Page Range | 37295-37510 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 37470 - Sunshine Act Meetings; National Science Board | |
82 FR 37449 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 37470 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 37296 - Airworthiness Directives; Lycoming Engines Reciprocating Engines | |
82 FR 37472 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use on Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.'s Options Platform | |
82 FR 37396 - Delaware: Final Authorization of State Hazardous Waste Management Program Revisions | |
82 FR 37319 - Delaware: Final Authorization of State Hazardous Waste Management Program Revisions | |
82 FR 37389 - Air Plan Approval; South Carolina; Cross-State Air Pollution Rule | |
82 FR 37318 - Withdrawal of Extension of Deadline for Promulgating Designations for the 2015 Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
82 FR 37426 - Marine Mammals; File No. 16609-01 | |
82 FR 37449 - Coronet Industries, Inc. Plant City, Hillsborough County, Florida; Notice of Amendment to Federal Register Notice | |
82 FR 37450 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37443 - Strategic Environmental Research and Development Program Scientific Advisory Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
82 FR 37295 - Educational Meeting on the Mandatory Inspection of Fish of the Order Siluriformes and Products Derived From Such Fish Final Rule Implementation | |
82 FR 37441 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Snapper-Grouper Fishery Off the South Atlantic States; Amendment 43 | |
82 FR 37465 - Cut-to-Length Carbon Steel Plate From India, Indonesia, and Korea; Scheduling of Full Five-Year Reviews | |
82 FR 37453 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37458 - Medical Imaging Drugs Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
82 FR 37468 - Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments | |
82 FR 37397 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; 6-Month Extension of Final Determination on the Proposed Endangered Status for Texas Hornshell (Popenaias popeii) | |
82 FR 37418 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37468 - Applied Sciences Advisory Committee; Meeting | |
82 FR 37449 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10517-Hometown National Bank Longview, Washington | |
82 FR 37444 - Amended Application for Presidential Permit; Nogales Interconnection Project | |
82 FR 37426 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to US 101/Chehalis River Bridge-Scour Repair in Washington State | |
82 FR 37445 - Bonneville Power Administration; Notice of Filing | |
82 FR 37448 - Texas Eastern Transmission, L.P, Brazoria Interconnector Gas Pipeline, LLC; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Stratton Ridge Expansion Project | |
82 FR 37447 - Rover Pipeline LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed Majorsville Compressor Station Amendment and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
82 FR 37446 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 37424 - 2018 End-to-End Census Test-Address Canvassing Operation | |
82 FR 37425 - Certain Steel Nails From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With Final Results of Administrative Review and Notice of Amended Final Results Pursuant to Court Decision | |
82 FR 37508 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Extension of an Approved Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
82 FR 37463 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0019 | |
82 FR 37462 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0073 | |
82 FR 37461 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0078 | |
82 FR 37464 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0102 | |
82 FR 37486 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
82 FR 37440 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 37438 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 37442 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 37438 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 37439 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meetings | |
82 FR 37439 - Fisheries of the South Atlantic; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review (SEDAR); Public Meeting | |
82 FR 37504 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
82 FR 37502 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
82 FR 37499 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
82 FR 37503 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
82 FR 37498 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes | |
82 FR 37454 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37485 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “The Metropolis in Latin America, 1830-1930” Exhibition | |
82 FR 37451 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
82 FR 37485 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: J-1 Visa Waiver Recommendation Application | |
82 FR 37359 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Small-Mesh Multispecies Fishery; Adjustment to the Northern Red Hake Inseason Possession Limit | |
82 FR 37354 - Channel Sharing Rules | |
82 FR 37299 - Safety Zones; Recurring Events in Captain of the Port Duluth Zone-Superior Man Triathlon | |
82 FR 37461 - Certificate of Alternative Compliance for Viking Yacht Company's 92C Enclosed Bridge Yacht, HIN: VKY92111I617 | |
82 FR 37453 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 37465 - Certain Intravascular Administration Sets and Components Thereof; Issuance of a Limited Exclusion Order Against the Respondent Found in Default; Termination of the Investigation | |
82 FR 37442 - Strategic Environmental Research and Development Program Scientific Advisory Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
82 FR 37459 - Extension of Certain Tobacco Product Compliance Deadlines Related to the Final Deeming Rule; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
82 FR 37423 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 37423 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Arizona Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 37421 - Proposed Submission of Information Collection for OMB Review; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
82 FR 37467 - Standard on the Mechanical Power Presses; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
82 FR 37472 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 37472 - Product Change-Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, & First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 37418 - Notice of Determination of the Classical Swine Fever, Swine Vesicular Disease, African Swine Fever, Foot-and-Mouth Disease, and Rinderpest Status of Malta | |
82 FR 37484 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change To Make Available a New TRACE Security Activity Report | |
82 FR 37474 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Investors Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 2 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 2, Relating to Auctions in IEX-Listed Securities, Dissemination of Auction-Related Market Data, and Trading Halts and Pauses | |
82 FR 37479 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Regarding Qualified Contingent Trades and Related Information Recording Obligations by Certain Participants | |
82 FR 37456 - Qualification of Medical Device Development Tools; Guidance for Industry, Tool Developers, and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
82 FR 37371 - Air Plan Approval; North Carolina; Interstate Transport | |
82 FR 37299 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Norwalk River, Norwalk, CT | |
82 FR 37305 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; District of Columbia; Regional Haze Five-Year Progress Report State Implementation Plan | |
82 FR 37384 - Air Plan Approval; Florida; Interstate Transport (Prongs 1 and 2) for the 2010 1-Hour NO2 | |
82 FR 37375 - Air Plan Approval; KY; Miscellaneous Source Specific Revisions for Jefferson County | |
82 FR 37379 - Air Plan Approval; Florida; Permitting Revisions | |
82 FR 37378 - Air Plan Approval; SC: Revisions to New Source Review Rules | |
82 FR 37299 - Air Plan Approval; SC: Revisions to New Source Review Rules | |
82 FR 37310 - Air Plan Approval; Florida: Infrastructure Requirements for the 2010 NO2 | |
82 FR 37378 - Air Plan Approval; Florida: Infrastructure Requirements for the 2010 NO2 | |
82 FR 37374 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Pennsylvania; Revision to Allegheny County Regulations for Open Burning | |
82 FR 37316 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Pennsylvania; Revision to Allegheny County Regulations for Open Burning | |
82 FR 37307 - Air Plan Approval; Alaska: Infrastructure Requirements for the 2008 Lead National Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
82 FR 37308 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Reasonably Available Control Technology for Oxides of Nitrogen for Specific Sources in the State of New Jersey | |
82 FR 37369 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Onida, SD | |
82 FR 37327 - Definitions; Cost Standards and Procedures; Purchasing and Property Management | |
82 FR 37509 - Reports, Forms, and Record Keeping Requirements: Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review | |
82 FR 37398 - 2017-2018 Refuge-Specific Hunting and Sport Fishing Regulations | |
82 FR 37366 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 37360 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
82 FR 37345 - Video Description: Implementation of the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010 |
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Census Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Coast Guard
Fish and Wildlife Service
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Notification of educational meeting.
The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is announcing an educational meeting to discuss the enforcement and implementation of the Final Rule, “Mandatory Inspection of Fish of the Order Siluriformes and Products Derived from Such Fish.” Fish of the order Siluriformes include fish of several families, including catfish (fish of the family Ictaluridae), basa, tra, and swai (fish of the family Pangasiidae), and clarias (fish of the Clariidae family). FSIS will present information on the upcoming full implementation of the regulatory requirements at official domestic establishments that process Siluriformes fish and fish products, as well as information on entry procedures and reinspection at official import inspection establishments. FSIS is particularly interested in soliciting participation from representatives from domestic wild-caught operations that process Siluriformes fish and fish products.
The primary objectives of the meeting are to provide updated information to stakeholders and to encourage dialogue between FSIS and the Siluriformes fish industry. Affected industry and interested individuals, organizations, and other stakeholders are invited to participate in the meetings.
The meeting will be held in Memphis, TN, on Thursday, August 24, 2017; 9 a.m.-3 p.m. CT.
The meeting will be held at the Holiday Inn Memphis Airport and Convention Center located at 2240 Democrat Rd., Memphis, TN 38132. For directions and parking instructions, please visit:
Evelyn Arce, Outreach and Partnership Division, Office of Outreach, Employee Education and Training, FSIS, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Mail Stop 3778, Washington, DC 20250; Telephone: (202) 418-8903; Fax: (202) 690-6519; Email:
Questions regarding the mandatory inspection of fish of the order Siluriformes and products derived from such fish may be directed to
Further information on these meetings will be posted on FSIS Web site at:
The final rule may be accessed from the FSIS Web site at:
The cutoff dates for pre-registration is August 22, 2017.
On December 2, 2015, FSIS published the final rule to establish a mandatory inspection program for fish of the order Siluriformes and products derived from these fish (80 FR 75590). The final rule and other resources and information on Siluriformes fish can be found on the FSIS “Inspection Program For Siluriformes Fish, Including Catfish” Web page:
The final rule was effective March 1, 2016; however, the Agency provided an 18-month transitional period until September 1, 2017, to give domestic establishments time to prepare and comply with the final regulations. The transitional period also provided foreign countries with time to submit the documentation necessary to continue exporting Siluriformes fish and fish products to the United States and to show that they have equivalent inspection systems.
FSIS began inspecting domestic establishments on March 1, 2016, and began selecting imported Siluriformes fish shipments for reinspection on April 15, 2016. During the transitional period, FSIS inspection personnel have exercised broad discretion in enforcing the regulatory requirements, focusing primarily on preventing adulterated or misbranded Siluriformes fish and fish products from entering commerce.
As of August 2, 2017, to abide with direction from Congress, all shipments of imported Siluriformes fish and fish products entering the United States must be presented at an Official Import Inspection Establishment for reinspection by FSIS personnel. Specifically, the explanatory statement accompanying the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2017, Public Law 115-31 Stat. 135, enacted May 5, 2017, directed FSIS to immediately begin reinspecting all imported Siluriformes fish and fish product shipments
FSIS held a series of domestic and import educational meetings when the final rule initially published in December 2015. In June and July 2017, FSIS held additional educational meetings in Richmond, VA, and Baltimore, MD. FSIS has gained significant insight into the domestic and importing Siluriformes fish industries during the transitional period. FSIS is announcing this educational meeting to provide collect more information and to provide updates regarding full implementation of the regulatory requirements.
In addition, the Agency is interested in exchanging information with operations that process wild-caught Siluriformes fish and fish products, and encourages representatives and parties involved in this industry to attend the
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.), should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain models of Lycoming Engines reciprocating engines. This AD requires an inspection of connecting rods and replacement of affected connecting rod small end bushings. This AD was prompted by several reports of connecting rod failures resulting in uncontained engine failure and in-flight shutdowns (IFSDs). We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective August 15, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of August 15, 2017.
We must receive comments on this AD by September 25, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Lycoming Engines, 652 Oliver Street, Williamsport, PA 17701; phone: 800-258-3279; fax: 570-327-7101; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Norman Perenson, Aerospace Engineer, New York ACO Branch, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: 516-228-7337; fax: 516-794-5531; email:
We have received 5 reports of uncontained engine failures and IFSDs due to failed connecting rods on various models of Lycoming Engines reciprocating engines listed in Table 1 of Lycoming Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017, that were overhauled or repaired using any replacement part listed in Table 2 of Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017,
Lycoming Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017. The MSB describes procedures for inspecting connecting rods and replacing connecting rod small end bushings. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between the AD and the Service Information”.
Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017 requires you to complete an online survey at
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because compliance is required within 10 operating hours. Therefore, we find that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety and was not preceded by notice and an opportunity for public comment. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD affects 778 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these replacements:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to engines, propellers, and associated appliances to the Manager, Engine and Propeller Standards Branch, Policy and Innovation Division.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective August 15, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to:
(1) All Lycoming Engines reciprocating engines listed in Table 1 of Lycoming Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017, and
(2) all Lycoming Engines reciprocating engines that were overhauled or repaired using any replacement part listed in Table 2 of Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017, which was shipped from Lycoming Engines during the dates listed in Table 2 of Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 8520, Reciprocating Engine Power Section.
This AD was prompted by several reports of connecting rod failures resulting in uncontained engine failure and in-flight shutdowns (IFSDs). We are issuing this AD to prevent connecting rod failure. The unsafe condition, if not corrected, could result in uncontained engine failure, total engine power loss, IFSD, and possible loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) For all affected engines, within 10 operating hours after the effective date of this AD, inspect all affected connecting rods as specified in Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017, except for the instruction to complete the online survey and the instruction to review your inventory.
(2) Replace all connecting rods that fail the inspection required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD with parts eligible for installation.
After the effective date of this AD:
(1) Do not install any Lycoming Engines reciprocating engine that was overhauled or repaired using any replacement part listed in Table 2 of Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017, which was shipped from Lycoming Engines during the dates listed in Table 2 of Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017, and
(2) do not install any part listed in Table 2 of Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017 into any Lycoming Engines reciprocating engine.
You may take credit for the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD if you performed those actions before the effective date of this AD using Lycoming Engines MSB No. 632A, dated July 23, 2017 or earlier versions.
(1) The Manager, New York ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
For more information about this AD, contact Norman Perenson, Aerospace Engineer, New York ACO Branch, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: 516-228-7337; fax: 516-794-5531; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Lycoming Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin No. 632B, dated August 4, 2017.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Lycoming Engines service information identified in this AD, contact Lycoming Engines, 652 Oliver Street, Williamsport, PA 17701; phone: 800-258-3279; fax: 570-327-7101; Internet:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Engine and Propeller Standards Branch. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Washington Street S136 Bridge across the Norwalk River, mile 0.0 at Norwalk, Connecticut. This deviation is necessary to facilitate electrical repairs and will allow the owner to temporarily close the draw for a period not to exceed 10 hours.
This deviation is effective from 7 p.m. on August 14, 2017 through 5 a.m. on August 15, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0761, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email James M. Moore, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 212-514-4334, email
The owner of the bridge, the Connecticut Department of Transportation, requested a temporary deviation in order to facilitate repair and replacement of electrical conduits controlling span power lock and control.
The Washington Street S136 Bridge across the Norwalk River, mile 0.0 at Norwalk, Connecticut is a double-leaf bascule bridge with a vertical clearance of 9 feet at mean high water and 16 feet at mean low water in the closed position. The existing drawbridge operating regulations are listed at 33 CFR 117.217(a).
The temporary deviation will allow the Washington Street S136 Bridge to remain closed from 7 p.m. on August 14, 2017 through 5 a.m. on August 15, 2017. The waterway is used primarily by seasonal recreational vessels and occasional tug/barge traffic. Coordination with waterway users has indicated no objections to the proposed short-term closure of the draw.
Vessels that can pass under the bridge without an opening may do so at all times. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies. There is no alternate route for vessels to pass.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone for the Superior Man Triathlon in Duluth, MN from 5:30 a.m. through 10 a.m. on August 27, 2017. This action is necessary to protect participants and spectators during the Superior Man Triathlon. During the enforcement period, entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Duluth or her designated on-scene representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.943(b) will be enforced from 5:30 a.m. through 10 a.m. on August 27, 2017, for the Superior Man Triathlon safety zone, § 165.943(a)(8).
If you have questions on this notice of enforcement, call or email LT John Mack, Chief of Waterways Management, Coast Guard; telephone (218) 725-3818, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone for the annual Superior Man Triathlon in 33 CFR 165.943(a)(8) from 5:30 a.m. through 10 a.m. on August 27, 2017, on all waters of the Duluth Harbor Basin, Northern Section, including the Duluth entry encompassed in an imaginary line beginning at point 46°46′36.12″ N. 092°06′06.99″ W., running southeast to 46°46′32.75″ N. 092°06′01.74″ W., running northeast to 46°46′45.92″ N. 092°05′45.18″ W., running northwest to 46°46′49.47″ N. 092°05′49.35″ W. and finally running southwest to the starting point.
Entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Duluth or her designated on-scene representative. The Captain of the Port's designated on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16 or via telephone at (218) 529-3100.
This document is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.943 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this publication in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve changes to the South Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP) to revise New Source Review (NSR) regulations. EPA is approving portions of SIP revisions submitted by the State of South Carolina, through the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SC DHEC), on the following dates: July 18, 2011, April 10, 2014, August 12, 2015, and
This direct final rule is effective October 10, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by September 11, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0547 at
D. Brad Akers, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Akers can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9089 or via electronic mail at
On July 18, 2011, April 10, 2014, August 12, 2015, and January 20, 2016, SC DHEC submitted SIP revisions to EPA for approval that involve changes to South Carolina's NSR permitting regulations to make them consistent with federal requirements for NSR permitting, correct typographical errors, make internal references consistent, and clarify certain provisions. In this action, EPA is approving certain portions of these SIP submissions that make changes to South Carolina's NSR regulations at SC DHEC Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7—“Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD),” and Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1—“Nonattainment New Source Review (NNSR),” which apply to the construction or modification of any major stationary source in areas designated as attainment or unclassifiable as required by part C of title I of the CAA, and in nonattainment areas as required by part D of title I of the CAA, respectively.
South Carolina's PSD regulations at Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7, were originally approved into the SIP on June 10, 1982 (47 FR 6017), with periodic revisions approved through April 3, 2013 (78 FR 19997). South Carolina's NNSR regulations at Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1, were conditionally approved into the SIP on June 2, 2008 (73 FR 31369), and were fully approved on June 23, 2011 (76 FR 36875).
South Carolina's July 18, 2011, SIP revision modifies the PSD regulations to make minor edits for internal consistency and modifies the NNSR regulations to reflect changes to the federal NNSR regulations at 40 CFR 51.165,
At this time, the Agency is not acting on changes included in the July 18, 2011, submittal to the following regulations in South Carolina's SIP: Regulation 61-62.1, Section I—“Definitions;” Regulation 61-62.1, Section II—“Permit Requirements;” Regulation 61-62.3—“Air Pollution Episodes;” Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 1—“Emissions from Fuel Burning Operations;” Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 4—“Emissions from Process Industries;” or Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 6—“Alternative Emission Limitation Options (Bubble).” EPA approved the changes to Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 2—“Ambient Air Quality Standards,” included in the July 18, 2011, submittal, on April 3, 2013 (78 FR 1994). EPA is not acting on the changes included in the April 10, 2014,
The August 12, 2015, submittal includes a change to South Carolina's NNSR regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1 at paragraph (d)(1)(C)(v)(b)(2) regarding the calculation of emission offsets. However, this change had previously been submitted to EPA on April 14, 2009, in response to a June 2, 2008, conditional approval of the NNSR program revisions (73 FR 31368), and was approved on June 23, 2011 (76 FR 36875). Therefore, this change is not presently before EPA for consideration.
EPA is not acting on the following changes originally included in the August 12, 2015, submittal because they have been withdrawn from EPA's consideration via a December 20, 2016, letter. The August 12, 2015, submittal originally included new language in Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7 at paragraphs (b)(30)(v) and (b)(34)(iii)(d) to exclude fugitive emissions from the determination of creditable emission increases and decreases. This submittal also originally included a revision to the definition of “best available control technology (BACT)” in Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7 at paragraph (b)(8), which reverted language in the definition to that included in a previous version of the South Carolina regulations. Both sets of revisions were withdrawn from EPA's consideration subsequent to the August 12, 2015, final submittal in the December 20, 2016, letter. Finally, a revision to the definition of “net emissions increase” in Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7 at paragraph (b)(34)(iii)(c) was withdrawn in a June 27, 2017, letter. Both the December 20, 2016, and June 27, 2017, letters are included in the docket for this action.
This direct final action will revise South Carolina's PSD and NNSR regulations in the SIP as described in Section III, below. Many of these changes are administrative in nature, including updating internal references and correcting typographical errors. The July 18, 2011, SIP revision also makes changes to the NNSR regulations to adopt provisions from EPA's Phase 2 Rule for ozone nonattainment areas. The April 10, 2014, submittal makes changes to PSD regulations to reflect EPA's PM
Part of South Carolina's July 18, 2011, SIP submittal to revise its NNSR regulations relates to EPA's Phase 2 Rule regarding updates to the implementation of the 1997 8-hour Ozone NAAQS. On November 29, 2005, EPA published the Phase 2 Rule, which addressed control and planning requirements as they applied to areas designated nonattainment for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS
On May 16, 2008, EPA finalized the rule entitled “Implementation of the New Source Review (NSR) Program for Particulate Matter Less Than 2.5 Micrometers (PM
In the NSR PM
On October 25, 2012, EPA finalized a rulemaking to amend the definition of “regulated NSR pollutant” promulgated in the NSR PM
South Carolina's July 18, 2011, SIP revision made changes to the PSD regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7, to make internal references consistent. These changes are made to Standard No. 7 at paragraphs (q)(2) and (q)(3)—“Public participation;” (r)(4)—“Source obligation;” and (w)(1)—“Permit rescission” and were state effective on May 27, 2011. EPA is approving these administrative edits to the SIP.
This SIP submittal also made changes to the NNSR regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1, at paragraph (c)(7)(A)(i), adopting thresholds in the definition of “major stationary source” for different classifications of ozone nonattainment areas (as codified at 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(iv)(A)(
EPA has concluded that incorporating these change into the SIP will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. The changes to Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7 are administrative in nature, and the changes to Standard No. 7.1 increase the number of sources potentially subject to NNSR permitting by establishing lower emissions thresholds.
South Carolina's April 10, 2014, SIP revision made changes to the definitions in the PSD regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7. The only changes that EPA is adopting from the April 10, 2014, submittal in this rulemaking are at paragraph (b)(44) regarding the definition of “regulated NSR pollutant.” These changes were state effective on December 27, 2013. This definition is revised to be consistent with the PM
A March 14, 2011, SIP submittal adopted provisions promulgated in the NSR PM
In today's action, EPA is approving the changes that remove the phrase “particulate matter (PM) emissions” and the term “PM” and that rearrange the formatting structure of the definition for consistency with the PM
The August 12, 2015, SIP revision modifies the definitions of “baseline actual emissions” and “projected actual emissions” in Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7 at paragraphs (b)(4)(i)(a), (b)(4)(ii)(a), and (b)(41)(ii)(b) and in Standard No. 7.1 at paragraphs (c)(2)(A)(i), (c)(2)(B)(i), and (c)(11)(B)(ii) to include emissions associated with “malfunctions” in determining PSD and NNSR applicability, respectively. These changes were state effective on June 26, 2015.
EPA added malfunction emissions to the federal definitions of “baseline actual emissions” and “projected actual emissions” as part of its NSR reform rules.
South Carolina's August 12, 2015, submittal seeks to add malfunction emissions to the definitions of “baseline actual emissions” and “projected actual emissions” in its SIP-approved PSD and NNSR regulations. The State retains the requirement that “baseline actual emissions” exclude any non-compliant emissions that occur while the source was operating above any emission limitation that was legally enforceable during the 24-month period used to calculate baseline emissions. EPA has concluded that incorporating these changes into the SIP will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. The State is
The August 12, 2015, submittal made other changes to the PSD regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7, to correct typographical errors, clarify certain provisions, and mirror Federal provisions. These changes are made to the following paragraphs: (a)(2)(iv)(f) Regarding “Applicability procedures;” (b)(5)(ii)(b), (b)(32)(i)(a), and (b)(34)(vi)(c) regarding the definitions of “baseline area,” “major stationary source,” and “net emissions increase,” respectively; (i)(8)(ii) and (i)(10)—“Exemptions;” (m)(1)(i)(a) regarding “Air quality analysis;” (n)(1) regarding “Source information;” (u)(4) regarding class III areas; and (aa)(6)(ii) and (aa)(8)(ii)(b)(2) regarding “Actuals [Plantwide Applicability Limits] PALs.” The August 12, 2015, submittal made other changes to the NNSR regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1, at paragraph (i)(6)(ii) regarding “Actuals PALs” for consistency with Federal regulations. EPA is approving these changes to the SIP with the exception of the change to Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7, paragraph (b)(32)(i)(a) as noted in Section I, above. EPA has concluded that incorporating these changes into the SIP will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. These changes are primarily administrative and do not substantively impact applicability requirements or emissions from subject units.
The January 20, 2016, submittal made changes to the NNSR regulation, Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1, only to correct typographical errors and to make internal references consistent. These changes, state effective on November 27, 2015, are made to paragraphs (c)(6)(C)(v)(a) and (c)(7)(A)(i)(d) regarding the definitions of “major modification” and “major stationary source;” and paragraph (d)(1)(C)(viii) regarding “Permitting requirements.” EPA is approving these changes to the SIP. EPA has concluded that incorporating these changes into the SIP will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the CAA because the changes are administrative in nature.
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the SC DHEC regulatory paragraphs identified above in Section III within SC DHEC Regulation No. 61-62.5, Standard No. 7, entitled “Prevention of Significant Deterioration,” state effective on May 27, 2011 (paragraphs identified in Section III.A, above), December 27, 2013 (paragraphs identified in Section III.B, above), and June 26, 2015 (paragraphs identified in Section III.C, above), and the SC DHEC regulatory paragraphs identified above in Section III within Standard No. 7.1, entitled “Nonattainment New Source Review,” state effective on May 27, 2011 (paragraphs identified in Section III.A, above), June 26, 2015 (paragraphs identified in Section III.C, above), and November 27, 2015 (paragraphs identified in Section III.D, above). Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update to the SIP compilation.
EPA is approving the changes to the SIP identified in Section III, above, because they are consistent with the CFR and the CAA. EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial submittal and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a document withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All adverse comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. EPA will not institute a second comment period. Parties interested in commenting should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on October 10, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule. Please note that if we receive adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, we may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this direct final action for the State of South Carolina does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because it does not have substantial direct effects on an Indian Tribe. The Catawba Indian Nation Reservation is located within the state of South Carolina. Pursuant to the Catawba Indian Claims Settlement Act, S.C. Code Ann. 27-16-120, “all state and local environmental laws and regulations apply to the [Catawba Indian Nation] and Reservation and are fully enforceable by all relevant state and local agencies and authorities.” EPA notes this action will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a revision to the District of Columbia state implementation plan (SIP) submitted by the District of Columbia (the District) through the District of Columbia Department of Energy and Environment (DOEE). The District's SIP submittal addresses requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA) and EPA's rules that require states to submit periodic reports describing progress towards reasonable progress goals (RPGs) established for regional haze and a determination of the adequacy of the state's existing SIP addressing regional haze (regional haze SIP). No comments were received in response to EPA's proposed rulemaking action published on May 30, 2017. EPA is approving the District's SIP submittal because EPA has determined that it satisfactorily addresses the progress report and adequacy determination requirements for the first implementation period for regional haze.
This final rule is effective on September 11, 2017.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0267. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sara Calcinore, (215) 814-2043, or by email at
On May 30, 2017 (82 FR 24617), EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) for the District. In the NPRM, EPA proposed approval of the District's regional haze five-year progress report SIP, a report on progress towards RPGs, for the first implementation period. This progress report SIP and accompanying cover letter also included a determination that the District's existing regional haze SIP requires no substantive revision to achieve the established regional haze visibility improvement and emissions reduction goals for 2018. No comments were received in response to EPA's proposed rulemaking notice.
States were required to submit, in the form of a SIP revision, a progress report every five years that evaluates progress towards the RPGs for each mandatory Class I Federal area within the state and in each mandatory Class I Federal area outside the state which may be affected by emissions from within the state.
On March 2, 2016, the District submitted a SIP revision to address progress made towards RPGs. This progress report SIP submittal also included a determination of the adequacy of the District's existing regional haze SIP.
The provisions in 40 CFR 51.308(g) require a progress report SIP to address seven elements. EPA finds that the District's progress report SIP addressed each element under 40 CFR 51.308(g). The seven elements and EPA's conclusion are briefly summarized later in this preamble; however, the detailed rationale for EPA's action is explained in the NPR and will not be restated here.
The provisions in 40 CFR 51.308(g) require progress reports SIPs to include a description of the status of measures in the approved regional haze SIP; a summary of emissions reductions achieved; an assessment of visibility conditions for each Class I area in the state; an analysis of changes in emissions from source and activities within the state; an assessment of any significant changes in anthropogenic emissions within or outside the state that have limited or impeded progress in Class I areas impacted by the state's sources; an assessment of the sufficiency of the approved regional haze SIP; and a review of the state's visibility monitoring strategy. As explained in detail in the NPR, EPA finds that the District's progress report SIP submittal addressed each element and has therefore satisfied the requirements under 40 CFR 51.308(g).
In addition, pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(h), states are required to submit, at the same time as the progress report submission, a determination of the adequacy of their existing regional haze SIP and to take one of four possible actions based on information in the progress report. One possible action is submission of a negative declaration to EPA that no further substantive revision to the state's existing regional haze SIP is needed. In its progress report, the District submitted a negative declaration that it had determined that the existing regional haze SIP requires no substantive revision to achieve the RPGs for Class I areas. As explained in detail in the NPR, EPA concludes that the District adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(h) because decreasing emissions of visibility impairing pollutants, lack of Class I area impact from pollution sources within the District,
In accordance with section 110 of the CAA, EPA is approving the District's regional haze five-year progress report SIP revision, submitted on March 2, 2016, as meeting the applicable regional haze requirements set forth in 40 CFR 51.308(g) and (h).
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action to approve the District's regional haze five-year progress report SIP revision may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
Whenever a new or revised National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) is promulgated, each state must submit a plan for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of such standard, commonly referred to as infrastructure requirements. On July 9, 2012, Alaska submitted a plan to address the infrastructure requirements for the lead (Pb) NAAQS promulgated on October 15, 2008. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the plan as meeting Clean Air Act (CAA) requirements.
This final rule is effective September 11, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2017-0040. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Kristin Hall, Air Planning Unit, Office of Air and Waste (OAW-150), Environmental Protection Agency—Region 10, 1200 Sixth Ave., Seattle, WA 98101; telephone number: (206) 553-6357; email address:
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On July 9, 2012, Alaska submitted a SIP to meet the infrastructure requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for multiple NAAQS, including the Pb NAAQS. On May 31, 2017, the EPA proposed to approve the submission as meeting certain infrastructure requirements for the Pb NAAQS (82 FR 24914). Please see our proposed rulemaking for further explanation and the basis for our finding. The public comment period for this proposal ended on June 30, 2017. We received no comments.
The EPA is approving Alaska's July 9, 2012, SIP submission as meeting the following CAA section 110(a)(2) infrastructure elements for the 2008 Pb NAAQS: (A), (B), (C), (D)(i)(II), (D)(ii), (E), (F), (G), (H), (J), (K), (L), and (M). We note that this action does not address CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2008 Pb NAAQS, which was approved on August 4, 2014 (79 FR 45103).
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because this action does not involve technical standards; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under CAA section 307(b)(1), petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency.
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing approval of two revisions to the State Implementation Plan (SIP) for ozone submitted by the State of New Jersey. This SIP revision consists of two source-specific reasonably available control technology (RACT) determinations for controlling oxides of nitrogen. One is for the Transcontinental Gas Pipeline Corp., LNG Station 240 located in Carlstadt, New Jersey and the other is for Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst in Lakehurst, New Jersey. This action approves the source-specific RACT determinations that were made by New Jersey in accordance with the provisions of its regulation to help meet the national ambient air quality standard for ozone. The intended effect of this rule is to approve source-specific emissions limitations required by the Clean Air Act.
This rule is effective on September 11, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R02-OAR-2016-0766. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Anthony (Ted) Gardella,
The EPA is approving two source-specific State Implementation Plans (SIP) revisions for ozone submitted by the State of New Jersey. These SIP revisions relate to New Jersey's oxides of nitrogen (NO
On May 8, 2017 (82 FR 21343), the EPA proposed to approve New Jersey's two source-specific SIP revisions addressing NO
The EPA has determined that New Jersey's two SIP revision for the NO
More specifically, the EPA approves the current Conditions of Approval document for the four water bath heaters (U7-U10) at the Transco-240 facility which includes the following limits:
1. The alternative NO
2. The total NO
3. The hours of operation for the four natural gas-fired water bath heaters shall be for a combined total of 1600 hours per year or less;
4. The four water bath heaters shall not be operated during the ozone season; and,
5. The flue gas recirculation control system shall operate at all times the heater is operating.
Also, the EPA approves the alternate emission limit compliance plan for the two natural gas-fired boilers (Nos 2 and 3) at the JB-MDL facility which includes the following limits:
1. An alternative NO
2. A decrease in natural gas use from 181.43 to 108.6 million cubic feet (MMft
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of: “Conditions of Approval, Alternative Emission Limit for NO
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(d) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency.
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a portion of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission, submitted by the State of Florida, through the Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP), on January 22, 2013, addressing a portion of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) infrastructure requirements for the 2010 1-hour nitrogen dioxide (NO
This direct final rule is effective October 10, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by September 11, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2014-0507 at
Andres Febres of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Febres can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-8966 or via electronic mail at
On January 22, 2013, FDEP submitted a SIP revision for EPA's approval addressing the CAA's infrastructure requirements for the 2010 1-hour NO
By statute, SIPs meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA are to be submitted by states within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the new or revised NAAQS. EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of Title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of section 169A of the CAA, and nonattainment new source review permit program submissions to address the permit requirements of CAA, Title I, part D.
Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) require states to address basic SIP elements such as requirements for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the newly established or revised NAAQS. More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for infrastructure SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for the infrastructure SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. The content of an infrastructure SIP submission may vary depending upon the data and analytical tools available to the state, as well as the provisions already contained in the state's implementation plan at the time in which the state develops and submits the submission for a new or revised NAAQS.
On January 22, 2010, EPA established a new 1-hour primary NAAQS for NO
States were required to submit infrastructure SIP submissions for the 2010 1-hour NO
The requirement for states to make a SIP submission of this type arises out of
Section 110(a)(1) addresses the timing and general requirements for infrastructure SIP submissions and section 110(a)(2) provides more details concerning the required contents of these submissions. The list of required elements provided in section 110(a)(2) contains a wide variety of disparate provisions, some of which pertain to required legal authority, some of which pertain to required substantive program provisions, and some of which pertain to requirements for both authority and substantive program provisions.
The following examples of ambiguities illustrate the need for EPA to interpret some section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) requirements with respect to infrastructure SIP submissions for a given new or revised NAAQS. One example of ambiguity is that section 110(a)(2) requires that “each” SIP submission must meet the list of requirements therein, while EPA has long noted that this literal reading of the statute is internally inconsistent and would create a conflict with the nonattainment provisions in part D of Title I of the CAA, which specifically address nonattainment SIP requirements.
Another example of ambiguity within section 110(a)(1) and (2) with respect to infrastructure SIPs pertains to whether states must meet all of the infrastructure SIP requirements in a single SIP submission, and whether EPA must act upon such SIP submission in a single action. Although section 110(a)(1) directs states to submit “a plan” to meet these requirements, EPA interprets the CAA to allow states to make multiple SIP submissions separately addressing infrastructure SIP elements for the same NAAQS. If states elect to make such multiple SIP submissions to meet the infrastructure SIP requirements, EPA can elect to act on such submissions either individually or in a larger combined action.
Ambiguities within section 110(a)(1) and (2) may also arise with respect to infrastructure SIP submission requirements for different NAAQS. Thus, EPA notes that not every element of section 110(a)(2) would be relevant, or as relevant, or relevant in the same way, for each new or revised NAAQS. The states' attendant infrastructure SIP submissions for each NAAQS therefore could be different. For example, the monitoring requirements that a state might need to meet in its infrastructure SIP submission for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(B) could be very different for different pollutants, because the content and scope of a state's infrastructure SIP submission to meet this element might be very different for an entirely new NAAQS than for a minor revision to an existing NAAQS.
EPA notes that interpretation of section 110(a)(2) is also necessary when EPA reviews other types of SIP submissions required under the CAA. Therefore, as with infrastructure SIP submissions, EPA also has to identify and interpret the relevant elements of section 110(a)(2) that logically apply to these other types of SIP submissions. For example, section 172(c)(7) requires attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D to meet the “applicable requirements” of section 110(a)(2); thus, attainment plan SIP submissions must meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) regarding enforceable emission limits and control measures and section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) regarding air agency resources and authority. By contrast, it is clear that attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D would not need to meet the portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) that pertains to the
Given the potential for ambiguity in some of the statutory language of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2), EPA believes that it is appropriate to interpret the ambiguous portions of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) in the context of acting on a particular SIP submission. In other words, EPA assumes that Congress could not have intended that each and every SIP submission, regardless of the NAAQS in question or the history of SIP development for the relevant pollutant, would meet each of the requirements, or meet each of them in the same way. Therefore, EPA has adopted an approach under which it reviews infrastructure SIP submissions against the list of elements in section 110(a)(2), but only to the extent each element applies for that particular NAAQS.
Historically, EPA has elected to use guidance documents to make recommendations to states for infrastructure SIPs, in some cases conveying needed interpretations on newly arising issues and in some cases conveying interpretations that have already been developed and applied to individual SIP submissions for particular elements.
As an example, section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) is a required element of section 110(a)(2) for infrastructure SIP submissions. Under this element, a state must meet the substantive requirements of section 128, which pertain to state boards that approve permits or enforcement orders and heads of executive agencies with similar powers. Thus, EPA reviews infrastructure SIP submissions to ensure that the state's implementation plan appropriately addresses the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) and section 128. The 2013 Guidance explains EPA's interpretation that there may be a variety of ways by which states can appropriately address these substantive statutory requirements, depending on the structure of an individual state's permitting or enforcement program (
As another example, EPA's review of infrastructure SIP submissions with respect to the PSD program requirements in section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), and (J) focuses upon the structural PSD program requirements contained in part C and EPA's PSD regulations. Structural PSD program requirements include provisions necessary for the PSD program to address all regulated sources and new source review (NSR) pollutants, including Greenhouse Gases. By contrast, structural PSD program requirements do not include provisions that are not required under EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.166 but are merely available as an option for the state, such as the option to provide grandfathering of complete permit applications with respect to the Particulate Matter 2.5 (PM
For other section 110(a)(2) elements, however, EPA's review of a state's infrastructure SIP submission focuses on assuring that the state's SIP meets basic structural requirements. For example, section 110(a)(2)(C) includes,
With respect to certain other issues, EPA does not believe that an action on a state's infrastructure SIP submission is necessarily the appropriate type of action in which to address possible deficiencies in a state's existing SIP. These issues include: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions from sources during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction (SSM) that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions;
EPA's approach to review of infrastructure SIP submissions is to identify the CAA requirements that are logically applicable to that submission. EPA believes that this approach to the review of a particular infrastructure SIP submission is appropriate, because it would not be reasonable to read the general requirements of section 110(a)(1) and the list of elements in section 110(a)(2) as requiring review of each and every provision of a state's existing SIP against all requirements in the CAA and EPA regulations merely for purposes of assuring that the state in question has the basic structural elements for a functioning SIP for a new or revised NAAQS. Because SIPs have grown by accretion over the decades as statutory and regulatory requirements under the CAA have evolved, they may include some outmoded provisions and historical artifacts. These provisions, while not fully up to date, nevertheless may not pose a significant problem for the purposes of “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of a new or revised NAAQS when EPA evaluates adequacy of the infrastructure SIP submission. EPA believes that a better approach is for states and EPA to focus attention on those elements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA most likely to warrant a specific SIP revision due to the promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS or other factors.
For example, EPA's 2013 Guidance gives simpler recommendations with respect to carbon monoxide than other NAAQS pollutants to meet the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), because carbon monoxide does not affect visibility. As a result, an infrastructure SIP submission for any future new or revised NAAQS for carbon monoxide need only state this fact in order to address the visibility prong of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II).
Finally, EPA believes that its approach with respect to infrastructure SIP requirements is based on a reasonable reading of section 110(a)(1) and (2) because the CAA provides other avenues and mechanisms to address specific substantive deficiencies in existing SIPs. These other statutory tools allow EPA to take appropriately tailored action, depending upon the nature and severity of the alleged SIP deficiency. Section 110(k)(5) authorizes EPA to issue a “SIP call” whenever the Agency determines that a state's SIP is substantially inadequate to attain or maintain the NAAQS, to mitigate interstate transport, or to otherwise comply with the CAA.
Section 110(k)(6) authorizes EPA to correct errors in past actions, such as past approvals of SIP submissions.
Section 110(a)(2)(B) requires SIPs to provide for establishment and operation of appropriate devices, methods, systems, and procedures necessary to: (i) Monitor, compile, and analyze data on ambient air quality, and (ii) upon request, make such data available to the Administrator. In its January 22, 2013, SIP infrastructure submittal, Florida cites F.A.C. Chapters 62-204, 62-210, 62-212 as establishing requirements for the use of Federal Reference Method or equivalent monitors and provides authority for FDEP to establish monitoring requirements through SIP-approved permits. In addition, states develop and submit to EPA for approval annual statewide ambient monitoring network plans consistent with the requirements of 40 CFR parts 50, 53, and 58. The annual network plan involves an evaluation of any proposed changes to the monitoring network, includes the annual ambient monitoring network design plan, and includes a certified evaluation of the agency's ambient monitors and auxiliary support equipment.
EPA is taking a direct final action to approve a portion of Florida's January 22, 2013, SIP submission addressing the CAA infrastructure requirements for the 2010 1-hour NO
EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial submittal and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a document withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All adverse public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. EPA will not institute a second comment period. Parties interested in commenting should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on October 10, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 10, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania state implementation plan (SIP). The revisions update Allegheny County's portion of the Pennsylvania SIP, which includes regulations concerning open burning. Pennsylvania submitted updated regulations, on behalf of Allegheny County, which clarify and codify existing regulations in order to more effectively address emissions from open burning and protect public health. EPA is approving the SIP submittal of Allegheny County's regulations for open burning in accordance with the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This rule is effective on November 8, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse written comment by September 11, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0204 at
Gregory A. Becoat, (215) 814-2036, or by email at
On June 25, 2015, the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania through the Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection submitted a formal revision to the Pennsylvania SIP. The SIP revision consists of amended versions of Allegheny County Health Department's (ACHD) regulations under Article XXI (Air Pollution Control), section 2101.20, “Definitions,” and section 2105.50, “Open Burning.” Allegheny County does not currently meet the federal air quality standards for fine particulate matter under 2.5 microns in size (PM
In the June 25, 2015 SIP submittal, Pennsylvania included revisions to Article XXI, sections 2101.20 and 2105.50 with a state effective date of January 1, 2015. The revision to section 2101.20 (Definitions) under Article XXI amends the definition of “open burning” to additionally include any fire or combustion that occurs in a chiminea, fire pit, outdoor fireplace or grill. The revisions to section 2105.50 (Open Burning) under Article XXI consist of the following: (1) Limit any open burning to clean wood, propane, or natural gas, and establishes specific exceptions to the limits; (2) limit the volume of clean wood being burned and limiting the distance permitted between open burning locations and inhabited areas; (3) establish the exceptions to burning clean wood for chimineas, fire pits, outdoor fireplaces and grills. These exceptions pertain to the use of charcoal, propane, or natural gas when pertaining to cooking, the use of commercially available fire logs, paraffin logs and wood pellets, and the use of paper or commercial smokeless fire starters to start an allowed fire; (4) prohibit wood burning activities on air quality action days, with the exception of commercial food preparation; (5) allow ACHD to prohibit or reduce open burning based on severity, duration, topography, and meteorological conditions; (6) restrict open burning activities on air quality action days, with the exception of conducting such burning for the commercial preparation of food; and (7) make the necessary
These SIP revisions further address emissions from open burning, which should reduce PM
EPA is approving the Pennsylvania June 2015 SIP submittal which contained revised provisions of ACHD's Article XXI (Air Pollution Control), section 2101.20, “Definitions,” and section 2105.50, “Open Burning” as the revisions meet requirements in CAA section 110. EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because EPA views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comment. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of today's
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of section 2101.20 and section 2105.50 under Article XXI (Air Pollution Control). Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update of the SIP compilation.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 8, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The addition and revision read as follows:
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Withdrawal of extension of deadline for promulgating designations.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing that it is withdrawing the 1-year extension of the deadline for promulgating initial area designations for the ozone national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) that were promulgated in October 2015. Thus, unless and until the Administrator takes additional final action, the 2-year deadline for promulgating designations provided in the Clean Air Act (CAA) applies.
The deadline for the EPA to promulgate initial designations for the 2015 ozone NAAQS is October 1, 2017.
For questions regarding this action, contact
Entities potentially affected by this action include state, local and tribal governments that would participate in the initial area designation process for the 2015 ozone standards.
The EPA has established a docket for designations for the 2015 ozone NAAQS under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2017-0223. All documents in the docket are listed in the
An electronic copy of this notice is also available at
On October 1, 2015, the EPA signed a notice of final rulemaking that revised the 8-hour primary and secondary ozone NAAQS (80 FR 65292; October 26, 2015). Both standards were lowered from 0.075 parts per million (ppm) to a level of 0.070 ppm.
After the EPA establishes or revises a NAAQS pursuant to CAA section 109, the CAA directs the EPA and the states to begin taking steps to ensure that those NAAQS are met. The first step is to identify areas of the country that meet or do not meet that NAAQS. This step is known as the initial area designations. Section 107(d)(1)(A) of the CAA provides that, “By such date as the Administrator may reasonably require, but not later than 1 year after promulgation of a new or revised national ambient air quality standard for any pollutant under section [109], the Governor of each State shall * * * submit to the Administrator a list of all areas (or portions thereof) in the State” that designates those areas as nonattainment, attainment, or unclassifiable.
The CAA further provides, “Upon promulgation or revision of a national ambient air quality standard, the Administrator shall promulgate the designations of all areas (or portions thereof) * * * as expeditiously as practicable, but in no case later than 2 years from the date of promulgation of the new or revised national ambient air quality standard. Such period may be extended for up to one year in the event the Administrator has insufficient information to promulgate the designations.” 42 U.S.C. 7407(d)(1)(B)(i).
In the EPA guidance, “Area Designations for the 2015 Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards,” the EPA indicated it expected to complete the initial area designations by October 1, 2017, consistent with the statutory requirement that the EPA designate areas no later than 2 years following promulgation of a revised NAAQS.
In letters sent to states on June 6, 2017, and in a
The EPA has continued to discuss and work with states concerning designations, and now understands that the information gaps that formed the basis of the extension may not be as expansive as we previously believed. The EPA now intends to reassess whether there are areas with underlying technical issues, whether there are state designation recommendations that the EPA intends to modify, and whether for any area there is insufficient information to promulgate the designation. The EPA believes this reevaluation will help ensure that more Americans are living and working in areas that meet national air quality standards. The agency believes that there may be areas of the United States for which designations could be promulgated in the next few months. Therefore, the EPA is withdrawing its prior announced 1-year extension of the deadline for promulgating initial area designations for the 2015 ozone NAAQS, and the 2-year deadline for promulgating designations provided in section 107(d)(1)(B) of the CAA applies. The Administrator may still determine that an extension of time to complete designations is necessary, but is not making such a determination at this time.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
Delaware has applied to the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for final authorization of revisions to its hazardous waste program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). EPA has determined that these revisions satisfy all requirements needed to qualify for final authorization and is authorizing Delaware's revisions through this direct final rule. In the “Proposed Rules” section of this issue of the
This final authorization will become effective on October 10, 2017, unless EPA receives adverse written comments by September 11, 2017. If EPA receives any such comments, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of this direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-RCRA-2014-0407, at
Evelyn Sorto, U.S. EPA Region III, RCRA Waste Branch, Mailcode 3LC32, 1650 Arch Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103-2029; Phone: (215) 814-2123; Email:
States that have received final authorization from EPA under RCRA section 3006(b), 42 U.S.C. 6926(b), must maintain a hazardous waste program that is equivalent to, consistent with, and no less stringent than the Federal program. As the Federal program is revised to become more stringent or broader in scope, States must revise their programs and apply to EPA to authorize the revisions. Authorization of revisions to State programs may be necessary when Federal or State statutory or regulatory authority is modified or when certain other revisions occur. Most commonly, States must revise their programs because of revisions to EPA's regulations in 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 124, 260 through 266, 268, 270, 273 and 279.
On August 19, 2016, Delaware submitted a final program revision application (with subsequent corrections) seeking authorization of revisions to its hazardous waste program that correspond to certain Federal rules promulgated between July 30, 2003 and July 28, 2006. EPA concludes that Delaware's application to revise its authorized program meets all of the statutory and regulatory requirements established by RCRA, as set forth in RCRA section 3006(b), 42 U.S.C. 6926(b), and 40 CFR part 271. Therefore, EPA grants Delaware final authorization to operate its hazardous waste program with the revisions described in its authorization application, and as outlined below in Section G of this document.
Delaware has responsibility for permitting treatment, storage, and disposal facilities (TSDFs) within its borders and for carrying out the aspects of the RCRA program described in its application, subject to the limitations of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (HSWA). New Federal requirements and prohibitions imposed by Federal regulations that EPA promulgates under the authority of HSWA take effect in authorized States before they are authorized for the requirements. Thus, EPA will implement those HSWA requirements and prohibitions for which Delaware has not been authorized, including issuing HSWA permits, until the State is granted authorization to do so.
This action serves to authorize revisions to Delaware's authorized hazardous waste program. This action does not impose additional requirements on the regulated community because the regulations for which Delaware is being authorized by this action are already effective and are not changed by this action. Delaware has enforcement responsibilities under its state hazardous waste program for violations of its program, but EPA retains its authority under RCRA sections 3007, 3008, 3013, and 7003, which include, among others, authority to:
• Perform inspections, and require monitoring, tests, analyses or reports;
• Enforce RCRA requirements and suspend or revoke permits; and
• Take enforcement actions regardless of whether Delaware has taken its own actions.
Along with this direct final rule, EPA is publishing a separate document in the “Proposed Rules” section of this issue of the
If EPA receives comments that oppose this authorization, EPA will withdraw this direct final rule by publishing a document in the
If EPA receives comments that oppose only the authorization of a particular revision to the State's hazardous waste program, EPA will withdraw that part of this rule, but the authorization of the program revisions that the comments do not oppose will become effective on the date specified above. The
Delaware initially received final authorization effective June 22, 1984 (June 8, 1984; 49 FR 23837). EPA granted authorization for revisions to Delaware's regulatory program on August 8, 1996, effective October 7, 1996 (61 FR 41345); August 18, 1998, effective October 19, 1998 (63 FR 44152); July 12, 2000, effective September 11, 2000 (65 FR 42871); August 8, 2002, effective August 8, 2002 (67 FR 51478); March 4, 2004, effective May 3, 2004 (69 FR 10171); and October 7, 2004, effective December 6, 2004 (69 FR 60091).
On August 19, 2016, Delaware submitted a final program revision application (with subsequent corrections), seeking authorization of additional revisions to its program in accordance with 40 CFR 271.21. Delaware's revision application includes various regulations that are equivalent to, and no less stringent than, selected Federal final hazardous waste rules, as published in the
EPA now makes a direct final rule, subject to receipt of written comments that oppose this action, that Delaware's hazardous waste program revision application satisfies all of the requirements necessary to qualify for final authorization. Therefore, EPA grants Delaware final authorization for the following program revisions:
Delaware seeks authority to administer the Federal requirements that are listed in Table 1 below. This table lists the Delaware analogs that have been revised; these revisions are being recognized as no less stringent than the analogous Federal requirements.
Delaware's regulatory references are to Delaware's Regulations Governing Hazardous Waste (DRGHW), amended and effective August 21, 2006, December 21, 2007, December 21, 2008, May 21, 2009, and April 21, 2016. Additionally, there are some minor corrections that were promulgated and became effective on or before April 21, 2016. The statutory references are to 7 Delaware Code annotated (1991).
Delaware's program revision application includes State-initiated changes that are not directly related to any of the Revision Checklists in Table 1. These State-initiated revisions to some of Delaware's existing regulations are for the purposes of correcting errors and adding consistency or clarification to the existing regulations. EPA has evaluated the changes and has determined that the State's regulations remain consistent with, and are no less stringent than, the corresponding Federal regulations. EPA grants Delaware final authorization for the State provisions listed in Table 2. The following State-initiated revisions are
The Delaware hazardous waste program contains certain provisions that are broader in scope than the Federal program. These broader in scope provisions are not part of the program being authorized by this action. EPA cannot enforce requirements that are broader in scope, although compliance with such provisions is required by Delaware law. Examples of broader in scope provisions of Delaware's program include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) DRGHW 260.10 includes the definition of “cathode ray tube (CRT) generator,” which is not found in the Federal regulations. Furthermore, the definition of “CRT processing” found at DRGHW 260.10, and the requirements at DRGHW 261.39, DRGHW 261.40, and DRGHW 261.4(b)(16)(i)-(iii), contain language regarding the management of cathode ray tubes as a solid waste. Under the Federal requirements, used CRTs that meet certain conditions are not a solid waste and would not be regulated. Delaware continues to regulate those used CRTs even if they meet the Federal exclusion requirements. As a result, Delaware's regulation of these excluded CRTs goes beyond the scope of the Federal program and is not a part of the Federally enforceable program.
(b) The Delaware regulations promulgated at DRGHW 263 Subpart E outline provisions for hazardous waste transporter permits. Because there is no counterpart in the Federal regulations that addresses hazardous waste transporter permits, this entire section (DRGHW 263 Subpart E) is broader in scope. Delaware has made changes to subparagraphs 263.102(b)(3) and (4) of DRGHW 263 Subpart E. These subparagraphs set forth conditions that could lead to the modification, denial, termination, or revocation of a hazardous waste transporter permit. There are no provisions in the Federal regulations that address the modification, denial, termination, or revocation of a hazardous waste transporter permit. As a result, these DRGHW provisions go beyond the scope of the Federal program.
Delaware's hazardous waste program contains several provisions that are more stringent than the RCRA program. The more stringent provisions are part of the Federally-authorized program and are, therefore, Federally-enforceable. The specific more stringent provisions are also noted in Table 1 and in Delaware's authorization application. They include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) The Federal regulations at 40 CFR 261.5(j) state that if a conditionally exempt small quantity generator's wastes are mixed with used oil, the mixture is subject to the “Standards for the Management of Used Oil.” However, Delaware's regulations at DRGHW 261.5(j) state that if a conditionally exempt small quantity generator's wastes are mixed with used oil, the mixture is subject to several standards including: the Hazardous Waste Management System; Identification and Listing of Hazardous Waste; Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste; Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste; Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities; Interim Status Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities; Standards for the Management of Specific Types of Hazardous Waste; Land Disposal Restrictions; the Hazardous Waste Permit Program; and Procedures for Decision Making. Because Delaware imposes additional standards on waste and used oil mixtures, Delaware's regulations are more stringent than the Federal requirements.
(b) DRGHW 261.41 includes more stringent requirements, at DRGHW 261.41(a), which are not found in 40 CFR 261.41. Specifically, the Delaware provision imposes additional requirements on used, intact Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) exported for reuse. When applied to CRTs that are regulated by the Federal requirements, the provisions at DRGHW 261.41(a) are more stringent than the Federal requirements.
(c) The Delaware regulations at DRGHW 262.12(d) require that a generator submit a “RCRA Subtitle C Site Identification Form” (EPA Form 8700-12) whenever there is a change in name, mailing address, contact person, contact address, telephone number, ownership, type of regulated waste activity, description of regulated wastes managed, or if the generator permanently ceases the regulated waste activity. This notification must be submitted to the DNREC Secretary no less than 10 days prior to the implementation of the change(s). The Federal regulations at 40 CFR 262.12 do not require the submission of a “RCRA Subtitle C Site Identification Form” (EPA Form 8700-12) whenever there is a change in name, mailing address, contact person, contact address, telephone number, ownership, type of regulated waste activity, description of regulated wastes managed, or if the generator permanently ceases the regulated waste activity. Therefore, this provision of Delaware's regulations is more stringent than the Federal requirement.
(d) The Federal requirements in 40 CFR 262.20 detail the procedures generators must follow when preparing a manifest. The paragraph at 40 CFR 262.20(e) includes conditions whereby generators that generate more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1000 kilograms
(e) The Federal regulations promulgated at 40 CFR 262.44 state that generators who generate more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1000 kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month are subject to reporting and recordkeeping requirements in 40 CFR 262.40(a), (c), and (d); 40 CFR 262.42(b); and 40 CFR 262.43. Delaware's regulations impose additional reporting and recordkeeping requirements on these generators. Specifically, Delaware's regulations at DRGHW 262.44 call for generators who generate more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1000 kilograms to follow the reporting and recordkeeping requirements in DRGHW 262.40(a), (b), (c), and (d); DRGHW 262.42(b); and DRGHW 262.43. Therefore, Delaware's regulations are more stringent than the Federal regulations.
(f) The Delaware regulations at DRGHW 265.176(b) require the owner(s) or operator(s) of waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities to take precautions to prevent accidental ignition or reaction of ignitable or reactive waste. Specifically, owner(s) or operator(s) must implement preventative measures including: Separating and protecting ignitable or reactive waste from sources of ignition or reaction, confining smoking and open flame to specially designated locations while ignitable or reactive waste is being handled, and conspicuously placing “No smoking” signs wherever there is a hazard from ignitable or reactive waste. The Federal regulation promulgated at 40 CFR 265.176 does not include provisions for owner(s) or operator(s) of waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities to prevent accidental ignition or reaction of ignitable or reactive waste. Hence, Delaware's regulation is more stringent.
(g) The Federal regulations at 40 CFR 268.7 include testing, tracking, and recordkeeping requirements for generators, treaters, and disposal facilities. The provision at 40 CFR 268.7(a)(1) states that a generator must determine whether its hazardous waste must be treated before it can be land disposed. It also says that generators can make this determination by either testing the waste or using knowledge of the waste. The provision also gives generators the option to send their waste to a RCRA-permitted hazardous waste facility, where the facility would have to test the hazardous waste. Delaware also has testing, tracking, and recordkeeping requirements for generators, treaters, and disposal facilities, which can be found at DRGHW 268.7. Delaware's regulations at DRGHW 268.7(a)(1) require that generators determine whether their hazardous waste must be treated before it can be land disposed. Similar to the federal requirements, Delaware's regulations state that generators can either test the waste or use knowledge of the waste to make this determination. However, Delaware's regulations do not include a provision to allow generators to send their waste to a RCRA-permitted facility for testing. Therefore, Delaware's requirements are more stringent than Federal requirements.
(h) The Delaware regulations promulgated at DRGHW 279.10(i) state that marketers and burners of used oil who market used oil containing any quantifiable level of polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are subject to both the “Standards for the Management of Used Oil” set forth in DRGHW Part 279 and the requirements found at 40 CFR 761.20(e). The Federal regulations at 40 CFR 279.10(i), however, list the criteria whereby used oil containing PCBs may become subject to both the “Standards for the Management of Used Oil” and the requirements of 40 CFR part 761. As a result, under the Federal regulations, marketers and burners or used oil who market used oil containing PCBs may be subject to either the requirements of 40 CFR part 279 or the requirements of 40 CFR part 761. Because Delaware always requires compliance with both parts of the regulations, Delaware's regulations are more stringent.
(i) The Delaware regulations at DRGHW 279.22(b)(3) state that containers and aboveground tanks utilized to store used oil at generator facilities must be closed during storage, except when it is necessary to add or remove oil. The Federal regulations at 40 CFR 279.22(b) do not require that containers and aboveground storage tanks remain closed during storage, thereby making Delaware's regulations more stringent.
After this authorization revision, Delaware will continue to issue permits covering all the provisions for which it is authorized and will administer all such permits. EPA will continue to administer any RCRA hazardous waste permits or portions of permits that it issued prior to the effective date of this authorization until the timing and process for effective transfer to the State are mutually agreed upon. Until such time as EPA formally transfers responsibility for a permit to Delaware and EPA terminates its permit, EPA and Delaware agree to coordinate the administration of such permit in order to maintain consistency. EPA will not issue any more new permits or new portions of permits for the provisions listed in Section G after the effective date of this authorization. EPA will continue to implement and issue permits for HSWA requirements for which Delaware is not yet authorized.
Delaware is not seeking authority to operate the program on Indian lands, since there are no Federally-recognized Indian Lands in Delaware.
Codification is the process of placing the State's statutes and regulations that comprise the State's authorized hazardous waste program into the Code of Federal Regulations. We do this action by referencing the authorized State rules in 40 CFR part 272. EPA reserves the amendment of 40 CFR part 272, subpart I, for this authorization of Delaware's program revisions until a later date.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted this action from the requirements of Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011). Therefore, this action is not subject to review by OMB. This action authorizes State requirements pursuant to RCRA section 3006 and imposes no additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. Accordingly, I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This action will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) because it merely authorizes State requirements as part of the State RCRA hazardous waste program without altering the relationship or the distribution of power and responsibilities established by RCRA. This action also is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it is not economically significant, and it does not concern environmental health or safety risks that may disproportionately affect children. This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001)) because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
Under RCRA section 3006(b), EPA grants a State's application for authorization as long as the State meets the criteria required by RCRA. It would thus be inconsistent with applicable law for EPA, when it reviews a State authorization application, to require the use of any particular voluntary consensus standard in place of another standard that satisfies the requirements of RCRA. Thus, the requirements of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 3701,
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Hazardous materials transportation, Hazardous waste, Indian lands, Intergovernmental relations, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Water pollution control, Water supply.
This action is issued under the authority of sections 2002(a), 3006 and 7004(b) of the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6912(a), 6926, and 6974(b).
Legal Services Corporation.
Final rule.
This final rule revises the Legal Services Corporation (LSC or Corporation) regulation on Definitions and Cost Standards and Procedures and creates a new part from LSC's Property Acquisition and Management Manual (PAMM).
This final rule is effective on December 31, 2017.
Stefanie K. Davis, Assistant General Counsel, Legal Services Corporation, 3333 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20007; (202) 295-1563 (phone), (202) 337-6519 (fax), or
The purpose of 45 CFR part 1630 is “to provide uniform standards for allowability of costs and to provide a comprehensive, fair, timely, and flexible process for the resolution of questioned costs.” 45 CFR 1630.1. LSC last revised part 1630 in 1997, when it published a final rule intended to “bring the Corporation's cost standards and procedures into conformance with applicable provisions of the Inspector General Act, the Corporation's appropriations [acts], and relevant Office of Management and Budget (OMB) circulars.” 62 FR 68219, Dec. 31, 1997. Although the OMB Circulars are not binding on LSC because LSC is not a federal agency, LSC adopted relevant provisions from the OMB Circulars pertaining to non-profit grants, audits, and cost principles into the final rule for part 1630.
LSC published the PAMM in 2001 “to provide recipients with a single complete and consolidated set of policies and procedures related to property acquisition, use and disposal.” 66 FR 47688, Sept. 13, 2001. Prior to the PAMM's issuance, such policies and
Part 1630 and the PAMM have not been revised since 1997 and 2001, respectively. Since then, procurement practices and cost allocation principles applicable to awards of federal funds have changed significantly. For instance, in 2013, OMB revised and consolidated several Circulars, including the Circulars LSC relied upon to develop part 1630, into a single Uniform Guidance. 78 FR 78589, Dec. 26, 2013; 2 CFR part 200. OMB consolidated and simplified its guidance to “reduce administrative burden for non-Federal entities receiving Federal awards while reducing the risk of waste, fraud and abuse.” 78 FR 78590.
LSC determined that it should undertake regulatory action at this time for three reasons. The first reason is to account for changes in Federal grants policy where appropriate for LSC. The second reason is to address the difficulties that LSC and its grantees experience in applying ambiguous provisions of part 1630 and the PAMM. Finally, LSC believes rulemaking is appropriate now to address the limitations that certain provisions of both documents place on LSC's ability to ensure clarity, efficiency, and accountability in its grant-making and grants oversight practices.
In July 2014, the Operations and Regulations Committee (Committee) of LSC's Board of Directors (Board) approved Management's proposed 2014-2015 rulemaking agenda, which included revising part 1630 and the PAMM as a priority item. On July 7, 2015, Management presented the Committee with a Justification Memorandum recommending publication of an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) to seek public comment on possible revisions to part 1630 and the PAMM. Management stated that collecting input from the regulated community through an ANPRM would significantly aid LSC in determining the scope of this rulemaking and in developing a more accurate understanding of the potential costs and benefits that certain revisions may entail. On July 18, 2015, the Board authorized rulemaking and approved the preparation of an ANPRM to revise part 1630 and the PAMM.
In October 2015, LSC published in the
On October 28, 2016, LSC published in the
Materials regarding this rulemaking are available in the open rulemaking section of LSC's Web site at
During the public comment period, LSC received comments from six organizations: Indiana Legal Services (ILS), Colorado Legal Services (CLS), Michigan Advocacy Program (MAP), Northwest Justice Project (NJP), NLADA, and Legal Action of Wisconsin (Legal Action).
Commenters expressed support for several elements of the proposed regulations. NLADA supported the proposal to eliminate 45 CFR 1630.3(a)(8), which requires recipients to obtain written consent from federal agencies before they may use LSC funds to match the federal agencies' grants. NLADA, NJP, and MAP supported increasing the prior approval threshold in § 1630.6(b)(1) from $10,000 to $25,000. MAP supported the proposal to exclude employee benefit contracts from the prior approval requirements in § 1630.6(b)(1)(ii). MAP also supported adopting proposed § 1631.8, which requires recipients to have written procurement policies and procedures that meet particular standards because it involves LSC oversight at a policy level, and not individual transactional level. MAP supported the proposal to make the PAMM a regulation. NLADA and MAP supported proposed § 1631.13, which would permit programs to dispose of personal property that has little or no value as the program sees fit.
LSC proposed to reorganize part 1630 into four subparts addressing (1) generally applicable provisions; (2)
Nevertheless, to clarify both that the extensions of time described in proposed § 1630.3 apply during questioned cost proceedings and that a final written decision is subject to the extension, LSC will amend proposed § 1630.10(d)(2), renumbered as § 1630.11(d)(2), to read, “If the recipient does not respond to LSC's written notice within 30 days; the recipient does not request an extension of time pursuant to § 1630.3(b) within 30 days; or LSC does not grant an extension of time pursuant to § 1630.3(b) within 30 days the written notice shall become LSC's final written decision.”
Regarding extensions of time and proposed § 1630.10(d)(2) (review of questioned costs) specifically, NJP also requested that the regulation allow a recipient the opportunity to demonstrate good cause for failing to respond to the notice of proposed costs within 30 days after the allotted 30 days' response time has passed but before LSC pursues recovery of the disallowed cost. NJP noted that recipients face technology and mail delivery problems, staff illness, vacation or other extended leave, or other exigent circumstances, including “excusable neglect,” that cause recipients to fail to seek an extension within the 30 days allowed by proposed § 1630.10(d)(2).
In the NPRM, LSC proposed three changes to the prior approval requirement. First, LSC proposed to increase the prior approval threshold amount to $25,000 to account for inflation. Second, because LSC believes effective financial oversight requires recipients to seek prior approval for more transactions than only those listed in the current rule, the proposed regulation required prior approval for “any . . . transaction” of purchases or leases of personal property, contracts for services, purchases of real estate, and capital improvements when the cost of the transaction exceeds $25,000. In the preamble to the NPRM, LSC explained that recipients must seek prior approval for “any single purchase whose costs exceed $25,000 in LSC funds, regardless of whether that purchase is of a single item of personal property, or a combination of personal property and services.” 81 FR 75006, 75013, Oct. 28, 2016. Finally, LSC proposed to remove pre-award and post-award costs from the list of costs eligible for prior approval because prior approval is not the appropriate process for considering requests to use LSC funds to pay for pre- or post-award costs.
Commenters also described challenges anticipating costs for particular services. For example, Legal Action noted how difficult it is to project whether translation services costs and records storage costs would exceed $25,000 in a year. ILS noted that where anticipated costs are difficult to determine, even where it has no intention of exceeding $25,000 in a year, it may nevertheless “play it safe” by seeking approval at the outset for these arrangements to avoid later violations. Other commenters noted that recipients may have difficulty determining when to seek prior approval for services contracts because of the various types of contracts recipients have,
NJP suggested imposing the proposed prior approval requirement only where necessary to address past abuse, conflict of interest, fraud, or “other malfeasance[.]” MAP suggested adding a separate section in the grant application asking grantees to explain proposed purchases over $25,000 in LSC funds, which would allow recipients and LSC to engage in discussion about purchases without the bureaucracy of the proposed regulations.
Additionally, LSC will clarify that prior approval applies to a “single purchase,” “single lease,” or “single contract” and define these terms in the new rule. LSC will define the terms at § 1630.2(h): “
Accordingly, the prior approval requirement applies to—
(i) A single purchase or single lease of personal property;
(ii) A single contract for services;
(iii) A single purchase of real estate;
(iv) Capital improvements; and
(v) A single purchase or single lease of personal property combined with a single contract for services.
This clarification resolves the questions commenters raised. For example, ILS has a discount arrangement with an office supplier. Although ILS does not make $25,000 worth of purchases from this vendor at one time, over the course of a year ILS may purchase more than $25,000 in LSC funds worth of supplies from the vendor. Under LSC's proposed rule, this scenario does not trigger the prior approval requirement. The requirement is triggered only when a single order of one or multiple items from this vendor exceeds $25,000. As another example, Legal Action purchases supplies online from a small number of vendors. Over the course of a year, Legal Action explained, the aggregate purchases from an individual vendor, such as Amazon, may exceed $25,000. Again, a purchase requires prior approval when it is a single order from a single vendor of a good or multiple goods whose cost exceeds $25,000 in LSC funds.
Finally, MAP posed the example of buying office supplies for seven offices from a single vendor over the course of a year that could add up to $25,000. Again, the proposed rule does not aggregate purchases over time. If a single order of consumable supplies exceeds $25,000, there is no reason not to examine that purchase with the same diligence as the purchase of a non-consumable good that costs over $25,000. Moreover, LSC's proposed approach of increasing oversight over purchases, including supplies, aligns with the Uniform Guidance's inclusion of purchases of supplies as types of purchases subject to increasingly stringent levels of competition.
Other recipients arrange to receive services for a period of time at a fixed rate, for example, paying $25 per hour for translation services as needed over two years. In these scenarios, commenters stated that calculating whether the recipient needs to seek prior approval may be difficult. NLADA asked if a recipient would need to obtain prior approval if services would not exceed $25,000 in one year, but would exceed $25,000 over two years. Legal Action also questioned whether payments to various temporary workers, none of whose payments exceeds $25,000, but when taken together exceed $25,000, require prior approval.
Finally, for temporary employees, as discussed below, contracts for temporary employees will be exempt from the prior approval process.
Subpart C governs LSC's decisions to question costs and the appeals procedure by which a recipient challenges questioned costs.
As described above, a recipient may seek an extension for good cause, pursuant to proposed § 1630.3(b). LSC's assessment of whether the recipient has shown “good cause” inherently takes into consideration the length of extension a recipient would need. Therefore, LSC will retain language from the proposed rule.
LSC also will not establish a rigid timeframe within which it must respond to a request for prior approval if it cannot decide within 60 days. In LSC's experience, recipients may not initially submit all documentation LSC needs to make its decision. LSC must have time to review the materials a recipient submits and request additional documentation as needed. Accordingly, LSC will revise § 1631.3(b) to state that (1) if the requester does not provide all required materials in its initial prior approval request, LSC will contact the requester within 20 days of the request with a preliminary assessment of materials LSC requires to make its decision, if necessary, and (2) LSC will approve or deny a request for prior approval within 30 days of receiving all required materials from the requester (60 days for purchases of real estate). This means that if a recipient submits all information that LSC deems sufficient with the initial request, LSC will approve or deny the request for prior approval within 30 days of the initial request (or 60 days for purchases of real estate). Additionally, because the prior approval process requires LSC to determine whether a recipient complied with its own procurement policy, LSC must have a copy of the recipient's procurement policy. LSC therefore will add a new paragraph (b)(2) to final rule § 1631.8 (requests for prior approval) requiring a request for prior approval to also include a copy of the recipient's procurement policy.
Moreover, NLADA noted the proposed rule does not explain what happens if LSC determines a recipient's circumstances did not meet “exigent circumstances” requirements. NLADA asked whether LSC would treat the situation as a questioned cost proceeding: “Would LSC seek to recover costs solely on the basis that the recipient did not seek prior approval, even if the purchase or contract met § 1630.5 reasonable and necessary criteria?”
Additionally, LSC does not believe that hiring of employees falls within the types of services that LSC intended to regulate in part 1631. Therefore, a recipient would not have to seek prior approval before hiring an attorney, temporary or permanent, to fill the position of an attorney who takes an unexpected prolonged leave. The same rule will apply if the recipient chooses instead to enter a contract with an attorney to fill in for the recipient's attorney on a temporary basis or with a placement firm to place an attorney with the recipient for that period.
Prudent grants management and the basic principle of federal appropriations law that appropriated funds must be spent only on the purposes for which they were awarded do not permit recipients needing to supplement services to fulfill a non-LSC grant requirement to use LSC funds. Accordingly, LSC rejects the proposal to allow use of LSC funds as an exigent circumstance in this situation.
Finally, based on our recommendation that the term
Subpart B—Procurement Policies and Procedures
MAP was also “especially troubled” by LSC's comments in the preamble stating that, in circumstances where the recipient does not disclose the nature of the problems it is attempting to address but rather only how the services will further their legal services delivery, “a statement that the service is necessary to ensure the efficient functioning of the office
Current practice under section 5 of the PAMM permits a recipient to lease or sublease vacant space that the recipient is unable to use to another organization or business. In changing the term “may” in the PAMM to “must” in the proposed rule, LSC did not intend to change this practice in the proposed rule. The final rule will clarify that a recipient must use real estate purchased with LSC funds for purposes consistent with applicable law and regulations. The rule will clarify that a recipient that does not need some or all the real estate to carry out its legal services activities may use the space for other activities described in paragraphs (b) and (c). The other activities cannot interfere with the recipient's performance of the LSC grant, and the recipient cannot provide the space to an organization that engages in restricted activities without charging the organization an amount of rent equivalent to the amount other non-profits charge to rent the same amount of space in similar circumstances.
Legal services.
Accounting, Government contracts, Grant programs—law, Hearing and appeal procedures, Legal services, Questioned costs.
Government contracts, Grant programs—law, Legal services, Real property acquisition.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Legal Services Corporation amends 45 CFR Chapter XVI as follows:
42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).
42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).
This part is intended to provide uniform standards for allowability of costs and to provide a comprehensive, fair, timely, and flexible process for the resolution of questioned costs.
As used in this part:
(a)
(1) Corrects identified deficiencies;
(2) Produces recommended improvements; or
(3) Demonstrates that audit or other findings are either invalid or do not warrant recipient action.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) The decision issued by the Vice President for Grants Management after reviewing all information provided by a recipient in response to a notice of questioned costs; or
(2) The notice of questioned costs if a recipient does not respond to the notice within 30 days of receipt.
(e)
(f)
(1) There may have been a violation of a provision of a law, regulation, contract, grant, or other agreement or document governing the use of LSC funds;
(2) The cost is not supported by adequate documentation; or
(3) The cost incurred appears unnecessary or unreasonable and does not reflect the actions a prudent person would take in the circumstances.
(g)
(h)
(a)
(b)
The recipient shall have the burden of proof under this part.
(a)
(1) Actually incurred in the performance of the grant or contract and the recipient was liable for payment;
(2) Reasonable and necessary for the performance of the grant or contract as approved by LSC;
(3) Allocable to the grant or contract;
(4) In compliance with the Act, applicable appropriations law, LSC rules, regulations, guidelines, and instructions, the Accounting Guide for LSC Recipients, the terms and conditions of the grant or contract, and other applicable law;
(5) Consistent with accounting policies and procedures that apply uniformly to both LSC-funded and non-LSC-funded activities;
(6) Accorded consistent treatment over time;
(7) Determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; and
(8) Adequately and contemporaneously documented in business records accessible during normal business hours to LSC management, the Office of Inspector General, the General Accounting Office, and independent auditors or other audit organizations authorized to conduct audits of recipients.
(b)
(1) Whether the cost is of a type generally recognized as ordinary and necessary for the operation of the recipient or the performance of the grant or contract;
(2) The restraints or requirements imposed by such factors as generally accepted sound business practices, arms-length bargaining, Federal and State laws and regulations, and the terms and conditions of the grant or contract;
(3) Whether the recipient acted with prudence under the circumstances, considering its responsibilities to its clients and employees, the public at large, the Corporation, and the Federal government; and
(4) Significant deviations from the recipient's established practices, which
(c)
(2) A cost is allocable to an LSC grant or contract if it is treated consistently with other costs incurred for the same purpose in like circumstances and if it:
(i) Is incurred specifically for the grant or contract;
(ii) Benefits both the grant or contract and other work and can be distributed in reasonable proportion to the benefits received; or
(iii) Is necessary to the recipient's overall operation, although a direct relationship to any particular cost objective cannot be shown.
(3) Recipients must maintain accounting systems sufficient to demonstrate the proper allocation of costs to each of their funding sources.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(a)
(b)
(i) A single purchase or single lease of personal property;
(ii) A single contract for services;
(iii) A single combined purchase or lease of personal property and contract for services;
(iv) A single purchase of real estate; and
(v) Capital improvements.
(2) For costs apportioned between LSC funds and one or more other funding sources, this requirement applies when the cost allocable to LSC funds is $25,000 or greater.
(3) The process and substantive requirements for requests for prior approval are in 45 CFR part 1631—Purchasing and Property Management.
(c)
(a) LSC funds may not be used to pay membership fees or dues to any private or nonprofit organization, whether on behalf of the recipient or an individual.
(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to the payment of membership fees or dues mandated by a governmental organization to engage in a profession, or to the payment of membership fees or dues from non-LSC funds.
Any contributions or gifts of LSC funds to another organization or to an individual are prohibited.
No provision contained in this part shall be construed to affect any payment by a recipient on behalf of its employees for the purpose of contributing to or funding a tax-sheltered annuity, retirement account, or pension fund.
Each recipient must adopt written policies and procedures to guide its staff in complying with this subpart and must maintain records sufficient to document the recipient's compliance with this subpart.
(a) LSC may identify questioned costs:
(1) When the Office of Inspector General, the General Accounting Office, or an independent auditor or other audit organization authorized to conduct an audit of a recipient has identified and referred a questioned cost to LSC;
(2) In the course of its oversight of recipients; or
(3) As a result of complaints filed with LSC.
(b) If LSC determines that there is a basis for disallowing a questioned cost, LSC must provide the recipient with written notice of its intent to disallow the cost. The notice of questioned costs must state the amount of the cost and the factual and legal basis for disallowing it.
(c) If a questioned cost is disallowed solely because it is excessive, only the amount that is larger than reasonable shall be disallowed.
(d)(1) Within 30 days of receiving the notice of questioned costs, the recipient may respond with written evidence and argument to show that the cost was allowable, or that LSC, for equitable, practical, or other reasons, should not recover all or part of the amount, or that the recovery should be made in installments.
(2) The written notice shall become LSC's final written decision unless:
(i) The recipient responds to LSC's written notice within 30 days;
(ii) The recipient requests an extension of time pursuant to § 1630.3(b) within 30 days; or
(iii) LSC grants an extension of time pursuant to § 1630.3(b) within 30 days.
(e) Within 60 days of receiving the recipient's written response to the notice of questioned costs, LSC management must issue a final written decision stating whether the cost has been disallowed and the reasons for the decision.
(f) If LSC has determined that the questioned cost should be disallowed, the final written decision must:
(1) State that the recipient may appeal the decision as provided in § 1630.12 and describe the process for seeking an appeal;
(2) Describe how it expects the recipient to repay the cost, including the method and schedule for collection of the amount of the cost;
(3) State whether LSC is requiring the recipient to make financial adjustments or take other corrective action to prevent a recurrence of the circumstances giving rise to the disallowed cost.
(a)(1) If the amount of a disallowed cost exceeds $2,500, the recipient may appeal in writing to LSC's President within 30 days of receiving LSC's final written decision to disallow the cost. The recipient should state in detail the reasons why LSC should not disallow part or all of the questioned cost.
(2) If the recipient did not respond to LSC's notice of questioned costs and the notice became LSC's final written decision pursuant to § 1630.11(d)(2), the recipient may not appeal the final written decision.
(b) If the President has had prior involvement in the consideration of the disallowed cost, the President shall designate another senior LSC employee who has not had prior involvement to review the recipient's appeal. In circumstances where the President has not had prior involvement in the disallowed cost proceeding, the President has discretion to designate another senior LSC employee who also has not had prior involvement in the proceeding to review the appeal.
(c) Within 30 days of receiving the recipient's written appeal, the President or designee will adopt, modify, or reverse LSC's final written decision.
(d) The decision of the President or designee shall be final and shall be based on the written record, consisting of LSC's notice of questioned costs, the recipient's response, LSC's final written decision, the recipient's written appeal, any additional response or analysis provided to the President or designee by LSC staff, and the relevant findings, if any, of the Office of Inspector General, General Accounting Office, or other authorized auditor or audit organization. Upon request, LSC shall provide the recipient with a copy of the written record.
(a) LSC will recover any disallowed costs from the recipient within the time limits and conditions set forth in either LSC's final written decision or the President's decision on an appeal. Recovery of the disallowed costs may be in the form of a reduction in the amount of future grant checks or in the form of direct payment from you to LSC.
(b) LSC shall ensure that a recipient who has incurred a disallowed cost takes any additional necessary corrective action within the time limits and conditions set forth in LSC's final written decision or the President's decision.
(a) In cases of serious financial mismanagement, fraud, or defalcation of funds, LSC shall refer the matter to the Office of Inspector General and may take appropriate action pursuant to parts 1606, 1623, and 1640 of this chapter.
(b) The recovery of a disallowed cost according to the procedures of this part does not constitute a permanent reduction in a recipient's annualized funding level, nor does it constitute a limited reduction of funding or termination of financial assistance under part 1606, or a suspension of funding under part 1623 of this chapter.
When disallowed costs arise from expenditures incurred under a subgrant of LSC funds, the recipient and the subrecipient will be jointly and severally responsible for the actions of the subrecipient, as provided by 45 CFR part 1627, and will be subject to all remedies available under this part. Both the recipient and the subrecipient shall have access to the review and appeal procedures of this part.
(a) No costs attributable to a purpose prohibited by the LSC Act, as defined by 45 CFR 1610.2(a), may be charged to private funds, except for tribal funds used for the specific purposes for which they were provided.
(b) No cost attributable to an activity prohibited by or inconsistent with Pub. L. 103-134, title V, sec. 504, as defined by 45 CFR 1610.2(b), may be charged to non-LSC funds, except for tribal funds used for the specific purposes for which they were provided.
(c) LSC may recover from a recipient's LSC funds an amount not to exceed the amount improperly charged to non-LSC funds. A decision to recover under this paragraph is subject to the review and appeal procedures of §§ 1630.11 and 1630.12.
(a) Derivative income resulting from an activity supported in whole or in part with LSC funds shall be allocated to the fund in which the recipient's LSC grant is recorded in the same proportion that the amount of LSC funds expended bears to the total amount expended by the recipient to support the activity.
(b) Derivative income allocated to the LSC fund in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section is subject to the requirements of this part.
This subpart applies when a recipient of LSC funds:
(a) Ceases to exist as a legal entity, including merging or consolidating functions with another LSC recipient when the other recipient becomes the LSC recipient for the service area; or
(b) Otherwise ceases to receive funds directly from LSC. This may include voluntary termination by the recipient or involuntary termination by LSC of the recipient's LSC grant, and may occur at the end of a grant term or during the grant term.
(a) A recipient must provide LSC with a plan for the orderly conclusion of the recipient's role and responsibilities. LSC will maintain a list of the required elements for the closeout plan on its Web site. LSC will provide recipients with a link to the list in the grant award documents.
(b)(1) A recipient must notify LSC no less than 60 days prior to any of the above events, except for an involuntary termination of its LSC grant by LSC. The recipient must submit the closeout plan described in paragraph (a) of this section at the same time.
(2) If LSC terminates a recipient's grant, the recipient must submit the closeout plan described in paragraph (a) of this section within 15 days of being notified by LSC that it is terminating the recipient's grant.
(a) The recipient must submit to LSC a detailed budget and timeline for all closeout procedures described in the closeout plan. LSC must approve the budget, either as presented or after negotiations with the recipient, before the recipient may proceed with implementing the budget, timeline, and plan.
(b) LSC will withhold funds for all closeout expenditures, including costs for the closing audit, all staff and consultant services needed to perform closeout activities, and file storage and retention.
(c) LSC will release any funding installments that the recipient has not received as of the date it notified LSC of a merger, change in status, or voluntary termination or that LSC notified the recipient of an involuntary termination of funding only upon the recipient's satisfactory completion of all closeout obligations.
(a)
(b)
42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).
The purpose of this part is to set standards for purchasing, leasing, using, and disposing of LSC-funded personal property and real estate and using LSC funds to contract for services.
As used in this part:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)(1)
(2)
(i) Services provided by recipients to their employees as compensation in addition to regular salaries and wages, including but not limited to employee insurance, pensions, and unemployment benefit plans;
(ii) Insurance, including malpractice insurance provided to staff attorneys and organizational insurance (
(iii) Annual audits required by section 509(a) of Public Law 104-134;
(iv) Services necessary to conduct litigation on behalf of clients (
(v) Contracts for services necessary to address a recipient's internal personnel issues, such as labor counsel, investigators, and mediators; and
(vi) Contracts for employees, whether with the employee directly or with a placement agency.
(h)
(1) To sell or lease property to the recipient through a purchase or lease agreement; or
(2) To provide services to the recipient through a contract.
(a) LSC shall grant prior approval of a cost listed in § 1630.6(b) of this chapter if the recipient has provided sufficient written information to demonstrate that the cost would be consistent with the standards and policies of this part. LSC may request additional information if necessary to make a decision on the recipient's request.
(b)(1) For purchases or leases of personal property, contracts for services, and capital improvements, LSC will make a decision to approve or deny a request for prior approval within 30 days of receiving materials LSC deems sufficient to decide. LSC will inform a recipient within 20 days of receiving the initial prior approval request whether LSC needs additional information to make a decision.
(2) For purchases of real estate, LSC will make a decision within 60 days of receiving materials LSC deems sufficient to decide. LSC will inform a recipient within 20 days of receiving the initial prior approval request whether LSC needs additional information to make a decision.
(3) If LSC cannot make a decision whether to approve the request within the allotted time, it will provide the requester with a date by which it expects to make a decision.
(c) If LSC denies a request for prior approval, LSC shall provide the recipient with a written explanation of the grounds for denying the request.
(d)
(i) To avoid imminent harm to the recipient's personnel, physical facilities, or systems;
(ii) To remediate or mitigate damage to the recipient's personnel, physical facilities or systems;
(iii) To avoid disruption to the recipient's client-service delivery system (
(iv) To respond to a natural disaster (
(2) The recipient must provide LSC with a description of the exigent circumstances and the information described in paragraph (b) of this section within 30 days after the circumstances necessitating the purchase or contract have ended.
When LSC receives funds from a disposition of property under this section, LSC will use those funds to make emergency and other special grants to recipients. LSC generally will make such grants to the same service area as the returned funds originally supported.
Each recipient shall adopt written policies and procedures to guide its staff in complying with this part and shall maintain records sufficient to document the recipient's compliance with this part.
(a) Characteristics indicative of a procurement relationship between a recipient and another entity are when the other entity:
(1) Provides the goods and services within its normal business operations;
(2) Provides similar goods or services to many different purchasers;
(3) Normally operates in a competitive environment;
(4) Provides goods or services that are ancillary to the operation of the LSC grant; and
(5) Is not subject to LSC's compliance requirements as a result of the agreement, though similar requirements may apply for other reasons.
(b) In determining whether an agreement between a recipient and another entity constitutes a contract under this part or a subgrant under part 1627 of this chapter, the substance of the relationship is more important than the form of the agreement. All the characteristics above may not be present in all cases, and a recipient must use judgment in classifying each agreement as a subgrant or a contract.
Recipients must have written procurement policies and procedures. These policies must:
(a) Identify competition thresholds that establish the basis (for example, price, risk level, or type of purchase) for the level of competition required at each threshold (for example, certification that a purchase reflects the best value to the recipient; a price comparison for alternatives that the recipient considered; or requests for information, quotes, or proposals);
(b) Establish the grounds for non-competitive purchases;
(c) Establish the level of documentation necessary to justify procurements. The level of documentation needed may be proportional to the nature of the purchase or tied to competition thresholds;
(d) Establish internal controls that, at a minimum, provide for segregation of duties in the procurement process, identify which employees, officers, or directors who have authority to make purchases for the recipient, and identify procedures for approving purchases;
(e) Establish procedures to ensure quality and cost control in purchasing, including procedures for selecting sources, fair and objective criteria for selecting sources; and
(f) Establish procedures for identifying and preventing conflicts of interest in the purchasing process.
(a) As required by 45 CFR 1630.6 and 1631.3, a recipient using more than $25,000 of LSC funds to purchase or lease personal property or contract for services must request and receive LSC's prior approval.
(b) A request for prior approval must include:
(1) A statement of need;
(2) A copy of the recipient's procurement policy; and
(3) Documentation showing that the recipient followed its procurement policies and procedures in soliciting, reviewing, and approving the purchase, lease, or contract for services.
All purchases and leases of personal property and contracts for services made with LSC funds must comply with the provisions of 45 CFR part 1630 (Cost Standards and Procedures).
(a) A recipient may use personal property purchased or leased, in whole or in part, with LSC funds primarily to deliver legal services to eligible clients under the requirements of the LSC Act, applicable appropriations acts, and LSC regulations.
(b) A recipient may use personal property purchased or leased, in whole or in part, with LSC funds for the performance of an LSC grant or contract
(c) If a recipient uses personal property purchased or leased, in whole or in part, with LSC funds to provide services to an organization that engages in activity restricted by the LSC Act, LSC regulations, or other applicable law, the recipient must charge the organization a fee no less than that which private nonprofit organizations in the same area charge for the same services under similar conditions.
(a) A recipient owns all products, technologies, and software developed or improved using LSC funds, subject to any agreement the recipient may have with a third-party vendor. LSC retains a royalty-free, nonexclusive, and irrevocable license to use, reproduce, distribute, publish, and prepare derivative works of any LSC-funded products, technologies, and software, including making them available to other LSC grantees or the broader access to justice community and partners.
(b) A recipient must have a written contract with vendors who develop or improve LSC-funded products, technologies, and software. The contract must include a provision disclosing LSC's royalty-free, nonexclusive, and irrevocable license and prohibiting third-party vendors from denying its existence, challenging its legality, or interfering with LSC's full exercise of it.
(a)
(1) Trading in the personal property when it acquires replacement property;
(2) Selling or otherwise disposing of the personal property with no further obligation to LSC when the fair market value of the personal property is negligible;
(3) Where the current fair market value of the personal property is $15,000 or less, selling the property at a reasonable negotiated price, without advertising;
(4) Where the current fair market value of the personal property exceeds $15,000, advertising the property for 14 days and selling the property after receiving reasonable offers. If the recipient receives no reasonable offers after advertising the property for 14 days, it may sell the property at a reasonable negotiated price;
(5) Transferring the property to another recipient of LSC funds; or
(6) With the approval of LSC, transferring the personal property to another nonprofit organization serving the poor in the same service area.
(b)
(1) Transferring the property to another recipient of LSC funds, in which case the former recipient will be entitled to compensation in the amount of the percentage of the property's current fair market value that is equal to the percentage of the property's purchase cost borne by non-LSC funds;
(2) Transferring the property to another nonprofit organization serving the poor in the same service area, in which case LSC will be entitled to compensation from the recipient for the percentage of the property's current fair market value that is equal to the percentage of the property's purchase cost borne by LSC funds;
(3) Selling the property and retaining the proceeds from the sale after compensating LSC for the percentage of the property's current fair market value that is equal to the percentage of the property's purchase cost borne by LSC funds; or
(4) Retaining the property, in which case LSC will be entitled to compensation from the recipient for the percentage of the property's current fair market value that is equal to that percentage of the property's purchase cost borne by LSC funds.
(c)
(d)
(a) During the term of an LSC grant or contract, a recipient may retain and use income from any sale of personal property purchased with LSC funds according to 45 CFR 1630.17 (Cost Standards and Procedures: Applicability to derivative income) and 45 CFR 1628.3 (Recipient Fund Balances: Policy).
(b) The recipient must account for income earned from the sale, rent, or lease of personal property purchased with LSC funds according to the requirements of 45 CFR 1630.17.
(a)
(2) When a recipient evaluates potential properties, it must consider:
(i) The average annual cost of the purchase, including the costs of a down payment, interest and principal payments on a mortgage financing the purchase; closing costs; renovation costs; and the costs of utilities, maintenance, and taxes, if any;
(ii) The estimated total costs of buying and using the property throughout the mortgage term compared to the estimated total costs of leasing and using a similar property over the same period of time;
(iii) The property's quality; and
(iv) Whether the property is conducive to delivering legal services (
(3) If a recipient cannot evaluate three potential properties, it must be able to explain why such evaluation was not possible.
(b)
(1) A statement of need, including:
(i) The information obtained and considered in paragraph (a) of this section;
(ii) Trends in funding and program staffing levels in relation to space needs;
(iii) Why the recipient needs to purchase real estate; and
(iv) Why purchasing real estate is reasonable and necessary to performing the LSC grant.
(2) A brief analysis comparing:
(i) The estimated average annual cost of the purchase including the costs of a down payment, interest and principal payments on a mortgage financing the
(ii) The estimated average annual cost of leasing or purchasing similar property over the same period of time;
(3) Anticipated financing of the purchase, including:
(i) The estimated total acquisition costs, including capital improvements, taxes, recordation fees, maintenance costs, insurance costs, and closing costs;
(ii) The anticipated breakdown of LSC funds and non-LSC funds to be applied toward the total costs of the purchase;
(iii) The monthly amount of principal and interest payments on debt secured to finance the purchase, if any;
(4) A current, independent appraisal sufficient to secure a mortgage;
(5) A comparison of available loan terms considered by the recipient before selecting the chosen financing method;
(6) Board approval of the purchase in either a board resolution or board minutes, including Board approvals that are contingent on LSC's approval;
(7) Whether the property will replace or supplement existing program offices;
(8) A statement that the property
(i) Currently complies with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) or applicable state law, whichever is stricter, and 45 CFR 1624.5; or
(ii) Will comply with the ADA, any applicable state law, and 45 CFR 1624.5 upon completion of any necessary capital improvements. Such improvements must be completed within 60 days of the date of purchase; and
(9) A copy of a purchase agreement, contract, or other document containing a description of the property and the terms of the purchase.
(c)
(1) The recipient's agreement to use the property consistent with § 1631.15;
(2) The recipient's agreement to record, under appropriate state law, LSC's interest in the property;
(3) The recipient's agreement not to encumber the property without prior LSC approval; and
(4) The recipient's agreement not to dispose of the property without prior LSC approval.
(a) As required by 45 CFR 1630.6 and 1631.3, a recipient must obtain LSC's prior written approval before using more than $25,000 LSC funds to make capital improvements to real estate.
(b) The written request must include:
(1) A statement of need;
(2) A brief description of the nature of the work to be done, the name of the sources performing the work, and the total expected cost of the improvement; and
(3) Documentation showing that the recipient followed its procurement policies and procedures in competing, selecting, and awarding contracts to perform the work.
(c) A recipient must maintain supporting documentation to accurately identify and account for any use of LSC funds to make capital improvements to real estate owned by the recipient.
(a) Recipients must use real estate purchased or leased in whole or in part with LSC funds to deliver legal assistance to eligible clients consistent with the requirements of the LSC Act, applicable appropriations acts, other applicable Federal law, and LSC's regulations. If a recipient does not need to use some or all such real estate to deliver legal assistance to eligible clients, it may use the space for other activities as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(b) A recipient may use real estate purchased or leased, in whole or part, with LSC funds for the performance of an LSC grant or contract for other activities, if they do not interfere with the performance of the LSC grant or contract.
(c) If a recipient uses real estate purchased or leased, in whole or part, with LSC funds to provide space to an organization that engages in activity restricted by the LSC Act, applicable appropriations acts, LSC regulations, or other applicable law, the recipient must charge the organization rent no less than that which private nonprofit organizations in the same area charge for the same amount of space under similar conditions.
A recipient must maintain real estate acquired with LSC funds:
(a) In an efficient operating condition; and
(b) In compliance with state and local government property standards and building codes.
At the time of purchase, a recipient must obtain insurance coverage for real estate purchased with LSC funds which is not lower in value than coverage it has obtained for other real estate it owns and which provides at least the following coverage:
(a) Title insurance that:
(1) Insures the fee interest in the property for an amount not less than the full appraised value as approved by LSC, or the amount of the purchase price, whichever is greater; and
(2) Contains an endorsement identifying LSC as a loss payee to be reimbursed if the title fails.
(3) If no endorsement naming LSC as loss payee is made, the recipient must pay LSC the title insurance proceeds it receives in the event of a failure.
(b) A physical destruction insurance policy, including flood insurance where appropriate, which insures the full replacement value of the facility from risk of partial and total physical destructions. The recipient must maintain this policy for the period of time that the recipient owns the real estate.
A recipient must maintain an accounting of the amount of LSC funds relating to the purchase or maintenance of real estate purchased with LSC funds. The accounting must include the amount of LSC funds used to pay for acquisition costs, financing, and capital improvements. The recipient must provide the accounting for each year to LSC no later than April 30 of the following year or in its annual audited financial statements submitted to LSC.
(a)
(1) Selling the property after having advertised for and received offers; or
(2) Transferring the property to another recipient of LSC funds, in which case the recipient may be compensated by the recipient receiving the property for the percentage of the property's current fair market value that is equal to the percentage of the costs of the original acquisition and costs of any capital improvements borne by non-LSC funds.
(b)
(1) Transfer the property title to another grantee of LSC funds, in which case the recipient may be compensated
(2) Buyout LSC's interest in the property (
(3) Sell the property to a third party and pay LSC a share of the sale proceeds proportional to its interest in the property, after deducting actual and reasonable closing costs, if any.
(4) When a recipient stops receiving LSC funds because it merged with or is succeeded by another recipient, it may transfer the property to the new recipient. The two entities must execute an LSC-approved successor in interest agreement that requires the transferee to use the property primarily to provide legal services to eligible clients under the requirements of the LSC Act, applicable appropriations acts, and LSC regulations.
(c)
(1) The proposed method of disposition and an explanation of why the proposed method is in the best interests of LSC and the recipient;
(2) Documentation showing the fair market value of the property at the time of transfer or sale, including, but not limited to, an independent appraisal of the property and competing bona fide offers to purchase the property;
(3) A description of the recipient's process for advertising the property for sale and receiving offers;
(4) An accounting of all LSC funds used in the acquisition and any capital improvements of the property. The accounting must include the amount of LSC funds used to pay for acquisition costs, financing, and capital improvements; and
(5) Information on the proposed transferee or buyer of the property and a document evidencing the terms of transfer or sale.
(a) During the term of an LSC grant or contract, a recipient may retain and use income from any sale of real estate purchased with LSC funds according to 45 CFR 1630.17 (Cost Standards and Procedures: Applicability to derivative income.) and 45 CFR 1628.3 (Recipient Fund Balances: Policy.).
(b) The recipient must account for income earned from the sale, rent, or lease of real or personal property purchased with LSC funds according to the requirements of 45 CFR 1630.17.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Commission adopts rules pursuant to Section 202 of the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010 (CVAA) to expand the availability of video described programming on top-rated broadcast and nonbroadcast networks. Specifically, the document adopts the proposal to increase the amount of described programming on each “included network” carried by a covered broadcast station or multichannel video programming distributor (MVPD), from 50 hours per calendar quarter to 87.5 hours per quarter. Covered broadcast stations and MVPDs must start providing the additional hours of video described programming on “included networks” in the calendar quarter beginning on July 1, 2018. The document also provides more flexibility than exists under the Commission's current rules regarding when the additional hours of described programming may be aired. This update to the Commission's video description rules will help ensure that Americans who are blind or visually impaired can be connected, informed, and entertained by television.
Effective September 11, 2017.
Maria Mullarkey,
This is a summary of the Commission's
1. In this
1. In 2011, the Commission reinstated the video description regulations that previously were adopted in 2000, requiring certain television broadcast stations and MVPDs to provide video description on top-rated networks.
2. Currently, the Commission's video description rules require commercial broadcast television stations that are affiliated with ABC, CBS, Fox, or NBC and are located in the top 60 television markets to provide 50 hours per calendar quarter of video described prime time or children's programming.
3. In the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in this proceeding (
4. We conclude that we have the authority under the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010 (CVAA) to increase the number of hours of described programming on each included network by 75 percent, from 50 hours per calendar quarter to 87.5 hours per quarter. This conclusion is consistent with Section 713(f)(4) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (“Continuing Commission Authority”),
5. In the
6. The CVAA provides that the Commission may increase “in total” the hour requirement by no more than 75 percent, up to a total of 87.5 hours per quarter, and we proposed to adopt such an increase in the
7. On any given day, the average American can choose to watch any program on any one of approximately 264 channels.
8. As required by the statute, we find that the benefits of increasing the required number of hours of described programming by 37.5 hours per quarter are greater than the costs. The costs are minimal and represent a very small percentage of total programming expenses and network revenues.
9. The benefits of additional description, while less easy to quantify than the relatively low costs of providing it, are nonetheless substantial. Longstanding evidence indicates that persons who are blind or visually impaired have television viewing habits that are comparable to those who are not.
10. Commenters who are blind or visually impaired emphasize the need for greater amounts of video described programming,
11. Through its enactment of the CVAA, Congress acknowledged the value of video description. Indeed, the importance of accessibility of video programming to persons who are blind or visually impaired underlies several provisions of the CVAA. Congress mandated not only that the Commission require video description, but also that emergency information contained in video programming, as well as the user interfaces on navigation devices and other digital apparatus that allow users to navigate video programming, be made accessible to those who are blind or visually impaired.
12. Although we do not assign a specific monetary value to the benefits these additional hours of described programming will provide to the millions of persons who are blind or visually impaired,
13. In addition to increasing the required hours of video described programming, we also provide more flexibility than exists under our current rules regarding when the additional hours of described programming may be aired. Several industry commenters argue without opposition that “[t]he Commission should incorporate flexibility into any rules increasing the number of hours.”
14. We will provide flexibility regarding when the additional required hours may be aired, but retain our current rule with respect to the existing hour requirement. Specifically, although we will continue to require included networks to provide 50 hours per quarter of video described programming during prime time or children's programming,
15. Commenters suggest a number of additional ways to provide included networks with more flexibility to satisfy the increased hour requirement. We find that these suggested measures are unnecessary in light of the timing flexibility we are providing, as well as ill-advised. NCTA suggests permitting distributors to average their compliance
16. We recognize, however, that some networks may have a difficult time meeting the new hour requirement in specific calendar quarters, even with the additional flexibility we are providing. For example, Time Warner argues that TNT, an included network, carried a significant amount of live programming in prime time in the second quarter of 2016, and as a result just barely met the existing 50 hour quarterly requirement.
17. Although the record does not suggest that either broadcast stations or MVPDs will typically have difficulty complying with our revised rules, it does suggest that compliance problems could arise in two atypical circumstances.
• All pre-recorded programming between 6 a.m. and midnight in the relevant calendar quarter is being described, even if not all of it can be counted toward the rules
• The petitioner commits to provide additional hours of video description in calendar quarters other than the one for which it is seeking the waiver,
If both of these conditions are met, we believe that it is more likely than not that consumer needs will still be met at the level contemplated by these rules without unduly burdening the industry.
18. The revised rule will be effective 30 days after publication in the
1. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA)
2. This
3.
4. No comments were filed in response to the IRFA.
5. Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA), and to provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rules as a result of those comments. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rules in this proceeding.
6. The RFA directs the Commission to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that will be affected by the rules adopted in the
7.
8. The Commission has estimated the number of licensed commercial television stations to be 1,384. Of this total, 1,264 stations (or about 91 percent) had revenues of $38.5 million or less, according to Commission staff review of the BIA Kelsey Inc. Media Access Pro Television Database (BIA) on February 24, 2017, and therefore these licensees qualify as small entities under the SBA definition. In addition, the Commission has estimated the number of licensed noncommercial educational (NCE) television stations to be 394. Notwithstanding, the Commission does not compile and otherwise does not have access to information on the revenue of NCE stations that would permit it to determine how many such stations would qualify as small entities.
9. We note, however, that in assessing whether a business concern qualifies as “small” under the above definition, business (control) affiliations must be included. Our estimate, therefore likely overstates the number of small entities that might be affected by our action, because the revenue figure on which it is based does not include or aggregate revenues from affiliated companies. In addition, another element of the definition of “small business” requires that an entity not be dominant in its field of operation. We are unable at this time to define or quantify the criteria that would establish whether a specific television broadcast station is dominant in its field of operation. Accordingly, the estimate of small businesses to which rules may apply does not exclude any television station from the definition of a small business on this basis and is therefore possibly over-inclusive.
10. There are also 1,965 LPTV stations, 417 Class A stations, and 3,778 TV translator stations. Given the nature of these services, we will presume that all of these entities qualify as small entities under the above SBA small business size standard.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16. In this section, we describe the reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements adopted in the
17.
18.
19.
20. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
21. The obligation to provide 87.5 hours of video described programming per quarter applies to commercial television broadcast stations that are affiliated with ABC, CBS, Fox, or NBC and are located in the top 60 television markets, as well as MVPD systems that serve 50,000 or more subscribers. Thus, the rules adopted in this
22. Overall, we believe we have appropriately considered both the interests of individuals with disabilities and the interests of the entities who will be subject to the rules, including those that are smaller entities, consistent with Congress' goal to “update the communications laws to help ensure that individuals with disabilities are able to fully utilize communications services and equipment and better access video programming.”
23. The Commission will send a copy of the
24. This Report and Order does not contain information collections subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
1.
2.
3.
4.
Cable television operators, Multichannel video programming distributors (MVPDs), Satellite television service providers.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 79 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 151, 152(a), 154(i), 303, 307, 309, 310, 330, 544a, 613, 617.
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) Beginning July 1, 2015, commercial television broadcast stations that are affiliated with one of the top four commercial television broadcast networks (ABC, CBS, Fox, and NBC), and that are licensed to a community located in the top 60 DMAs, as determined by The Nielsen Company as of January 1, 2015, must provide 50 hours of video description per calendar quarter, either during prime time or on children's programming, and, beginning July 1, 2018, 37.5 additional hours of video description per calendar quarter between 6 a.m. and 11:59 p.m. local time, on each programming stream on which they carry one of the top four commercial television broadcast networks. If a station in one of these markets becomes affiliated with one of these networks after July 1, 2015, it must begin compliance with these requirements no later than three months after the affiliation agreement is finalized;
(4) Multichannel video programming distributor (MVPD) systems that serve 50,000 or more subscribers must provide 50 hours of video description per calendar quarter during prime time or children's programming, and, beginning July 1, 2018, 37.5 additional hours of video description per calendar quarter between 6 a.m. and 11:59 p.m. local time, on each channel on which they carry one of the top five national nonbroadcast networks, as defined by an average of the national audience share during prime time of nonbroadcast networks that reach 50 percent or more of MVPD households and have at least 50 hours per quarter of prime time programming that is not live or near-live or otherwise exempt under these rules. Initially, the top five networks are those determined by The Nielsen Company, for the time period October 2009-September 2010, and will update at three year intervals. The first update will be July 1, 2015, based on the ratings for the time period October 2013-September 2014; the second will be July 1, 2018, based on the ratings for the time period October 2016-September 2017; and so on; and
(c) * * *
(2) In order to meet its quarterly requirement, a broadcaster or MVPD may count each program it airs with video description no more than a total of two times on each channel on which it airs the program. A broadcaster or MVPD may count the second airing in the same or any one subsequent quarter. A broadcaster may only count programs aired on its primary broadcasting stream towards its quarterly requirement. A broadcaster carrying one of the top four commercial television broadcast networks on a secondary stream may count programs aired on that stream toward its quarterly requirement for that network only.
(4) Once an MVPD as defined under paragraph (b)(4) of this section:
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, for a period of three years, the information collections associated with the Commission's decision, in Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside of the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context. Specifically, OMB has approved the Commission's rules that require that sharing stations: file applications for construction permit and license to implement their channel sharing arrangement (CSA); that they include a copy of their CSA with their construction permit application; and that they provide notice of their CSA to multichannel video programming distributors (MVPDs). OMB also approved changes to the Commission's Form 2100 Schedules A, B, C, D, E and F to implement these changes. This document is consistent with the Report and Order, which stated that the Commission would publish a document in the
The final rules regarding 47 CFR 73.3800, 73.6028, 74.799 and FCC Form 2100, Schedules A, B, C, D, E and F published at 82 FR 18240 on April 18, 2017, are effective August 10, 2017.
For additional information contact Cathy
This document announces that OMB approved the information collection requirements contained in the Commission's Report and Order, FCC 17-29, published at 82 FR 18240, April 18, 2017. The OMB Control Numbers are 3060-0016, 3060-0017, 3060-0027, 3060-0837, 3060-0928, 3060-0932, 3060-1176, and 3060-1177. The Commission publishes this notice as an announcement of the effective date of the rules. If you have any comments on the burden estimates listed below, or how the Commission can improve the collections and reduce any burdens caused thereby, please contact Cathy Williams, Federal Communications Commission, Room 1-C823, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554. Please include the OMB Control Numbers, 3060-0016, 3060-0017, 3060-0027, 3060-0837, 3060-0928, 3060-0932, 3060-1176, and 3060-1177 in your correspondence. The Commission will also accept your comments via the Internet if you send them to
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the Commission is notifying the public that it received OMB approval for the modified collection requirements contained in the Commission's rules at 47 CFR 73.3800, 73.6028, and 74.799 and in OMB Control Numbers 3060-0016, 3060-0017, 3060-0027, 3060-0837, 3060-0928, 3060-0932, 3060-1176, and 3060-1177. Under 5 CFR 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Numbers are 3060-0016, 3060-0017, 3060-0027, 3060-0837, 3060-0928, 3060-0932, 3060-1176, and 3060-1177.
The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, October 1, 1995, and 44 U.S.C. 3507.
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
The Commission submitted this information collection to OMB for approval which resulted from the rule provisions adopted in the FCC 17-29. On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted a Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel sharing outside of the incentive auction context between full power, Class A, Low Power Television (LPTV) and TV translator stations.
Although there are no changes to the FCC Form 2100, Schedule C itself, there are changes to the substance, burden hours, and costs as described herein.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 section 74.799 (previously 74.800) permits LPTV and TV translator stations to seek approval to share a single television channel with other LPTV and TV translator stations and with full power and Class A stations. Stations interested in terminating operations and sharing another station's channel must submit FCC Form 2100 Schedule C in order to have the channel sharing arrangement approved. If the sharing station is proposing to make changes to its facility to accommodate the channel sharing, it must also file FCC Form 2100 Schedule C.
The Commission submitted this information collection to OMB for approval which resulted from the rule provisions adopted in the FCC 17-29. On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted the Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel
Although there are no changes to the FCC Form 2100, Schedule D itself, there are changes to the substance, burden hours, and costs as described herein.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 section 74.799 (previously 74.800) permits LPTV and TV translator stations to seek approval to share a single television channel with other LPTV and TV translator stations and with full power and Class A stations. Stations interested in terminating operations and sharing another station's channel must submit FCC Form 2100 Schedule D in order to complete the licensing of their channel sharing arrangement.
Although there are no changes to the FCC Form 2100, Schedule A itself, there are changes to the substance, burden hours, and costs as described herein.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.3800 allows full power television stations to channel share with other full power stations, Class A, LPTV and TV translator stations outside of the incentive auction context. Full power stations file FCC Form 2100, Schedule A in order to obtain Commission approval to operate on a shared channel.
The Commission submitted this information collection to OMB for approval which resulted from the rule provisions adopted in the FCC 17-29. On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted the Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel sharing outside of the incentive auction context between full power, Class A, (Low Power Television) LPTV and TV translator stations.
Although there are no changes to the FCC Form 2100, Schedule B itself, there are changes to the substance, burden hours, and costs as described herein.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.3800 allows full power television stations to channel share with other full power stations, Class A, LPTV and TV translator stations outside of the incentive auction context. Full power stations file FCC Form 2100, Schedule B in order to complete the licensing of their shared channel.
The Commission submitted this information collection to OMB for approval which resulted from the provisions adopted in the FCC 17-29. On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted the Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel sharing outside of the incentive auction context between full power, Class A, LPTV and TV translator stations.
Although there are no changes to the FCC Form 2100, Schedule F itself, there are changes to the substance, burden hours, and costs as described herein.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.6028 permits Class A stations to seek approval to share a single television channel with LPTV, TV translator, full power and Class A television stations. Class A stations interested in terminating operations and sharing another station's channel must submit FCC Form 2100 Schedule F in order to complete the licensing of their channel sharing arrangement.
Class A applications for a major change are subject to third party disclosure requirement of Section 73.3580 which requires local public notice in a newspaper of general circulation of the filing of all applications for major changes in facilities. This notice must be completed within 30 days of the tendering of the application. This notice must be published at least twice a week for two consecutive weeks in a three-week period. A copy of this notice must be placed in the public inspection file along with the application.
47 CFR 74.793(d) requires that digital low power and TV translator stations shall be required to submit information as to vertical radiation patterns as part of their applications (FCC Forms 346 and 301-CA) for new or modified construction permits.
The Commission submitted this information collection to OMB for approval which resulted from the rule provisions adopted in the FCC 17-29. On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted the Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel sharing outside of the incentive auction context between full power, Class A, LPTV and TV translator stations.
Although there are no changes to the FCC Form 2100, Schedule E itself, there are changes to the substance, burden hours, and costs as described herein.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.6028 permits Class A stations to seek approval to share a single television channel with Low Power Television (LPTV), TV translator, full power and Class A television stations. Class A stations interested in terminating operations and sharing another station's channel must submit FCC Form 2100 Schedule E in order to obtain Commission approval for their channel sharing arrangement.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.3700 requires that full power and Class A television stations assigned a new channel in the incentive auction repacking, relinquishing their channel or moving to a new channel as a result of a winning bid in the auction, notify MVPDs of their termination of operations or change in channel.
On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted the Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel sharing outside of the incentive auction context between full power, Class A, Low Power Television (LPTV) and TV translator stations. Channel sharing stations also must notify MVPDs of the fact that stations will be terminating operations on one channel to share another station's channel.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.3800, Full Power Television Channel Sharing Outside the Incentive Auction, Section 73.6028 Class A Television Channel Sharing Outside the Incentive Auction and Section 74.799 Low Power Television and TV Translator Channel Sharing require that stations seeking to channel share outside of the incentive auction provide notification to MVPDs of the fact that the station will be terminating operations on one channel to share another station's channel.
The Commission submitted this information collection to OMB for approval which resulted from the rule provisions adopted in the FCC 14-50 and FCC 17-29.
On June 2, 2014 the Commission released a rulemaking titled “Expanding the Economic and Innovation Opportunities of Spectrum Through Incentive Auctions,” GN Docket 12-268, Report and Order, FCC 14-50, 29 FCC Rcd 6567 (2014) which adopted rules for holding an Incentive Auction. Full power and Class A stations are permitted to propose to relinquish their channels in the auction and to share the channel of another station.
The information collection requirements contain in 47 CFR 73.3700 requires that full power and Class A television stations seeking approval to channel share in the incentive auction provide the Commission with a copy of their CSA for review.
On March 23, 2017, the Commission adopted the Report and Order, Channel Sharing by Full Power and Class A Stations Outside the Broadcast Television Spectrum Incentive Auction Context, GN Docket No. 12-268, MB Docket No. 03-185, MB Docket No. 15-137, FCC 17-29 (“Report and Order”). This document approved channel sharing outside of the incentive auction context between full power, Class A, Low Power Television (LPTV) and TV translator stations.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.3800, Full Power Television Channel Sharing Outside the Incentive Auction, Section 73.6028, Class A Television Channel Sharing Outside the Incentive Auction and Section 73.799, Low Power Television and TV Translator Channel Sharing require that stations seeking to channel share outside of the incentive auction provide a copy of their “CSA” to the Commission for review.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; inseason adjustment.
We announce the reduction of the commercial per-trip possession limit for northern red hake for the remainder of the 2017 fishing year. This action is required to prevent the northern red hake total allowable landing limit from being exceeded. This announcement informs the public that the northern red hake possession limit is reduced from 3,000 lb (1,361 kg) to 400 lb (181 kg).
Effective August 7, 2017, through April 30, 2018.
Reid Lichwell, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-675-9112.
Regulations governing the red hake fishery are found at 50 CFR part 648. The small-mesh multispecies fishery is managed primarily through a series of exemptions from the Northeast Multispecies Fisheries Management Plan. The regulations describing the process to adjust inseason commercial possession limits of northern red hake are described in § 648.86(d)(4) and (5). These regulations require the NMFS Regional Administrator, Greater Atlantic Region, to reduce the northern red hake possession limit from 3,000 lb (1,361 kg) to 400 lb (181 kg) when landings have been projected to reach or exceed 37.9 percent of the total allowable landings (TAL), unless such a reduction would be expected to prevent the TAL from being reached. The final rule implementing the small-mesh multispecies specifications for 2016-2017 (81 FR 41866; June 28, 2015) set the northern red hake inseason adjustment thresholds. Those thresholds were revised in the final rule implementing the 2017 northern red hake accountability measures (82 FR 21477; May 9, 2017), which reduce the inseason possession limit reduction threshold from 62.5 percent to 37.9 percent of the TAL and removed an additional threshold at 45 percent. This trip limit adjustment threshold is an accountability measure implemented because the annual catch limits (ACL) for northern red hake were exceeded in fishing year 2015.
Using commercial landings data reported through August 3, 2017, the northern red hake fishery is projected to reach 37.9 percent of the TAL on August 7, 2017. Based on this projection, we are required to reduce the commercial northern red hake possession limit from 3,000 lb (1,361 kg) to 400 lb (181 kg) to prevent the TAL from being exceeded. On the effective date of this action, no person may possess on board or land more than 400 lb (181 kg) of northern red hake per trip for the remainder of the fishing year (
This action is taken under 50 CFR part 648 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2012-12-12, for all Airbus Model A330-200, A330-200 Freighter, A330-300, A340-200, and A340-300 series airplanes; and AD 2013-16-26 for all Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200 and -300, and A340-200 and -300 series airplanes. AD 2012-12-12 requires repetitive inspections of the outer skin rivets of the cargo doors; repair if necessary; and other repetitive inspections. AD 2013-16-26 requires repetitive inspections of certain cargo doors, and repair if necessary. Since we issued AD 2012-12-12 and AD 2013-16-26, we have determined that a new inspection procedure is necessary to address the unsafe condition. This proposed AD would continue to require repetitive inspections and repair if necessary. This proposed AD would add a one-time inspection and adjustment of certain hook gaps; reinforcement of the door frame structure; related investigative and corrective actions if necessary; and a modification, which would allow deferring reinforcement of the cargo door structure. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by September 25, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone: +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax: +33 5 61 93 45 80; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1138; fax: 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On June 7, 2012, we issued AD 2012-12-12, Amendment 39-17092 (77 FR 37797, June 25, 2012) (“AD 2012-12-12”), for all Airbus Model A330-200 series airplanes, Model A330-200 Freighter series airplanes, Model A330-300 series airplanes, Model A340-200 series airplanes, and Model A340-300 series airplanes. AD 2012-12-12 was prompted by reports of sheared fasteners located on the outside skin of the forward cargo door and cracks on the frame fork ends, as well as cracks of the aft cargo door frame 64A. AD 2012-12-12 requires a detailed inspection of the outer skin rivets at the frame fork ends of the forward and aft cargo doors for sheared, loose, and missing rivets; repair of the outer skin rivets if necessary; and other repetitive inspections. We issued AD 2012-12-12 to detect and correct sheared, loose, or missing fasteners on the forward and aft cargo door frame, which could result in the loss of structural integrity of the forward and aft cargo door.
On August 9, 2013, we issued AD 2013-16-26, Amendment 39-17564 (78 FR 53640, August 30, 2013) (“2013-16-26”), for all Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter series airplanes, Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes, and Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes. AD 2013-16-26 was prompted by reports of cracked adjacent frame forks of a forward cargo door. AD 2013-16-26 requires repetitive detailed inspections for cracks and sheared, loose, or missing rivets of the forward cargo door and, for certain airplanes, of the aft cargo door, and repair if necessary. We issued AD 2013-16-26 to detect and correct cracked or ruptured cargo door frames, which could result in
Since we issued AD 2012-12-12 and AD 2013-16-26, we have determined that a new inspection procedure is necessary to address the unsafe condition. In addition, the manufacturer has released some terminating action modifications for the cargo door structure, and provided procedures that allow postponing the structural reinforcement modification, which terminate the repetitive inspections.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2016-0188, dated September 21, 2016; corrected September 22, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”); to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes; Model A330-200 Freighter series airplanes; and Model A340-200, -300, -500, and -600 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
Several cases of cracked forward (FWD) and aft (AFT) cargo door frames, as well as loose, lost, or sheared rivets, have been reported by operators. Investigation showed that these findings are due to the low margins with respect to fatigue requirements for the AFT/FWD cargo door internal structure. Further analysis determined that the cargo door hook adjustment is a contributing factor to this issue. In case of a cracked or ruptured (FWD or AFT) cargo door frame, the loads will be transferred to the remaining structural elements. However, the secondary load path is able to sustain those loads only for a limited number of flight cycles (FC).
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to rupture of adjacent vertical frames and consequent reduced structural integrity of the FWD or AFT cargo door, possibly resulting in a cargo door failure, decompression of the aeroplane and injury to occupants.
To initially address this potential unsafe condition, Airbus issued Service Bulletin (SB) A330-52-3043 and SB A340-52-4053 and, consequently, DGAC [Direction Générale de l'Aviation Civile] France issued AD 2001-124(B) and AD 2001-126(B), requiring a special detailed inspection of A330 and A340 AFT cargo doors. Since those [DGAC] ADs were issued, prompted by new occurrences, Airbus issued Alert Operators Transmission (AOT) A330-52A3085, AOT A340-52A4092, AOT A330-52A3084, AOT A340-52A4091, AOT A330-A52L003-12, AOT 340-A52L004-12, AOT A330-A52L001-12 and AOT A340-A52L002-12, providing instructions to inspect the affected areas of both FWD and AFT cargo doors.
Consequently, EASA issued AD 2011-0007 (later revised) [which corresponds to FAA AD 2012-12-12], and AD 2012-0274 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2013-16-26], to require repetitive detailed visual inspections of AFT and FWD cargo doors at specific frames and outer skin at all frame fork ends. Since these EASA ADs were issued, Airbus published SB A330-52-3087, SB A330-52-3095, SB A340-52-4095, SB A340-52-4101, SB A340-52-5020 and SB A340-52-5023, which took over the instructions of the above mentioned AOTs, and introduced revised thresholds and intervals. In addition, the inspection program was expanded to A340-500/-600 aeroplanes. Taking into account experience from inspections accomplished in accordance with the applicable Airbus SBs at original issue (listed above), Airbus issued Revision 01 of these SBs.
Consequently, EASA issued AD 2015-0192, which superseded EASA AD 2011-0007R1 and EASA AD 2012-0274, to require for each FWD and AFT cargo door, a one-time inspection/adjustment of the hook gaps “U” and “V”, repetitive detailed inspections (DET) of all frame fork areas, frame head areas and outer skin areas to detect cracks or loose/sheared/missing fasteners, and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s). In addition, EASA AD 2015-0192 expanded the Applicability to Airbus A340-500/-600 aeroplanes.
Since EASA AD 2015-0192 was issued, Airbus published Revision 02 of the inspection SBs, introducing high-frequency eddy-current inspection method for the frame forks structure. Airbus also determined that the interval for these repetitive inspections could be increased. In addition, Airbus released some modifications (mod) introducing reinforcements to the cargo door structure improving the fatigue characteristics. These modifications and associated SBs constitute terminating action for the required repetitive inspections. Furthermore, Airbus also published other SBs, introducing cold working after oversizing of the fastener holes as a means for structural reinforcement. Accomplishment of these SBs allows postponement of the required Point of Embodiment (Structural Modification Point) for the structural reinforcement modification SBs which terminate the repetitive inspection requirement.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD partially retains the requirements of EASA AD 2015-0192, which is superseded, and requires for each FWD and AFT cargo door initial and repetitive special detailed inspections (SDI) of all frame fork areas and detailed inspections (DET) of frame head areas and outer skin areas, and a one-time inspection/adjustment of the hook gaps “U” and “V” and, depending on findings, the accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s). Additionally, this [EASA] AD requires reinforcement of the cargo door frame structure, while accomplishment of a cold working modification allows to defer the reinforcement of the cargo door structure.
It should be noted that additional inspections exist for the cargo doors, as specified in Airbus A330 ALS [Airworthiness Limitation Section] Part 2 task 523211-02-01 and task 523211-02-02, and in Airbus A340 ALS Part 2 Task 523211-02-01.
This [EASA] AD is re-published to correct typographical errors when referencing Airbus SB A340-52-4118.
Related investigative actions include detailed inspections and high frequency non-destructive test inspections. Corrective actions include reaming holes, bushing holes, replacing affected parts, and repairing cracks. Additional work includes a one-time inspection of the “U” and “V” hook gaps, and if necessary, an adjustment of the hook gaps.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued the following service information.
The following service information describes procedures for inspecting and repairing the frame fork area at beam 4 and frame head area at beam 1 from frame 20B to frame 25 of the forward cargo door, and adjusting the hook gaps “U” and “V.” This service information is distinct since it applies to different airplane models.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3087, Revision 02, including Appendix 01, dated February 18, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4095, Revision 02, including Appendix 01, dated November 29, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-5020, Revision 02, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 27, 2015.
The following service information describes procedures for modifying the frame fork area at beam 4 and frame head area at beam 1 from frame 20B to frame 25 of the forward cargo door frame. This service information is distinct since it applies to different airplane models and configurations.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3105, dated February 24, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3110, dated February 15, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3111, dated February 15, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4108, dated February 15, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4113, dated February 15, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4114, dated February 15, 2016.
The following service information describes procedures for modifying the fastener holes in the forward cargo door frame structure by cold working and changing the fastener type and size. This service information is distinct since it applies to different airplane models and configurations.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3116, dated April 20, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3117, dated April 20, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3118, dated April 20, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4119, dated April 20, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4120, dated April 20, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4121, dated April 20, 2016.
The following service information describes procedures for inspecting the frame fork area at beam 4 and frame head area at beam 1 of the aft cargo door from frame 60 to frame 64A, adjusting the hook gaps “U” and “V,” and doing corrective actions. This service information is distinct since it applies to different airplane models and configurations.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3095, Revision 02, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated February 19, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4101, Revision 02, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 27, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-5023, Revision 02, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 27, 2015.
The following service information describes procedures for modifying the frame fork and head of the aft cargo door frame from frame 59A to frame 65. This service information is distinct since it applies to different airplane models and configurations.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3106, dated February 24, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3112, dated February 24, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3113, dated February 15, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3114, dated February 15, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4109, dated February 25, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4115, dated February 19, 2016.
The following service information describes procedures for modifying the fastener holes in the aft cargo door frame structure by cold working and changing the fastener type and size. This service information is distinct since it applies to different airplane models.
• Service Bulletin A330-52-3115, dated April 20, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A340-52-4118, dated April 20, 2016.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 73 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate that it would take up to 888 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost up to $126,420 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be up to $14,738,700, or up to $201,900 per product.
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by September 25, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2012-12-12, Amendment 39-17092 (77 FR 37797, June 25, 2012) (“AD 2012-12-12”); and AD 2013-16-26, Amendment 39-17564 (78 FR 53640, August 30, 2013) (“AD 2013-16-26”).
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD, certified in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers, except those on which Airbus Modification 202702 and Modification 202790 have been embodied in production; and the Airbus airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(3) through (c)(5) of this AD, certified in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, and -243F airplanes.
(2) Model A330-301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes.
(3) Model A340-211, -212, and -213 airplanes.
(4) Model A340-311, -312, and -313 airplanes.
(5) Model A340-541 and -642 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracked forward and aft cargo door frames, and loose, missing, or sheared rivets. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracked or ruptured cargo door frames, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the forward or aft cargo door.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For the purpose of this AD, the affected cargo doors are pre-modification 202702 (forward cargo door) and pre-modification 202790 (aft cargo door), and are listed by part number (P/N) in the applicable service information identified in paragraph (h)(1) of this AD. For post-modification doors, which are not affected by this AD, the P/Ns are identified as F52370900XXX (forward cargo door) and F52372315XXX (aft cargo door), where “XXX” can be a combination of any three numerical digits.
(1) Before exceeding 5,300 total flight cycles since first installation of the forward cargo door on an airplane, or within the applicable compliance time specified in table 1 to paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, whichever occurs later, except as specified in paragraph (q) of this AD: Do all applicable detailed and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections of all frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin areas of each affected forward cargo door, as applicable; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (h)(1)(i), (h)(1)(ii), or (h)(1)(iii) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative actions and corrective actions before further flight in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (h)(1)(i), (h)(1)(ii), or (h)(1)(iii) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (p) of this AD. Repeat the applicable inspections of the frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin areas of each affected forward cargo door thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1,400 flight cycles.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3087, Revision 02, dated February 18, 2016 (“A330-52-3087, R2”).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4095, Revision 02, dated November 29, 2015 (“A340-52-4095, R2”).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5020, Revision 02, dated November 27, 2015 (“A340-52-5020, R2”).
(2) Concurrently with the first inspection required by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD: Do a one-time detailed inspection of the hook gaps “U” and “V” of each affected forward cargo door for proper adjustment, and, depending on findings, adjust the hook(s), in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (h)(2)(i), (h)(2)(ii), or (h)(2)(iii) of this AD. Do all required hook gap adjustments before further flight.
(i) A330-52-3087, R2.
(ii) A340-52-4095, R2.
(iii) A340-52-5020, R2.
(1) Except as specified in paragraph (i)(2) of this AD, before exceeding 18,500 total flight cycles since first installation of the forward cargo door on an airplane, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Do reinforcement modifications on the frame structure of each affected forward cargo door, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (i)(1)(i) through (i)(1)(vi) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (p) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3105, dated February 24, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -223, and -243 airplanes; and Model A330-301, -321, -322, -341, and -342 airplanes).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3110, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes; and Model A330-303, -323, and -343 airplanes).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3111, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, and -243F airplanes; and Model A330-302, -303, -323, -342, and -343 airplanes).
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4108, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4113, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain Model A340-312 and -313 airplanes).
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4114, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain Model A340-313 airplanes).
(2) Accomplishment of the reinforcement modifications required by paragraph (i)(1) of this AD may be deferred, provided that, before exceeding 18,500 total flight cycles since first installation of the forward cargo door on an airplane, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, but not earlier than 14,500 total flight cycles for Model A330 airplanes, or 12,500 total flight cycles for Model A340 airplanes, cold working is accomplished on the frame structure of each affected forward cargo door, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) through (i)(2)(vi) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (p) of this AD. Modification of an airplane by accomplishment of the cold working specified in this paragraph does not constitute terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3116, dated April 20, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -223, and -243 airplanes; and Model A330-301, -321, -322, -341, and -342 airplanes).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3117, dated April 20, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes; and Model A330-303, -323, and -343 airplanes).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3118, dated April 20, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, and -243F airplanes; and Model A330-302, -303, -323, -342, and -343 airplanes).
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4119, dated April 20, 2016 (for certain Model A340-211, -212, and -213 airplanes; and Model A340-311, -312, and -313 airplanes).
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4120, dated April 20, 2016 (for certain Model A340-312 and -313 airplanes).
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4121, dated April 20, 2016 (for certain Model A340-313 airplanes).
(3) Within 18,500 flight cycles after cold working is accomplished on the frame structure of each affected forward cargo door as specified in paragraph (i)(2) of this AD: Do the reinforcement modifications on the frame structure of each affected forward cargo door, using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
Modification of an airplane by reinforcement of the cargo door frame structure required by paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(3) of this AD constitutes terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD for that airplane.
(1) For the purpose of this AD, pre-modified Model A330-200 series airplanes, Model A330-200 Freighter series airplanes, Model A330-300 series airplanes, Model A340-200 series airplanes, and Model A340-300 series airplanes are defined as those not having Airbus Modification 44852, or Modification 44854 applied in production, or being in pre-Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3044 or pre-Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4054 configuration, as applicable.
(2) For the purpose of this AD, post-modification Model A330-200 series airplanes, Model A330-200 Freighter series airplanes, Model A330-300 series airplanes, Model A340-200 series airplanes, and Model A340-300 series airplanes are defined as those having Airbus Modification 44852 or Modification 44854 applied in production, or modified in service as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3044 or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4054, as applicable.
(1) Before exceeding 4,000 total flight cycles for pre-modified airplanes, or 12,000 total flight cycles for post-modified airplanes, since first installation of the aft cargo door on an airplane, as applicable, or within the compliance time specified in table 2 to paragraph (l)(1) of this AD or table 3 to paragraph (l)(1) of this AD, as applicable, whichever occurs later, except as specified in paragraph (q) of this AD: Do all applicable inspections of all frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin area of each affected aft cargo door, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (l)(1)(i), (l)(1)(ii), or (l)(1)(iii) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative actions and corrective actions before further flight in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (l)(1)(i), (l)(1)(ii), or (l)(1)(iii) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (p) of this AD. Repeat the applicable inspections thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1,400 flight cycles.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3095, Revision 02, dated February 19, 2016 (“A330-52-3095, R2”).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4101, Revision 02, dated November 27, 2015 (“A340-52-4101, R2”).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5023, Revision 02, dated November 27, 2015 (“A340-52-5023, R2”).
(2) Concurrently with the first inspection required by paragraph (l)(1) of this AD: Do a one-time detailed inspection of the hook gaps “U” and “V” of each affected aft cargo door for proper adjustment and, depending on findings, adjust the hook(s) in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (l)(2)(i), (l)(2)(ii), or (l)(2)(iii) of this AD. Do all required hook gap adjustments before further flight.
(i) A330-52-3095, R2.
(ii) A340-52-4101, R2.
(iii) A340-52-5023, R2.
(1) For pre-modified airplanes, except as specified in paragraph (m)(2) of this AD: Before exceeding 18,500 total flight cycles since first installation of the aft cargo door on an airplane, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, do reinforcement modifications, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (m)(1)(i) through (m)(1)(vi) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (p) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3106, dated February 24, 2016 (for certain Model A330-301, -321, -322, -341, and -342 airplanes).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3112, dated February 24, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202 and -223 airplanes; and Model A330-301, -322, -341, and -342 airplanes).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3113, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain Model A330-223 and -243 airplanes; and Model A330-322 and -342 airplanes).
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3114, dated February 15, 2016 (for certain Model A330-202, -203, -223, -223F, -243, and -243F airplanes; and Model A330-302, -303, -323, -342, and -343 airplanes).
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4109, dated February 25, 2016 (for certain Model A340-211, -212, and -213 airplanes; and Model A340-311, -312, and -313 airplanes).
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4115, dated February 19, 2016 (for certain Model A340-212, -213, and -313 airplanes).
(2) Accomplishment of the reinforcement modifications required by paragraph (m)(1) of this AD may be deferred provided that before exceeding 18,500 total flight cycles since first installation of the aft cargo door on an airplane, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, but not earlier than 14,500 total flight cycles, cold working is accomplished on the frame structure of each affected aft cargo door, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3115, dated April 20, 2016; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4118, dated April 20, 2016; as applicable. Modification of an airplane by accomplishment of the cold working specified in this paragraph does not constitute terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (l)(1) of this AD.
(3) For an airplane on which the cold working on the cargo door frame structure is accomplished, as specified in paragraph (m)(2) of this AD: Within 18,500 flight cycles after the application of cold working, do reinforcement modifications, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the service information specified in paragraphs (m)(1)(i) through (m)(1)(vi) of this AD, as applicable, or using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA.
Modification of an airplane by reinforcement of the cargo door frame structure required by paragraph (m)(1) or (m)(3) of this AD constitutes terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (l)(1) of this AD for that airplane.
For post-modified airplanes, modification of an airplane by reinforcement of the cargo door frame structure, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (m)(1)(i) through (m)(1)(vi) of this AD, or using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA, constitutes terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (l)(1) of this AD.
Where the service information specified in paragraphs (h)(1), (i)(1), (i)(2), (l)(1), and (m) of this AD specifies to contact Airbus for instructions or repair, before further flight, accomplish corrective actions in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (s)(2) of this AD.
For the purposes of table 1 to paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, table 2 to paragraph (l)(1) of this AD, and table 3 to paragraph (l)(1) of this AD: As soon as a cargo door is inspected using any applicable service information specified in this AD, the previous inspections accomplished in accordance with any alert operator transmission can be disregarded for the determination of the compliance time for the initial inspection required by this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for the initial inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if that inspection was performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3087, dated August 29, 2013; Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4095, dated August 29, 2013; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5020, dated August 29, 2013; as applicable; provided that the actions identified as “additional work” in the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3087, Revision 01, dated July 9, 2014; Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4095, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5020, Revision 01, dated July 9, 2014; as applicable; are accomplished within 1,100 flight cycles after that inspection; and provided the next inspection of all frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin area of each affected forward cargo door is accomplished within 1,100 flight cycles after that inspection, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of A330-52-3087, R2; A330-52-3095, R2; or A340-52-5020, R2, as applicable.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the initial inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if that inspection was performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3087, Revision 01, dated July 9, 2014; Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4095, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5020, Revision 01, dated July 9, 2014; as applicable; provided that the next inspection of all frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin area of each affected forward cargo door, is accomplished within 1,100 flight cycles after that inspection in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of A330-52-3087, R2; A330-52-3095, R2; or A340-52-5020, R2, as applicable.
(3) This paragraph provides credit for the initial inspection required by paragraph (l) of this AD, if that inspection was performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3095, dated August 29, 2013; Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4101, dated August 29, 2013; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5023, dated August 29, 2013; provided that the actions identified as “additional work” in the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3095, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4101, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5023, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; as applicable; are accomplished within 550 flight cycles after that inspection, and provided the next inspection of all frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin area of each affected aft cargo door is accomplished within 550 flight cycles after that inspection in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of A330-52-3095, R2; A340-52-4101, R2; or A340-52-5023, R2, as applicable.
(4) This paragraph provides credit for the initial inspection required by paragraph (l) of this AD, if that inspection was performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A330-52-3095, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-4101, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-52-5023, Revision 01, dated July 28, 2014; as applicable; provided that the next inspection of all frame fork areas, frame head areas, and outer skin area of each affected aft cargo door is accomplished within 550 flight cycles after that inspection in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of A330-52-3095, R2; A340-52-4101, R2; or A340-52-5023, R2, as applicable.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2016-0188, dated September 21, 2016; corrected September 22, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact, Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1138; fax: 425-227-1149.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone: +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax: +33 5 61 93 45 80; email:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the fuselage crown skin panels are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections, replacement, and applicable on-condition actions for certain fuselage crown skin panels. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by September 25, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Section, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO) Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as WFD. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
We have received a report indicating that an operator of a Model 737-300 series airplane reported multiple cracks of the chem-milled steps in adjacent bays of the fuselage crown skin. These cracks were discovered by visual inspection 855 flight cycles after the most recent detailed inspection. The initial visual inspection revealed three cracks varying in length from 1.8 inches to 8.5 inches. Further inspection using ultrasonic phased array revealed nine additional subsurface cracks. The airplane had 55,232 total flight cycles. Multiple adjacent cracks in the fuselage crown skin panels, if not detected and corrected, could link up and lead to decompression or loss of structural integrity of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017. The service information describes procedures for repetitive inspections, replacement, and applicable on-condition actions for certain fuselage crown skin panels. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishment of the actions identified as “RC” (required for compliance) in the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service
For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The compliance time for the replacement specified in this proposed AD for addressing WFD was established to ensure that discrepant structure is replaced before WFD develops in airplanes. Standard inspection techniques cannot be relied on to detect WFD before it becomes a hazard to flight. We will not grant any extensions of the compliance time to complete any AD-mandated service bulletin related to WFD without extensive new data that would substantiate and clearly warrant such an extension.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 200 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by September 25, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that the fuselage crown skin panels are subject to widespread fatigue damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking in the fuselage crown skin panels. Multiple adjacent cracks in the fuselage crown skin could link up and lead to decompression or loss of structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, do all applicable actions identified as “RC” (required for compliance) in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017.
(1) For purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of this AD, the phrase “the effective date of this AD” may be substituted for “the original issue date of this service bulletin,” as specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017.
(2) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, specifies contacting Boeing, and specifies that action as RC: This AD requires using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
(3) Part 7 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, specifies post-modification airworthiness limitation inspections in compliance with 14 CFR 25.571(a)(3) at the modified locations to support compliance with 14 CFR 121.1109(c)(2) or 129.109(b)(2). Although Part 7 is identified as RC, this AD does not require accomplishment of Part 7. As airworthiness limitations, these inspections are required by maintenance and operational rules. It is therefore unnecessary to mandate them in this AD. Deviations from these inspections require FAA approval, but do not require approval of an alternative method of compliance.
(1) Replacement of a skin panel, in accordance with Part 8 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD, terminates the actions specified in Parts 1, 4, and 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, for that replaced skin panel only. To be acceptable as terminating action, the replacement may not be done prior to the applicable time specified in Table 4 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017.
(2) Completion of a structural repair manual repair to repair cracking, in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD, terminates the repetitive inspections specified in Part 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, for that repair location only.
(3) Completion of a “Category C repair” to repair cracking, in accordance with Part 3 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD, terminates the repetitive inspections specified in Part 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, for that repair location only.
(4) Completion of a “Change Category C Repair to SB Repair,” in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD, terminates the inspections specified in Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1358, dated April 27, 2017, as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, for that repair location only.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraphs (h)(2) and (h)(3) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace at Onida, SD. Controlled airspace is necessary to accommodate new special instrument approach procedures developed at Onida Municipal Airport, for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport.
Comments must be received on or before September 25, 2017.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826, or (800) 647-5527. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-9546; Airspace Docket No. 16-AGL-32, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Rebecca Shelby, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5857.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace extending up to and including 700 feet above the surface at Onida Municipal Airport, Onida, SD, in support of new instrument approach procedures at the airport.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-9546; Airspace Docket No. 16-AGL-32.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by establishing Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Onida Municipal Airport, Onida, SD, to accommodate new special instrument approach procedures. Controlled airspace is needed for the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Onida Municipal Airport.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve North Carolina's December 9, 2015 State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission pertaining to the Clean Air Act's (CAA or Act) “good neighbor” provision of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) for the 2008 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). The good neighbor provision requires each state's SIP to address the interstate transport of air pollution in amounts that contribute significantly to nonattainment, or interfere with maintenance, of a NAAQS in any other state. In this action, EPA is proposing to determine that North Carolina's SIP contains adequate provisions to prohibit emissions within the state from contributing significantly to nonattainment or interfering with maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in any other state.
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0321 at
Ashten Bailey, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Bailey can also be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9164 and via electronic mail at
On March 27, 2008, EPA promulgated an ozone NAAQS that revised the levels of the primary and secondary 8-hour ozone standards from 0.08 parts per million (ppm) to 0.075 ppm.
On December 9, 2015, the North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (NCDEQ) submitted a SIP submittal containing a certification
EPA developed technical information and related analyses to assist states with meeting section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requirements for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS through SIPs and, as appropriate, to provide backstop federal implementation plans in the event that states failed to submit approvable SIPs. On October 26, 2016, EPA took steps to effectuate this backstop role with respect to emissions in 22 eastern states
The CSAPR Update uses the same framework EPA used when developing the original CSAPR, EPA's transport rule addressing the 1997 ozone NAAQS as well as the 1997 and 2006 fine particulate matter (PM
In the technical analysis supporting the CSAPR Update, EPA used detailed air quality analyses to determine where projected nonattainment or maintenance areas would be and whether emissions from an eastern state contribute to downwind air quality problems at those projected nonattainment or maintenance receptors. Specifically, EPA determined whether each state's contributing emissions were at or above a specific threshold (
As discussed in the final CSAPR Update, the air quality modeling contained in EPA's technical analysis: (1) Identified locations in the U.S. where EPA anticipates nonattainment or maintenance issues in 2017 for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS (these are identified as nonattainment or maintenance receptors, respectively), and (2) quantified the projected contributions from emissions from upwind states to downwind ozone concentrations at the receptors in 2017.
Consistent with the framework established in the original CSAPR rulemaking, EPA's technical analysis in support of the CSAPR Update applied an air quality screening threshold of 0.75 ppb (one percent of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS of 75 ppb) to identify linkages between upwind states and the downwind nonattainment and maintenance receptors.
EPA's air quality modeling for the final CSAPR Update projects that North Carolina's emissions are projected to contribute below one percent of the 2008 ozone NAAQS to all receptors. The modeling indicates that North Carolina's largest contribution to any projected downwind nonattainment site in 2017 is 0.51 ppb and North Carolina's largest contribution to any projected downwind maintenance-only site in 2017 is 0.50 ppb.
As discussed above, North Carolina's submittal certifies that emission activities from the State will not contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in any other state.
EPA is proposing to approve North Carolina's December 9, 2015 SIP submission demonstrating that North Carolina's SIP is sufficient to address the CAA requirements of prongs 1 and 2 under section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. In the CSAPR Update, EPA has already taken a final action to determine that emissions from North Carolina will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in downwind states. Accordingly, EPA proposes to find that North Carolina's SIP is consistent with this final determination. EPA requests comment on this proposed approval of North Carolina's SIP.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) proposes to approve the state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. This revision pertains to Allegheny County's portion of the Pennsylvania SIP for the purpose of updating the regulation restricting open burning with revised definitions and new restrictions and with recodified provisions. In the Final Rules section of this
Comments must be received in writing by September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0204 at
Gregory A. Becoat, (215) 814-2036, or by email at
For further information, please see the information provided in the direct final action, with the same title, that is located in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the Kentucky State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted by the Commonwealth of Kentucky, through the Kentucky Division for Air Quality (KDAQ), on March 21, 2011, October 29, 2013, October 28, 2016, and March 24, 2017. The proposed revisions were submitted by KDAQ on behalf of the Louisville Metro Air Pollution Control District (District), which has jurisdiction over Jefferson County, Kentucky. The revisions include changes to Jefferson County Regulations regarding Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) for two major sources of nitrogen oxides (NO
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0356 at
Joel Huey, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960 or Andres Febres, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Huey can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9104 or via electronic mail at
EPA is proposing to approve changes to the Jefferson County portion of the Kentucky SIP that were received by EPA on March 21, 2011. Approval of Kentucky's March 21, 2011, submission would: (1) Make several changes to Regulation 6.29,
On March 21, 2011, the Louisville Metro Air Pollution Control District,
Jefferson County Air Quality Regulation 6.29 applies to each printing line for packaging rotogravure, publication rotogravure, specialty rotogravure, and/or flexographic printing that commenced operation before February 4, 1981. Kentucky's March 21, 2011, revision adds a new Section 3.2, which specifies that compliance with the VOC limits shall be based upon materials used during a calendar-day averaging period, but that the “District may specifically authorize compliance to be based upon a longer averaging period that shall not exceed one calendar month.” Although the existing SIP-approved rule does not specify the averaging time for compliance determination, EPA understands it to be 24 hours (based upon the daily recordkeeping requirement of Section 7.1). EPA believes that the proposed averaging times for compliance determination for up to one month would not result in any change in pollutant emissions because such allowances would be authorized only for facilities that generally use materials having little variation in VOC content. In addition, EPA notes that the approach of compliance determination based on averaging periods of up to one month is consistent with EPA's federal rules regulating this industry, including the New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) for the Graphic Arts Industry (Publication Rotogravure Printing) at 40 CFR part 60, subpart QQ, and the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) for the Printing and Publishing Industry at 40 CFR part 63, subpart KK.
The March 21, 2011, revision also amends Regulation 6.29 to allow material usage recordkeeping requirements to reflect the approved averaging period rather than the daily recordkeeping requirement of the existing SIP-approved rule. The inks and coatings used during a longer time period would be prorated to the appropriate compliance period based upon a measured parameter, such as linear feet of substrate printed. In addition, while the current SIP-
Regulation 6.29 has also been revised such that it applies to all rotogravure and flexographic printing lines operating within the District. Section 1 (
Another change to Regulation 6.29 is that Section 5, “
Regulation 7.57 applies to the same type of printing lines as Regulation 6.29, but it applies to “new” units, defined as those that commenced operation on or after February 4, 1981. Kentucky's March 21, 2011, submittal proposes to remove Regulation 7.57 from the SIP. As noted above, Regulation 6.29 has been revised such that it applies to all rotogravure and flexographic printing lines, regardless of their date of operational commencement. EPA has reviewed the revised Regulation 6.29 and has preliminarily determined that it regulates the sources with the same stringency as Regulation 7.57. Therefore, because Regulation 6.29 as revised will apply to all subject printing lines within the District's jurisdiction, Regulation 7.57 would be duplicative and unnecessary. EPA proposes to approve the removal of Regulation 7.57 from the SIP.
Jefferson County Air Quality Regulation 6.42 (Reasonably Available Control Technology Requirements for Major Volatile Organic Compound- and Nitrogen Oxides-Emitting Facilities) requires the establishment and implementation of RACT for certain affected facilities that are located at a major stationary source for NO
The March 21, 2011, submittal includes the District's second amendment to the Medical Center Board Order and requests withdrawal of Amendment 1. However, on October 29, 2013, the District submitted a third amendment to the Medical Center Board Order and requested withdrawal of the second one, and on April 4, 2017, the District submitted a fourth amendment to the Medical Center Board Order and requested withdrawal of the third one. No federal approval action has been taken on the second or third amendments to the Medical Center Board Order.
On March 19, 2008, the APC-JC Board adopted Amendment 2 to the Medical Center Board Order. Amendment 2 changed the fuel for Boiler #1 from coal to natural gas, removed the 10 percent “seasonal capacity factor” and added a 0.10 pound per million British thermal unit (lb/MMBtu) heat input limit for that boiler. On August 21, 2013, the Louisville Metro Air Pollution Control Board (LMAPC Board; formerly, the APC-JC Board) adopted Amendment 3 to the Medical Center Board Order. Amendment 3 removed the 10 percent seasonal capacity factor for Boiler #3 (since the coal stoker was removed and replaced with a low NO
On January 18, 2017, the LMAPC Board adopted Amendment 4 to the Medical Center Board Order. Amendment 4 replaces the emission rate limits for Boiler #1 and Boiler #3 (0.10 and 0.20 lb/MMBtu, respectively) with new limits on total NO
EPA preliminarily agrees with the District that the Amendment 4 to Medical Center Board Order achieves at least the same level of NO
As discussed above, Jefferson County Air Quality Regulation 6.42 requires the establishment and implementation of RACT for certain affected facilities that are located at a major stationary source for NO
The March 21, 2011, submittal includes the District's second amendment to the Texas Gas Board Order and requests withdrawal of Amendment 1. However, on October 28, 2016, the District submitted a third amendment to the Texas Gas Board Order and requested withdrawal of second one. No federal approval action has been taken on the second amendment to the Texas Gas Board Order.
On June 17, 2009, the APC-JC Board adopted Amendment 2 to the Texas Gas Board Order. Amendment 2 removed the compressor turbine T-1 emission requirements due to the removal of the unit from the facility in 2005, added emission requirements for new compressor turbine E-22, and added a requirement that combustion performance modifications performed on the nine reciprocating internal combustion engine compressors remain in place to ensure NO
On May 18, 2016, the LMAPC Board adopted Amendment 3 to the Texas Gas Board Order. Amendment 3 introduces the emission limits and work practice standards for engine E28 to bring it up to date with EPA's NESHAP for Stationary Reciprocating Internal Combustion Engines (40 CFR 63, subpart ZZZZ) as revised in 2013 (
Regarding the performance testing schedule for Compressor Engines El-E6, Amendment 3 requires the same 6-year testing period for each engine as the approved Amendment 1. For Compressor Engines E7-E9, Amendment 3 also requires a 6-year testing period for each engine, although these engines are required to be tested every three years under the approved Amendment 1. EPA believes the reduced testing frequency for Compressor Engines E7-E9 is appropriate because these units are of the same type as Compressor Engines E1-E6, which have a six-year testing requirement, and the revised schedule requires performance testing of all nine of the facility's compressor engines within each 6-year period. For Turbine E22, the performance testing schedule is reduced from every two years to every six years. EPA believes this reduced testing frequency is appropriate because new condition 7 of Amendment 3 requires the owner or operator to continuously monitor and record appropriate parameters to demonstrate that the unit is operating in low-NO
EPA preliminarily agrees with the District that Amendment 3 to the Texas Gas Board Order achieves the same level of NO
In 1982, EPA approved a revision to the Kentucky SIP that allowed an alternative emission reduction plan in the form of a “bubble rule” for the General Electric plant in Louisville, Kentucky.
In this rule, EPA is proposing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing the incorporation by reference of Jefferson County's Regulation 6.29,
EPA is proposing to approve changes to the Jefferson County Air Quality Regulations portion of the Kentucky SIP. The requested revisions were provided by KDAQ to EPA on March 21, 2011, October 29, 2013, October 28, 2016, and March 24, 2017. The changes proposed for approval would: (1) Modify Regulation 6.29, (2) remove Regulation 7.57, (3) incorporate Amendment 4 to the NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a portion of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission, submitted by the State of Florida, through the Florida Department of Environmental Protection, on January 22, 2013, addressing the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) infrastructure requirements for the 2010 1-hour nitrogen dioxide (NO
Written comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0507 at
Andres Febres of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Febres can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-8966 or via electronic mail at
In the Final Rules section of this issue of the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve changes to the South Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP) to update new source review regulations. EPA is proposing to approve portions of SIP revisions submitted by the State of South Carolina, through the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control on the following dates: July 18, 2011, April 10, 2014, August 12, 2015, and January 20, 2016. These actions are being proposed pursuant to the Clean Air Act.
Written comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0547 at
D. Brad Akers, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Akers can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9089 or via electronic mail at
In the Final Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve portions of five State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Florida, Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP), through the Florida Division of Air Resource Management, on June 23, 1999, July 1, 2011, December 12, 2011, February 27, 2013, and February 1, 2017. Florida's SIP revisions recodify, clarify, and reorganize the State's non-title V air permitting and compliance assurance program regulations consistent with flexibility provided under the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and EPA's rules which address new source preconstruction permitting. EPA is proposing to approve Florida's SIP revisions on the basis that they are consistent with the CAA and EPA's requirements for permitting air emission sources.
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0105 at
Michele Notarianni, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Notarianni can be reached by phone at (404) 562-9031 and via electronic mail at
FDEP submitted to EPA for adoption into the Florida SIP five revisions, three of which were submitted on June 23, 1999, July 1, 2011, and February 27, 2013, as part of the State's efforts to clarify and streamline Florida's non-title V air permitting and compliance assurance program and to address EPA's minor source preconstruction requirements under 40 CFR 51.160-51.164.
In Florida's June 23, 1999, SIP revision, FDEP submitted multiple amendments to four F.A.C. rule chapters—Chapters 62-210, 62-212, 62-296, and 62-297—as part of the State's work to clarify and streamline Florida's non-title V air permitting and compliance assurance program. The amendments to these four F.A.C. rule chapters affecting 16 rule sections were adopted by Florida between 1997 and 1999. FDEP requested adoption of the following 16 F.A.C. rule sections: 62-210.200, 62-210.220,
In Florida's July 1, 2011, SIP revision, the State submitted amendments to 11 F.A.C. rule sections. Specifically, the State proposed to clarify, update, and revise certain requests from its June 23, 1999, SIP revision. The State also provided corrective and clarifying amendments to FDEP's new source review (NSR) permitting and stationary source control strategy programs, as well as to other miscellaneous provisions. Specifically, FDEP requested adoption of amendments to F.A.C. rule sections: 62-210.200,
Also in this revision, FDEP withdrew its request for EPA to approve amendments to six F.A.C. rule sections submitted in its June 23, 1999, SIP revision: 62-210.360, 62-212.400, 62-296.570, 62-297.401, 62-297.440, and 62-297.520. Additionally, FDEP reiterated its original June 23, 1999, request to approve four F.A.C. rule sections, all with state effective dates of March 2, 1999, from its 1999 SIP submission: 62-296.405, 62-296.406, 62-297.310, and 62-297.450.
In Florida's December 12, 2011, SIP revision, the State submitted amendments to two of its rules—62-210.200 and 62-212.400, F.A.C.—which included the addition of one new definition, “North American Industry Classification System,” or “NAICS,” to rule 62-210.200, F.A.C.
In Florida's February 27, 2013, SIP revision, the State submitted amendments to four F.A.C. rule sections: 62-210.200, 62-210.300,
In Florida's February 1, 2017, SIP revision, the State submitted amendments to three of its rules to address requirements for emissions monitoring at stationary sources—62-297.310, 62-297.440, and 62-297.450, F.A.C.—and proposed to remove 62-297.401, F.A.C. In the submitted amendments, FDEP made several clarifications to rule 62-297.310, F.A.C.
A description of these collective changes to each rule section from Florida's 1999, 2011, 2013, and 2017 SIP submissions and the State's NAICS SIP submission summarized above and EPA's analysis of the proposed changes follows.
Described below are the Florida rules and/or subsections of those rules which EPA is proposing to incorporate into the Florida SIP.
In its July 1, 2011, SIP submission, FDEP requested approval of changes to 15 definitions in Rule 62-210.200, F.A.C., with a state effective date of March 11, 2010. EPA will act on the July 1, 2011, SIP submission rule section changes—which were resubmitted in the State's 2013 submission—in a separate rulemaking. Thus, EPA is not proposing action on these 15 definitions contained in the 2011 SIP submission and also resubmitted in the 2013 SIP submission today.
In its December 12, 2011, SIP submission, Florida added a new definition of “North American Industry Classification System,” or “NAICS.”
In its 2013 submission, Florida requested approval of changes to Rule 62-210.200, F.A.C., as amended up to state effective date March 28, 2012, to include four sets of amendments adopted by the State between 2005 and 2012.
In its 2013 submission, Florida requested approval into the SIP changes to Rule 62-210.310, F.A.C., “Air General Permits” as amended up to state effective date June 29, 2011, which include three sets of amendments adopted by the State between 2007 and 2011. This rule section, as amended, provides 17 air general permits, or “permits-by-rule,” by which owners or operators of air emission sources can construct and operate their facilities without going through the individual permitting process, so long as certain requirements are satisfied.
EPA proposes to approve the changes provided in Florida's 2013 SIP submission to Rule 62-210.310, F.A.C., with state effective dates of January 10, 2007, October 12, 2008, and June 29, 2011, into Florida's SIP on the basis that these changes are intended to further clarify, organize, and streamline Florida's permit regulations. Moreover, these changes are not inconsistent with federal law, and will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment of the NAAQS, reasonable further progress, or any other requirement of the CAA.
In its 2013 submission, FDEP requested approval into the SIP of revisions to Rule 62-210.350, F.A.C., “Public Notice and Comment” as amended up to state effective date October 12, 2008, to incorporate three sets of amendments adopted by the State between 1997 and 2008. In the submission, Florida withdrew its request to adopt an earlier version of Rule 62-210.350, F.A.C., which was included in its 1999 submission.
EPA proposes to approve portions of the revisions provided in Florida's 2013 SIP submission to Rule 62-210.350, F.A.C. (with state effective dates of November 13, 1997, February 11, 1999, October 12, 2008) with the exception of three F.A.C. rule subsections: 62-210.350(4)(a)2, 62-210.350(4)(b), and the withdrawn revision at 62-210.350(1)(c). These changes are intended to clarify, organize, and streamline Florida's permit regulations. Moreover, these changes are not inconsistent with federal law, and will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment of the NAAQS, reasonable further progress, or any other requirement of the CAA.
In its July 1, 2011 submission, FDEP submitted an amendment to Rule 62-296.100, F.A.C., which was state-effective October 6, 2008. The amendment separated the rule language into four subsections for improved readability. The amendment also added language to clarify that a facility or emissions unit subject to any new source performance standard or national emission standard for hazardous air pollutants adopted by reference at Rule 62-204.800, F.A.C., must also comply with any emission limitations that may apply in Chapter 62-296, F.A.C. EPA proposes to approve these non-substantive changes to Rule 62-296.100, F.A.C., provided in Florida's 2011 SIP submission.
In its 1999 SIP submission, FDEP submitted changes to Rule 62-296.405, F.A.C., with a state effective date of March 2, 1999, which clarified the test method procedure for visible emissions that must be used in lieu of FDEP's Method 9 testing incorporated in Chapter 62-297, F.A.C. In addition, the submission clarifies which sources may use fuel sampling and analysis as an alternative test method for sulfur dioxide emissions instead of EPA Methods 6, 6A, 6B or 6C. The revisions also provide the procedures to obtain approval from the State for this alternative test method. The amendments also clarify other wording in a few parts of this rule section. EPA proposes to approve the changes provided in Florida's 1999 SIP submission to Rule 62-296.405, F.A.C. on the basis that these changes are intended to further clarify, organize, and streamline Florida's permit regulations. Moreover, these changes are not inconsistent with federal law, and will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment of the NAAQS, reasonable further progress, or any other requirement of the CAA.
In its 1999 SIP submission, FDEP submitted revisions to Rule 62-296.406, F.A.C., with a state effective date of March 2, 1999, to add language to clarify that all emissions standards for new and existing small fossil fuel steam generators do not apply to units that are determined to be insignificant under Florida's title V regulations at 62-213.300(2)(a)1., F.A.C., and 62-213.430(6)(b), F.A.C.
In its 2011 submission, FDEP submitted amendments to Rule 62-296.412, F.A.C., “Dry Cleaning Facilities,” which became state effective March 11, 2010. The amendments delete a reference to ozone nonattainment areas because Florida currently has no ozone nonattainment areas. Moreover, without this change, the rule would immediately apply in newly designated ozone nonattainment areas, giving facilities no lead time to achieve compliance. If an area in Florida is designated nonattainment for the ozone national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) in the future, Florida would be required to submit an implementation plan to attain this NAAQS, and thus would need to address sources in the nonattainment area at that time. Also, the changes replace an incorrect reference to Chapter 62-275, F.A.C., with the correct rule reference to 62-204.340, F.A.C. EPA proposes to approve the changes provided in Florida's 2011 SIP submission to Rule 62-296.412, F.A.C., on the basis that these changes are intended to correct a reference in this rule, to further clarify, organize, and streamline Florida's permit regulations. Moreover, these changes are not inconsistent with federal law, and will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment of the NAAQS, reasonable further progress, or any other requirement of the CAA.
In its 2011 SIP submission, FDEP submitted two sets of amendments to Rule 62-296.414, F.A.C., “Concrete Batching Plants,” with state effective dates of November 13, 1997, and January 10, 2007.
In its 2011 SIP submission, FDEP submitted amendments to Rule 62-296.418, F.A.C., “Bulk Gasoline Plants,” which became state effective March 11, 2010. The change deletes a reference to ozone nonattainment areas because Florida currently has no ozone nonattainment areas. Moreover, without this change, the rule would immediately apply in newly designated ozone nonattainment areas, giving facilities no lead time to achieve compliance. If an area in Florida is designated nonattainment for the ozone NAAQS in the future, Florida would be required to submit a plan to attain this NAAQS, and thus would need to address sources in the nonattainment area at that time. EPA proposes to approve the revisions provided in Florida's 2011 SIP submission to Rule 62-296.418, F.A.C. on the basis that these changes are intended to further clarify, organize, and streamline Florida's permit regulations. Moreover, these changes are not inconsistent with federal law, and will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment of the NAAQS, reasonable further progress, or any other requirement of the CAA.
In its 2011 SIP submission, FDEP submitted one amendment to Rule 62-296.500, F.A.C., “Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT)—Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) and Nitrogen Oxides (NO
In its 2011 submission, FDEP submitted one amendment to Rule 62-296.508, F.A.C., “Petroleum Liquid Storage,” which became state effective October 6, 2008. The change removes an erroneous reference to EPA Method 21. EPA proposes to approve the change provided in Florida's 2011 SIP submission to Rule 62-296.508, F.A.C.
In its 1999 SIP submission, FDEP submitted revisions to Rule 62-297.310, F.A.C., “General Compliance Test
In its 1999 SIP submission, FDEP submitted revisions to Rule 62-297.450, F.A.C., “EPA VOC Capture Efficiency Test Procedures,” which became state effective March 2, 1999. These changes incorporate EPA Method 204 and EPA's capture efficiency test procedures. EPA proposes to approve the changes provided in Florida's 1999 SIP submission to Rule 62-297.450, F.A.C. on the basis that these changes are consistent with EPA's VOC capture efficiency test procedure guidelines.
In its 2013 submission, FDEP requested that Rule 62-210.920, F.A.C., “Air General Permit Forms,” be removed from the SIP. This rule section contained Florida's air general permit registration forms, which the State has replaced with an online registration system. The State repealed this rule section with a state effective date of June 29, 2011. EPA proposes to approve removal of Rule 62-210.920, F.A.C., “Air General Permit Forms” from the Florida SIP because this rule section imposes no requirements beyond those requirements already found in Rule 62-210.310, F.A.C.
In this rule, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference changes to: Rule 62-210.200, F.A.C., “Definitions,” effective March 28, 2012; Rule 62-210.310, F.A.C., “Air General Permits,” effective June 29, 2011; Rule 62-210.350, F.A.C., “Public Notice and Comment,” effective October 12, 2008; Rule 62-296.100, F.A.C., “Purpose and Scope,” effective October 6, 2008; Rule 62-296.405, F.A.C., “Fossil Fuel Steam Generators with More Than 250 Million Btu Per Hour Heat Input,” effective March 2, 1999; Rule 62-296.406, F.A.C., “Fossil Fuel Steam Generators with Less Than 250 Million Btu per Hour Heat Input, New and Existing Emissions Units,” effective March 2, 1999; Rule 62-296.412, F.A.C., “Dry Cleaning Facilities,” effective March 11, 2010; Rule 62-296.414, F.A.C., “Concrete Batching Plants,” effective January 10, 2007; Rule 62-296.418, F.A.C., “Bulk Gasoline Plants,” effective March 11, 2010; Rule 62-296.500, F.A.C., “Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT)—Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) and Nitrogen Oxides (NO
EPA is proposing to approve portions of Florida's five SIP revisions submitted by the State on June 23, 1999, July 1, 2011, December 12, 2011, February 27, 2013, and February 1, 2017, as meeting the applicable requirements of the CAA and EPA's requirements for permitting air emission sources.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandates or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Act; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9,
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a revision to the Florida State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted by the Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP), on February 3, 2017, addressing the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) interstate transport (prongs 1 and 2) infrastructure SIP requirements for the 2010 1-hour Nitrogen Dioxide (NO
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0079 at
Andres Febres of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Febres can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-8966 or via electronic mail at
By statute, SIPs meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA are to be submitted by states within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the new or revised NAAQS. EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) require states to address basic SIP elements such as requirements for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the newly established or revised NAAQS. More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for infrastructure SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for the infrastructure SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. The contents of an infrastructure SIP submission may vary depending upon the data and analytical tools available to the state, as well as the provisions already contained in the state's implementation plan at the time in which the state develops and submits the submission for a new or revised NAAQS.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) has two components: 110(a)(2)(D)(i) and 110(a)(2)(D)(ii). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) includes four distinct components, commonly referred to as “prongs,” that must be addressed in infrastructure SIP submissions. The first two prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), are provisions that prohibit any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing significantly to nonattainment of the NAAQS in another state (prong 1) and from interfering with maintenance of the NAAQS in another state (prong 2). The third and fourth prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), are provisions that prohibit emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures required to prevent significant deterioration of air quality in another state (prong 3) and from interfering with measures to protect visibility in another state (prong 4). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) requires SIPs to include provisions ensuring compliance with sections 115 and 126 of the Act, relating to interstate and international pollution abatement.
Through this proposed action, EPA is proposing to approve Florida's February 3, 2017, SIP submission addressing prong 1 and prong 2 requirements for the 2010 1-hour NO
On January 22, 2010, EPA established a new 1-hour primary NAAQS for NO
States were required to submit infrastructure SIP submissions for the 2010 1-hour NO
The requirement for states to make a SIP submission of this type arises out of section 110(a)(1). Pursuant to section 110(a)(1), states must make SIP submissions “within 3 years (or such shorter period as the Administrator may prescribe) after the promulgation of a national primary ambient air quality standard (or any revision thereof),” and these SIP submissions are to provide for the “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of such NAAQS. The statute directly imposes on states the duty to make these SIP submissions, and the requirement to make the submissions is not conditioned upon EPA's taking any action other than promulgating a new or revised NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2) includes a list of specific elements that “each such plan” submission must address.
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of Title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of section 169A of the CAA, and nonattainment new source review permit program submissions to address the permit requirements of CAA, Title I, part D.
Section 110(a)(1) addresses the timing and general requirements for infrastructure SIP submissions and section 110(a)(2) provides more details concerning the required contents of these submissions. The list of required elements provided in section 110(a)(2) contains a wide variety of disparate provisions, some of which pertain to required legal authority, some of which pertain to required substantive program provisions, and some of which pertain to requirements for both authority and substantive program provisions.
The following examples of ambiguities illustrate the need for EPA to interpret some section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) requirements with respect to infrastructure SIP submissions for a given new or revised NAAQS. One example of ambiguity is that section 110(a)(2) requires that “each” SIP submission must meet the list of requirements therein, while EPA has long noted that this literal reading of the statute is internally inconsistent and would create a conflict with the nonattainment provisions in part D of Title I of the CAA, which specifically address nonattainment SIP requirements.
Another example of ambiguity within section 110(a)(1) and (2) with respect to infrastructure SIPs pertains to whether states must meet all of the infrastructure SIP requirements in a single SIP submission, and whether EPA must act upon such SIP submission in a single action. Although section 110(a)(1) directs states to submit “a plan” to meet these requirements, EPA interprets the CAA to allow states to make multiple SIP submissions separately addressing infrastructure SIP elements for the same NAAQS. If states elect to make such multiple SIP submissions to meet the infrastructure SIP requirements, EPA can elect to act on such submissions either individually or in a larger combined action.
Ambiguities within section 110(a)(1) and (2) may also arise with respect to infrastructure SIP submission requirements for different NAAQS. Thus, EPA notes that not every element of section 110(a)(2) would be relevant, or as relevant, or relevant in the same way, for each new or revised NAAQS. The states' attendant infrastructure SIP submissions for each NAAQS therefore could be different. For example, the monitoring requirements that a state might need to meet in its infrastructure SIP submission for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(B) could be very different for different pollutants, because the content and scope of a state's infrastructure SIP submission to meet this element might be very different for an entirely new NAAQS than for a minor revision to an existing NAAQS.
EPA notes that interpretation of section 110(a)(2) is also necessary when EPA reviews other types of SIP submissions required under the CAA. Therefore, as with infrastructure SIP submissions, EPA also has to identify and interpret the relevant elements of section 110(a)(2) that logically apply to these other types of SIP submissions. For example, section 172(c)(7) requires attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D to meet the “applicable requirements” of section 110(a)(2); thus, attainment plan SIP submissions must meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) regarding enforceable emission limits and control measures and section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) regarding air agency resources and authority. By contrast, it is clear that attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D would not need to meet the portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) that pertains to the Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program required in part C of Title I of the CAA, because PSD does not apply to a pollutant for which an area is designated nonattainment and thus subject to part D planning requirements. As this example illustrates, each type of SIP submission may implicate some elements of section 110(a)(2) but not others.
Given the potential for ambiguity in some of the statutory language of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2), EPA believes that it is appropriate to interpret the ambiguous portions of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) in the context of acting on a particular SIP submission. In other words, EPA assumes that Congress could not have intended that each and every SIP submission, regardless of the NAAQS in question or the history of SIP development for the relevant pollutant, would meet each of the requirements, or meet each of them in the same way. Therefore, EPA has adopted an approach under which it reviews infrastructure SIP submissions against the list of elements in section 110(a)(2), but only to the extent each element applies for that particular NAAQS.
Historically, EPA has elected to use guidance documents to make recommendations to states for infrastructure SIPs, in some cases conveying needed interpretations on newly arising issues and in some cases conveying interpretations that have already been developed and applied to individual SIP submissions for particular elements.
As an example, section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) is a required element of section 110(a)(2) for infrastructure SIP submissions. Under this element, a state must meet the substantive requirements of section 128, which pertain to state boards that approve permits or enforcement orders and heads of executive agencies with similar powers. Thus, EPA reviews infrastructure SIP submissions to ensure that the state's implementation plan appropriately addresses the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) and section 128. The 2013 Guidance explains EPA's interpretation that there may be a variety of ways by which states can appropriately address these substantive statutory requirements, depending on the structure of an individual state's permitting or enforcement program (
As another example, EPA's review of infrastructure SIP submissions with respect to the PSD program requirements in section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), and (J) focuses upon the structural PSD program requirements contained in part C and EPA's PSD regulations. Structural PSD program requirements include provisions necessary for the PSD program to address all regulated sources and new source review (NSR) pollutants, including Greenhouse Gases. By contrast, structural PSD program requirements do not include provisions that are not required under EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.166 but are merely available as an option for the state, such as the option to provide grandfathering of complete permit applications with respect to the fine
For other section 110(a)(2) elements, however, EPA's review of a state's infrastructure SIP submission focuses on assuring that the state's SIP meets basic structural requirements. For example, section 110(a)(2)(C) includes,
With respect to certain other issues, EPA does not believe that an action on a state's infrastructure SIP submission is necessarily the appropriate type of action in which to address possible deficiencies in a state's existing SIP. These issues include: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions from sources during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction (SSM) that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions;
EPA's approach to review of infrastructure SIP submissions is to identify the CAA requirements that are logically applicable to that submission. EPA believes that this approach to the review of a particular infrastructure SIP submission is appropriate, because it would not be reasonable to read the general requirements of section 110(a)(1) and the list of elements in section 110(a)(2) as requiring review of each and every provision of a state's existing SIP against all requirements in the CAA and EPA regulations merely for purposes of assuring that the state in question has the basic structural elements for a functioning SIP for a new or revised NAAQS. Because SIPs have grown by accretion over the decades as statutory and regulatory requirements under the CAA have evolved, they may include some outmoded provisions and historical artifacts. These provisions, while not fully up to date, nevertheless may not pose a significant problem for the purposes of “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of a new or revised NAAQS when EPA evaluates adequacy of the infrastructure SIP submission. EPA believes that a better approach is for states and EPA to focus attention on those elements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA most likely to warrant a specific SIP revision due to the promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS or other factors.
For example, EPA's 2013 Guidance gives simpler recommendations with respect to carbon monoxide than other NAAQS pollutants to meet the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), because carbon monoxide does not affect visibility. As a result, an infrastructure SIP submission for any future new or revised NAAQS for carbon monoxide need only state this fact in order to address the visibility prong of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II).
Finally, EPA believes that its approach with respect to infrastructure SIP requirements is based on a reasonable reading of section 110(a)(1) and (2) because the CAA provides other avenues and mechanisms to address specific substantive deficiencies in existing SIPs. These other statutory tools allow EPA to take appropriately tailored action, depending upon the nature and severity of the alleged SIP deficiency. Section 110(k)(5) authorizes EPA to issue a “SIP call” whenever the Agency determines that a state's SIP is substantially inadequate to attain or maintain the NAAQS, to mitigate interstate transport, or to otherwise comply with the CAA.
For each new NAAQS, section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) of the CAA requires each state to submit a SIP revision that contains adequate provisions prohibiting emissions activity in the state from contributing significantly to nonattainment, or interfering with maintenance, of the NAAQS in any downwind state. EPA sometimes refers to these requirements as prong 1 (significant contribution to nonattainment) and prong 2 (interference with maintenance), or conjointly as the “good neighbor” provision of the CAA.
In Florida's February 3, 2017, SIP revision, the State concluded that its SIP adequately addresses Prongs 1 and 2 with respect to the 2010 1-hour NO
First, Florida notes that SIP-approved portions of the following state rules directly or indirectly control NO
Second, there are no designated nonattainment areas for the 2010 1-hour NO
Third, maximum 1-hour NO
Fourth, according to the 1-hour NO
Fifth, NO
For all the reasons discussed previously, EPA has preliminarily determined that Florida does not contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2010 1-hour NO
As described earlier, EPA is proposing to approve Florida's February 3, 2017, SIP revision addressing prongs 1 and 2 of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) for the 2010 1-hour NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve portions of a draft revision to the South Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP) concerning the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) that was submitted by South Carolina for parallel processing on May 26, 2017. Under CSAPR, large electricity generating units (EGUs) in South Carolina are subject to Federal Implementation Plans (FIPs) requiring the units to participate in CSAPR's federal trading program for annual emissions of nitrogen oxides (NO
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0364 at
Ashten Bailey, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Bailey can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9164 or via electronic mail at
EPA is proposing to approve the portions of the May 26, 2017, draft revision to the South Carolina SIP concerning CSAPR
The portions of the draft SIP revision proposed for approval would incorporate into South Carolina's SIP state trading program regulations for annual NO
The Phase 2 SO
EPA is proposing to approve the draft SIP revision through parallel processing. Should South Carolina not submit a final SIP revision to EPA and/or should EPA not be able to finalize a full approval action addressing interstate transport provisions of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) with respect to the 1997 Annual PM
Section II of this document describes the requirements and steps for parallel processing. Section III summarizes the relevant aspects of the CSAPR federal trading programs and FIPs as well as the range of opportunities states have to submit SIP revisions to modify or replace the FIP requirements while continuing to rely on CSAPR's trading programs to address the states' obligations to mitigate interstate air pollution. Section IV describes the specific conditions for approval of such SIP revisions. Section V contains EPA's analysis of South Carolina's SIP draft submittal, and Section VI sets forth EPA's proposed action on the draft submittal. Section VII addresses required statutory and Executive Order reviews.
Parallel processing refers to a concurrent state and federal proposed rulemaking action. Generally, the state submits a copy of the proposed regulation or other revisions to EPA before conducting its public hearing. EPA reviews this proposed state action, and prepares a notice of proposed rulemaking. EPA's notice of proposed rulemaking is published in the
On May 26, 2017, the State of South Carolina, through South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SCDHEC), submitted a request for parallel processing for a draft SIP revision related to the interstate transport provisions of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) with respect to the 1997 Annual PM
Once the May 26, 2017, draft revision is state-effective, South Carolina will need to provide EPA with a formal SIP revision. After South Carolina submits the formal SIP revision (including a response to any public comments raised during the State's public participation process), EPA will evaluate the revision. If the formal SIP revision is changed from the draft SIP revision, EPA will evaluate those changes for significance. If any such changes are found by EPA to be significant, then the Agency intends to re-propose the action based upon the revised submission.
While EPA may not be able to have a concurrent public comment process with the State, the SCDHEC-requested parallel processing allows EPA to begin to take action on the State's draft SIP revision in advance of the submission of the formal SIP revision. As stated above, the final rulemaking action by EPA will occur only after the SIP revision has been: (1) Adopted by South Carolina, (2) submitted formally to EPA for incorporation into the SIP, and (3) evaluated for changes.
EPA issued CSAPR in July 2011 to address the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) concerning interstate transport of air pollution. As amended (including the 2016 CSAPR Update
CSAPR includes provisions under which states may submit and EPA will approve SIP revisions to modify or replace the CSAPR FIP requirements while allowing states to continue to meet their transport-related obligations using either CSAPR's federal emissions trading programs or state emissions trading programs integrated with the federal programs.
States can submit two basic forms of CSAPR-related SIP revisions effective for emissions control periods in 2017 or later years.
Under the second alternative—a “full” SIP revision—a state may submit a SIP revision that upon approval replaces a CSAPR federal trading program for the state with a state trading program integrated with the federal trading program, so long as the state trading program is substantively identical to the federal trading program or does not substantively differ from the federal trading program except as discussed above with regard to the allowance allocation and/or applicability provisions.
The CSAPR regulations identify several important consequences and limitations associated with approval of a full SIP revision. First, upon EPA's approval of a full SIP revision as correcting the deficiency in the state's implementation plan that was the basis for a particular set of CSAPR FIP requirements, the obligation to participate in the corresponding CSAPR federal trading program is automatically eliminated for units subject to the state's jurisdiction without the need for a separate EPA withdrawal action, so long as EPA's approval of the SIP is full and unconditional.
On July 28, 2015, the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (D.C. Circuit) issued a decision on a number of petitions related to CSAPR, which found that EPA required more emissions reductions than may have been necessary to address the downwind air quality problems to which some states contribute. The court remanded several CSAPR emission budgets to EPA for reconsideration, including the Phase 2 SO
Each CSAPR-related abbreviated or full SIP revision must meet the following general submittal conditions:
•
In addition to the general submittal conditions, a CSAPR-related abbreviated or full SIP seeking to address the allocation or auction of emission allowances must meet the following further conditions:
•
•
•
•
•
In addition to the general submittal conditions, a CSAPR-related abbreviated or full SIP revision seeking to expand applicability under the CSAPR NO
•
•
In addition to the general submittal conditions and the other applicable conditions described above, a CSAPR-related full SIP revision must meet the following further conditions:
•
•
•
In the CSAPR rulemaking, EPA determined that air pollution transported from EGUs in South Carolina would unlawfully affect other states' ability to attain or maintain the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS and the 1997 Annual PM
With regard to form, some of the individual draft rules for each South Carolina CSAPR state trading program are set forth as full regulatory text—notably the rules identifying the trading budgets, NUSAs, and Indian country NUSA—but most of the draft rules incorporate the corresponding federal trading program section or sections by reference.
With regard to substance, the draft rules for each South Carolina CSAPR state trading program differ from the corresponding CSAPR federal trading program regulations in two main ways. First, the applicability provisions in the South Carolina draft rules require participation in South Carolina CSAPR state trading programs only for units in South Carolina, not for units in any other state or in Indian country within the borders of South Carolina or any other state. Second, the South Carolina draft rules omit some federal trading program provisions not applicable to
The South Carolina draft rules adopt the Phase 2 annual NO
At this time, EPA is proposing to take action on the portions of South Carolina's draft SIP submission designed to replace the federal CSAPR NO
As described in section V.A above, at this time EPA is proposing to take action on the portions of South Carolina's draft SIP submittal designed to replace the federal CSAPR NO
South Carolina submitted its draft SIP revision to EPA on May 26, 2017, and EPA has determined that the submittal complies with the applicable minimum completeness criteria for parallel processing in section 2.3 of appendix V to 40 CFR part 51.
As discussed above, the South Carolina draft SIP revision adopts state budgets identical to the Phase 2 budgets for South Carolina under the federal trading programs and adopts almost all of the provisions of the federal CSAPR NO
With the following exceptions, the South Carolina draft rules comprising South Carolina's CSAPR state trading program for annual NO
The first exception is that, as discussed below in section V.B.3, paragraphs 61-62.97.A.3 and B.3 of the South Carolina draft rules limit applicability of the rules to units located in South Carolina, excluding units located in Indian country within South Carolina's borders. This modification of the applicability provisions in the federal trading program rules is appropriate for state trading program rules which necessarily must be designed to apply only to sources subject to the State's jurisdiction.
The second exception is that South Carolina draft rule 61-62.97 omits the provisions of 40 CFR 97.410(a) and (b) and 97.710(a) and (b) setting forth the forth amounts of the Phase 1 emissions budgets, NUSAs, Indian country NUSAs, and variability limits for South Carolina and the amounts of the Phase 1 and Phase 2 emissions budgets, NUSAs, Indian country NUSAs, and variability limits for other states. Omission of the South Carolina Phase 1 emissions budget, NUSA, Indian country NUSA, and variability limit amounts is appropriate because South Carolina's state trading programs do not apply to emissions occurring in Phase 1 of CSAPR. Omission of the Phase 1 and Phase 2 budget, NUSA, Indian country NUSA, and variability limit amounts for other states from state trading programs in which only South Carolina units participate does not undermine the completeness of the state trading programs. South Carolina's draft rules include full-text replacement provisions for the remaining provisions of 40 CFR 97.410 and 97.710 that are relevant to trading programs applicable only to South Carolina units during Phase 2 of CSAPR.
The third exception is that South Carolina draft rule 61-62.97 omits 40 CFR 97.411(b)(2), 97.411(c)(5)(iii), 97.412(b), 97.421(h), 97.421(j), 97.711(b)(2), 97.711(c)(5)(iii), 97.712(b), 97.721(h), and 97.721(j), concerning EPA's administration of Indian country NUSAs. Omission of these provisions from South Carolina's state trading program rules is required, as discussed in section V.B.4 below.
None of the omissions undermine the completeness of the South Carolina's state trading programs and EPA has determined that South Carolina's draft SIP revision makes no substantive changes to the provisions of the federal trading program regulations. Thus, South Carolina's draft SIP revision meets the condition under 40 CFR 52.38(a)(5) and 52.39(i) that the SIP revision must adopt complete state trading program regulations substantively identical to the complete federal trading program regulations at 40 CFR 97.402 through 97.435 and 97.702 through 97.735, respectively, except to the extent permitted in the case of a SIP revision that seeks to replace the default allowance allocation and/or applicability provisions.
Paragraphs 61-62.97.A.3 and B.3 of the South Carolina draft rules substitute the phrase “The following units in South Carolina (but not in Indian country within South Carolina's borders),” for the phrase “The following units in a State (and Indian country within the borders of such State)” in the corresponding federal trading program regulations at 40 CFR 97.410(a)(1) and 97.710(a)(1) and at 97.410(b) and 97.710(b), respectively. These provisions of the South Carolina draft rules define the units that are required to participate in South Carolina's CSAPR state trading programs. The substitutions appropriately exclude
As discussed above in section V.B.3, paragraphs 61-62.97.A.3 and B.3 of the South Carolina draft rules explicitly exclude units in Indian country within South Carolina's borders from the applicable requirements of the state rule. In addition, as required under 40 CFR 52.38(a)(5)(iv) and 52.39(i)(4), South Carolina's draft SIP revision excludes federal trading program provisions related to EPA's process for allocating and recording allowances from Indian country NUSAs (
EPA is proposing to approve the portions of South Carolina's May 26, 2017, draft SIP submittal concerning the establishment for South Carolina units of CSAPR state trading programs for annual NO
EPA promulgated FIPs requiring South Carolina units to participate in the federal CSAPR NO
As noted in section III above, the Phase 2 SO
EPA's proposed approval is contingent on South Carolina's submission of a final SIP revision to address interstate transport provisions of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) with respect to the 1997 Annual PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submittal that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule for South Carolina does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because it does not have substantial direct effects on an Indian Tribe. The Catawba Indian Nation Reservation is located within the state of South Carolina. Pursuant to the Catawba Indian Claims Settlement Act, S.C. Code Ann. 27-16-120, “all state and local environmental laws and regulations apply to the [Catawba Indian Nation] and Reservation and are fully enforceable by all relevant state and local agencies and authorities.” However, the draft rules proposed for approval exclude units in Indian country from the applicable requirements of the draft rules and exclude federal trading provisions related to EPA's process for allocating and recording allowances from Indian country NUSAs. EPA notes this action will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
Delaware has applied to the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for final authorization of revisions to its hazardous waste program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). EPA proposes to grant final authorization to Delaware. In the Rules and Regulations section of this issue of the
Send your written comments by September 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-RCRA-2014-0407, at
Evelyn Sorto, U.S. EPA Region III, RCRA Waste Branch, Mailcode 3LC32, 1650 Arch Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103-2029, Phone Number: (215) 814-2123; Email:
In the “Rules and Regulations” section of this issue of the
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; reopening of the comment period.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce a 6-month extension of the final determination of whether to add the Texas hornshell (
The comment period on the proposed rule that published August 10, 2016 (81 FR 52796), is reopened. We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before September 11, 2017. If you comment using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see
You may submit comments by one of the following methods:
(1)
(2)
Chuck Ardizzone, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Texas Coastal Ecological Services Field Office, 17629 El Camino Real #211, Houston, TX 77058; on the Internet at
On August 10, 2016, we published a proposed rule (81 FR 52796) to list the Texas hornshell as an endangered species under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act; 16 U.S.C. 1531
We also solicited and received independent scientific review of the information contained in the proposed rule from peer reviewers with expertise in Texas hornshell or similar species ecology and identified threats to the species, in accordance with our July 1, 1994, peer review policy (59 FR 34270).
Section 4(b)(6) of the Act and its implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.17(a) require that we take one of three actions within 1 year of a proposed listing: (1) Finalize the proposed rule; (2) withdraw the proposed rule; or (3) extend the final determination by not more than 6 months, if there is substantial disagreement regarding the sufficiency or accuracy of the available data relevant to the determination.
Since the publication of the proposed rule, there has been substantial disagreement regarding the interpretation of the limited surveys that exist for Texas hornshell in Mexico. This situation has led to a significant disagreement regarding the current conservation status of the species in Mexico. Therefore, in consideration of the disagreements surrounding the Texas hornshell's status, we are extending the final determination for 6 months in order to solicit information that will help to clarify these issues. With this 6-month extension, we will make a final determination on the proposed rule no later than February 10, 2018.
We will accept written comments and information during this reopened comment period on our proposed listing rule for Texas hornshell that was published in the
Due to the scientific disagreements described above, we are particularly interested in new information and comments regarding the status of and threats to any Texas hornshell population in Mexico.
If you previously submitted comments or information on the August 10, 2016, proposed rule (81 FR 52796), please do not resubmit them. We have incorporated previously submitted comments into the public record, and we will fully consider them in the preparation of our final determination. Our final determination concerning the proposed listing will take into consideration all written comments and any additional information we receive.
You may submit your comments and materials concerning the proposed rule by one of the methods listed in
If you submit information via
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing the proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, propose to increase the hunting activities available at nine National Wildlife Refuges (NWR), open one NWR to sport fishing for the first time, and add pertinent refuge-specific regulations for other NWRs that pertain to migratory game bird hunting, upland game hunting, big game hunting, and sport fishing for the 2017-2018 season.
We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before September 11, 2017.
You may submit comments by one of the following methods:
•
•
We will not accept email or faxes. We will post all comments on
Katherine Harrigan, (703) 358-2440.
The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 closes NWRs in all States except Alaska to all uses until opened. The Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) may open refuge areas to any use, including hunting and/or sport fishing, upon a determination that the use is compatible with the purposes of the refuge and National Wildlife Refuge System mission. The action also must be in accordance with provisions of all laws applicable to the areas, developed in coordination with the appropriate State fish and wildlife agency(ies), consistent with the principles of sound fish and wildlife management and administration, and otherwise in the public interest. These requirements ensure that we maintain the biological integrity, diversity, and environmental health of the Refuge System for the benefit of present and future generations of Americans.
We annually review refuge hunting and sport fishing programs to determine whether to include additional refuges or whether individual refuge regulations governing existing programs need modifications. Changing environmental conditions, State and Federal regulations, and other factors affecting fish and wildlife populations and habitat may warrant modifications to refuge-specific regulations to ensure the continued compatibility of hunting and sport fishing programs and to ensure that these programs will not materially interfere with or detract from the fulfillment of refuge purposes or the Refuge System's mission.
Provisions governing hunting and sport fishing on refuges are in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations in part 32 (50 CFR part 32). We regulate hunting and sport fishing on refuges to:
• Ensure compatibility with refuge purpose(s);
• Properly manage fish and wildlife resource(s);
• Protect other refuge values;
• Ensure refuge visitor safety; and
• Provide opportunities for quality fish- and wildlife-dependent recreation.
On many refuges where we decide to allow hunting and sport fishing, our general policy of adopting regulations identical to State hunting and sport fishing regulations is adequate in meeting these objectives. On other refuges, we must supplement State regulations with more-restrictive Federal regulations to ensure that we meet our management responsibilities, as outlined in the Statutory Authority section, below. We issue refuge-specific hunting and sport fishing regulations when we open wildlife refuges to migratory game bird hunting, upland game hunting, big game hunting, or sport fishing. These regulations may list the wildlife species that you may hunt or fish, seasons, bag or creel (container for carrying fish) limits, methods of hunting or sport fishing, descriptions of areas open to hunting or sport fishing, and other provisions as appropriate. You may find previously issued refuge-specific regulations for hunting and sport fishing in 50 CFR part 32. In this rulemaking, we are also proposing to standardize and clarify the language of existing regulations.
The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee, as amended by the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 [Improvement Act]) (Administration Act), and the Refuge Recreation Act of 1962 (16 U.S.C. 460k-460k-4) (Recreation Act) govern the administration and public use of refuges.
Amendments enacted by the Improvement Act built upon the
The Recreation Act authorizes the Secretary to administer areas within the Refuge System for public recreation as an appropriate incidental or secondary use only to the extent that doing so is practicable and not inconsistent with the primary purpose(s) for which Congress and the Service established the areas. The Recreation Act requires that any recreational use of refuge lands be compatible with the primary purpose(s) for which we established the refuge and not inconsistent with other previously authorized operations.
The Administration Act and Recreation Act also authorize the Secretary to issue regulations to carry out the purposes of the Acts and regulate uses.
We develop specific management plans for each refuge prior to opening it to hunting or sport fishing. In many cases, we develop refuge-specific regulations to ensure the compatibility of the programs with the purpose(s) for which we established the refuge and the Refuge System mission. We ensure initial compliance with the Administration Act and the Recreation Act for hunting and sport fishing on newly acquired refuges through an interim determination of compatibility made at or near the time of acquisition. These regulations ensure that we make the determinations required by these acts prior to adding refuges to the lists of areas open to hunting and sport fishing in 50 CFR part 32. We ensure continued compliance by the development of comprehensive conservation plans and step-down management plans, and by annual review of hunting and sport fishing programs and regulations.
This document proposes to codify in the Code of Federal Regulations all of the Service's hunting and/or sport fishing regulations that we would update since the last time we published a rule amending these regulations (81 FR 68874; October 4, 2016) and that are applicable at Refuge System units previously opened to hunting and/or sport fishing. We propose this to better inform the general public of the regulations at each refuge, to increase understanding and compliance with these regulations, and to make enforcement of these regulations more efficient. In addition to now finding these regulations in 50 CFR part 32, visitors to our refuges may find them reiterated in literature distributed by each refuge or posted on signs.
The changes for the 2017-18 hunting/fishing season noted in the chart above are each based on a complete administrative record which, among other detailed documentation, also includes a hunt plan, a compatibility determination, and the appropriate National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
For health reasons, anglers should review and follow State-issued consumption advisories before enjoying recreational sport fishing opportunities on Service-managed waters. You can find information about current fish-consumption advisories on the Internet at:
In this proposed rule, we propose some of the revisions to the individual refuge units to comply with a Presidential mandate to use plain language in regulations; these particular revisions do not modify the substance of the previous regulations. These types of changes include using “you” to refer to the reader and “we” to refer to the Refuge System, using the word “allow” instead of “permit” when we do not require the use of a permit for an activity, and using active voice (
You may submit comments and materials on this proposed rule by any one of the methods listed in
We will post your entire comment on
Department of the Interior policy is, whenever practicable, to afford the public a meaningful opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process. We open refuges through a series of stages, with the fundamental work being performed on the ground at the refuge and in the community where the program is administered. In these stages, we give the public other opportunities to comment, for example, on comprehensive conservation plans and compatibility determinations. The second stage is this document, when we publish the proposed rule in the
There is nothing contained in this proposed rule outside the scope of the annual review process where we determine whether individual refuges need modifications, deletions, or additions made to them. We make every attempt to collect all of the proposals from the refuges nationwide and process them expeditiously to maximize the time available for public review. A 30-day comment period, through the broader publication following the earlier public involvement, gives the public sufficient time to comment and allows us to establish hunting and fishing programs in time for the upcoming seasons. Many of these rules would also relieve restrictions and allow the public to participate in recreational activities on a number of refuges. In addition, in order to continue to provide for previously authorized hunting opportunities while at the same time providing for adequate resource protection, we must be timely in providing modifications to certain hunting programs on some refuges.
We considered providing a 60-day, rather than a 30-day, comment period. However, we determined that an additional 30-day delay in processing these refuge-specific hunting and sport fishing regulations would hinder the effective planning and administration of our hunting and sport fishing programs. Such a delay would jeopardize enacting amendments to hunting and sport fishing programs in time for implementation this year and/or early next year, or shorten the duration of these programs.
Even after issuance of a final rule, we accept comments, suggestions, and concerns for consideration for any appropriate subsequent rulemaking.
When finalized, we will incorporate these regulations into 50 CFR part 32. Part 32 contains general provisions and refuge-specific regulations for hunting and sport fishing on refuges.
Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, require us to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(a) Be logically organized;
(b) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(c) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(d) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(e) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in
This action is not subject to Executive Order (E.O.) 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017) because it is issued with respect to routine hunting and fishing activities.
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rulemaking is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act [SBREFA] of 1996) (5 U.S.C. 601
This proposed rule adds one NWR to the list of refuges open to sport fishing and increases hunting or fishing activities on nine additional national wildlife refuges. As a result, visitor use for wildlife-dependent recreation on these NWRs will change. If the refuges establishing new programs were a pure addition to the current supply of those activities, it would mean an estimated increase of 914 user days (one person per day participating in a recreational opportunity, Table 2). Because the
To the extent visitors spend time and money in the area of the refuge that they would not have spent there anyway, they contribute new income to the regional economy and benefit local businesses. Due to the unavailability of site-specific expenditure data, we use the national estimates from the 2011 National Survey of Fishing, Hunting, and Wildlife Associated Recreation to identify expenditures for food and lodging, transportation, and other incidental expenses. Using the average expenditures for these categories with the maximum expected additional participation of the Refuge System yields approximately $36,400 in recreation-related expenditures (Table 2). By having ripple effects throughout the economy, these direct expenditures are only part of the economic impact of these recreational activities. Using a national impact multiplier for hunting activities (2.27) derived from the report “Hunting in America: An Economic Force for Conservation” and for fishing activities (2.40) derived from the report “Sportfishing in America” yields a total economic impact of approximately $83,500 (2016 dollars) (Southwick Associates, Inc., 2012). Using a local impact multiplier would yield more accurate and smaller results. However, we employed the national impact multiplier due to the difficulty in developing local multipliers for each specific region.
Since we know that most of the fishing and hunting occurs within 100 miles of a participant's residence, then it is unlikely that most of this spending would be “new” money coming into a local economy; therefore, this spending would be offset with a decrease in some other sector of the local economy. The net gain to the local economies would be no more than $83,500, and most likely considerably less. Since 80 percent of the participants travel less than 100 miles to engage in hunting and fishing activities, their spending patterns would not add new money into the local economy and, therefore, the real impact would be on the order of about $16,700 annually.
Small businesses within the retail trade industry (such as hotels, gas stations, taxidermy shops, bait-and-tackle shops, and similar businesses) may be affected by some increased or decreased refuge visitation. A large percentage of these retail trade establishments in the local communities around NWRs qualify as small businesses (Table 3). We expect that the incremental recreational changes will be scattered, and so we do not expect that the rule will have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities in any region or nationally. As noted previously, we expect approximately $36,400 to be spent in total in the refuges' local economies. The maximum increase at most would be less than one-hundredth of 1 percent for local retail trade spending (Table 3).
With the small change in overall spending anticipated from this proposed rule, it is unlikely that a substantial number of small entities will have more than a small impact from the spending change near the affected refuges. Therefore, we certify that, if adopted as proposed, this rule would not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities as defined under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The proposed rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. We anticipate no significant employment or small business effects. This rule:
a. Would not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. The minimal impact would be scattered across the country and would most likely not be significant in any local area.
b. Would not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers; individual industries; Federal, State, or local government agencies; or geographic regions. This proposed rule would have only a slight effect on the costs of hunting opportunities for Americans. If the substitute sites are farther from the participants' residences, then an increase in travel costs would occur. The Service does not have information to quantify this change in travel cost but assumes that, since most people travel less than 100 miles to hunt, the increased travel cost would be small. We do not expect this proposed rule to affect the supply or demand for hunting opportunities in the United States, and, therefore, it should not affect prices for hunting equipment and supplies, or the retailers that sell equipment.
c. Would not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This proposed rule represents only a small proportion of recreational spending at NWRs. Therefore, if adopted, this rule would have no measurable economic effect on the wildlife-dependent industry, which has annual sales of equipment and travel expenditures of $72 billion nationwide.
Since this proposed rule would apply to public use of federally owned and managed refuges, it would not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule would not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531
In accordance with E.O. 12630, this proposed rule would not have significant takings implications. This rule would affect only visitors at NWRs and describe what they can do while they are on a refuge.
As discussed in Regulatory Planning and Review and Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, above, this proposed rule would not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement under E.O. 13132. In preparing this proposed rule, we worked with State governments.
In accordance with E.O. 12988, the Department of the Interior has determined that this proposed rule would not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order. The rule would clarify established regulations and result in better understanding of the regulations by refuge visitors.
On May 18, 2001, the President issued E.O. 13211 on regulations that significantly affect energy supply,
In accordance with E.O. 13175, we have evaluated possible effects on federally recognized Indian tribes and have determined that there are no effects. We coordinate recreational use on NWRs with Tribal governments having adjoining or overlapping jurisdiction before we propose the regulations.
This rule does not contain any new collection of information that requires approval by the Office of Management and Budget under the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
We comply with section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
We analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the criteria of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4332(C)), 43 CFR part 46, and 516 Departmental Manual (DM) 8.
A categorical exclusion from NEPA documentation applies to publication of proposed amendments to refuge-specific hunting and fishing regulations because they are technical and procedural in nature, and the environmental effects are too broad, speculative, or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis (43 CFR 46.210 and 516 DM 8). Concerning the actions that are the subject of this proposed rulemaking, we have complied with NEPA at the project level when developing each proposal. This is consistent with the Department of the Interior instructions for compliance with NEPA where actions are covered sufficiently by an earlier environmental document (43 CFR 46.120).
Prior to the addition of a refuge to the list of areas open to hunting and fishing in 50 CFR part 32, we develop hunting and fishing plans for the affected refuges. We incorporate these proposed refuge hunting and fishing activities in the refuge comprehensive conservation plan and/or other step-down management plans, pursuant to our refuge planning guidance in 602 Fish and Wildlife Service Manual (FW) 1, 3, and 4. We prepare these comprehensive conservation plans and step-down plans in compliance with section 102(2)(C) of NEPA, and the Council on Environmental Quality's regulations for implementing NEPA in 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508. We invite the affected public to participate in the review, development, and implementation of these plans. Copies of all plans and NEPA compliance are available from the refuges at the addresses provided below.
Individual refuge headquarters have information about public use programs and conditions that apply to their specific programs and maps of their respective areas. To find out how to contact a specific refuge, contact the appropriate Regional office listed below:
Region 1—Hawaii, Idaho, Oregon, and Washington. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Eastside Federal Complex, Suite 1692, 911 NE. 11th Avenue, Portland, OR 97232-4181; Telephone (503) 231-6214.
Region 2—Arizona, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Texas. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, P.O. Box 1306, 500 Gold Avenue SW., Albuquerque, NM 87103; Telephone (505) 248-6937.
Region 3—Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, and Wisconsin. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5600 American Blvd. West, Suite 990, Bloomington, MN 55437-1458; Telephone (612) 713-5360.
Region 4—Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, Tennessee, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1875 Century Boulevard, Atlanta, GA 30345; Telephone (404) 679-7166.
Region 5—Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, Virginia, and West Virginia. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 300 Westgate Center Drive, Hadley, MA 01035-9589; Telephone (413) 253-8307.
Region 6—Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, and Wyoming. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 134 Union Blvd., Lakewood, CO 80228; Telephone (303) 236-8145.
Region 7—Alaska. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1011 E. Tudor Rd., Anchorage, AK 99503; Telephone (907) 786-3545.
Region 8—California and Nevada. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2606, Sacramento, CA 95825; Telephone (916) 414-6464.
Katherine Harrigan, Division of Natural Resources and Conservation Planning, National Wildlife Refuge System, is the primary author of this rulemaking document.
Fishing, Hunting, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Wildlife, Wildlife refuges.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, we propose to amend title 50, chapter I, subchapter C of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 16 U.S.C. 460k, 664, 668dd-668ee, and 715i.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
17. We prohibit the use of decoys that contain moving parts or electrical components, except that you may use manually operated `jerk strings' to simulate decoy movement.
18. You may not utilize a guide, guide service, outfitter, club, organization, or any other person who provides equipment, services, or assistance on the refuge for compensation.
19. We prohibit commercial guiding for the take of wildlife or fish.
20. We allow camping only in designated sites and areas identified in the refuge user brochure/permit (signed brochure), and we restrict camping to individuals involved in wildlife-dependent activities. We limit camping on the refuge to no more than 14 days during any 30 consecutive-day period. Campers must occupy camps daily. We prohibit all disturbances, including use of generators, after 10 p.m.
2. Archery deer seasons on the North Unit are from the beginning of October until the end of January except during quota muzzleloader and quota gun deer hunts, when the archery season is closed. We provide annual season dates and bag limits in the refuge user brochure/permit (signed brochure).
3. Archery deer seasons on the South Unit are from the beginning of October until the end of December except during quota muzzleloader and quota gun deer hunts, when the archery season is closed. We provide annual season dates and bag limits in the refuge user brochure/permit (signed brochure).
4. Muzzleloader season for deer will begin in October and will continue for a period of up to 3 days of quota hunting and 4 days of non-quota hunting in the North Unit. We provide annual season dates and bag limits in the refuge user brochure/permit (signed brochure).
5. The gun deer hunt will begin in November and will continue for a period of 3 days of quota hunting in the North and South Units, and 4 days of non-quota hunting in the North Unit. We provide annual season dates, bag limits, and areas in the refuge user brochure/permit.
8. If you harvest deer or turkey on the refuge, you must immediately record the zone number (Zone 145 for the South Unit or Zone 146 for the North Unit) on your hunting license and later check deer and/or turkey through the State checking system. Outlying tracts use the same zone number as the surrounding State zone.
18. We close the Kansas Lake Area to all entry on December 1 and reopen it on March 1.
20. We prohibit the possession and/or use of toxic shot by hunters using shotguns (see § 32.2(k) of this chapter) when hunting.
21. Feral hog regulations are found in the refuge brochure/permit (signed brochure).
1. Conditions A1, A9, A10, A11, A15, and A21 through A25 apply.
The revisions read as follows:
3. Junior hunters age 15 or younger must be accompanied by, and remain within sight and normal voice contact of, an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
3. Junior hunters age 15 or younger must be accompanied by, and remain within sight and normal voice contact of, an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
3. Junior hunters age 15 or younger must be accompanied by, and remain within sight and normal voice contact of, an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while hunting.
3. We prohibit using dogs while hunting feral hogs and black-tailed deer.
1. General Hunting Regulations.
i. Anyone age 16 or older, regardless of license status, must obtain a migratory bird hunting permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2357) to hunt or enter hunt areas, except non-hunting assistants assisting disabled hunters in the disabled area. You must print and validate your permit (name/address/phone) with your signature, in ink, and retain it on your person while hunting or scouting.
ii. You must abide by the terms and conditions outlined in the refuge hunt brochure (see § 32.2(e) of this chapter). Brochures contain information on seasons, bag limits, methods of hunting, maps depicting areas open to hunting, hunt unit reservation procedures, and the terms and conditions under which
iii. You, and those who accompany you who are age 16 or older, must possess and carry the following at all times while on refuge property: A valid Delaware hunting license or document exhibiting your License Exempt Number (LEN), all required State and Federal stamps, a valid form of government-issued photo identification, a signed refuge hunt brochure appropriate for the hunt in question, and a printed valid hunting permit. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies of these documents.
iv. Youths age 15 or younger must be accompanied by a supervisor age 18 or older who possesses all documents required in A.1.iii, including non-hunting assistants. All supervisors may only be accompanied by one youth. Youths must possess and carry a signed refuge waterfowl hunt brochure and an LEN or license in accordance with State law. The youth must remain within sight and normal voice contact of the supervisor at all times while hunting on the refuge.
v. Other than using motor vehicles on designated roads, you may only access the refuge by foot, except as authorized by the refuge manager.
vi. You may use trained dogs to assist in retrieval of harvested game.
vii. You must notify and receive permission from a Service law enforcement officer, refuge manager, or designee if you need to retrieve game from a closed refuge area or a hunting area for which you do not possess a valid permit (see § 26.21(a) of this chapter).
viii. You must park in designated areas. We prohibit parking in front of any gate. Parked vehicles may not impede any road traffic (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter).
ix. You may enter the refuge up to 2 hours before legal morning shooting time. You must stop hunting by 3 p.m. and leave the hunting area or unit by 4 p.m., except when snow goose hunting, in the designated snow goose area, during the snow goose conservation order season.
x. You must complete and return a Migratory Bird Hunt Report (FWS Form 3-2361), available at the refuge administration office or on the refuge's Web site, within 15 days of the close of the season.
xi. We prohibit the use of natural vegetation for camouflaging blind material (see § 27.51(a) of this chapter).
xii. We prohibit entry to designated safety zones as identified by polygons on the refuge map.
xiii. You may access the Lottery Waterfowl hunt area by boat. The maximum horsepower allowed for boat motors is 30 horsepower (HP). You must abide by the slow, no-wake zones on designated portions of refuge waterways as depicted in maps or within the brochure.
xiv. We allow the use of non-motorized boats within the Walk-in Hunt Area. Boats may be transported to refuge waters by hand or by the use of a cart.
2. General and Disabled Waterfowl Draw Hunt Areas.
i. You must obtain a Daily General or Disabled Waterfowl Draw Area Permit (signed brochure), which reserves your hunt unit/area/site in advance for a specific date using an online system. Only hunters age 16 or older may reserve a hunt unit.
ii. You must print and validate your Daily Waterfowl Draw Area Permit (signed brochure) with your signature in ink.
iii. You must hunt from your boat or, if applicable, provided blind. You must hunt within 75 feet (22.9 meters) of your designated site.
iv. We allow you to have up to two additional hunters accompany you on your reserved site.
v. Disabled Waterfowl Draw Area.
a. All disabled hunters must possess and carry a State of Delaware Certified Hunter with Disabilities Card while hunting in disabled areas. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies of these forms.
b. Disabled hunters may have a non-hunting assistant who is age 18 or older. The assistant must remain within sight and normal voice contact; must not be engaged in hunting; and must possess a valid refuge hunt brochure signed in ink and a valid government-issued photo identification. Any assistant engaged in hunting must possess and carry all documents as specified in A.1.iii.
c. We do not allow assistants to enter a designated disabled hunting area unless they are accompanied by a certified disabled hunter.
d. We do not require assistants to maintain sight and normal voice contact while retrieving game.
1. A.1.i. through A.1.viii. and A.1.xii. apply.
2. We prohibit shooting a projectile from a firearm, muzzleloader, bow, or crossbow from, down, or across any refuge road. A refuge road is any road that is traveled by vehicular traffic.
3. You must make a reasonable effort to retrieve all wounded or killed game and include it in your daily bag limit. We prohibit leaving entrails or other waste within 50 feet (15.2 meters) of any road, parking area, trail, or refuge structure on the refuge.
4. You must use daylight florescent orange in accordance with State regulations (see § 32.2(d) of this chapter).
5. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 1 hour before legal morning shooting time and you must exit the refuge by 1 hour after legal sunset.
6. We prohibit the use of centerfire and rimfire rifles.
1. General Hunt Regulations.
i. Conditions A.1.i. through A.1.v., A.1.vii., A.1.viii., A.1.xii., B2, and B3 apply.
ii. We prohibit organized deer drives.
iii. We allow the use of temporary tree stands and blinds for hunting. All stands and blinds left on refuge property unoccupied must be tagged in plain sight with your permit number and the years that are printed on your permit. You must remove all stands and blinds by legal sunset of a date established annually by the refuge manager. We are not responsible for damage, theft, or use of the stand by other hunters.
iv. You may use marking devices, including flagging or tape, but you must remove them by legal sunset on a date established annually by the refuge manager. You may not use paint or any other permanent marker to mark trails.
v. You must use daylight florescent orange in accordance with State regulations during all designated firearm and muzzleloader deer hunts (see § 32.2(d) of this chapter).
2. General and Disabled Deer Draw Hunt Areas.
i. Youth hunters must obtain a hunting permit before applying for a General and Disabled Deer Draw Area Permit (signed brochure). Hunters age 15 or younger must obtain a hunting permit; however, A.1.iv. still applies.
ii. You must obtain a Daily General or Disabled Deer Draw Area Permit (signed brochure), which reserves your hunt unit/area/site in advance for a specific date using an online system.
iii. You must print and sign your Daily Deer Draw Area Permit (signed brochure) in ink.
3. For designated disabled hunt areas, A.2.v. applies.
1. Conditions A.1.i. through A.1.iv. apply for those age 17 and older.
2. All youth age 16 or younger must be accompanied by a licensed angler age 18 or older who possesses all documents required in D.1.i.
3. The refuge is open from
4. Other than using motor vehicles on designated roads, you may only access the refuge by foot, except as authorized by the refuge manager.
5. We allow fishing and crabbing from boats and from designated areas of the refuge, on designated days, during designated times, routes of travel, waterways, and launch sites.
i. You must remove boats from the water by legal sunset.
ii. When on Turkle and Fleetwood Ponds, you may only propel boats manually or with electric motors.
iii. We allow a maximum of 30 horsepower (HP) outboard or motor.
iv. You must abide by the slow, no-wake zones on designated portions of refuge waterways as depicted in maps or within the brochure.
6. Fishing tackle and crabbing gear:
i. You must use hook-and-line tackle when fishing for finfish.
ii. You may use only hand lines, crab dip nets, hoop crab nets, and/or manually operated crab traps (collapsible traps) in any combination for crabbing.
iii. You must attend to your crabbing and fishing lines or gear at all times.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
1. You must have a valid signed Lake Woodruff National Wildlife Refuge Big Game Permit (signed brochure). The permits (signed brochure) are free and nontransferable, and anyone on refuge land engaged in hunting must sign and carry the permit at all times.
2. You must obtain a State-issued Lake Woodruff Quota Hunt Permit (Quota Permit), which can be purchased through Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC). You must have on your person all applicable Florida hunting licenses and permits. State requirements for hunter safety apply.
8. Hunting areas on the refuge are seasonally closed to all public use except to permitted hunters during the season, and are marked on refuge maps. The refuge is closed between legal sunset and legal sunrise, except permitted hunters may access the refuge 2 hours prior to legal sunrise each hunting day. All hunters must leave the refuge within 2 hours of legal sunset.
16. Archery hunters must wear a vest or jacket containing back and front panels of at least 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of solid-fluorescent-orange color when moving to and from their vehicle, to their deer stand or their hunting spot, and while tracking or dragging out deer.
17. We prohibit using dogs for tracking unless authorized by a Federal wildlife officer. Dogs must remain on a leash and be equipped with a GPS tracking device.
18. It is unlawful to drive nails, spikes, or other metal objects into any tree, or to hunt from any tree in which a metal object has been driven (see § 32.2(i) of this chapter).
9. In addition to State hunter-education requirements, an adult (parent or guardian) age 21 or older must supervise and must remain within sight of and in normal voice contact of the youth hunter age 15 or younger. Parents or adult guardians are responsible for ensuring that hunters age 15 and younger do not engage in conduct that would constitute a violation of refuge regulations. An adult may not supervise more than two youths.
12. We prohibit marking any tree, or other refuge feature, with flagging, litter, paint, tacks, spider eyes, or blaze.
14. You may leave a temporary tree stand on refuge property starting 1 week before archery season, but you must remove it by the last day of hog season. All tree stands left on the refuge within the hunt season must display the hunter's name and hunting license number legibly written on or attached to the stand. We may seize and dispose of any tree stands not in compliance, according to Federal regulations. You may also use a temporary tree stand during small game season, but you must remove it by the last day of small game season.
4. We prohibit the use or possession of alcohol while fishing.
3. You must carry (or hunt within 30 yards of a hunter who possesses) a valid State-issued Merritt Island Waterfowl Quota Permit (Waterfowl Quota Permit), which can be purchased through the Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC) while hunting in areas 1 or 4 from the beginning of the regular waterfowl season through the end of January. The Waterfowl Quota Permit can be used for a single party consisting of the permit holder and up to three guests. The permit holder must be present.
4. During the State's waterfowl season, we allow hunting on Wednesdays, Saturdays, Sundays, and the following Federal holidays: Thanksgiving, Christmas, and New Year's Day.
5. We allow hunting in four designated areas of the refuge as delineated in the refuge hunting regulations map. We prohibit hunters entering the normal or expanded restricted areas of the Kennedy Space Center (KSC). Merritt Island National Wildlife Refuge and KSC maintain the right to close any portion of the refuge
6. We allow hunting of waterfowl on refuge-established hunt days from
10. We prohibit accessing a hunt area from Black Point Wildlife Drive, Playalinda Beach Road (Beach Road), and Scrub Ridge Trail. We prohibit launching a boat and leaving vehicles parked for hunting purposes on Black Point Wildlife Drive, Playalinda Beach Road (Beach Road), or Scrub Ridge Trail.
11. We prohibit construction of permanent blinds or digging into dikes (see § 27.92 of this chapter).
14. You must leave the refuge by 1 p.m. Prior to that, you must stop at posted refuge waterfowl check stations and report statistical hunt information on the Migratory Bird Hunt Report (FWS Form 3-2361) to refuge personnel.
16. You may use gasoline or diesel motors only inside the impoundment perimeter ditch. Outside the perimeter ditch, vessels must be propelled by paddling, push pole, or electric trolling motor.
8. You are prohibited from entering the normal or expanded restricted areas of KSC. Merritt Island National Wildlife Refuge and KSC maintain the right to close any portion of the refuge for any length of time. In that case, we will not refund or reissue any permits.
15. We allow legally permitted hunters to scout within their permitted zones up to 7 days prior to their permitted hunts. You must carry your valid Quota Hunt Permit identifying the permitted hunt zone while scouting. You may not possess hunting weapons while scouting.
16. We allow parking for scouting and/or hunting only along State Road (SR) 3, but not within the hunt areas or on any road marked as “Area Closed.”
24. The bag limit and antler requirements for white-tailed deer on the refuge will follow State regulations but will not exceed two deer per hunt. We define antlered and antlerless deer according to State regulations.
3. You may launch boats for night fishing and boating activities only from Bair's Cove, Beacon 42, and Biolab boat ramps.
14. When inside the impoundment perimeter ditch, you may use gasoline or diesel motors. Outside the perimeter ditch, vessels must be propelled by paddling, push pole, or electric trolling motor.
1. All hunters age 16 and older must possess and carry a signed refuge hunt permit (name/address/phone) and a State license. We charge a fee for all hunt permits.
2. To participate in the youth waterfowl hunt, youth hunters must submit the Waterfowl Lottery Application (FWS Form 3-2355). You must pay an application fee to enter the hunt drawing.
3. We allow temporary blinds only. You must remove decoys and other personal property from the refuge daily (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
4. We allow shotguns for all migratory game bird hunting, but only with nontoxic shot size #2 or smaller.
5. Youth hunters, defined as those age 15 and younger, must remain within sight and normal voice contact of an adult age 21 or older; the adult must possess a valid hunting license for the State in which they are hunting. One adult may supervise no more than two youth hunters.
6. You may take feral hog and coyote during all refuge hunts (migratory bird, upland, and big game) with weapons authorized and legal for those hunts.
7. You may use retrieving dogs. Dogs must remain under direct and constant control of the hunter.
8. You must comply with all provisions of State and local law when possessing, transporting, or carrying firearms on national wildlife refuges. You may only use (discharge) firearms in accordance with refuge regulations (see § 27.42 of this chapter and specific refuge regulations in part 32.)
1. Conditions A1, A6, and A8 apply.
2. For squirrel hunting, we allow rimfire rifles, rimfire pistols, or shotguns with nontoxic shot size #2 shot or smaller. We recommend but do not require solid copper or other nontoxic rimfire bullets. For rabbit hunting, we allow shotguns, but only with nontoxic shot size #2 or smaller.
3. You may not hunt on or within 100 yards (90 meters) of public roads, refuge facilities, roads and trails, and railroad rights-of-way, or in closed areas.
4. You may not use dogs for upland game hunting.
5. During the period when upland game hunting coincides with the refuge gun hunt for deer and hogs, you must wear an outer garment containing a minimum of 500 square inches (3,226 square centimeters) of hunter-orange material above the waistline.
6. Youth hunters, defined as those age 15 and younger, must remain within sight and normal voice contact of an adult age 21 or older; the adult must possess a valid hunting license for the State in which they are hunting. One adult may supervise no more than one youth hunter.
1. Conditions A1, A6, A8, B3, and B6 apply.
2. To participate in the gun hunt for wheelchair-dependent hunters, hunters must submit the Quota Deer Hunt Application (FWS Form 3-2354). To participate in the Youth Turkey Hunt & Learn Weekend, youth hunters must submit the Big/Upland Game Hunt Application (FWS Form 3-2356). You must pay an application fee to enter these hunt drawings.
3. To participate in the youth-only deer or turkey hunts, youth hunters must request a free hunt permit from the refuge headquarters.
4. You may only use bows, in accordance with State regulations, for deer, hog, and coyote hunting during the archery hunt for these species.
5. You may only use shotguns (20 gauge or larger, slugs only), center-fire rifles, center-fire pistols, muzzleloaders, and bows, in accordance with State regulations, for deer, hog, and coyote hunting during the firearm hunts for these species.
6. You must remove hunt stands following each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
7. Hunters may take as many as five deer (no more than two antlered). There is no bag limit on feral hog or coyote.
8. Turkey hunters may harvest only three gobblers (male turkey).
9. We allow only shotguns with nontoxic #2 shot or smaller, and bows, in accordance with State regulations, for turkey hunting. We prohibit the use of slugs or buckshot for turkey hunting.
10. We prohibit the use of trail or game cameras. We also prohibit the use of trail marking tacks, bright eyes, reflectors, reflecting tape, and any other markers, including biodegradable markers such as toilet paper and paper tape.
11. We prohibit the use of dogs for big game hunting.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
19. We prohibit the use of any type of material used as flagging or trail markers, except reflective tacks.
14. We prohibit the use of any type of material used as flagging or trail markers, except reflective tacks.
3. We allow hunting in the Centerville, Garden City, Bayou Sale, North Bend East, and North Bend West Units. We do not allow hunting within 500 feet (152.4 meters) of the Garden City parking area and boardwalk. The Bayou Sale Unit is not open for big game firearm hunts.
5. You may take feral hogs only as incidental take while participating in the refuge deer archery hunt.
7. During deer gun seasons, all hunters, except waterfowl hunters, must wear and display 400 square inches (2,580.6 square centimeters) of unbroken hunter-orange or blaze pink as the outermost layer of clothing on the chest and back and a hunter-orange or blaze pink cap. Deer hunters hunting from concealed ground blinds must display a minimum of 400 square inches (2,580.6 square centimeters) of hunter-orange or blaze pink above or around their blinds; this must be visible from 360 degrees.
15. We prohibit all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and utility-terrain vehicles (UTVs).
5. You may erect temporary deer stands 2 days prior to the start of deer archery season. You must remove all deer stands within 2 days after the archery deer season closes. You may place only one deer stand on the refuge. Deer stands must have the owner's name, address, and phone number clearly printed on the stand. Hunting stands are not allowed on trees painted with white bands. You must place stands in a non-hunting position when not in use (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
6. You may take hogs only as incidental take while participating in the refuge deer archery hunt.
5. We prohibit all commercial finfishing and shellfishing, including guiding, outfitting, lodging, club membership, or participating in a paid guided fishing trip (see § 27.97 of this chapter).
6. Conditions A6, A8, A9, and A14 through A17 apply.
8. You must attend to any fishing, crabbing, and crawfishing equipment at all times.
6. An adult at least age 21 must supervise youth hunters during all hunts. State regulations define youth hunter age and hunter-education requirements. One adult may supervise two youths during small game hunts and migratory bird hunts but may supervise only one youth during big game hunts. Youths must remain within normal voice contact of the adult who is supervising them. Parents or adult guardians are responsible for ensuring that youth hunters do not engage in conduct that would constitute a violation of refuge regulations.
7. We prohibit hunting within 150 feet (45.7 meters) from the centerline of any public road, refuge road, designated or maintained trail, building, residence, designated camping area, or designated public facility, or from or across aboveground oil, gas, or electric facilities. We prohibit hunting in refuge-designated closed areas, which we post on the refuge and identify in the refuge hunt permits.
10. You may not act as a hunting guide, outfitter, or in any other capacity whereby another individual(s) pays or promises to pay directly or indirectly for services rendered. You may not provide payment to any other person or persons for hunting on the refuge, regardless of whether the payment is for guiding, outfitting, lodging, or club membership (see § 27.97 of this chapter).
11. We prohibit horses, trail cameras, all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), and utility-terrain vehicles (UTVs), except UTVs are allowed on designated physically challenged hunt trails for big game. We provide specific size and tire pressure restrictions for UTVs in the refuge hunt permit (signed brochure).
4. All hunters in Louisiana (including archery hunters and small game hunters), except waterfowl hunters, must wear and display not less than 400 square inches (2,580.6 square centimeters) of unbroken hunter-orange or blaze pink as the outermost layer of clothing on the chest and back and a hunter-orange cap during deer gun seasons. While walking to and from elevated stands, all deer hunters must display a minimum of 400 square inches (2,580.6 square centimeters) of hunter-orange or blaze pink or a hunter-orange
3. We allow archery deer hunting during the open State deer archery season. You may take deer of either sex in accordance with State regulations. The State season limits apply.
8. You may take hog as incidental game while participating in the refuge archery, primitive weapon, and general gun deer hunts and where otherwise specified. We list specific dates for the special hog hunts in February in the refuge hunt permit (signed brochure). During the special hog hunt in February, you must use trained hog-hunting dogs to aid in the take of hog. During the special hog hunt, you may take hog from
11. We prohibit using shot larger than BB lead or T steel while hunting during turkey season.
12. We allow physically challenged big game hunters exclusive use of designated physically challenged hunt trails with limited use of UTVs in accordance with specific size and weight specifications. Specific hunt trails will be designated on the refuge hunt permit. Physically challenged hunters must pre-register hunting dates and specific location at the refuge office. An assistant may accompany the physically challenged hunter, but the assistant may not hunt.
3. We close the fishing ponds at the Pearl River Turnaround to fishing from April through the first full week of June and to boating during the months of April, May, June, and July.
2. At the Headquarters Unit, we only allow squirrel and rabbit hunting. We set seasons annually.
7. You may use shotguns for hunting but only with nontoxic shot and rifles .22 caliber rimfire or smaller. We prohibit possession of toxic shot when hunting.
5. We allow hunting of deer with primitive firearms during the first segment of the State season for area 1, weekdays only (Monday through Friday) and 2 days in December with these dates set annually. We allow either-sex, deer gun hunting for the Friday, Saturday, and Sunday immediately following Thanksgiving Day and for 2 days in December with these dates to be set annually.
16. We prohibit the use of any type of material used as flagging or trail markers, except reflective tacks.
12. We prohibit the use of any type of material used as flagging or trail markers, except reflective tacks.
The revisions read as follows:
1. You must obtain a refuge waterfowl hunting permit (signed brochure) by signing the corresponding season's refuge waterfowl hunting brochure in ink. You must abide by the terms and conditions outlined in the brochure (see § 32.2(e) of this chapter). Refuge waterfowl hunting brochures contain seasons, bag limits, methods of hunting, maps depicting areas open to hunting, hunt unit reservation procedures, and the terms and conditions under which we issue hunting permits. They are available at the refuge visitor center, administration office, and on the refuge's Web site.
2. You must reserve your hunt unit in advance for a specific date using the call reservation system. You must be age 18 or older to reserve a hunt unit.
3. Up to three additional hunters may accompany you on your reserved unit.
4. You and those who accompany you must possess on your person a valid Maryland hunting license and all required stamps, a valid form of government-issued photo identification, and a printed valid hunting permit (signed brochure) at all times while on refuge property. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies of these forms.
5. We prohibit the use of natural vegetation for camouflaging blind material.
6. Other than using motor vehicles on designated roads, you may only access the refuge by foot, except as authorized by the refuge manager.
7. You may use trained dogs to assist in the retrieval of harvested birds.
1. General Hunt Regulations.
i. Condition A6 applies.
ii. You must obtain a deer or turkey hunting permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356 or Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354). Hunting brochures, hunting application procedures, seasons, bag limits, methods of hunting, maps depicting areas open to hunting, and the terms and conditions under which we issue hunting permits are available at the refuge visitor center, administration office, and on the refuge's Web site.
iii. You must possess on your person at all times while on refuge property: A valid Maryland hunting license and all required stamps, a valid form of government-issued photo identification, and a printed valid hunting permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356 or Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354) issued by the refuge. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies of these forms.
iv. You may not hunt from a permanently constructed tree stand or blind.
v. We prohibit organized deer drives, unless otherwise authorized by the
vi. You must notify and receive permission from a Service law enforcement officer, refuge manager, or designee if you need to retrieve game from a refuge closed area or a hunting area for which you do not possess a valid permit.
vii. We prohibit shooting a projectile from a firearm, muzzleloader, bow, or crossbow from, down, or across any refuge road. A refuge road is any road that is traveled by vehicular traffic.
viii. We prohibit parking in front of any gate. Parked vehicles may not impede any road traffic (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter).
ix. You must make a reasonable effort to retrieve all wounded or killed game and include it in your daily bag limit. We prohibit leaving deer or turkey entrails or other waste within 50 feet (15.2 meters) of any road, parking area, trail, or refuge structure on the refuge.
x. We allow the use of temporary tree stands and blinds for hunting. All stands and blinds left on refuge property, unoccupied, must be tagged in plain sight with your permit number and the years that are printed on your permit. You must remove all stands and blinds by legal sunset of a date established annually by the refuge manager.
xi. We allow the use of marking devices, including flagging or tape, but you must remove them by legal sunset of a date established annually by the refuge manager. You may not use paint or any other permanent marker to mark trails.
xii. You must wear fluorescent orange in accordance with State regulations during all designated firearm and muzzleloader deer hunts.
xiii. You must check all deer harvested at the refuge-sponsored check station during hunt days when the refuge-sponsored check station is open. If you fail to check deer during operation hours of the check station, you must notify the hunt coordinator by noon on the day after your kill.
xiv. You must adhere to the bag limits set forth annually in the brochure. Deer harvested on the refuge do not count toward State bag limits but must be recorded and checked with the State. Deer harvested on the refuge must be checked pursuant to the refuge hunt in which they are taken, regardless of the weapon used or corresponding State season.
xv. The maximum speed limit on all refuge unpaved roads is 15 miles per hour (MPH).
xvi. We prohibit the use of rimfire or centerfire rifles and all handguns, including muzzleloading pistols, for hunting.
2. Archery Deer Hunt.
i. We do not allow archery hunters to hunt within areas designated for the youth hunt on designated days.
ii. Archery hunters are not required to wear fluorescent orange during State youth hunt days.
3. Turkey Hunt.
i. We allow you to take one bearded turkey per year; turkeys taken on the refuge count toward the State bag limit.
ii. We allow turkey hunt permit holders to have an assistant, who must remain within sight and normal voice contact.
a. Assistants must not be engaged in hunting; must read the turkey hunting brochure; and must sign, in ink, the permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356 or Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354) of the person they are assisting.
b. Assistants must possess a valid government-issued photo identification on their person while assisting.
c. Assistants who call and/or set up decoys must possess a valid Maryland hunting license.
4. Youth Deer and Turkey Hunt.
i. We allow hunters to hunt on designated areas on designated days (Youth Hunt) if they meet the criteria of a “youth hunter” as defined by State law.
ii. Youth hunters must be accompanied by an assistant consistent with the regulations established by State law.
iii. All youth deer hunters and their assistants must wear fluorescent orange in accordance with State regulations while hunting in designated youth hunt areas.
iv. Assistants must possess a valid refuge hunt brochure, signed in ink, and a valid government-issued photo identification.
v. Deer taken during youth days do not count toward the State bag limit and are in addition to any other deer taken during any other hunts on the refuge.
vi. Deer and turkey taken must be recorded and checked with the State.
5. Designated Disabled Hunt Areas.
i. All disabled hunters must possess a Federal Government Access pass (OMB Control 1024-0252).
ii. Disabled hunters are required to have their Federal Government Access pass (OMB Control 1024-0252) in their possession while hunting in disabled areas. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies.
iii. Disabled hunters may have an assistant, at least age 18, who must remain within sight and normal voice contact.
a. Non-hunting assistants must not be engaged in hunting and must possess a valid refuge hunt brochure, signed in ink, and a valid government-issued photo identification. Non-hunting assistants must also use fluorescent orange in accordance with condition C.1.xii.
b. Assistants who wish to hunt deer must possess a valid hunt permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356 or Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354) for that day for any hunt area.
c. We do not allow assistants to enter a designated disabled hunting area unless they are accompanied by a certified disabled hunter.
d. All refuge-provided hunt blinds are reserved for disabled hunters only; however, when a disabled hunter and their assistant occupy the same blind, both may take game.
e. We do not require assistants to maintain sight and normal voice contact while retrieving game.
iv. We only allow disabled hunters to operate all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and off-road vehicles (ORVs); when the disabled hunter is unable to physically do so, the assistant may operate the ATV/ORV.
a. Assistants may not operate an ATV/ORV without being accompanied on the same ATV/ORV by a disabled hunter.
b. ATVs/ORVs must have at least one headlight and one red tail light that are operational between legal sunset and legal sunrise.
c. Anyone who operates or rides on an ATV/ORV must wear protective headgear that meets the standards established in Transportation Article, section 21-1306, Annotated Code of Maryland, and use an eye-protective device or a windscreen that is of a type approved in Transportation Article, section 21-1306, Annotated Code of Maryland.
d. We only allow ATVs/ORVs to be operated on established routes of travel and around field edges.
e. We do not allow ATVs/ORVs to be operated in excess of 15 MPH.
2. We allow only fishing and crabbing from the Key Wallace roadway (bridge) across the Little Blackwater River and by boat, unless otherwise authorized by the refuge manager.
3. You must possess a valid Maryland sport fishing license, all required stamps, and a valid form of government-issued photo identification while fishing on the refuge.
1. General Hunt Regulations.
i. You must obtain a deer or turkey hunting permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356). Hunting brochures contain hunting application procedures, seasons, bag limits, methods of hunting, maps depicting areas open to hunting, and the terms and conditions under which we issue hunting permits. They are available at the refuge visitor center, administration office, and on the refuge's Web site.
ii. You must possess on your person at all times while on refuge property: A valid Maryland hunting license and all required stamps, a valid form of government-issued photo identification, and a valid hunting permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356) issued by the refuge. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies of these documents.
iii. You must display your refuge hunt parking pass in plain sight, on the dash of your vehicle during hunt and scout days.
iv. We prohibit hunting from a permanently constructed tree stand or blind.
v. You must notify and receive permission from a Service law enforcement officer, refuge manager, or designee if you need to retrieve game from a refuge closed area or a hunting area for which you do not possess a valid permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356).
vi. Other than using motor vehicles on designated roads, you may only access the refuge by foot, except as authorized by the refuge manager.
vii. We prohibit shooting a projectile from a firearm, muzzleloader, bow, or crossbow from, down, or across any refuge road. A refuge road is any road that is traveled by vehicular traffic.
viii. You must park in designated areas. We prohibit parking in front of any gate. Parked vehicles may not impede any road traffic (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter).
ix. You must make a reasonable effort to retrieve all wounded or killed game and include it in your daily bag limit. We prohibit leaving deer entrails or other waste within 50 feet (15.2 meters) of any refuge road, trail, parking area, or structure.
x. We allow the use of temporary tree stands and blinds for hunting. All stands and blinds left on refuge property, unoccupied, must be tagged in plain sight with your permit number and the years that are printed on your permit. You must remove all stands and blinds by legal sunset of a date established annually by the refuge manager.
xi. We allow the use of marking devices, including flagging or tape, but they must be removed by legal sunset of date established annually by the refuge. You may not use paint or any other permanent marker to mark trails.
xii. You must use florescent orange in accordance with State regulations during all designated firearm and muzzleloader deer hunts.
xiii. We prohibit the use of rimfire or centerfire rifles and all handguns, including muzzleloading pistols, for hunting.
xiv. You must adhere to the bag limits set fourth annually in the brochure. Deer harvested on the refuge do not count toward State bag limits but must be recorded and checked with the State. Deer harvested on the refuge must be checked pursuant to the refuge hunt in which they are taken, regardless of the weapon used or corresponding State season.
xv. The maximum speed limit on unpaved refuge roads is 15 miles per hour (MPH).
2. Youth Deer Hunt.
i. We allow hunters to hunt on designated areas on designated days (Youth Hunt) if they meet the criteria of a “youth hunter” as defined by State law.
ii. Youth hunters must be accompanied by an assistant consistent with the regulations established by State law.
iii. All youth deer hunters and their assistants must wear fluorescent orange in accordance with State regulations while hunting in designated youth hunt areas.
iv. Assistants must possess a valid refuge hunt brochure, signed in ink, and a valid government-issued photo identification.
v. Deer taken during youth days do not count toward the State bag limit and are in addition to any other deer taken during any other hunts on the refuge.
vi. Deer taken must be recorded and checked with the State.
3. Designated Disabled Hunt.
i. All disabled hunters must possess a Federal Government Access pass (OMB Control 1024-0252). Disabled hunters are required to have their Federal Government Access pass (OMB Control 1024-0252) in their possession while hunting in disabled areas. We will not accept photocopies or electronic copies of the Federal Government Access pass.
ii. Disabled hunters may have an assistant who must be age 18 or older and remain within sight and normal voice contact.
a. Non-hunting assistants must not be engaged in hunting and must possess a valid refuge hunt brochure, signed in ink, and a valid government-issued photo identification. We will not accept photocopies of these documents. Non-hunting assistants must also wear fluorescent orange in accordance with C.1.xii.
b. Assistants who wish to deer hunt must possess a valid refuge hunt permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356) for that day.
c. We do not allow assistants to enter a designated disabled hunting area unless they are accompanied by a certified disabled hunter.
d. All refuge-provided hunt blinds are reserved for disabled hunters only; however, when a disabled hunter and their assistant occupy the same blind, both may take game.
e. We do not require assistants to maintain sight and normal voice contact while retrieving game.
iii. We allow only disabled hunters to operate all-terrain vehicles (ATVs) and off-road vehicles (ORVs); when the disabled hunter is unable to physically do so, the assistant may operate the ATV/ORV.
a. Assistants may not operate an ATV without being accompanied on the same ATV by a disabled hunter.
b. ATVs/ORVs must have at least one headlight and one red tail light that are operational between legal sunset and legal sunrise.
c. Anyone who operates or rides on a ATV/ORV must wear protective headgear that meets the standards established in Transportation Article, section 21-1306, Annotated Code of Maryland, and must use an eye-protective device or a windscreen of a type approved in Transportation Article, section 21-1306, Annotated Code of Maryland.
d. We only allow ATVs/ORVs to be operated on established routes of travel and around field edges.
e. We do not allow ATVs/ORVs to be operated in excess of 15 miles per hour (MPH).
4. You must possess a valid Maryland sport fishing license and all required stamps, and valid form of government-issued photo identification while fishing on the refuge.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
1. Each person age 16 and older hunting or fishing must possess a valid Theodore Roosevelt Complex Annual Public Use Permit (name/address/phone number).
7. We prohibit the use of plastic flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
21. Waterfowl hunters are limited to 25 shotshells per person in the field.
6. We prohibit the use of plastic flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
7. We prohibit the use of plastic flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
22. Waterfowl hunters are limited to 25 shotshells per person in the field.
7. We prohibit the use of plastic flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
21. Waterfowl hunters are limited to 25 shotshells per person in the field.
7. We prohibit the use of plastic flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
22. Waterfowl hunters are limited to 25 shotshells per person in the field.
9. Limited draw hunts for persons with disabilities will be held in November, December, and/or January. We will make hunt dates and permit application procedures (name/address/phone number) available at the Theodore Roosevelt Complex headquarters.
7. We prohibit the use of plastic flagging tape, reflective tacks, and other similar marking devices.
20. Waterfowl hunters are limited to 25 shotshells per person in the field.
5. We prohibit boating outside of the waterfowl and youth waterfowl hunting season except in Willow Lake where we allow nonmotorized boating from July 1 to March 1.
1. We allow fishing in and along the banks of the Wallkill River. We allow shore fishing only in the pond at Owens Station Crossing, Vernon, New Jersey. Fishing at Owens State Crossing is catch and release only.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
1. * * *
xiii. If you have a reservation but do not show up to hunt, and do not cancel your reservation 12 hours prior to legal shooting time, then you may be ineligible to hunt the next 3 hunt days. This decision is at the refuge manager's discretion.
xvii. Waterfowl hunters may possess a maximum of 15 shot shells on their person or in their means of conveyance.
xx. You must possess, carry, and present upon request to any law enforcement officer a valid daily hunt permit card (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361). You must return the daily hunt permit card at the end of hunting. You may obtain a
2. * * *
iii. You must possess, carry, and present upon request to any Service law enforcement officer a valid daily hunt permit card (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361). You must return the daily hunt permit card at the end of hunting or at the end of the day. You may obtain a permit at the Hunter Check Station on State Route 89 and return it to the same location; obtaining a permit will be on a first-come, first-served basis each hunt day.
1. You must carry and present upon request to any Service law enforcement officer a valid daily hunt permit card (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356). You must return the daily hunt permit card at the end of hunting or at the end of the day. You may obtain a permit at the Hunter Check Station on State Route 89 and return it to the same location; obtaining a permit during the fall season will be on a first-come, first-served basis each hunt day.
13. We prohibit boats and canoes on refuge pools. We prohibit hunting on the open-water portions of the refuge pools until the pools are frozen; when frozen, we allow access for hunting at the refuge manager's discretion.
The revisions read as follows:
1. We allow the use of dogs for hunting and retrieving of upland game birds with the exception of wild turkey. Dogs must be under immediate control of the hunter (see § 26.21(b) of this chapter).
2. We open for sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, and pheasant hunting on Unit I during the State hunting season. Unit I includes all refuge land north of the township road that runs east of Tolley, across Dam 41 (Carter Dam), and east to State Route 28.
3. We open for sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, and pheasant hunting on Unit II during the State hunting season, except we close from the first day of the regular State waterfowl season through the last day of State deer gun season. Unit II includes refuge land between Lake Darling Dam and Unit I.
4. We close land south of Lake Darling Dam to sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, and pheasant hunting.
5. We prohibit sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, pheasant, and spring wild turkey hunting in the area around refuge headquarters, buildings, shops, residences, Outlet Fishing Area, and Lake Darling Dam water control structure. We post these areas with “Closed to Hunting” signs.
The revisions read as follows:
7. We prohibit horse and mule use on the refuge.
8. We provide access for hunters with disabilities.
6. We offer refuge-controlled turkey hunts. You must possess a State-issued controlled hunt letter and pay a fee for these hunts.
1. You must possess and carry a signed refuge permit (name only) for the archery deer hunt. Hunters must turn in a Big Game Harvest Report (FWS Form 3-2359) by December 31 annually. Failure to submit the report will render the hunter ineligible for the next year's limited season archery deer hunt.
3. You may hunt feral hog during any established refuge hunting season. Refuge permits (either a signed refuge permit or a State-issued controlled hunt letter) and legal weapons apply for the current hunting season.
5. We offer refuge-controlled deer hunts (primitive weapon, disabled primitive, and youth primitive). You must possess a permit (a State-issued controlled hunt letter) and pay a fee for these hunts.
1. Conditions A3, A4, A5, A8, and A12 apply.
2. You must possess and carry a signed refuge brochure; this serves as your Upland Game Hunting Permit. The permit/brochure is available free of charge at the refuge headquarters, at various entry points to the refuge, and on our Web site. You must abide by all rules and regulations listed on the permit (see § 32.2(e) of this chapter).
3. We prohibit hunters entering the Sandtown Bottom Unit prior to 5 a.m. during the hunting season. Hunters must leave the Sandtown Bottom Unit by 1 hour after legal sunset.
4. We open the refuge to hunting on Saturdays, Sundays, Mondays, and Tuesdays. We generally open the following units: Sandtown Bottom, Webber Bottom, Girty Bottom, Possum Hollow, and Vian Creek.
5. Season lengths and bag limits will be in accordance with State regulations with the exception that all upland game hunting will close on January 31 of each year.
6. We only allow legal shotguns and approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k) of this chapter). You must plug hunting shotguns so that they are incapable of holding more than three shells. We also
7. We prohibit squirrel and rabbit hunting in the Cook, Hi-Saw/Shelby, Delta Islands, and Haskell Management Units.
8. Incidental take of feral hogs may occur during squirrel and rabbit hunting season.
1. Conditions A8, A9, and A12 apply.
2. You must possess and carry a hunt permit (State-issued permit), and comply with the designated refuge season, hunting methods, and location guidelines for that year.
3. Hunters must apply to the State-controlled deer hunt drawing administered by the Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation for selection. You must attend a pre-hunt briefing.
4. You must pay State and Federal special deer hunting fees.
5. Incidental take of feral hogs may occur during deer hunting season.
The addition and revisions read as follows:
1. Only hunters age 17 or younger are allowed to participate in the Youth Waterfowl Hunt. Youths must be accompanied by an adult age 21 or older.
2. Youth must obtain a refuge waterfowl hunting permit using the Waterfowl Lottery Application (FWS Form 3-2355). All youth hunting waterfowl must do so from designated blinds.
8. Waterfowl and goose permit hunters are required to check in and out at the Hunter Check Station (refuge office), which is open from 1
1. We allow recreational bank fishing from the Alder Island Nature Trail.
2. We allow clamming on refuge lands and access across refuge lands to State-managed tidelands for clamming on the west side of U.S. Highway 101.
3. We prohibit pets on refuge trails or other refuge lands. We allow leashed pets only in the parking lot.
4. We allow fishing only from legal sunrise to legal sunset.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
10. We prohibit airboats, hovercraft, and personal watercraft (such as Jet Skis, wave runners, and jet boats) on refuge waters.
15. We prohibit blocking of gates and roads (see § 27.31(h) of this chapter).
2. Conditions A2, A5 through A7, and A10 through A15 apply.
2. Conditions A10, and A12 through A15 apply.
4. We allow wade fishing March 15 through October 1 annually from all areas except Refuge Road, Wildlife Drive, Plover Road, Tern Road, and Egret Road.
15. We prohibit boats and other floating devices on all open waters of Lake Texoma, except Big Mineral Creek from October 1 through March 14 annually.
16. At the point where Big Mineral Creek joins Lake Texoma, Big Mineral Creek becomes a year-round no wake zone to the end of upstream navigable waters.
17. From October 1 through March 14, we allow only nonmotorized boats in Big Mineral Creek from the point where it joins Lake Texoma to the upstream end of navigable waters. You may not have any type of gas or electric motor onboard that is capable of use. You may launch boats from a boat ramp only from L Pad Road or by hand at the Big Mineral Day Use Area.
18. We prohibit discarding fish whole or in part on refuge lands and waters.
1. * * *
ii. Maquam Shore Area encompasses a 30-acre area along the lakeshore of Maquam Bay and is bounded by private land on the west and a Vermont wildlife management area on the east. In the Maquam Shore Area, conditions A.1.i.a. through A.1.i.f. apply.
iii. Saxes Pothole/Creek and Shad Island Pothole encompass Saxes Creek, Saxes Pothole, and Shad Island Pothole. This is a controlled hunting area. We stake and make available five zones (numbered 1 through 5) to five hunting parties in Saxes Pothole; zone 6 is staked and available to one hunting party in Shad Island Pothole.
c. You may apply to a preseason lottery (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355) to obtain a permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) for the opening day of duck hunting season through the first Sunday of the duck hunting season and for the second weekend of the duck hunting season. During the years when the State elects to have a split season, you may also obtain your permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) for the second opening day through the following Sunday through application
d. Hunters selected during the preseason lottery (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355) must pay a $10 fee. The refuge must receive the fee no later than 2 days before the opening of the season or the selected hunter forfeits the permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361), which we will then make available to other hunters on a first-come, first-served basis. The fee is paid for any permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) assigned before the day of the hunt. There is no fee for any permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) obtained on the day of the hunt.
iv. * * *
a. Junior waterfowl hunters (ages 12-17, inclusive, at the time of the hunt), following successful completion of the annual training program (usually held the third or fourth Saturday in August), vie for blind site assignments during a lottery drawing (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355) at the conclusion of the training. The 11 blind sites are available exclusively to these junior waterfowl hunters and their mentors during the first four Saturdays and Sundays of the duck season.
b. During a lottery drawing (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355) at the conclusion of the annual junior waterfowl hunter training, adult volunteers who serve as mentors to junior waterfowl hunters will vie for the use of junior hunt area blind sites on the first Wednesday following the second weekend of the season. This is known as Mentor Day, and there is no fee charged to mentors. Any junior hunt area blinds not assigned at the conclusion of the annual junior waterfowl hunter training will be available to other adult hunters via a preseason lottery (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355). Mentors will also be permitted to hunt alongside the junior hunters on the last two Saturdays and Sundays of the junior hunt period.
c. Following the use of the blind sites in this area by junior hunters and junior hunter mentors, all blind sites are then available to all adult hunters by permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) awarded via a preseason lottery (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355) for the second Wednesday following the second weekend of the duck season; and on weekends following the junior hunt by a first-come, first-served basis; hunters must self-register at the Mac's Bend boat launch.
d. Hunters, including junior hunters, with preregistered permits (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) must sign in at the Mac's Bend boat launch no later than 7 a.m. on the date of their scheduled hunt. After 7 a.m., other hunters may sign in, self-register, and use unoccupied blind sites. Only junior hunters may hunt on the first four Saturdays and Sundays of the season. Adult mentors may hunt alongside their junior hunters for the last two Saturdays and Sundays of the junior hunt period. During this time, there still can only be two hunters per blind site (one junior and one mentor, or two juniors), regardless of the number of mentees.
g. Each adult hunter, except mentors on Mentor Day, must pay $10 for each permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) issued during the preseason lottery (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355). Permits acquired by self-registration are free.
h. Only junior hunters may discharge a firearm in this area during the youth weekend and the first two weekends of the season. Adult mentors may hunt alongside one junior mentee for the remainder of the junior hunt period.
i. We allow and recommend hunting from portable blinds and boat blinds constructed and placed by the refuge at some of the junior blind sites. Junior hunters are assigned a blind location by a lottery. We prohibit permanent blinds.
m. At the end of each day's hunt, each hunter must complete and deposit at Mac's Bend boat launch that portion of their permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) that provides the number of birds harvested and number of birds knocked down but not retrieved.
p. A hunting party consists of the hunter named on the permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) and one guest hunter per blind site per day. Junior hunters may not invite a guest hunter unless it is another refuge-trained junior hunter. Nonhunters may accompany a hunting party.
v. * * *
c. Hunters selected during the preseason lottery (Waterfowl Lottery Application, FWS Form 3-2355) must pay a $10 fee. The refuge must receive the fee no later than 2 days before the opening of the season or the selected hunter forfeits the permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361), which will be made available first to standby hunters identified at the time of the drawing, and second to other hunters on a first-come, first-served basis. You must pay the fee for any permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) before the day of the hunt. There is no fee for any permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Report, FWS Form 3-2361) obtained on the day of the hunt.
vi. Maquam Swamp Area encompasses about 200 acres (80.9 hectares) west of the Central Vermont Railroad and south of Coleman's inholding and is open to migratory bird hunting with the following special requirements:
The revisions read as follows:
1. You must obtain a Refuge Migratory Game Bird Hunt Permit (Migratory Bird Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2357) and maintain the permit on your person while hunting on the refuge.
2. You may only access hunting areas by boat.
3. You may erect portable blinds and deploy decoys; however, during the regular duck seasons, you must remove the blinds and decoys at the end of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
4. You may use trained dogs to assist in the retrieval of harvested birds.
5. We prohibit hunting on Assawoman and Metompkin Islands' beach and dune habitats beginning March 15.
6. We do not allow hunting on Sunday.
1. General hunt information:
i. You must possess a refuge hunt permit (Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354) while hunting.
ii. You must certify on your application you have viewed the refuge's hunt orientation.
iii. We allow holders of a refuge hunt permit (Quota Deer Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2354) to access areas of the refuge typically closed to the non-hunting public. All occupants of a vehicle or hunt party must possess a refuge hunt permit and be actively engaged in hunting. We allow an exception to exist for those persons aiding a disabled person who possesses a valid State-issued Commonwealth of Virginia Disabled Resident Lifetime License or Commonwealth of Virginia Resident Disabled Veteran's Lifetime License.
iv. You must sign in at the hunter registration station prior to entering your hunt zone and sign out upon exiting your hunt zone. All hunters must sign out no later than 2 hours after the end of legal shooting hours.
v. You must check all harvested animals at the hunter registration station prior to signing out.
vi. We prohibit the use of a boat, all-terrain vehicle (see § 27.31(f) of this chapter), or saddled animal to access hunt areas or while hunting.
vii. We allow the use of portable tree stands, but you must remove stands at the end of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
viii. You may not hunt within 100 feet (30.5 meters) of any building.
ix. We prohibit deer drives. We define a “drive” as four or more persons involved in the act of chasing, pursuing, disturbing, or otherwise directing deer so as to make the animal more susceptible to harvest.
x. We prohibit hunting on Sundays.
2. Archery hunt information:
i. We allow hunting of white-tailed deer and sika with archery tackle, as defined by the State, in designated areas of the refuge.
ii. You may not hunt or nock an arrow or crossbow bolt within 50 feet (15.2 meters) of the centerline of any road, whether improved or unimproved, or paved trail.
3. Firearm hunt information:
i. We allow hunting of white-tailed deer and sika with firearms in designated areas of the refuge.
ii. You may not hunt or discharge a firearm on or within 50 feet (15.2 meters) of the centerline of any road, whether improved or unimproved, or paved trail. You may not shoot across or down any road or paved trail.
1. You may not wade or launch a vessel in any water management areas.
2. You must attend minnow traps, crab traps, crab pots, and handlines at all times.
3. We prohibit the use of seine nets and pneumatic (compressed air or otherwise) bait launchers.
4. The State regulates certain species of finfish, shellfish, and crustacean (crab) using size or possession limits. You may not alter these species, to include cleaning or filleting, in such a way that we cannot determine its species or total length.
5. In order to fish after the refuge closes, anglers must obtain an overnight fishing pass (name/address/phone) issued by the National Park Service. Anglers can obtain a pass in person at the National Park Service Tom's Cove Visitor Center.
6. We allow only three surf fishing poles per licensed angler, and those poles must be attended at all times. This includes persons age 65 or older who are license-exempt in Virginia.
3. We allow holders of a refuge big game hunt permit (signed brochure) to access areas of the refuge typically closed to the non-hunting public. All occupants of a vehicle or hunt party must possess a refuge hunt permit and be actively engaged in hunting. We allow an exception to exist for those persons aiding a disabled person who possesses a valid State-issued Commonwealth of Virginia Disabled Resident Lifetime License or Commonwealth of Virginia Resident Disabled Veteran's Lifetime License.
5. We allow the use of portable tree stands, but stands must be removed daily.
8. We only allow shotguns loaded with buckshot during the firearm season.
1. You must obtain a refuge hunt permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356) and carry it on your person while hunting.
2. You must sign in at the hunter registration station prior to entering your hunt zone and sign out upon exiting your hunt zone. All hunters must sign out no later than 2 hours after the end of legal shooting hours.
3. You must report all harvested animals on the sign-out sheet at the hunter registration station when signing out.
4. We allow the use of portable tree stands. You must remove stands by the end of the hunt season (see § 27.93 of this chapter).
5. We prohibit dogs.
6. You must park your vehicle in designated areas.
7. We prohibit deer drives. We define a “drive” as four or more persons involved in the act of chasing, pursuing, disturbing, or otherwise directing deer so as to make the animal more susceptible to harvest.
The revisions read as follows:
3. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 1 hour before legal shooting hours and must exit the refuge no later than 1 hour after legal shooting hours end.
1. For hunting, you may possess only approved nontoxic shot shells while in the field, including shot shells used for hunting wild turkey (see § 32.2(k) of this chapter).
2. We prohibit field possession of upland game species in areas closed to upland game hunting.
3. We prohibit engaging in hunting in areas closed to upland game hunting.
1. We prohibit the construction or use of permanent blinds, platforms, or ladders.
2. You must remove all stands and personal property from the refuge following each day's hunt. We prohibit hunting from any stand left up overnight (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).
3. You must possess a refuge permit (Big/Upland Game Hunt Application, FWS Form 3-2356) to hunt in Area E (surrounding the office/visitor center).
4. You may only hunt in Area D (auto tour/hiking trail) during the State 9-day gun season and December antlerless-only hunts. The refuge will post these dates annually.
5. You may enter the refuge no earlier than 1 hour before legal shooting hours and must exit the refuge no later than 1 hour after legal shooting hours.
6. Any ground blind used during any gun deer season must display at least 144 square inches (929 square centimeters) of solid-blaze-orange material visible from all directions.
7. We prohibit the field possession of white-tailed deer in areas closed to white-tailed deer hunting.
8. We prohibit engaging in hunting in areas closed to white-tailed deer hunting.
D.
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Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice.
We are adding the Republic of Malta to the lists of regions considered to be free of swine vesicular disease (SVD), African swine fever (ASF), foot-and-mouth disease (FMD), and rinderpest, and to the list of regions considered free or low risk for classical swine fever (CSF), subject to conditions in the regulations governing the importation of certain animals and animal products into the United States. Based on our evaluation of the animal health status of Malta, which we made available to the public for review and comment through a previous notice, the Administrator has determined that Malta is free of SVD, ASF, FMD, and rinderpest, and is low risk for CSF. This action establishes the disease status of Malta with regard to SVD, ASF, FMD, rinderpest, and CSF while continuing to protect the United States from introduction of those diseases.
This change in disease status will be recognized on September 11, 2017.
Dr. Chip Wells, Senior Staff Veterinarian, Regionalization Evaluation Services,
The regulations in 9 CFR part 94 (referred to below as the regulations) govern the importation of certain animals and animal products into the United States to prevent the introduction of various animal diseases, including classical swine fever (CSF), foot-and-mouth disease (FMD), rinderpest, African swine fever (ASF), and swine vesicular disease (SVD). The regulations prohibit or restrict the importation of live ruminants and swine, and products from these animals, from regions where these diseases are considered to exist.
The regulations in 9 CFR 92.2 contain requirements for requesting the recognition of the animal health status of a region (as well as for the approval of the export of a particular type of animal or animal product to the United States from a foreign region). If, after review and evaluation of the information submitted in support of the request, the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) believes the request can be safely granted, APHIS will make its evaluation available for public comment through a document published in the
In accordance with that process, on May 13, 2016, we published in the
We also determined in our evaluation that Malta is low risk for CSF and therefore eligible to be added to the APHIS-defined European CSF region. This region is subject to the conditions in § 94.31 for pork, pork products, and swine and § 98.38 for swine semen. We also determined that the provisions of § 94.11 for import conditions for meat or meat products from ruminants or swine from FMD-free regions, and of § 94.13 for import conditions for pork or pork products from SVD-free regions, are applicable to Malta. With respect to rinderpest, the global distribution of the disease has diminished significantly. In May 2011, the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) announced its recognition of global rinderpest freedom.
We solicited comments on the notice of availability for 60 days ending on July 12, 2016, and received one comment by that date. The commenter, representing a national pork industry association, expressed concern over the risk of allowing imports into the United States of live swine, pork and pork products from Malta. The commenter stated that any incursion of FMD, CSF, ASF, or SVD into the United States resulting from such imports would precipitate an immediate and costly loss of export markets for these commodities. The comment is discussed below.
The commenter disagreed with our determination that passive disease surveillance conducted by the veterinary authority of Malta is sufficient to mitigate the risk to the United States from importations of swine, pork, and pork products.
The commenter noted that in the risk analysis, we cited Malta's “lack of capacity or intention for developing exports” to support our conclusion that passive disease surveillance would be sufficient to detect any cases of CSF, SVD, ASF, FMD, or rinderpest. In challenging our conclusion, the commenter cited two articles. One article noted Malta's efforts to improve the health and management of its pigs in order to compete with European Union (EU) pork production standards, and reported that surplus swine are exported from Malta to Sicily for finishing and producing Parma ham.
We acknowledge the commenter's concerns but do not consider the information presented in the articles to be sufficient to reconsider the findings of our risk evaluation. APHIS considers both active and passive surveillance activities when evaluating the animal health system of a region.
The commenter also expressed concern about diseases of swine in Malta that present symptoms similar to those caused by FMD, CSF, ASF, and SVD. The commenter noted that Malta vaccinates swine for Circo Virus, Pig Wasting Disease, Atrophic Rhinitis, Enzootic Pneumonia, and Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome, and that these diseases are therefore likely to be present in Malta's pig populations. For this reason, the commenter stated that FMD, SVD, CSF, and ASF should be considered as differential diagnoses whenever case-compatible lesions and other signs of disease are observed and reported in pigs. The commenter further noted that, since 2002, the Veterinary Regulation Directorate of Malta has reported no suspicious cases with such case-compatible signs. The commenter concluded that the lack of such reports suggests that passive surveillance may not be adequate for early disease detection, as producers and veterinarians in Malta are likely seeing case-compatible lesions and other signs
We acknowledge that an active surveillance program provides some benefits for early detection of these diseases but have determined that passive surveillance is sufficient to ensure early disease detection in Maltese swine, particularly in combination with other factors. For instance, Maltese regulations prohibit the movement of swine that are not considered healthy regardless of whether any specific disease has been diagnosed. Furthermore, APHIS concludes that Malta has the capacity to handle initial serology screening and has a plan to obtain confirmatory testing at EU community laboratories for diseases under evaluation.
APHIS does agree with the commenter that FMD, SVD, CSF, and ASF should be considered during passive surveillance program investigations of cases where case-compatible lesions or other signs are present. We also agree that a review of more frequent suspicious case investigations would increase confidence in the quality of Malta's passive surveillance program. However, we found no indications of failure through passive surveillance to detect FMD, SVD, CSF, and ASF.
The commenter also raised questions about our statement in the risk analysis that we “consider the conditions in Malta to be equivalent to the conditions of other EU Member States for which APHIS imposes additional special restrictions on the importation of susceptible animals and their products.” The commenter cited a version of the OIE Terrestrial Animal Health Code,
We disagree with the commenter's point that APHIS' disease surveillance requirements for Malta are inconsistent with those required of other EU Member States. The commenter has cited surveillance requirements from an outdated version of the OIE Terrestrial Animal Health Code. Chapter 15.2.2 of the current version
APHIS evaluated multiple factors regarding Malta's animal health system and determined that the country's reliance primarily on passive surveillance is adequate for Malta to detect incursions of CSF. For this reason, we determined that the likelihood is low of CSF being introduced into the United States through movement of infected animals or contaminated animal products from Malta. We consider our evaluation of Malta to be consistent with the current OIE recommendation to determine that an acceptable level of confidence be adapted to the local situation.
The commenter also raised concerns about the risk of disease transmission from the practice of feeding garbage and other waste to swine raised for export. The commenter noted that in the risk evaluation, APHIS stated that “waste feeding, specifically, feeding FMD-contaminated meat products to swine, is regarded as the most likely pathway for exposure of susceptible livestock to imported contaminated meat products.” The commenter added that APHIS affirmed this determination again in a 2001 pathways assessment.
We remain confident that the risk evaluations cited by the commenter provide an accurate account of risks to the current U.S. pork industry. If contaminated meat products were imported from Malta and managed to make it into plate waste, U.S. garbage feeding regulations are sufficient to mitigate that risk. Treatment of food waste fed to swine is covered under the Swine Health Protection Act
In the 1995 study cited by the commenter, we conducted a pathway analysis to estimate the likelihood of exposing domestic swine to infected waste. With 95 percent confidence, we estimated that 0.023 percent or less of plate and manufacturing waste would be inadequately processed prior to feeding to swine. Based on this percentage, less than 1 part in 4,300 of imported beef fed to swine as plate or manufacturing waste is likely to be inadequately cooked. Furthermore, the findings of the 2001 APHIS survey the commenter cited, which showed a substantial reduction in waste-feeding operations, indicated that the risk of FMD exposure via feeding of contaminated waste to swine was continuing to decline.
We acknowledge that waste feeding continues to be a potential pathway for transmission of swine diseases and that interstate trade patterns are subject to change. We maintain, however, that the 1995 and 2001 risk findings, combined with existing SHPA requirements, indicate to us a low likelihood of
The commenter noted that in the supporting documents provided for this notice, the environmental assessment (EA) we used to support this notice was a May 2011 EA for the importation of swine and swine commodities from Slovakia. The commenter also noted that we used an amended finding of no significant impact (FONSI) from importation of swine and swine commodities from Slovakia as the basis for the amended finding related to Malta. The commenter asked us to explain how it is justifiable to use an EA conducted for another country to amend the finding to Malta.
Since 2006, we have recognized the CSF, FMD, SVD, and rinderpest status for EU Member States Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, Slovenia, Estonia, and Hungary.
Given that the EU applies and ensures enforcement of the same disease mitigation requirements across all of its Member States, we recognized that the single-state EAs we were conducting were redundant and thus unnecessary with respect to meeting the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). After consulting with Agency specialists on NEPA compliance, we conducted an environmental impact analysis comparison of the Slovakia EA and similar proposed actions for other EU Member States. We determined that the environmental analysis of the Slovakia EA is sufficiently similar to cover the proposed action for Malta. The 2011 Slovakia EA stated that for any like or similar future regionalization actions proposed for EU Member States, APHIS would incorporate the Slovakia EA by reference in a new FONSI issued for a proposed new action for an EU Member State. That is what we have done for this action regarding Malta.
Additionally, we determined that future proposed actions of this nature pose negligible environmental impacts to each EU Member State or country that has entered into an agricultural equivalency agreement with the EU, provided that a disease assessment finds them to be free of or a low risk for relevant diseases. As Malta is an EU Member State and because we have determined that Malta is free of SVD, FMD, and rinderpest, and at low risk for CSF, we conclude that the “like or similar action” environmental analyses approach as presented in the 2011 Slovakia EA and FONSI is appropriate to use with respect to Malta.
Based on the evaluation and the reasons given in this document in response to comments, we are recognizing Malta as free of FMD, rinderpest, ASF, and SVD, and low risk for CSF. The lists of regions free of or at low risk of these diseases or where these diseases currently exist are available on the APHIS Web site at:
7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, 7781-7786, and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.
Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board (Access Board) invites comment on the proposed extension of its existing generic clearance for the collection of qualitative feedback on agency service delivery, which expires in January 2018 (OMB Control No. 3014-0011, Expiration: Jan. 31, 2018). This information collection was developed as part of a Federal Government-wide effort to streamline the process for seeking feedback from the public on service delivery. With this notice, the Access Board solicits comments on extension of its existing generic clearance, with proposed revisions to the type (and number) of information collection activities that reflect the agency's anticipated increasing use of customer feedback surveys over the next several years to garner qualitative feedback and improve service delivery in a timely and effective manner. Following review of comments received in response to this 60-day notice, the Access Board intends to submit a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to renew its generic clearance for collection of qualitative feedback for another three-year term.
Submit comments by October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments, by any of the following methods:
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Frances Spiegel, Attorney Advisor, Office of General Counsel, U.S. Access Board, 1331 F Street NW., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20004-1111. Phone: (202) 272-0041 (voice). Email:
Under the PRA and its implementing regulations (5 CFR part 1320), Federal agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor (
The Access Board initially requested OMB approval of a generic clearance for the collection of qualitative feedback on agency service delivery in 2011.
With this notice, the Access Board provides notice of its intent to seek renewal of its existing generic clearance for the collection of qualitative feedback on agency service delivery. We anticipate seeking OMB approval for revisions to the type (and number) of information collection activities relative to our existing generic clearance that expires in January 2018. In particular, the Access Board intends to seek an increase in the number of approved respondents (and burden hours) under the generic clearance, primarily because we expect to solicit feedback from customers across a broader spectrum of agency services relating to technical assistance, training, and other education and outreach initiatives. To date, we have found the feedback garnered through qualitative customer satisfaction surveys (and similar information collections) to be beneficial, by providing useful insights in experiences, perceptions, opinions, and expectations regarding Access Board services or focusing attention on areas in need of improvement. We thus intend to seek approval for expansion of our current efforts to solicit qualitative customer feedback by seeking input from customers across a broader array of agency programs and services. Online surveys will be used unless the customer contacts the agency by phone for technical assistance or an individual otherwise expresses a preference for another survey format (
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results from such quantitatively-inclined information collections are likely to have, such collections might still be eligible for submission under another type of other generic clearance.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 1:00 p.m. (Pacific Time) Tuesday, September 5, 2017. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to vote on a proposal on human trafficking in Oregon.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, September 5, 2017, at 1:00 p.m. PDT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: (888) 428-9505, conference ID number: 7368061. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Arizona Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 1:00 p.m. (Pacific Time) Thursday, September 7, 2017. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to address outstanding projects from the 2015-2017 Committee term.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, September 7, 2017, at 1:00 p.m. PDT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: (888) 737-3628, conference ID number: 8729373. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
Census Bureau, Commerce.
Notice, comment request.
The Census Bureau publishes this notice to announce a change in the expected burden for the 2018 End-to-End Census Test—Address Canvassing Operation. The Census Bureau invites public comment on the increase in burden, as described below.
The following objectives are crucial to a successful Address Canvassing operation:
• Test the listing and mapping capabilities required by In-Field Address Canvassing.
• Validate the creation of In-Field Address Canvassing workload by In-Office Address Canvassing.
• Conduct a listing quality control operation during In-Field Address Canvassing.
The results of this test will inform the Census Bureau's final preparations for the Address Canvassing Operation in advance of the 2020 Census.
The number of housing units with respondent burden in the original OMB package was calculated based on the national estimate of 25 percent of addresses in the Self-Response areas needing In-Field Address Canvassing. This estimate was based on our original approach to In-Office Address Canvassing Operation, which included two phases: Interactive Review and Active Block Resolution. In the Interactive Review phase staff make an initial assessment of the stability of the blocks under review, determining whether a block is “stable,” or undergoing minor changes or no changes at all, or “unstable,” which indicates that there are significant changes within the block. In the Active Block Resolution phase, which we are no longer pursuing for the 2020 Census, staff would have done a second, “deep dive” into the “unstable” blocks to attempt to resolve them by accurately identifying the changes taking place. The Census Bureau discontinued this second phase because we were experiencing significant issues with productivity and quality control in the Active Block Resolution phase. The result of this decision is that our estimated national workload for In-Field Address Canvassing has increased from 25 percent to 30 percent. Prior to the suspension of Active Block Resolution, some of the blocks in the three test sites were removed from In-Field Address Canvassing workload as result of this phase of the In-Office Address Canvassing operation. Therefore, in order to ensure that the operations implemented in the 2018 End-to-End Census Test are consistent with the operations we plan to execute in the 2020 Census, the Census Bureau determined it was appropriate to add the blocks originally resolved during Active Block Resolution back into the in-field workload for this test.
The original estimate of burden was calculated to be:
The new burden estimate is calculated to be:
Written comments and recommendations on this change in burden should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On July 3, 2017, the Court of International Trade (CIT or Court) sustained the Department of Commerce's (the Department) final remand results pertaining to the sixth administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain steel nails from the People's Republic of China (PRC) covering the period of August 1, 2013, through July 31, 2014. The Department is notifying the public that the final judgment in this case is not in harmony with the final results of the administrative review. Therefore, the Department is amending the final results with respect to the dumping margin assigned to SDC International Aust. PTY. Ltd. (SDC).
Applicable July 13, 2017.
Annathea Cook, AD/CVD Operations Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0250.
As part of the sixth administrative review of certain steel nails from the PRC, on August 29, 2014, Mid-Continent Nail Corporation (Mid Continent), the petitioner, requested a review of “SDC INTERNATIONAL AUSTRALIA (PTY) LTD.”
On March 8, 2016, the Department issued the
The Department requested a voluntary remand to address whether the Department improperly included permutations of SDC's company name as part of the PRC-wide entity, subjecting these name permutations to the PRC-wide entity rate. On January 20, 2017, the Court granted the Department's request for a voluntary remand to reevaluate its determination regarding permutations of SDC's name.
On July 3, 2017, the CIT sustained the Department's final remand determination, affirming the Department's determination to continue to grant a separate rate to the name SDC provided on its business license—“SDC International Aust. PTY. LTD.”—and no other names.
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court decision, the Department hereby amends the
In the event that the CIT's ruling is not appealed or, if appealed, is upheld by a final and conclusive court decision, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on
Because there is now a final court decision, we are amending the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516A(e)(1), 751(a)(1), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application for permit amendment.
Notice is hereby given that Zoological Society of San Diego [Douglas Myers, Responsible Party], P.O. Box 120551, San Diego, CA 92112, has applied for an amendment to Scientific Research Permit No. 16609.
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Shasta McClenahan or Jennifer Skidmore, (301) 427-8401.
The subject amendment to Permit No. 16609 is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361
Permit No. 16609, issued on April 27, 2017 (82 FR 29053), authorizes the receipt, import, and export of biological samples to establish and bank cell lines from any species of cetacean, pinniped, or sea turtle, including ESA-listed species, from up to 30 individuals of each species. The permit holder is requesting to amend the authorization to increase the annual number of samples to 60 individuals of each species, for receipt, import, and export to fulfill a new research objective to perform contaminant analysis.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed incidental harassment authorization (IHA); request for comments.
NMFS has received a request from Washington State Department of Transportation (WSDOT) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to US 101/Chehalis River Bridge-Scour Repair in Washington State. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue an IHA to incidentally take marine mammals during the specified activities.
Comments and information must be received no later than September 11, 2017.
Comments should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service. Physical comments should be sent to 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 and electronic comments should be sent to
Shane Guan, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the applications and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at:
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Issuance of an MMPA 101(a)(5)(D) authorization requires compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act.
NMFS preliminary determined the issuance of the proposed IHA is consistent with categories of activities identified in CE B4 (issuance of incidental harassment authorizations under section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA for which no serious injury or mortality is anticipated) of the Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A and we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances listed in Chapter 4 of the Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A that would preclude this categorical exclusion.
We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice prior to making a final decision as to whether application of this CE is appropriate in this circumstance.
NMFS received a request from WSDOT for an IHA to take marine mammals incidental to US 101/Chehalis River Bridge-Scour Repair in the State of Washington. WSDOT's request was for harassment only and NMFS concurs that serious injury or mortality is not expected to result from this activity. Therefore, an IHA is appropriate.
In November 2016, WSDOT submitted a request to NMFS requesting an IHA for the possible harassment of small numbers of marine mammal species incidental to US 101/Chehalis River Bridge-Scour Repair in Washington State, between July 16 to September 30, 2018. WSDOT subsequently updated its project scope and submitted a revised IHA application on July 5, 2017. NMFS determined the IHA application was complete on July 14, 2017. NMFS is proposing to authorize the take by Level B harassment of the following marine mammal species: Harbor seal (
WSDOT is proposing to repair an area of scour associated with Pier 14 of the US 101 Chehalis River Bridge (Figures 1-3 and 1-4 in the IHA application). The bridge foundation at Pier 14 is “scour critical” due to the bridge foundation being unstable for calculated scour depths. The southwest quadrant of Pier 14 is undermined by scour void as much as 8 feet deep, and some of the untreated timber pilings have been directly exposed to river/estuary water since 2008. Marine borers may weaken enough pilings to require more extensive pier repair if this project is not built in the near future. In addition, the footing and seal are exposed at the other three quadrants of Pier 14.
The purpose of the US 101/Chehalis River Bridge Project is to make the bridge foundation stable for calculated scour depths, protect the foundation from further scour by removing debris, filling the scour void under Pier 14 with cementitious material (to protect the pilings from marine borers), and filling the scour hole and protecting the pier with scour resistant material.
Due to NMFS and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) in-water work timing restrictions to protect ESA-listed salmonids, planned WSDOT in-water construction is limited each year to July 16 through February 15. For this project, in-water construction is planned to take place between July 16 to September 30, 2018. The total worst-case time for pile installation and removal is 50 hours over 12 days (Table 1).
The US 101 Chehalis River Bridge is located in the City of Aberdeen, Grays Harbor County, Washington (Figure 1-1 in the IHA application). The bridge is located in Township 17 North, Range 9 West, Section 9, where the Chehalis River enters Grays Harbor. Land use in the Aberdeen area is a mix of residential, commercial, industrial, and open space and/or undeveloped lands (Figure 1-2 in the IHA application).
The proposed project includes vibratory hammer driving and removal creating elevated in-water and in-air noise that may impact marine mammals.
Vibratory hammers are commonly used in steel pile driving where sediments allow and involve the same vibratory hammer used in pile removal. The pile is placed into position using a choker and crane, and then vibrated between 1,200 and 2,400 vibrations per minute. The vibrations liquefy the sediment surrounding the pile allowing it to penetrate to the required seating depth, or to be removed.
Details of pile driving activities are provided below and are summarized in Table 1.
Vibratory driving of six steel H piles. This will take approximately 30 minutes per pile, with all 6 piles installed in one day.
• Vibratory driving of 44 sheet piles. This will take approximately 30 minutes per pile, with 10 piles installed per day over 5 days.
• Vibratory removal of 6 steel H piles. This will take approximately 30 minutes per pile, with all 6 piles removed in one day.
• Vibratory removal of 44 sheet piles. This will take approximately 30 minute per pile, with 10 piles removed per day over 5 days.
Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see “Proposed Mitigation” and “Proposed Monitoring and Reporting”).
We have reviewed the applicants' species information—which summarizes available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, behavior and life history, and auditory capabilities of the potentially affected species—for accuracy and completeness and refer the reader to Sections 3 and 4 of the applications, as well as to NMFS's Stock Assessment Reports (SAR;
Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study area. NMFS's stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock.
Five species (with five managed stocks) are considered to have the potential to co-occur with the proposed construction activities. All values presented in Table 2 are the most recent available at the time of publication and are available in the 2015 SARs (Carretta
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section later in this document will include a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The “Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination” section will consider the content of this section, the “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section, and the “Proposed Mitigation” section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
Potential impacts to marine mammals from the proposed US 101/Chehalis Bridge repair project are from noise generated during in-water pile driving and pile removal activities.
Here, we first provide background information on marine mammal hearing before discussing the potential effects of the use of active acoustic sources on marine mammals.
Marine Mammal Hearing—Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
• Low-frequency cetaceans (mysticetes): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 Hertz (Hz) and 35 kilohertz (kHz), with best hearing estimated to be from 100 Hz to 8 kHz;
• Mid-frequency cetaceans (larger toothed whales, beaked whales, and most delphinids): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz, with best hearing from 10 to less than 100 kHz;
• High-frequency cetaceans (porpoises, river dolphins, and members of the genera Kogia and Cephalorhynchus; including two members of the genus Lagenorhynchus, on the basis of recent echolocation data and genetic data): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 275 Hz and 160 kHz.
• Pinnipeds in water; Phocidae (true seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 50 Hz to 86 kHz, with best hearing between 1-50 kHz;
• Pinnipeds in water; Otariidae (eared seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between 60 Hz and 39 kHz, with best hearing between 2-48 kHz.
The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall
For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2016) for a review of available information. Nine marine mammal species (2 cetacean and 3 pinniped (2 otariid and 1 phocid) species) have the reasonable potential to co-occur with the proposed survey activities. Please refer to Table 2. Of the cetacean species that may be present, one species is classified as low-frequency cetaceans (
The WSDOT's US 101 Chehalis River Bridge Project using in-water pile driving and pile removal could adversely affect marine mammal species and stocks by exposing them to elevated noise levels in the vicinity of the activity area.
Exposure to high intensity sound for a sufficient duration may result in auditory effects such as a noise-induced threshold shift (TS)—an increase in the auditory threshold after exposure to noise (Finneran
For marine mammals, published data are limited to the captive bottlenose dolphin, beluga, harbor porpoise, and Yangtze finless porpoise (Finneran
Lucke
Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
In addition, chronic exposure to excessive, though not high-intensity, noise could cause masking at particular frequencies for marine mammals, which utilize sound for vital biological functions (Clark
Masking occurs at the frequency band that the animals utilize. Therefore, since noise generated from vibratory pile driving is mostly concentrated at low frequency ranges, it may have less effect on high frequency echolocation sounds by odontocetes (toothed whales). However, lower frequency man-made noises are more likely to affect detection of communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as surf and prey noise. It may also affect communication signals when they occur near the noise band and thus reduce the communication space of animals (
Unlike TS, masking, which can occur over large temporal and spatial scales, can potentially affect the species at population, community, or even ecosystem levels, as well as individual levels. Masking affects both senders and receivers of the signals and could have long-term chronic effects on marine mammal species and populations. Recent science suggests that low frequency ambient sound levels have increased by as much as 20 dB (more than three times in terms of sound pressure level) in the world's ocean from pre-industrial periods, and most of these increases are from distant shipping (Hildebrand, 2009). For WSDOT's Chehalis Bridge repair activities, noises from vibratory pile driving and pile removal contribute to the elevated ambient noise levels in the project area, thus increasing potential for or severity of masking. Baseline ambient noise levels in the vicinity of project area are high due to ongoing
Finally, marine mammals' exposure to certain sounds could lead to behavioral disturbance (Richardson
The onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise depends on both external factors (characteristics of noise sources and their paths) and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography) and is also difficult to predict (Southall
The biological significance of many of these behavioral disturbances is difficult to predict, especially if the detected disturbances appear minor. However, the consequences of behavioral modification could be biologically significant if the change affects growth, survival, and/or reproduction, which depends on the severity, duration, and context of the effects.
The primary potential impacts to marine mammal habitat are associated with elevated sound levels produced by vibratory pile removal and pile driving in the area. However, other potential impacts to the surrounding habitat from physical disturbance are also possible.
With regard to fish as a prey source for cetaceans and pinnipeds, fish are known to hear and react to sounds and to use sound to communicate (Tavolga
The level of sound at which a fish will react or alter its behavior is usually well above the detection level. Fish have been found to react to sounds when the sound level increased to about 20 dB above the detection level of 120 dB (Ona, 1988); however, the response threshold can depend on the time of year and the fish's physiological condition (Engas
During the coastal construction only a small fraction of the available habitat would be ensonified at any given time. Disturbance to fish species would be short-term and fish would return to their pre-disturbance behavior once the pile driving activity ceases. Thus, the proposed construction would have little, if any, impact on marine mammals' prey availability in the area where construction work is planned.
Finally, the time of the proposed construction activity would avoid the spawning season of the ESA-listed salmonid species.
This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes authorized through this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of whether the number of takes is “small” and the negligible impact determination.
Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Authorized takes would be by Level B harassment only, in the form of disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals resulting from exposure to noise generated from vibratory pile driving and removal. Based on the nature of the activity and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures (
As described previously, no mortality is anticipated or authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the take is estimated.
Described in the most basic way, we estimate take by considering: (1) Acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals will be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of permanent hearing impairment; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) and the number of days of activities. Below, we describe these components in more detail and present the take estimate.
Using the best available science, NMFS has developed acoustic thresholds that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur PTS of some degree (equated to Level A harassment).
Level B Harassment for non-explosive sources—Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source (
Applicant's proposed activity includes the use of continuous (vibratory pile driving and removal)
Level A harassment for non-explosive sources—NMFS' Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Technical Guidance, 2016) identifies dual criteria to assess auditory injury (Level A harassment) to five different marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). Applicant's proposed activity includes the use non-impulsive (vibratory pile driving and pile removal) source.
These thresholds were developed by compiling and synthesizing the best available science and soliciting input multiple times from both the public and peer reviewers to inform the final product, and are provided in the table below. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the thresholds are described in NMFS 2016 Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at:
Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that will feed into identifying the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds.
The project includes vibratory pile driving and removal of steel H piles and sheet piles. The dimension of the H piles is unknown, but not is expected to be more than 12 inches (in).
Source levels for the steel H pile vibratory driving are based on in-water measurements reported by CALTRANS (2015) of 12-in steel H pile, which are 150 dB
A summary of source levels from different pile driving and pile removal activities is provided in Table 4.
These source levels are used to compute the Level A injury zones and to estimate the Level B harassment zones. For Level A harassment zones, since the peak source levels for both pile driving are below the injury thresholds, cumulative SEL were used to do the calculations using the NMFS acoustic guidance (NMFS 2016).
When NMFS Technical Guidance (2016) was published, in recognition of the fact that ensonified area/volume could be more technically challenging to predict because of the duration component in the new thresholds, we developed a User Spreadsheet that includes tools to help predict a simple isopleth that can be used in conjunction with marine mammal density or occurrence to help predict takes. We note that because of some of the assumptions included in the methods used for these tools, we anticipate that isopleths produced are typically going to be overestimates of some degree, which will result in some degree of overestimate of Level A take. However, these tools offer the best way to predict
For cumulative SEL (
Isopleths to Level B behavioral zones are based on rms SPL (SPL
A summary of the measured and modeled harassment zones is provided in Table 5.
In this section we provide the information about the presence, density, or group dynamics of marine mammals that will inform the take calculations.
In most cases, marine mammal density data are from the U.S. Navy Marine Species Density Database (U.S. Navy 2015). Harbor seal density is based on a counts of harbor seals at 44 low-tide haul outs in Grays Harbor by Jeffries,
The Navy Marine Species Density Database (U.S. Navy 2015) estimates the density of California sea lions in the waters offshore of Grays Harbor as 0.033 animals/km
The Navy Marine Species Density Database (U.S. Navy 2015) estimates the density of Steller sea lions in the waters offshore of Grays Harbor as 0.0145 animals/km
The Navy Marine Species Density Database (U.S. Navy 2015) estimates the density of harbor porpoises in the waters offshore of Grays Harbor as a range between 0.69 and 1.67 animals per square kilometer. According to Evenson,
According to counts conducted by Calambokidis
Here we describe how the information provided above is brought together to produce a quantitative take estimate. For all marine mammal species except gray whale, estimated takes are calculated based on ensonified area for a specific pile driving activity multiplied by the marine mammal density in the action area, multiplied by the number of pile driving (or removal) days. Distances to and areas of different harassment zones are listed in Tables 5 and 6. Total days for sheet pile driving and removal are five days each, and the total day for steel H pile driving and removal is one day each.
The results predicted that a total of 666 harbor seals, 1 California sea lion, 0 Steller sea lion, and 38 harbor porpoise could be exposure to received levels that would cause Level B harassment. However, owing to the prior observations that California sea lion and Steller sea lion's presence in the project area, we adjusted the take number of these species to 10.
For gray whales, the Level B takes were estimate based on an average sighting of 2.25 whales in Grays Harbor/south Washington Coast during the months of July through September (Calambokidis
Due to the extreme small injury zones (maximum zone is 0.009 km
In order to issue an IHA under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully consider two primary factors:
(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned) the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned) and;
(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
Work would occur only during daylight hours, when visual monitoring of marine mammals can be conducted. In addition, all in-water construction will be limited to the period between July 16, 2018, and September 30, 2018.
Before the commencement of in-water construction activities, which include vibratory pile driving and pile removal, WSDOT shall establish Level A harassment zones where received underwater SEL
WSDOT shall also establish Level B harassment zones where received underwater SPLs are higher than 120 dB
WSDOT shall establish exclusion zones within which marine mammals could be taken by Level A harassment. For Level A harassment zones that is less than 10 m from the source, a minimum of 10 m distance should be established as an exclusion zone.
A summary of exclusion zones is provided in Table 8.
NMFS-approved protected species observers (PSO) shall conduct an initial survey of the exclusion zones to ensure that no marine mammals are seen within the zones before pile driving and pile removal of a pile segment begins. If marine mammals are found within the exclusion zone, pile driving of the segment would be delayed until they move out of the area. If a marine mammal is seen above water and then dives below, the contractor would wait 30 minutes. If no marine mammals are seen by the observer in that time it can be assumed that the animal has moved beyond the exclusion zone.
If pile driving of a segment ceases for 30 minutes or more and a marine mammal is sighted within the designated exclusion zone prior to commencement of pile driving, the observer(s) must notify the pile driving operator (or other authorized individual) immediately and continue to monitor the exclusion zone. Operations may not resume until the marine mammal has exited the exclusion zone or 30 minutes have elapsed since the last sighting.
WSDOT shall implement shutdown measures if a marine mammal is detected within an exclusion zone or is about to enter an exclusion zone listed in Table 8.
Further, WSDOT shall implement shutdown measures if the number of authorized takes for any particular species reaches the limit under the IHA (if issued) and if such marine mammals
Based on our evaluation of the required measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the prescribed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
In order to issue an IHA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth, “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.
Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;
• Effects on marine mammal habitat (
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
WSDOT shall employ NMFS-approved PSOs to conduct marine mammal monitoring for its US 101/Chehalis Bridge Repair Project. The purposes of marine mammal monitoring are to implement mitigation measures and learn more about impacts to marine mammals from WSDOT's construction activities. The PSOs will observe and collect data on marine mammals in and around the project area for 30 minutes before, during, and for 30 minutes after all pile removal and pile installation work. NMFS-approved PSOs shall meet the following requirements:
1. Independent observers (
2. At least one observer must have prior experience working as an observer;
3. Other observers may substitute education (undergraduate degree in biological science or related field) or training for experience;
4. Where a team of three or more observers are required, one observer should be designated as lead observer or monitoring coordinator. The lead observer must have prior experience working as an observer; and
5. NMFS will require submission and approval of observer CVs;
Monitoring of marine mammals around the construction site shall be conducted using high-quality binoculars (
• For vibratory pile driving and pile removal of sheet piles, a total of four land-based PSOs will monitor the exclusion zones and Level B harassment zone.
• For vibratory pile driving and pile removal of H piles, a total of three land-based PSOs will monitor the exclusion zones and Level B harassment zone.
Locations of the land-based PSOs and routes of monitoring vessels are shown in WSDOT's Marine Mammal Monitoring Plan, which is available online at
To verify the required monitoring distance, the exclusion zones and ZOIs will be determined by using a range finder or hand-held global positioning system device.
WSDOT is required to submit a draft monitoring report within 90 days after completion of the construction work or the expiration of the IHA (if issued), whichever comes earlier. This report would detail the monitoring protocol, summarize the data recorded during monitoring, and estimate the number of marine mammals that may have been harassed. NMFS would have an opportunity to provide comments on the report, and if NMFS has comments, WSDOT would address the comments and submit a final report to NMFS within 30 days.
In addition, NMFS would require WSDOT to notify NMFS' Office of Protected Resources and NMFS' West Coast Stranding Coordinator within 48 hours of sighting an injured or dead marine mammal in the construction site. WSDOT shall provide NMFS and the Stranding Network with the species or description of the animal(s), the condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition, if the animal is dead), location, time of first discovery, observed behaviors (if alive), and photo or video (if available).
In the event that WSDOT finds an injured or dead marine mammal that is not in the construction area, WSDOT would report the same information as listed above to NMFS as soon as operationally feasible.
NMFS has defined negligible impact as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival” (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, this introductory discussion of our analyses applies to all the species listed in Table 7, given that the anticipated effects of WSDOT's Chehalis Bridge repair project activities involving pile driving and pile removal on marine mammals are expected to be relatively similar in nature. There is no information about the nature or severity of the impacts, or the size, status, or structure of any species or stock that would lead to a different analysis by species for this activity, or else species-specific factors would be identified and analyzed.
For all marine mammal species, takes that are anticipated and authorized are expected to be limited to short-term Level B harassment (behavioral) because of the small scale (only a total of 100 piles to be installed and removed), lower source levels (small piles by vibratory pile driving and pile removal), and short durations (maximum five hours pile driving or pile removal per day). Marine mammals present in the vicinity of the action area and taken by Level B harassment would most likely show overt brief disturbance (startle reaction) and avoidance of the area from elevated noise levels during pile driving and pile removal. For these reasons, these behavioral impacts are not expected to affect marine mammals' growth, survival, and reproduction, especially considering the limited geographic area that would be affected in comparison to the much larger habitat for marine mammals in the Pacific Northwest.
The project also is not expected to have significant adverse effects on affected marine mammals' habitat, as analyzed in detail in the “Anticipated Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat” section. There is no ESA designated critical area in the vicinity of the Chehalis Bridge Project area. The project activities would not permanently modify existing marine mammal habitat. The activities may kill some fish and cause other fish to leave the area temporarily, thus impacting marine mammals' foraging opportunities in a limited portion of the foraging range; but, because of the short duration of the activities and the relatively small area of the habitat that may be affected, the impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term negative consequences. Therefore, given the consideration of potential impacts to marine mammal prey species and their physical environment, WSDOT's proposed construction activity at Chehalis Bridge would not adversely affect marine mammal habitat.
In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
• No injury, series injury, or mortality is anticipated or authorized;
• All harassment is Level B harassment in the form of short-term behavioral modification; and
• No areas of specific importance to affected species are impacted.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the prescribed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.
As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals.
The estimated takes are below seven percent of the population for all marine mammals except harbor porpoise (Table 7).
Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the prescribed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
No incidental take of ESA-listed species is proposed for authorization or expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.
As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to issue an IHA to WSDOT for conducting US 101/Chehalis Bridge Repair Project between July 1, 2018, and June 30, 2019, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. This section contains a draft of the IHA itself. The wording contained in this section is proposed for inclusion in the IHA (if issued).
1. This Authorization is valid from July 1, 2018, through June 30, 2019.
2. This Authorization is valid only for activities associated with in-water construction work at the US 101/Chehalis Bridge Repair Project in the State of Washington.
3. (a) The species authorized taking by Level B harassment and in the numbers shown in Table 7 are: Pacific harbor seal (
(b) The authorization for taking by harassment is limited to the following acoustic sources and from the following activities:
• Vibratory pile driving; and
• Vibratory pile removal.
4. Prohibitions.
(a) The taking, by incidental harassment only, is limited to the species listed under condition 3(a) above and by the numbers listed in Table 7 of this notice. The taking by injury, series injury, or death of these species or the taking by harassment, injury or death of any other species of marine mammal is prohibited unless separately authorized or exempted under the MMPA and may result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of this Authorization.
(b) The taking of any marine mammal is prohibited whenever the required protected species observers (PSOs), required by condition 7(a), are not present in conformance with condition 7(a) of this Authorization.
5. Mitigation.
(a)
(b) Establishment of Level A and Level B Harassment Zones.
(A) Before the commencement of in-water pile driving/removal activities, WSDOT shall establish Level A harassment zones. The modeled Level A zones are summarized in Table 5.
(B) Before the commencement of in-water pile driving/removal activities, WSDOT shall establish Level B harassment zones. The modeled Level B zones are summarized in Table 5.
(C) Before the commencement of in-water pile driving/removal activities, WSDOT shall establish exclusion zones. The proposed exclusion zones are summarized in Table 8.
(c) Monitoring of marine mammals shall take place starting 30 minutes before pile driving begins until 30 minutes after pile driving ends.
(d) Shutdown Measures.
(i) WSDOT shall implement shutdown measures if a marine mammal is detected within or to be approaching the exclusion zones provided in Table 8 of this notice.
(ii) WSDOT shall implement shutdown measures if the number of any allotted marine mammal takes reaches the limit under the IHA, if such marine mammals are sighted within the vicinity of the project area and are approaching the Level B harassment zone during pile removal activities.
6. Monitoring.
(a) Protected Species Observers.
WSDOT shall employ NMFS-approved PSOs to conduct marine mammal monitoring for its construction project. NMFS-approved PSOs will meet the following qualifications.
(i) Independent observers (
(ii) At least one observer must have prior experience working as an observer.
(iii) Other observers may substitute education (undergraduate degree in biological science or related field) or training for experience.
(iv) Where a team of three or more observers are required, one observer should be designated as lead observer or monitoring coordinator. The lead observer must have prior experience working as an observer.
(v) NMFS will require submission and approval of observer CVs.
(b) Monitoring Protocols: PSOs shall be present on site at all times during pile removal and driving.
(i) A 30-minute pre-construction marine mammal monitoring will be required before the first pile driving or pile removal of the day. A 30-minute post-construction marine mammal monitoring will be required after the last pile driving or pile removal of the day. If the constructors take a break between subsequent pile driving or pile removal for more than 30 minutes, then additional 30-minute pre-construction marine mammal monitoring will be required before the next start-up of pile driving or pile removal.
(iii) Marine mammal visual monitoring will be conducted for different ZOIs based on different sizes of piles being driven or removed, as shown in maps in WSDOT's Marine Mammal Monitoring Plan.
(A) For vibratory pile driving and pile removal of sheet piles, a total of four land-based PSOs will monitor the exclusion zones and Level B harassment zone.
(B) For vibratory pile driving and pile removal of H piles, a total of three land-based PSOs will monitor the exclusion zones and Level B harassment zone.
(iv) If marine mammals are observed, the following information will be documented:
(A) Species of observed marine mammals;
(B) Number of observed marine mammal individuals;
(C) Behavior of observed marine mammals;(D) Location within the ZOI; and
7. Reporting:
(a) WSDOT shall provide NMFS with a draft monitoring report within 90 days of the conclusion of the construction work or within 90 days of the expiration of the IHA, whichever comes first. This report shall detail the monitoring protocol, summarize the data recorded during monitoring, and estimate the number of marine mammals that may have been harassed.
(b) If comments are received from NMFS Office of Protected Resources on the draft report, a final report shall be submitted to NMFS within 30 days thereafter. If no comments are received from NMFS, the draft report will be considered to be the final report.
(c) In the unanticipated event that the construction activities clearly cause the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this Authorization (if issued), such as an injury, serious injury, or mortality, WSDOT shall immediately cease all operations and immediately report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, and the West Coast Regional Stranding Coordinators. The report must include the following information:
(i) Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the incident;
(ii) description of the incident;
(iii) status of all sound source use in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
(iv) environmental conditions (
(v) description of marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
(vi) species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
(vii) the fate of the animal(s); and
(viii) photographs or video footage of the animal (if equipment is available).
Activities shall not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS shall work with WSDOT to determine what is necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. WSDOT may not resume their activities until notified by NMFS via letter, email, or telephone.
(E) In the event that WSDOT discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead PSO determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
(F) In the event that WSDOT discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead PSO determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in the IHA (
8. This Authorization may be modified, suspended or withdrawn if the holder fails to abide by the conditions prescribed herein or if NMFS determines the authorized taking is having more than a negligible impact on the species or stock of affected marine mammals.
9. A copy of this Authorization must be in the possession of each contractor who performs the construction work at the US 101/Chehalis Bridge Repair Project.
We request comment on our analyses, the draft authorization, and any other aspect of this Notice of Proposed IHA for the WSDOT's US 101/Chehalis Bridge Repair Project. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform our final decision on the request for MMPA authorization.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a joint public meeting of its Whiting Committee and Advisory Panel on August 29, 2017 to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Tuesday, August 29, 2017 at 9 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Radisson Airport Hotel, 2081 Post Road, Warwick, RI 02886; telephone: (401) 739-3000.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Committee and Advisory Panel will receive an annual monitoring report and recommended 2018-20 specifications from the Plan Development Team (PDT). The report includes a summary of 2016 landings and estimated discards, as well as assessment updates for northern and southern stocks of red and silver hake. They will also receive a summary of impact analyses and recommendations for preferred alternatives in Draft Amendment 22 from the PDT. The committee and advisors will discuss and identify management priorities for 2018 as well as discuss and identify small-mesh multispecies fishery regulations that could be consolidated or eliminated to improve regulatory efficiency. The committee and advisors may identify a process and timeline for this work. Other business will be discussed as necessary.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. This meeting will be recorded. Consistent with U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting (webinar).
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Salmon Technical Team (STT) and Model Evaluation Workgroup (MEW) will hold a joint meeting via webinar to discuss and make recommendations on issues on the Council's September 2017 agenda. The meeting is open to the public.
The webinar meeting will be held on Thursday, August 24, 2017, from 10 a.m. until business for the day has been completed.
The meeting will be held via webinar. To attend the webinar (1) join the meeting by visiting this link
Ms. Robin Ehlke, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2410.
The STT and MEW will discuss items on the Pacific Council's September 2017 meeting agenda. Major topics include, but are not limited to, Salmon Methodology Review and the Sacramento River Winter Chinook Harvest Control Rule Update. The STT and MEW may also address one or more of the Council's scheduled Administrative Matters. Public comments during the webinar will be received from attendees at the discretion of the STT and MEW Chairs.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt (503) 820-2411 at least 10 business days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of SEDAR 50 Review Workshop for South Atlantic
The SEDAR 50 assessment of the Atlantic stock of
The SEDAR 50 Review Workshop will be held on August 29-30, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. until 6 p.m.; and August 31, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. until 1 p.m. The established times may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the assessment process. Such adjustments may result in the meeting being extended from, or completed prior to the time established by this notice.
Julia Byrd, SEDAR Coordinator, 4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405; phone: (843) 571-4366; email:
The Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions, have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a three-step process including: (1) Data Workshop; (2) Assessment Process utilizing a workshop and webinars; and (3) Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a data report which compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment Process is a stock assessment report which describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The assessment is independently peer reviewed at the Review Workshop. The product of the Review Workshop is a Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include: Data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations (NGOs); international experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and federal agencies.
The items of discussion in the Review Workshop are as follows:
Independent peer review of the assessment developed during the Data Workshop and Assessment Process. Panelists will review the assessment and document their comments and recommendations in a Summary Report.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the SAFMC office (see
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's (Council) Spiny Dogfish Advisory Panel (AP) will meet to review recent fishery performance and develop a Fishery Performance Report and/or other recommendations in preparation for the Council's review of specifications at the October 2017 Council meeting.
The meeting will be held Thursday, August 24, 2017, from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m.
The meeting will be held via webinar, but anyone can also attend at the Council office address (see below). The webinar link is:
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D. Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council; telephone: (302) 526-5255. The Council's Web site,
The purpose of the meeting is to create a Fishery Performance Report by the Council's Spiny Dogfish Advisory Panel. The intent of the report is to facilitate structured input from the Advisory Panel members into the specifications process. Spiny dogfish specifications were previously set for the 2016-2018 fishing years, but the Council and its Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) review the performance of multi-year specifications each year.
Although other non-emergency issues not on the agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Actions will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under Section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meetings.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) and the SSC's Groundfish Subcommittee will convene two meetings, which are open to the public. The SSC meetings will also be streamed online for those who want to follow the proceedings remotely.
The SSC meeting will be held Monday, August 28, 2017 from 8 a.m. until 5:30 p.m. (Pacific Standard Time) or when business for the day has been completed. The SSC's Groundfish Subcommittee will meet on Tuesday, August 29, 2017 from 8 a.m. until 1 p.m. or when business for the day has been completed.
The SSC and the SSC's Groundfish Subcommittee meetings will be held in the Traynor Room at the National Marine Fisheries Service Western Regional Center's Sand Point facility, Alaska Fisheries Science Center, 7600 Sand Point Way NE., Building 4, Seattle, WA 98115; telephone: (206) 526-4000. Members of the SSC's Groundfish Subcommittee will be attending the meeting in person at the NMFS Alaska Fisheries Science Center and the rest of the SSC are invited to attend both meetings via webinar.
To attend via webinar, (1) join the meeting by visiting this link
Mr. John DeVore, Staff Officer, Pacific Fishery Management Council; telephone: (503) 820-2280.
The purpose of the August 28th SSC meeting is to review draft 2017 stock assessment documents, stock assessment review (STAR) panel reports, and any other pertinent information for new benchmark stock assessments for lingcod, Pacific ocean perch, yelloweye rockfish, yellowtail rockfish, blue rockfish, deacon rockfish, and California scorpionfish; review catch-only updates of 2015 assessments for canary and chilipepper rockfish; and consider endorsing these assessments for use by the Pacific Council family and other interested persons for developing management recommendations for fisheries in 2019 and beyond. Additionally, the SSC will consider endorsing new 2019 and 2020 overfishing limits and stock categories for groundfish stocks.
The purpose of the August 29 SSC Groundfish Subcommittee meeting is to review new proposed analyses informing sigmas (
Although nonemergency issues not contained in the meeting agendas may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under Section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent of the SSC to take final action to address the emergency.
All visitors to the National Marine Fisheries Service Western Regional Center's Sand Point facility should bring one of the following forms of identification:
Visitors who are foreign nationals (defined as a person who is not a citizen or national of the United States) will require additional security clearance to access the NMFS Northwest Fisheries Science Center. Foreign national visitors should contact Dr. Martin Dorn at (206) 526-6548 at least two weeks prior to the meeting date to initiate the security clearance process.
PC-based attendees: Windows® 7, Vista, or XP operating system required. Mac®-based attendees: Mac OS® X 10.5 or newer required. Mobile attendees: iPhone®, iPad®, Android
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt (503) 820-2280 at least 10 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice announcing the preparation of an environmental assessment (EA).
The NMFS Southeast Region, in collaboration with the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council), is preparing an EA in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) for Amendment 43 to the Fishery Management Plan (FMP) for the Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic Region (Amendment 43). This notice is intended to inform the public of the change from the preparation of a draft environmental impact statement (EIS) to an EA for Amendment 43. Additionally, this notice serves to announce the change of the scope of actions being considered in Amendment 43 by the Council. The purpose of Amendment 43 is to revise annual catch limits (ACLs) for red snapper in the South Atlantic to provide fishing access while preventing overfishing.
Frank Helies, NMFS Southeast Regional Office, telephone: 727-824-5305; or email:
According to the most recent stock assessment, the red snapper stock in the South Atlantic is undergoing overfishing and is overfished (2016 Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review (SEDAR) 41). Currently, the commercial and recreational ACLs are set at zero and red snapper seasons are determined through an annual process established in Amendment 28 to the FMP (78 FR 44461, July 24, 2013). Red snapper removals (total landings and dead discards) in the 2014, 2015, and 2016 fishing years exceeded the stock's acceptable biological catch and therefore harvest and possession of red snapper was not allowed in the 2015, 2016, or 2017 fishing years. Despite the overfishing determination resulting from SEDAR 41, NMFS notified the Council in March 2017, that adequate management action has been taken to address overfishing and continue to rebuild the stock through the harvest prohibition in 2015 and 2016.
On January 6, 2017, NMFS published a notice of intent (NOI) in the
In June 2017, the Council decided to reduce the scope of actions considered in Amendment 43. The amendment now would only modify the process implemented through Amendment 28 by revising the process to determine the commercial and recreational ACLs for red snapper. The Council may consider the other actions specified in the NOI in a future amendment. The scope of Amendment 43 was reconsidered by the Council to increase the likelihood that the revised ACL action in the amendment would be implemented by the red snapper commercial and recreational season starting dates in July 2018.
Consequently, NMFS reassessed the action in the amendment relative to NEPA. Based on the reduced scope of actions being considered in Amendment 43, NMFS, in collaboration with the Council, will develop an EA rather than proceeding with the development of a draft EIS. If the EA results in a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI), the EA and FONSI will be the final environmental documents prepared to inform this decision. If the EA reveals that significant environmental impacts may be reasonably expected to result from the proposed actions, NMFS and the Council will develop a draft EIS to further evaluate those impacts. The Council will hold public hearings to discuss the actions included in Amendment 43 in webinars in August 2017, and will take public comment on the document at the September 2017, Council meeting in Charleston, SC. Exact dates, times, and locations of any future public hearings will be announced by the Council. A copy of the Amendment 43 draft options paper is available at:
NMFS will announce, through a document published in the
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting (webinar).
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Habitat Committee (HC) will hold a meeting via webinar that is open to the public.
The webinar will begin Wednesday, August 23, 2017 at 10 a.m. and end by 1 p.m. on the same day.
The meeting will be held via webinar. To attend the webinar, (1) join the meeting by visiting this link
Ms. Jennifer Gilden, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2418.
The primary purpose of the HC meeting is to develop a report for the Pacific Council pertaining to Oroville Dam relicensing, including preliminary fish weir plans, thermal controls, and timing of the relicensing process. The HC's report will be conveyed for consideration by the Pacific Council at its September 11-18, 2017 meeting in Boise, ID. Public comments during the webinar will be accepted at the discretion of the chair of the HC.
Although nonemergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt at (503) 820-2411 at least 10 business days prior to the meeting date.
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition Technology and Logistics, Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Strategic Environmental Research and Development Program Scientific Advisory Board will take place.
Open to the public Tuesday, September 12, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 4:25 p.m.
The address of the open meeting is the Potomac Institute for Policy Studies, 901 North Stuart Street, Suite 200, Arlington, VA 22203.
Herb Nelson, 571-372-6400 (Voice),
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
This notice is published in accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463).
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition Technology and Logistics, Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Strategic Environmental Research and Development Program Scientific Advisory Board will take place.
Day 1—Open to the public Wednesday, September 13, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 4:50 p.m.
Day 2—Open to the public Thursday, September 14, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 3:40 p.m.
The address of the open meeting is the Potomac Institute for Policy Studies, 901 North Stuart Street, Suite 200, Arlington, VA 22203.
Herb Nelson, 571-372-6400 (Voice),
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
This notice is published in accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463).
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of amended application.
Nogales Transmission, L.L.C. (Nogales Transmission, or the Applicant) has submitted two amendments to its application for a Presidential permit to construct, operate, maintain, and connect an electric transmission line across the United States border with Mexico.
Comments or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before September 11, 2017.
Comments or motions to intervene should be addressed as follows: Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability (OE-20), U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
Christopher Lawrence (Program Office) at 202-586-5260 or via electronic mail at
The construction, operation, maintenance, and connection of facilities at the international border of the United States for the transmission of electric energy between the United States and a foreign country requires a Presidential permit issued pursuant to Executive Order (E.O.) 10485, as amended by E.O. 12038.
On April 8, 2016, Nogales Transmission filed an application with the Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability of the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) for a Presidential permit for the proposed Nogales Interconnection Project (the Project). Nogales Transmission has its principal place of business in Dallas, Texas. It is a subsidiary of Hunt Power, L.P., a Delaware limited partnership, which in turn is a subsidiary of Hunt Consolidated, Inc.
On May 19, 2016, DOE published a Notice of Application in the
A 300 MW bi-directional back-to-back high-voltage direct current (HVDC) converter (
In the initial application, the U.S. portion of the proposed Project would cross the U.S.-Mexico border at 31°19′57.844″ N., 110°58′35.908″ W., which is just west of the Mariposa Port of Entry. On January 9, 2017, Nogales Transmission amended its application to modify the proposed international border crossing to a location approximately 25 feet to the east at 31°19′57.846″ N., 110°58′35.620″ W. A portion of the new, approximately two-mile, overhead, 230-kV AC transmission line extending south from the proposed Gateway Substation to the proposed international border crossing was also proposed to be shifted approximately 25 feet to the east (the location of the proposed right-of-way [ROW] was not proposed to be changed).
On May 31, 2017, DOE received a letter from Nogales Transmission amending its initial Presidential permit application a second time to reflect
The reconfiguration would connect the proposed Project to the UNSE transmission system at the proposed Gateway Substation rather than at the existing Valencia Substation, as initially proposed. A new, approximately 3-mile, overhead double-circuit 138-kV AC transmission line would be constructed on new monopoles. The first circuit would originate at an existing pole 1,900 feet west of the existing Valencia Substation and terminate at the proposed Gateway Substation. At this origination point, the existing UNSE “Vail to Valencia” transmission line would be severed and connected to this new line, thereby converting the existing UNSE “Vail to Valencia” transmission line to the “Vail to Gateway” transmission line. The second circuit would originate at the proposed Gateway Substation and proceed in an easterly direction to the same pole (1,900 feet west of the existing Valencia Substation), where it would connect with the existing portion of the UNSE 138-kV “Vail to Valencia” transmission line that travels east to the existing Valencia Substation. This circuit would constitute the new “Gateway to Valencia” transmission line and serve as the source for Valencia. The existing UNSE Vail to Valencia line currently connects to the Valencia Substation; this line is the current (and only) source of power for the City of Nogales. The Valencia Substation is the first existing substation within the U.S. The Nogales Interconnection project would change the configuration such that the Vail to Valencia line would become the Vail to Gateway line. Because the Valencia Substation still needs a source of power, the Gateway to Valencia line would be built. Minor modifications to relaying equipment within the Valencia Substation would be made to accommodate this Gateway to Valencia line.
In addition to the DC tie at the Gateway site as initially proposed (now referred to as the Nogales Gateway Substation), on the eastern portion of the Gateway site, a 138-kV UNSE Gateway Substation would consist of a three bay breaker and a half open air configuration to accommodate the line from Vail, the line to Valencia, and the connection to the DC tie, as well as a future UNSE distribution transformer. The Nogales Gateway Substation and the UNSE Gateway Substation would be located on the Gateway site and collectively referred to as the Gateway Substation. There were no additional changes proposed in this amendment to the location of the new, approximately two-mile, overhead, 230-kV AC transmission line extending south from the proposed Gateway Substation to the proposed international border crossing. The proposed reconfiguration would not affect the location of the proposed route or ROW requirements, but certain changes were proposed to be made to the conductors and towers. A comparison of the initial configuration and the reconfiguration for each of the alternative routes is provided in the application amendment.
The draft Environmental Assessment contains relevant figures in Chapters 1 and 2. It can be downloaded from the Document Library page on the project Web site:
The Proposed Project One-line Diagram (Figure 2.4-5) illustrates the details of the configuration as proposed by the amendment. A side-by-side comparison of the reconfiguration to the original application is also in the appendix to the Applicant's amendment (which can also be downloaded from the project Web site).
Additional copies of such motions to intervene also should be filed directly with: Enrique Marroquin, Nogales Transmission, L.L.C., 1900 North Akard Street, Dallas, Texas 75201.
Before a Presidential permit may be issued or amended, DOE must determine that the proposed action is in the public interest. In making that determination, DOE considers the environmental impacts of the proposed project pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, determines the project's impact on electric reliability by ascertaining whether the proposed project would adversely affect the operation of the U.S. electric power supply system under normal and contingency conditions, and any other factors that DOE may also consider relevant to the public interest. DOE also must obtain the concurrences of the Secretary of State and the Secretary of Defense before taking final action on a Presidential permit application.
Copies of this application amendment will be made available for public inspection and copying (upon request) at the address provided above, and by accessing the program Web site at:
Take notice that on July 31, 2017, Bonneville Power Administration submitted tariff filing per: BP-18 IS-18 Rate to be effective 10/1/2017.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Amendment to the Rover Pipeline Project involving construction and operation of facilities by Rover Pipeline, LLC (Rover) in Marshall County, West Virginia. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before September 4, 2017.
If you sent comments on this amendment to the Commission before the opening of this docket on May 17, 2017, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP17-464-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP17-464-000 with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Rover proposes to install a third 3,550 horsepower natural gas compressor unit at the Majorsville Compressor Station
Construction of the proposed facilities would occur at Rover's previously approved and under construction Majorsville Compressor Station. Following construction, Rover would maintain about the project's facilities as part of operations associated with the Rover Pipeline Project.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss the environmental impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project. We will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; environmental and public interest groups; and other interested parties. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are within 0.5 mile of the Majorsville Compressor Station, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the proposed project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an intervenor which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the Document-less Intervention Guide under the e-filing link on the Commission's Web site. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, any public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
On February 3, 2017, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern) and Brazoria Interconnector Gas Pipeline, LLC (BIG Pipeline) filed jointly an application in Docket Nos. CP17-56-000 and CP17-57-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Stratton Ridge Expansion Project (Project), and is designed to provide the capacity necessary for Texas Eastern to transport up to 322,000 dekatherms per day of natural gas on a firm basis from Texas Eastern's existing interconnections to a delivery point on the BIG Pipeline near Stratton Ridge, Texas.
On February 16, 2017, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's Environmental Assessment (EA) for the Project. This instant notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for the completion of the EA for the Project.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
The Stratton Ridge Project would consist of:
• A new Angleton Compressor Station, consisting of a 12,500 horsepower electric motor-driven compressor in Brazoria County, Texas;
• a new 0.5 mile, 30-inch-diameter pipeline lateral in Brazoria County, Texas to interconnect with the BIG intrastate pipeline system;
• installation of Clean Burn Equipment at the Mont Belvieu Compressor Station in Chambers County, Texas; and
• installation of minor auxiliary and support facilities (
On March 24, 2017, the Commission issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
For assistance with access to eLibrary, the helpline can be reached at (866) 208-3676, TTY (202) 502-8659, or at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice; amendment.
On July 26, 2017, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a Notice of Settlement under Section 122(h) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) addressing cost for work performed at the Coronet Industries, Inc. Site located in Plant City, Hillsborough County, Florida, FRL-9965-49-Region 4 (82 FR 34655). The published notice did not list Coronet Industries Inc, as one of the settling parties to the settlement.
The comment period for the original notice is unchanged. The Agency will consider public comments on the settlement until August 25, 2017. The Agency will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the settlement if comments received disclose facts or considerations which indicate that the proposed settlement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate.
Copies of the settlement are available from the Agency by contacting Ms. Paula V. Painter, Program Analyst, using the contact information provided in this notice. Comments may also be submitted by referencing the Site's name through one of the following methods:
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Paula V. Painter at 404-562-8887. Attn: Paula V. Painter, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303.
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Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Federal Election Commission.
Tuesday, August 15, 2017 at 10:00 a.m. and its Continuation at the Conclusion of the Open Meeting on August 17, 2017.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC.
This Meeting Will Be Closed to the Public.
Compliance matters pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 30109.
Matters relating to internal personnel decisions, or internal rules and practices.
Information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to have a considerable adverse effect on the implementation of a proposed Commission action.
Matters concerning participation in civil actions or proceedings or arbitration.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Federal Trade Commission (“FTC” or “Commission”).
Notice.
The FTC seeks public comments on proposed information requests sent pursuant to compulsory process to a combined ten or more of the largest cigarette manufacturers and smokeless tobacco manufacturers. The information sought would include, among other things, data on manufacturer annual sales and marketing expenditures. The current FTC clearance from the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) to conduct such information collection expires January 31, 2018. The Commission intends to ask OMB for renewed three-year clearance to collect this information.
Comments on the proposed information requests must be received on or before October 10, 2017.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Requests for additional information or copies of the proposed collection of information should be addressed to Michael Ostheimer, Division of Advertising Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Mailstop CC-10507, Washington, DC 20580. Telephone: (202) 326-2699.
For fifty years, the FTC has published periodic reports containing data on domestic cigarette sales and marketing expenditures by the major U.S. cigarette manufacturers. The Commission has published comparable reports on smokeless tobacco sales and marketing expenditures for thirty years. Originally, both reports were issued pursuant to statutory mandates. After those statutory mandates were terminated, the Commission continued to collect and publish information obtained from the cigarette and smokeless tobacco industries pursuant to Section 6(b) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(b). As noted above, the current PRA clearance to collect this information is valid through January 31, 2018 (OMB Control No. 3084-0134).
The Commission plans to continue sending information requests annually to the ultimate parent company of several of the largest cigarette companies and smokeless tobacco companies in the United States (“industry members”). The information requests will seek data regarding,
Under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521, federal agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” means agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. 44 U.S.C. 3502(3), 5 CFR 1320.3(c). As required by section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the FTC is providing this opportunity for public comment before requesting that OMB extend the existing clearance for the proposed collection of information.
The Commission invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The companies have not taken issue with the staff's burden estimates in prior requests for PRA reauthorization,
Staff anticipates that if the Commission decides to issue information requests to any additional companies, those companies would be smaller than the primary nine recipients and that the response burden per additional recipient would be less than for the larger companies. Staff believes that the burden should not exceed 60 hours per entity for the smaller recipients of the information requests. Cumulatively, then, the total burden for six additional respondents should not exceed 360 hours per year. Thus, the overall estimated burden for a maximum of 15 recipients of the information requests is 1,980 hours per year. These estimates include any time spent by separately incorporated subsidiaries and other entities affiliated with the ultimate parent company that has received the information request.
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online, or to send them to the Commission by courier or overnight service. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “Tobacco Reports: Paperwork Comment, FTC File No. P054507” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610 (Annex J), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610, Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible FTC Web site at
Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must be filed in paper form, must be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and must comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record.
The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before October 10, 2017. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see
General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of a modified system of records.
The modifications to the system of records that are described in this notice are effective upon publication in today's
Submit comments identified by “Notice-ID-2017-02, Notice of Modified System of Records” by any of the following methods:
•
•
Call the GSA Chief Privacy Officer at telephone 202-322-8246; or email
GSA proposes to clarify an existing routine use and add a new routine use for
Unclassified.
The system is owned and maintained by GSA, housed in secure datacenters in continental United States. Contact the System Manager listed below for additional information.
Joel Minton, Director,
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act, all or a portion of the records or information contained in this system may be disclosed to authorized entities, as is determined to be relevant and necessary, outside GSA as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
a. To the Department of Justice or other Federal agency conducting litigation or in proceedings before any court, adjudicative or administrative body, when: (a) GSA or any component thereof, or (b) any employee of GSA in his/her official capacity, or (c) any employee of GSA in his/her individual capacity where DOJ or GSA has agreed to represent the employee, or (d) the United States or any agency thereof, is a party to the litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and GSA determines that the records are both relevant and necessary to the litigation.
b. To third party identity proofing services, as necessary to identity proof an individual for access to a service at the required level of assurance.
c. To an appropriate Federal, State, tribal, local, international, or foreign law enforcement agency or other appropriate authority charged with investigating or prosecuting a violation or enforcing or implementing a law, rule, regulation, or order, where a record, either on its face or in conjunction with other information, indicates a violation or potential violation of law, which includes criminal, civil, or regulatory violations and such disclosure is proper and consistent with the official duties of the person making the disclosure.
d. To a Member of Congress or his or her staff in response to a request made on behalf of and at the request of the individual who is the subject of the record.
e. To the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in accordance with their responsibilities for evaluation or oversight of Federal programs.
f. To an expert, consultant, or contractor of GSA in the performance of a Federal duty to which the information is relevant.
g. To the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) for records management purposes.
h. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) GSA suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) GSA has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, GSA (including its information systems, programs and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with GSA's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
i. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when GSA determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national
j. To the Government Publishing Office (GPO), when
This notice modifies the routine use section of the system of records notice that is published in full at 82 FR 6552, January 19, 2017. The comments GSA received on that notice, and its responses to them, may be searched for and viewed on
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by September 11, 2017.
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: CMS Desk Officer, Fax Number: (202) 395-5806
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
1.
The PREP Multi-Component Evaluation contains three components: A Design and Implementation Study, a Performance Analysis Study, and an Impact and In-Depth Implementation Study. Data collection related to the
In compliance with the requirements of Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201, Attn: OPRE Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
The VIQI Project will inform policymakers, practitioners, and stakeholders about effective ways to support the quality and effectiveness of early care and education (ECE) centers for promoting young children's learning and development. In partnership with ECE centers across the United States that serve young children with diverse economic backgrounds, the VIQI Project aims to (1) identify dimensions of quality within ECE settings that are key levers for promoting children's outcomes; (2) inform what levels of quality are necessary to successfully support children's developmental gains; (3) identify drivers that facilitate and inhibit successful implementation of interventions aimed at strengthening quality; and (4) understand how these relations vary across different ECE settings, staff, and children. To achieve these aims, the VIQI Project will include a year-long pilot study that will pilot up to three curricular and professional development models, followed by a year-long impact evaluation and process study that involve testing the effectiveness of two curricular and professional development models that aim to strengthen teacher practices, the quality of classroom processes, and children's outcomes. The study will include up to 189 community-based and Head Start ECE centers spread across seven different metropolitan areas in the United States.
To test the effectiveness of the curricular and professional development models, the VIQI project will consist of a 3- or 4-group experimental design in the pilot study and a 3-group experimental design in the impact evaluation and the process study in which the initial quality and other characteristics of ECE centers are measured. The centers then will be stratified based upon select information collected—by setting type (
In the pilot study, 24 centers in one metropolitan area will participate in the VIQI Project. Information about center and staff characteristics and classroom and teacher practices will be collected (1) to stratify and randomly assign centers; (2) to describe how the different interventions are implemented and are experienced by centers and teachers; and (3) to document the treatment differentials across research conditions. The information will then be used to adjust and to refine the research design and measures that will be used in the impact evaluation and process study.
In the impact evaluation and process study, 165 centers in seven metropolitan areas will participate in the VIQI Project. Information about center and staff characteristics and classroom and teacher practices will be collected (1) to stratify and randomly assign centers; (2) to identify subgroups of interest; (3) to describe how the interventions are implemented and are experienced by
The data collection instruments for the VIQI Project include the following:
(1) Instruments for Screening and Recruitment of ECE Centers will be used in the pilot study, impact evaluation, and process study to assess ECE centers' eligibility, to inform the sampling strategy, and to recruit ECE centers to participate in the VIQI Project;
(2) Baseline Instruments for the Pilot Study, Impact Evaluation, and Process Study will be used to collect background information about centers, classrooms, center staff, and families and children being served in the centers. All of the instruments will be administered at the beginning of the pilot study, impact evaluation, and process study, with the exception of the baseline survey administered to parents of children enrolled in participating ECE centers and the protocol for baseline assessments of children's skills at the beginning of the impact evaluation and process study;
(3) Follow-Up Instruments for the Pilot Study, Impact Evaluation, and Process Study will be used to inform how centers, classrooms, teachers, and children changed and to assess the impacts of each of the interventions over the course of the pilot study, impact evaluation, and process study. All of the instruments will be administered at the end of the pilot study, impact evaluation, and process study, with the exception of the protocol for follow-up assessments of children's skills at the end of the impact evaluation and process study; and,
(4) Fidelity of Implementation Instruments for Pilot Study and Process Study will be used to document how the curricular and professional development models are delivered and experienced by staff, to document treatment differentials across research conditions, and to provide context for interpreting the findings of the impact evaluation.
In compliance with the requirements of Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201, Attn: OPRE Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the guidance entitled “Qualification of Medical Device Development Tools (MDDT).” This document formalizes the MDDT program and provides guidance to FDA staff, industry, healthcare providers, researchers, and patient and consumer groups on a new voluntary process within the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) for qualification of medical device development tools (MDDT) for use in device development and evaluation programs. In addition, the guidance discusses the framework of an MDDT, including definitions of applicable terms, criteria for evaluating an MDDT for a specific context of use, considerations for qualification, and the contents of a qualification package. FDA considered comments on the draft guidance and revised the guidance as appropriate.
Submit either electronic or written comments on this guidance at any time. General comments on Agency guidance documents are welcome at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Kathryn O'Callaghan, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5418, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, (301) 796-6349.
MDDT is a scientifically validated tool that aids device development and regulatory evaluation. The guidance describes the framework and process for the voluntary CDRH qualification of MDDT, including definitions of applicable terms, criteria for evaluating a MDDT for a specific context of use, the threshold for qualification, and the contents of a qualification submission.
The intent of this voluntary qualification policy is to: (1) Enable faster, more efficient development of important life-saving and health promoting medical devices, (2) promote the development of tools to facilitate more timely device evaluation, (3) provide a mechanism to better leverage advances in regulatory science, and (4) more quickly and more clearly communicate with CDRH stakeholders about important advances in regulatory science that may be leveraged to speed device development and regulatory evaluation. CDRH expects the qualification process to expedite development of publicly available tools, which could potentially be used widely in multiple device development programs.
The intent of this voluntary MDDT program is to promote the development and use of tools to streamline device development and evaluation. Once an MDDT is submitted in accordance with the FDA guidance entitled “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” (Ref. 1) and qualified for a specific context of use, it can be used by any medical device sponsor for that context of use. MDDTs can be used for the qualified context of use without the need to reconfirm the suitability and utility of the MDDT when used in a premarket submission. Qualification may contribute to acceptance and application of MDDTs across multiple medical device development programs. Qualified MDDTs can be utilized by many sponsors to aid in optimizing device development and evaluation.
As discussed in the November 14, 2013,
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Qualification of Medical Device Development Tools.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This guidance contains information collection that is subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information under the guidance entitled “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0756.
The following reference is on display in the Dockets Management Staff (see
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Medical Imaging Drugs Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The public meeting will be held on September 8, 2017, from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2017-N-1957. The docket will close on September 7, 2017. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by September 7, 2017.
Comments received on or before August 24, 2017, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by the Agency.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before September 7, 2017. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Jennifer Shepherd, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Jennifer Shepherd at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Extension of Certain Tobacco Product Compliance Deadlines Related to the Final Deeming Rule.” This guidance is intended to assist persons who manufacture, package, sell, offer to sell, distribute, or import for sale and distribution within the United States newly regulated tobacco products, roll-your-own (RYO) tobacco, and cigarette tobacco in complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (Tobacco Control Act), and FDA regulations.
Submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Center for Tobacco Products, Food and Drug Administration, Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your request or include a fax number to which the guidance document may be sent. See the
Gerie Voss, Center for Tobacco Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, email:
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Extension of Certain Tobacco Product Compliance Deadlines Related to the Final Deeming Rule.” This guidance is intended to assist persons who manufacture, package, sell, offer to sell, distribute, or import for sale and distribution within the United States newly regulated tobacco products, RYO tobacco, and cigarette tobacco in complying with the FD&C Act, as amended by the Tobacco Control Act, and FDA regulations. We are issuing this guidance consistent with our good guidance practices (GGP) regulation (section 10.115 (21 CFR 10.115)). We are implementing this guidance without prior public comment, because we have determined that prior public participation is not feasible or appropriate (section 10.115(g)(2)). We made this determination because FDA needs to communicate the extensions in a timely manner given the upcoming compliance deadlines and the amount of time needed for firms to prepare for them. Although this guidance document is immediately effective, it remains subject to comment in accordance with FDA's GGP regulation.
The Tobacco Control Act (Pub. L. 111-31) granted FDA the authority to immediately regulate the manufacture, marketing, and distribution of cigarettes, cigarette tobacco, RYO, and smokeless tobacco products to protect the public health and to reduce tobacco use by minors.
The Tobacco Control Act also gave FDA the authority to issue a regulation deeming all other products that meet the statutory definition of a tobacco product to be subject to Chapter IX of the FD&C Act (section 901(b) (21 U.S.C. 387a(b)) of the FD&C Act). On May 10, 2016, FDA issued that rule, extending FDA's tobacco product authority to all products that meet the definition of tobacco product in the law (except for accessories of newly regulated tobacco products), including electronic nicotine delivery systems, cigars, hookah, pipe tobacco, nicotine gels, dissolvables that were not already subject to the FD&C Act, and other tobacco products that may be developed in the future (81 FR 28974 at 28976) (“the final deeming rule”)). Chapter IX of the FD&C Act now applies to newly regulated tobacco products, including sections 904(a)(1) and (4) (21 U.S.C.387d(a)(1) and (4)) (ingredient listing, health document submissions), 903(a)(4) and (a)(8) (21 U.S.C. 387c(a)(4) and (a)(8)) (labeling requirements), 904(c)(1), 905(b), (c), (d), (h) (registration), (21 U.S.C. 387e(b), (c), (d), (h)) 905(i)(1) (product listing), 907(a)(1)(B) (21 U.S.C. 387g(a)(1)(B)) (additional special rule), 911 (21 U.S.C. 387k) (modified risk claims), 904(a)(3) and 915 (21 U.S.C. 387o) (harmful and potentially harmful constituent reporting), and 920 (21 U.S.C. 387t) (labeling, recordkeeping, records inspection). The final rule also included several requirements that apply to a subgroup of products referred to as “covered tobacco products.”
In May 2017, FDA published the first edition of this guidance document, under which it provided a 3-month extension of all future compliance deadlines for requirements under the final deeming rule. This guidance is the second edition, and it revises and updates the first edition by further extending certain of the future compliance dates.
The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on this topic. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in section 910(c)(1)(A)(i) of the FD&C Act and 21 CFR part 1143 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0768; the collections of information in section 905(j) of the FD&C Act have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0673; the collections of information in section 904(a)(4) of the FD&C Act have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0654; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 1107 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0684; the collections of information in section 904(c)(1), 905(b),(c),(d), (h),and 905(i)(1) of the FD&C Act have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0650.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain an electronic version of the guidance at either
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice.
The Coast Guard announces that the District Five Prevention Division (Dp) has issued a Certificate of Alternate Compliance (COAC) from the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS), for Viking Yacht Company's 92C Enclosed Bridge yacht, HIN: VKY92111I617, as required by statue. Due to the construction and placement of the pilothouse aft of amidships, the vessel cannot fully comply with the masthead light provisions of the 72 COLREGS without interfering with the vessel's design and construction, as there are no structures forward of amidships on which a masthead light could be affixed. This notice promotes the Coast Guard's maritime safety and stewardship missions.
Documents mentioned in the preamble are part of docket USCG-2017-0648. To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For further information or questions about this notice, call or email: CDR Scott W. Muller, District Five, Chief, Inspections and Investigations, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone: 757-398-6389, email:
The United States is signatory to the International Maritime Organization's International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 (72 COLREGS), as amended. The special construction or purpose of some vessels makes them unable to comply with the light, shape, and sound signal provisions of the 72 COLREGS. Under statutory law
The Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard, hereby finds and certifies that Viking Yacht Company's 92C Enclosed Bridge yacht, HIN: VKY92111I617, is a vessel of special construction or purpose and that, with respect to the position of the masthead light, it is not possible to comply fully with the requirements of the provisions enumerated in the 72 COLREGS without interfering with the design and construction of the vessel. The Prevention Division, Fifth Coast Guard District, further finds and certifies that the proposed placement of the masthead light is in the closest possible compliance with the applicable provisions of the 72 COLREGS and that full compliance with the 72 COLREGS would not significantly enhance the safety of the vessel's operation.
This notice is issued under authority of 33 U.S.C. 1605(c) and 33 CFR 81.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting a Reinstatement, without change, of a previously approved collection for which approval has expired: 1625-0078, Credentialing and Manning Requirements for Officers on Towing Vessels; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2017-0219] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2017-0219], and must be received by October 10, 2017.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Requests (ICRs) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0073, Alteration of Unreasonably Obstructive Bridges without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2017-0106] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2017-0106], and must be received by October 10, 2017.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting a Reinstatement, without change, of a previously approved collection for which approval has expired for the following collection of information: 1625-0019, Alternative Compliance for International and Inland Navigation Rules—33 CFR parts 81 through 89 without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2017-0104] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2017-0104], and must be received by October 10, 2017.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval for reinstatement, without change, of the following collection of information: 1625-0102, National Response Resource Inventory; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before September 11, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2016-1093] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
(1)
(2)
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2016-1093], and must be received by September 11, 2017.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has issued a limited exclusion order against certain intravascular administration sets and components thereof of Yangzhou WeiDeLi Trade Co., Ltd. The investigation is terminated.
Michael Liberman, Esq., Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3115. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at
The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at
The Commission instituted this investigation under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337 (“section 337”), on April 12, 2017, based on a complaint filed by Curlin Medical Inc. of East Aurora, New York; ZEVEX, Inc. of Salt Lake City, Utah; and Moog Inc. of East Aurora, New York (collectively, “Complainants”) (82 FR 17690, April 12, 2017). The complaint alleges a violation of section 337 by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent Nos. 6,164,921 (“the '921 patent”) and 6,371,732 (“the '732 patent”). The complaint named Yangzhou WeiDeLi Trade Co., Ltd. of Yangzhou, China (“Yangzhou” or “Respondent”) as the only respondent in this investigation. The Commission's Office of Unfair Import Investigations was named as a party.
On May 23, 2017, the ALJ ordered Yangzhou to show cause why it should not be found in default.
The Commission requested briefing from the parties and the public on the issues of remedy, the public interest, and bonding. The Commission received timely responsive and reply submissions from Complainants and the Commission Investigative Attorney. The submissions agreed that the appropriate remedy is the entry of a limited exclusion order (“LEO”) against Yangzhou, that the public interest factors do not weigh against granting such a remedy, and that bonding should be set at 100 percent of the entered value of the infringing products.
The Commission has determined that the appropriate form of relief in this investigation is a LEO prohibiting the unlicensed entry of intravascular administration sets and components thereof that are covered by one or more of claims 1-3 of the '732 patent and claims 1-34 of the '921 patent and that are manufactured abroad by or on behalf of, or imported by or on behalf of, Respondent Yangzhou. The Commission has further determined that the public interest factors enumerated in section 337(g)(l) (19 U.S.C. 1337(g)(l)) do not preclude the issuance of the LEO. Finally, the Commission has determined that the bond for importation during the period of Presidential review shall be in the amount of 100 percent of the entered value of the imported subject articles of Respondent Yangzhou. The Commission's order was delivered to the President and the United States Trade Representative on the day of its issuance.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR part 210.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of full reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation
August 4, 2017.
Carolyn Carlson ((202) 205-3002), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the reviews must be served on all other parties to the reviews (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
The Commission has determined that these reviews are extraordinarily complicated and therefore has determined to exercise its authority to extend the review period by up to 90 days pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(5)(B).
These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits comments concerning its proposal to extend OMB approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Mechanical Power Presses Standard for General Industry.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by October 10, 2017.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The collection of information contained in the Mechanical Power Presses Standard for General Industry are necessary to reduce workers' risk of death or serious injury by ensuring that employers maintain the mechanical power presses used by the workers in safe operating condition.
The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it.
Paragraph (e)(1)(i) requires employers to establish and follow a program of periodic and regular inspections of power presses to ensure that all their parts, auxiliary equipment, and safeguards are in safe operating condition and adjustment. Employers must maintain a certification record of inspections that includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and the serial number, or other identifiers, of the power press that was inspected.
Paragraph (e)(1)(ii) requires employers to inspect and test each press no less than weekly to determine the condition of the clutch/brake mechanism, antirepeat feature, and single-stroke mechanism. Employers must perform and complete necessary maintenance or repair or both before the press is operated. In addition, employers must maintain a record of inspections, tests, and maintenance work. The record must include the date of the inspection, test, or maintenance; the signature of the person who performed the inspection, test, or maintenance; and the serial number, or other identifiers, of the press that was inspected, tested, or maintained.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Standard on Mechanical Power Presses (29 CFR 1910.217(e)(1)). The Agency is requesting a slight burden hour adjustment decrease of 124 hours from 38,091 hours to 37,967 hours. The 124 burden hour reduction is a result of
The Agency will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures affecting the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Applied Sciences Advisory Committee (ASAC). This Committee functions in an advisory capacity to the Director, Earth Science Division, in the NASA Science Mission Directorate. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the applied sciences community and other persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.
Monday, September 11, 2017, 12:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m., Eastern Daylight Time (EDT).
Ms. KarShelia Henderson, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2355, or
This meeting will be open to the public telephonically and by WebEx. You must use a touch-tone phone to participate in this meeting. Any interested person may dial the USA toll free conference call number (888) 677-3055, passcode 4301862, followed by the # sign, to participate in this meeting by telephone. The WebEx link is
The agenda for the meeting includes the following topics:
It is imperative that the meeting be held on this date to accommodate the scheduling priorities of the key participants.
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice at least once monthly of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when agencies no longer need them for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives of the United States and to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking administrative, legal, research, or other value. NARA publishes notice in the
NARA must receive requests for copies in writing by September 11, 2017. Once NARA finishes appraising
You may request a copy of any records schedule identified in this notice by contacting Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA) using one of the following means:
You must cite the control number, which appears in parentheses after the name of the agency that submitted the schedule, and a mailing address. If you would like an appraisal report, please include that in your request.
Margaret Hawkins, Director, by mail at Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA); National Archives and Records Administration; 8601 Adelphi Road; College Park, MD 20740-6001, by phone at 301-837-1799, or by email at
NARA publishes notice in the
Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records on paper, film, magnetic tape, and other media. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing records retention periods and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. These schedules provide for timely transfer into the National Archives of historically valuable records and authorize the agency to dispose of all other records after the agency no longer needs them to conduct its business. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.
The schedules listed in this notice are media neutral unless otherwise specified. An item in a schedule is media neutral when an agency may apply the disposition instructions to records regardless of the medium in which it creates or maintains the records. Items included in schedules submitted to NARA on or after December 17, 2007, are media neutral unless the item is expressly limited to a specific medium. (See 36 CFR 1225.12(e).)
Agencies may not destroy Federal records without Archivist of the United States' approval. The Archivist approves destruction only after thoroughly considering the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value.
In addition to identifying the Federal agencies and any subdivisions requesting disposition authority, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records (or notes that the schedule has agency-wide applicability when schedules cover records that may be accumulated throughout an agency); provides the control number assigned to each schedule, the total number of schedule items, and the number of temporary items (the records proposed for destruction); and includes a brief description of the temporary records. The records schedule itself contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their disposition. If NARA staff has prepared an appraisal memorandum for the schedule, it also includes information about the records. You may request additional information about the disposition process at the addresses above.
1. Department of Agriculture, Agricultural Marketing Service (DAA-0136-2017-0001, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Case files of plant variety protection records, including certificates issued for intellectual protection and patents for new plant varieties.
2. Department of Defense, Defense Logistics Agency (DAA-0361-2017-0005, 4 items, 4 temporary items). Records relating to the disposal of government property including contracts, bid sheets, correspondence, waivers, vouchers, and similar documents.
3. Department of Homeland Security, Immigration and Customs Enforcement (DAA-0567-2015-0012, 9 items, 8 temporary items). Records of office self-inspections, external party non-disclosure agreements, and investigations or inspections of security programs, routine employee misconduct, mismanagement allegations, detention facility safety, and ICE employees testifying in criminal trials. Proposed for permanent retention are significant employee misconduct case files.
4. Department of Homeland Security, Immigration and Customs Enforcement (DAA-0567-2017-0001, 10 items, 10 temporary items). Master files of an electronic information system used to process, track, and store information about aliens who remain in the United States after receiving a final order of removal, deportation, or exclusion.
5. Department of Homeland Security, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (DAA-0566-2017-0011, 8 items, 7 temporary items). Applications for asylum and cancellation of removal, and supporting documentation, when rejected for incorrect fees or non-sufficient funds, when having incomplete or missing signature(s), when abandoned, when denied, when terminated, when administratively closed, and when withdrawn. Proposed for permanent retention are applications for asylum and cancellation of removal, and supporting documentation, when approved.
6. Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Engraving and Printing (DAA-0318-2017-0003, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Intermediate-stage graphic image materials, such as printing plates and glass plate negatives, produced to enable the manufacture of currency and other products.
7. Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Health Administration (DAA-0015-2017-0001, 5 items, 5 temporary items). Records related to call centers and hotlines, including recorded calls, chat and texts, referrals, and follow-ups.
8. Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Health Administration (DAA-0015-2017-0002, 7 items, 7 temporary items). Records related to compliance audits, self-assessments, and training for privacy and freedom of information programs at agency facilities.
9. National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Agency-wide (DAA-0255-2017-0010, 6 items, 6 temporary items). Records of the Export Control Office, including administration records, case records, transaction records, and shipping information.
10. National Archives and Records Administration, Government-wide (DAA-GRS-2017-0008, 6 items, 6 temporary items). General Records Schedule for records of three areas of agency accountability: Internal controls, mandatory reporting on administrative functions to external agencies, and interaction with the U.S. Office of Special Counsel concerning allegations
11. National Archives and Records Administration, Government-wide (DAA-GRS-2017-0010, 20 items, 20 temporary items). General Records Schedule for records related to occupational and non-occupational health including occupational injury and illness program records, occupational health and safety training, workplace environmental monitoring and exposure, Safety Data Sheets, individual medical case files, non-occupational health and wellness program records, Employee Assistance Program (EAP) counseling, Drug-free Workplace Program records, and clinic scheduling.
12. National Archives and Records Administration, Government-wide (DAA-GRS-2017-0011, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Update to General Records Schedule for employee acquisition records adding job applicant drug test records.
13. National Archives and Records Administration, Government-wide (DAA-GRS-2017-0012, 5 items, 5 temporary items). General Records Schedule for records of rulemaking, agency copies of
14. Office of Personnel Management, Agency-wide (DAA-0478-2017-0007, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records related to merit system accountability and compliance including strategic plans, policies, procedures, and general reports.
15. United States Agency for International Development, Office of Security (DAA-0286-2017-0001, 3 items, 3 temporary items). Master files of an electronic information system used to vet funding requests by individuals, businesses, and organizations.
The Members of the National Council on Disability (NCD) will hold a quarterly meeting on Thursday, August 24, from 9:00 a.m.-4:15 p.m., Eastern Time, in Washington, DC.
This meeting will occur in Washington, DC, at the Access Board Conference Room, 1331 F Street NW., Suite 800, Washington, DC 20004. Interested parties may join the meeting in person at the meeting location or may join by phone in a listening-only capacity (other than the period allotted for public comment noted below) using the following call-in information: Teleconference number: 1-888-452-4030; Conference ID: 1255123; Conference Title: NCD Meeting; Host Name: Clyde Terry.
The Council will receive agency updates on policy projects, finance, governance, and other business. The Council will vote on final drafts of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) report series; the foreign policy and disability report; and the guardianship report. The Council will also receive its annual ethics training. The Council will receive a panel presentation on promising practices regarding charter schools and vouchers and later receive public comment on charter schools and vouchers in the context of IDEA. The Council will conclude its work by discussing the draft Agency Reform Plan (pursuant to Executive Order 13781) and NCD's draft FY18-FY22 Strategic Plan and then receiving comments about those documents.
The times provided below are approximations for when each agenda item is anticipated to be discussed (all times Eastern):
To better facilitate NCD's public comment, any individual interested in providing public comment is asked to register his or her intent to provide comment in advance by sending an email to
Anne Sommers, NCD, 1331 F Street NW., Suite 850, Washington, DC 20004; 202-272-2004 (V), 202-272-2074 (TTY).
A CART streamtext link has been arranged for this meeting. The web link to access CART on Thursday, August 24, 2017 is:
Those who plan to attend the meeting in-person and require accommodations should notify NCD as soon as possible to allow time to make arrangements. To help reduce exposure to fragrances for those with multiple chemical sensitivities, NCD requests that all those attending the meeting in person refrain from wearing scented personal care products such as perfumes, hairsprays, and deodorants.
The National Science Board (NSB), pursuant to National Science Foundation (NSF) regulations (45 CFR part 614), the National Science Foundation Act, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 1862n-5), and the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), hereby gives notice of the scheduling of
August 15, 2017 from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., and August 16, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. EDT.
These meetings will be held at the NSF headquarters, 4201 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22230. Meetings are held in Room 1235. All visitors must contact the Board Office (call 703-292-7000 or send an email to
Some of these meetings will be open to the public. Others will be closed to the public. See full description below.
Public meetings and public portions of meetings held in Room 1235 will be webcast. To view these meetings, go to:
Please refer to the NSB Web site for additional information. Meeting information and schedule updates (time, place, subject matter, and status of meeting) may be found at
The NSB will continue its program to provide some flexibility around meeting times. After the first meeting of each day, actual meeting start and end times will be allowed to vary by no more than 15 minutes in either direction. As an example, if a 10:00 meeting finishes at 10:45, the meeting scheduled to begin at 11:00 may begin at 10:45 instead. Similarly, the 10:00 meeting may be allowed to run over by as much as 15 minutes if the Chair decides the extra time is warranted. The next meeting would start no later than 11:15.
Arrive at the NSB boardroom or check the webcast 15 minutes before the scheduled start time of the meeting you wish to observe. Members of the public are invited to provide feedback on this program. Contact:
2:30 p.m.
The NSB Office contact is Brad Gutierrez,
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on August 4, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, (202) 268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on August 4, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule for its equity options platform (“BZX Options”) to modify the qualification criteria of Tier 2 of the Firm,
The Exchange currently offers three Firm, Broker Dealer and Joint Back Office Non-Penny Add Volume Tiers under footnote 8, which provide an enhanced rebate ranging from $0.33 to $0.82 per contract for qualifying orders that add liquidity in Non Penny Pilot Securities and yield fee code NF.
Currently under Tier 2, a Member's orders that yield fee code NF receive an enhanced rebate of $0.53 per contract where the Member has an: (i) ADV
The Exchange proposes to implement the above changes to its fee schedule on August 1, 2017.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
Volume-based pricing structures such as that maintained by the Exchange have been widely adopted by exchanges, including the Exchange, and are equitable because they are open to all Members on an equal basis and provide additional benefits or discounts that are reasonably related to: (i) The value to an exchange's market quality; (ii) associated higher levels of market activity, such as higher levels of liquidity provisions and/or growth patterns; and (iii) introduction of higher volumes of orders into the price and volume discovery processes. In particular, the proposed change to footnote 8 is a minor change intended to make meeting Tier 2 more attainable, which, in turn, is intended to continue to incentivize Members to send increased order flow to the Exchange in an effort to qualify for the enhanced rebates made available by the tier. This increased order flow, in turn, contributes to the growth of the Exchange. The Exchange also believes the rebate associated with the tier is reasonable as it continues to reflect the difficulty in achieving the tier. These incentives remain reasonably related to the value to the Exchange's market quality associated with higher levels of market activity, including liquidity provision and the introduction of higher volumes of orders into the price and volume discovery processes. The proposed change to the tiered pricing structure is not unfairly discriminatory because it will apply equally to all Members.
The Exchange believes the proposed amendment to its fee schedule would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed change represents a significant departure from previous pricing offered by the Exchange or pricing offered by the Exchange's competitors. Additionally, Members may opt to disfavor the Exchange's pricing if they believe that alternatives offer them better value. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed change will impair the ability of Members or competing venues to maintain their competitive standing in
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On April 20, 2017, Investors Exchange LLC (“IEX” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Commission recently granted IEX's Form 1 application for registration
Specifically, the proposal will allow IEX to conduct the following auctions for IEX-listed securities: (1) An opening auction (“Opening Auction”); (2) a closing auction (“Closing Auction”); (3) an auction for an initial public offering (“IPO”) or the launch of a new issue (“IPO Auction”); (4) an auction following a trading halt in a security (“Halt Auction”); and (5) an auction to re-open a security after such security is subject to a LULD trading pause (“Volatility Auction”) (collectively, the “IEX Auctions”). The IEX Auctions will utilize a double auction process that is designed to maximize the number of shares executed at a single price (the “Auction Clearing Price”).
IEX will offer the following new order types specific to the IEX Auctions: Market-on-Open (“MOO”); Limit-on-Open (“LOO”); Market-on-Close (“MOC”); and Limit-on-Close (“LOC”).
For each IEX Auction beginning at a specified time, IEX will disseminate, and update every one second thereafter, the current status of price, size, order imbalance, auction collar, and other relevant auction-related information (“IEX Auction Information”).
On each trading day, IEX will attempt to conduct an Opening Auction for all IEX-listed securities.
On each trading day, IEX will attempt to conduct a Closing Auction for all IEX-listed securities.
IEX will conduct an IPO Auction for an initial public offering or for the launch of a new issue.
IEX may initiate trading halts under certain circumstances in which the Exchange deems it necessary to protect investors and the public interest.
IEX will conduct a Volatility Auction to re-open an IEX-listed security after that security is subject to a trading pause pursuant to the National Market System Plan to Address Extraordinary Market Volatility (“Limit Up-Limit Down Plan” or “LULD Plan”).
In place of its normal Closing Auction procedures, IEX will close an IEX-listed security using a Volatility Auction when the IEX-listed security is paused pursuant to IEX Rule 11.280(e) at or after the Closing Auction Lock-in Time, or when the Order Acceptance Period for a Volatility Auction for a security paused before the Closing Auction Lock-Time pursuant to IEX Rule 11.280(e) would otherwise be extended to a time after the Closing Auction Lock-in Time.
In addition, IEX proposes several amendments to IEX Rule 11.280 relating to LULD trading pauses.
IEX proposes to adopt several additional provisions relating to IEX Auctions. New IEX Rule 11.350(g) will address the handling during Opening, Closing, Halt, and Volatility Auctions of short sale orders for covered securities not marked short exempt when the Short Sale Price Test of Rule 201 of Regulation SHO (“Short Sale Price Test”) is in effect.
In addition, new IEX Rule 11.350(h) will allow IEX to adjust the timing of or suspend an IEX Auction with prior notice to Users when, in IEX's judgment, the interests of a fair and orderly market require such action. IEX believes that this discretion is necessary to give IEX latitude to adapt to quickly changing, volatile market conditions that may negatively impact market participants.
New IEX Rule 11.350(i) provides that, for purposes of Rule 611(b)(3) of Regulation NMS and section VI(D)(6) of Tick Size Pilot, orders executed pursuant to IEX Auctions may trade-through or trade-at the price of any other trading center's Manual or Protected Quotations if the transaction that traded-at or constituted a trade-through was a single-priced opening, re-opening, or closing transaction at the trading center.
Finally, new IEX Rule 11.350(j) specifies that, for purposes of the Rule, references to a.m. and p.m. mean Eastern Time.
As noted above, the Commission received one comment regarding the proposal, and a response to the
IEX submitted a letter in response to the comment letter, which acknowledges that the dissemination of IEX Auction Information through the CQS would require action by the CTA Operating Committee.
The Commission believes that IEX's response addresses the concern raised by the commenter. The Commission notes that IEX's proposal and proposed rule text do not provide for the dissemination of IEX Auction Information through the facilities of the CQ Plan. Accordingly, despite IEX's statement in the current proposal of its intention to pursue such dissemination in the future, the issue is not presently before the Commission as part of the current proposal.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 2, is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
In its filing, IEX notes that its auctions were designed based on its understanding of how the auctions work on other primary listing exchanges, including the New York Stock Exchange, NYSE Arca, Nasdaq, and Bats.
IEX states that its proposal is integral to its future operation of a listing market,
IEX's auction process is designed to match orders at a single price that maximizes the number of shares to be executed.
Finally, the Commission believes that the proposed rules relating to Volatility Auctions are designed to further the goal of establishing a standardized approach for how primary listing exchanges will conduct certain aspects of an automated re-opening following an LULD trading pause, which should help to provide certainty for market participants regarding how a security would re-open following an LULD trading pause, regardless of the listing exchange.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning whether Amendment No. 2 is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 2, prior to the thirtieth day after the date of publication of the notice of Amendment No. 2 in the
Accordingly, for the reasons noted above, the Commission finds good cause for approving the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 2, on an accelerated basis, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
CHX proposes to amend the Rules of the Exchange (“CHX Rules”) regarding Qualified Contingent Trades (“QCTs”)
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend CHX Rules to effect the following changes:
• Clarify the operation of cross orders
• Only permit Participants that are registered with the Exchange as Institutional Brokers (“IBs”)
• Clarify the scope of information recording obligations under current Article 11, Rule 3.
• Adopt rules describing the CHX Broker Back Office System (“BBOS”), a trade management system developed and maintained by the Exchange.
• Require IBs to record certain information in the BBOS regarding component orders and trades related to QCT Crosses executed within the Matching System.
• Clarify the agency, principal and error accounts requirements for IBs.
In 2006,
Mechanically, upon receipt of a QCT Cross, the Exchange will immediately execute the QCT Cross without regard to the protected quotations of away markets if the state of the CHX limit order book (“CHX book”) in the relevant security would permit the QCT Cross to execute within the Matching System.
The Exchange believes that the operation of the Matching System and the Surveillance and Examination program, in general, and as applied to the execution and review of QCT Crosses, in particular, are “reasonably designed” in compliance with the requirements of Rule 611(a)(1) of the Regulation NMS.
The Exchange now proposes various amendments to the CHX Rules in order to clarify the operation of cross orders, to clarify the scope of certain Participant obligations and to codify current practices related to the enhancement of the Exchange's oversight of QCTs.
The Exchange proposes to adopt various non-substantive amendments to CHX Rules to clarify the operation of cross orders and Cross With Size handling.
While the current definition is technically accurate, the Exchange believes that it can be amended to clarify that the pricing requirement for cross orders is prerequisite for execution within the Matching System, but not a prerequisite for submission into the Matching System. That is, a cross order that does not meet the pricing requirement, and is thus cancelled by
“Cross order”: An order to buy and sell the same security at a specific price. A cross order may only execute within the Matching System if it is priced better than the Working Price, as defined under Article 1, Rule 1(pp), of all resting orders on the CHX Book. A cross order may represent interest of one or more Participants of the Exchange, but may only be executed in an increment permitted by Article 20, Rule 4(a)(7)(b). A cross order may be subject to special handling, pursuant to paragraph (g) below.
Similarly, the Exchange proposes to amend Article 1, Rule 2(g)(1)(A) to clarify the requirements for Cross With Size handling and to remove redundant references to compliance various CHX Rules and federal securities laws and regulations:
“Cross With Size”: A cross order (except any cross order subject to Non-Regular Way Settlement) to buy and sell at least 5,000 shares of the same security with a total value of at least $100,000 will execute, notwithstanding resting orders in the CHX Book at the same price, where: (A) There are no resting orders on the CHX Book with a Working Price, as defined under Article 1, Rule 1(pp), better than the cross order; and
In addition, the Exchange proposes to amend Article 20, Rule 8(e) to replace a redundant summary of the operation of cross orders and Cross With Size handling with specific references to the relevant rules. Also, since Cross With Size is a special handling for cross orders and not a separate order type or order modifier, the Exchange proposes to eliminate reference to “Cross With Size,” but to maintain the citation to the relevant CHX Rules. Thus, amended Article 20, Rule 8(e) provides that “Cross orders shall be handled pursuant to Article 1, Rule 2(a)(2) and Rule 2(g)(1) above.”
As noted above,
The Exchange also proposes various non-substantive clarifying amendments to Article 11, Rule 3 (Records of Orders and Executions).
The Exchange further proposes to amend paragraph .01 under the Interpretations and Policies of Article 11, Rule 3 to clarify that proprietary orders, such as those submitted by Market Makers, fall under the purview of Article 11, Rule 3. Specifically, while the second sentence under paragraph .01 excludes from the scope of orders described under Article 11, Rule 3(a) the actual decision to purchase or sell a security by a Participant on a proprietary basis and not the proprietary order itself, the Exchange believes that the sentence could be misconstrued to exclude all proprietary orders from the scope of Article 11, Rule 3. The Exchange also believes that current Article 11, Rule 3(a)(1)-(3) adequately describes the types of orders subject to current Article 11, Rule 3. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to delete the second sentence of paragraph .01 in its entirety.
Current paragraph .03 under the Interpretations and Policies of Article 11, Rule 3 provides, in pertinent part, that Article 11, Rule 3 shall not apply to orders sent or received through the Matching System or through any other electronic system that the Exchange expressly recognizes as providing the required information in a format acceptable to the Exchange. The purpose of current paragraph .03 is to clarify that Participants that submit or receive orders through Exchange-approved electronic systems are not required to maintain a separate record of the information required under Article 11, Rule 3. However, the Exchange believes that paragraph .03 could be misconstrued as to exclude orders sent or received through an Exchange-approved electronic system from the scope of Article 11, Rule 3 entirely, which is incorrect. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to amend paragraph .03 to provide that a Participant that sends or receives orders, cancellations and executions, as applicable, through the Matching System or through any other electronic systems that the Exchange expressly recognizes as providing the required information in a format acceptable to the Exchange is not required to maintain a separate record of such orders, cancellations and executions.
The Exchange proposes to require IBs to record certain information
Moreover, the Exchange proposes to amend Article 11, Rule 3(b)(27)
The Exchange also proposes to adopt Article 17, Rule 7 (Broker Back Office System) to describe the BBOS. Proposed Rule 7(a) provides that BBOS is a trade management system developed and maintained by the Exchange that permits IBs to input certain information and to generate reports therefrom. The rule also states that BBOS is an automated system approved by the Exchange for the purposes of amended Rule 3(a) above.
Proposed Rule 7(b) provides that users of the BBOS are responsible for entering all transaction, order and other information into the system as required by CHX Rules. The rule further states that as operator of BBOS, the Exchange retains information entered into BBOS on behalf of the user in conformity with applicable rules and regulations. The rule then provides that the Exchange provides such information to IBs in a format designated by the Exchange to assist IBs: In conducting research regarding their own trading activities; in responding to requests for information from customers, regulatory authorities or by process of law; and for other legitimate business purposes. The rule also states that the Exchange charges IBs the fees specified in its published Schedule of Fees and Assessments for the collection and retrieval of such information.
Proposed Rule 7(c) lists the specific information regarding component orders and trades related to QCT Crosses that IBs are required to enter into the BBOS. Specifically, proposed Rule 7(c) provides that for all orders and trades described under amended Article 11, Rule 3(b)(27), IBs must record the following information into the BBOS, as applicable: (1) QCT Type; (2) Related Exchange; (3) Print Time; (4) Expiration Year; (5) Expiration Month; (6) Price; (7) Contracts; (8) Strike Price; (9) Call/Put; (10) Volume; and (11) Short Sale Indicator.
In addition, in order to contemplate the proposed IB responsibilities related to the QCT Crosses, the Exchange proposes to amend Article 17, Rule 3(a) to broaden its scope so as to provide that each IB must enter all orders it receives for execution and any other information as required under Article 11 into an automated system approved by the Exchange. Correspondingly, the Exchange proposes to amend the header to Article 17, Rule 3(a) to state “Entry of orders and related information into an automated system.” Given that amended Article 11, Rule 3(b)(27) may require the recording of information related to orders that the IB did not actually receive or otherwise handle, the Exchange believes that broadening the scope of Article 17, Rule 3(a) is necessary, as it currently only applies to orders received by the IB.
Current Article 17, Rule 3(c) provides that each IB must maintain separate accounts for handling (1) agency transactions; (2) principal transactions; and (3) transactions involving errors, and must enter transactions into the appropriate accounts. The Exchange proposes to amend the rule to clarify that the required accounts relate to special recordkeeping accounts that must be maintained at CHX, which is necessary for the Exchange to adequately surveil and examine the relevant IB trading activity, as well as to provide additional detail as to the types of transactions that must be recorded in the respective accounts. Accordingly, amended Article 17, Rule 3(c) provides that each IB must establish and maintain separate CHX recordkeeping accounts at the Exchange for the sole purpose of recording the following activity: (1) An agency recordkeeping account for agency transactions; (2) a principal recordkeeping account for principal and riskless principal
In the event the proposed rule change is approved by the Commission, the proposed rule change shall be operative pursuant to notice by the Exchange to Participants.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act in general,
Specifically, the Exchange believes that permitting only IBs to submit QCT Crosses to the Matching System would protect investors and the public interest, as IBs have historically been the only Participants that have submitted QCT Crosses and, thus, have the necessary experience in ensuring that QCT Crosses are submitted to the Matching System in a manner consistent with CHX Rules and the QCT Exemption. Moreover, given that the Surveillance and Examination program as applied to QCTs is optimized with respect to the submission of QCT Crosses by IBs, the Exchange believes that the proposal would permit the Exchange to more effectively monitor the use of QCT Crosses by ensuring that all QCT activity on the Exchange is monitored via the same surveillance and examination protocols, which further the protection of investors and the public interest.
The Exchange also believes that permitting only IBs to submit QCT Crosses to the Matching System would not result in unfair discrimination among Participants. Initially, the Exchange notes that any Participant that has satisfied all Exchange requirements to operate as an IB may register as an IB,
In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposed IB recordkeeping requirements for component orders related to QCT Crosses executed within the Matching System and the requirement that such information be entered into the BBOS would protect investors and the public interest by requiring the entry of more detailed information, which will enhance the ability of the Exchange to monitor compliance by the IBs with CHX Rules and the QCT Exemption.
Also, the Exchange believes that the non-substantive amendments to the operation of the cross order type and Cross With Size handling under Article 1, Rule 2(a)(2), Article 1, Rule 2(g)(1) and Article 20, Rule 8(e); the recordkeeping requirements under Article 11, Rule 3; and the IB recordkeeping account requirements under Article 17, Rule 3(c), clarifies the scope and meaning of those rules, which furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(1)
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change enhances the Exchange's Surveillance and Examination program as applied to QCTs and otherwise clarifies existing CHX Rules. Thus, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change raises any competitive issues.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On June 19, 2017, the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA Rule 7730, among other things, sets forth the TRACE data products offered by FINRA. FINRA proposed to amend Rule 7730 to make available a new Security Activity Report, which will provide aggregated statistics by security for TRACE-Eligible Securities that are corporate or agency bonds (collectively “CA Bonds”). FINRA stated that the Security Activity Report will include basic descriptive elements for each CA Bond, such as the issuer's name and the security's coupon and maturity date, as well as aggregate transaction statistics. These statistics will include par value volume and number of customer buy transactions, par value volume and number of customer sell transactions, and par value volume and number of inter-dealer transactions.
The Security Activity Report also will provide information regarding the number of unique MPIDs that report transactions in a particular security. The report will provide the aggregate activity of the five most active MPIDs in each CA Bond and the number of unique MPIDs for disseminated uncapped and capped transactions.
FINRA believes that the Security Activity Report might be useful for both business and regulatory purposes. For example, FINRA noted that members might use the information provided in the Security Activity Report to better ascertain their relative trading activity in particular CA Bonds. Interested parties also could use the information in the Security Activity Report in connection with regulatory obligations, such as assessing, classifying, and reviewing the liquidity risk of individual securities pursuant to Rule 22e-4 under the Investment Company Act.
FINRA has stated that it will announce in a
As previously noted, the Commission received two comment letters
This commenter also believed there would be confidentiality concerns if market concentration percentages were not aggregated across the top five MPIDs for each particular security.
Finally, this commenter stated that it would be beneficial for FINRA to publicly share a draft template of the Security Activity Report so that market participants could educate themselves on the format and contents of the report.
After careful consideration, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities association.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “The Metropolis in Latin America, 1830-1930,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Getty Research Institute at the Getty Center, in Los Angeles, California, from on or about September 16, 2017, until on or about January 7, 2018; the Americas Society, in New York, New York, from on or about February 28, 2018, until on or about June 24, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact Julie Simpson in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6467) or email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to September 11, 2017.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
Form DS-3035 is used to determine the eligibility of a J-1 visa holder for a waiver of the two-year foreign residence requirement.
Applicants will complete the DS-3035 online at
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 89 individuals for an exemption from the prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) operating a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals with ITDM to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2017-0039 using any of the following methods:
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Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the FMCSRs for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the two-year period.
The 89 individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the diabetes prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding diabetes found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) states that a person
Has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus currently requiring insulin for control.
The Agency established the current requirement for diabetes in 1970 because several risk studies indicated that drivers with diabetes had a higher rate of crash involvement than the general population.
FMCSA established its diabetes exemption program, based on the Agency's July 2000 study entitled “A Report to Congress on the Feasibility of a Program to Qualify Individuals with Insulin-Treated Diabetes Mellitus to Operate in Interstate Commerce as Directed by the Transportation Act for the 21st Century.” The report concluded that a safe and practicable protocol to allow some drivers with ITDM to operate CMVs is feasible. The September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441),
FMCSA notes that section 4129 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible and Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users requires the Secretary to revise its diabetes exemption program established on September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441). The revision must provide for individual assessment of drivers with diabetes mellitus, and be consistent with the criteria described in section 4018 of the Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (49 U.S.C. 31305).
Section 4129 requires: (1) Elimination of the requirement for 3 years of experience operating CMVs while being treated with insulin; and (2) establishment of a specified minimum period of insulin use to demonstrate stable control of diabetes before being allowed to operate a CMV.
In response to section 4129, FMCSA made immediate revisions to the diabetes exemption program established by the September 3, 2003 notice. FMCSA discontinued use of the three year driving experience and fulfilled the requirements of section 4129 while continuing to ensure that operation of CMVs by drivers with ITDM will achieve the requisite level of safety required of all exemptions granted under 49 U.S.C. 31136 (e).
Section 4129(d) also directed FMCSA to ensure that drivers of CMVs with ITDM are not held to a higher standard than other drivers, with the exception of limited operating, monitoring and medical requirements that are deemed medically necessary.
The FMCSA concluded that all of the operating, monitoring and medical requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified, were in compliance with section 4129(d). Therefore, all of the requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified by the notice in the
Mr. Ackerson, 41, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ackerson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ackerson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Arizona.
Mr. Albright, 24, has had ITDM since 1999. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Albright understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Albright meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Alduende, 59, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Alduende understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Alduende meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New Jersey.
Mr. Applewhite, 37, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Applewhite understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Applewhite meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Virginia.
Mr. Bacon, 53, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bacon understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bacon meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Washington.
Mr. Ballard, 29, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ballard understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ballard meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Indiana.
Mr. Bingham, 42, has had ITDM since 1988. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bingham understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bingham meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Montana.
Mr. Boone, 44, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Boone understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Boone meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Idaho.
Mr. Boskat, 63, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Boskat understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Boskat meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New York.
Mr. Bruton, 29, has had ITDM since 2001. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bruton understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bruton meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Bryan, 24, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bryan understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bryan meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Illinois.
Mr. Burciaga, 52, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Burciaga understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Burciaga meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Texas.
Mr. Burkholder, 62, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Burkholder understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Burkholder meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Illinois.
Mr. Butcher, 54, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Butcher understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using
Mr. Chapman, 57, has had ITDM since 1990. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Chapman understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Chapman meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from California.
Mr. Davis, 46, has had ITDM since 1995. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Davis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Davis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Tennessee.
Mr. Davis, 57, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Davis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Davis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Virginia.
Mr. Davis, 75, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Davis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Davis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Missouri.
Mr. Dunnuck, 48, has had ITDM since 1991. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Dunnuck understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Dunnuck meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from California.
Mr. Edge, 61, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Edge understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Edge meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Alabama.
Mr. Elgard, 66, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Elgard understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Elgard meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New Jersey.
Mr. Espinoza, 67, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Espinoza understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Espinoza meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from California.
Ms. Estes, 41, has had ITDM since 1983. Her endocrinologist examined her in 2017 and certified that she has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without
Mr. Fant, 55, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Fant understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Fant meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Texas.
Mr. Featherly, 54, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Featherly understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Featherly meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New York.
Mr. Fogg, 54, has had ITDM since 2005. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Fogg understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Fogg meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New Jersey.
Mr. Free, 49, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Free understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Free meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Freeman, 62, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Freeman understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Freeman meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Texas.
Mr. Freiermuth, 66, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Freiermuth understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Freiermuth meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Minnesota.
Mr. Frith, 70, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Frith understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Frith meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. George, 41, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. George understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. George meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Texas.
Mr. Gitz, 63, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Gitz understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Gitz meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Minnesota.
Mr. Glaster, 63, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Glaster understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Glaster meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New Mexico.
Mr. Habel, 54, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Habel understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Habel meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Idaho.
Mr. Hansen, 62, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hansen understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hansen meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Idaho.
Mr. Hanson, 62, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hanson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hanson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from New Jersey.
Mr. Hoeke, 59, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hoeke understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hoeke meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Hudson, 60, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hudson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hudson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Illinois.
Mr. Ilk, 47, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ilk understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ilk meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Indiana.
Mr. Jessop, 69, has had ITDM since 2006. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jessop understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV
Mr. Kelly, 30, has had ITDM since 2001. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kelly understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kelly meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from North Carolina.
Ms. Kipper, 60, has had ITDM since 2011. Her endocrinologist examined her in 2017 and certified that she has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. Her endocrinologist certifies that Ms. Kipper understands diabetes management and monitoring has stable control of her diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Ms. Kipper meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). Her ophthalmologist examined her in 2016 and certified that she does not have diabetic retinopathy. She holds an operator's license from Missouri.
Mr. Kitchens, 51, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kitchens understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kitchens meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Georgia.
Mr. Knight, 56, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Knight understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Knight meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Wyoming.
Mr. Kobayashi, 42, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kobayashi understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kobayashi meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Oregon.
Mr. Kukowski, 56, has had ITDM since 2004. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kukowski understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kukowski meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Lay, 70, has had ITDM since 1998. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lay understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lay meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Washington.
Mr. Lorenzi, 57, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lorenzi understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lorenzi meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Washington.
Mr. Mahoney, 26, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the
Mr. Martin, 59, has had ITDM since 1997. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Martin understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Martin meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New Jersey.
Mr. McCloskey, 58, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McCloskey understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McCloskey meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Nebraska.
Mr. McCraw, 70, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McCraw understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McCraw meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from North Carolina.
Mr. McDowell, 55, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McDowell understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McDowell meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from North Carolina.
Mr. McKee, 44, has had ITDM since 2000. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McKee understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McKee meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Missouri.
Mr. McKenna, 35, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McKenna understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McKenna meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Massachusetts.
Mr. Miller, 59, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Miller understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Miller meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Wisconsin.
Mr. Mouzone, 57, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mouzone understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV
Mr. Mulvihill, 54, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mulvihill understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mulvihill meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Nixon, 61, has had ITDM since 2005. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Nixon understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Nixon meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Indiana.
Mr. Njoroge, 40, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Njoroge understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Njoroge meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Oakliff, 66, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Oakliff understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Oakliff meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Connecticut.
Mr. Perez, 64, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Perez understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Perez meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from New York.
Mr. Peterson, 61, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Peterson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Peterson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class C CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Predmore, 63, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Predmore understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Predmore meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Ray, 42, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ray understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ray meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Rhode Island.
Mr. Reynoso, 52, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in
Mr. Rhoten, 59, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Rhoten understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Rhoten meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Maryland.
Mr. Rosado, 39, has had ITDM since 1987. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Rosado understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Rosado meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative and stable proliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Rosane, 34, has had ITDM since 2001. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Rosane understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Rosane meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Nebraska.
Mr. Rosenberg, 33, has had ITDM since 1987. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Rosenberg understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Rosenberg meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Roth, 49, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Roth understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Roth meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Indiana.
Mr. Schlachter, 44, has had ITDM since 1999. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Schlachter understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Schlachter meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Indiana.
Mr. Schneeberger, 29, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Schneeberger understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Schneeberger meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New York.
Mr. Seiple, 57, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Seiple understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Seiple meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy.
Mr. Sheeran, 61, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Sheeran understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Sheeran meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New York.
Mr. Smith, 53, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Smith understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Smith meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Rhode Island.
Mr. Smith, 55, has had ITDM since 2007. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Smith understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Smith meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Steck, 64, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Steck understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Steck meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Missouri.
Mr. Stirling, 51, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Stirling understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Stirling meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Nevada.
Mr. Thompson, 49, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Thompson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Thompson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Toledo, 64, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Toledo understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Toledo meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Oregon.
Mr. Toms, 67, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Toms understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Toms meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Vang, 52, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Vang understands diabetes management and monitoring,
Mr. Wainright, 49, has had ITDM since 1997. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wainright understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wainright meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from North Carolina.
Mr. Warren, 35, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Warren understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Warren meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Weinhofer, 59, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Weinhofer understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Weinhofer meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Whetzel, 73, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Whetzel understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Whetzel meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Yellow Boy, 47, has had ITDM since 2017. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Yellow Boy understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Yellow Boy meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Zelesket, 60, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2017 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last five years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Zelesket understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Zelesket meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2017 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class E CDL from Michigan.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the date's section of the notice.
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and materials received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions of 149 individuals from its prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) from operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. The exemptions enable these individuals with ITDM to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates stated in the discussions below.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, 202-366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On May 26, 2017, FMCSA published a notice announcing its decision to renew exemptions for 149 individuals from the insulin-treated diabetes mellitus prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) to operate a CMV in interstate commerce and requested comments from the public (82 FR 24434). The public comment period ended on June 26, 2017, and no comments were received.
As stated in the previous notice, FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that renewing these exemptions would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding diabetes found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus currently requiring insulin for control.
FMCSA received no comments in this preceding.
Based upon its evaluation of the 149 renewal exemption applications and that no comments were received, FMCSA confirms its' decision to exempt the following drivers from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3):
As of May 8, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315,
David G. Stookey (WA) has satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (79 FR 10612; 79 FR 27685).
This driver was included in docket No. FMCSA-2014-0012. The exemption is effective as of May 8, 2016, and will expire on May 8, 2018.
As of May 11, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following ten individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (77 FR 17111; 77 FR 27841):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2012-0042. Their exemptions are effective as of May 11, 2016, and will expire on May 11, 2018.
As of May 14, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 26 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (79 FR 2785; 79 FR 10612):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2014-0012. Their exemptions are effective as of May 14, 2016, and will expire on May 14, 2018.
As of May 16, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 29 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2014-0013. Their exemptions are effective as of May 16, 2016, and will expire on May 16, 2018.
As of May 17, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 30 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (75 FR 13647; 75 FR 27616; 77 FR 18302; 77 FR 29446):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-2009-0322; FMCSA-2012-0043. Their exemptions are effective as of May 17, 2016, and will expire on May 17, 2018.
As of May 21, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 52 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (75 FR 14652; 75 FR 28684; 79 FR 18400; 79 FR 29262):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-2010-0051; FMCSA-2014-0014. Their exemptions are effective as of May 21, 2016, and will expire on May 21, 2018.
As of May 23, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, Derald E. Moenning (NE) has satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (79 FR 22573; 79 FR 35855).
This driver was included in docket No. FMCSA-2014-0015. The exemption is effective as of May 23, 2016, and will expire on May 23, 2018.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 36 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in
The exemptions were granted June 6, 2017. The exemptions expire on June 6, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at
On May 4, 2017, FMCSA published a notice of receipt of exemption applications from certain individuals, and requested comments from the public (82 FR 20962). That notice listed 36 applicants' case histories. The 36 individuals applied for exemptions from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), for drivers who operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for a two year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the two year period. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated the 36 applications on their merits and made a determination to grant exemptions to each of them.
The vision requirement in the FMCSRs provides:
A person is physically qualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber (49 CFR 391.41(b)(10)).
FMCSA recognizes that some drivers do not meet the vision requirement but have adapted their driving to accommodate their limitation and demonstrated their ability to drive safely. The 36 exemption applicants listed in this notice are in this category. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons, including age-related macular degeneration, amblyopia, central vision loss, chorioretinal scarring, choroidal neovascular membrane, coats disease, complete loss of vision, degenerated globe, enucleation, exotropia, glaucoma, macular scar, optic atrophy, optic nerve damage, prosthetic eye, retinal detachment, and scarring. In most cases, their eye conditions were not recently developed. Twenty-four of the applicants were either born with their vision impairments or have had them since childhood.
The 12 individuals that sustained their vision conditions as adults have had it for a range of 4 to 36 years.
Although each applicant has one eye which does not meet the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), each has at least 20/40 corrected vision in the other eye, and in a doctor's opinion, has sufficient vision to perform all the tasks necessary to operate a CMV. Doctors' opinions are supported by the applicants' possession of valid commercial driver's licenses (CDLs) or non-CDLs to operate CMVs. Before issuing CDLs, States subject drivers to knowledge and skills tests designed to evaluate their qualifications to operate a CMV.
All of these applicants satisfied the testing requirements for their State of residence. By meeting State licensing requirements, the applicants demonstrated their ability to operate a CMV, with their limited vision, to the satisfaction of the State.
While possessing a valid CDL or non-CDL, these 36 drivers have been authorized to drive a CMV in intrastate commerce, even though their vision disqualified them from driving in interstate commerce. They have driven CMVs with their limited vision in careers ranging for 3 to 50 years. In the past three years, one driver was involved in a crash and three drivers were convicted of moving violations in a CMV.
The qualifications, experience, and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the May 4, 2017 notice (82 FR 20962).
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. Without the exemption, applicants will continue to be restricted to intrastate driving. With the exemption, applicants can drive in interstate commerce. Thus, our analysis focuses on whether an equal or greater level of safety is likely to be achieved by permitting each of these drivers to drive in interstate commerce as opposed to restricting him or her to driving in intrastate commerce.
To evaluate the effect of these exemptions on safety, FMCSA considered the medical reports about the applicants' vision as well as their driving records and experience with the vision deficiency.
To qualify for an exemption from the vision requirement, FMCSA requires a person to present verifiable evidence that he/she has driven a commercial vehicle safely with the vision deficiency for the past three years. Recent driving performance is especially important in evaluating future safety, according to several research studies designed to correlate past and future driving performance. Results of these studies support the principle that the best predictor of future performance by a driver is his/her past record of crashes and traffic violations. Copies of the studies may be found at Docket Number FMCSA-1998-3637.
FMCSA believes it can properly apply the principle to monocular drivers, because data from the Federal Highway Administration's (FHWA) former waiver study program clearly demonstrate the driving performance of experienced monocular drivers in the program is
The first major research correlating past and future performance was done in England by Greenwood and Yule in 1920. Subsequent studies, building on that model, concluded that crash rates for the same individual exposed to certain risks for two different time periods vary only slightly (See Bates and Neyman, University of California Publications in Statistics, April 1952). Other studies demonstrated theories of predicting crash proneness from crash history coupled with other factors. These factors—such as age, sex, geographic location, mileage driven and conviction history—are used every day by insurance companies and motor vehicle bureaus to predict the probability of an individual experiencing future crashes (See Weber, Donald C., “Accident Rate Potential: An Application of Multiple Regression Analysis of a Poisson Process,” Journal of American Statistical Association, June 1971). A 1964 California Driver Record Study prepared by the California Department of Motor Vehicles concluded that the best overall crash predictor for both concurrent and nonconcurrent events is the number of single convictions. This study used three consecutive years of data, comparing the experiences of drivers in the first two years with their experiences in the final year.
Applying principles from these studies to the past three year record of the 36 applicants, one driver was involved in a crash and three drivers were convicted of moving violations in a CMV. All the applicants achieved a record of safety while driving with their vision impairment, demonstrating the likelihood that they have adapted their driving skills to accommodate their condition. As the applicants' ample driving histories with their vision deficiencies are good predictors of future performance, FMCSA concludes their ability to drive safely can be projected into the future.
We believe that the applicants' intrastate driving experience and history provide an adequate basis for predicting their ability to drive safely in interstate commerce. Intrastate driving, like interstate operations, involves substantial driving on highways on the interstate system and on other roads built to interstate standards. Moreover, driving in congested urban areas exposes the driver to more pedestrian and vehicular traffic than exists on interstate highways. Faster reaction to traffic and traffic signals is generally required because distances between them are more compact. These conditions tax visual capacity and driver response just as intensely as interstate driving conditions. The veteran drivers in this proceeding have operated CMVs safely under those conditions for at least three years, most for much longer. Their experience and driving records lead us to believe that each applicant is capable of operating in interstate commerce as safely as he/she has been performing in intrastate commerce. Consequently, FMCSA finds that exempting these applicants from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption. For this reason, the Agency is granting the exemptions for the two year period allowed by 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to the 36 applicants listed in the notice of May 4, 2017 (82 FR 20962).
We recognize that the vision of an applicant may change and affect his/her ability to operate a CMV as safely as in the past. As a condition of the exemption, therefore, FMCSA will impose requirements on the 36 individuals consistent with the grandfathering provisions applied to drivers who participated in the Agency's vision waiver program.
Those requirements are found at 49 CFR 391.64(b) and include the following: (1) That each individual be physically examined every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must have a copy of the certification when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
FMCSA received one comment that is outside the scope of this proceeding and will not be addressed in this notice. This one comment was from Mr. Reginald Jackson asking “why does any moving violations have to stay on a CDL Driver record for three years if no one was injured or lost there [sic] life or the CDL Driver did not receive a citation for careless or reckless driving?” He also asked “If the citation must [be] on the drivers record why it cannot [sic] be for one year for a speeding ticket and not three years? [sic]” Mr. Jackson suggested “changing the law and shorting the time down to 1 year? [sic] ” He also suggested “the driver can pay [a] 300 dollar fine and not have anything be paced on his or her mvr [sic] record.”
Based upon its evaluation of the 36 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10):
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if: (1) The person fails to comply with
If the exemption is still effective at the end of the two year period, the person may apply to FMCSA for a renewal under procedures in effect at that time.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 42 individuals from the prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) from operating a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in interstate commerce. The exemptions enable these individuals with ITDM to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were applicable on July 7, 2017. The exemptions expire on July 7, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On June 6, 2017, FMCSA published a notice announcing receipt of applications from 42 individuals requesting an exemption from diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) and requested comments from the public (82 FR 26211). The public comment period ended on July 6, 2017, and no comments were received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that granting the exemptions to these individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding diabetes found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person:
Has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus currently requiring insulin for control.
FMCSA received no comments in this proceeding.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the diabetes standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows the applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The Agency's decision regarding these exemption applications is based on the program eligibility criteria and an individualized assessment of information submitted by each applicant.
These 42 applicants have had ITDM over a range of 1 to 25 years. These applicants report no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness or seizure, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning symptoms, in the past 12 months and no recurrent (two or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the past five years. In each case, an endocrinologist verified that the driver has demonstrated a willingness to properly monitor and manage his/her diabetes mellitus, received education related to diabetes management, and is on a stable insulin regimen. These drivers report no other disqualifying conditions, including diabetes related complications. Each meets the vision requirement at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10).
The qualifications, experience, and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the June 6, 2017,
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
The terms and conditions of the exemption are provided to the applicants in the exemption document and includes the following: (1) Each driver must submit a quarterly monitoring checklist completed by the treating endocrinologist as well as an annual checklist with a comprehensive medical evaluation; (2) each driver must report within two business days of occurrence, all episodes of severe hypoglycemia, significant complications, or inability to manage diabetes; also, any involvement in an accident or any other adverse event in a CMV or personal vehicle, whether or not it is related to an episode of hypoglycemia; (3) each driver must provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the Medical Examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (4) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keeping a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this
Based upon its evaluation of the 42 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), subject to the requirements cited above:
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 41 individuals from its rule prohibiting persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) from operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. The exemptions enable these individuals to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were effective on May 23, 2017. The exemptions expire on May 23, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On April 21, 2017, FMCSA published a notice of receipt of Federal diabetes exemption applications from 41 individuals and requested comments from the public (82 FR 18812). The public comment period closed on May 22, 2017, and no comments were received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of the 41 applicants and determined that granting the exemptions to these individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3).
The Agency established the current requirement for diabetes in 1970 because several risk studies indicated that drivers with diabetes had a higher rate of crash involvement than the general population. The diabetes rule provides that “A person is physically qualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus currently requiring insulin for control” (49 CFR 391.41(b)(3)).
FMCSA established its diabetes exemption program, based on the Agency's July 2000 study entitled “A Report to Congress on the Feasibility of a Program to Qualify Individuals with Insulin-Treated Diabetes Mellitus to Operate in Interstate Commerce as Directed by the Transportation Act for the 21st Century.” The report concluded that a safe and practicable protocol to allow some drivers with ITDM to operate CMVs is feasible. The September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441),
These 41 applicants have had ITDM over a range of 1 to 28 years. These applicants report no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness or seizure, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning symptoms, in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the past 5 years. In each case, an endocrinologist verified that the driver has demonstrated a willingness to properly monitor and manage his/her diabetes mellitus, received education related to diabetes management, and is on a stable insulin regimen. These drivers report no other disqualifying conditions, including diabetes-related complications. Each meets the vision requirement at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10).
The qualifications and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the April 21, 2017,
FMCSA received no comments in this proceeding.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows the applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
To evaluate the effect of these exemptions on safety, FMCSA considered medical reports about the applicants' ITDM and vision, and reviewed the treating endocrinologists' medical opinion related to the ability of the driver to safely operate a CMV while using insulin.
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
The terms and conditions of the exemption will be provided to the applicants in the exemption document and they include the following: (1) That each individual submit a quarterly monitoring checklist completed by the treating endocrinologist as well as an annual checklist with a comprehensive medical evaluation; (2) that each individual reports within 2 business days of occurrence, all episodes of severe hypoglycemia, significant complications, or inability to manage diabetes; also, any involvement in an accident or any other adverse event in a CMV or personal vehicle, whether or not it is related to an episode of hypoglycemia; (3) that each individual provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (4) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the certification when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
Based upon its evaluation of the 41 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3):
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 each exemption is valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315. If the exemption is still effective at the end of the 2-year period, the person may apply to FMCSA for a renewal under procedures in effect at that time.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 22 individuals for an exemption from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) to operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions will enable these individuals to operate CMVs in interstate commerce without meeting the vision requirement in one eye.
Comments must be received on or before September 11, 2017.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2017-0022 using any of the following methods:
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Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the FMCSRs for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the two-year period.
The 22 individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b) (10). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting an exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding vision found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person:
Has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal Meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing standard red, green, and amber.
In July 1992, the Agency first published the criteria for the Vision Waiver Program, which listed the conditions and reporting standards that CMV drivers approved for participation would need to meet (Qualification of Drivers; Vision Waivers, 57 FR 31458, July 16, 1992). The current Vision Exemption Program was established in 1998, following the enactment of amendments to the statutes governing exemptions made by § 4007 of the Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (TEA-21), Public Law 105-178, 112 Stat. 107, 401 (June 9, 1998). Vision exemptions are considered under the procedures established in 49 CFR part 381 subpart C, on a case-by-case basis upon application by CMV drivers who do not meet the vision standards of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10).
To qualify for an exemption from the vision requirement, FMCSA requires a person to present verifiable evidence that he/she has driven a commercial vehicle safely with the vision deficiency for the past three years. Recent driving performance is especially important in evaluating future safety, according to several research studies designed to correlate past and future driving performance. Results of these studies support the principle that the best predictor of future performance by a driver is his/her past record of crashes and traffic violations. Copies of the studies may be found at Docket Number FMCSA-1998-3637.
FMCSA believes it can properly apply the principle to monocular drivers, because data from the Federal Highway Administration's (FHWA) former waiver study program clearly demonstrated the driving performance of experienced monocular drivers in the program is better than that of all CMV drivers collectively (See 61 FR 13338, 13345, March 26, 1996). The fact that experienced monocular drivers demonstrated safe driving records in the waiver program supports a conclusion that other monocular drivers, meeting the same qualifying conditions as those required by the waiver program, are also likely to have adapted to their vision deficiency and will continue to operate safely.
The first major research correlating past and future performance was done in England by Greenwood and Yule in 1920. Subsequent studies, building on that model, concluded that crash rates for the same individual exposed to certain risks for two different time periods vary only slightly (See Bates and Neyman, University of California Publications in Statistics, April 1952). Other studies demonstrated theories of predicting crash proneness from crash history coupled with other factors. These factors—such as age, sex, geographic location, mileage driven and conviction history—are used every day by insurance companies and motor vehicle bureaus to predict the probability of an individual experiencing future crashes (See Weber, Donald C., “Accident Rate Potential: An Application of Multiple Regression Analysis of a Poisson Process,” Journal of American Statistical Association, June 1971). A 1964 California Driver Record Study prepared by the California Department of Motor Vehicles concluded that the best overall crash predictor for both concurrent and nonconcurrent events is the number of single convictions. This study used three consecutive years of data, comparing the experiences of drivers in the first two years with their experiences in the final year.
Mr. Bennett, 58, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/100. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion, Mr. Bennett has sufficient vision to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Bennett reported that he has driven straight trucks for 29 years, accumulating 348,000 miles. He holds a Class CA CDL from Michigan. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Bliss, 56, has a prosthetic left eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “It is my medical opinion that Ray has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Bliss reported that he has driven straight trucks for 34 years, accumulating 442,000 miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Minnesota. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Boryk, 61, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/200, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “. . . Mr. Boryk meets the visual requirements for operating a commercial vehicle . . .” Mr. Boryk reported that he has driven buses for 16 years,
Mr. Burt, 29, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/150, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “Jonathan has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Burt reported that he has driven straight trucks for three years, accumulating 30,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for seven years, accumulating 525,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Vermont. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Cooper, 50, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/15, and in his left eye, 20/70. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “The patient, David Cooper, has sufficient vision to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Cooper reported that he has driven straight trucks for 11 years, accumulating 6,600 miles. He holds an operator's license from West Virginia. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Deschepper, 31, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “My understanding of a CDL license is that it requires 20/30 visual acuity or better of at least one eye with normal color vision and peripheral vision. It is my opinion that Nick passes all of these requirements and is safe to operate with a CDL license.” Mr. Deschepper reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for eight years, accumulating 720,000 miles. He holds a Class A3 CDL from South Dakota. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Devitz, 34, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/50, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, Mr. Devitz has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle, especially since he has been doing so for so many years.” Mr. Devitz reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 12 years, accumulating 780,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Ferguson, 55, has a scotoma in his right eye due to a traumatic incident during birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/300, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion, John has a sufficient visual acuity and visual field to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Ferguson reported that he has driven straight trucks for five years, accumulating 390,000 miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Fittipaldi, 37, has complete loss of vision in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, no light perception. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion, Mr. Fittipaldi has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Fittipaldi reported that he has driven straight trucks for 21 years, accumulating 210,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Horgdal, 68, has had amblyopia in his right eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/400, and in his left eye, 20/30. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “. . . I feel he has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Horgdal reported that he has driven straight trucks for 26 years, accumulating 1.5 million miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Iowa. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. LeMonds, 53, has a phthisis bulbi in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in 2008. The visual acuity in his right eye is hand motion, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “My medical opinion is that he has sufficient vision to operate a commercial vehicle without difficulty.” Mr. LeMonds reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 34 years, accumulating two million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Washington. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Marin, 26, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/200, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “Mr. Marin's left eye has sufficient visual acuity, color vision and visual field as required for commercial driving.” Mr. Marin reported that he has driven straight trucks for three years, accumulating 1,500 miles. He holds an operator's license from New Jersey. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. McNaughton, 53, has had complete loss of vision in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is no light perception, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “He has no deficiencies in color vision, and I feel he has sufficient vision to perform driving tasks required for a commercial vehicle.” Mr. McNaughton reported that he has driven straight trucks for 30 years, accumulating 900,000 miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Iowa. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Neofotistos, 55, has a macular scar in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is counting fingers, and in his left eye, 20/25. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, Louis has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Neofotistos reported that he has driven straight trucks for 38 years, accumulating 45,600 miles. He holds a Class BM CDL from
Mr. Rodriguez-Espinoza, 25, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is counting fingers, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “I feel that Mr. Rodriguez would have no problems performing the tasks required to appropriately operate a commercial vehicle despite the poor vision in his right eye.” Mr. Rodriguez-Espinoza reported that he has driven straight trucks for eight years, accumulating 80,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from California. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Rupert, 54, has had a central retinal vein occlusion in his right eye since 2012. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/200, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion James has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Rupert reported that he has driven straight trucks for 37 years, accumulating 1.33 million miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 35 years, accumulating 175,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from California. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Schmidt, 31, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, counting fingers. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion, he has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Schmidt reported that he has driven straight trucks for four years, accumulating 25,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for four years, accumulating 25,000 miles. He holds a Class ABCD CDL from Wisconsin. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Siebe, 45, has complete loss of vision in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is no light perception, and in his left eye, 20/15. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “He has a nearsighted left eye that corrects to 20/15, and he has sufficient vision to perform the driving test required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Siebe reported that he has driven straight trucks for 19 years, accumulating 285,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Kentucky. His driving record for the last three years shows one crash and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Stilson, 54, has had amblyopia in his right eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/70, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “He is also able to recognize color and in my opinion is safe to operate a commercial vehicle over interstate lines. Even though he is amblyopic OD his peripheral awareness is normal on his right side.” Mr. Stilson reported that he has driven straight trucks for five years, accumulating 125,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 32 years, accumulating four million miles. He holds a Class AM CDL from Wyoming. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Wooton, 39, has a macular scar in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2017, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my opinion, this individual has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate commercial vehicles.” Mr. Wooton reported that he has driven straight trucks for six years, accumulating 270,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for four years, accumulating 420,000 miles. He holds a Class DA CDL from Kentucky. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Young, 58, has fibrosis in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, counting fingers. Following an examination in 2017, his optometrist stated, “It is my opinion that Mr. Willie Young has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Young reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 17 years, accumulating 1.19 million miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Texas. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Zuniga, 41, has retinal scarring in his left eye due to a traumatic incident in 1994. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/150. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “In my opinion Mr. Zuniga has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Zuniga reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for seven years, accumulating 350,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Texas. His driving record for the last three years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments and material received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the dates section of the notice.
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and materials received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for its review and approval, and invites public comment. FMCSA requests approval to extend an existing ICR titled, “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery.” This ICR allows for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communication between FMCSA and its customers and stakeholders. It also allows feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment before FMCSA submits its request to OMB.
We must receive your comments on or before October 10, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2017-0138 using any of the following methods:
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Mr. Martin Walker, Division Chief, FMCSA, Office of Research. Telephone (202) 385-2364; or email
The proposed future information collection activity provides a means to garner qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with the Administration's commitment to improving service delivery. By qualitative feedback we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study. This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. The information collected from our customers and stakeholders will help ensure that users have an effective, efficient and satisfying experience with FMCSA's programs.
The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on the Agency's services will be unavailable.
The Agency will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Information gathered will be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the agency;
• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces that the Information Collection Request (ICR) abstracted below has been forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and the expected burden. The agency did not receive comments on the
Comments must be submitted on or before September 11, 2017.
Send comments, within 30 days, to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention NHTSA Desk Officer.
Mary T. Byrd, Office of Behavioral Safety Research (NPD-320), National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., W46-466, Washington, DC 20590. Ms. Byrd's phone number is 202-366-5595 and her email address is
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) proposes to conduct a nationally representative web-based survey using the Growth for Knowledge (GfK) KnowledgePanel, a probability-based web panel that has
• Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
A comment to OMB is most effective if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.
44 U.S.C. Section 3506(c)(2)(A).
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |