of “substantial role only” firms,
Unlike the amendment in the original rule filing, however, the revised proposed amendment provides that the Board will, in each year, select some “substantial role only” firms for inspection, with the number of firms to be a number that is at least five percent of the number of firms that reported being “substantial role only” firms in their annual reports on PCAOB Form 2 filed with the Board in the preceding year. Board rules require that all registered firms file an annual report. A firm that does not issue an audit report for an issuer during the period covered by an annual report must identify in that annual report any audit in which it played a substantial role in that period. Through its other processes, the Board may identify firms that fail to comply with this reporting requirement (and may impose sanctions for those failures), or the Board may identify that a firm has reported playing a substantial role when its role in fact fell below that level. But for purposes of identifying “substantial role only” firms, the required annual reports on Form 2 provide the most reasonable reference point.
Based on the history of reporting on Form 2, the Board anticipates that the five percent threshold will translate to four to six firms each year, though it could fall above or below that range in a particular year, and the number actually inspected could exceed that threshold in any year as a result of risk-based judgments about how to allocate inspection resources. The revised proposed amendment provides that the firms to be inspected will be selected from among those that have reported playing a substantial role in audits in one of the four most recent Form 2 reporting periods without having reported issuing an audit report for an issuer in any of those periods. With that revision, Rule 4003's provision concerning “substantial role only” firms is now designated as paragraph (h).
In adopting the amendment included in the original rule filing related to “substantial role only” firms, the Board noted that it had not up to that time inspected a “substantial role only” firm but also noted that it would retain discretion under the amended rule to inspect “substantial role only” firms at any time. The Board's practice, since first inspecting “substantial role only” firms in 2009, has in fact been
By using the four most recent Form 2 reporting periods as the reference point, the Board would, for any given inspection year, be selecting “substantial role only” firms from a universe that includes firms that have reported playing a substantial role as recently as the year in which the inspection would occur and as far back as three previous years. This will allow the Board to select from among the most relevant universe, without limiting that universe to firms reporting in one specific year. In addition, by limiting that universe to firms that, in addition to playing a substantial role, have not issued an audit report in any of those years, the rule would exclude any possibility of counting, toward satisfaction of the “substantial role only” inspection requirement, firms that otherwise would be inspected, or recently have been inspected, because of the firm's relatively recent issuance of an audit report.
The proposed rule also adds a provision to existing paragraph (b) specifying that no inspection requirement arises solely on the basis of the firm issuing an audit report by consenting to an issuer's use of a previously issued audit report. Since the act of originally issuing the audit report would have given rise to an inspection requirement, and the related audit would have been a candidate for review in that required inspection, it would be redundant to subject the registered firm to a separate, later inspection relating to the same audits in circumstances where the firm is no longer issuing audit reports other than by consenting to issuers' use of previously issued audit reports.
The original rule filing also included a technical amendment that was intended to clarify an aspect of Rule 4003(b) without making any substantive change. The Board subsequently realized that the technical amendment could have provided the Board with flexibility that the Board did not intend regarding inspection frequency, and the Board has therefore revised its proposal to eliminate that technical amendment and retain the relevant existing wording. Specifically, the Board had revised the wording of Rule 4003(b) to provide that the Board must conduct at least one inspection of a firm in the three calendar-year period following any calendar year in which the firm issues an audit report with respect to an issuer. That wording would have given the Board flexibility that the Board did not intend. For example, if a firm issued an audit report in years 1, 2, 4, and 5, but not in year 3, a Board inspection of the firm in year 3 would satisfy the inspection requirement created by the audit reports in years 1 and 2, but the next inspection would not technically be required until year 7 (the third calendar year after the report issued in year 4), rather than within three years after the previous inspection,
Existing Rule 4003(d) extends the Rule 4003(b) time period in which the Board must conduct the first and second inspections of firms that registered with the Board in 2003 or 2004. The Board has adopted an amendment to conform Rule 4003(d) to the Rule 4003(b) amendment concerning “substantial role only” firms. Consistent with the amendment to Rule 4003(b), the Board is amending Rule 4003(d) to eliminate from Rule 4003(d) the references to “substantial role only” firms.
Separately, a development in the law since the original rule filing has led the Board to make a technical revision to Rule 4003(d). Rule 4003(d) uses the term “audit report” in two places. When Rule 4003(d) took effect in 2006, “audit report” was, by definition, limited to reports with respect to issuers, and this was still the case at the time of the original rule filing proposing amendments to Rule 4003(d). That definition has since been broadened to include reports with respect to registered brokers and dealers and, as broadened, the unqualified use of the term “audit report” in Rule 4003(d) would change the meaning of the rule from what the Board originally intended and still intends. For that reason, the Board has added the language “with respect to an issuer” to qualify “audit report” where that term appears in proposed Rule 4003(d).
The original rule filing included an amendment that conformed Rule 4003(d) to the Rule 4003(b) amendment that provides that no inspection requirement arises solely on the basis of a firm issuing an audit report by consenting to an issuer's use of a previously issued audit report. The operation of Rule 4003(d) is limited to firms that became registered in 2003 or 2004. At the time of the original rule filing in 2007, it was possible for circumstances to arise that would have triggered the application of this amendment with respect to such firms. With the passage of time, however, those circumstances should no longer arise, and the Board has therefore made a technical revision to eliminate this amendment to Rule 4003(d).
The Board's experience in the inspection program to date has affected the Board's view on the appropriateness of devoting Board resources to inspecting every firm that has issued an audit report, including firms that have not recently done so. This was another respect in which the Board observed that the existing rule sometimes requires the Board to deploy inspection resources in ways that do not represent the most effective use of those resources in furtherance of the public interest and the protection of investors. In particular, it sometimes happens that (1) a firm issues an audit report in year 1, opining on financial statements for the preceding year; (2) consistent with existing Rule 4003(b), the Board's long-range inspection planning sets that firm for inspection in year 4; and (3) the firm issues no audit reports in years 2 or 3. Under the current rule, the Board must then inspect the firm in year 4, even though the most recent audit report issued by the firm is three years old on financial statements that are four years old.
In 2007, the Board concluded that it could better fulfill its public interest and investor protection mandates if it had the flexibility in that circumstance to focus its year 4 inspection resources on firms that are more regularly and recently engaged in preparing audit reports. Accordingly, the Board adopted a new paragraph (e) to Rule 4003 that would give the Board discretion to forego the otherwise required inspection in the scenario described above in determining how to deploy its inspection resources.
The Board continues to view Rule 4003(e) as providing useful flexibility with respect to the allocation of inspection resources. The number of otherwise required inspections that the
Under proposed Rule 4003(e), the Board would have the flexibility to deploy its inspection resources in ways other than by inspecting such firms. Rule 4003(e) would allow the Board to forego an otherwise required inspection of a firm that issued an audit report if, in two consecutive years, the firm does not issue any audit reports. The rule would not require the Board to inspect such a firm unless and until the firm engaged in conduct that triggered the operation of Rule 4003(b) anew.
Rule 4003(e) would not, however, prohibit the Board from inspecting any of those firms or in any way entitle those firms not to be inspected. There may be circumstances in which the Board would choose to inspect a firm even where Rule 4003(e) gave the Board the discretion to forego the inspection.
The Board has made a technical amendment to proposed Rule 4003(e) since the original rule filing. Proposed Rule 4003(e) uses the term “audit report” in two places. At the time of the original rule filing, “audit report” was, by definition, limited to reports with respect to issuers. That definition has since been broadened to include reports with respect to registered brokers and dealers and, as broadened, the unqualified use of the term “audit report” in Rule 4003(e) would change the meaning of the rule from what the Board originally intended and still intends. For that reason, the Board has added the language “with respect to an issuer” to qualify “audit report” where that term appears in proposed Rule 4003(e).
Not applicable. The Board's consideration of the economic impacts of the proposed rule changes is discussed in Section D below.
The Board solicited public comment before adopting the amendments to Rule 4003 that were included in the original rule filing. The Board received three comment letters, all of which were supportive of those amendments and, more generally, supportive of the Board's effort to increase its discretion to bring risk-based judgments to bear in allocating its inspection resources.
The revised proposed amendments reflect certain technical corrections or updates described above, including undoing a non-substantive amendment that was discovered to have an unintended substantive effect, qualifying the term “audit report” to remain consistent with the original meaning following intervening legislation that expanded the definition, and eliminating references to the effect of consenting to the use of a previously issued audit report where the passage of time had negated the potential applicability of those references. The Board made these revisions without seeking public comment.
In addition, since the original rule filing, which included the amendment eliminating any periodic inspection requirement for all “substantial role only” firms, the Board has determined to commit to a practice of conducting some inspections of such firms and to establish by rule a lower limit on the number of such inspections it will conduct each year. Such a practice is consistent with the Board's authority even in the absence of a rule, is consistent with the Board's description of its possible exercise of that authority in soliciting public comment on the amendments,
In the Board's view, the proposed amendments to Rule 4003 are consistent with the purposes of the Act, the public interest, and the protection of investors.
It is anticipated that the proposed amendments to Rule 4003(b) and the addition of Rule 4003(h) will impose no new costs on the universe of registered firms relative to current practice.
The Board has considered whether the proposed amendments might decrease audit quality in the work of the “substantial role only” firms by appearing to those firms to reduce the likelihood of their being inspected. On that question, the Board has considered that the proposed rules would not change those firms' perception of the fact that they might be inspected. The Board has also considered whether the proposed rules would be likely to change, in any meaningful way, those firms' current perception of the likelihood of being inspected. There is no direct evidence concerning what those firms' current perceptions are on that point, but it is reasonable to assume that firms in the “substantial role only” category currently perceive the likelihood of their being inspected as something that is less than the existing rule.
Proposed Rule 4003(e) will potentially reduce costs imposed on the universe of registered firms relative to current practice.
The Board has considered whether the benefit of potentially avoiding imposing regulatory burdens on those firms that might, under proposed Rule 4003(e), be less likely to be inspected than would be the case under current practice could reduce audit quality in the work of those firms. On that question, the Board has considered that firms that the Board could choose to forgo inspecting under proposed Rule 4003(e) typically would not be expected to realize, at the time they perform an audit, that future developments will make Rule 4003(e) applicable. Moreover, Rule 4003(e) would not, even if applicable, provide the firm with any assurance that it would not be inspected. For those reasons, the Board does not anticipate that proposed Rule 4003(e) would cause any significant change in the extent to which the potential for inspection provides an incentive for registered firms to perform audit work in compliance with PCAOB standards.
Before rules adopted by the Board can take effect, they must be approved by the Commission. Under Section 103(a)(3)(C) of the Act,
The proposed amendments do not change or add to the requirements that apply “to an audit of” an EGC or to any other audits. They do not affect requirements governing how a firm conducts or reports on audits under PCAOB standards, including audits of EGCs. In addition to not imposing any requirements that apply to an audit, the proposed amendments do not appear likely to significantly affect EGCs in other ways. Specifically, the Board does not anticipate that the proposed amendments will affect an auditor's perception, during the audit of an EGC, of the possibility of that audit eventually being reviewed in any inspection or the nature of any such review. Many factors affect the selection of audits that the Board reviews in the inspection of any particular firm, and the proposed rules would not affect the likelihood that any particular audit of an EGC will be reviewed in an inspection of the EGC's auditor. In addition, as noted above, firms that the Board could choose to forgo inspecting under proposed Rule 4003(e) typically would not be expected to realize, at the time they perform an audit, that future developments will make Rule 4003(e) applicable, and in any event they would have no assurance that the Board would forgo the inspection. Moreover, to the extent audits of EGCs are selected for review in an inspection, the proposed rules would have no effect on how that review is conducted, and they provide no reason for an auditor, at the time of the audit, to anticipate any different treatment of that audit in an inspection.
It does not appear that the proposed amendments would have an effect on efficiency, competition, and capital formation with respect to EGCs. The Board defers to the Commission on the applicability of Section 103(a)(3)(C) to the proposed amendments. If the Commission determines that Section 103(a)(3)(C) applies to these amendments, the Board requests that the Commission determine that it is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, after considering the protection of investors and whether the action will promote efficiency, competition, and capital formation, to apply the amendments to audits of EGCs. The Board stands ready to assist the Commission with any additional analysis that may become necessary.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rules are consistent with the requirements of Title I of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Office of the Chief Accountant, by delegated authority.
On February 11, 2016, the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA's rules generally require each person associated with a member included within the definition of a representative to register with FINRA as a Securities Trader if, with respect to transactions in equity, preferred or convertible debt securities effected otherwise than on a securities exchange, such person is engaged in proprietary trading, the execution of transactions on an agency basis, or the direct supervision of such activities.
For purposes of the proposal, FINRA defines an “algorithmic trading strategy” as an automated system that generates or routes orders or order-related messages—such as routes or cancellations—but does not include an automated system that solely routes orders received in their entirety to a market center. The proposed registration requirement applies to orders and order related messages whether ultimately routed or sent to be routed to an exchange or over the counter.
The associated persons covered by the expanded registration requirement must pass the requisite qualification examination and be subject to the same continuing education requirements that are applicable to individual Securities Traders. FINRA believes that problematic conduct stemming from algorithmic trading strategies—such as failure to check for order accuracy, inappropriate levels of messaging traffic, wash sales, failure to mark orders as “short” or perform proper short sale “locates,” and inadequate risk management controls—could be reduced or prevented, in part, through improved education regarding securities regulations for the specified individuals involved in the algorithm design and development process.
The proposal is intended to ensure the registration of one or more associated persons that possesses knowledge of, and responsibility for, both the design of the intended trading strategy and the technological implementation of the strategy, sufficient to evaluate whether the resulting product is designed to achieve regulatory compliance in addition to business objectives.
FINRA notes that FINRA Rule 3110(a)(2) generally requires that all registered persons be designated to an appropriately registered principal or principals with authority to carry out the supervisory responsibilities of the member for each type of business in which it engages for which registration as a broker-dealer is required. With the addition of algorithmic trading activities to the Securities Trader registration category, members will be required to designate developers to a registered principal for Rule 3110(a)(2) purposes.
FINRA notes that a member employing an algorithm is responsible for the algorithm's activities whether the algorithm is designed or developed in-house or by a third-party.
The Commission received one comment letter that supports the proposal.
After carefully considering the proposed rule change and the comment submitted the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities association.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On February 3, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange. The Shares will be offered by the Absolute Shares Trust (“Trust”), a statutory trust organized under the laws of the State of Delaware and registered with the Commission as an open-end management investment
According to the Exchange, the Fund's investment objective is to seek long term capital appreciation while also seeking to protect principal during unfavorable market conditions.
The Fund, under normal market conditions,
The Fund may invest in the following exchange-traded and OTC U.S. and foreign equity securities (other than non-exchange-traded investment company securities): Common stocks, preferred stocks, rights, warrants, convertibles, master limited partnerships (exchange-traded businesses organized as partnerships (“MLPs”)), Depositary Receipts (“DRs”, as described below),
As part of the Fund's principal investment strategy, up to 20% of the Fund's net assets may be invested in exchange-traded or OTC “Financial Instruments,” which are the following: Foreign exchange forward contracts; futures on equity securities, debt securities (
As part of its principal investment strategy, the Fund may invest in the following types of debt securities (“Debt Instruments”): Corporate debt securities;
The Fund may invest in and hold cash or “Cash Equivalents”
For investments in Registered Funds, the Fund may invest in excess of the limits contained in the 1940 Act.
While the Fund, under normal market conditions, will seek to invest primarily (at least 50% of its total assets) in the securities described above, the Fund may invest as part of its non-principal investment strategy (less than 50% of the Fund's assets) in short positions in equity securities and in agency and non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities (“RMBS”); agency and non-agency commercial mortgage-backed securities (“CMBS”); and agency and non-agency asset-backed securities (“ABS”).
The Fund may invest up to 40% of its net assets in Debt Instruments rated below investment grade.
The Fund will not invest more than 50% of its net assets in securities of issuers in emerging markets, which could consist of DRs, dollar-denominated foreign securities or non-U.S. dollar denominated foreign securities.
Investments in non-agency mortgage and asset backed securities will be limited to 20% of the Fund's total assets in the aggregate.
The Fund may invest up to 30% of its total assets in securities denominated in non-U.S. Dollars, but this limitation will not apply to securities of non-U.S. issuers that are denominated in U.S. Dollars. The Fund may invest up to 50% of the Fund's principal investments in the securities of issuers in emerging markets.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser. The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid assets. Illiquid assets include securities subject to contractual or other restrictions on resale and other instruments that lack readily available markets as determined in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
The Fund will be non-diversified under the 1940 Act.
The Fund's investments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage. That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
After careful review, the Commission finds that the Exchange's proposal to list and trade the Shares is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
According to the Exchange, quotation and last-sale information for the Shares, and U.S. exchange-traded common stocks, preferred stocks, rights, warrants, convertibles, MLPs, DRs, REITs, CEFs, ETFs, ETPs and ETNs will be available via the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”) high-speed line. Intra-day price information for foreign exchange-traded common stocks, preferred stocks, rights, warrants, convertibles, MLPs, DRs and REITs, will be available from the applicable foreign exchange and from major market data vendors. Price information for OTC common stocks, OTC CEFs, non-exchange listed ADRs, RMBS, CMBS, ABS, and OTC Financial Instruments will be available from major market data vendors. Intra-day and closing price information for exchange-traded Financial Instruments will be available from the applicable exchange and from major market data vendors. In addition, price information for U.S. exchange-traded options is available from the Options Price Reporting Authority. Intra-day price information for Cash Equivalents will be available from major market data vendors. Price information for municipal securities is available from the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board's (“MSRB”) Electronic Municipal Market Access system.
In addition, the Portfolio Indicative Value, as defined in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 (c)(3), will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session.
The NAV for the Shares will be calculated after 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time each trading day. A basket composition file, which will include the security names and share quantities required to be delivered in exchange for Fund Shares, together with estimates and actual cash components, will be publicly disseminated daily prior to the opening of the New York Stock Exchange via the National Securities Clearing Corporation. Information regarding market price and trading volume for the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. The Web site for the Fund will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information.
The Commission further believes that the proposal to list and trade the Shares is reasonably designed to promote fair disclosure of information that may be necessary to price the Shares appropriately and to prevent trading when a reasonable degree of transparency cannot be assured. The Commission notes that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders (“ETP Holders”) in an Information Bulletin (“Bulletin”) of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, or by regulatory staff of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The Exchange represents that it deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. In support of this proposal, the Exchange has also made the following representations:
(1) The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600.
(2) The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions.
(3) Trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by regulatory staff of the Exchange, or FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws, and these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and federal securities laws applicable to trading on the Exchange.
(4) The Exchange has represented that all statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange rules and surveillance procedures shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange. The issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements.
(5) FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, and regulatory staff of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-traded options and futures, certain exchange-traded equities (including ETFs, ETPs. ETNs, CEFs, certain common stocks and certain REITs) with other markets or other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”),
(6) Prior to the commencement of trading of the Shares, the Exchange will inform its ETP Holders in a Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. The Bulletin will discuss the following: (a) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in creation units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (b) NYSE Arca Equities Rule 9.2(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its ETP Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (c) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Opening and Late Trading Sessions when an updated Portfolio Indicative Value will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (d) how information regarding the Portfolio Indicative Value and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (e) the requirement that ETP Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (f) trading information.
(7) For initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Exchange Act,
(8) A minimum of 100,000 Shares for the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange.
(9) While the Fund may invest in inverse ETFs, the Fund will not invest in leveraged (
(10) Not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in futures contracts or exchange-traded options contracts shall consist of futures contracts or exchange-traded options contracts whose principal market is not a member of ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
(11) Under normal market conditions, the Fund will invest at least 75% of its corporate debt securities in issuances that have at least $100,000,000 par amount outstanding in developed countries or at least $200,000,000 par amount outstanding in emerging market countries.
(12) The Fund may not invest more than 30% of its total assets in securities denominated in non-U.S. Dollars, but this limitation will not apply to securities of non-U.S. issuers that are denominated in U.S. Dollars.
(13) The Fund may not invest more than 40% of its net assets in Debt Instruments rated below investment grade (also known as “junk bonds”).
(14) The Fund will not invest more than 50% of its net assets in securities of issuers in emerging markets, which could consist of DRs, dollar-denominated foreign securities or non-U.S. dollar denominated foreign securities.
(15) Investments in non-agency mortgage and asset backed securities will be limited to 20% of the Fund's total assets in the aggregate.
(16) The Fund may not invest more than 50% of the Fund's principal investments in the securities of issuers in emerging markets.
(17) The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
(18) The Fund's investments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage. That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
This approval order is based on all of the Exchange's representations, including those set forth above and in the Amendment No. 1. The Commission notes that the Fund and the Shares must comply with the requirements of NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 to be initially and continuously listed and traded on the Exchange.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether Amendment No. 1 to the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, prior to the thirtieth day after the date of publication of Amendment No. 1 in the
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Access Services fees at Rule 7015(g)(1) to reduce the fee assessed for MITCH Wave Ports located at Mahwah, NJ. The Exchange is also proposing to amend Rule 7034 to: (i) Reduce monthly fees assessed for NYSE Equities market data connectivity; and (ii) make technical changes to the description of market data connectivity options under the rule. While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative on April 1, 2016.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to reduce certain fees under Rules 7015 and 7034, and to make technical changes to the description of market data connectivity options under Rule 7034.
The Exchange is proposing to reduce the fee assessed for MITCH Wave Port at Mahwah, NJ monthly subscriptions. The Exchange provides Multi-cast ITCH (“MITCH”) Wave Ports to clients co-located at other third-party data centers, including the New York Stock Exchange`s (“NYSE”) data center located in Mahwah, NJ, through which the Exchange's TotalView ITCH market data is distributed after delivery to those data centers via a wireless network.
The wirelessly-delivered TotalView ITCH market data arrives at Exchange-owned cabinets located at these third-party data centers, to which the co-location clients may cross-connect to the MITCH Wave Ports in those data centers to receive TotalView ITCH.
The Exchange incurs costs in leasing towers and equipment to connect to third-party data centers, such as Mahwah, NJ, through its third party vendors and the Exchange recoups these costs through the fees it assesses. The Exchange has recently reduced such vendor cost for connectivity to Mahwah, NJ by switching to an alternative vendor that assesses the Exchange a lower fee for such connectivity and is accordingly proposing to reduce the monthly charge assessed to subscribers for a MITCH Wave Port at Mahwah, NJ from $12,500 per month to $10,000 per month.
The Exchange is proposing to amend Rule 7034 to: (i) Reduce monthly fees assessed for NYSE Equities market data connectivity; and (ii) make technical changes to the description of market data connectivity options under the rule. Rule 7034 provides the charges assessed by the Exchange for co-location services. Rule 7034(b) provides the various connectivity options for co-location services. The Exchange offers multicast Market Data feeds that are delivered to the Exchange's data center located in Carteret, NJ via a wireless network.
The first change the Exchange proposes is to reduce the recurring monthly fee assessed for connectivity to NYSE Equities data feeds, which are transmitted from the Mahwah, NJ data center to the Exchange's data center in Carteret, NJ. As discussed above, the Exchange recently reduced its vendor costs by switching to an alternative vendor that assesses the Exchange a lower fee for such connectivity. Because of the reduced vendor costs realized for connectivity to Mahwah, NJ, the Exchange is able to reduce the charges assessed for services that require wireless connectivity to Mahwah, NJ.
Currently, the Exchange assesses a recurring monthly fee of $12,500 for connectivity to NYSE Equities Arca Integrated feed and the for the NYSE Equities Open Book feed. As a consequence of the reduced vendor costs, the Exchange is proposing to reduce the charge it assesses as a recurring monthly fee for each of these services from $12,500 to $10,000.
The second change the Exchange proposes is to make technical corrections to the rule text under Rule 7034(b) concerning NYSE Equities Open Book connectivity and BATS Multicast PITCH connectivity. NYSE recently combined Open Book data with NYSE BBO, NYSE Trades, and NYSE Order Imbalances data to form the “NYSE Integrated” data feed,
The Exchange is also correcting rule text concerning BATS Multicast PITCH connectivity that was inadvertently introduced when the rule text was adopted.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange believes that proposed reduction in the monthly recurring fees assessed under Rules 7015 and 7034(b) are [sic] reasonable because they [sic] will allow the Exchange to align the fees assessed for the connectivity more closely with the costs incurred by the Exchange in offering the connectivity. As discussed above, the Exchange realized a reduction in its vendor costs. Vendors supply wireless connectivity from the Exchange's data center to the data centers of other markets. Vendor costs are not the only costs to the Exchange in offering such connectivity; however, the reduced vendor cost for wirelessly connecting to Mahwah, NJ has allowed the Exchange to reduce the monthly fee assessed for connectivity to Mahwah, NJ by $2,500.
The Exchange notes that the proposed reduced monthly recurring fees are also reasonable because they are in-line with other fees assessed for similar connectivity, with differences in cost being reflective of the differences in the relative cost of offering the services. For example, the proposed reduced fees assessed under Rule 7034(b) for connectivity to the NYSE Equities feeds, although higher as reflection of the increased costs the Exchange incurs in offering the connectivity, are consistent with BATS Multicast PITCH BZX and BYX data feed connectivity under Rule 7034(b), which has a monthly recurring fee of $7,500. With respect to the costs incurred, the Exchange notes that the distance, and hence the wireless network equipment required, is greater between Mahwah, NJ and Carteret, NJ in contrast to the distance between Secaucus, NJ and Carteret, NJ, which is reflected in the fees that vendors charge the Exchange for such connectivity.
The Exchange believes that the proposed reduced fees are an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will apply the same fee to all similarly situated co-location clients that voluntarily select these service options. The Exchange also notes that co-location clients will continue to have other connectivity options to receive the underlying data feeds, including fiber optic connectivity.
The Exchange believes that the proposed clarifying changes to Rule 7034(b) serve to protect investors and the public interest because they remove misspelled and inaccurate rule text, which will serve to avoid investor confusion, and will not alter what is currently provided under the rule.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited.
In this instance, the proposed changes to the charges assessed co-location clients for wireless connectivity do not impose a burden on competition because the Exchange is reducing the monthly fees assessed for such connectivity as a reflection of the Exchange's reduced vendor costs. Such a proposal is reflective of healthy competition among markets and may promote other exchanges to likewise reduce their costs and/or reduce the fees that they assess for similar connectivity.
Although the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will be unattractive to market participants, if they were it is likely that the Exchange will lose subscribers as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On July 31, 2015, Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”)
The proposed rule change was published for comment in the
This order approves the proposed rule change, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1 and Partial Amendment No. 2 (collectively, the “Amendments”).
As part of the process of developing a new consolidated rulebook (“Consolidated FINRA Rulebook”),
Current NASD Rule 3050 provides a means to inform member firms about transactions effected by their associated persons in accounts established outside the firm. This information gives members an opportunity to weigh the effect these accounts may have on the firm and its customers.
•
(1) Notify the employer member in writing, prior to the execution of a transaction for the account, of the executing member's intention to open or maintain that account;
(2) upon written request by the employer member, transmit duplicate copies of confirmations, statements, or other information with respect to the account; and
(3) notify the person associated with the employer member of the executing member's intention to provide the notice and information required by (1) and (2), above.
•
(1) NASD Rule 3050(c) requires that a person associated with a member, prior to opening an account or placing an initial order for the purchase or sale of securities with another member, must notify both the employer member and the executing member, in writing, of his or her association with the other member. The rule also provides that if the account was established prior to the person's association with the employer member, the person must notify both members in writing promptly after becoming associated; and
(2) NASD Rule 3050(d) provides that if the associated person opens a securities account or places an order for the purchase or sale of securities with a broker-dealer that is registered pursuant to Exchange Act section 15(b)(11) (a notice-registered broker-dealer), a domestic or foreign investment adviser, bank, or other financial institution (
In addition, NASD Rule 3050(f) provides that the requirements of Rule 3050 do not apply to transactions in unit investment trusts and variable contracts or redeemable securities of companies registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Investment Company Act”), or to accounts which are limited to transactions in such securities.
The purpose of NYSE Rule 407 is similar to the purpose of FINRA Rule 3050—to provide member firms information about transactions effected by their associated persons in accounts established outside their firm. According to FINRA, the NYSE and NASD rules are similar with some variations, including:
• NYSE Rule 407(a) is similar to NASD Rule 3050(b), except that Rule 407(a) requires that an executing member receive an employer member's prior written consent before: (1) Opening a securities or commodities account, or (2) executing any transaction in which a member or employee associated with another member or member organization is directly or indirectly interested. The rule also requires that duplicate confirmations and account statements be sent promptly to the employer.
• NYSE Rule 407(b) is similar to NASD Rules 3050(c) and (d), except that Rule 407(b) generally requires that associated persons who: (1) Establish or maintain a securities or commodities account, or enter into a securities transaction at (a) another member firm, or (b) a domestic or foreign non-member broker-dealer, investment adviser, bank, or other financial institution,
• NYSE Rule 407.12 is similar to NASD Rule 3050(f), except that Rule 407.12 excepts the specified transactions and accounts (
In addition, NYSE Rule 407A (Disclosure of All Member Accounts) requires members to promptly report to the NYSE any securities account (including accounts at a member or non-member broker-dealer, investment adviser, bank or other financial institution), in which the member has a financial interest or the power to make investment decisions. NYSE Rule 407A also requires a member having such an account to notify the financial institution that carries or services the account that it is a member of the NYSE. In addition, the rule requires that members report to the NYSE when any such securities account is closed. FINRA states that “[t]hese reporting requirements were designed to provide the NYSE with current information about where floor members carry securities accounts.”
NYSE Rule Interpretation 407/01 addresses the process for determining whether the account of a spouse of an associated person should be subject to NYSE Rule 407.
NYSE Rule Interpretation 407/02 provides that NYSE Rule 407(b) applies when an associated person is also a majority stockholder of a non-public corporation that wishes to open a discretionary margin account at another member.
Proposed FINRA Rule 3210(a) would require an associated person to obtain his or her employer firm's prior written consent before opening or otherwise establishing an account in which securities transactions can be effected and in which the associated person has a beneficial interest at a member other than the employer member (
Proposed FINRA Rule 3210(b) would require an associated person to provide written notice to the executing member, or other financial institution, of his or her association with the employer member prior to opening or otherwise establishing an account subject to the rule.
Proposed FINRA Rule 3210(c) would require an executing member, upon written request by the employer member, to transmit duplicate copies of confirmations and statements, or the transactional data contained therein, with respect to an account subject to the rule.
Proposed FINRA Rule 3210.01 would require an associated person to obtain the written consent of the employer member, within 30 calendar days of becoming so associated, to maintain an account that was opened or otherwise established prior to the person's association with the employer member. The proposed rule also would require the associated person to notify in writing the executing member or other financial institution of his or her association with the employer member.
Proposed FINRA Rule 3210.03, as amended by Amendment No. 1, would exclude from the requirements of FINRA Rule 3210 transactions in unit investment trusts, municipal fund securities as defined under MSRB Rule D-12, qualified tuition programs pursuant to section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, and variable contracts or redeemable securities of companies registered under the Investment Company Act, as amended, or to accounts that are limited to transactions in such securities, or to monthly investment plan type accounts.
Proposed FINRA Rule 3210.04 would require an employer member to consider the extent to which it would be able to obtain, upon written request, duplicate copies of confirmations and statements, or the transactional data contained therein, directly from the non-member financial institution in determining whether to provide its written consent to an associated person to open or maintain an account subject to the rule at a financial institution other than a member.
FINRA subsequently amended Supplementary Material .02 (“Beneficial Interests”
• Adding the phrase “and to have established” in the first sentence of Supplementary Material .02 to clarify that the associated person would not only be presumed to have a beneficial interest in the accounts specified in Supplementary Material .02(a) through .02(d), but also that the accounts would be presumed to be established by the associated person. FINRA believes this language will clarify that these accounts are covered within the meaning of the phrase “open or otherwise establish” as used in proposed Rule 3210(a);
• Revising the last sentence of Supplementary Material .02 to read: “For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Supplementary Material .02, an associated person need not be presumed to have a beneficial interest in, or to have established, an account if the associated person demonstrates, to the reasonable satisfaction of the employer member, that the associated person derives no economic benefit from, and exercises no control over, the account.” FINRA believes that adding “For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Supplementary Material .02” is an appropriate clarification, given that the accounts specified in paragraphs (c) and (d) under the Supplementary Material involve control by the associated person, and therefore “there would be no meaningful purpose in attempting to rebut the presumption” of beneficial interest for accounts controlled by the associated person. FINRA also believes that adding the phrase “reasonable satisfaction of the employer member” would clarify that FINRA expects an employer member's determination that the associated person has rebutted the presumption to be reasonable. Moreover, FINRA believes that including the phrase “and exercises no control over” would clarify that the associated person would need to
• Deleting the phrase “provided that the spouse resides in the same household as the associated person.” In so doing, an associated person would be presumed to have a beneficial interest in, and to have established, the account of a spouse, without regard to whether the spouse resides with the associated person. In support of this amendment, FINRA notes that the proposed amendment is consistent with existing FINRA Rule 3110(d)(4)(A)(i).
As noted above, the Commission received one (1) comment letter in response to the Order Instituting Proceedings.
In response to this commenter, FINRA cited “the core supervisory objective that gives rise to the need for the rulemaking . . . discussed in the original filing and in the Partial Amendment No. 1.”
The Commission has carefully considered the proposed rule change, the comments received, and FINRA's responses to the comments and proposed Amendments. Based on its review of the record, the Commission finds that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities association.
As stated above, the proposal would update and consolidate into the FINRA Rulebook NASD and NYSE rules that each govern a broker-dealer's oversight of accounts established by their associated persons at other broker-dealers and other financial institutions. As discussed above, the proposed rule would, among other things: (1) Provide an associated person with the opportunity to rebut a presumption that he or she has a beneficial interest in an account established by certain related and other persons; (2) require an associated person to obtain his or her employer firm's prior written consent before opening or otherwise establishing an account in which securities transactions can be effected and in which the associated person has a beneficial interest at a member other than the employer member, or at any other financial institution; (3) require an associated person to provide written notice to the executing member, or other financial institution, of his or her association with the employer member prior to opening or otherwise establishing an account subject to the rule; and (4) require an executing member, upon written request by the employer member, to transmit duplicate copies of confirmations and statements, or the transactional data contained therein, with respect to an account subject to the rule.
As stated in the Notice, FINRA designed the proposed rule change to help “facilitate the supervision of the trading activities of associated persons within the framework of FINRA's . . . supervisory rules.”
The Commission recognizes one commenter's concern that not requiring a member firm to obtain a duplicate account statement that reflects every associated person's covered transactions unless the account statement is requested in writing might negatively affect a broker-dealer's ability to monitor, and thus, supervise trading by its associated persons.
In consolidating the overlapping rules, FINRA proposed deleting certain provisions
Another commenter argued that additional types of transactions and accounts should be excluded from the obligations of the proposed rule, asserting that they pose limited risks with respect to the need to oversee associated persons' accounts.
In sum, the Commission believes that the proposal would help protect investors and the public interest by establishing a framework through which a member can adequately supervise securities-related activities of their associated persons at firms other than the one with which they are associated.
In addition, the proposal enables members to design a supervisory system that suits their respective business model and risk profiles. In this regard, the proposal would allow firms to decide, based on their respective business model and potential risks, whether to approve outside accounts and whether the firm wants to receive duplicate account statements and other related account documents. For example, FINRA states that members could impose obligations on their associated persons beyond those required by the proposal, such as “tak[ing] a more expansive view of the accounts the associated person should disclose than is otherwise required by the [proposed] rule.”
Similarly, FINRA notes that “the rule does not limit the discretion of executing members to craft policies and procedures with respect to the account activity of persons associated with other firms.”
The Commission believes that FINRA gave due consideration to the proposal and met the requirements of the Exchange Act. For these reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt the Frequent Trader Program. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule, effective April 1, 2016. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to adopt a program that offers transaction fee rebates to Customers (origin code “C”) that meet certain volume thresholds in CBOE VIX Volatility Index options (“VIX options”) and S&P 500 Index options (“SPX”), weekly S&P 500 options (“SPXW”) and p.m.-settled SPX Index options (“SPXpm”) (collectively referred to as “SPX options”) provided the Customer registers for the program (the “Frequent Trader Program” or “Program”). A Customer for purposes of this program would be any non-Trading Permit Holder, non-broker dealer non-Professional.
To participate in the Frequent Trader Program, Customers would have to register with the Exchange at the Frequent Trader Web site by providing certain information such as their name and contact information. Once registered, the Customer would be provided a unique identification number (“FTID”) that can be affixed to each of its orders.
The Exchange notes that the highest achieved threshold rebate rate will apply from the first executed contract (
Lastly, the Exchange proposes to provide that it will distribute a customer's rebate pursuant to the customer's instructions, which may include receiving the rebate as a direct payment or via a distribution to one or more of its executing Clearing Trading Permit Holders.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of section 6(b) of the Act.
The adoption of the Frequent Trader Program is reasonable because it will allow Customers who register for the program an opportunity to receive certain rebates for reaching certain trading volume thresholds. The Exchange notes that it is voluntary for Customers to choose whether or not to register for the program and whether to request that their unique FTID be appended to their orders. The Program is also voluntary for executing TPHs who have the option of choosing not to participate (
The Exchange believes it's equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to establish the program for Customers only because this is designed to attract a greater number of customer VIX and SPX orders. This increased volume creates greater trading opportunities that benefit all market participants. Specifically, while only Customer orders qualify for the proposed rebates under the Frequent Trader Program, an increase in customer order flow will bring greater volume and liquidity, which benefit all market participants by providing more trading opportunities and tighter spreads. Moreover, the options industry has a long history of providing preferential pricing to Customers. In addition the Exchange believes the proposed program is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because any Customer (that is not a CBOE TPH, broker-dealer or Professional) may avail itself of this program provided it registers with the Exchange.
The Exchange believes limiting the Program to VIX and SPX options is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange has expended considerable time and resources in developing these products. The Frequent Trader Program is designed to encourage greater customer VIX and SPX options trading, which, along with bringing greater VIX and SPX options trading opportunities to all market participants, would bring in more fees to the Exchange, and such fees can be used to recoup the Exchange's costs and expenditures from developing and maintaining VIX and SPX options. The Exchange believes it's equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to establish higher threshold tiers for the SPX product group because the SPX product group has reached a mature and established level while VIX has not.
The Exchange believes it's reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to include all of a customer's VIX and SPX executed contracts with an FTID towards the respective qualifying thresholds because the Exchange wishes to support and encourage customers to provide greater order flow in these classes, which allows for price improvement and has a number of positive impacts on the market system. The Exchange also believes however, that it's reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to base the rebate off the amount of transaction fees that would be assessed pursuant to the Fees Schedule (as opposed to being based off the “theoretical” fee value of all contracts executed) because the Exchange does not want to provide rebates on contracts for which it is not also collecting transaction fees.
Lastly, the Exchange believes it's reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to provide Customers a choice as to how their payment is delivered. Providing Customers with the option of requesting to receive their rebates under the Frequent Trader Program as separate direct payments or via a distribution to one or more of its executing Clearing Trading Permit Holders will provide Customers with a convenient manner in which to receive their rebates, which perfects the mechanism for a free and open market.
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because, while the rebates apply only to Customers, the Program is designed to encourage increased Customer VIX and SPX options volume, which provides greater trading opportunities for all market participants. Additionally, there is a history in the options markets of providing preferential treatment to Customers. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will not cause an unnecessary burden on intermarket competition because VIX and SPX products are only traded on CBOE. To the extent that the proposed changes make CBOE a more attractive marketplace for market participants at other exchanges, such market participants are welcome to become CBOE market participants.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On February 8, 2016, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (the “Exchange” or “CBOE”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
The Exchange proposes to (i) reorganize, simplify and make consistent certain text relating to LMM and DPM obligations generally, (ii) amend its Rules related to LMMs, (iii) delete outdated references in its Rules to SMMs and other obsolete language and (iv) make other clarifying changes.
Specifically, the Exchange proposes to make modifications to Rules 8.15 (pertaining to LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes), 8.15A (pertaining to LMMs in Hybrid classes) and 8.85 (pertaining to DPMs) to modify the descriptions of certain obligations of LMMs and DPMs (
Of significance, CBOE proposes to change the opening quoting obligations of LMMs and DPMs. CBOE Rules 8.15A(b)(iv) and 8.85(a)(xi) require LMMs and DPMs, respectively, to ensure that a trading rotation is initiated
CBOE also proposes to impose a continuous quoting obligation on LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes.
The Exchange also proposes modifications to Rules 8.15, 8.15A, 8.83 and 8.85 as they relate to the Off-Floor DPM and Off-/On-Floor LMM programs. For instance, CBOE proposes to amend Rule 8.83(g) to conform Hybrid 3.0 classes to Hybrid classes by providing that in a Hybrid 3.0 class in which an Off-Floor DPM has been appointed, the Exchange also would be permitted to appoint an On-Floor LMM, which would be eligible to receive a participation entitlement under current
CBOE also proposes that the Exchange have the discretion to appoint an On-Floor LMM in any class in which an Off-Floor LMM has been appointed, and that any such On-Floor LMM would be eligible to receive a participation entitlement under current Rule 8.15B with respect to orders represented in open outcry.
CBOE also proposes to make changes to eliminate obsolete references, including those related to individual LMMs, SMMs, an expired pilot program, the former Linkage Plan, and strike price interval, bid/ask differential and quote continuity requirements. Further, CBOE proposes to make non-substantive or technical modifications to Rules 1.1(fff) and (ggg), 3.2, 6.1A, 6.2A, 6.45A, 6.45B, 6.74, 8.7, 8.13, 8.14, 8.15, 8.15A, 8.83, 8.85, 17.50, 22.14, 24.9, and 29.17, including amendments to correct typographical errors, update headings, update cross-references to Rules 8.15, 8.15A and 8.15B, make the rule text more plain English, and make the rule text more consistently organized, numbered and worded.
The Commission believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the Commission believes that the proposed rule changes to amend Rules 8.15, 8.15A and 8.85 to revise descriptions of obligations of LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes, LMMs in Hybrid classes, and DPMs, respectively, as well as to combine the LMM obligations into a single rule for all classes, should benefit investors by providing more uniformity to the Rules related to market participants with substantially similar functions that are subject to analogous obligations. In addition, the Commission believes that CBOE's proposal to impose a continuous quoting obligation on LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes that mirrors the existing continuous quoting obligation in Hybrid classes should help facilitate transactions in securities in a manner that protects investors and the public interest.
The CBOE's proposal also slightly modifies the opening quoting obligations of LMMs and DPMs to include a specific time by which opening quotes must be entered. The Commission believes that the Exchange's proposal to require an opening quotation within one minute rather than promptly should provide DPMs and LMMs with clearer guidance regarding the opening quote obligation, which should facilitate compliance by LMMs and DPMs with this obligation. The Commission notes the Exchange's representation that nearly all series open for trading within this timeframe on a daily basis.
Further, the Commission believes the proposed revisions to the descriptions of the Off-Floor DPM and Off-/On-Floor LMM programs should clarify these programs, including with respect to appointments. Among other things, CBOE's proposal extends to Hybrid 3.0 classes certain provisions currently applicable to Hybrid classes, including on-floor appointments, and clarifies the effect on an on-floor appointment when an off-floor appointment is reallocated. These changes further harmonize Hybrid 3.0 with Hybrid and codify into the CBOE rules important detail regarding on and off-floor appointments.
Finally, the Commission believes that the CBOE's proposal to eliminate obsolete provisions, including those related to individual LMMs, SMMs, an expired pilot program, the former Linkage Plan, as well as references to the non-applicability of strike price intervals, bid/ask differentials, and quote continuity requirements for LEAPs, should protect investors by eliminating potential confusion that may result from incorrect references in CBOE's rules. With respect to strike price intervals, bid/ask differentials, and quote continuity requirements for LEAPs, the CBOE represents that other existing rules address those requirements
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of the above-listed companies.
By the Commission.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 803, Obligations of Market Makers, to limit mandatory participation in scheduled functional and performance testing, under Regulation Systems Compliance and Integrity (“Regulation SCI”),
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On November 19, 2014, the Securities and Exchange Commission unanimously voted to adopt Regulation SCI, which is a set of rules designed to strengthen the technology infrastructure of the U.S. securities markets.
Regulation SCI applies to “SCI entities,” a term which includes SROs such as ISE Mercury. Regulation SCI requires SCI entities to, among other things, (1) establish written policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that their systems have levels of capacity, integrity, resiliency, availability, and security adequate to maintain their operational capability; (2) mandate participation by designated members in scheduled testing of the operation of their business continuity and disaster recovery plans, including backup systems, and to coordinate such testing on an industry- or sector-wide basis with other SCI entities; (3) take corrective action with respect to “SCI events” (such as systems disruptions, systems compliance issues, and systems intrusions), and to notify the Commission of such events; (4) disseminate information about certain SCI events to affected members and, for certain “major” SCI events, to all members; and (5) review their systems by objective, qualified personnel at least annually, to submit quarterly reports regarding completed, ongoing, and planned material changes to their SCI systems to the Commission, and to maintain certain books and records.
In accordance with Rule 1004 of Regulation SCI, the Exchange adopted Rules 803 and 1903 to designate all PMMs
The Exchange has reevaluated its designation of all PMMs as the minimum necessary for the maintenance of a fair and orderly market should the Exchange's DR Plans be activated and now believes that designating all PMMs is more than the minimum necessary to maintain a fair and orderly market should its DR Plans be activated. The Exchange proposes to revise Rule 803 and limit mandatory participation in scheduled functional and performance testing, under Regulation SCI and ISE Mercury Rule 803, to those PMMs that contribute a meaningful percentage of the Exchange's overall volume, measured on a quarterly or monthly basis. The Exchange proposes to consider other factors in determining which PMMs will be required to participate in scheduled functional and performance testing, including average daily volume traded on the Exchange measured on a quarterly or monthly basis, or PMMs that collectively account for a certain percentage of market share on the Exchange or within a specific product. The Exchange represents that it will publish the criteria
The Exchange notes that it encourages all PMMs to connect to the Exchange's backup systems and to participate in testing of such systems. However, in revising the requirements in proposed Rule 803, the rule will subject only those PMMs to mandatory testing that the Exchange believes are, taken as a whole, the minimum necessary to maintain fair and orderly markets. The Exchange believes that designating PMMs to participate in mandatory testing because they, for example, account for a significant portion of the Exchange's overall volume or collectively account for a certain percentage of market share on the Exchange is a reasonable means to ensure the maintenance of a fair and orderly market on the Exchange should its DR Plans be activated.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act, and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule revision is consistent with the Exchange Act because it complies with Regulation SCI's requirements. ISE Mercury's proposed rule designates only those PMMs it determines are necessary for the maintenance of a fair and orderly market if the Exchange's DR Plans are activated. Additionally, the proposal will ensure that the PMMs necessary to ensure the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are properly designated consistent with Rule 1004 of Regulation SCI. Specifically, as proposed, the Exchange will adopt clear and objective criteria with respect to the designation of PMMs that are required to participate in the testing of the Exchange's DR Plans, as well as appropriate notification regarding such designation. As set forth in the SCI Adopting Release, “SROs have the authority, and legal responsibility, under section 6 of the Exchange Act, to adopt and enforce rules (including rules to comply with Regulation SCI's requirements relating to [business continuity and disaster recovery] testing) applicable to their members or participants that are designed to, among other things, foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.”
This proposed rule change does not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Exchange Act because ISE Mercury is implementing the requirements of Regulation SCI.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received written comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest, does not impose any significant burden on competition, and, by its terms, does not become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an Email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Phlx Rule 1080, entitled “Phlx XL and Phlx XL II” to amend the length of time of a Price Improvement XL or PIXL
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Phlx Rule 1080(n) to amend the length of time of a PIXL
Today, a PIXL Auction lasts for one second, unless it is concluded early.
The Exchange believes that a shorter duration of time for the Auction will reduce market risk for all members executing trades in PIXL. Initiating Participants are required to guarantee an execution at the NBBO
The Exchange is amending the Phlx Rule 1080(n) to remove certain uses of the term “rejected” to instead refer to the term “immediately cancelled.” Specifically, the Exchange is amending Phlx Rule 1080(n)(ii)(A)(8)-(10). These orders are not rejected, rather they are immediately cancelled because technically they are accepted into the trading system. The Exchange believes this non-substantive change adds more clarity to the rule text. This distinction is made throughout the newly adopted BX PRISM rule, where applicable.
The Exchange notes that its proposed rule text at Rule 1080(n)(ii)(A)(9) states that a PAN or Complex Order PAN response which is inferior to the stop price of the PIXL order will be cancelled. In this particular instance, the order is not immediately cancelled to prevent information leakage as to possible stop price. The order is cancelled at the end of the Auction instead.
The Exchange is amending Phlx Rule 1080(n)(ii)(A)(1) to first make clear that under no circumstances will the Initiating Participant receive an allocation percentage, at the final price point, of more than 50% with one competing quote, order or PAN response or 40% with multiple competing quotes, orders or PAN responses, when competing quotes, orders or PAN responses have contracts available for execution. This change adds more clarity to the rule text as this limitation is present today. The Exchange recently included this clarifying rule text in the newly adopted BX PRISM rule
The Exchange is also amending Phlx Rule 1080(n)(ii)(E)(2)(b) and 1080(n)(ii)(E)(2)(c)(ii) to provide more specificity concerning the allocation to which an Initiating Participant is entitled. The amendments make clear that the allocations can be either 40% or 50% depending on whether there are one or more competing quotes, orders or PAN responses. Also, the rule text notes that public customer interest must be satisfied first. This change adds more clarity to the rule text as this allocation method is present today. The Exchange recently included this clarifying rule text in the newly adopted BX PRISM
The Exchange is amending Phlx Rule 1080(n)(ii)(C) to revise language where the entire PIXL Order will be executed at, including, in the case of the internal BBO (“Reference BBO”) crossing the PIXL Order stop price, the best response price(s) or, if the stop price is the best price in the Auction, at the stop price, unless the best response price is equal to
For example, assume the Reference BBO and NBBO are both .97-1.03. A PIXL Order to buy 100 contracts is submitted with a contra-side Initiating Order to stop the PIXL Order at 1.01. Assume a PAN response is submitted to sell 10 contracts at .97 and another to sell 10 contracts at 1.00. Then assume an unrelated buy order is received to pay .98 for 10 contracts. The order is placed on the PHLX book and the Reference BBO becomes .98-1.03. Then assume, a participant submits a quote of 1.02-1.05, crossing the 1.01 stop price on the same side of the PIXL Order and concluding the PIXL Auction prior to the expiration of one second. Therefore, 10 contracts from the PIXL Order will be executed at .99 against the best response price of .97 which is `better than' the price of the .98 limit order resting on the PHLX book on the same side of the market as the PIXL Order. Also, 10 contracts will be executed at 1.00 (the next best response price after the execution at .98) and the remaining 80 contracts will be executed at 1.01 (the stop price) against the Initiating Order. The Exchange believes that this language clarifies the current rule text by providing the “better than” language, which accounts for responses that are priced more aggressively than a later arriving resting limit order on the book.
The Exchange is amending Phlx Rule 1080(n) in the first paragraph and also 1080(n)(ii)(E)(1) to make clear that a public customer order does not include a professional
The Exchange is amending Phlx Rule 1080(n)(ii)(E)(2)(f) to add clarifying rule text concerning the manner in which the Exchange will round shares and allocate remaining contracts, commonly known in the industry as odd lots.
The Exchange proposes to precisely describe that, with respect to pro-rata allocations, the Exchange will round shares down to the nearest integer when determining the amount of the allocation in Rule 1080(n)(ii)(E)(2)(f). The Exchange believes that this detail will provide market participants with information to determine the method in which the Exchange shall allocate remaining shares.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 1080(n)(ii)(E)(2)(f) to add rule text to describe the manner in which remaining shares will be allocated for ROTs and also for off-floor broker dealers. If remaining shares result, from the allocation of simple interest among equally priced ROTs, remaining shares are allocated by daily random assignments of ROTs. Each ROT is assigned an order of allocation, each trading day. Trading interest, which includes orders, quotes and sweeps, are allocated in accordance with the trading day's order assignment, provided the ROT is at the best price at which the order, quote or sweep is being traded. The assignment continues throughout the trading for each allocation, picking up where it dropped off from the last allocation, provided the ROT is entitled to an allocation. If odd lots arise when allocating interest among equally priced off-floor broker-dealers, such odd lots are allocated in time priority, provided the off-floor broker-dealers is at the best price at which the order is being traded. Finally, with respect to Complex Orders, the Exchange notes in Rule 1080(n)(ii)(E)(2)(f) that residual odd lots will be allocated in time priority for Complex Orders.
The Exchange believes that these amendments will provide market participants with more information on the allocation of these odd lots.
Below are two examples, representing consecutive executions and allocations within the Order Book which demonstrates rounding and the allocation of remaining shares.
Presume an order of 200 contracts is being allocated in the Exchange's Order Book. Allocation will first occur with public customer orders at the best price filled in time priority, since public customers always have priority on the Exchange. Presume there are 63 contracts remaining after public customer orders are filled. ROTS would be allocated next pursuant to Rule 1014 in pro-rata fashion. Presume 5 ROTs are at the best price and the allocation of the remaining 63 contracts, after public customer orders have been satisfied, is as follows:
After this pro-rata allocation, 2 contracts remain to be allocated. Presume for this trading day these ROTs are assigned the following order of assignment: First is ROT A, second is ROT B, third is ROT C, fourth is ROT D and fifth is ROT E. The 2 remaining contracts would be allocated as follows:
The next order which results in contracts remaining after the pro-rata allocation to ROTs will have such remaining contracts allocated one at a time beginning with ROT C since he was next in line based on that trading day's order of assignment, provided ROT C is at the best price with remaining interest.
Presume an order of 200 contracts is being allocated in the Exchange's Order Book. Presume all public customer orders and ROT interest that was at the best price have been filled and there remains 9 contracts to be executed.
Off-floor broker-dealers would be allocated next pursuant to Rule 1014 in a pro-rata fashion. Presume 3 off-floor broker-dealers are at the best price and their interest had arrived in the following order. The allocation of the remaining 9 contracts is as follows:
The Exchange is amending Phlx Rule 1080(n)(vi) to add more specificity concerning public customer orders. An Initiating Participant may enter a PIXL Order for the account of a public customer paired with an order for the account of another Public Customer and such paired orders will be automatically executed without a PIXL Auction, provided there is not currently an Auction in progress in the same series or the same strategy, in which case the orders will be rejected. This rule text makes clear that with respect to Customer-to-Customer
The words “or strategy” in this context are not included in the BX PRISM rule because this language specifically relates to Complex Orders,
To further explain same strategy, where a PIXL Order creates a second Auction where there was already an a Complex Order Strategy Auction in progress with the same combination of components and the same ratios, that PIXL Order would be rejected. If the combination of components and ratios were not the same, the PIXL Order would not be rejected. Also, a simple and Complex Order Strategy Auction may occur at the same time. The Exchange believes that this approach is consistent with the general caveat in the PIXL Auction Rule 1080(n)(ii) that only one Auction may be conducted at a time in any given series or strategy.
In certain instances, a resting order or quote may be internally priced at a non-displayed price and would differ from the PBBO. The Internal BBO or “Reference BBO” would differ from the PBBO in a situation where the System prevents trade-throughs and locked and crossed markets. Interest will not be executed at a price that trades through another market or is displayed at a price that would lock or cross another market. If, at the time of entry, an order or quote would cause a locked or crossed market violation or would cause a trade-through violation, it will be re-priced to the current national best offer (for bids) or the current national best bid (for offers) and displayed at one minimum price variance above (for offers) or below (for bids) the national best price.
The Exchange is proposing more precise rule text to account for these situations where there is an automatic repricing in order to prevent trade-throughs and locked and crossed markets. The Exchange proposes to change the rule text in relevant instances to acknowledge that repricing would result in the better of the NBBO (or PBBO) or the Reference BBO.
The Exchange proposes a change to Rule 1080(n)(ii)(G). The Exchange proposes to amend the sentence which states, “[i]f the PIXL Auction price (except if it is a Complex Order) is the same as that of an order on the limit order book
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
Phlx believes the proposed rule change could provide orders within PIXL an opportunity for price improvement. Also, the shorter duration of time for the Auction reduce the market risk for all members executing trades in PIXL. Initiating Participants are required to guarantee an execution at the NBBO or at a better price, and are subject to market risk while their PIXL Order is exposed to other Phlx members. While other participants are also subject to market risk, those providing responses in PIXL may cancel or modify their orders. Phlx believes that the Initiating Participant acts in a critical role within the PIXL Auction. Their willingness to guarantee the orders entered into PIXL an execution at NBBO or a better price is the keystone to an order gaining the opportunity for price improvement. Phlx believes that allowing for an auction period of no less than one hundred milliseconds and no more than one second will benefit members trading in PIXL. Phlx believes it is in these members' best interests to minimize the Auction time while continuing to allow members adequate time to electronically respond. Both the order being exposed and the responding orders are subject to market risk during the Auction.
While some members may wait to respond until later in the Auction, presumably to minimize their market risk, the Exchange believes that a majority of the orders would respond earlier in the Auction. Based on the Exchange's experience with the PIXL mechanism,
Phlx believes that its members operate electronic systems that enable them to react and respond to orders in a meaningful way in fractions of a second. Phlx believes that its members will be able to compete within no less than one hundred milliseconds and no more than one second and this is a sufficient amount of time to respond to, compete for, and provide price improvement for orders, and will provide investors and other market participants with more timely executions, and reduce their market risk.
Finally, with respect to system capacity, Phlx has analyzed its capacity and represents that it and the Options Price Reporting Authority (“OPRA”) have the necessary systems capacity to handle the potential additional traffic associated with auction transactions resulting specifically from the implementation of the Auction period of no less than one hundred milliseconds and no more than one second.
The Exchange's amendment to remove certain uses of the term “rejected” to instead refer to the term “immediately cancelled” complies with the Exchange Act because the replacement words provide more specificity to the rule text. Today, PAN Responses that do not comply with PIXL requirements are not eligible to participant in an Auction and will be immediately cancelled, after being reviewed by the trading system. The Exchange believes that system enforced criteria will promote just and equitable principles of trade and protect investors and the public interest. The Exchange believes this change adds more clarity to the rule text to differentiate rejections and cancellations.
The Exchange's amendment to make clear that under no circumstances will the Initiating Participant receive an allocation percentage, at the final price point, of more than 50% with one competing quote, order or PAN response or 40% with multiple competing quotes, orders or PAN responses, when competing quotes, orders or PAN responses have contracts available for execution is a rule change that makes clear that limitation to allocation in PIXL. This rule change adds more clarity to the rule text. This amendment is consistent with the Act in that it identifies the limitation in the PIXL allocation more specifically and memorializes that limitation.
The Exchange's amendment to provide more specificity concerning the allocation to which an Initiating Participant is entitled, either 40% or 50% depending on whether there are one or more competing quotes, orders or PAN responses, is a change which adds more clarity to the rule text. This amendment is consistent with the Act in that it identifies with specificity the manner in which PIXL will allocate to an Initiating Participant.
The Exchange believes that the new language of “or 50%” is consistent with the Act because the value added from Initiating Participants guaranteeing execution of Agency Orders at a price equal to or better than the NBBO warrants (to the extent that the Initiating Participants is on the final Auction price), an Auction allocation priority of at least the same percentage of the order as any competing Auction response, quote, or order when there is only one such response, quote, or order. The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change, like other price improvement allocation programs currently offered by competitor exchanges, will benefit investors by attracting more order flow as well as increasing the frequency that Participants initiate Auctions, which may result in greater opportunities for customer order price improvement. These percentages remain competitive with the percentage of allocations
The Exchange's amendment to revise language where the entire PIXL Order will be executed at, including, in the case of the PBBO crossing the PIXL Order stop price, the best response price(s) or, if the stop price is the best price in the Auction, at the stop price, unless the best response price is equal to
The Exchange's amendment to make clear that a public customer order does not include a professional order is a non-substantive change which adds more clarity to the rule text. This amendment is consistent with the Act and other rule changes which make clear the distinction between professional and public customer orders.
With respect to rounding, all rounding is down to the nearest integer. If rounding of the Initiating Participant's allocation results in an allocation of less than one contract, then one contract will be allocated to the Initiating Participant, only if the Initiating Participant did not otherwise receive an allocation. The Exchange is permitting the Initiating Participant to receive the benefit of the rounding in an allocation of less than one contract, only if the Initiating Participant did not otherwise receive an allocation, because the Initiating Participant is not eligible to receive residual contracts. The Exchange believes that rounding differently for the Initiating Participant as compared to all other market participants is not unfairly discriminatory since the Initiating Participant is not eligible to receive residual contracts as are other market participants, unless no other interest is available to trade. The Exchange currently provides that rounding shall occur in a fair and equitable manner. The Exchange proposes to amend this rule to provide that rounding shall be down to the nearest integer. The Exchange believes that rounding down uniformly is consistent with the Exchange Act because it provides for the equitable allocation of shares among the Exchange's market participants. Also, this rule change will provide market participants with transparency as to the number of shares that they are entitled to receive as the result of rounding.
The Exchange's amendment to indicate the manner in which odd lots are allocated among market participants for simple interest specifies that for ROTS, odd lots allocated among equally priced ROTs are by random assignment of ROTs each trading day in accordance with the trading day's order assignment, provided the ROT is at the best price at which the order is being traded. For off-floor broker-dealers, odd lots are allocated in time priority, provided the off-floor broker-dealers are at the best price at which the order is being traded. The Exchange believes that the allocation of odd lots uniformly for all ROTs, and separately for all off-floor broker-dealers, is consistent with the Exchange Act because it provides for the equitable allocation of shares among the Exchange's market participants. With respect to off-floor broker-dealers, the method is consistent with the Act because it relies simply on time priority, an accepted method of allocation utilized by many options exchange to prioritize orders.
Specifically, with respect to the allocation method for odd lots for ROTs, this random assignment is basically a round robin approach to the allocation. The Exchange believes that this method results in a fair and equitable allocation of shares of these market participants because each trading day the Exchange creates a new order of assignment to allocate ROTs and that order provided an independent method to assign evenly among ROTs. Also, each trading day that assignment changes so that no one ROT would have the ability to receive a greater allocation than another ROT. The Exchange believes that its assignment method is not subject to gaming since it is random and therefore complies with the Act because it is aimed at the protection of investors. Also, this rule change will provide market participants will transparency as to the number of shares that they are entitled to receive as the result of allocation odd lots.
With respect to the allocation of odd lots for Complex Orders, the Exchange will allocate in time priority. The Exchange believes that allocating Complex Orders in time priority uniformly is consistent with the Exchange Act because it provides for the equitable allocation of shares among the Exchange's market participants. Also, this rule change will provide market participants will transparency as to the number of shares that they are entitled to receive as the result of allocating odd lots.
The Exchange's amendment to add more specificity concerning public customer orders to indicate that a public customer paired with an order for the account of another public customer will be automatically executed without a PIXL Auction, provided there is not currently an Auction in progress in the same series or same strategy, in which case the orders will be rejected. This amendment makes clear that only one Auction may be conducted at a time in any given series is consistent with the Act and the PIXL approval order.
With respect to the words “or strategy,” the BX PRISM rule does not contain similar language because this language specifically relates to Complex Orders, which are not transacted on BX, but may be transacted on Phlx within PIXL. Similar to the manner in which the Exchange would treat two Auctions in the same series, the Exchange will permit an Initiating Participant to enter a PIXL Order for the account of a public customer paired with an order for the account of another public customer and such paired orders will be automatically executed without a PIXL Auction as long as there is not currently an Auction in progress in the same strategy. With respect to Complex Order Strategies, the Exchange will permit an Initiating Participant to enter a PIXL Order for the account of a public customer paired with an order for the account of another public customer and such paired orders will be automatically executed without a PIXL Auction as long as there is not currently an Auction in progress in the same strategy. If there is an Auction in progress in the same strategy, the Customer-to-Customer cross will be rejected. To further explain same strategy, where a PIXL Order would create a second Auction where there
The Exchange's proposal to amend Rule 1080(n) for the addition of language to include the “Reference BBO” to clarify where the price is equal to or better than the NBBO or PBBO and the Reference BBO (internal market BBO), due to repricing for trade-throughs or locked and crossed markets, adds clarity and precision to the current rule text. The Exchange believes that it is consistent with the Act and does not otherwise create an impediment to a free and open market because today investors are subject to this repricing and have the opportunity to trade at a better price, which could result in better executions for investors. Also, by reflecting the proper rule text to account for these order types the Exchange is providing Participants with additional information with which to anticipate the manner in which the Exchange's trading system reprices interest to prevent a trade-through or locked and crossed market.
The Exchange's proposal to clarify Rule 1080(n)(ii)(G) to include a reference to the PBBO will conform the Exchange's PIXL rule text. This is not a substantive amendment. The Exchange believes that this amendment will provide further clarity to the PIXL rules.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change will conform the PIXL rule with the PRISM rule. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes produce an undue burden on inter-market competition because these changes will afford Phlx the opportunity to compete for order flow by offering an auction mechanism similar to that of other exchanges, specifically BX.
Phlx's amendment to the timer to a shorter duration of time for the Auction does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because Phlx believes that allowing for an auction period of no less than one hundred milliseconds and no more than one second will benefit members trading in PIXL. Phlx believes it is in these members' best interests to minimize the Auction time while continuing to allow members adequate time to electronically respond. The proposed rule allows people to respond quickly at the most favorable price while reducing the risk that the market will move against the response. Phlx believes that its members will be able to compete in no less than one hundred milliseconds and no more than one second and this is a sufficient amount of time to respond to, compete for, and provide price improvement for orders, and will provide investors and other market participants with more timely executions, and reduce their market risk.
The Exchange's amendment to remove certain uses of the term “rejected” to instead refer to the term “immediately cancelled” does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because PAN Responses that do not comply with PIXL requirements are not eligible to participate in an Auction and will be immediately cancelled after being reviewed by the trading system. The system enforced criteria will be applied uniformly to all Phlx members. The Exchange believes this non-substantive change adds more clarity to the rule text.
The Exchange's amendment to make clear that under no circumstances will the Initiating Participant receive an allocation percentage, at the final price point, of more than 50% with one competing quote, order or PAN response or 40% with multiple competing quotes, orders or PAN responses, when competing quotes, orders or PAN responses have contracts available for execution does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition. This rule change adds more clarity to the rule text. This amendment is consistent with the Act in that it identifies an existing limitation in the PIXL allocation more specifically and memorializes that limitation. The Exchange believes that the new language of “or 50%” does not create an undue burden on competition because this language is similar to language in BX PRISM and applies to all market participants utilizing Phlx.
The Exchange's amendment to revise language where the entire PIXL Order will be executed at, including, in the case of the PBBO crossing the PIXL Order stop price, the best response price(s) or, if the stop price is the best price in the Auction, at the stop price, unless the best response price is equal to
The Exchange's amendment to make clear that a public customer order does not include a professional order does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition this rule change is consistent with the distinction between professional and public customer orders.
With respect to rounding, all rounding is down to the nearest integer. If rounding of the Initiating Participant's allocation results in an allocation of less
If there are contracts remaining, such contracts shall be allocated for simple interest after rounding by randomly assigning all ROTs an order of allocation each trading day, and allocating orders, quotes and sweeps in accordance with the trading day's order assignment, provided the ROT is at the best price at which the order, quote or sweep is being traded, except with respect to Complex Orders, which allocation is described in Rule 1080, Commentary .07. In the event that there are remaining contracts to be allocated for interest after rounding, such remaining contacts will be allocated in time priority, provided the off-floor broker-dealers are at the best price at which the order is being traded. Residual remaining shares will be allocated in time priority for Complex Orders.
With respect to allocating remaining contracts, the Exchange does not believe that the proposal to allocate remaining contracts for ROTs by random assignment creates an undue burden on competition because the method, which is basically round robin, results in a fair and equitable allocation of shares of these market participants. The Exchange does not believe that allocating remaining contracts to off-floor broker-dealers in time priority creates an undue burden on competition because the method will be applied uniformly among these participants. Finally, the Exchange does not believe that allocating remaining contracts to Complex Orders in time priority creates an undue burden on competition because the method will be applied uniformly to all transactions involving Complex Orders.
The Exchange's amendment to add more specificity concerning public customer orders to indicate that a public customer paired with an order for the account of another public customer will be automatically executed without a PIXL Auction, provided there is not currently an Auction in progress in the same series or same strategy, in which case the orders will be rejected, does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition. This non-substantive change adds more clarity to the rule text. Also, the Exchange's amendment to add more specificity concerning public customer orders to indicate that a public customer paired with an order for the account of another public customer will be automatically executed without a PIXL Auction, provided there is not currently an Auction in progress in the same strategy, does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because this is consistent with the general caveat in the PIXL Auction that only one Auction may be conducted at a time in any given series or strategy.
The Exchange's proposal to amend Rule 1080(n) for the addition of language to include the “Reference BBO” to clarify where the price is equal to or better than the NBBO or PBBO and the Reference BBO (internal market BBO), due to repricing for trade-throughs or locked and crossed markets, does not impose an udue burden on intra-market competition, rather the more precise language adds clarity and precision to the current rule text. This additional information will provide all market participants with information to anticipate the manner in which the Exchange's trading system operates in PIXL Auctions.
The Exchange's proposal to clarify Rule 1080(n)(ii)(G) to include a reference to the PBBO to conform the Exchange's PIXL rule text does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because the amendment is non-substantive.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of filing. Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), however, permits the Commission to designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange requests that the Commission waive the 30-day pre-operative waiting period contained in Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) so that Phlx make conform its current rule text to that of BX PRISM to compete effectively against this market. The Commission has determined to waive the 30-day operative delay in order to permit Phlx to implement without delay its proposed rule changes to incorporate recently-approved provisions in the substantially similar rules of BX. The Commission believes that such waiver is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest as the proposed changes do not raise any material new issues that have not been previously considered by the Commission.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 2.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Mississippi (FEMA-4268-DR), dated 03/25/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of MISSISSIPPI, dated 03/25/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 3.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of TEXAS (FEMA-4266-DR), dated 03/19/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of TEXAS, dated 03/19/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 4.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of LOUISIANA (FEMA-4263-DR), dated 03/13/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of LOUISIANA, dated 03/13/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
Social Security Administration.
Notice of Social Security Ruling (SSR).
We are giving notice of SSR 16-4p. This SSR explains how we consider the results of genetic tests in disability claims and continuing disability reviews under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act, consistent with our policies for determination of disability.
Dan O'Brien, Office of Disability Policy, Office of Vocational Evaluation and Process Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 597-1632. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security online, at
Although 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and (a)(2) do not require us to publish this SSR, we are doing so under 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1).
Through SSRs, we make available to the public precedential decisions relating to the Federal old-age, survivors, disability, supplemental security income, and special veterans benefits programs. We may base SSRs on determinations or decisions made at all levels of administrative adjudication, Federal court decisions, Commissioner's decisions, opinions of the Office of the General Counsel, or other interpretations of the law and regulations.
Although SSRs do not have the same force and effect as statutes or regulations, they are binding on all components of the Social Security Administration. 20 CFR 402.35(b)(1).
This SSR will remain in effect until we publish a notice in the
PURPOSE: This SSR explains how we consider medical evidence containing the results of genetic tests and helps adjudicators, including disability examiners and medical and psychological consultants, consistently apply our policies in disability claims.
CITATIONS: Sections 216(i), 223(d), 223(f), 1614(a)(3) and 1614(a)(4) of the Social Security Act, as amended; 20 CFR part 401; 20 CFR 401.55, 404.1505, 404.1508, 404.1512, 404.1513, 404.1519a, 404.1519m, 404.1520, 404.1520b, 404.1527, 404.1528, 404.1529, 404.1545, 416.905, 416.906, 416.908, 416.911, 416.912, 416.913, 416.919a, 416.919m, 416.920, 416.920b, 416.924, 416.924a, 416.926a, 416.927, 416.928, 416.929, and 416.945; and 20 CFR part 404, appendix 1.
INTRODUCTION: In all claims for disability, we need objective medical evidence to establish the existence of a medically determinable impairment (MDI). Genetic test results sometimes are a part of this objective medical evidence and can also be of value at other points in the sequential evaluation process. In this ruling, we provide basic information about genetic testing and clarify how we apply our policies when evaluating genetic test results found in the medical evidence of record (MER).
POLICY INTERPRETATION: We consider all medical evidence, including genetic test results, when evaluating a claim for disability benefits. The information that follows is presented in question and answer format and provides details about medical genetics and how to consider MER containing genetic test results under our disability policy. Questions 1 through 3 provide basic background information about genetic tests and their use in the medical setting. Question 4 discusses the relevance of genetic test results to our disability program. Question 5 discusses whether genetic test results alone are sufficient to make a disability determination. Question 6 clarifies that we do not purchase genetic testing. Questions 7 through 11 specify how adjudicators should handle evidence containing genetic test results at various points of the adjudication process. Question 12 addresses our policy on the disclosure of genetic information.
Genetic testing is a type of medical test that identifies variations in genetic
People generally have two copies of every gene in their body, one contributed by their biological mother, the other contributed by their biological father. Some disorders are caused by a variation in a single gene. In certain cases, having a variation in just one of the two copies of the gene is enough to lead to a disorder. If a variant's occurrence in only one copy of the gene is sufficient for a person to develop the disorder, the disorder is
Even when a person knows that he or she has a genetic variant associated with or causative of a certain disorder, he or she may not always develop the condition.
Variants can interact either with one another or with environmental influences (such as ultraviolet light, diet, or smoking) to result in a disorder. These types of disorders are called
Chromosomal abnormalities can lead to disorders as well. A chromosome is an organized package of DNA located in the nucleus of a cell. People generally have 2 copies of each of 23 chromosomes in their cells.
Like other laboratory tests or procedures, genetic tests can help medical professionals diagnose a particular disease or disorder. They assist in predicting the extent of disease features or risk of developing a certain disorder, aid in therapy, and provide useful information for reproductive purposes.
Medical professionals may use genetic tests to diagnose a particular disorder. They will usually order or perform these tests when a person has medical signs or symptoms consistent with that disorder and a link between specific genetic variations and the disorder is well-characterized. They may also use testing when a disorder is present but unrecognized (or undiagnosed) to work through a list of possibilities,
A person might choose to have a genetic test even if he or she does not have medical signs or symptoms indicative of a disorder. Instead, he or she may undergo testing to find out whether he or she has a genetic variant that might put him or her at risk for developing a disorder in the future. This type of test is a
It is important to note that, for many conditions, predictive genetic tests cannot tell with certainty whether a person will develop a disorder. The results of predictive genetic tests generally give a probability or range of probabilities that a disorder will eventually develop in the person being tested. Predictive genetic tests also generally cannot tell a person precisely how the disorder will affect him or her. Many times, predictive genetic testing is most helpful when a person has a known family history of a disease, and not knowing the disease risk would lead to serious consequences. A person may choose to undergo predictive genetic testing to make decisions about future medical care or to implement lifestyle changes to help mitigate potential risk for adverse health effects.
Medical professionals might order
There are genetic tests that people obtain prior to having a child in order to inform them about the potential for a genetic disorder in their child. These reproductive genetic tests include
Scientific researchers are discovering an increasing number of associations between genetic variants and medical disorders.
With the sole exception of non-mosaic Down syndrome, genetic test results alone are not sufficient to make a disability determination or decision. A person may be found disabled based on meeting the criteria for non-mosaic Down syndrome in the Listing of Impairments (listings) under 10.06A and 110.06A, when this condition is documented by a karyotype report signed by a physician.
No. We will not order genetic testing in a CE. While genetic test results may provide valuable information when they appear as part of a large body of MER, they are not necessary to establish a finding of disability.
Yes, we consider all evidence we receive, including genetic test results, when evaluating a disability claim.
The results of genetic tests constitute laboratory findings, which are considered objective medical evidence. Consistent with our regulations, when genetic test results are available, we will consider them, together with all relevant evidence available in the case record, such as signs, symptoms, other laboratory findings, and medical opinion evidence.
No, genetic test results are not required for a finding of disability. A finding of disability requires a claimant to have an MDI, which can be expected to result in death or which has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuing period of not less than 12 months.
We typically receive the results of genetic tests in medical evidence from clinical geneticists, other physicians, and genetic counselors. Claimants sometimes provide results of “direct-to-consumer” (DTC) medical tests. We will consider genetic test results from all sources, medical and otherwise.
Clinical geneticists are physicians specializing in the diagnosis and management of hereditary disorders. Clinical geneticists and other licensed physicians have a medical degree and are acceptable medical sources (AMS). We establish the existence of an MDI using objective medical evidence (signs or laboratory results) from an AMS. Cytogeneticists, biochemical geneticists, and molecular geneticists may hold a Ph.D. or a medical degree (
Genetic counselors assess and communicate genetic risk for medical conditions in a person and members of his or her biological family. They obtain and evaluate personal and family medical histories as well as identify and coordinate genetic tests and other diagnostic studies, as appropriate, to obtain needed information for a genetic assessment. They are also able to explain the clinical implications of genetic laboratory tests and other diagnostic studies and their results.
These professionals typically hold a master's degree in Genetic Counseling and may be board-certified by the American Board of Genetic Counseling (denoted by the use of the credential “Certified Genetic Counselor” or CGC). However, we do not consider a genetic counselor to be an AMS under our rules unless the individual is also a licensed physician or other AMS provider. This is true even when the genetic counselor is licensed to practice genetic counseling by his or her State. We cannot establish the existence of an MDI based solely on a report from a genetic counselor. We can use evidence from genetic counselors working in an independent capacity to show the severity of a person's impairment and how it affects the person's ability to work, or, for children, how the child typically functions compared to children of the same age who do not have impairments.
DTC genetic tests are available and appear to be growing in popularity. These tests are generally marketed directly to consumers via television, print advertisements, or the internet. A person typically collects a DNA sample at home, such as by swabbing the inside of the cheek, and mails the sample back to the laboratory for testing. In some cases, the person must visit a health clinic to have blood drawn. The samples are analyzed and consumers are directly notified of the results by mail, over the telephone, or online.
There is currently little regulation and oversight of DTC genetic testing, leading to concerns about its accuracy, reliability, and clinical relevance.
Yes, we consider genetic test results and all other evidence in varying ways throughout the sequential evaluation process.
If a person's MDI does not meet or medically equal a listing, we assess whether the impairment(s) results in functional limitations that would prevent him or her from performing past relevant work or other work at steps 4 and 5 of sequential evaluation.
When genetic test results come from an AMS and are not based on DTC genetic testing, we can use the evidence to establish an MDI if there are signs and symptoms consistent with the impairment.
Although non-physician geneticists are generally not AMSs, a physician or other AMS typically reviews or evaluates test results produced by a non-physician geneticist and incorporates these test results into an individual's medical record. In such a case, the evidence can be used to help establish an MDI. Similarly, genetic counselors are generally not AMSs. Therefore, we cannot establish the existence of an MDI based solely on a report from a genetic counselor. However, genetic counselors typically work in a setting where they are in close collaboration with a physician or other AMS. When a person is referred for diagnostic testing by a genetic counselor, the results are often reviewed, evaluated, interpreted, or used by a physician and incorporated into a medical record. In such a case, this evidence can help establish an MDI.
Similar to imaging from an x-ray or MRI, which requires AMS involvement to establish an MDI, a genetic test result without AMS involvement cannot establish an MDI. A DTC genetic test result, even if evaluated, interpreted, or otherwise utilized by an AMS, cannot lead to the establishment of an MDI
Many disorders with a known genetic basis can be, and often are, established by means other than genetic tests. For example, although diagnostic genetic tests for cystic fibrosis exist, as do guidelines surrounding their use, the most common confirmatory test for this disease is the sweat chloride test, which measures the concentrations of a certain electrolyte in a person's sweat.
To some extent, genetic test results can be helpful in our overall impairment evaluation, but generally they do not help us determine whether or not an impairment is severe. For an impairment to be severe, it must significantly limit an adult's physical or mental ability to do basic work activities.
Genetic test results generally do not provide information about the degree of functional limitation associated with an impairment, but they can be used to help evaluate for consistency with or supportability of alleged symptoms and limitations. With the exception of non-mosaic Down Syndrome, we need evidence other than genetic test results to show a person's impairment is severe. This evidence comes from other medical records, a claimant's report of symptoms, and statements from nonmedical sources.
For several medical listings, we use genetic test results to evaluate whether a person's impairment meets a medical listing. Four of our medical listings include, as part of the criteria for an impairment to meet a listing, the use of appropriate genetic test results.
We may also use genetic test results indicating the presence of a catastrophic congenital disorder, such as Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18), to find a child's impairment meets listing 110.08. Other medical listings are for disorders, such as cystic fibrosis
While genetic tests may help to establish the presence of a disorder and assist in determining whether an impairment meets or medically equals a listing, the results alone generally do not provide us with information about the degree of a person's limitation due to the impairment. A claimant's RFC reflects the most he or she can do despite his or her limitations.
To assess a claimant's impairments beyond step 3, we need non-genetic evidence about the impairment's effect on a person's functioning to determine the most the person can do despite his or her limitations and restrictions.
However, results of genetic tests can be assessed for consistency with a person's symptoms and alleged limitations. For example, genetic test results may lead an AMS to diagnose familial Mediterranean fever. A common symptom is painful inflammation in various areas of the body, including joints.
Yes. We consider all impairments and case facts to determine when to conduct a CDR. We conduct a full evaluation of all evidence, including genetic test results, when setting diary dates. Due to the diversity of types of genetic tests and the differing types of information that genetic test results can provide, the
The Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), section 1106 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1306), and our disclosure regulations (20 CFR part 401) govern the collection, maintenance, and use of an individual's information in our systems of records. Although these authorities do not specifically address requirements for the disclosure of genetic test results, they apply to the extent we maintain this type of information in our records.
Under the Privacy Act and our disclosure regulations, we generally cannot disclose genetic test results without the consent of the subject of the record. For example, if an individual's MER contains genetic test results and he or she authorizes us to disclose this specific information to a third party, we will do so with a valid, written consent that meets our regulatory requirements.
In addition, the Privacy Act grants individuals a right of access to any records we maintain about them in our systems of records. Therefore, any genetic test results we maintain in an individual's MER (including records a medical consultative examiner may have generated on our behalf) are subject to these access requirements, as is the case with all medical evidence. However, if we determine that direct access to the medical information is likely to have an adverse effect on the subject of the record, we will follow certain procedures in providing access to the information.
EFFECTIVE DATE: This SSR is effective on April 13, 2016.
CROSS REFERENCES: SSR 86-8, Titles II and XVI: The Sequential Evaluation Process; SSR 96-2p, Titles II and XVI: Giving Controlling Weight to Treating Source Medical Opinions; SSR 96-5p, Titles II and XVI: Medical Source Opinions on Issues Reserved to the Commissioner; SSR 96-7p, Titles II and XVI: Evaluation of Symptoms in Disability Claims: Assessing the Credibility of an Individual's Statements; SSR 96-8p, Titles II and XVI: Assessing Residual Functional Capacity in Initial Claims; SSR 06-3p, Titles II and XVI: Considering Opinions and Other Evidence from Sources Who Are Not “Acceptable Medical Sources” in Disability Claims; Considering Decisions on Disability by Other Governmental and Nongovernmental Agencies; and Program Operations Manual System (POMS) DI 00115.015, DI 22501.001, DI 22505.001, DI 22505.003, DI 24501.020, DI 24515.001, DI 24515.061, DI 24515.062, DI 25201.005.
Notice of open meeting.
The Advisory Committee on International Economic Policy (ACIEP) will meet from 2:00 p.m. until 5:00 p.m., on Tuesday, May 17, in Washington, DC at the State Department, 320 21st Street NW., in conference room 4477. The meeting will be hosted by the Assistant Secretary of State for Economic and Business Affairs, Charles H. Rivkin and Committee Chair Paul R. Charron. The ACIEP serves the U.S. government in a solely advisory capacity, and provides advice concerning topics in international economic policy. It is expected that during this meeting, the ACIEP subcommittees on sanctions policy, investment policy, and the Stakeholder Advisory Board will provide updates on their recent work.
This meeting is open to the public, though seating is limited. Entry to the building is controlled. To obtain pre-clearance for entry, members of the public planning to attend should
For additional information, contact Alan Krill, Bureau of Economic and Business Affairs, at (202) 647-0812, or
State Justice Institute.
Notice of meeting.
The SJI Board of Directors will be meeting on Monday, April 18, 2016 at 1:00 p.m. The meeting will be held at the Supreme Court of Kentucky in Frankfort, Kentucky. The purpose of this meeting is to consider grant applications for the 2nd quarter of FY 2016, and other business. All portions of this meeting are open to the public.
Supreme Court of Kentucky, State Capitol, Room 235, Frankfort, KY 40601.
Jonathan Mattiello, Executive Director, State Justice Institute, 11951 Freedom Drive, Suite 1020, Reston, VA 20190, 571-313-8843,
Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA).
Notice of meeting; correction.
This is a correction to the
The RRSC was established to advise TVA on its natural resource stewardship activities. Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C. App. 2.
The meeting agenda includes the following:
The RRSC will hear opinions and views of citizens by providing a public comment session starting at 10:15 a.m., EDT, on Tuesday, April 26. Persons wishing to speak are requested to register at the door by 9:45 a.m. EDT on Tuesday, April 26 and will be called on during the public comment period. Handout materials should be limited to one printed page. Written comments are also invited and may be mailed to the Regional Resource Stewardship Council, Tennessee Valley Authority, 400 West Summit Hill Drive, WT-9 D, Knoxville, Tennessee 37902.
The public meeting will be held on Tuesday, April 26, from 8:30 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. EDT.
The meeting will be held at the Chattanoogan Hotel, 1201 South Broad Street, Chattanooga, Tennessee 37402, and will be open to the public. Anyone needing special access or accommodations should let the contact below know at least a week in advance.
Beth Keel, 400 West Summit Hill Drive, WT-9 D, Knoxville, Tennessee 37902, (865) 632-6113.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of availability and request for public comment.
This notice announces the Federal Aviation Administration's (FAA) intent to cancel the following Technical Standard Orders (TSOs): -C42, Propeller Feathering Hose Assemblies; -C53c, Fuel and Engine Oil System Hose Assemblies; and -C75, Hydraulic Hose Assemblies. The intent is to combine the updated requirements of the aforementioned TSOs into TSO-C140, Aerospace Fuel, Engine Oil, and Hydraulic Hose Assemblies. The impact of cancelling these TSOs will not affect current design or production approvals for an existing TSO-C42, -C53c, or -C75 authorization (TSOA). However, modifications to TSO-C42, -C53c, and -C75 TSOAs will no longer be accepted after the effective cancellation date. Generally, we will not accept applications for the previous revisions after the cancellation date of these TSOs. We may do so, however, up to six months after publication of this cancellation notice if we know that work was being done against the prior minimum performance standard before the cancellations became effective. Articles approved under those cancelled TSOAs may continue to be produced under the provisions of their original approvals.
Comments must be received on or before May 13, 2016.
Jim Kabbara, AIR-133, Federal Aviation Administration, 950 L'Enfant Plaza, 5th floor, Washington, DC 20024. Telephone (202) 267-1612 or email at:
You are invited to comment on the proposed cancellation of the TSOs by submitting written data, views, or arguments to the above address. Comments received may be examined, both before and after the closing date at the above address, weekdays except federal holidays, between 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. The Director, Aircraft Certification Service, will consider all comments received on or before the closing date.
A recent review of TSO-C140 revealed it contained all the updated requirements of TSOs -C42, -C53c, and -C75, each of which are in need of an update. As such, we believe that the proposed cancellation does not impose any new requirements and will have no burden on the aviation community.
Issued in Washington, DC.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of Intent to Rule on Request to Release Airport Property at the Humboldt Municipal Airport, Humboldt, Iowa.
The FAA proposes to rule and invites public comment on the release of land at the Humboldt Municipal, Humboldt, Iowa, under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 47107(h)(2).
Comments must be received on or before May 13, 2016.
Comments on this application may be mailed or delivered to the FAA at the following address: Lynn D. Martin, Airports Compliance Specialist, Federal Aviation Administration, Airports Division, ACE-610C, 901 Locust Room 364, Kansas City, MO 64106.
In addition, one copy of any comments submitted to the FAA must be mailed or delivered to: Humboldt Airport Commission, Dave Dodgen, City of Humboldt 29 Fifth Street South, Humboldt, IA 50548, 515-332-3435.
Lynn D. Martin, Airports Compliance Specialist, Federal Aviation Administration, Airports Division, ACE-610C, 901 Locust Room 364, Kansas City, MO 64106, (816) 329-2644,
The FAA invites public comment on the request to release approximately 1.42 acres of airport property at the Humboldt Municipal Airport (0K7) under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 47107(h)(2). On January 18, 2016, the Airport Commission at the Humboldt Municipal Airport requested from the FAA that approximately 1.42 acres of property be released for sale to B&N Auto for dual use as a farming rental in the summer and snow storage in the winter. On March 10, 2016, the FAA determined that the request to release property at the Humboldt Municipal Airport (0K7) submitted by the Sponsor meets the procedural requirements of the Federal Aviation Administration and the release of the property does not and will not impact future aviation needs at the airport. The FAA may approve the request, in whole or in part, no sooner than thirty days after the publication of this Notice. The following is a brief overview of the request:
Humboldt Municipal Airport (0K7) is proposing the release of one parcel, of 1.42 acres, more or less. The release of land is necessary to comply with Federal Aviation Administration Grant Assurances that do not allow federally acquired airport property to be used for non-aviation purposes. The sale of the subject property will result in the land at the Humboldt Municipal Airport (0K7) being changed from aeronautical to non-aeronautical use and release the lands from the conditions of the Airport Improvement Program Grant Agreement Grant Assurances. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 47107(c)(2)(B)(i) and (iii), the airport will receive fair market value for the property, which will be subsequently reinvested in another eligible airport improvement project for general aviation facilities at the Humboldt Municipal Airport.
Any person may inspect, by appointment, the request in person at the FAA office listed above under
Federal Highway Administration, Department of Transportation.
Notice to rescind a Notice of Intent for an Environmental Impact Statement.
A Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) was published in the
Mike Traffalis, Project Manager, Federal Highway Administration-Western Federal Lands, 610 E. 5th St., Vancouver, WA 98661. 360-619-7700.
The 2004 Southeast Alaska Transportation Plan (SATP) identified the need to improve the transportation system between communities in southeast Alaska. One improvement includes providing local access between the community of Kake and a major transportation and commercial hub. The 2012 Alaska Legislature appropriated $40 million to ADOT&PF for construction of a roadway connecting the communities of Kake and Petersburg.
On January 22, 2013, FHWA issued a Notice of Intent (NOI) to advise the public that it intended to prepare an EIS for a proposed transportation project to improve access to and from the community of Kake (
To refine the project's purpose and need statement, a public phone survey and a transportation needs assessment were completed to provide more information about current travel patterns between Kake and surrounding communities. The needs assessment summarized prior work on the Kake Access Project, analyzed travel patterns, documented perceptions of project benefits and potential negative effects, and estimated potential annual average daily traffic counts for round trips between Kake and Petersburg. Public meetings were held in Kake and Petersburg in March 2014 to present the results and to give residents an opportunity to provide input and ask questions about the proposed project. A revised purpose and need statement was drafted in May 2015. The FHWA and ADOT&PF studied project alternatives and began narrowing down the list to a reasonable range of alternatives to be analyzed in the EIS. Public meetings were held in Kake and Petersburg in September 2015 and another public survey was completed November 2015 through January 2016 to collect public input on the project.
In February 2016, ADOT&PF decided to close the Kake Access project. The principal factors supporting the decision to close the project is that the Federal project is not fully funded and the need to operate and maintain a shuttle ferry would add significantly to ADOT&PF's annual maintenance and operating expense.
The purpose of this notice is to rescind the January 22, 2013 NOI to prepare an EIS for the Kake Access project.
23 U.S.C. 315; 49 CFR 1.48.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation.
Notice; correction.
This document corrects the docket number in a
Walter Culbreath, U.S. Department of Transportation, NHTSA, Room W51-316, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Mr. Culbreath's telephone number is (202) 366-1566.
In the
(1) OMB Control Number: 2127-0003.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice.
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) is announcing the first in a series of expert panel meetings to develop evidence based guidelines for fatigue management in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) community. This meeting will focus on generating research questions germane to fatigue mitigation in EMS settings as well as inclusion criteria for the evidence based guideline literature review. Members of the public are encouraged to attend the meeting and make comments about the topic during times set aside specifically
The meeting will be held on April 26th, 2016 from 8:00 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. and April 27th, 2016 from 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held in the Conference Center of the U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
Dr. J. Stephen Higgins, Telephone: 202-366-3976; email address:
NHTSA recently announced its new initiative with the National Association of State EMS Officials (NASEMSO) to develop evidence based voluntary fatigue risk management guidelines and resources tailored to the EMS occupation. NHTSA has already held one stakeholder meeting (February 2, 2016) where the project team and subject matter experts presented on the potential dangers of fatigued driving and the work of EMS practitioners, a summary of the project goals and methods for coming to consensus on EBG fatigue risk management guidelines, the plan for dissemination of EBGs, and additional project related activities and information. A majority of the time in the meeting was set aside to accept questions and comments from attendees and NHTSA heard a number of suggestions. These suggestions will feed into the current panel meeting and will help direct the development of research questions and the eventual evidence based fatigue management guidelines.
The goal of the first panel meeting will be to generate research questions germane to fatigue mitigation in EMS settings as well as inclusion criteria for the evidence based guideline literature review. The tentative agenda topics are as follows:
• Background on Fatigue in EMS and our approach to EBG development
• Overview of the GRADE methodology
• Expert Panel & Research Team presentations
• Panel Discussion
• Public Comment
Due to space limitations, attendance at the meeting is limited to invited participants and those who register in advance. All attendees must bring government issued identification to gain admittance to the DOT Building and should arrive at least 30 minutes in advance of the meeting to have sufficient time to clear DOT security. Those who do not register in advance may not be able to attend because of limited space in the DOT Conference Center. To register please visit
49 U.S.C. 30182; 23 U.S.C. 403.
Internal Revenue Service, Department of Treasury.
Request for applications.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) requests applications of individuals to be considered for selection as members of the Internal Revenue Service Advisory Council (IRSAC). Nominations should describe and document the proposed member's qualification for IRSAC membership, including the applicant's knowledge of Circular 230 regulations and the applicant's past or current affiliations and dealings with the particular tax segment(s) of the community that the applicant wishes to represent on the Council. Applications will be accepted from qualified individuals and from professional and public interest groups that wish to have representatives on the IRSAC. The IRSAC is comprised of up to thirty-five (35) members. Applications are currently being accepted for approximately four appointments that will begin in January 2017. It is important that the IRSAC continue to represent a diverse taxpayer and stakeholder base. Accordingly, to maintain membership diversity, selection is based on the applicant's qualifications as well as areas of expertise, geographic diversity, major stakeholder representation and customer segments.
The Internal Revenue Service Advisory Council (IRSAC) provides an organized public forum for IRS officials and representatives of the public to discuss relevant tax administration issues. The Council advises the IRS on issues that have a substantive effect on federal tax administration. As an advisory body designed to focus on broad policy matters, the IRSAC reviews existing tax policy and/or recommends policies with respect to emerging tax administration issues. The IRSAC suggests operational improvements, offers constructive observations regarding current or proposed IRS policies, programs, and procedures, and advises the IRS with respect to issues having substantive effect on federal tax administration.
Written applications will be accepted from May 2, 2016 through June 24, 2016.
Applications should be submitted to the Internal Revenue Service, National Public Liaison, CL:NPL:P, Room 7559 IR, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, Attn: Ms. Anna Millikan. Applications may also be submitted via email to
Ms. Anna Millikan, 202-317-6851 (not a toll-free number).
IRSAC was authorized under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law
Conveying the public's perception of IRS activities, the IRSAC is comprised of individuals who bring substantial, disparate experience and diverse backgrounds on the Council's activities. Membership is balanced to include representation from the taxpaying public, the tax professional community, small and large businesses, international, wage and investment taxpayers and the knowledge of Circular 230.
IRSAC members are appointed by the Commissioner of the Internal Revenue Service with the concurrence of the Secretary of the Treasury to serve a three-year term. IRSAC may form subcommittees (or subgroups) for any purpose consistent with the charter. These subcommittees must report directly to the IRSAC parent committee.
Members are not paid for their services. However, travel expenses for working sessions, public meetings and orientation sessions, such as airfare, per diem, and transportation to and from airports, train stations, etc., are reimbursed within prescribed federal travel limitations.
All applicants will be sent an acknowledgment of receipt. In accordance with the Department of Treasury Directive 21-03, a clearance process, including annual tax checks and a practitioner check with both the IRS Return Preparer Office and the Office of Professional Responsibility, will be conducted. In addition, all applicants deemed “Best Qualified” shall undergo a Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) fingerprint check. Equal opportunity practices will be followed for all appointments to the IRSAC in accordance with the Department of Treasury and IRS policies. The IRS has special interest in assuring that women and men, members of all races and national origins, and individuals with disabilities are adequately represented on advisory committees. Therefore, the IRS extends particular encouragement to nominations from such appropriately-qualified candidates.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. App. 2, 10(a)(2), that a meeting will be held at the Hay-Adams Hotel, 16th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC, on May 3, 2016 at 11:30 a.m. of the following debt management advisory committee:
Treasury Borrowing Advisory Committee of The Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association.
The agenda for the meeting provides for a charge by the Secretary of the Treasury or his designate that the Committee discuss particular issues and conduct a working session. Following the working session, the Committee will present a written report of its recommendations. The meeting will be closed to the public, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. App. 2, 10(d) and Public Law 103-202, 202(c)(1)(B) (31 U.S.C. 3121 note).
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Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
The United States Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) proposes to amend the organic livestock and poultry production requirements by: adding new provisions for livestock handling and transport for slaughter and avian living conditions; and expanding and clarifying existing requirements covering livestock health care practices and mammalian living conditions.
Comments must be received by June 13, 2016.
Interested parties may submit written comments on this proposed rule using one of the following methods:
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Paul Lewis, Ph.D., Director of Standards Division, Telephone: (202) 720-3252; Fax: (202) 205-7808.
This proposed rule would create greater consistency in organic livestock practices. AMS has determined that the current USDA organic regulations (7 CFR part 205) covering livestock health care practices and living conditions need additional specificity and clarity to better ensure consistent compliance by certified organic operations and to provide for more effective administration of the National Organic Program (NOP) by AMS. One purpose of the Organic Foods Production Act of 1990 (OFPA) (7 U.S.C. 6501-6522) is to assure consumers that organically produced products meet a consistent and uniform standard (7 U.S.C. 6501). By facilitating improved compliance and enforcement of the USDA organic regulations, the proposed regulations would better satisfy consumer expectations that organic livestock meet a uniform and verifiable animal welfare standard.
Specifically, this proposed action would:
1. Clarify how producers and handlers must treat livestock and poultry to ensure their health and wellbeing.
2. Clarify when and how certain physical alterations may be performed on organic livestock and poultry in order to minimize stress. Additionally, some forms of physical alterations would be prohibited.
3. Set maximum indoor and outdoor stocking density for avian species, which would vary depending on the type of production and stage of life.
4. Define outdoor access to exclude the use of structures with solid roofing for outdoor access and require livestock and poultry to have contact with soil.
5. Add new requirements for transporting livestock and poultry to sale or slaughter.
6. Clarify the application of USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) requirements regarding the handling of livestock and poultry in connection with slaughter to certified organic livestock and poultry establishments and provide for the enforcement of USDA organic regulations based on FSIS inspection findings.
This proposed rule would provide specificity on livestock health care practices, such as which physical alteration procedures are prohibited or restricted for use on organic livestock. The proposed livestock health care practice standards include requirements for euthanasia to reduce suffering of any sick or disabled livestock. To improve upon the current standards, this proposed rule would set separate standards for mammalian and avian livestock living conditions to better reflect the needs and behaviors of the different species, as well as related consumer expectations. The proposed mammalian livestock standards would cover both ruminants and swine. The proposed avian living standards would set maximum indoor and outdoor stocking densities to ensure the birds have sufficient space to engage in natural behaviors. This proposed rule would add new requirements on the transport of organic livestock to sale or slaughter. This proposed rule would also add a new section to clarify how organic slaughter facility practices and FSIS regulations work together to support animal welfare.
AMS estimates the following costs and benefits of this proposed rule.
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are engaged in the meat, egg, poultry, dairy, or animal fiber industries. Potentially affected entities may include, but are not limited to:
• Individuals or business entities that are considering organic certification for a new or existing livestock farm or slaughter facility.
• Existing livestock farms and slaughter facilities that are currently certified organic under the USDA organic regulations.
• Certifying agents accredited by USDA to certify organic livestock operations and organic livestock handling operations.
This listing is not intended to be exhaustive, but identifies key entities likely to be affected by this action. Other types of entities could also be affected. To determine whether you or your business may be affected by this action, you should carefully examine the proposed regulatory text. If you have questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under
Your comments should clearly indicate whether or not they support the proposed action for any or all of the items in this proposed rule. You should clearly indicate the reason(s) for the stated position. Your comments should also offer any recommended language changes that would be appropriate for your position. Please include relevant information and data to further support your position (
Specifically, AMS is requesting comments on the following topics:
1. The clarity of the proposed requirements: Can farmers, handlers, and certifying agents readily determine how to comply with the proposed regulations?
2. The accuracy of the assumptions and estimates in the Regulatory Impact Analysis and Regulatory Flexibility Analysis pertaining to organic poultry and egg production. In addition, the accuracy of AMS' assertion that the proposed requirements pertaining to mammalian livestock codify current practices among these organic producers
3. The implementation approach and timeframe. AMS is proposing that all provisions of this rule must be implemented within one year of the publication date of the final rule except for the outdoor space requirements for avian species. AMS is proposing two distinct implementation timeframes for the outdoor space requirements for poultry: (1) Three years after the publication of the final rule any non-certified facility would need to comply in order to obtain certification; (2) all facilities certified prior to that three-year mark would need to comply within five years of the publication of the final rule.
This proposed rule addresses health care, transport, slaughter and living conditions for organic livestock. However, the provisions for outdoor access for poultry have a long history of agency and NOSB actions and are a focal issue. Outdoor access practices, particularly for organic layers, vary; some operations provide large, open-air outdoor areas, while others provide minimal outdoor space or use screened, covered enclosures commonly called “porches” to provide outdoor space. An audit in 2010 conducted by the USDA Office of the Inspector General identified inconsistencies in certification practices regarding the use of porches as outdoor space. To address that finding, AMS issued draft guidance. However, after public comment, AMS determined that rulemaking was necessary to resolve the divergent outdoor access practices for organic poultry and did not finalize the guidance. To assist with the rulemaking, the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB) developed a series of recommendations to clarify organic livestock healthcare, transport, slaughter, and living conditions, including outdoor access for poultry. The NOSB deliberation process revealed broad support within the organic community and consumer expectations for specific guidelines for animal care, including meaningful outdoor access for poultry.
OFPA authorizes the establishment of national standards for the marketing of organically produced agricultural products. AMS administers the National Organic Program (NOP), which oversees the development and implementation of the national standards for the production, handling and marketing of organically produced agricultural products. Section 6509 of OFPA authorizes the USDA to implement regulations regarding standards for organic livestock products. Furthermore, OFPA authorizes the creation of the NOSB to advise USDA about the implementation of standards and practices for organic production (7 U.S.C. 6518). The NOSB is a 15-member Federal Advisory Board appointed by the Secretary of Agriculture which meets in public twice annually. OFPA specifies the composition of the NOSB and reserves four NOSB seats for producers/growers, two seats for handlers/processors. The NOSB solicits public comment on topics related to the USDA organic regulations to inform its public deliberations and decision making at the open meetings. Any NOSB recommendations to amend the USDA organic regulations must be implemented through the notice and comment rulemaking process.
The current USDA organic regulations have broad and general requirements for
The management of domesticated animals requires that they be contained in some manner, either to prevent them from running away or to protect them from harm. In organic management systems, securing animal access areas is important to ensure animals do not come into contact with prohibited substances or eat nonorganic feed. However, the degree to which animals are restrained or contained in pens, cages, paddocks, or other enclosures, may affect their ability to exercise their natural behaviors.
Consistent with organic farming principles, the USDA organic regulations require housing and living conditions that allow animals to freely exercise their natural behaviors. Natural behaviors are species-specific. Therefore, for example, the USDA organic regulations require that ruminants graze at least 120 days per year and receive 30 percent of dry matter intake from grazing. The regulations also describe situations that warrant denying ruminant animals access to pasture or the outdoors,
Further, certifying agents inspect each organic operation and decide whether or not to certify the operation. Certifying agents must consider site-specific conditions, including prevalent pests and diseases, weather, and natural resources of the operation when determining the acceptability of a particular management practice. This flexibility, combined with numerous combinations of environmental, cultural, and economic factors, results in variation in the manner in which the regulations are applied. For example, in organic poultry production, outdoor access ranges from extensive pasture to roofed enclosures,
Between 1994 and 2011, the NOSB made nine recommendations regarding livestock health and welfare in organic production. Between 1997 and 2000, AMS issued two proposed rules and a final rule regarding national standards for the production and handling of organic products, including livestock and their products. The NOSB as well as members of the public commented on these rulemakings with regard to the health and welfare of livestock. Key actions from that period, which led to the development of the existing standards on organic livestock, are summarized below.
(1) In June 1994, the NOSB recommended a series of provisions to address the care and handling of livestock on organic farms. Within this recommendation, the NOSB developed much of the framework for organic care and welfare of animals, including health care standards, living conditions and transportation of livestock practices.
(2) In April and October 1995, the NOSB made a series of recommendations as addendums to the June 1994 recommendations. These recommendations further addressed various health care practices, a requirement for outside access, and the use of vaccines.
(3) On December 16, 1997, AMS responded to the 1994 and 1995 NOSB recommendations in a proposed rule to establish the NOP (62 FR 65850). Consistent with the NOSB's recommendation, the proposed language would have required that organic livestock producers develop a preventive health care plan and use synthetic drugs only if preventive measures failed. The 1997 proposed rule also included standards for livestock living conditions, including when animals would be permitted to be confined. This proposed rule was not finalized.
(4) In March 1998, the NOSB reaffirmed its earlier recommendations on animal health care and living conditions. The 1998 NOSB recommendation also stressed the importance of treating sick livestock by recommending that any organic producer who did not take specified actions to provide care for a diseased animal would lose certification. This recommendation also included provisions to clarify when livestock could be confined indoors and defined “outdoors” as having direct access to sunshine.
(5) On March 13, 2000, AMS published a second proposed rule to establish the National Organic Program (65 FR 13512). AMS responded to the NOSB's March 1998 recommendation on animal health care and living conditions in this proposed rule. AMS proposed that organic producers must use disease prevention practices first, then approved synthetic medications only if preventive measures failed. However, a producer would need to use all appropriate measures to save the animal even if the animal lost organic status. In addition, AMS proposed that the living conditions for organic livestock must maintain the health of the animals and allow for natural behaviors, including access to the outdoors.
(6) On December 21, 2000, AMS published a final rule establishing the USDA organic regulations (65 FR 80548). Through this action, AMS finalized the standards for health care practices and livestock living conditions. That rule became effective on February 20, 2001, and was fully implemented on October 21, 2002.
(7) In May 2002, the NOSB again addressed outdoor access, stating this should include open air and direct access to sunshine.
(8) In March 2005, the NOSB recommended that the temporary confinement provision for “stage of production” be changed to “stage of life.”
(9) On October 24, 2008, AMS published a proposed rule on access to pasture for ruminant livestock (73 FR 63584). AMS published the final rule, Access to Pasture (Livestock) (75 FR 7154), on February 17, 2010 (75 FR 7154). This rule was based on several NOSB recommendations regarding ruminant livestock feed and living conditions. This rule set a requirement that ruminants obtain a minimum of 30 percent dry matter intake from grazing during the grazing season.
(10) Between 2009 and 2011, the NOSB issued a series of
(11) In October 2010, the NOSB passed a recommendation on the use of drugs for pain relief.
(12) In December 2011, the NOSB passed an additional animal welfare recommendation.
(13) In December 2011, the NOSB passed a separate recommendation to add standards for transportation of livestock to slaughter facilities and the slaughter process.
On October 29, 2002, AMS issued a memorandum to clarify outdoor access and temporary confinement requirements for livestock under the USDA organic regulations.
On February 17, 2010, AMS published a final rule on Access to Pasture (Livestock). The final rule was in response to the 2005 NOSB recommendation and extensive public input requesting clear outdoor access requirements for ruminant livestock. The final rule established that ruminants obtain at least 30 percent dry matter intake from grazing during the grazing season. The rule provided clarity to correct inconsistent application and enforcement of the outdoor access provisions for ruminant livestock.
In March 2010, the USDA Office of the Inspector General (OIG) issued a report concerning, in part, AMS guidance on outdoor access for organic livestock.
On October 13, 2010, AMS published draft guidance, Outdoor Access for Organic Poultry, for public comment.
AMS received 69 comments on the draft guidance. Comments varied widely. Some supported more specific and stringent stocking densities and soil-based outdoor access, citing animal health and environmental benefits. Other comments favored maintaining an allowance for porches as acceptable outdoor access, citing biosecurity and animal health concerns.
Commenters stated that the draft guidance was unenforceable and would not ensure year-round outside access for poultry. These commenters suggested a minimum stocking rate of 1.75 square feet per bird in henhouses that also provide access to perches, with an additional 5 square feet per bird available in vegetated outdoor runs, which should be accessible to all birds at the same time. A number of commenters, including poultry producers, supported outdoor access on soil, pasture or other vegetation, and described health benefits and protection of the environment that a pasture or other vegetated outdoor access area would afford.
One trade association, some organic egg producers, and consultants described the use of production systems that limit outdoor access via the use of enclosed porches so that poultry are not in contact with soil or pasture. These commenters described the benefits of these systems: Protection from predation, pathogens that cause food safety problems, exposure to parasites,
Given the comments and the request for rulemaking, AMS determined to pursue rulemaking to clarify outdoor access for poultry and did not finalize the draft guidance. Because the current regulations permit a range of practices for providing outdoor access for livestock, AMS could not enforce a narrower interpretation through guidance or additional training for certifying agents. Instructing certifiers to compel compliance with requirements that are more specific than the regulations could only be resolved through rulemaking.
Some organic poultry operations provide outdoor access through porches. These porch systems proliferated after a 2002 AMS administrative appeal decision ordering the certification of an operation that provided porches exclusively for outdoor access. If finalized, this rule would supersede the 2002 appeal decision.
On July 15, 2002, an operation applied for organic certification of its egg laying operation with a USDA accredited certifying agent. As part of the application, the operation's Organic System Plan (OSP) stated that outdoor access would be provided through covered and screened porches. The certifying agent denied certification for failure to provide hens with access to the outdoors. The certifying agent stated that a porch did not provide outdoor access as required by the USDA organic regulations. The operation appealed the Denial of Certification to the AMS Administrator on October 22, 2002. The Administrator determined that poultry porches could be allowed because the regulations do not specify outdoor space requirements. The appeal was sustained on October 25, 2002, and the certifying agent was directed to grant organic certification to the operation retroactively to October 21, 2002.
The certifying agent objected to the Administrator's decision and appealed to the USDA Office of the Administrative Law Judge (ALJ). On November 4, 2003, the USDA ALJ dismissed the appeal. On December 11, 2003, the certifying agent appealed to the USDA Judicial Officer. On April 21, 2004, the USDA Judicial Officer dismissed the appeal. On September 27, 2005, the certifying agent filed an appeal with the U.S. District Court, District of Massachusetts. On March 30, 2007, the U.S. District Court dismissed the case for lack of standing (
AMS is proposing to add fifteen new terms to § 205.2: Beak trimming, caponization, cattle wattling, de-beaking, de-snooding, dubbing, indoors, mulesing, outdoors, perch, pullet, roost, soil, stocking density and toe clipping.
AMS is proposing to prohibit several physical alterations on organic livestock. AMS is proposing to define eight terms, below, related to these physical alterations so that certifying agents and producers may ensure that they do not inadvertently perform a prohibited physical alteration which may be known by a different name locally.
AMS is proposing to define “outdoors” to add more specificity to the existing requirement in the livestock living conditions section (7 CFR 205.239(a)(1)) that livestock have access to the outdoors. “Outdoors” would be defined as any area in the open air with at least 50 percent soil, outside a building or shelter where there are no solid walls or solid roof attached to the indoor living space structure. Fencing or netting that does not block sunlight or rain may be used as necessary. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this definition would exclude porches and other structures attached to the indoor living space as outdoor areas. For biosafety and animal welfare purposes, fencing or overhead netting that does not block sunlight or rain would be permitted to prevent predators and other wild birds from entering the outdoor area.
Structures for shade are permitted in the outdoor space. The area within a standalone, roofed, shade structure could be included as outdoor space area, provided it is not attached to the indoor space structure. Roofed areas attached to the building are not considered outdoor areas. This is consistent with the 2011 NOSB recommendation that stated that covered porches should not be considered outdoor access. This is also consistent with FDA's draft guidance on outdoor access under the FDA Prevention of Salmonella Enteritidis in Shell Eggs regulations
The proposed definition of “outdoors” would specify that outdoor areas for all livestock have access to the soil. This supports natural behaviors across species. For example, soil-based outdoor access will encourage rooting and wallowing among swine and dust bathing and foraging among poultry.
AMS is proposing to define “soil” as the outermost layer of the earth comprised of minerals, water, air, organic matter, fungi, and bacteria, in which plants may grow roots. Livestock producers must include contact with soil when providing outdoor access to livestock in a manner that maintains and improves natural resources.
AMS is proposing to define “stocking density” as the maximum weight of animals on a given unit of land at any one time. Specifically, the minimum outdoor space requirements for poultry are based on stocking density as measured by the maximum pounds of bird on a square foot of land at a given time. AMS also considered basing the stocking density requirements on the minimum area per bird (
AMS is proposing to define “indoors” as the flat space or platform area under a solid roof where the animals have access to both food and water and can be confined if necessary. Indoor space would be calculated by adding the square footage of the following roofed areas: (1) Ground level, which may have perches embedded or placed on the ground; (2) multi-level platforms, which provide water and feed on each elevation from which the birds can freely access the outdoors; (3) porches, which are accessible to the birds at all times. Space in porches may not be included in the calculation for indoor space if the doors are closed due to inclement weather or threat of diseases.
AMS is further clarifying the indoor living space requirements by defining several elements that will need to be included in that area. This proposal would define a “perch” as a rod- or branch-type structure that serves as a roost and allows birds to utilize vertical space in the house. This proposal would define a “roost” as a flat structure over a manure pit that allows birds to grip with their toes as they would on a perch.
AMS is proposing to define “pullet” as a female chicken or other avian species being raised for egg production that has not yet started to lay eggs. While pullet is sometimes used to describe young broilers which are used for meat production, AMS is using the
AMS is proposing to amend current provisions in and add new provisions to the health care practice standards. The proposed amendment to § 205.238(a)(2) would specify that the sufficiency of the feed ration would be demonstrated by appropriate body condition of the livestock. Livestock producers would need to monitor their animals to ensure body condition is being maintained. In addition, certifying agents would need to verify the nutritional adequacy of the animals' diet by assessing the body condition of organic livestock during inspection. Suitable body condition varies between species, between breeds, and between production types. A suitable condition for dairy cattle may be considered too thin in beef cattle. Producers who routinely monitor body condition of their livestock will be more likely to discover a health or feed issue early, before the animal suffers. AMS plans to provide further information about body condition assessment through published guidance to assist certifiers, inspectors, and producers assess body condition in different species.
AMS proposes to revise § 205.238(a)(5) to clarify the conditions under which physical alterations may be performed on livestock. Physical alterations may be performed for only certain reasons, including an animal's welfare, hygiene, identification, or safety. Alterations must be done at a reasonably young age with minimal pain or stress to the animal, and only by a person who is competent to perform the procedure. Competency may be demonstrated by training or experience of the person performing the alterations or may be demonstrated by the training or experience of the person training the person performing the alterations.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.238(a)(5)(i) to list the physical alterations that are not allowed on a routine basis, but may be performed on an as-needed basis. Needle teeth trimming and tail docking in pigs may only be performed in response to documented animal welfare reasons when alternative steps to prevent harm fail. Teeth clipping, if performed, would be limited to the top third of the each needle tooth. For example, an organic swine producer who clipped needle teeth or performed tail docking would need to document excessive needle teeth scarring on the underline of the sow or piglets or document tail biting on piglets in the litter. Swine producers would also need to document that alternative methods failed. Such alternative methods may include, but are not limited to, cross-fostering prior to teat fidelity across litters to minimize weight variation, providing sufficient enrichment materials, and providing vegetation for rooting.
In the 2009 recommendation, the NOSB recommended that needle teeth clipping and piglet tail docking be allowed, but retracted that in its 2011 recommendation. In consideration of NOSB preferences and producer needs, AMS is proposing to restrict the use of these procedures to situations when alternative methods of preventing injury fail and the producer documents the harm to animals prior to performing either physical alteration.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.238(a)(5)(ii) to list the physical alterations that are prohibited in an organic operation. The following physical alterations would be prohibited under this proposal: De-beaking, de-snooding, caponization, dubbing, toe trimming of chickens, toe trimming of turkeys unless with infra-red at hatchery, beak trimming after 10 days of age, tail docking of cattle, wattling of cattle, face branding of cattle, tail docking of sheep shorter than the distal end of the caudal fold, and mulesing of sheep.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.238(a)(7) which would specify that surgical procedures on livestock to
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.238(a)(8) to require organic producers to actively monitor lameness within the herd or flock and to document the cases of lameness. Lameness can be an issue in various livestock species including broilers, sheep, and dairy cattle. The requirement for producers to create a plan for monitoring and recording instances of lameness in the Organic System Plan will enable organic livestock producers to identify and address a problem before it becomes widespread among the animals. In addition, the records will provide an auditable trail for certifying agents to verify that livestock producers are monitoring this potential cause of animal suffering.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.238(b)(3) to state that synthetic medications may be administered in the presence of an illness to reduce pain and suffering, as long as those medications are allowed under § 205.603. OFPA limits the use of synthetic medications in the absence of illness. AMS is proposing to follow the NOSB recommendation to allow the use of synthetic substances to alleviate pain and suffering for animals if the substances appear on the National List. AMS is proposing to take a broad view of illness to encompass not just instances of disease or injury, but also cases of inflammation due to physical alterations. By providing pain relief prior to performing a physical alteration, animal welfare is improved. In addition, by providing pain relief, the animal undergoing the physical alteration is less likely to make a sudden movement. Such movements can cause infection or a more severe injury. Again, the use of pain relief prior to the physical alteration can reduce serious complications. Physical alterations such as dehorning result in trauma to the target tissue. This trauma causes localized bleeding and inflammation, resulting in an illness state.
AMS is proposing to amend § 205.238(c)(1) to clarify that milk from an animal treated with an allowed substance in § 205.603, which has a withholding time, may not be sold, labeled, or represented as organic during that holding time. However, milk from an organic animal or breeder stock may continue to provide milk for its own offspring during the withholding time. As an example, if an organic beef cow was nursing her organic offspring, was injured and then stitched by a veterinarian using lidocaine to minimize pain and stress, her calf could continue to nurse the dam even during the 7-day withholding period for lidocaine (§ 205.603(b)(4)), without loss of the calf's organic status. This means that the calf would still be eligible to be organic slaughter stock. This is consistent with the April 2010 NOSB recommendation that a calf nursing a dam treated topically with lidocaine, or other approved synthetic with a withdrawal time would not lose organic status.
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.238(c)(2) to clarify that other veterinary biologics, in addition to vaccines, are exempt from the prohibition on administering animal drugs in the absence of illness. The Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB) regulates vaccines and all other veterinary biologics. While vaccines are commonly used to describe many of these products, CVB has additional categories such as bacterins and toxoids. In addition, this change reflects the definition for biologicals in § 205.2. This supports § 205.238(a)(6), which identifies the use of vaccines and other veterinary biologics as a required practice to improve animal health. This section again asserts that pain relief may be administered in the absence of illness prior to physical alterations.
AMS is proposing to amend § 205.238(c)(3) to clarify that organic livestock producers are prohibited from administering synthetic or nonsynthetic hormones to promote growth or for production and reproductive purposes. Hormones listed in § 205.603 (
AMS is proposing to add a new provision in § 205.238(c)(8) to prohibit organic livestock producers from withholding treatment designed to minimize pain and suffering for injured, diseased, or sick animals. Injured, diseased, or sick animals may be treated with any allowed natural substance or synthetic medication which appears on the National List. However, if no appropriate medication is allowed for organic production, organic livestock producers would be required to administer treatments, even if the animals would lose their organic status. Furthermore, euthanasia could be an acceptable practice for minimizing pain and suffering.
AMS is proposing to add new § 205.238(c)(9) to require livestock producers to identify and record treatment of sick and injured animals in animal health records. These records can enable producers and certifying agents to quickly identify a particular disease or ailment in an animal. Early identification can lead to more effective prevention or treatment, which will enhance the overall health of the livestock on that farm.
AMS is proposing to add a new provision in § 205.238(c)(10) to explicitly prohibit the practice of forced molting or withdrawal of feed to induce molting in poultry. Forced molting, in which feed is severely restricted for a period of time in order to rejuvenate egg production, is prohibited under § 205.238(a)(2), which requires a nutritionally sufficient feed ration. However, forced molting was never explicitly prohibited under the USDA organic regulations. This change is consistent with the NOSB recommendation and a number of other third-party animal welfare certification programs.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.238(e) to address euthanasia. In certain cases, livestock may be suffering from an illness from which recovery is unlikely. For these situations, organic livestock producers must maintain written plans for euthanizing sick or injured livestock (§ 205.238(e)(1)). In new a § 205.238(e)(2), AMS is proposing to prohibit certain methods of euthanasia, including: Suffocation, blow(s) to the head by blunt instrument, and use of equipment that crushes the neck, (
AMS is further proposing, in § 205.238(e)(3), that after the euthanasia procedure, producers must carefully examine the body to ensure death. The NOSB recommended listing the allowable methods of euthanasia. However, given that new humane euthanasia methods may emerge, AMS
AMS is proposing to separate mammalian living conditions from avian living conditions, due to the different physiology and husbandry practices for birds and mammals. Under this proposal, AMS would revise the title of § 205.239 from “Livestock living conditions” to “Mammalian Livestock Living Conditions”. Avian living conditions would be addressed in new § 205.241. By creating clear requirements for mammalian livestock and avian livestock, animal health and wellbeing can be enhanced and consumers can be assured of the integrity of the USDA organic seal.
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.239(a)(1) to require that food is provided in a manner that maintains all animals in good body condition while removing the requirement that all ruminant livestock must be able to feed simultaneously. This would support animal welfare by ensuring that feed rations are available to all animals so that they maintain good body condition. One method of feeding livestock, including ruminants, is the use of a self-feeder or a creep-feeder. With creep-feeding and self-feeding, feed is accessible to all animals at all times though they may not feed at the exact same time. Self-feeding and creep-feeding provides organic ruminant producers with more flexibility and options to manage their farm and livestock in farm-specific methods.
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.239(a)(3) to clarify that livestock producers must keep animals clean during all stages of life with the use of appropriate, clean, dry bedding. Ensuring animals are clean is a disease prevention practice. Clean animals are less likely to develop lesions, transmit diseases, or become cold due to matted hair coats. The requirement for clean animals is relative to the species. Swine would be allowed to exhibit natural behavior and wallow in mud, and ruminants grazing on lush spring grass would be expected to have some
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.239(a)(4)(i) to specify that shelter must be designed to accommodate natural behaviors. Shelter must have sufficient space for the animals to lie down, stand up, and fully stretch their limbs without touching other animals or the sides of the shelter. Shelter must be designed to allow livestock to express their normal patterns of behavior.
AMS is proposing to add § 205.239(a)(4)(iv) to require a sheltered area for bedding and resting, which is sufficiently large and comfortable to keep the animals clean, dry, and free of lesions. This supports the proposed revision in § 205.239(a)(3), which would require producers to keep livestock clean. Not all shelters would need to be designed to hold bedding. As an example, a shelter designed to provide shade may be portable, and thus incompatible with holding bedding.
AMS is proposing to add new requirements in § 205.239(a)(7) concerning the individual housing of dairy young stock. Section 205.239(a)(7)(i) would allow for the individual housing of animals until weaning, as long as the animals had sufficient room to turn around, lie down, stretch out while lying down, get up, rest, and groom themselves. In addition, the individual housing of young stock would need to be designed so that animals could see, smell, and hear other animals. Furthermore, new § 205.239(a)(7)(ii) would require that dairy young stock are group-housed after weaning, and new § 205.239(a)(7)(iii) would require that animals over six months of age must have access to the outdoors at all times, including access to pasture during the grazing season, except as allowed under § 205.239 (b) and (c). Weaning is the time at which the young are taken off of milk or milk replacers.
AMS is proposing to add three new provisions in § 205.239(a)(8) to require the group housing of swine, with several listed exceptions. Section 205.239(a)(8)(i) would allow for sows to be individually housed at farrowing and during the suckling period. Section 205.239(a)(8)(ii) would allow for boars to be individually housed to reduce the likelihood of fights and injuries. Section 205.239(a)(8)(iii) would allow for swine to be individually housed after documented multiple instances of aggression or to allow an individual pig to recover from a documented illness.
AMS is proposing to add two new provisions in § 205.239(a)(9) and (10) concerning swine housing. Section 205.239(a)(9) would prohibit the use of flat decks or piglet cages. This provision would prohibit the stacking of piglets in flat decks in multiple layers. In addition, § 205.239(a)(10) would require that both indoor and outdoor areas for swine would have some space which would permit rooting. Rooting is a natural behavior which must be accommodated by organic swine producers and could be done in soil, deep packed straw, or other materials. Organic swine producers must also demonstrate how swine will be allowed to root during temporary confinement events.
AMS is proposing to add a new provision in § 205.239(a)(11) to further define barns or other structures with stalls. If indoor shelter is provided by a structure with stalls, then one stall must be provided for each animal at any given time. This allows for all animals to rest or lie down at the same time and provides a space for less dominant animals to escape from aggressive animals. In no case may a cage be considered a stall. One exception is provided for this provision. In group-housed swine, more animals than feeding stalls may be allowed, as long as all animals are able to consume sufficient quantities of feed to maintain good body condition. AMS is aware of some enhanced swine welfare systems, in which animals are robotically fed once they enter an individual feeding stall. Once finished, the animal may leave the stall and another animal enter the stall for its specific quantity of feed. AMS did not intend to prohibit such systems, which enhance the health and wellbeing of organic animals.
AMS is proposing to add a new requirement for outdoor access in § 205.239(a)(12). Organic livestock are required to have unencumbered access to the outdoors at all times, unless temporary confinement is justified under a specific reason described in the regulations (
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.239(b)(7) to clarify the exemption for temporary confinement for the purpose of breeding livestock. Livestock may only be confined for the time that a natural or artificial breeding procedure requires. A group of livestock may be confined while the various individuals are bred, then the group would be returned to living spaces that allow outdoor access. Livestock may not be confined indoors to observe estrus. Section 205.239(c)(1) describes the time when ruminants may be denied access to pasture, but not access to the outdoors, before and after a breeding attempt.
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.239(b)(8) to clarify the temporary confinement exception for youth livestock projects. Many youth livestock projects include the sale of market animals. Organic animals that were under continuous organic management may be sold as organic animals at youth fairs, even if the sales facility is not certified organic. This revised provision includes an exemption to the § 205.239(b)(6) requirement that a livestock sales facility be certified as an organic operation. As an example, if a youth exhibition and sale is held at a livestock sales facility which is not certified organic, the youth may sell the organic animal as an organic animal, provided all other requirements for the organic management of livestock are met. Otherwise, non-certified sales facilities, such as auction barns or fair grounds, may not sell or represent livestock as organic. AMS is proposing to provide this exception to encourage the next generation of organic farmers.
AMS is proposing to revise § 205.239(d) to reflect the similar proposed changes in § 205.239(a)(1). AMS would remove the phrase requiring that all ruminants be able to feed simultaneously. This would allow the use of self-feeding and creep-feeding so that the ruminants would have access to feed continuously over a 24-hour period.
In conjunction with the proposed amendments discussed above, AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241, entitled “Avian living conditions.” AMS chose to divide in two the existing living condition section, one for mammalian and one for avian, to provide for more clarity and specificity for each. The proposed avian living conditions section would include existing provisions from the current living conditions requirements as well as requirements recommended by the NOSB. AMS made a similar decision when the pasture requirements were added specifically for ruminants and not simply appended onto the livestock feed section. The requirements in this new section would apply to all poultry species, including but not limited to, chickens, turkeys, geese, quail, pheasant, and any other species which are raised for organic eggs, organic meat, or other organic agricultural product. AMS is proposing to add § 205.241(a) to require organic poultry operations to establish and maintain living conditions that accommodate the health and natural behaviors of the birds.
In addition, a new § 205.241(a) would require organic poultry producers to provide their birds with year-round access to the outdoors, soil, shade, shelter, exercise areas, fresh air, direct sunlight, clean water for drinking, materials for dust bathing, and adequate space to escape both predators and aggressive behaviors, in a manner that is suitable to the species, the stage of life, and the environment. These general principles will be further clarified in § 205.241(b) and (c). New § 205.241(d) describes exceptions to the requirement for outdoor access.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(b) to specify avian indoor space requirements. New § 205.241(b)(1) would require that indoor space allow all birds to move freely and engage in natural behaviors. This would prohibit the use of cages or environments which limit free movement within the indoor space. In addition, the indoor space must allow birds to engage in natural behaviors such as dust bathing or escape from aggressive birds.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(b)(2) to require ventilation suitable to prevent ammonia in excessive concentrations in the indoor space. Ammonia is a natural breakdown product of manure from livestock which can be harmful for birds to inhale. Producers must describe in the Organic System Plan methods and procedures which will maintain ammonia under 10 ppm. Ammonia levels would need to be monitored monthly to verify that ammonia concentrations remain under 10 ppm and never exceed 25 ppm. Producers would need to implement additional ammonia mitigation procedures when ammonia levels exceed 10 ppm to ensure that ammonia levels never exceed 25 ppm in the indoor space. Ammonia in high concentrations is harmful for birds to inhale, and, in many cases, is a sign that the litter is too damp, which also may cause lameness in the birds.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(b)(3) to clarify the lighting requirements for organic poultry. Organic producers may use artificial light to prolong the daylight up to 16 hours. No artificial light could be used to prolong the day if natural darkness was 8 hours or less. Artificial light must be lowered gradually to encourage hens to move to perches or otherwise settle for the night. Producers must design indoor spaces with access to natural light so that, on sunny days, inspectors can read and write when the lights are turned off. This requirement sets forth a performance standard that facilitates inspection, provides for enough lighting to accommodate natural avian behavior, and allows flexibility to operations in determining how to design their facilities for compliance.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(b)(4) to describe the types of flooring that may be used in all types of indoor poultry houses provided for avian species. Mesh flooring would be allowed under drinking areas to provide drainage in new § 205.241(b)(4)(i). AMS is proposing to add new § 205.241(b)(4)(ii) to allow for slatted floors as long as 30 percent of the flooring is solid with sufficient litter so that birds may dust bathe freely without crowding. Pasture housing is being exempted from this requirement, as birds on pasture will have large areas of outdoor space for dust bathing. AMS is further proposing in new § 205.241(b)(4)(iii) that the litter must be provided in all types of indoor housing and maintained in a dry manner. Wet litter can lead to a variety of problems for birds, including lameness and excess ammonia concentration. Litter may be topped off when needed to maintain sufficient dryness.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(b)(5) to describe the required openings in shelters so that the birds can easily access both the indoor and outdoor areas. Doors or openings must be distributed around the building. In addition, the openings must be large enough to allow the passage of more than one bird at a time. Wide doors spread around the building provide meaningful outdoor access to the birds.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(b)(6) to require a flat roost area which birds may grip with their feet with a minimum of 6 inches of perch space per bird. The perch space may include the alighting rail in front of nest boxes. In single story buildings, all birds must be able to perch at the same time. In multi-tiered facilities, 55 percent of the birds must be able to perch at the same time, and the 6-inch per hen requirement still applies.
AMS is proposing to add new § 205.241(b)(7), (b)(7)(i), (b)(7)(ii), (b)(7)(iii), (b)(7)(iv), (b)(8), and (b)(9) to list the required minimum avian indoor space requirements. Indoor space requirements apply with various minimums to all methods of production, including ones in which indoor space is provided with permanent buildings or mobile pasture units. Indoor space is further defined in § 205.2, including pasture housing, aviary housing, floor little housing and slatted/mesh floor housing. In 2011, the NOSB recommended a minimum of 2.0 square feet per hen based on the outside perimeter of the indoor housing structure and in which all types of indoor housing would have the same space requirement. In preparation for this proposed rule, AMS examined a number of other animal welfare certification programs developed by scientific committees.
AMS recognizes that a wide variety of species and breeds within species may be used to produce eggs for human consumption. Using a minimum space per animal would be problematic if a producer of quail eggs or emu eggs were to seek organic certification. The square feet of space per hen metric would not be reasonable for these and other species. Therefore, AMS is proposing to convert the minimum square feet of space per hen to the construction of maximum pounds of laying hen per square foot of space provided, similar to format of the NOSB-recommended minimum space for pullets and meat-type birds. To make this conversion, AMS determined that a majority of organic eggs are brown eggs. AMS determined that about 60 percent of all brown eggs are produced by the ISA Brown strain of chicken. Based on this, AMS made the assumption a majority of the organic brown eggs were produced by the ISA Brown strain of chicken. An average mature weight for an ISA Brown hen is 4.5 pounds. AMS made the following calculation to convert minimum square feet to maximum pounds per square foot:
Table 1 lists the square feet per laying hen for various housing types and the resulting calculation of pounds of hen per square foot allowed.
AMS is requesting comments regarding the above assumptions. Specifically, AMS requests comments on:
• Are most organic eggs brown?
• Are most organic laying hens from the ISA Brown strain?
• Is the mature weight of an ISA Brown hen 4.5 pounds under organic condition?
• What other avian species are used for organic egg production?
The indoor space requirement based upon maximum pounds of laying hen per square foot of space will allow producers to vary the number of birds in a given house depending upon the size of the bird or breed of the bird. For example, Rhode Island Red birds are heavier than white leghorns or ISA Browns, and thus could not be stocked as densely (number of birds per unit area) in the same area.
AMS is proposing to use the NOSB recommendation of a maximum 3 pounds of pullet per square foot of indoor space in new § 205.241(b)(8) and a maximum of 5 pounds of meat-type species (
AMS is proposing to add new § 205.241(b)(10) and (11) to specify indoor requirements to meet certain natural behaviors. Indoor space, whether stationary or mobile, must have scratch areas which allow all birds access. In addition, the indoor housing must be sufficiently spacious to allow all birds to move freely, stand normally, stretch their wings and engage in natural behaviors.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(c) to specify the outdoor space requirements for avian species. Section 205.241(c)(1) would require that the outdoor space be designed to promote and encourage outdoor access for all birds. Producers would be required to train birds to go outdoors from an early age. Outdoor space requirements are not meaningful unless the birds go outside. Therefore, producers must actively and repeatedly train their birds to access the
AMS is proposing in § 205.241(c)(1), in line with the NOSB recommendation, that outdoor areas must have suitable enrichment to entice the birds to go outside. One example of suitable enrichment would be a minimum 50 percent vegetative cover (living vegetation or harvested vegetation scattered in the area). Minimum vegetative cover would provide opportunities for poultry to engage in natural foraging behaviors. In addition, the vegetative cover would help to reduce soil erosion and nutrient run off. Other means of providing enrichment include, but are not limited to: Access to water for water birds; bales of straw or hay; raised platforms; cover for protection from aerial predators; shaded areas and trees; and loose substrate for dust bathing.
AMS is proposing to add new § 205.241(c)(3) through (5) to specify minimum outdoor space requirements. Organic layer producers must not exceed 2.25 pounds of hen per square foot of outdoor space provided. Organic pullet producers must not exceed 3 pounds of pullet per square foot of outdoor space provided. Organic broiler, turkey and other meat-type producers must not exceed 5 pounds of bird per square foot of outdoors space provided. AMS chose to convert the NOSB recommended space for layers from a minimum space per hen to a maximum weight of bird per square foot to provide greater flexibility in the regulations for organic producers that produce organic eggs from quail, emu, or other species using a similar calculation as shown in the indoor space requirement section earlier. These space requirements are the minimum allowed.
AMS is proposing to add new § 205.241(c)(6) and (7) to specify how outdoor space must be calculated. Outdoor space may not include any area which has a solid roof that is attached to the structure which provides indoor space. Areas under eaves and overhangs from the stationary barn or mobile unit may not be included as part of the outdoor space. However, the outdoor space must provide shade for the birds. For example, a structure with a solid roof that is not attached to a structure which provides indoor space may be included as part of the outdoor space. Shade may also be provided by trees or other objects in the environment.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(c)(8) to require that the outdoor space have a minimum of 50 percent soil. The soil would allow for the birds to engage in natural foraging and dust bathing behaviors. In addition, the soil, if covered in vegetation, would provide nutrition and enrichment to help draw the birds outdoors.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d) to describe the conditions under which organic avian livestock producers may temporarily confine birds indoors. Each period of confinement must be separately recorded with the reasons for the confinement, the duration of the confinement, and the birds or flocks which were confined. AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(1) to provide an allowance for temporary confinement in response to inclement weather. Birds may be confined due to storms, blizzards, and other hazardous conditions. In addition, this provision allows for birds to be confined indoors when the temperature does not exceed 40 °F. It also allows birds to be denied access or brought inside when the daytime temperature exceeds 90 °F. Producers must provide documentation for confinement due to inclement weather, such as an actual thermometer reading on the farm or a local weather forecast showing the daytime high would either not exceed 40 °F or that the temperature exceeded 90 °F. Producers would have to provide outdoor access during those parts of the day when temperatures were between 40-90 °F.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(2) to provide an allowance for temporary confinement indoors due to stage of life. Broilers and other meat-type birds may be confined up through 4 weeks of age. After the 4th week of life, broilers and other meat-type birds must be provided with outdoor access. Pullets may be temporarily confined indoors through 16 weeks of age. After the 16th week of life, pullets must be provided with outdoor access. The NOSB recommended that 16 weeks of age be used before required outdoor access, so that pullets could complete their vaccination program before exposure to pathogens outdoors.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(3) to provide an allowance for temporary indoor confinement under conditions in which the health, safety, or well-being of the birds could be jeopardized. Permanently restricting birds to the indoors is not allowed. In addition, confinement due to potential outbreaks is not allowed. A documented case of the disease in the region or migratory pathway must be present before a temporary confinement may begin.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(4) to provide an allowance for indoor confinement to prevent risk to soil or water quality. This allowance is for temporary confinement after major rain events in which the soil may be excessively soft so that the birds could create a soil or water run off risk.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(5) to provide an allowance for indoor confinement for preventive health care procedures or for the treatment of illness or injury. Neither life stages nor egg laying are considered an illness for confinement purposes. This provision would allow for producers to briefly confine a flock to administer vaccinations or to confine an individual animal that required medical treatment. This provision would also allow for an injured or sick animal to be confined indoors until the animal regained health.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(6) to provide an allowance for indoor confinement for sorting, shipping, and poultry sales. However, the birds must be managed organically during the entire time of confinement. Confinement must be no longer than necessary to sort the birds or to catch the birds, place them in shipping containers, and conduct the sale.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(7) to provide an allowance for indoor confinement to train pullets to use the nest box. However, this training period may only be a maximum of 2 weeks and must not be any longer than necessary to teach the birds the proper behavior.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(d)(8) to provide an allowance for indoor confinement for youth exhibitions, such as with 4-H or the National FFA Organization. This new provision also includes an exemption to the § 205.239(b)(6) requirement that a livestock sales facility being certified as an organic operation. As an example, if a youth exhibition and sale is held at a livestock sales facility which is not certified organic, a youth may sell birds there as organic, provided all other requirements for the organic management are met. Otherwise, non-certified sales facilities, such as auction barns, may not sell or represent livestock as organic. AMS is adding this exemption to encourage the next generation of organic producers.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.241(e) to require organic poultry producers to manage manure in a manner that does not contribute to contamination of crops, soil, or water quality by plant nutrients, heavy metals, or pathogenic organisms. Organic poultry producers must manage the
Under the OFPA at 7 U.S.C. 6509(d)(2), “Health Care,” the NOSB may make recommendations “for the care of livestock to ensure that such livestock is organically produced.” As stated above, in December 2011, the NOSB passed a recommendation to add standards for transportation of livestock to slaughter facilities and the slaughter process. AMS is proposing regulations, in a new § 205.242 for Transportation and Slaughter, in response to this recommendation. This proposed section would require producers and handlers of livestock to maintain organic integrity and provide for animal welfare during transportation. Further, the proposed section would clarify the requirements for slaughter of livestock by certified operations. These requirements would include performance standards regarding the transportation of livestock, including a requirement that operations comply with the Twenty-Eight Hour Law and its implementing regulations as a condition of organic certification. These requirements also would establish as a condition of organic certification compliance with the Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) and Poultry Products Inspection Act requirements concerning slaughter, as well as compliance with USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) regulatory requirements regarding the slaughter of exotic animals under voluntary inspection.
AMS is proposing to publish the transportation requirements in new § 205.242(a). Section 205.242(a)(1) would require that all organic livestock be transported in a trailer/truck or in pens within the trailer/truck that are clearly identified for organic use, and that the animals remain within those pens for the duration of the trip.
AMS is proposing a new § 205.242(a)(2) to set minimum fitness requirements for livestock to be transported. Section 205.242(a)(2)(i) would require that calves have a dry navel cord, and be able to stand and walk without assistance, if they are to be transported. This provision would apply only to transport to auction facilities or slaughter facilities. Beef cattle and dairy cattle producers may transport calves on the farm before the navel is dried and the calves can walk. Section 205.242(a)(2)(ii) would prohibit transport of sick, injured, weak, disabled, blind, and lame animals to auction or slaughter facilities. These animals may either be given medical treatments and cared for until they improve or euthanized.
AMS is proposing new § 205.242(a)(3) and (4) to set minimum standards for the trailer, truck, or shipping container used for transporting organic livestock. The mode of transportation would be required to provide seasonal-appropriate ventilation to protect against cold or heat stress. This provision would require that air flow be adjusted depending upon the season and temperature. In addition, bedding would be required to be provided on trailer floors as needed to keep livestock clean, dry and comfortable. If roughage is used as bedding, the bedding would need to be organically produced and handled. Use of non-organic bedding would cause loss of organic status for all animals transported. Poultry crates would be exempted from the bedding requirement.
Section 205.242(a)(5) would require that all livestock must be provided with organic feed and clean water if transport time exceeds 12 hours. The 12 hour time period includes all times in which the animals are on the trailer/truck/shipping container but not moving. In
AMS is proposing new § 205.242(a)(5)(i) and (ii) to clarify the authority of the NOP, certifying agents and State organic programs to initiate compliance action if certified operations are found to have violated the Twenty-Eight Hour Law (49 U.S.C. 80502) and its implementing regulations at 9 CFR 89.1 through 89.5. In general, this law provides that animals may not be confined for more than 28 consecutive hours without unloading for feeding, watering and rest. The USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) enforces this law and has approved in-transit feed, water and rest stations. Violators of the Twenty-Eight Hour Law are subject to civil penalties. In the event that a certified operation receives a non-compliance or civil penalty under the Twenty-Eight Hour Law, the certified operation must present those records to the certifier during the annual organic inspection.
AMS is proposing a new § 205.242(a)(6) to require operations which transport livestock to sales or slaughter to have in place emergency plans that adequately address problems reasonably possible during transport. Such emergency plans could include how to provide feed and water if transport time exceeded 12 hours, if livestock escaped during transport, or how to euthanize an animal hurt during transport. Shipping and/or receiving operations would need to include these plans in their OSPs.
AMS is proposing a new § 205.242(b), regarding mammalian slaughter, to clarify the authority of the NOP, certifying agents and State organic programs to initiate compliance action if certified operations are found to have violated FSIS regulations governing the humane handling of mammalian livestock in connection with slaughter (note that AMS is separating mammalian from avian slaughter requirements due to the differences in how mammalian and avian livestock are handled and slaughtered). This new section, entitled “Mammalian Slaughter,” would govern the mammals defined as “livestock” or “exotic animals” under the FSIS regulations. Under the FSIS regulations, “livestock” are cattle, sheep, swine, goat, horse, mule, or other equine. “Exotic animals” are antelope, bison, buffalo, cattalo, deer, elk, reindeer and water buffalo. These regulations govern the handling and slaughter of the majority of mammalian animals used for food in the United States and would apply to all certified organic operations that slaughter these animals.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.242(b)(1) to require certified organic slaughter facilities to be in full compliance with the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (HMSA) of 1978 (7 U.S.C. 1901
All establishments that slaughter livestock, which include any certified organic operations that slaughter livestock, must meet the humane handling and slaughter requirements the entire time they hold livestock in connection with slaughter. FSIS provides for continuous inspection in livestock slaughter establishments, and inspection program personnel verify compliance with the humane handling regulations during each shift that animals are slaughtered, or when animals are on site, even during a processing only shift. The regulations at 9 CFR part 313 govern the maintenance of pens, driveways and ramps; the handling of livestock, focusing on their movement from pens to slaughter; and the use of different stunning and slaughter methods. Notably, FSIS inspection program personnel verify compliance with the regulations at 9 CFR part 313 through the monitoring of many of the same parameters proposed by the NOSB in 2011,
Further, FSIS encourages livestock slaughter establishments to use a systematic approach to humane handling and slaughter to best ensure that they meet the requirements of the HMSA, FMIA, and implementing regulations.
AMS is proposing to add a new § 205.242(b)(2) for those certified organic facilities which slaughter exotic animals and voluntarily request FSIS inspection. FSIS also provides, upon request, voluntary inspection of certain exotic animal species on a fee-for-service basis, under the authority of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946. FSIS regulates the humane handling of the slaughter of exotic animals under the regulations at 9 CFR part 352.10, which require that exotic animals be slaughtered and handled in connection with slaughter in accordance with the requirements for livestock at 9 CFR part 313. Violation of these regulations can result in a denial of service by FSIS.
AMS is proposing to add § 205.242(b)(3) to require that all certified organic slaughter facilities provide any FSIS noncompliance records or corrective action records relating to humane handling and slaughter during the annual organic inspection. Not all violations of FSIS regulations result in a suspension of FSIS inspection services. In some cases, FSIS will issue a noncompliance record and the slaughter facility must perform corrective actions to bring the slaughter facility back into compliance. These records must be presented during the annual organic inspection to verify that the slaughter facility is in full
AMS is proposing a new § 205.242(c), regarding avian slaughter facilities. Section 202.242(c)(1) would clarify the authority of the NOP, certifying agents and State organic programs to initiate compliance action if certified operations are found to have violated the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) requirements regarding poultry slaughter, as well as the FSIS regulations regarding the slaughter of poultry and the use of good commercial practices in the slaughter of poultry. Under the PPIA and the FSIS regulations, poultry are defined as chickens, turkeys, ducks, geese, guineas, ratites, and squabs. These species constitute the majority of avian species slaughtered for human food in the United States. However, the organic standards for avian slaughter will apply to all species biologically considered avian or birds. The NOSB did not directly address avian slaughter requirements. However, AMS is proposing avian slaughter requirements for consistency with the proposed mammalian slaughter requirements and to better ensure the welfare of all animals slaughtered by certified operations.
While the HMSA does not apply to poultry, under the PPIA at 21 U.S.C. 453(g)(5), a poultry product is considered adulterated if it is in whole, or in part, the product of any poultry which has died otherwise than by slaughter. FSIS regulations, in turn, require that poultry be slaughtered in accordance with good commercial practices, in a manner that will result in thorough bleeding of the poultry carcass and will ensure that breathing has stopped before scalding (9 CFR 381.65 (b)).
In a 2005
Also in this Notice, FSIS suggested that poultry slaughter establishments consider a systematic approach to handling poultry in connection with slaughter. FSIS defined a systematic approach as one in which establishments focus on treating poultry in such a manner as to minimize excitement, discomfort, and accidental injury the entire time that live poultry is held in connection with slaughter. Although the adoption of such an approach is voluntary, it would likely better ensure that poultry carcasses are unadulterated.
FSIS inspection program personnel verify that poultry slaughter is conducted in accordance with good commercial practices in the pre-scald area of slaughter establishments, where they observe whether establishment employees are mistreating birds or handling them in a way that will cause death or injury or prevent thorough bleeding or result in excessive bruising. Examples of noncompliant mistreatment could include breaking the legs of birds to hold the birds in the shackle, birds suffering or dying from heat exhaustion and breathing birds entering the scalder.
AMS is proposing a new § 205.242(c)(2) to require that all certified organic slaughter facilities provide, during the annual organic inspection, any FSIS noncompliance records and corrective action records related to the use of good manufacturing practices in the handling and slaughter of poultry. Not all violations of FSIS regulations result in a suspension of inspection services. In some cases, FSIS will issue a noncompliance record and the slaughter facility must perform corrective actions to bring the slaughter facility back into compliance. These records must be presented during the annual organic inspection to verify that the slaughter facility is in full compliance and has made all corrective actions. In addition, AMS recognizes that in the U.S. some slaughter facilities are regulated by the State for intra-state poultry sales. In foreign countries, foreign governments may be the appropriate regulatory authority for poultry slaughter inspections. In all cases, the relevant noncompliance records and corrective action records must be presented during the annual organic inspection.
Unlike the requirements for livestock slaughter inspection, exemptions from poultry slaughter inspection exist for some poultry which is going to be sold to the public. AMS is proposing handling and slaughter standards for such poultry that is either exempt from or not covered by the inspection requirement of the PPIA. Section 205.242(c)(3) would prohibit hanging, carrying, or shackling any lame birds by their legs. Birds with broken legs or injured feet may suffer needlessly if carried or hung by their legs. Such birds must either be euthanized or made insensible before being shackled.
AMS is proposing new § 205.242(c)(3)(i) through (iii) to require that poultry slaughter operations which are either exempt or not covered by the requirements of the PPIA meet animal welfare standards that non-exempt slaughter operations must meet. AMS is proposing to require that no lame birds be hung on shackles by their feet. AMS is proposing to require that all birds that were hung or shackled on a chain or automated slaughter system be stunned prior to exsanguination. This requirement would not apply to small scale producers who do not shackle the birds or use an automated system and, instead, place the birds in killing cones before exsanguinating the birds without stunning. AMS is proposing a new § 205.242(c)(3)(iii) to require that all birds be irreversibly insensible prior to being placed in the scalding tank.
As stated above, by proposing that compliance with the FSIS slaughter requirements for livestock and poultry be a condition of organic certification, AMS would be establishing requirements that govern the majority of mammalian and avian species slaughtered by organic operations for human food in the United States. However, the FMIA and PPIA provide for alternatives to Federal inspection of slaughter not addressed by this proposal. Further, the import of meat and poultry products produced by slaughter establishments in other countries raises issues not addressed in
Meat and poultry establishments have the option to apply for Federal or State inspection if they are located in states that operate under a cooperative agreement with FSIS. State programs must enforce requirements “at least equal to” those imposed under the FMIA, PPIA and HMSA. However, product produced under state inspection can only be sold or distributed in intra-state commerce, unless a State opts into an additional cooperative program, the Cooperative Interstate Shipment Program. How should AMS regulate livestock slaughter conducted at certified operations inspected by State inspection programs?
The PPIA exempts from continuous inspection a number of types of establishments that slaughter poultry based on various factors, including volume of slaughter and the nature of operations and sales. In some cases, these establishments would be inspected by State or local government agencies. How should AMS regulate poultry slaughter at certified operations exempt from FSIS inspection?
Under certain conditions, meat and poultry products may be imported into the United States from operations in countries whose food regulatory systems are determined by FSIS to be equivalent with its regulatory system. Equivalence would include meeting the goals of the humane slaughter requirements for livestock and the good commercial practice requirements for poultry slaughter. Verification of compliance with equivalent slaughter requirements would be performed by regulatory authorities in the exporting countries. How should AMS regulate livestock slaughter by certified operations in foreign countries?
AMS describes below where we are significantly changing or omitting provisions from the NOSB recommendations. The full NOSB recommendations which serve as the basis for this action are available on the AMS Web site at
AMS is proposing two distinct implementation timeframes for the avian outdoor space requirements. First, three years after the publication of the final rule any non-certified poultry house or facility would need to comply in order to obtain certification. This would include facilities that are not certified at the three-year mark, but subsequently become part of a certified operation. The three-year period would allow producers to transition the outdoor space to organic production.
Second, all poultry houses and facilities certified prior to the three-year mark would need to comply within five years of the publication of the final rule. AMS is choosing a five- year compliance period to reduce the economic burden on existing organic producers, without unduly delaying the implementation of practices for improved animal welfare. As explained in the Regulatory Impact Analysis, the five-year period reflects the average time remaining to fully depreciate an average barn for laying hens. Since AMS expects that the costs associated with this rule will fall primarily on organic egg producers, the five-year period will allow the average producer to write off the capital costs on their tax returns.
Documents related to this proposed rule include the Organic Foods Production Act of 1990, as amended, (7 U.S.C. 6501-6522) and its implementing regulations (7 CFR part 205). The NOSB deliberated and made the recommendations described in this proposal at public meetings announced in the following
AMS published a series of past proposed rules that addressed, in part, the organic livestock requirements at: 62 FR 65850 (December 16, 1997); 65 FR 13512 (March 13, 2000); and 71 FR 24820 (April 27, 2006). Past final rules relevant to this topic were published at: 65 FR 80548 (December 21, 2000); and 71 FR 32803 (June 7, 2006).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives, and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rulemaking has been designated as a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, and, therefore, has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
AMS is proposing this rulemaking to maintain consumer confidence in the high standards represented by the USDA organic seal. Specifically, this action is necessary to augment the USDA organic livestock production regulations with robust and clear provisions to fulfill a purpose of the OFPA, to assure consumers that organically-produced products meet a consistent and uniform standard (7 U.S.C. 6501). The added specificity would further the process, initiated with the enactment of OFPA, to develop detailed standards for organic livestock products.
AMS issued an administrative appeal decision in 2002 that allowed the certification of one operation that used porches as outdoor access to protect water quality. This Decision served to address a fact-specific enforcement issue. Some certifying agents used this appeal decision to grant certification to poultry operations using porches to provide outdoor access. Thereafter, certification and enforcement actions have remained inconsistent and contributed to wide variability in living conditions for organic poultry, as well as consumer confusion about the significance of the organic label with regard to outdoor access. In accordance with OFPA, this proposed action will clarify USDA statutory and regulatory mandates and establish consistent, transparent, and enforceable requirements. Further, it will align regulatory language and intent to enable producers and consumers to readily discern the required practices for organic poultry production and to differentiate the products in the marketplace.
This proposed rule would add requirements for the production, transport and slaughter of organic livestock. Most of these align with current practices of organic operations (
At the NOSB meeting in November 2010, the NOSB explained how the recommended handling, transport and slaughter provisions aligned with the American Meat Institute's animal handling guidelines. These guidelines cover handling, transportation and slaughter and are standard industry practices. The transcripts from that meeting are available at:
This proposed action includes provisions to facilitate consistent practices regarding stocking densities and outdoor space at organic poultry operations. The outdoor space issues are divisive and controversial among producers and other stakeholders, and, therefore, the scope of this analysis focuses on impacts to the organic poultry sector. The current practices of organic poultry operations to provide outdoor access and minimum indoor and outdoor space per bird vary widely. This disparity causes consumer confusion about the meaning of the USDA organic label, threatens to erode consumer confidence in the organic label more broadly, and perpetuates unfair competition among producers. This rule would enable AMS and certifying agents to efficiently administer the NOP. In turn, the consistency and transparency in certification requirements will facilitate consumer purchasing decisions.
Consumer surveys indicate the need for more precise animal welfare standards within the USDA organic regulations. A 2014 Consumer Reports Organic Food Labels Survey noted that half of consumers believe that organic chicken living space meets minimum size requirements; 68 percent believe there should be minimum size requirements. Further, 46 percent believe organic chickens went outdoors; 66 percent believe the chickens should have gone outdoors.
The majority of organic poultry producers also participate in private, third-party verified animal welfare certification programs.
The broad latitude afforded by the existing USDA organic regulations leads to wide variance in production practices within the organic egg sector (
AMS believes that many livestock and poultry producers would prefer to use the organic label to convey information about their practices to consumers. While sales of organic products, including eggs and poultry, continue to increase annually, surveys designed to measure consumer trust in the organic label reveal consumer confusion about the meaning of the label. A report on organic food and beverage shoppers states that one-third of the respondents indicated that the term “organic” has no real value or definition.
In 2009 and 2011, the NOSB issued recommendations, as authorized by OFPA, for additional requirements to support animal welfare. In the process of developing these recommendations, the NOSB consulted with and received numerous public comments from authorities in the fields of animal welfare, consumers, livestock producers and certifying agents. AMS developed this proposed rule in response to the NOSB recommendations and stakeholder feedback.
This action also responds to the 2010 USDA Office of Inspector General (OIG) audit findings of inconsistent applications of the USDA organic regulations for outdoor access for livestock. OIG noted the absence of regulatory provisions covering the length (
This baseline focuses on the current production of organic eggs and the market for this commodity. AMS used multiple data sources, listed below, to describe the baseline and inform our assumptions for the cost analysis:
• 2011-2014 Organic Industry Surveys, published by the Organic Trade Association (OTA). The Nutrition Business Journal conducts this annual survey on behalf of OTA to summarize market information and trends within the organic industry across food and non-food sectors.
• 2014 Organic Survey, National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS).
• 2011 Organic Production Survey, National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS).
• The National Animal Health Monitoring and Surveillance (NAHMS) 2013 Layers study.
• AMS also used summary information from the USDA Livestock, Poultry and Grain Market News Service (Market News) egg and broiler market news reports from 2010 to 2014.
• Organic Egg Farmers of America (OEFA), Organic Poultry Industry Animal Welfare Survey, 2014. OEFA independently conducted and submitted the results of a survey of organic egg and broiler producers. There were 157 survey responses, representing 8.33 million organic layers (77 percent of organic production) and 12 million organic broilers (62 percent of production). The survey was distributed to certified organic poultry producers in July 2014.
• Egg Industry Center (EIC) Survey of U.S. Organic Egg Production. EIC independently conducted and submitted this survey which was distributed to organic egg producers with at least 30,000 hens. Respondents totaled 23, representing 5.07 million hens.
• Economic Impact Analysis of Proposed Regulations for Living Conditions for Organic Poultry, Phase 3 Report by T. Vukina, K. Anderson, M.K. Muth and M. Ball. This report, prepared for the NOP, estimated the costs for implementing the NOSB recommendation on avian living conditions. The analysis in this proposed rule essentially updates and expands the model used by Vukina et al., to estimate current costs and different producer response scenarios.
According to the 2015 Organic Trade Association (OTA) Industry Survey, U.S. sales of organic food, fiber, and agricultural products totaled over $39.1 billion in 2014, up 11 percent from 2013.
In 2014, poultry sales ($453 million) grew nearly 13 percent and accounted for the greatest portion (60 percent) of the organic meat, poultry and fish market sector. As shown in Table 2, annual sales of organic poultry have climbed steadily since 2010, while retail prices for organic boneless, skinless breasts have fallen.
Table 3 shows the geographical distribution of organic egg and broiler production in the U.S., based on the USDA 2014 Organic Survey. There are an estimated 722 organic egg producers and 245 organic broiler operations. Five states are responsible for over one-third of organic egg production. Pennsylvania and California operations comprise only 7.5 percent of the total number of organic poultry producers, but produce 35 percent and 32 percent, respectively, of organic eggs. California also has 6.5 percent of U.S. organic broiler operations, which produce about 54 percent of organic broilers. Conversely, the production from states which report higher numbers of broiler operations, such as Wisconsin and Maine, is less than 1 percent of production. Several states do not report total production volume for broilers to protect confidentiality. Given these omissions, the data does not provide details of nearly 50 percent of state level production of organic broilers.
AMS considered alternatives to the proposed action. Specifically, AMS reviewed options for indoor stocking density and outdoor space requirements for layers and implementation timeframes. For each alternative, AMS examined how the provision aligned with the animal welfare objectives supported by the organic community and the potential costs and benefits to organic producers. The options are presented and discussed below.
The NOSB recommended indoor and outdoor space metrics for poultry as a component of broad measures to enhance animal welfare practices on organic livestock operations. Citing consumer demand for humane treatment of livestock, the proliferation of animal welfare certification labels, organic standards of major trading partners (
AMS is not pursuing the 2.0 ft
AMS is proposing to set the indoor stocking density based on housing systems as follows: 4.5 lbs/ft
AMS is proposing that layers must have a maximum of 2.25 pounds/ft
The NOSB also stipulated that outdoor access areas be soil-based and have at least 50 percent vegetation cover. While AMS believes that vegetation is an important feature to encourage birds to use outdoor areas, we are not proposing a minimum vegetation requirement, as that may be difficult to maintain in certain locations with drier climates. However, AMS is proposing to require enrichment of the outdoor space which could be met with 50 percent vegetative cover. This proposed rule would require that the outdoor area have at least 50 percent soil. Chickens use soil for dust bathing, and this would support the NOSB's objective to encourage birds to occupy outdoor areas. This soil threshold would also uphold consumer expectations for outdoor access, while providing some flexibility for operations which currently have concrete or other surfaces in the outdoor area. AMS did not estimate the potential cost to implement this proposed requirement due to wide variability in the site-specific conditions. AMS does make assumptions about whether producers have the adequate land base to accommodate the outdoor stocking density and we have estimated the costs for obtaining needed land as discussed below. However, even producers who have the adequate land base may need to modify that area (e.g, install fencing) to provide access to the soil.
AMS considered proposing minimum space requirements of 2.25 pounds/ft
The monetary costs of a 10 percent or 50 percent alternative would be substantially lower than the estimated costs of the proposed rule. As discussed below, the increased outdoor access requirements for all birds drives the costs of the proposed rule by reducing production volume and increasing operating expenses (land and feed). Under these alternatives, most organic producers would not need to acquire additional land and birds would have reduced exposure to predators and parasites, However, selecting the lower cost alternative would undermine the preferences of many organic egg producers and consumers; the success of the organic label marketing program depends upon practices which reflect the preferences of the participants and consumers who chose organic eggs in the marketplace. Adequate outdoor access is a core concern among organic consumers; outdoor areas that accommodate relatively few birds would not align with consumer expectations and would perpetuate an uneven playing field among producers. Further, the higher density may be detrimental to soil quality and parasite loads.
Requiring that the outdoor area accommodate half of the flock would not adequately provide for each bird to have outdoor access with space to express natural behaviors. This could work as a disincentive for birds to go outside and does not support the intent of the USDA organic regulations that livestock use outdoor areas. Further, consumers expect all organic livestock to have access to and use outdoor space, and this approach could have unknown, but likely negative, impacts on consumer confidence in the organic egg sector. Given the likelihood that more than half of a flock would use the outdoor area simultaneously and consistently, we believe that resulting crowding in the outdoor area from a higher stocking density would ultimately deter birds from occupying the outdoor space. Together, the proposed stocking density requirements and the requirements for birds to be outdoors at an early age, including that these areas provide shade and soil access, should encourage more than half of the flock to regularly occupy this space.
In 2011, the NOSB, with the support of numerous producer and consumer stakeholders, unanimously recommended that enclosed, covered porches should not be considered outdoor access. Consistent with that recommendation, this proposed rule specifically defines “outdoors” to exclude porches. The stipulation that porches are not outdoor space is consistent with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) position. In July 2013, FDA published draft guidance on outdoor access under the FDA 2009 Prevention of Salmonella Enteritidis in Shell Eggs regulations.
Proponents of porches state that they are essential for biosecurity to protect poultry from predation and disease that could result from contact with wild animals or feces. However, producers, consumers and other stakeholders who oppose porches state that porches provide a competitive advantage by reduced mortality to predator loss and decreased feed conversion rates (less feed to produce a dozen eggs). Opponents have challenged the contention that porches are essential to biosecurity, citing other disease control methods, such as the removal of vegetation directly outside the poultry
AMS agrees with FDA that porches are not outdoor space. They do not provide contact with soil nor align with consumer expectations and NOSB recommendations for outdoor access. Codifying the allowance of porches as outdoor space in organic production would not address the wide disparity in outdoor access provisions within this sector. This disparity leads to consumer confusion about husbandry practices and places some producers at a competitive disadvantage, and thus would not meet the OFPA's intent to assure consumers that organically produced products meet a consistent and uniform standard. AMS is concerned that allowing porches as the sole area for outdoor access could erode consumer demand for organic eggs and lead to an exodus of consumers and producers for other labeling programs. Furthermore, allowing porches to be considered as part of an outdoor area would not substantially mitigate the estimated costs associated with the proposed rule. In comparison to the land area needed for outdoor access, porches cover a small portion, so a producer would still need to provide access to land that extends beyond the porch area.
AMS also considered allowing awnings or overhangs which extend from poultry houses to count as outdoor areas. However, the distinction between an awning versus a porch could be confusing and present enforcement challenges. Given the controversy with the use of porches, AMS intends that the regulations clearly prohibit porches or a similar structure from being used as outdoor space.
While we expect that organic egg producers will bear a greater cost burden for this proposed rule, this implementation period should also align with upgrades or new construction for broiler houses. We note that 15 percent of broiler houses generally are 5 years old or less and have a depreciation rate of 15 years.
AMS also considered a three 3-year implementation period. This timeframe would align with the 3-year period that is required to transition land to organic production if there have been applications of prohibited substances (§ 205.202(b)).
Conversely, a 10-year implementation period could erode consumer demand for organic eggs if the organic label requirements do not keep pace with growing consumer preferences for more stringent outdoor living conditions. Prolonging the disparity in organic egg production practices and the resulting consumer confusion would be detrimental to the numerous organic egg producers who could readily comply with this proposed rule. They would continue to operate at a competitive disadvantage to operations which provide less outdoor access and have greater feed efficiencies and lower mortality rates.
A 5-year implementation period would make these requirements more feasible for a greater portion of organic egg producers while keeping the organic label competitive in regards to animal welfare claims. We believe the 5-year period would coincide with the timing for retrofitting poultry houses in the majority of organic operations, regardless of this rule.
AMS is requesting comment on the above assumption. Specifically, AMS requests comments on:
• The age of poultry houses used for organic egg production.
Connections between costs and benefits, on the one hand, and potential producer and consumer responses, on the other, are set out in the table below.
This proposed rule would bring specificity and clarity to the regulations relating to animal welfare practices for organic livestock and poultry and address the persistent requests to AMS for further standards on living conditions for organic livestock and poultry. Greater clarity and specificity will foster the uniform application of the practice standards in organic production, animal transport, and slaughter. This, in turn, will maintain consumer confidence driving organic purchases. Organic products cannot be distinguished from non-organic products based on appearance; consumers rely on process verification methods, such as certification to a uniform standard, to ensure that organic claims are true. For this reason, organic products have been described as “credence goods” in the economics literature.
Consumers are increasingly interested in the treatment of animals raised for food, as evidenced by the proliferation of animal welfare certification labeling claims. This proposed rule would ensure that organic producers are equally competitive in this market and would alleviate the need to pursue additional certification to communicate the use of strict animal welfare practices to consumers. The existing animal welfare certification programs have varying requirements, even within individual programs, creating a range of standards in the marketplace.
Establishing clear practice standards for organic products which meet or exceed most of the private animal welfare certification requirements would foster a more efficient market for organic products. Narrowing the range of acceptable practices within organic egg production would bolster consumer confidence in the information conveyed by an organic label claim on these products. As the requirements in this proposed rule would meet or exceed most of the private animal welfare certification standards, we expect that producers would find organic certification sufficient and reduce participation in other certification programs. This would streamline the business practices of organic livestock producers by reducing redundant and duplicative paperwork and verification processes for organic certification and a separate animal welfare certification.
Several studies show a correlation between consumer preferences/demand for products associated with higher animal welfare standards and higher price premiums. We believe these studies may be applicable in predicting consumer behavior in the organic egg market, particularly for consumers who regularly purchase organic eggs. Sustained consumer demand for organic eggs could mitigate some costs associated with this rulemaking and incentivize producers to comply with this proposed rule and remain in the organic market.
A study by Heng (2015) examined whether consumers are willing to pay a premium for livestock products associated with improved animal welfare.
Another study by Heng et al., (2013) estimated the values of certain attributes of eggs, including outdoor access and stocking density.
Sumner et al., (2011) looked at the potential market impacts of shifting egg production from caged housing to alternative noncage systems.
Chang et al., (2010) examined prices for eggs with various labels about production (
In addition, informal national surveys reveal consumer expectations that organic eggs are produced from hens with outdoor access. A 2014 Consumer Reports Labeling Survey noted that 55 percent of consumers believe that the organic label on meat and poultry means that the animals went outdoors.
We expect that clear, consistent requirements for avian living conditions can sustain consumer demand and support the growth in the market for organic poultry products. Several articles describe a positive association between the establishment of uniform regulation of product labels and consumer confidence. Van Loo, et al, (2011) asserts that uniform organic standards and certification procedures are essential to maintain consumer trust
In accordance with OMB Circular A-4, the benefits of this proposed rule are the real improvements in attributes (
To monetize the benefits, AMS is using previous research that has measured that consumers are willing to pay between $0.21 and $0.49 per dozen eggs for outdoor access.
AMS considered various alternatives for the stocking density and outdoor space provisions for organic egg production. AMS also considered how these producers might respond to the proposed stocking densities and outdoor access requirements and how this would impact the supply and demand for organic eggs. AMS did not quantify costs associated with some of the alternatives discussed above (
To estimate the costs to comply with minimum indoor and outdoor space requirements for organic layers, AMS made assumptions about the current facilities and practices for organic egg production. AMS is proposing indoor stocking requirements that align with the current practices in organic egg production. Table 5 provides the proposed indoor stocking rates by housing type. AMS is aware that many organic egg producers participate in third-party animal welfare certification programs, in particular, the Certified Humane label program.
The Humane Farm Animal Care standards
In this analysis, the outdoor space is the key constraint that drives the costs of complying with the proposed rule; we are proposing an outdoor stocking density of a maximum of 2.25 pounds/ft
In addition to the above assumptions, a few producer survey results are notable. The National Animal Health Monitoring Survey (NAHMS) reports that 36 percent of organic egg operations surveyed provide at least 2 square feet per bird (equivalent to 2.25 lbs/ft
In this analysis, AMS postulates that a producer will consider two options in response to this proposed rule: (1) Comply with the proposed rule and remain in the organic egg market; or (2) transition to the cage-free egg market. Using those potential responses, AMS constructed two scenarios to project how the organic egg sector would behave and estimated the costs for each scenario. This section explains the assumptions and variables used to build our estimates.
AMS constructed enterprise budgets for representative organic egg operations by housing type (
To complete the cost estimates for complying with the proposed rule, AMS employed the following basic assumptions and values:
Simple linear (straight line) depreciation of assets with zero salvage value.
Annual opportunity cost of capital of 3 percent.
Homogenous labor hired at $13.25 per hour.
Price variability for inputs,
Feed costs per ton of $574 ($710 for pasture operations).
Lay rate (eggs/hen/year) of 308 (284 for pasture operations).
Feed conversion rate of 4.0 pounds per dozen.
Operations can purchase additional land if needed.
Annual rental rate per acre of land of $177.
Building costs of $70 per hen.
AMS assumed that the mortality rate for hens would increase to 8 percent from 5 percent if this proposed rule is finalized.
The proposed changes to the avian living conditions, particularly outdoor access, reflect the input of numerous stakeholders, including producers and consumers, on production practices that would improve the overall quality of life for birds. The NOSB also recognized mortality rates as a key indicator of animal welfare and important to the economic viability of an operation. In addition, the NOSB has discussed specific practices to prevent and manage predation and disease in a production environment where outdoor access is an integral part. These include predator deterrents (electrified fencing, overhead netting), rotation of land, well-drained soil, lower stocking density, and selection of breeds that are suited to free range conditions.
The key factors that influence the enterprise budgets—and magnitude of the impacts to operations—are feed conversion rates, production volume and cost of land. Under the proposed rule, feed is the variable cost that would shift most notably. The cost of feed would increase due to lower feed conversion as birds expend more energy outdoors.
In regards to land, AMS assumes that single-story housing systems (pasture, floor litter and slatted/mesh floor housing), have the land area to meet the outdoor stocking density for their current production. Aviary operations would require a larger land area for outdoor access than other housing types because these are multi-level structures that hold more birds than single-story poultry houses. We assume that aviaries have an indoor space roughly three times larger than the footprint of the barn. Therefore, aviary houses would on average require the equivalent of six house footprints of outdoor space to meet the minimum outdoor space requirement.
In summary, the marginal cost to produce one dozen eggs would increase under the proposed rule for each type of housing system except pasture. For floor litter and slatted/mesh floor housing, AMS estimates the marginal costs to produce one dozen eggs would increase by 2.8%; for aviary systems those marginal costs would increase by 3.3%. The section below discusses how these costs to individual operations will impact the organic egg sector.
AMS is seeking comment on the accuracy of the estimates concerning the available land base for outdoor access and the other assumptions made in the cost analysis. Is the two house footprints of outdoor space per layer house a valid baseline assumption? How many aviaries, and what proportion of organic egg production, have available outdoor space to comply with the proposed outdoor stocking density?
This proposed rule contains indoor and outdoor space requirements specific to broiler and other meat-type avian species. Similar to organic egg production, AMS expects that the space requirements for broilers are the provisions that would have cost implications. This proposed rule, consistent with the NOSB recommendation, would set a maximum of 5.0 lbs/ft
• AMS expects that 75 percent of organic broiler production complies with the proposed stocking densities.
• Operations which can meet the proposed indoor stocking density can also meet the outdoor stocking density. We expect that the land area around a broiler house is equivalent to the footprint of two broiler houses. Since broilers are not housed in multi-level aviaries like laying hens, the outdoor space could accommodate the same number of birds at the indoor stocking density.
• The current, annual organic broiler production is roughly 16 million birds and the average live weight of organic broilers at slaughter is 5.84 pounds.
• An organic broiler house will have 6 production cycles per year; each cycle is 6-8 weeks long.
In addition, we applied the same assumptions for layers, specifically mortality rates, depreciation of assets, property tax, labor, insurance, etc., to the cost estimates for broilers.
AMS assumes that in response to this proposed rule, affected producers will make operational changes to comply with the proposed rule and continue organic egg and poultry production. The projected net returns shown in Table 7 support this projection; under the proposed rule the net returns for organic eggs will exceed the net returns of selling to the cage-free market. Table 7 shows the difference in net returns per 100,000 dozen eggs for organic eggs under the current USDA organic regulations and the proposed rule, and for cage-free eggs. The net returns vary based on housing systems,
AMS assumes that producers would maintain their current level of production (
The methodology just described reflects an assumption that costs accrue only to legacy organic producers. As example for which this assumption seems plausible, consider a producer with a fairly new house, located in a spot without open land; such a producer would likely choose to switch to cage-free eggs until the time when the house gets close to needing replacement, and then might build the new house at a location spacious enough to allow for organic production. The costs (
There are no outdoor space costs for the first five years because layer operations would not be required to make any changes to the outdoor space during that time period.
As discussed above, the operating expenses for most organic egg operations will increase chiefly due to higher feed costs, because of decreased feed efficiency, and the purchase of additional land. There may be added costs for maintenance of outdoor areas (
The reduced volume of eggs going to the market due to higher mortality and decreased lay rate and feed conversion, all associated with more outdoor access, will also lower net returns. In Table 8, AMS estimated how the proposed rule would affect total egg production while holding the layer numbers constant for each housing type.
For the organic egg sector, AMS estimates that the costs of this proposed rule will average $6 to $17 million annually. The compliance costs that would occur in year 1 if the entire industry had to comply (and each other year, for the upper bound estimates) is $28.2M. For the lower bound estimates, in each year, compliance costs decline by 1/13 until they reach zero in 2014. No costs are incurred during the first 5 years due to the 5 year implementation period for outdoor space requirements. By year six, 5/13ths of the layer barns will have been fully depreciated based on federal tax returns. Thus, the lower bound compliance costs incurred are reduced by 5/13ths ($10.8 million) to exclude all compliance costs from the barns which are fully depreciated prior to implementation of the outdoor space requirements. Lower bound costs reported are reduced by 1/13th each additional year until costs reported would reach $0 in year 14.
For this analysis, AMS assumes that organic broiler producers would also maintain their current facilities and reduce the number of birds, if needed, in order to comply with the proposed stocking densities and remain in the organic market. In this scenario, producers would incur some increased expenditures, linked to increased feed costs and reduced feed efficiency, and reduced production. In addition, AMS estimates that the organic broiler flock (16 million birds) would be reduced by 7 percent, or 1.18 million birds to comply with the proposed indoor stocking density. Estimated costs to producers in each of the years after compliance with the rule is required will exceed the projected annual average. For the lower bound, AMS is reducing the actual costs (
The compliance cost would be in the first year (year 1) if the entire industry had to comply. For the lower bound, costs are reduced by 1/13 of that cost every year until they reach zero in year 14. No costs are incurred during the first year due to the 1 year implementation period for indoor access requirements. By the 2nd year, costs reported are reduced by 1/13th ($563,000) to $6.8 million because 1/13th of the barns will have fully depreciated. Costs reported are reduced by 1/13th each additional year until costs reported would reach $0 in year 14.
In summary, the total reported costs for the organic egg and poultry sector are estimated to average $9.5 to $24.1 million annually. AMS estimates that the increased operating costs and lost revenue from decreased production volumes would result in a 3.63 percent increase in the break-even price for one dozen organic eggs ($2.31 to $2.39 per dozen). AMS expects that some organic egg and broiler producers may face additional costs for building new fences, providing shade in outdoor areas, or creating more doors in poultry houses. We have not quantified these costs due to the wide variability in baseline conditions and potential changes based on the suitability to site-specific conditions.
Alternatively, some organic egg operations may consider leaving organic production for the cage-free market. AMS estimates that up to 90 percent of organic aviaries may transition to cage-free egg production due to marketing opportunities and challenges of complying with the outdoor space requirements.
For this analysis, we estimate the foregone profit as the difference in net returns for cage-free and organic eggs for a 13 year period. This accounts for the time needed to fully depreciate layer houses. Reported profit effects are decreased by 1/13th each year. We estimate that in aggregate producers who cannot comply with the reduced outdoor space requirements and move to cage free production would have reduced net revenues of $27 million in the first year that the rule is fully implemented. However, by year six, 5/13th of these aviary layer barns would have been fully depreciated, so none of these costs incurred are included in this proposed rule. In year six, 5/13ths of actual costs are removed leaving a reported cost of $16.6 million. Each subsequent year, an additional 1/13th of the actual costs are removed until reported profit effects reach $0 in year 14. We estimate that the foregone profit from the transition to the cage-free egg market would total $216 million of which AMS is reporting in this analysis $74.1 million, averaging $5.7 million over 13 years.
These profit effects encompass real costs and cost savings, such as the savings resulting from a switch from organic feed to less expensive conventional feed; however, the highest-magnitude aspect of the profit effect is very likely the non-collection of the differential price premiums for organic eggs relative to cage-free eggs. As discussed previously, consumers pay this premium largely because they place a value on laying hens having access to the outdoors. However, the exiting producers have not been giving their animals sufficient access to the outdoors, so the non-payment of these price premiums does not correspond to changes in costs (
To complete the estimate for this exit scenario we assume that organic egg producers, including the 10 percent of organic aviaries that do not exit to the cage-free market, have the land base to meet the proposed outdoor access requirement and will maintain organic egg production. As described in the above scenario, these producers will incur increased expenses for higher feed costs due to decreased feed efficiency and maintenance of outdoor access areas (
Estimated costs of complying with the proposed rule, for those producers who do not transition to cage-free, will average $6.3 to $21.5 million annually for 13 years. Transfers associated with the switch to cage-free (by some, but not all, producers) average $5.7 million over that time horizon. Table 10 shows how these estimated costs and transfers are distributed over 13 years. Note that the upper bound costs in the laying hens column increase over time, as producers who temporarily exited organic production in favor of cage-free expand their production space so as to allow them to satisfy the proposed higher organic standard and they thus incur higher costs (
AMS has also considered the impact of the proposed rule on the organic egg supply if 90 percent of organic aviaries exit the organic egg market. We are using the number of layers as an indicator of organic egg supply. The number of organic layers grew 12.3 percent annually from 2007-2015.
We estimate that up to 90 percent of organic aviaries could exit to the cage-free market. In this case, we expect that the number of layers would drop by 43 percent relative to peak production. Peak production would occur 5 years after publication of the final rule and the drop in production would occur 6 years after publication when the rule must be fully implemented. After the projected decline, AMS expects that the organic layer population would resume growth at the 2 percent annual rate. This is likely a conservative estimate as unmet consumer demand for organic eggs would be an incentive for operations to enter organic egg production and for existing organic operations to expand. Assuming that all organic producers comply with this proposed rule and maintain organic production, we expect that the number of organic layers will grow 2 percent annually throughout and after the implementation period.
AMS is proposing that the final rule, except for the avian outdoor access provisions, be implemented one year after publication. The avian outdoor access provisions would be implemented in two phases: (1) Operations/facilities/poultry houses which are initially certified 3 years after publication would need to comply with the outdoor stocking density to obtain certification; (2) All operations certified before the 3-year mark would need to comply with the proposed outdoor stocking density 5 years after the publication of the final rule.
The increased operating expenses are projected to raise the break-even price per dozen eggs by 3.2 percent to 3.6 percent for floor housing systems and aviaries respectively. We use break-even price as a proxy for wholesale price. Based on studies, cited above, evaluating consumers' willingness-to-pay for outdoor access, we anticipate that price increases of this magnitude would not deter consumer purchases of organic eggs.
AMS acknowledges that achieving consistent organic practices is critical to maintain consumer trust in the organic sector and may necessitate that some producers leave the organic market and use alternate labeling claims. However, we expect that updating the organic livestock standards in response to consumer and producer preferences will avert widespread, adverse impacts from maintaining the status quo. Persistent consumer confusion about organic labels on eggs and other livestock products jeopardizes consumer trust in the organic label generally and undermines a key purpose for establishing a national organic certification program. In addition to constraining the performance of existing organic operations, these conditions could discourage participation in the NOP as producers seek alternate certification to better convey their management practices to consumers.
On the other hand, organic livestock production standards that are relevant and responsive to consumer preferences should drive demand for organic products and attract new entrants to the organic livestock market. This would have positive monetary impacts for organic livestock producers and other organic operations that produce/handle animal feed. We have not quantified the potential broader implications for not pursuing this action.
AMS expects that the proposed handling requirements for organic livestock, including transit and slaughter, are common industry practice and would not substantially affect producers or handlers. During the development and deliberation of the NOSB's animal welfare recommendations in 2009 and 2011, there were numerous public comments. Those comments did not inform of any substantial impacts of provisions pertaining to mammalian livestock.
USDA's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) already has requirements to support animal health during transit. With regard to slaughter, USDA's Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) already requires that mammalian slaughter facilities meet
Some small mammalian slaughter facilities may not currently be inspected by FSIS; for example, those operations that sell meat intra-state only. However, AMS understands that humane slaughter practices in compliance with the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act are industry standard. AMS expects that costs incurred to comply with the proposed rule would not be a substantial barrier. Such costs could include those related to training staff, developing record-keeping materials, making minor facility renovations, and documenting and analyzing the facility's compliance with the proposed rule. Therefore, AMS does not expect that existing organic slaughter facilities would incur substantial costs or make onerous changes to current facilities or procedures in order to comply with the proposed rule.
AMS understands that it is possible that a subset of the existing certified organic slaughter facilities could surrender their organic certification as a result of this action, which could impact organic livestock producers. However, AMS cannot predict the number of such entities, if any, that would surrender organic certification and the corresponding impact to organic producers. Similarly, certain businesses currently providing livestock transport services for certified organic producers or slaughter facilities may be unwilling to meet and/or document compliance with the proposed livestock transit requirements. AMS is requesting comments specifically on the proposed regulations for slaughter.
As discussed below in the Paperwork Reduction Act section, this proposed rule would impose additional paperwork requirements. Organic livestock and poultry producers and handlers must develop and maintain an organic system plan. This is a requirement for all organic operations, and the USDA organic regulations describe what information must be included in an organic system plan (§ 205.201). This proposed rule describes the additional information (§§ 205.238, 205.239, 205.241, and 205.242) that will need to be included in a livestock operation's organic system plan in order to assess compliance. AMS estimates the annual cost to compile this information will be $400 per organic livestock producer. AMS expects that as producers adapt to the requirements introduced by the amendments at §§ 205.238, 205.239, 205.241, and 205.242, the number of labor hours per year for currently certified operators will decrease.
This proposed rule would also impose a minor burden on certifying agents. These entities will need to become familiar with the requirements of the proposed rule and update organic system plan forms.
AMS does not expect that this proposed rule would impose any unique cost burdens on foreign-based livestock operations that are USDA certified organic due to the extremely limited number of foreign certified poultry operations. There are less than 5 producers and handlers of USDA certified egg or chicken operations outside of the U.S. according to the NOP's Organic Integrity database. There are less than 70 USDA certified organic operations that have mammalian livestock and operation outside of the U.S.; most of these are cattle operations in Australia.
AMS did not estimate costs for impacts to third-party animal welfare certification programs. As discussed above, we expect that organic producers may opt to no longer participate in these certification programs once this proposed rule is finalized. AMS believes that these private certification programs have a participant base that is broader than organic producers and offer a unique service for producers who want to convey specific information about animal welfare practices to consumers.
This proposed rule will maintain consumer trust in the value and significance of the USDA organic seal, particularly on organic livestock products. Clear and consistent standards for organic livestock practices, especially maximum stocking density and outdoor access for poultry, are needed and broadly anticipated by most livestock producers, consumers, trade groups, certifying agents, and OIG. This action completes the process, as intended by OFPA and reiterated in the USDA organic regulations, to build more detailed standards for organic livestock. By resolving the ambiguity about outdoor access for poultry, this action furthers an objective of OFPA: Consumer assurance that organically produced products meet a consistent standard. In turn, it also provides assurance to producers that organic certification standards reflect the expectations of the consumer base. Augmenting the animal welfare practice standards for organic livestock would provide a foundation for efficient and equitable compliance and enforcement and facilitate fair competition among organic livestock producers. AMS is providing a 5-year implementation period for the outdoor access provisions for poultry in consideration of the average time needed to finish depreciating the capital costs of aviary houses, production realities and cost to producers who invested in organic production facilities.
AMS is seeking comments on the economic impacts, both costs and benefits, of this action on the industry. We are specifically interested in validating the accuracy of assumptions about available outdoor space, and more precise estimates of the number and size of egg layer and broiler operations that may be affected by this action. The costs and benefits are summarized in the Executive Summary and were described in detail in this section.
Executive Order 12988 instructs each executive agency to adhere to certain requirements in the development of new and revised regulations in order to avoid unduly burdening the court system. This proposed rule is not intended to have a retroactive effect.
States and local jurisdictions are preempted under the OFPA from creating programs of accreditation for private persons or State officials who want to become certifying agents of organic farms or handling operations. A governing State official would have to apply to USDA to be accredited as a certifying agent, as described in section 6514(b) of the OFPA. States are also preempted under sections 6503 and 6507 of the OFPA from creating certification programs to certify organic farms or handling operations unless the State programs have been submitted to, and approved by, the Secretary as meeting the requirements of the OFPA.
Pursuant to section 6507(b)(2) of the OFPA, a State organic certification program may contain additional requirements for the production and handling of organically produced agricultural products that are produced in the State and for the certification of organic farm and handling operations located within the State under certain circumstances. Such additional requirements must: (a) Further the purposes of the OFPA, (b) not be inconsistent with the OFPA, (c) not be discriminatory toward agricultural commodities organically produced in other States, and (d) not be effective until approved by the Secretary.
Pursuant to section 6519(f) of the OFPA, this proposed rule would not alter the authority of the Secretary under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601-624), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451-
Section 6520 of the OFPA provides for the Secretary to establish an expedited administrative appeals procedure under which persons may appeal an action of the Secretary, the applicable governing State official, or a certifying agent under this title that adversely affects such person or is inconsistent with the organic certification program established under this title. The OFPA also provides that the U.S. District Court for the district in which a person is located has jurisdiction to review the Secretary's decision.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612) requires agencies to consider the economic impact of each rule on small entities and evaluate alternatives that would accomplish the objectives of the rule without unduly burdening small entities or erecting barriers that would restrict their ability to compete in the market. The purpose is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to the action.
The RFA permits agencies to prepare the initial RFA in conjunction with other analyses required by law, such as the Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA). AMS notes that several requirements to complete the RFA overlap with the RIA. For example, the RFA requires a description of the reasons why action by the agency is being considered and an analysis of the proposed rule's costs to small entities. The RIA describes the need for this proposed rule, the alternatives considered and the potential costs and benefits of this proposed rule. In order to avoid duplication, we combine some analyses as allowed in section 605(b) of the RFA. The RIA explains that the scope of that analysis is the impact on the organic egg sector. AMS believes that other types of organic livestock and poultry production would not face significant costs to comply with this proposed rule because the proposed provisions generally codify current practices. As explained below, AMS expects that the vast majority of organic egg producers and broiler producers that could be impacted by this proposed rule would qualify as small businesses. In the RIA, the discussion of alternatives and the potential costs and benefits pertain to impacts upon all entities, including small entities. Therefore, the scope of those analyses is applicable to the RFA. The RIA should be referred to for more detail.
The Organic Food Production Act (OFPA) provides general requirements for organic livestock production, and directs USDA to provide more detailed provisions through rulemaking. The current USDA organic regulations have broad and general requirements for ensuring the welfare of certified organic livestock and poultry. Organic livestock and poultry must be raised in a way that accommodates their health and natural behavior and reduces stress. Specifically, organic livestock and poultry producers must provide access to the outdoors, shade, clean and dry bedding, shelter, space for exercise, fresh air, clean drinking water, and direct sunlight (§ 205.239(a)). Additionally, the organic regulations describe allowed and prohibited livestock healthcare practices and specify requirements for organic livestock living conditions (§ 205.239(b)). AMS began the process of adding more specificity to the livestock provisions with the publication of the 2010 final rule on access to pasture for ruminants. This action would fulfill the expectations set forth in OFPA and anticipated by the organic community for more clarity on production practices for poultry and other livestock species.
The USDA organic regulations for livestock and poultry are general and can apply to various production situations. However, as described above, varying interpretations of these regulations have resulted in different practices, particularly concerning outdoor access for poultry. One of the main disparities in practice is the use of porches to provide outdoor access versus an uncovered area with soil and/or vegetation. This disparity in outdoor access has economic implications for the operations and jeopardizes consumer confidence in the organic label.
AMS has received formal complaints from organic poultry farmers who provide outdoor access through pasture-based systems. These operations have cited that they are at a competitive disadvantage compared to operations that are providing more limited access to the outdoors.
Consumers have become increasingly interested in how their food is produced and make purchasing decisions based on the method of production. Based on public comments received in response to the NOSB's recommendations on animal welfare, AMS understands that consumers expect, and are willing to pay more for, animal welfare requirements that are more stringent than conventional products. This includes outdoor access for organic poultry. AMS believes that the costs incurred by producers in complying with this proposed action are necessary to reflect consumer expectations for organic products. If implemented, this action would, as discussed in the benefits portion of the RIA, support consumer expectations related to practices for organic livestock. AMS believes that the long-term economic impact of not implementing this proposed rule could undermine the integrity of the USDA organic seal, if there is ambiguity regarding how the USDA organic regulations must be applied across the organic livestock and poultry sector.
AMS has considered the economic impact of this proposed action on small entities. Small entities include avian and mammalian livestock producers and slaughter facilities that currently hold or are considering certification to the USDA organic regulations, as well as
The RFA requires, with some exception, that AMS define small businesses according to its size standards. The Small Business Administration (SBA) sets size standards for defining small businesses by number of employees or amount of revenues for specific industries. These size standards vary by North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code (13 CFR part 121.201). For the RFA analysis, AMS focused on estimating how different size organic layer and broiler operations (small versus large) would be impacted as a result of meeting the proposed indoor and outdoor space requirements.
AMS does not expect that the proposed rule would substantially affect other stakeholders, including (1) operations that produce other organic poultry, (2) operations that produce mammalian livestock, (3) operations that handle organic livestock, and (4) organic certifying agents. These determinations are based on a number of assumptions described below and explained in the RIA. This analysis focused on the impact of the proposed rule on small businesses in the United States.
Small egg producers are listed under NAICS code 112310 (Chicken Egg Production) as grossing less than $15,000,000 per year. AMS estimates that out of 722 operations reporting sales of organic eggs, 4 exceed that threshold.
The availability of adjacent land for egg laying operations to meet the proposed outdoor access requirements is the main determinant of costs to implement this rule. AMS projects that organic egg and broiler producers would be able to meet this proposed rule with only modest costs. We assume that these producers have or can acquire adequate outdoor space to meet the proposed outdoor stocking density. For these producers, the increased costs are due primarily to increased mortality, reduced feed efficiency associated with increased outdoor access, maintenance of outdoor areas (
AMS recognizes that the reported costs exclude the majority of compliance costs current organic layer operations will face. For organic layers operations, the compliance costs incurred will be $21.12 million each year after implementation for small operations and $7 million each year after implementation for large operations. Each small layer operation will incur compliance costs of $29,400 each year after implementation and each large layer operation will incur compliance costs of $1.76 million each year after implementation.
AMS expects that the costs to comply with the proposed outdoor space requirements would be more burdensome for larger organic layer producers and would increase the likelihood for these operations to transition to a cage-free label. Since nearly all of the organic producers qualify as small businesses, we expect that there is considerable variation in the size of operations in this category. These operations would require significantly more land and would be less likely to have that area available for expansion.
As previously stated, however, producers could choose to surrender their organic certification and move to alternate labels such as cage-free, which would reduce both their annual profits and their annual operating costs. AMS estimated the cost for the potential scenario in which 90 percent of organic aviary operations transition to the cage-free market in response to this proposed rule. Because aviary houses hold more birds, these operations will require a larger land base to comply with the outdoor stocking density. Therefore, we expect that any operations would which exit the organic egg market would not qualify as small businesses per SBA criteria. AMS estimates that if a 100,000-dozen-egg, aviary facility transitioned from the current USDA organic regulations to the cage-free label, the operation would, on average, have reduced annual profits ($7,262 versus $26,482).
Small chicken producers are listed under NAICS code 11230 (Broilers and Other Meat Type Chicken Production) as grossing less than $750,000 per year. According to the NASS special
AMS recognizes that the reported costs exclude the majority of compliance costs current organic broiler operations will face. For organic broiler operations, the compliance costs incurred will be $5.5 million each year after implementation for small operations and $1.8 million each year after implementation for large operations. Each small layer operation will incur compliance costs of $25,200 each year after implementation and each large layer operation will incur compliance costs of $68,000 each year after implementation.
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Based on available data, AMS does not expect that other organic livestock producers and handlers would be substantially affected by this proposed action. As explained in the RIA, we expect the proposed provisions for mammalian living conditions and health care practices, and handling and transport to slaughter, would codify existing industry practices. These determinations are based on a series of assumptions described below.
AMS believes the proposed clarifications for organic mammalian livestock, including provisions related to animal treatment and physical alternations, are common industry practice and would not have a substantial impact on such producers. AMS previously addressed major living condition changes for ruminant livestock in its final rule, Access to Pasture (Livestock) (75 FR 7154, February 17, 2010).
Based on available information, AMS understands that, in practice, all handling operations for organic livestock are small businesses. We expect that the proposed handling requirements for organic livestock, including transit and slaughter, are common industry practice and would not substantially affect handlers. USDA's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) already has requirements to support animal welfare during transit. AMS understands that the proposed additional requirements related to transit are of industry standard. Also, operations providing transit services for organic livestock are not required to be certified to the USDA organic standard. Therefore, while operations providing transit services would need to comply with the proposed transit requirements, they would not be directly subject to additional certification requirements.
Both small livestock slaughter facilities (NAICS code 311611) and poultry slaughter facilities (NAICS code 311615) are defined as those grossing less than $500,000,000 per year. AMS understands that most of the approximately 114 U.S.-based livestock slaughter facilities certified to the USDA organic regulations are small businesses. With regard to slaughter, USDA's Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) already requires that mammalian slaughter facilities meet similar requirements as those recommended by the NOSB, per the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act within the Federal Meat Inspection Act. Some small mammalian slaughter facilities may not currently be inspected by FSIS; for example, those operations that sell meat intra-state only. However, AMS understands that humane slaughter practices in compliance with the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act are industry standard. In addition, some small poultry slaughter facilities which are exempt from FSIS inspection already observe the good commercial practices that would align with the Poultry Products Inspection Act and FSIS regulations. AMS expects that costs incurred to comply with the proposed rule would not be a substantial barrier. Such costs could include those related to training staff, developing record-keeping materials, making minor facility renovations, and documenting and analyzing the facility's compliance with the proposed rule. Therefore, AMS does not expect that existing organic slaughter facilities would incur substantial costs or make onerous changes to current facilities or procedures in order to comply with the proposed rule.
AMS understands that it is possible that a subset of the existing certified organic slaughter facilities could surrender their organic certification as a result of this action, which could impact organic livestock producers. However, AMS cannot predict the number of such entities, if any, that would surrender organic certification and the corresponding impact to organic producers. Similarly, certain businesses currently providing livestock transport services for certified organic producers or slaughter facilities may be unwilling to meet and/or document compliance with the proposed livestock transit requirements.
This proposed rule would also affect certifying agents that certify organic livestock operations. The Small Business Administration (SBA) defines small agricultural service firms, which includes certifying agents, as those having annual receipts of less than $7,500,000 (North American Industry Classification System Subsector 115—Support Activities for Agriculture and Forestry). There are currently 79 USDA-accredited certifying agents; based on a query of the NOP certified organic operations database, there are approximately 41 certifying agents who are currently involved in the certification of organic livestock
AMS understands that, based on the analysis above, both small and large organic layer operations and broiler operations may incur costs in order to comply with the proposed minimum indoor and outdoor space requirements. While our analysis demonstrates that large poultry operations would have significantly higher compliance costs than small operations on average, we understand that small producers that are closer to the 245,000-hen threshold or the 150,000 broiler threshold may still incur substantial costs to comply with the proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is seeking to reduce the economic burden to organic producers, including small businesses, without unduly delaying the improved animal conditions.
AMS is proposing a 5-year implementation period for the minimum outdoor space requirements for poultry. A facility which is certified before 3 years after publication of the final rule would have 5 years to come into compliance. Producers and poultry houses which are not certified prior to 3 years after publication of the final rule would need to meet all of the requirements in order to obtain organic certification. Such new operations and poultry houses would include: (1) all poultry houses that first became certified organic 3 years or more after the final rule was published; and (2) new or replacement poultry houses operated by existing organic layer operations if such facilities were built 3 years or more after the final rule was published.
By providing an implementation period, both large and small existing organic producers would have additional time to implement the necessary changes in order to comply with the proposed rule. For example, operations choosing to expand will need land for the outdoor space. This new land would need to be certified organic before organic poultry could have access to it. Since land that has been treated with a prohibited substance in the past 3 years is not eligible for organic certification, the implementation period would allow organic producers to transition additional land to organic production. The 5-year implementation is based upon our estimate that the average age of an organic layer house is 7.6 years and has depreciated over 13 years for tax purposes. Therefore, a 5-year implementation period would allow organic egg producers, on average, to recover the costs of a poultry house. While we expect that organic egg producers will bear a greater cost burden for this proposed rule, this implementation period should also align with upgrades to or new construction for broiler houses. We expect that 15 percent of broiler houses generally are 5 years old or less and have a depreciation rate of 15 years.
For all other provisions of the proposed rule, AMS is proposing an implementation date of one year after the publication of the final rule. AMS chose a one-year period because all livestock and slaughter operations will need to change their Organic System Plans (OSPs) to meet the proposed requirements. During the one-year implementation period, certifying agents would need to update their OSP forms and make modifications to their certification processes in order to evaluate compliance with the proposed new requirements. This would include training staff and inspectors. AMS believes one year is adequate for organic operations, including for small businesses, to implement these changes.
AMS has not identified any relevant Federal rules that are currently in effect that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this proposed rule. AMS has reviewed rules administered by other Federal agencies, including APHIS and FSIS, and revised the proposed rule to avoid duplication. This action provides additional clarity on the animal welfare requirements for organic livestock that are specific and limited to the USDA organic regulations.
This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
AMS has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under E.O. 13175. If a Tribe requests consultation, AMS will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA), AMS is requesting OMB approval for a new information collection totaling 119,957 hours for the reporting and recordkeeping requirements contained in this proposed rule. OMB previously approved information collection requirements associated with the NOP and assigned OMB control number 0581-0191. AMS intends to merge this new information collection, upon OMB approval, into the approved 0581-0191 collection. Below, AMS has described and estimated the annual burden,
All certified organic operations must develop and maintain an organic system plan for certification (§ 205.201). The OSP must include a description of practices and procedures to be performed and maintained, including the frequency with which they will be performed. Under the proposed rule, organic livestock operations would be subject to additional reporting requirements. The amendments to §§ 205.238, 205.239, 205.241, and 205.242 require livestock operations to provide specific documentation as part of an organic system plan to include conditions on livestock living conditions to permit natural behavior, including minimum space, outdoor access and utilize preventive health care practices (
The PRA also requires AMS to measure the recordkeeping burden. Under the USDA organic regulations each producer is required to maintain and make available upon request, for 5 years, such records as are necessary to verify compliance (§ 205.103). Certifying agents are required to maintain records for 5 to 10 years, depending on the type of record (§ 205.510(b)) and make these records available for inspection upon request (§ 205.501(a)(9)). The new information that livestock operations must provide for certification will assist certifying agents and inspectors in the efficient and comprehensive evaluation of these operations and will impose an additional recordkeeping burden for livestock operations. Certifying agents currently involved in livestock certification are required to observe the same recordkeeping requirements to maintain accreditation, therefore AMS expects that this proposed rule would not impose a different recordkeeping burden on certifiers.
Reporting and recordkeeping are essential to the integrity of the organic certification system. A clear paper trail is a critical tool to verify that practices meet the mandate of OFPA and the USDA organic regulations. This information supports the AMS mission, program objectives, and management needs by enabling us to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the NOP. The information affects decisions because it is the basis for evaluating compliance with OFPA and USDA organic regulations, and for administering the NOP, management decisions and planning, and establishing the cost of the program. It also supports administrative and regulatory actions to address noncompliance with OFPA and USDA organic regulations.
This information collection is only used by the certifying agent and authorized representatives of USDA, including AMS and NOP staff. Certifying agents, including any affiliated organic inspectors, and USDA are the primary users of the information.
AMS has identified three types of entities (respondents) that would need to submit and maintain information in order to participate in organic livestock certification. For each type of respondent, we describe the general paperwork submission and recordkeeping activities and estimate: (1) The number of respondents; (2) the hours they spend, annually, completing the paperwork requirements of this labeling program; and, (3) the costs of that activity.
1.
Each entity seeking to continue USDA accreditation for livestock will need to submit information documenting its business practices including certification, enforcement and recordkeeping procedures and personnel qualifications (§ 205.504). AMS will review that information during its next scheduled on-site assessment to determine whether to continue accreditation for the scope of livestock. Certifying agents will need to annually update the above information and provide results of personnel performance evaluations and the internal review of its certification activities (§ 205.510).
AMS projects that the additional components of organic system plans for livestock may entail longer review times than those for other types of organic system plans. AMS estimates the annual collection cost per certifying agent will be $3,000.94. This estimate is based on an estimated 91.8 labor hours per year at $32.69 per hour for a total salary component of $3,000.94 per year. This value is assumed to be an underestimate as the certifier bears a portion of the burden of the inspector and certifiers employ varying numbers of inspectors. The source of the hourly rate is the National Compensation Survey: Occupational Employment and Wages, May 2014, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. The rate is the mean hourly wage for compliance officers. This classification was selected as an occupation with similar duties and responsibilities to that of a certifying agent.
2.
According to the International Organic Inspectors Association (IOIA), there are approximately 250 inspectors currently inspecting crop, livestock, handling and/or wild crop operations that are certified or have applied for certification. AMS assumes that approximately half (125) of these inspectors inspect livestock operations.
AMS estimates the annual collection cost per inspector to be $6,731.37. This estimate is based on an estimated 321 additional labor hours per year at $20.97 per hour for a total salary component of $6,731.37 per year. The source of the hourly rate is the National Compensation Survey: Occupational Employment and Wages, May 2014, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. The rate is the mean hourly wage for agricultural inspectors (occupation code 45-2011).
3.
In order to obtain and maintain certification, livestock producers and handlers will need to develop and maintain an organic system plan. This is a requirement for all organic operations and the USDA organic regulations describe what information must be included in an organic system plan (§ 205.201). This proposed rule describes the additional information (§§ 205.238, 205.239, 205.241, and 205.242) that will need to be included in a livestock operation's organic system plan in order to assess compliance. Certified operations are required to keep records about their organic production and/or handling for 5 years (§ 205.103(b)(3)).
AMS used the NOP 2014 List of Certified Operations to estimate the number of livestock operations that would be affected by this proposed action. On that basis, AMS estimates that 4,177 currently certified foreign and domestic livestock operations who will be subject to the amendments at §§ 205.238, 205.239, 205.241, and 205.242.
AMS estimates the annual collection cost per organic livestock producer to be $400.19. This estimate is based on an estimated 11.47 labor hours per year at $34.89 per hour for a total salary component of $400.19 per year. AMS estimates that as producers adapt to the requirements introduced by the amendments at §§ 205.238, 205.239, 205.241, and 205.242, the number of labor hours per year for currently certified operators will decrease. The source of the hourly rate is the National Compensation Survey: Occupational Employment and Wages, May 2014, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. The rate is the mean hourly wage for farmers, ranchers and other agricultural managers (occupation code 11-9013). Administrative costs for reporting and recordkeeping will vary among certified operators. Factors affecting costs include the type and size of operation, and the type of systems maintained. AMS also recognizes that operators bear a portion of the cost burden for the inspection which varies between certifiers.
Comments that specifically pertain to the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of this action should be sent to Paul Lewis Ph.D., Director Standards Division, National Organic Program, USDA-AMS-NOP, Room 2642-So., Ag Stop 0268, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20250-0268 and to the Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Room 725, Washington, DC 20503. Comments on the information collection and recordkeeping requirements should reference the date and page number of this issue of the
AMS has reviewed this proposed rule in accordance with the Department Regulation 4300-4, Civil Rights Impact Analysis (CRIA), to address any major civil rights impacts the rule might have on minorities, women, and persons with disabilities. After a careful review of the rule's intent and provisions, AMS has
Protected individuals have the same opportunity to participate in the NOP as non-protected individuals. The USDA organic regulations prohibit discrimination by certifying agents. Specifically, § 205.501(d) of the current regulations for accreditation of certifying agents provides that “No private or governmental entity accredited as a certifying agent under this subpart shall exclude from participation in or deny the benefits of the NOP to any person due to discrimination because of race, color, national origin, gender, religion, age, disability, political beliefs, sexual orientation, or marital or family status.” Section 205.501(a)(2) requires “certifying agents to demonstrate the ability to fully comply with the requirements for accreditation set forth in this subpart” including the prohibition on discrimination. The granting of accreditation to certifying agents under § 205.506 requires the review of information submitted by the certifying agent and an on-site review of the certifying agent's client operation. Further, if certification is denied, § 205.405(d) requires that the certifying agent notify the applicant of their right to file an appeal to the AMS Administrator in accordance with § 205.681. These regulations provide protections against discrimination, thereby permitting all producers, regardless of race, color, national origin, gender, religion, age, disability, political beliefs, sexual orientation, or marital or family status, who voluntarily choose to adhere to the rule and qualify, to be certified as meeting NOP requirements by an accredited certifying agent. This proposed rule in no way changes any of these protections against discrimination.
Administrative practice and procedure, Agriculture, Animals, Archives and records, Imports, Labeling, Organically produced products, Plants, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Seals and insignia, Soil conservation.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 205 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 6501-6522.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(a) The producer must establish and maintain preventive health care practices, including:
(1) Selection of species and types of livestock with regard to suitability for site-specific conditions and resistance to prevalent diseases and parasites.
(2) Provision of a feed ration sufficient to meet nutritional requirements, including vitamins, minerals, protein and/or amino acids, fatty acids, energy sources, and fiber (ruminants), resulting in appropriate body condition.
(3) Establishment of appropriate housing, pasture conditions, and sanitation practices to minimize the occurrence and spread of diseases and parasites.
(4) Provision of conditions which allow for exercise, freedom of movement, and reduction of stress appropriate to the species.
(5) Physical alterations may be performed to benefit the welfare or hygiene of the animals, or for identification purposes or safety. Physical alterations, if used, must be performed on livestock at a reasonably
(i) The following practices must not be routinely used on pigs and must be used only with documentation that alternative methods to prevent harm failed: needle teeth trimming (no more than top one-third of the tooth) and tail docking.
(ii) The following practices must not be performed on a certified operation: de-beaking, de-snooding, caponization, dubbing, toe trimming of chickens, toe trimming of turkeys unless with infra-red at hatchery, beak trimming after 10 days of age, tail docking of cattle, wattling of cattle, face branding of cattle, tail docking of sheep shorter than the distal end of the caudal fold, and mulesing of sheep.
(6) Administration of vaccines and other veterinary biologics.
(7) All surgical procedures necessary to treat an illness must employ best management practices to minimize pain, stress and suffering, with the use of appropriate and allowed anesthetics, analgesics and sedatives.
(8) Monitoring of lameness and keeping records of the percent of the herd or flock suffering from lameness and the causes.
(9) Ammonia levels in poultry houses must be less than 25 parts per million indoors. When ammonia levels in poultry houses exceed 10 parts per million, an operation must implement additional practices to reduce the ammonia levels below 10 parts per million.
(b) When preventive practices and veterinary biologics are inadequate to prevent sickness, an operation may administer synthetic medications allowed under § 205.603. Parasiticides allowed under § 205.603 may be used on:
(1) Breeder stock, when used prior to the last third of gestation but not during lactation for progeny that are to be sold, labeled, or represented as organically produced.
(2) Dairy stock, when used a minimum of 90 days prior to the production of milk or milk products that are to be sold, labeled, or represented as organic.
(3) Synthetic medications may be administered in the presence of illness or to alleviate pain and suffering: Provided, that such medications are allowed under § 205.603.
(c) An organic livestock operation must not:
(1) Sell, label, or represent as organic any animal or edible product derived from any animal treated with antibiotics, any substance that contains a synthetic substance not allowed under § 205.603, or any substance that contains a nonsynthetic substance prohibited in § 205.604. Milk from animals undergoing treatment with synthetic substances allowed under § 205.603 having withholding time cannot be sold as organic but may be fed to their own offspring. Milk from animals undergoing treatment with prohibited substances cannot be sold as organic or fed to organic livestock.
(2) Administer any animal drug in the absence of illness or to alleviate pain or suffering; with the exception of vaccinations and other veterinary biologics.
(3) Administer hormones for growth promotion, production or reproduction.
(4) Administer synthetic parasiticides on a routine basis.
(5) Administer synthetic parasiticides to slaughter stock.
(6) Administer animal drugs in violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
(7) Withhold medical treatment from a sick animal in an effort to preserve its organic status. All appropriate medications must be used to restore an animal to health when methods acceptable to organic production fail. Livestock treated with a prohibited substance must be clearly identified and neither the animal nor its products shall be sold, labeled, or represented as organically produced.
(8) Withhold individual treatment designed to minimize pain and suffering for injured, diseased or sick animals, which may include forms of euthanasia as recommended by the American Veterinary Medical Association.
(9) Neglect to identify and record treatment of sick and injured animals in animal health records.
(10) Practice forced molting or withdrawal of feed to induce molting.
(d) Organic livestock operations must have comprehensive plans to minimize internal parasite problems in livestock. The plan will include preventive measures such as pasture management, fecal monitoring, and emergency measures in the event of a parasite outbreak. Parasite control plans shall be approved by the certifying agent.
(e)
(2) The following methods of euthanasia are not permitted: suffocation; blow to the head by blunt instrument; and the use of equipment that crushes the neck, including killing pliers or burdizzo clamps.
(3) Following a euthanasia procedure, livestock must be carefully examined to ensure that they are dead.
(a) The producer of an organic livestock operation must establish and maintain year-round livestock living conditions which accommodate the health and natural behavior of animals, including:
(1) Year-round access for all animals to the outdoors, soil, shade, shelter, exercise areas, fresh air, clean water for drinking, and direct sunlight, suitable to the species, its stage of life, the climate, and the environment: Except, that, animals may be temporarily denied access to the outdoors in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Yards, feeding pads, and feedlots may be used to provide ruminants with access to the outdoors during the non-grazing season and supplemental feeding during the grazing season. Yards, feeding pads, and feedlots shall be large enough to allow all ruminant livestock occupying the yard, feeding pad, or feedlot to feed without competition for food in a manner that maintains all animals in a good body condition. Continuous total confinement of any animal indoors is prohibited. Continuous total confinement of ruminants in yards, feeding pads, and feedlots is prohibited.
(2) For all ruminants, management on pasture and daily grazing throughout the grazing season(s) to meet the requirements of § 205.237, except as provided for in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
(3) Animals must be kept clean during all stages of life with the use of appropriate, clean, dry bedding, as appropriate for the species. When roughages are used as bedding, they must be organically produced and handled in accordance with this part by certified operations except as provided in § 205.236(a)(2)(i).
(4) Shelter designed to allow for:
(i) Sufficient space and freedom to lie down in full lateral recumbence, turn around, stand up, fully stretch their limbs without touching other animals or the sides of the enclosure, and express normal patterns of behavior;
(ii) Temperature level, ventilation, and air circulation suitable to the species;
(iii) Reduction of potential for livestock injury; and
(iv) Areas for bedding and resting that are sufficiently large, solidly built, and comfortable so that animals are kept clean, dry, and free of lesions.
(5) The use of yards, feeding pads, feedlots and laneways that shall be well-
(6) Housing, pens, runs, equipment and utensils shall be properly cleaned and disinfected as needed to prevent cross infection and build-up of disease-carrying organisms.
(7) Dairy young stock may be housed in individual pens under the following conditions:
(i) Until weaning, providing that they have enough room to turn around, lie down, stretch out when lying down, get up, rest, and groom themselves; individual animal pens shall be designed and located so that each animal can see, smell, and hear other calves.
(ii) Dairy young stock shall be group-housed after weaning.
(iii) Dairy young stock over six months of age shall have access to the outdoors at all times including access to pasture during the grazing season, except as allowed under paragraph (c) of this section.
(8) Swine must be housed in a group, except:
(i) Sows may be housed individually at farrowing and during the suckling period.
(ii) Boars.
(iii) Swine with documented instance of aggression or recovery from an illness.
(9) Piglets shall not be kept on flat decks or in piglet cages.
(10) Exercise areas for swine, whether indoors or outdoors, must permit rooting, including during temporary confinement events.
(11) In confined housing with stalls, at least one stall must be provided for each animal in the facility at any given time. A cage must not be used as a stall. For group-housed swine, the number of individual feeding stalls may be less than the number of animals as long as all animals are fed routinely over a 24-hour period.
(12) At least 50 percent of outdoor access space must be soil, except when conditions threaten the soil or water quality, outdoor access without soil must be provided temporarily.
(b) The producer of an organic livestock operation may provide temporary confinement or shelter for an animal because of:
(1) Inclement weather;
(2) The animal's stage of life. Lactation is not a stage of life that would exempt ruminants from any of the mandates set forth in this part;
(3) Conditions under which the health, safety, or well-being of the animal could be jeopardized;
(4) Risk to soil or water quality;
(5) Preventive healthcare procedures or for the treatment of illness or injury (neither the various life stages nor lactation is an illness or injury);
(6) Sorting or shipping animals and livestock sales, provided that the animals shall be maintained under continuous organic management, including organic feed, throughout the extent of their allowed confinement;
(7)
(8) 4-H, National FFA Organization, and other youth projects, for no more than one week prior to a fair or other demonstration, through the event and up to 24 hours after the animals have arrived home from the event. These animals must have been maintained under continuous organic management, including organic feed, during the extent of their allowed confinement for the event. Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, facilities where 4-H, National FFA Organization, and other youth events are held are not required to be certified organic for the participating animals to be sold as organic, provided all other organic management practices are followed.
(c) The producer of an organic livestock operation may, in addition to the times permitted under paragraph (b) of this section, temporarily deny a ruminant animal pasture or outdoor access under the following conditions:
(1) One week at the end of a lactation for dry off (for denial of access to pasture only), three weeks prior to parturition (birthing), parturition, and up to one week after parturition;
(2) In the case of newborn dairy cattle for up to six months, after which they must be on pasture during the grazing season and may no longer be individually housed: Except, That, an animal shall not be confined or tethered in a way that prevents the animal from lying down, standing up, fully extending its limbs, and moving about freely;
(3) In the case of fiber bearing animals, for short periods for shearing; and
(4) In the case of dairy animals, for short periods daily for milking. Milking must be scheduled in a manner to ensure sufficient grazing time to provide each animal with an average of at least 30 percent DMI from grazing throughout the grazing season. Milking frequencies or duration practices cannot be used to deny dairy animals pasture.
(d) Ruminant slaughter stock, typically grain finished, shall be maintained on pasture for each day that the finishing period corresponds with the grazing season for the geographical location. Yards, feeding pads, or feedlots may be used to provide finish feeding rations. During the finishing period, ruminant slaughter stock shall be exempt from the minimum 30 percent DMI requirement from grazing. Yards, feeding pads, or feedlots used to provide finish feeding rations shall be large enough to allow all ruminant slaughter stock occupying the yard, feeding pad, or feed lot to feed without crowding and without competition for food. The finishing period shall not exceed one-fifth (
(e) The producer of an organic livestock operation must manage manure in a manner that does not contribute to contamination of crops, soil, or water by plant nutrients, heavy metals, or pathogenic organisms and optimizes recycling of nutrients and must manage pastures and other outdoor access areas in a manner that does not put soil or water quality at risk.
(a)
(b)
(2) Ventilation must be adequate to prevent build-up of ammonia. Ammonia levels must not exceed 25 parts per million. Operations must monitor ammonia levels monthly. When ammonia levels exceed 10 parts per million, operations must implement additional practices to reduce ammonia levels below 10 parts per million.
(3) For layers and mature birds, artificial light may be used to prolong the day length up to 16 hours. Artificial light intensity must be lowered
(4) The following types of flooring may be used in shelter for avian species:
(i) Mesh or slatted flooring under drinking areas to provide drainage.
(ii) Houses, excluding pasture housing, with slatted/mesh floors must have 30 percent minimum of solid floor area available with sufficient litter available for dust baths so that birds may freely dust bathe without crowding.
(iii) Litter must be provided and maintained in a dry condition.
(5) Poultry houses must have sufficient exit areas, appropriately distributed around the building, to ensure that all birds have ready access to the outdoors.
(6) Flat roosts areas must allow birds to grip with their feet. Six inches of perch space must be provided per bird. Perch space may include the alighting rail in front of the nest boxes. All birds must be able to perch at the same time except for multi-tiered facilities, in which 55 percent of birds must be able to perch at the same time. Facilities for species which do not perch do not need to have perch or roost space.
(7) For layers, no more than 2.25 pounds of hen per square foot of indoor space is allowed at any time, except:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(8) For pullets, no more than 3.0 pounds of pullet per square foot of indoor space is allowed at any time.
(9) For turkeys, broilers and other meat type species, no more than 5.0 pounds of birds per square foot of indoor space is allowed at any time.
(10) All birds must have access to scratch areas in the house.
(11) Poultry housing must be sufficiently spacious to allow all birds to move freely, stand normally, stretch their wings and engage in natural behaviors.
(c)
(2) Exit areas must be designed so that more than one bird can exit at a time and all birds in the house can exit within one hour.
(3) For layers, no more than 2.25 pounds of bird per square foot of outdoor space is allowed at any time.
(4) For pullets, no more than 3.0 pounds of pullet per square foot of outdoor space is allowed at any time.
(5) For turkeys, broilers and other meat type species, no more than 5.0 pounds of bird per square foot of outdoor space is allowed at any time.
(6) Space that has a solid roof overhead and is attached to the structure providing indoor space is not outdoor access and must not be included in the calculation of outdoor space.
(7) Shade may be provided by structures, trees, or other objects in the environment.
(8) At least 50 percent of outdoor access space must be soil, except when conditions threaten the soil or water quality, outdoor access without soil must be provided temporarily.
(d) The producer of an organic poultry operation may temporarily confine birds. Each instance of confinement must be recorded. Operations may confine birds because of:
(1) Inclement weather, including when air temperatures are under 40 degrees F or above 90 degrees F.
(2) The animal's stage of life, including the first 4 weeks of life for broilers and other meat type birds and the first 16 weeks of life for pullets.
(3) Conditions under which the health, safety, or well-being of the animal could be jeopardized, however the potential for disease outbreak is not sufficient cause. A documented occurrence of a disease in the region or relevant migratory pathway must be present in order to confine birds.
(4) Risk to soil or water quality.
(5) Preventive healthcare procedures or for the treatment of illness or injury (neither various life stages nor egg laying is an illness or injury).
(6) Sorting or shipping birds and poultry sales. Provided the birds are maintained under continuous organic management throughout the extent of their allowed confinement.
(7) Nest box training. Birds shall not be confined any longer than two weeks to teach the proper behavior.
(8) 4-H, National FFA Organization, and other youth projects, for no more than one week prior to a fair or other demonstration, through the event and up to 24 hours after the birds have arrived home at the conclusion of the event. These birds must have been maintained under continuous organic management, including organic feed, during the extent of their allowed confinement for the event. Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, facilities where 4-H, National FFA Organization, and other youth events are held are not required to be certified organic for the participating birds to be sold as organic, provided all other organic management practices are followed.
(e) The producer of an organic poultry operation must manage manure in a manner that does not contribute to contamination of crops, soil, or water by plant nutrients, heavy metals, or pathogenic organisms and optimizes recycling of nutrients and must manage outdoor access in a manner that does not put soil or water quality at risk.
(a)
(2) All livestock must be fit for transport to auction or slaughter facilities.
(i) Calves must have a dry navel cord and be able to stand and walk without human assistance.
(ii) Sick, injured, weak, disabled, blind, and lame animals must not be transported for sale or slaughter. Such animals may be medically treated or euthanized.
(3) Adequate and season-appropriate ventilation is required for all livestock trailers, shipping containers and any other mode of transportation used to protect animals against cold and heat stresses.
(4) Bedding must be provided on trailer floors and in holding pens as needed to keep livestock clean, dry, and comfortable during transportation and prior to slaughter. Poultry crates are exempt from the bedding requirement. When roughages are used for bedding, they must have been organically produced and handled by a certified organic operation(s).
(5) Arrangements for water and organic feed must be made if transport time exceeds twelve hours.
(i) Organic livestock operations must transport livestock in compliance with the Federal Twenty-Eight Hour Law (49
(ii) The producer or handler of an organic livestock operation must provide all non-compliant records and subsequent corrective action related to livestock transport during the annual inspection.
(6) Organic operations must have in place emergency plans to address possible animal welfare problems that might occur during transport.
(b)
(2) Organic operations that slaughter organic exotic animals must be in compliance with the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1621,
(3) Organic operations that slaughter organic livestock must provide all non-compliant records related to humane handling and slaughter issued by the controlling national, federal or state authority and all records of subsequent corrective actions during the annual organic inspection.
(c)
(2) Organic operations that slaughter organic poultry must provide all non-compliant records related to the use of good manufacturing practices in connection with slaughter issued by the controlling national, federal or state authority and all records of subsequent corrective actions during the annual organic inspection.
(3) Organic operations that slaughter organic poultry, but are exempt from or not covered by the requirements of the Poultry Products Inspection Act, must ensure that:
(i) No lame birds may be shackled, hung or carried by their legs;
(ii) All birds shackled on a chain or automated system must be stunned prior to exsanguination; and
(iii) All birds must be irreversibly insensible prior to being placed in the scalding tank.
(a) In section 1-1, a new section 1-113 is added to read as follows:
“1-113. The functions of adopting, altering, and using an official seal or emblem of the Peace Corps as set forth in section 19 of the Peace Corps Act (22 U.S.C. 2518) is hereby delegated to the Director of the Peace Corps.”
(b) In section 1-3, section 1-301(e) is deleted.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |