Page Range | 24001-24217 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
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83 FR 24047 - Proposed Amendment and Establishment of Multiple Air Traffic Service (ATS) Routes; Western United States | |
83 FR 24051 - Ballast Water Management-Annual Reporting Requirement | |
83 FR 24217 - Honoring the Victims of the Tragedy in Santa Fe, Texas | |
83 FR 24215 - Armed Forces Day, 2018 | |
83 FR 24213 - World Trade Week, 2018 | |
83 FR 24211 - Emergency Medical Services Week, 2018 | |
83 FR 24209 - National Safe Boating Week, 2018 | |
83 FR 24001 - Prohibiting Certain Additional Transactions With Respect to Venezuela | |
83 FR 24134 - Accreditation and Approval of AmSpec LLC (Penuelas, PR) as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
83 FR 24106 - Registration Review; Draft Human Health and/or Ecological Risk Assessments for Several Pesticides; Notice of Availability | |
83 FR 24104 - Advance Notice of Public Meeting; Technical Issues-Formaldehyde Emission Standards for Composite Wood Products | |
83 FR 24110 - Certain New Chemical Substances; Receipt and Status Information for January 2018 | |
83 FR 24108 - Registration Review Proposed Interim Decisions for Several Pesticides; Notice of Availability | |
83 FR 24036 - Pydiflumetofen; Pesticide Tolerances | |
83 FR 24088 - Applications for New Awards; Language Resource Centers Program | |
83 FR 24133 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0094 | |
83 FR 24133 - Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0045 | |
83 FR 24116 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewal; Comment Request (OMB No. 3064-0134) | |
83 FR 24117 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewal; Comment Request (OMB No. 3064-0028) | |
83 FR 24092 - Extension of Deadlines for Transmittal of Applications; Hurricane Education Recovery | |
83 FR 24028 - Safety Zone: SF State University Graduation Fireworks Display, San Francisco Bay, San Francisco, CA | |
83 FR 24100 - Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization: WBI Energy Transmission, Inc. | |
83 FR 24095 - Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Lambertville East Expansion Project: Texas Eastern Transmission, LP | |
83 FR 24094 - Notice of Revised Schedule for Environmental Review of the Fields Point Liquefaction Project, National Grid LNG, LLC | |
83 FR 24104 - Notice of Application for Transfer of License and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests: TCAI Incorporated; Waneta Holdings (US) Inc. | |
83 FR 24096 - Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization: AL Mesquite Marketing, LLC | |
83 FR 24145 - U.S. Department of State Advisory Committee on Private International Law (ACPIL): Public Meeting on Micro, Small and Medium-Sized Enterprises (MSMEs) in Advance of the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) Commission Session for 2018 | |
83 FR 24084 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 24098 - Consolidated Edison Company of New York, Inc.; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24103 - Cheyenne Light, Fuel and Power Company; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24097 - Avista Corporation; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24103 - Notice of Revised Schedule for Environmental Review of the Calcasieu Pass Project: Venture Global Calcasieu Pass, LLC; Transcameron Pipeline, LLC | |
83 FR 24130 - Joint Meeting of the Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee and the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 24096 - Tucson Electric Power Company; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24102 - Smoky Mountain Transmission LLC; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24103 - Notice of Filing: Portland General Electric Company | |
83 FR 24097 - Pacific Gas and Electric Company; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24098 - Notice of Filing: Orange and Rockland Utilities, Inc. | |
83 FR 24098 - Northwestern Corporation; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24097 - UNS Electric, Inc.; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24095 - Notice of Filing: Transource Maryland, LLC; Transource Pennsylvania, LLC | |
83 FR 24096 - Notice of Filing: San Diego Gas & Electric Company | |
83 FR 24100 - Notice of Filing: Citizen Sunrise Transmission LLC | |
83 FR 24101 - Trans Bay Cable LLC; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24094 - Notice of Filing: Startrans IO, LLC | |
83 FR 24102 - Notice of Filing: Florida Power & Light Company | |
83 FR 24101 - El Paso Electric Company; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24099 - Deseret Generation & Transmission Co-Operative, Inc.; Notice of Filing | |
83 FR 24100 - Notice of Filing: DATC Path 15, LLC | |
83 FR 24139 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Pollution Prevention and Control | |
83 FR 24138 - Filing of Plats of Survey: Alaska | |
83 FR 24080 - Migratory Bird Permits; Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement | |
83 FR 24019 - Special Local Regulation; Low Country Splash, Wando River, Cooper River, and Charleston Harbor; Charleston, SC | |
83 FR 24102 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
83 FR 24099 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
83 FR 24141 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Labor Condition Application for H-1B, H-1B1, and E-3 Nonimmigrants | |
83 FR 24084 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 230-Piedmont Triad Area, North Carolina; Notification of Proposed Production Activity Deere-Hitachi Construction Machinery Corp. (Forestry Machinery, and Forestry Machinery and Hydraulic Excavator Frames/Booms/Arms) Kernersville, North Carolina | |
83 FR 24122 - Food and Drug Administration's Evaluation of Approaches To Demonstrate Effectiveness of Heartworm Preventatives for Dogs; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 24163 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Application by Insured Terminally Ill Person for Accelerated Benefit | |
83 FR 24086 - Charter Renewal of Department of Defense Federal Advisory Committees | |
83 FR 24149 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Approval of a New Information Collection Request: Driver Commuting Practices Survey | |
83 FR 24155 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Renewal of a Currently Approved Information Collection Request: Generic Clearance of Customer Satisfaction Surveys | |
83 FR 24119 - Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority | |
83 FR 24151 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
83 FR 24146 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
83 FR 24145 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
83 FR 24153 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
83 FR 24142 - Product Change-First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
83 FR 24118 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
83 FR 24128 - Anthrax: Developing Drugs for Prophylaxis of Inhalational Anthrax; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 24085 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 24086 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 24124 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Current Good Manufacturing Practice, Hazard Analysis, and Risk-Based Preventive Controls for Food for Animals | |
83 FR 24127 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Prescription Drug Marketing; Administrative Procedures, Policies, and Requirements | |
83 FR 24163 - Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 24141 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; New Collection | |
83 FR 24026 - Safety Zone; Laguna Madre, South Padre Island, TX | |
83 FR 24091 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Temporary Expansion of Public Service Loan Forgiveness (TE-PSLF) | |
83 FR 24011 - Policy on Audits of RUS Borrowers and Grantees | |
83 FR 24093 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; U.S. Department of Education Grant Performance Report Form (ED 524B) | |
83 FR 24138 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
83 FR 24021 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Chambers Bay, Steilacoom, WA | |
83 FR 24083 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 24021 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Jamaica Bay, Queens, NY | |
83 FR 24118 - Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response (BSC, OPHPR); Correction | |
83 FR 24162 - General Motors, LLC, Receipt of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
83 FR 24054 - Copyright Office Fees | |
83 FR 24081 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 24143 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Modify the Definition of “Agency Debt Security” | |
83 FR 24136 - Notice of Issuance of Final Determination Concerning Country of Origin of Fleetcam Vehicle Cameras | |
83 FR 24135 - Accreditation and Approval of AmSpec LLC (Freeport, TX) as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
83 FR 24082 - Uinta-Wasatch-Cache Resource Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 24082 - Hood-Willamette Resource Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 24081 - Notice of Continued Suspension of Supervision Fee Assessment Under the United States Grain Standards Act | |
83 FR 24045 - Irish Potatoes Grown in Colorado; Increased Assessment Rate for Area No. 2 | |
83 FR 24003 - National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures | |
83 FR 24024 - Safety Zone; Fireworks, Delaware River, Philadelphia, PA | |
83 FR 24132 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 24131 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 24156 - Petition for Waiver of Compliance | |
83 FR 24087 - Reserve Forces Policy Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
83 FR 24140 - Certain Amorphous Metal and Products Containing Same; Amending the Complaint and Notice of Investigation | |
83 FR 24023 - Safety Zones; Annual Fireworks Displays Within the Sector Columbia River Captain of the Port Zone | |
83 FR 24030 - Air Plan Approval; Illinois; Volatile Organic Compounds Definition | |
83 FR 24016 - Airworthiness Directives; Honda Aircraft Company LLC Airplanes | |
83 FR 24050 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace, Los Angeles, CA | |
83 FR 24033 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Antelope Valley Air Quality Management District | |
83 FR 24034 - Air Plan Approval; OR; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide, 2010 Sulfur Dioxide, and 2012 Fine Particulate Matter Standards | |
83 FR 24157 - FY 2018 Competitive Funding Opportunity: Pilot Program for Transit-Oriented Development Planning | |
83 FR 24064 - Streamlining Licensing Procedures for Small Satellites | |
83 FR 24051 - Safety Zone for Fireworks Display; Middle River, Baltimore County, MD | |
83 FR 24166 - Control of Firearms, Guns, Ammunition and Related Articles the President Determines No Longer Warrant Control Under the United States Munitions List (USML) | |
83 FR 24198 - International Traffic in Arms Regulations: U.S. Munitions List Categories I, II, and III | |
83 FR 24012 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Forest Service
Rural Utilities Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Federal Transit Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Final rule.
We are amending the regulations that set out our National Environmental Policy Act implementing procedures. The amendments include clarifying the categories of actions for which we would normally complete an environmental impact statement or an environmental assessment for an action, as well as updating examples of categorically excluded actions and setting out an environmental documentation process that could be used in emergencies. The changes will serve to update the regulations and improve their clarity and effectiveness.
Effective June 25, 2018.
Dr. Eileen Sutker, APHIS Federal NEPA Contact, Environmental and Risk Analysis Services, PPD, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 149, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238; (301) 851-3043.
The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
The Office of the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) has set forth departmental policy on the implementation of NEPA in 7 CFR part 1b. Within USDA, the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) has regulations that set out its procedures for implementing NEPA in 7 CFR part 372 (referred to below as the regulations). APHIS' regulations are designed to ensure early and appropriate consideration of potential environmental effects when APHIS programs formulate policy and make decisions. The regulations also promote effective and efficient compliance with NEPA requirements and integration of other environmental review requirements under NEPA (
NEPA and the CEQ regulations require all agencies of the Federal Government to incorporate environmental considerations in their planning and decisionmaking. This may include the development of an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS), a detailed statement by the responsible official with every recommendation or report on proposals for legislation and other major Federal actions significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. This statement must cover:
• The environmental impact of the proposed action,
• Any adverse environmental effects which cannot be avoided should the proposal be implemented,
• Reasonable alternatives to the proposed action,
• The relationship between local short-term uses of the human environment and the maintenance and enhancement of long-term productivity, and
• Any irreversible and irretrievable commitments of resources which would be involved in the proposed action, should it be implemented.
The EIS is distinguished from the environmental assessment (EA), which is a concise public document that briefly provides sufficient evidence and analysis for determining whether to prepare an EIS or a finding of no significant impact (FONSI). Actions taken by an agency that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment may be categorically excluded from the requirement to prepare either an EA or an EIS.
The APHIS regulations were last amended in a final rule published in the
We also proposed to establish or revise categorical exclusions and extraordinary circumstances under which those categorical exclusions would not apply and to revise the requirements generally relating to classification of various actions (
We solicited comments concerning our proposal for 60 days ending September 19, 2016. We received 12 comments by that date from advocacy groups, industry associations, and private citizens. They are discussed below by topic, with the exception of any comments received on those portions of the proposed rule we are not finalizing, as described above.
The bulk of the comments we received related to changes we proposed to our categorical exclusions and their associated extraordinary circumstances exceptions. As stated above, in considering those comments, which covered a broad variety of issues in detail, we came to recognize the need to reevaluate our proposed categories and reconsider the scope and effect of those categories.
One commenter stated that since the changes and additions may affect species protected under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 and their designated critical habitats, APHIS must conduct a programmatic consultation with the Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS).
This rule is administrative in nature and does not affect any listed threatened or endangered species. We consult with FWS and/or NMFS when an analysis of listed species is necessary to arrive at an environmental effects determination. We will continue to consult on any future actions that may affect protected species.
The same commenter said that we should coordinate our efforts concerning NEPA with the existing initiative involving APHIS, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to modernize agency activities under the Coordinated Framework for the Regulation of Biotechnology.
APHIS is involved in updating the Coordinated Framework for the Regulation of Biotechnology, which clarifies the relevant existing authorities and roles of the USDA, the FDA, and the EPA. On January 4, 2017, EPA, FDA, and USDA released the 2017 Draft Update to the Coordinated Framework for the Regulation of Biotechnology and accompanying National Strategy for Modernizing the Regulatory System for Biotechnology Products. The original Coordinated Framework for the Regulation of Biotechnology and the 2017 Draft Update identify which types of topics trigger NEPA analyses within each agency. The finalized update of the Coordinated Framework for the Regulation of Biotechnology will continue to align with the regulations, and may facilitate further regulations.
Another commenter characterized the proposed action as APHIS scaling back its NEPA obligations, despite ongoing disputes over the scope of APHIS' duties in this area.
Contrary to the commenter's assertion, this rule will improve transparency and clarity regarding APHIS activities under NEPA. Further, we will continue to apply an appropriate level of environmental documentation to every action.
Another commenter stated that they had included suggestions for corresponding changes to the NEPA implementing regulations discussed here as part of a comment submitted in connection with a notice of intent to prepare an EIS published in the
Due to the nature of APHIS rulemaking, we cannot consider the content of comments submitted on other rules. The notice referenced by the commenter has yet to be finalized; however, if changes to the NEPA implementing regulations are necessary as a result of that action, we will make those changes accordingly via subsequent rulemaking.
One commenter pointed out several typographical errors in the preamble language and the regulatory text of the proposed rule. We have corrected the errors in the regulatory text. The preamble language is not repeated in this final rule.
In § 372.4, which contains definitions of various terms used in the regulations, we proposed to revise two existing definitions and add definitions for two additional terms. We are not finalizing the two proposed additional definitions. We determined that a definition for “Agency official responsible for environmental review” is unnecessary because the information we wished to convey can already be found in the definition for “Environmental unit.” We are not finalizing the definition for “Extraordinary circumstances” because, as stated previously, we are not finalizing the proposed revisions concerning extraordinary circumstances. The revisions we are finalizing remain consistent with the CEQ regulations.
One commenter suggested we add a definition for the term “conventional,” given that we proposed a change from “routine measures” to “conventional measures” throughout the regulations due to prior confusion about the meaning of “routine.” The commenter argued that the word “conventional” has as much potential to cause confusion as the word “routine.”
Uses of the term “conventional measures” in place of “routine measures” were only found in those sections we are not finalizing in this document.
We proposed to set out a description of actions APHIS takes that normally require EAs but not necessarily EISs in § 372.6 (§ 372.5(b) in the final rule). An action in this class will typically be characterized by its limited scope (particular sites, species, or activities).
We are clarifying the way in which we assess potential environmental impacts in connection with an action normally requiring an EA but not necessarily an EIS. Any effects of the action on environmental resources (such as air, water, soil, plant communities, animal populations, or others) or indicators (such as dissolved oxygen content of water) can be reasonably identified.
Proposed paragraph (d) of § 372.6 (§ 372.5(b)(4) in the final rule) indicated that approvals and issuance of licenses and permits for proposals involving regulated genetically engineered or
We agree with the first commenter's suggestion to use the word “organisms” and have changed the term used in that section to “genetically engineered organisms or products.” Reference to genetically engineered products is necessary in some parts of the regulations to adequately cover veterinary biologics products, such as genetically engineered subunit proteins, plasmid vectors, and other constructs that are not organisms. We agree with the point raised by the last two commenters and have added the requested language to the introductory paragraph of § 372.5(b).
Another commenter made a recommendation regarding the comingling threshold level for genetically engineered and conventional products. The commenter also stated that third-party field testing on crops with a high risk of comingling should occur.
As the proposal did not relate to such a threshold or such inspections, these comments are outside the scope of this rulemaking.
Proposed paragraph (e) of § 372.6 (§ 372.5(b)(5) in the final rule) indicated that activities to reduce damage or harm by a specific wildlife species or group of species (such as deer or birds), or to reduce a specific type of damage or harm (such as protection of agriculture from wildlife depredation and disease, management of rabies in wildlife, or protection of threatened or endangered species) normally require an EA but not necessarily an EIS, unless they are categorically excluded.
One commenter stated that a Federal court has determined that State-wide analysis of Wildlife Services' (WS) wolf damage management activities in the State of Washington violated NEPA due to the absence of an EIS in the case of
We disagree with the commenter's characterization of
Proposed paragraph (g) of § 372.6 (§ 372.5(b)(7) in the final rule) indicated that determinations of nonregulated status for genetically engineered organisms normally requires an EA but not necessarily an EIS, unless categorically excluded. One commenter suggested that we add language specifically stating that an EA would be required except in those cases where the action fits into one of the categorical exclusion categories associated with such actions.
While we are not adding language specifying that an EA would be required except in those cases where the action fits into one of the categorical exclusion categories associated with such actions in § 372.5(b)(7) as suggested by the commenter, we added language in the introductory paragraph of § 372.5(b) stipulating that all of the example actions described in § 372.5(b)(1) through (7) normally require an EA but not necessarily an EIS, unless categorically excluded.
Another commenter stated that extensions of determinations of nonregulated status for genetically engineered organisms were in violation of NEPA. The commenter argued that while such extensions are often granted to similar organisms, there may still be agronomic or geographic differences that would result in significant environmental impacts. At a minimum, the commenter said, these extensions warrant the preparation of EAs in order to better evaluate the potential environmental impacts of the genetically engineered organisms. This rule does not address whether extensions of genetically engineered organisms are in violation of NEPA. Moreover, we do not explicitly identify extensions of determinations of nonregulated status for genetically engineered organisms in the discussion of exceptions for categorically excluded actions found in § 372.5(d). If the decisionmaker determines that a categorically excluded action may have the potential to affect significantly the quality of the human environment, then an EA or an EIS will be prepared. Agronomic and geographic differences are among the factors that the decisionmaker will consider when determining whether a particular extension application will be categorically excluded or if preparation of an EA or EIS is required.
Another commenter suggested that we add licensing and permitting of commercial breeding operations regulated under the Animal Welfare Act to the list of actions normally requiring EAs but not necessarily EISs.
Commercial breeding operations are not specifically listed as one of the examples of such actions given in § 372.5(b) for EAs. APHIS intends to assess all animal welfare licensing and registration applications to determine if they are eligible for a categorical exclusion or if circumstances exist that will necessitate the preparation of an EA or EIS. We will document our conclusions.
We received a number of additional comments relating to the need for EAs or EISs in connection with the licensing of commercial breeding operations. Those comments are addressed below in a section entitled, “Comments Regarding Commercial Breeding Operations.”
Proposed § 372.8 (§ 372.5(c) in the final rule) lists various categorically excluded actions. We proposed to make changes to paragraph (a) of § 372.8 (§ 372.5(c)(1)(i) in the final rule) in order to expand the list of substances that may be used as part of a conventional measure (a term not finalized in this rule; instead we have retained the original term, “routine measure”), subject to certain conditions, to include the use of pesticides, chemicals, drugs, pheromones, contraceptives, or other potentially harmful substances, materials, and target-specific devices or remedies. Previously, the list of substances referred only to chemicals, pesticides, or other potentially hazardous or harmful substances, materials, and target-specific devices or remedies.
While we are not finalizing the proposed language, we will respond to the comment because the current regulations cite the use of pesticides, chemicals, and other potentially hazardous or harmful substances. Two commenters objected to the inclusion of such elements in any categorically excluded action, saying that their use often has significant impacts, which require NEPA analysis. One commenter specifically cited the growth-promotion drugs ractopamine and monensin, which the commenter argued can leach into groundwater, and the growth-promotion drug tylosin, which has been linked to antibiotic resistance.
APHIS does not use these or other growth-promotion drugs in any programs, and there are no actions in which we would consider their usage.
The other commenter used as an example those pesticides classified as “restricted use pesticides” by the EPA, stating these are pesticides that EPA has determined are likely to cause “unreasonable adverse effects on the environment” if they are used “without additional regulatory restrictions.” The commenter went on to classify the EPA's oversight of restricted use pesticides as predominantly focused on acute exposure and therefore inadequate to protect against risks posed by regular low-level exposure, even though the pesticides may aggregate in the environment, causing harm via long-term, low-level exposure to humans and animals.
APHIS develops and uses methods that are proven to be effective, efficient in their performance, and safe in their execution. APHIS uses pesticides in accordance with all EPA requirements. As shown in the document entitled “Proposed Amendments to National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (7 CFR Part 372) Substantiating Document for Proposed Amendments,” these methods were analyzed in prior environmental reviews, risk assessments, and/or are monitored to demonstrate or determine whether their use could significantly impact the human environment. This includes a number of use patterns and any program mitigation measures (including contained facilities, field sites, and pens) for pesticides, chemicals, or other potentially hazardous or harmful agents. Many of these use patterns have long been known and studied by APHIS, and APHIS has seen no record of significant environmental impacts. Our NEPA analyses consider chemical movement, degradation, environmental impacts, exposure, and risk for all actions, including those actions subject to categorical exclusion.
We are finalizing a group of categorically excluded actions that concern research and development activities limited in magnitude, frequency, and scope that occur in laboratories, facilities, pens, or field sites. The location and organization of this section is taken from the current regulations; however, we are incorporating some of our proposed language in a new list of examples of such activities.
In § 372.8(j)(1) (§ 372.5(c)(2)(i)(A) in the final rule) we proposed to allow for the categorical exclusion of the inoculation or treatment of discrete herds of livestock or wildlife undertaken in contained areas (such as a barn or corral, a zoo, an exhibition, or an aviary). One commenter requested that we provide further guidance on the concept of “discrete herds of livestock or wildlife undertaken in contained areas” either via final rule or through issuance of a guidance document.
For clarity, we revised this language to cover only those vaccination trials that occur on groups of animals in areas designed to limit interaction with similar animals, or include other controls as needed to mitigate potential risk.
Section 372.8(j)(2) (§ 372.5(c)(2)(i)(D) in the final rule) states that an example of a categorically excluded research and development activity is the use of vaccinations or inoculations, including new vaccines (
In the case of genetically engineered vaccines and other novel technologies, if any the criteria in § 372.5(d) apply then an EA or EIS will be prepared. As shown in the document entitled “Proposed Amendments to National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (7 CFR Part 372) Substantiating Document for Proposed Amendments,” we note that, based on more than 20 years of experience, APHIS' Center for Veterinary Biologics has found that the impact of new vaccines and inoculations stays within the vaccinated animal.
We also proposed that activities could not be categorically excluded if a previously licensed or approved biologic has been subsequently shown to be unsafe, or if it would be used at substantially higher dosage levels or for substantially different applications or circumstances than the use for which the product was previously approved. One commenter argued that an EA should not necessarily be required in every instance where a substantially higher dose or substantially different application or use circumstance is being developed and recommended we remove that language from the regulations. The commenter said that APHIS should evaluate each situation on a case-by-case basis.
While we agree that an EA is not always required where a substantially higher dose or substantially different application or use circumstance is proposed, we are making no changes to the proposed language. We will continue to consider each case individually, as the commenter suggested. An EA or EIS would not need to be prepared if we determine that a substantially higher dose or substantially different application or use circumstance for a previously licensed or approved biologic will not impact the environmental or safety factors associated with use of that biologic.
Proposed § 372.9 (§ 372.5(c)(3) in the final rule) contained examples of various categorically excluded actions under the heading of licensing and permitting. In the preamble to the proposed rule, we explained that licensing and permitting are administrative actions for the agency, and generally occur in support of actions that later undergo analysis in an EIS or EA. To require a separate NEPA analysis for each license or permit does not allow expedient action to serve the public, and would promote piecemeal analyses.
One commenter objected to this characterization, saying that it would be a contravention of APHIS' obligations under NEPA because any individual action within a program may have significant effects and must be subject to individualized NEPA review. The commenter also argued that it is in the public interest to undertake individualized reviews where warranted.
APHIS is not trying to evade or ignore its obligations under NEPA. The CEQ regulations at 40 CFR 1508.4 give agencies the authority to identify categorical exclusions in their NEPA implementing regulations, which is what APHIS seeks to do here. It is important to understand that, in addition to EAs and EISs, categorical exclusions are consistent with NEPA. Categorical exclusions are categories of actions, which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment, and are recognized as such in the agency's implementing procedures. Use of a categorical exclusion has, and will continue to include, individualized reviews prior to issuance.
Another commenter said that we provided insufficient analysis for the determination that licensing and permitting are categorically exempt. The commenter went on to say that it is unclear whether this provision is meant to apply to licensing conducted under Animal Welfare Act (AWA; Laboratory Animal Welfare Act of 1966, as amended Public Law 89-544, 7 U.S.C. 2131-2159) licensing. The commenter argued that AWA licensing actions have enormous potential for environmental harm, and so will frequently warrant at least preparation of an EA. The commenter stated that, even if there were a categorical exclusion for commercial breeder licensing, at a minimum it should specify exceptions to that categorical exclusion. The commenter found that the proposed definition, evaluation criteria, and list of extraordinary circumstances set too high a bar for judging whether an action may have a significant environmental effect.
The regulations already provide a categorical exclusion for licensing and permitting, and identify a wide variety of routine measures that could result in authorizations and approvals. Since these categories already existed within the regulations and were effective for years, we did not include additional analysis in the proposed rule. We do not agree with the commenter's position regarding our ability to evaluate an action for significant environmental effect. On the contrary, we find that the general exceptions to categorical exclusions identified in § 372.5(d) will allow us to adequately address concerns about the potential for significant impacts to the environment pursuant to AWA licensing, because this section allows the decisionmaker to determine that a categorically excluded action may have the potential to affect “significantly” the quality of the “human environment.” For additional discussion on the rest of the commenter's points specific to licensing of commercial breeding operations, please see the section below entitled, “Comments Regarding Commercial Breeding Operations.”
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) of § 372.10 (§ 372.5(c)(2)(i)(B) in the final rule) contained a categorical exclusion for the evaluation of uses for chemicals not specifically listed on the product label, as long as they are used in a manner designed to limit potential effects to nontarget species such that there are no individual or cumulative impacts on the human environment. A commenter stated that categorical exclusions for evaluation of novel chemical uses cannot be employed under NEPA because their application and contact with nontarget species may result in unintended environmental, human health, or ecological impacts.
Our research and testing in this area is limited to serving Agency needs, and does not encompass broadly based or basic research. We have added the stipulation that such evaluation and use must be pursuant to applicable Federal authorizations to clarify the relatively narrow application of this categorical exclusion. Use must be limited in magnitude, frequency, and scope, and it can only occur in laboratories, facilities, pens, or field sites. We also note that this is not a new categorical exclusion, only an enhanced description of activities that did not demonstrate environmental impacts in the past.
Proposed paragraph (a)(6) (§ 372.5(c)(2)(ii) in the final rule) contained the prior categorical exclusion for the development and production of sterile insects. We are also including the release of sterile insects as well.
The same commenter argued that the development and production of sterile insects may include novel methods for inducing sterility, which would require NEPA analysis. The commenter said that the field release of genetically engineered insects may have significant human health and ecological impacts.
APHIS does not develop, approve, or release genetically engineered sterile insects. Were that to change in the future, we would consider any potential environmental impacts. Any novel methods to develop sterile insects would be subject to the criteria listed in § 372.5(d).
We are adding a new section describing the process APHIS follows to develop environmental documentation when conducting a rapid response to an emergency. APHIS frequently takes important emergency actions to prevent the spread of animal and plant pests and diseases. Without emergency action to control the spread of these pests and diseases, there is a potential for significant impacts on the human environment. One commenter encouraged APHIS to take the need to control a plant disease outbreak or other exigency into account under NEPA, including in situations where a categorical exclusion does not apply.
APHIS will take NEPA into account in the event there is a need to control a plant disease outbreak or other exigency. We recognize the need to deal quickly, effectively, and efficiently with any emergency situation that may arise. We mitigate foreseeable environmental effects to the extent practicable.
Another commenter observed that our proposed text was based on CEQ regulations, but added that there have been legal challenges to this portion of those regulations. The commenter stated that, while there has been no ruling on whether the portion of the CEQ regulations dealing with rapid response to an emergency is invalid, it was noted that allowing an emergency to encompass anything more than significant, unanticipated occurrences, such as natural disasters, as opposed to circumstances of the agency's own making, seemed at odds with NEPA as this may allow for the evasion of NEPA review. The commenter concluded that APHIS should therefore specify that an
Merely adding the concept that an emergency cannot be a result of the agency's own making does not account for the types of emergency actions APHIS may need to cope with, such as unanticipated or unforeseen impacts associated with a pest or disease outbreak. In an emergency, our primary concerns include the consequences of a delayed response. The intent of this section is to create the flexibility necessary to begin a response to the emergency, regardless of cause. This section does not allow APHIS to evade NEPA analyses; instead, it adjusts the usual timeframe and sequence for analysis of any potential impact during emergencies. The timing for NEPA compliance for all non-emergency and post-emergency actions remains unchanged.
As stated previously, we received a number of comments from the Humane Society of the United States (HSUS) relating to the need for EAs or EISs in connection with the licensing of commercial breeding operations. HSUS expressed surprise that we did not mention the licensing of commercial breeding operations in the proposed rule and observed that we provided no guidance for applying NEPA standards to the licensing and regulation of these operations. They disagreed with our assessment that the approval and issuance of licenses is properly categorized as administrative, and stated that we failed to articulate what mitigation measures are in place related to the environmental damage at commercial breeding facilities, nor how any such measures would render those environmental effects insignificant. Finally, they argued that a programmatic assessment of commercial breeders, brokers, and transporters is compulsory, and the regulations should clearly convey that certain individual AWA license approvals may require an individual EA or EIS.
The AWA provides for the licensing of dealers, exhibitors, and registration of research facilities, and transporters (intermediate handlers and carriers). The associated standards provide specific requirements for regulated entities under this Act (7 CFR 371.7; 9 CFR chapter 1, parts 1 through 12 (particularly part 3, Standards)). When we propose modifications to the AWA regulations, we solicit and consider public comments to those specific provisions. The NEPA regulations are not the correct place to create or modify requirements for licensing under the authority of the AWA.
Under the AWA, the action of issuing a license consists of administrative handling of applications. In practice, this means we assess forms for completeness and schedule appropriate inspections. We inspect the facilities, and they must be in compliance prior to the issuance of a license or registration. The criteria for denial of an initial application are not discretionary (9 CFR 2.11)—all who meet the requirements are licensed or registered. Potential impacts to the environment do not occur through the act of processing an application to issue a license or registration; instead, they may occur when an individual facility is noncompliant with the standards of humane care, handling, and transportation. Regulated entities are required to comply with the standards associated with their license or registration. Based on the frequency of inspections for facilities, potential environmental impacts resulting from noncompliance are expected to be localized to a specific site, short-term in duration, and completely mitigated by the corrective actions of the facility to comply with the regulations. We carefully considered the suggestion that a programmatic assessment is necessary, and find changes to the NEPA regulations are not the correct place to address these concerns. Programmatic reviews precede proposed changes to topic-specific regulations as they occur.
HSUS said that common aerosols associated with feces and urine at puppy mills that impact air quality the most are ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, methane, and carbon dioxide. They further pointed out that dogs themselves also produce methane, a potent greenhouse gas, and these combined emissions pose a serious environmental threat. Additionally, they stated that vehicle emissions from animal transporters compound this threat and should be taken into consideration, arguing that while very little is known about the bacterial and particulate emissions of animal transport vehicles which travel across the United States, they undoubtedly emit tons of harmful gases and particulates into the air while traveling between breeder and broker or pet shop.
As stated previously, APHIS' authority under the AWA is limited to the issuance of licenses, which is an administrative act with no environmental implications. EPA, not APHIS, has authority to regulate waste materials, disposal, and emissions.
HSUS also said that decomposition of dead dogs at commercial breeding operations can contribute to soil, air, and water pollution. They stated that improper mortality management can lead to environmental contamination and claimed that dead dogs have been found scattered or improperly disposed of at a number of USDA licensed facilities.
The AWA regulations in 9 CFR 3.1(f) require facilities with dogs to properly dispose of waste and dead animals in a manner that minimizes contamination and disease risks. APHIS standards (9 CFR part 3) are established by species, and do not differ by licensee or registrant. Beyond that, State and local laws determine how dead animals are disposed of within any given jurisdiction, and APHIS works with local jurisdictions during emergencies. If a mass animal health event were to lead to high mortality levels, then APHIS would likely be involved in the disposal of those carcasses as part of a joint local, State, and Federal emergency response effort.
HSUS identified noise pollution as another environmental harm associated with large-scale commercial dog breeders. They claimed that barking dogs can reach decibel levels on par with abrasive blasting or demolition at a construction site or even an ambulance siren and recommended that noise studies, as commonly performed by many localities, should be incorporated into EAs of commercial breeding operations.
As the commenter correctly points out, localities vary in their approaches to the regulation of noise. We believe that local and State regulators are better situated to assess and regulate ambient noise standards, which are then applicable to all residents of that jurisdiction.
HSUS stated that, even if an EIS is not automatically warranted in most cases, large-scale commercial breeding operations raise enough environmental concerns that APHIS should routinely be preparing EAs prior to issuing a new license for a breeding facility.
Applicants, excepting those whose operations meet the
We are changing all references to the “administrative record” to references to the “record” because the term “administrative record” is not the accurate use of a legal term of art.
We are also making several minor edits to improve the clarity, focus, and brevity of the regulations overall.
Therefore, for the reasons given in the proposed rule and in this document, we are adopting the proposed rule as a final rule, with the changes discussed in this document.
This final rule has been determined to be significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This final rule is expected to be an Executive Order 13771 deregulatory action as it imposes no additional costs on affected entities and individuals, and will likely benefit those businesses and individuals regulated by APHIS that participate in the NEPA process.
We have prepared an economic analysis for this rule. The economic analysis provides a cost-benefit analysis, as required by Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, which direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. The economic analysis also examines the potential economic effects of this rule on small entities, as required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act. The economic analysis is summarized below. Copies of the full analysis are available on the
The rule amends the APHIS regulations that set forth the procedures for implementing NEPA. The amendments to the regulations are designed to improve the clarity and effectiveness of the procedures for implementing NEPA, such as by providing new examples for when we will complete an environmental impact statement or an environmental analysis for an action and outlining an environmental documentation process to be used in emergencies.
APHIS has determined that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Some entities will experience time and money savings, but the savings will benefit only a few entities each year. The rule will also serve to clarify the regulations and make the NEPA process more transparent. These actions, although beneficial, are not expected to have a significant economic impact on affected entities. The rule imposes no additional costs on affected entities and individuals or on APHIS.
Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This program/activity is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under No. 10.025 and is subject to Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. (See 2 CFR chapter IV.)
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have Tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.
APHIS has assessed the impact of this rule and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have Tribal implications that require tribal consultation under Executive Order 13175.
This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This rule: (1) Preempts all State and local laws and regulations that are inconsistent with this rule; (2) has no retroactive effect; and (3) does not require administrative proceedings before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.
This final rule revises the regulations that guide APHIS employees in NEPA analysis and documentation for animal and plant health management, wildlife damage management, and animal welfare management activities. CEQ regulations do not require agencies to prepare a NEPA analysis or document before establishing agency procedures that supplement the CEQ regulations for implementing NEPA, and thus no NEPA document was prepared for this final rule. Agencies are required to adopt NEPA procedures that establish specific criteria for, and identification of, three categories of actions: Those that require preparation of an EIS; those that require preparation of an EA; and those that are categorically excluded from further NEPA review (40 CFR 1507.3(b)). Agency NEPA procedures assist agencies in the fulfillment of agency responsibilities under NEPA, but are not the agency's final determination of what level of NEPA analysis is required for a particular proposed action. The requirements for establishing agency NEPA procedures are set forth at 40 CFR 1505.1 and 1507.3.
This final rule contains no information collection or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Administrative practice and procedure, Environmental assessment, Environmental impact statement, National Environmental Policy Act.
Accordingly, we are amending 7 CFR part 372 as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4321
Information, including the status of studies, and the availability of reference materials, as well as the informal interpretations of APHIS' NEPA procedures and other forms of assistance, will be made available upon request to the APHIS NEPA contact at: Policy and Program Development, APHIS, USDA, Attention: NEPA Contact, 4700 River Road Unit 149, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238, (301) 851-3043.
The revisions read as follows:
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(b)
(4) Approvals and issuance of permits for proposals involving regulated genetically engineered organisms or products, or regulated nonindigenous species.
(5) Programs or statewide activities to reduce damage or harm by a specific wildlife species or group of species, such as deer or birds, or to reduce a specific type of damage or harm, such as protection of agriculture from wildlife depredation and disease; for the management of rabies in wildlife; or for the protection of threatened or endangered species.
(6) Research or testing that will be conducted outside of a laboratory or other containment area or reaches a stage of development (
(7) Determination of nonregulated status for genetically engineered organisms.
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) * * *
(B) Use of vaccinations or inoculations including new vaccines (
(2)
(A) Vaccination trials that occur on groups of animals in areas designed to limit interaction with similar animals, or include other controls needed to mitigate potential risk.
(B) Laboratory research involving the evaluation and use of chemicals in a manner not specifically listed on the product label pursuant to applicable Federal authorizations.
(C) The development and/or production (including formulation, packaging or repackaging, movement, and distribution) of articles such as program materials, devices, reagents, and biologics that were approved and/or licensed in accordance with existing regulations, or that are for evaluation in confined animal, plant, or insect populations under conditions that prevent exposure to the general population.
(D) Research evaluating wildlife management products or tools, such as animal repellents, frightening devices, or fencing, that is carried out in a manner and area designed to eliminate the potential for harmful environmental effects and in accordance with applicable regulatory requirements.
(ii) Development, production, and release of sterile insects.
(3) * * *
(i) Issuance of a license, permit, authorization, or approval to ship or field test previously unlicensed veterinary biologics, including veterinary biologics containing genetically engineered organisms (such as vector-based vaccines and nucleic acid-based vaccines);
(ii) Issuance of a license, permit, authorization, or approval for movement or uses of pure cultures of organisms (relatively free of extraneous micro-organisms and extraneous material) that are not strains of quarantine concern and occur, or are likely to occur, in a State's environment; or
(4)
(5)
(i) Renovation of existing laboratories and other facilities.
(ii) Functional replacement of parts and equipment.
(iii) Minor additions to existing facilities.
(iv) Minor excavations of land and repairs to properties.
Prospective applicants are encouraged to contact APHIS program officials to determine what types of environmental analyses or documentation, if any, need to be prepared.
(b) * * *
(4) All environmental documents and comments received will be made available to the public via
The addition and revision read as follows:
(a) * * * This determination is based on information provided in the NEPA document and available in the record.
(3) Changes to environmental assessments and findings of no significant impact that are prompted by comments, new information, or any other source, will normally be announced in the same manner as the notice of availability prior to implementing the proposed action or any alternative. APHIS will mail notice upon request.
When it is determined (by the Administrator or the delegated Agency official responsible for environmental review) that an emergency exists that requires immediate action before preparing and completing the usual NEPA review, then the provisions of this section apply.
(a) The Administrator or the delegated Agency official responsible for environmental review may take actions that are necessary to control the immediate impacts of the emergency and that are urgently needed to prevent imminent damage to public health or safety, or prevent threats to valuable resources. When taking such actions, the Administrator or the delegated Agency official responsible for environmental review will consider the probable environmental consequences of the emergency action and mitigate foreseeable adverse environmental effects to the extent practicable.
(b) If a proposed emergency action is normally analyzed in an environmental assessment as described in § 372.5 and the nature and scope of proposed emergency actions are such that there is insufficient time to prepare an EA and FONSI before commencing the proposed action, the Administrator shall consult with APHIS' Chief of Environmental and Risk Analysis Services about alternative arrangements for NEPA compliance. APHIS' Chief of Environmental and Risk Analysis Services may authorize emergency alternative arrangements for completing the required NEPA compliance documentation. Any alternative arrangements must be documented and notice of their use provided to CEQ.
(c) If a proposed emergency action is likely to result in significant environmental impacts, then APHIS will immediately consult with CEQ and request alternative arrangements in accordance with CEQ regulations at 40 CFR 1506.11. Such alternative arrangements will apply only to the proposed actions necessary to control the immediate impacts of the emergency. Other proposed actions remain subject to NEPA analysis and documentation in accordance with the CEQ regulations and these regulations.
Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Final rule with request for comment; correction; delay of effective date; extension of comment period.
The Rural Utilities Service (RUS) is correcting a final rule with request for comment that appeared in the
Submit comments by either of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal at
•
Additional information about Rural Development and its programs is available on the internet at
William Chris Colberg, Acting Chief, Technical Accounting and Auditing Staff, Program Accounting Services Division, Rural Utilities Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 1523, Washington, DC 20250-1523. Telephone: (202) 720-1905.
In FR Doc. 2018-09501, appearing on page 19906 in the
On page 19906, in the third column, the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) “
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2016-11-02, which applied to all Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes; Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes; Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes; and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. AD 2016-11-02 required repetitive inspections of the upper and lower engine pylons for protruding, loose, or missing fasteners; and repair if necessary. This AD continues to require the repetitive inspections of the upper and lower engine pylons for protruding, loose, or missing fasteners; and repair if necessary. This AD also requires replacement of affected fasteners, which terminates the inspections. This AD was prompted by reports of loose or missing fasteners and collars on the upper and lower engine pylon structure common to the upper and lower pylon skin panels and engine thrust fitting. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective June 28, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of June 28, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain other publications listed in this AD as of June 10, 2016 (81 FR 33371, May 26, 2016).
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514 855-7401; email
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7329; fax 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2016-11-02, Amendment 39-18529 (81 FR 33371, May 26, 2016) (“AD 2016-11-02”). AD 2016-11-02 applied to all Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes; Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes; Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes; and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority
There have been several reported findings of loose or missing Hi-Lite fasteners and collars on the left hand (L/H) and right hand (R/H) upper and lower engine pylon structure common to the upper and lower pylon skin panels and engine thrust fitting. Missing fasteners in these areas are shown to significantly reduce the safety margins and could result in a structural failure of the engine pylon.
Bombardier, as an interim corrective action issued a new Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM) task for detailed inspection of the engine pylon rib and skin fasteners to inspect for protruding, loose or missing fasteners and rectify any discrepancies noted in accordance with a Repair Engineering Order (REO). The original version of this [Canadian] AD, CF-2016-10, mandated the subject inspection and necessary rectification.
Bombardier has since issued Service Bulletin (SB) 670BA-54-007 to replace all affected fasteners with interference fit fasteners [including applicable related investigative and corrective actions], as terminating action for the mandated inspection requirement. [Canadian] AD CF-2016-10 is now being revised to mandate compliance with SB 670BA-54-007.
Related investigative actions include measurements of the attach holes in the engine pylon upper structure and special detailed visual inspections for cracks in the engine pylon structure. Corrective actions include repair. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Mesa Airlines suggested that Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016, be included in paragraph (l), “Credit for Previous Actions,” of the proposed AD. The commenter did not provide justification for its request. We infer that the commenter made this request to provide credit for operators that completed the actions in Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016, prior to the effective date of the proposed AD.
We do not agree that the commenter's requested change is needed. Paragraph (f) of this AD states that the actions specified in this AD must be accomplished “unless already done.” The phrase “unless already done” provides credit for accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (j) of this AD, if done in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016, prior to the effective date of this AD. Therefore, we have not changed this AD in this regard.
Bombardier requested that Task 54-51-01-220-801, “Detailed Inspection of the Engine Pylon Rib and Skin Fasteners,” to Chapter 54, “Nacelle/Pylons,” to Part 2 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM), be required by paragraph (g) of the proposed AD in lieu of Bombardier Temporary Revision (TR) 54-0007, dated March 8, 2016, to the CRJ700/900/1000 AMM. The commenter stated that Bombardier TR 54-0007 was incorporated into Revision 52 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 AMM, and that the AMM is currently at Revision 56.
We partially agree with the commenter's request. We agree to include Task 54-51-01-220-801, “Detailed Inspection of the Engine Pylon Rib and Skin Fasteners,” to Chapter 54, “Nacelle/Pylons,” to Part 2 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 AMM as a method of compliance in paragraph (g) of this AD, but we do not agree to remove Bombardier TR 54-0007, dated March 8, 2016, to the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 AMM. We have revised paragraph (g) of this AD to include both Task 54-51-01-220-801, “Detailed Inspection of the Engine Pylon Rib and Skin Fasteners,” to Chapter 54, “Nacelle/Pylons,” to Part 2 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 AMM, CSP B-001, Revision 56, dated September 25, 2017; and Bombardier TR 54-0007, dated March 8, 2016. This revision provides operators with an option to use either service document to accomplish the required action.
We reviewed the available data, including the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
Bombardier, Inc., issued Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016. This service information describes procedures for replacing fasteners and collars, including applicable related investigative and corrective actions.
Bombardier, Inc., also issued Repair Engineering Order 670-54-51-034, “Repair for Missing or Loose/Protruding Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088—FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS,” Revision A, dated April 20, 2016. This service information describes procedures for repair, including applicable related investigative and corrective actions.
In addition, Bombardier, Inc., issued TR 54-0007, dated March 8, 2016, to the CRJ700/900/1000 AMM; and Task 54-51-01-220-801, “Detailed Inspection of the Engine Pylon Rib and Skin Fasteners,” to Chapter 54, “Nacelle/Pylons,” to Part 2 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 AMM, CSP B-001, Revision 56, dated September 25, 2017. This service information describes procedures for a detailed visual inspection for protruding, loose, or missing fasteners of the left-hand and right-hand upper and lower engine pylons. The content of these documents is nearly identical, except for labels on the figures; we have chosen to incorporate both documents by reference so that either may be used to comply with certain requirements of this AD.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 273 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary repairs that will be required based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these repairs:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective June 28, 2018.
This AD replaces AD 2016-11-02, Amendment 39-18529 (81 FR 33371, May 26, 2016) (“AD 2016-11-02”).
This AD applies to the airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, serial numbers (S/Ns) 10002 through 10344 inclusive.
(2) Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes, S/Ns 15001 through 15388 inclusive, 15391, 15392, and 15395.
(3) Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, S/Ns 15001 through 15388 inclusive, 15391, 15392, and 15395.
(4) Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes, S/Ns 19001 through 19044 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 54, Nacelles/Pylons.
This AD was prompted by reports of loose or missing fasteners and collars on the upper and lower engine pylon structure common to the upper and lower pylon skin panels and engine thrust fitting. We are issuing this AD to prevent protruding, loose, or missing fasteners, which could result in structural failure of the engine pylons.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2016-11-02, with a reference to new terminating action and additional service information. At the applicable time specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD: Do a detailed visual inspection for protruding, loose, or missing fasteners of the upper and lower engine pylons, in accordance with Bombardier Temporary Revision 54-0007, dated March 8, 2016, to the CRJ700/900/1000 Aircraft Maintenance Manual; or Task 54-51-01-220-801, “Detailed Inspection of the Engine Pylon Rib and Skin Fasteners,” to Chapter 54, “Nacelle/Pylons,” to Part 2 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 Aircraft Maintenance Manual, CSP B-001, Revision 56, dated September 25, 2017. Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1,500 flight hours. Accomplishment of the replacement required by paragraph (j) of this AD is terminating action for the inspections required by this paragraph.
(1) For airplanes that have accumulated more than 840 total flight hours as of June 10, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-11-02): Inspect within 660 flight hours or 3 months, whichever occurs first, after June 10, 2016.
(2) For airplanes that have accumulated 840 total flight hours or less as of June 10, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-11-02): Inspect before the accumulation of 1,500 total flight hours.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2016-11-02, with new service information and contact information. If any protruding, loose, or missing fastener is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, repair, including applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with Bombardier Repair Engineering Order (REO) 670-54-51-034, “Repair for Missing or Loose/Protruding Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088-FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS,” dated March 7, 2016, or Revision A, dated April 20, 2016; except where Bombardier REO 670-54-51-034, “Repair for Missing or Loose/Protruding Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088-FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS,” dated March 7, 2016, or Revision A, dated April 20, 2016; specifies to contact Bombardier for further instruction, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, FAA, New York ACO Branch; or Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA); or Bombardier, Inc.'s TCCA Design Approval Organization (DAO). As of the effective date of this AD, use Bombardier REO 670-54-51-034, “Repair for Missing or Loose/Protruding Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088-FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS,” Revision A, dated April 20, 2016, for the actions required by this paragraph.
This paragraph restates paragraph (i) of AD 2016-11-02, with no changes. This paragraph provides credit only for the initial inspection specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if that action was performed before June 10, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-11-02) using Bombardier Reference Instruction Letter 4212, dated December 23, 2015; or Bombardier Reference Instruction Letter 4212A, Revision A, dated January 28, 2016. These documents are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
Within 12,600 flight hours or 72 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first: Replace affected fasteners and collars, including doing all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016. Where Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016, specifies to contact Bombardier for appropriate action: Before further flight, accomplish the applicable corrective action in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (m)(2) of this AD.
Accomplishing the replacement required by paragraph (j) of this AD constitutes terminating action for the inspections required by the introductory text of paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Bombardier REO 670-54-51-034, “Repair for Missing or Loose/Protruding Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088-FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS,” dated March 7, 2016. This document was incorporated by reference in AD 2016-11-02.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (j) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Bombardier REO 670-54-51-035, “Permanent Repair for Clearance Fit Installed (-8) Size Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088—FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS & Terminating Action for GREO 670-54-51-034,” dated April 20, 2016. This document is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(i) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(ii) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2016-11-02 are acceptable for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian AD CF-2016-10R1, dated July 8, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7329; fax 516-794-5531.
(3) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (o)(5) and (o)(6) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on June 28, 2018.
(i) Bombardier Repair Engineering Order 670-54-51-034, “Repair for Missing or Loose/Protruding Fasteners in Upper and Lower Pylon Skins FS 1088—FS 1098, PBL 69.3 L & RHS,” Revision A, dated April 20, 2016.
(ii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-54-007, dated May 13, 2016.
(iii) Task 54-51-01-220-801, “Detailed Inspection of the Engine Pylon Rib and Skin Fasteners,” to Chapter 54, “Nacelle/Pylons,” to Part 2 of the Bombardier CRJ700/900/1000 Aircraft Maintenance Manual, CSP B-001, Revision 56, dated September 25, 2017.
(4) The following service information was approved for IBR on June 10, 2016 (81 FR 33371, May 26, 2016).
(i) Bombardier Temporary Revision 54-0007, dated March 8, 2016, to the CRJ700/900/1000 Aircraft Maintenance Manual.
(ii) Reserved.
(5) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte
(6) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Standards Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(7) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2018-06-10 for certain Honda Aircraft Company LLC Model HA-420 airplanes. AD 2018-06-10 required incorporating a temporary revision into the airplane flight manual and replacing faulty power brake valves upon condition. This AD retains the actions required in AD 2018-06-10 and adds airplanes to the Applicability section. This AD was prompted by an inadvertent mistake in the serial number applicability (both in the service bulletin and in the AD). We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products by correcting the inadvertent serial number error.
This AD is effective May 29, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 29, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain other publications listed in this AD as of April 13, 2018 (83 FR 13401, March 29, 2018).
We must receive any comments on this AD by July 9, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Honda Aircraft Company LLC, 6430 Ballinger Road, Greensboro, North Carolina 27410; telephone (336) 662-0246; internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Samuel Kovitch, Aerospace Engineer, Atlanta ACO Branch, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; phone: (404) 474-5570; fax: (404) 474-5605; email:
We issued AD 2018-06-10, Amendment 39-19230 (83 FR 13401, March 29, 2018), (“AD 2018-06-10”), for certain Honda Aircraft Company LLC Model HA-420 airplanes. AD 2018-06-10 required incorporating a temporary revision into the airplane flight manual and replacing faulty power brake valves upon condition. AD 2018-06-10 resulted from reports of unannunciated asymmetric braking during ground operations and landing deceleration. We issued AD 2018-06-10 to detect failure of the power brake valve. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in degraded braking performance and reduced directional control during ground operations and landing deceleration.
Since we issued AD 2018-06-10, we were notified by Honda Aircraft Company that Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, dated January 8, 2018, contains a typographical error in the serial number effectivity, which was also used as the basis for the Applicability section of AD 2018-06-10. The service bulletin incorrectly listed the applicable Model HA-420 airplane serial number effectivity as 42000011 through 4200089 instead of 42000011 through 42000089. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products by correcting the inadvertent serial number error.
We reviewed Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, Revision B, dated April 16, 2018. The service information describes procedures for replacing a defective PBV with an improved design PBV. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This AD requires inserting a temporary revision into the AFM, which may be performed by the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate and must be entered into the airplane records showing
We consider this AD interim action. We are currently considering requiring replacement of the installed PBV, P/N HJ1-13243-101-005 or P/N HJ1-13243-101-007, with an improved part, which will constitute terminating action for the temporary revision to the AFM. However, the planned compliance time for the replacement of the PBV would allow enough time to provide notice and opportunity for prior comment on the merit of the replacement.
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD without providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adoption. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because failure of the PBV could cause degraded braking performance and reduced directional control during ground operations and landing deceleration. Therefore, we find good cause that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable. In addition, for the reason stated above, we find that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments before it becomes effective. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD affects 72 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the pilot check of the braking system during ground operations before every flight and before every landing. We have no way of determining the number of airplanes that might need these replacements:
Since the addition of airplanes to the Applicability section is based on a typographical error in the manufacturer's service information, all affected airplanes were previously accounted for in the cost estimate of AD 2018-06-10. There is no change to this Cost of Compliance section.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to small airplanes, gliders, balloons, airships, domestic business jet transport airplanes, and associated appliances to the Director of the Policy and Innovation Division.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends part 39 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 29, 2018.
This AD replaces AD 2018-06-10, Amendment 39-19230 (83 FR 13401, March 29, 2018), (“AD 2018-06-10”).
This AD applies to Honda Aircraft Company LLC Model HA-420 airplanes, serial numbers 42000011 through 42000089, that:
(1) have power brake valve, part number (P/N) HJ1-13243-101-005 or HJ1-13243-101-007, installed; and
(2) are certificated in any category.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC)/Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32, Landing Gear.
This AD was prompted by reports of unannunciated asymmetric braking during ground operations and landing deceleration. We are issuing this AD to detect failure of the power brake valve and to correct the inadvertent serial number error in AD 2018-06-10. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in degraded braking performance and reduced directional control during ground operations and landing deceleration.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Before further flight after May 29, 2018 (the effective date of this AD) insert Honda Aircraft Company Temporary Revision TR 01.1, dated February 16, 2018, into the Honda Aircraft Company (Honda) HA-420 Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) (“the temporary revision”). This insertion and the steps therein may be performed by the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate and must be entered into the airplane records showing compliance with this AD in accordance with 14 CFR 43.9 (a)(1)-(4) and 14 CFR 91.417(a)(2)(v). The record must be maintained as required by 14 CFR 91.417, 121.380, or 135.439.
As of and any time after May 29, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), if any of the procedures listed in the temporary revision referenced in paragraph (g) of this AD reveal a leaking PBV, before further flight, replace the PBV, P/N HJ1-13243-101-005 or P/N HJ1-13243-101-007, with the improved design PBV, P/N HJ1-13243-101-009. Do the replacement using the Accomplishment Instructions in either Honda Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, dated January 8, 2018, or Revision B, dated April 16, 2018. Before further flight after installing P/N HJ1-13243-101-009, remove the temporary revision from the Honda HA-420 AFM.
Although Honda Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, dated January 8, 2018, and Revision B, dated April 16, 2018, specify submitting certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not require that action.
(1) Instead of inserting the temporary revision or at any time after inserting the temporary revision required by paragraph (g) of this AD, you may replace the installed PBV, P/N HJ1-13243-101-005 or P/N HJ1-13243-101-007, with the improved design PBV, P/N HJ1-13243-101-009. The replacement must be done using the Accomplishment Instructions in either Honda Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, dated January 8, 2018, or Revision B, dated April 16, 2018. Before further flight after installing P/N HJ1-13243-101-009, remove the temporary revision from the Honda HA-420 AFM.
(2) If you choose to follow the temporary revision required by paragraph (g) of this AD instead of the optional replacement in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, the on-condition replacement required by paragraph (h) of this AD is still required before further flight.
Special flight permits for this AD are prohibited.
(1) The Manager, Atlanta ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (l)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with this AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Samuel Kovitch, Aerospace Engineer, Atlanta ACO Branch, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; phone: (404) 474-5570; fax: (404) 474-5605; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on May 29, 2018.
(i) Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, Revision B, dated April 16, 2018.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) The following service information was approved for IBR on April 13, 2018 (83 FR 13401, March 29, 2018).
(i) Honda Aircraft Company Temporary Revision TR 01.1, dated February 16, 2018, to the Honda Aircraft Company HA-420 Airplane Flight Manual.
(ii) Honda Service Bulletin SB-420-32-001, dated January 8, 2018.
(5) For Honda Aircraft Company LLC service information identified in this AD, contact Honda Aircraft Company LLC, 6430 Ballinger Road, Greensboro, North Carolina 27410; telephone (336) 662-0246; internet:
(6) You may view this service information at the FAA, Policy and Innovation Division, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.
(7) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a special local regulation on the waters of the Wando River, Cooper River, and Charleston Harbor during the Low Country Splash Open Water Swim event. This action is necessary to ensure the safety of event participants and the general public on navigable waters of the United States during the event. This special local regulation prohibits non-participant persons and vessels from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within a moving regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP) Charleston or a designated representative.
This rule is effective from 7 a.m. until 11 a.m. on May 26, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Lieutenant Justin Heck, Sector Charleston Office of Waterways Management, Coast Guard; telephone (843) 740-3184, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. We must establish this special local regulation on May 26, 2018 and lack sufficient time to publish an NPRM, provide a reasonable comment period and then consider those comments before issuing this rule. The NPRM process would delay the establishment of the regulated area until after the date of the swim event and compromise public safety.
For the reason discussed above, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority to establish special local regulations in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port Charleston (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the Low Country Splash Open Swim event presents a safety concern for anyone in the vicinity of the regulated area during the event. This rule is needed to protect participants, spectators, and the general public in the navigable waters within the regulated area during the Low Country Splash Open Swim event.
This rule establishes a special local regulation that will encompass certain waters of the Wando River, Cooper River, and Charleston Harbor during the Low Country Splash Open Swim event. The special local regulation will be enforced from 7 a.m. until 11 a.m. on May 26, 2018. This special local regulation will establish a moving regulated area beginning at Daniel Island Pier, south along the coast of Daniel Island, across the Wando River to Hobcaw Yacht Club, south along the coast of Mt. Pleasant, SC, to Charleston Harbor Resort Marina. Within the regulated area, non-participant persons and vessels are prohibited from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within the regulated area without obtaining permission from the COTP Charleston or a designated representative. Persons and vessels may request authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated areas by contacting the COTP Charleston by telephone at (843) 740-7050, or a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16. If authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated areas is granted by the COTP Charleston or a designated representative, all persons and vessels receiving such authorization must comply with the instructions of the COTP Charleston or a designated representative. The Coast Guard will provide notice of the regulated areas by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners, or by on-scene designated representatives.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration and time-of-day of the event. Vessel traffic will be able to safely transit around the regulated area during the event, which will impact a small, moving area of the waters of the Wando River, Cooper River, and Charleston Harbor for a period of only four hours. Moreover, the Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone, and the rule would allow vessels to seek permission from the COTP or a designated representative to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on “small entities” comprised of small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the special local regulation area may be small entities, for the reasons stated in V.A. above, this rule would not have a significant impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a special local regulation issued in conjunction with a regatta or marine parade that will prohibit persons and vessels from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within a moving regulated area on the waters of the Wando River, Cooper River, and Charleston Harbor. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L61 of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Marine Safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1233; 33 CFR 1.05-1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Persons and vessels desiring to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area may contact the COTP Charleston by telephone at 843-740-7050, or a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16, to request authorization.
(3) If authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area is granted, all persons and vessels receiving such authorization must comply with the instructions of the COTP Charleston or a designated representative.
(4) The Coast Guard will provide notice of the regulated area by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners, and on-scene designated representatives.
(d)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Marine Parkway (Gil Hodges) Bridge across Jamaica Bay, mile 3.0, at Queens, NY. This temporary deviation extends the period the bridge may remain in the closed-to-navigation position and is necessary to finalize emergency repairs.
This deviation is effective from 12:01 a.m. on May 26, 2018, to 11:59 p.m. on June 29, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0595 is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Judy K. Leung-Yee, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 212-514-4336, email
On July 6, 2017, the Coast Guard published a temporary deviation entitled “Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Jamaica Bay, Queens, NY” in the
The owner of the bridge, the Metropolitan Transportation Authority, requested a second temporary deviation to extend the bridge closure from 12:01 a.m. on May 26, 2018 to 11:59 p.m. on June 29, 2018. This extension is necessary to complete emergency repairs associated with the replacement of lift span machinery that has been delayed by inclement weather.
The Marine Parkway (Gil Hodges) Bridge across Rockaway Inlet, mile 3.0 at Queens, New York is a vertical lift bridge with a vertical clearance of 55 feet at mean high water and 59 feet at mean low water in the closed position. The existing drawbridge operating regulations are listed at 33 CFR 117.795(a).
The waterway is transited by seasonal recreational traffic and some commercial vessels. Coordination with waterway users has indicated no objections to the proposed closure of the draw. Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies. There is no immediate alternate route for vessels unable to pass through the bridge when in the closed position.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by this temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is modifying the operating schedule that governs the Chambers Bay railroad lift bridge (Chambers Bay Bridge) across Chambers Bay, mile 0.01, near Steilacoom in Pierce County, WA. The modified schedule removes the bridge operator at the subject drawbridge between the hours of 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. due to minimal usage.
This rule is effective June 25, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Steven M. Fischer, Bridge Administrator, Thirteenth Coast Guard District Bridge Program Office, telephone 206-220-7282; email
On March 12, 2018, we published a notice of proposed rulemaking entitled Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Chambers Bay, Steilacoom, WA, in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority 33 U.S.C. 499. Chambers Bay Bridge across Chambers Bay, mile 0.01, near Steilacoom in Pierce County, WA, is a lift bridge and provides a vertical clearance of 10ft in the closed-to-navigation position, and 50ft of vertical clearance in the open-to-navigation position (reference MHW elevation of 12.2 feet). The subject bridge operates in accordance with 33 CFR 117.5. This rule will be a specific operating rule in Subpart B. This new rule allows BNSF to better balance the needs of marine and rail traffic, and modifies the operating schedule by removing the bridge operator between the evening hours of 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. due to minimal usage. In the last 6 years, only 2% of the subject bridge lifts have occurred between the hours of 10 p.m. and 6 a.m., which equates to approximately 5 openings a year.
We provided a comment period of 30 days, and no comments were received. The current rule for the subject bridge is open on demand (33 CFR 117.5). However, this rule will be a new specific regulation in Subpart B. The new rule will authorize BNSF to remove the bridge operator at the Chambers Bay Bridge from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m., but the draw shall open on signal if at least four hours of notice is given. For vessels engaged in emergency response, the draw will be required to open as soon as possible, and no later than one hour after notification.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analysis based on these statutes and Executive Orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance, it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771. This regulatory action determination is based on the ability that vessels can still transit the bridge given advanced notice.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rule. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit under the bridge may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A. above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. We have not received any comments for this rule change.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble. We have not
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a determination that this action is one of a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule simply promulgates the operating regulations or procedures for drawbridges. This action is categorically excluded from further review, under figure 2-1, paragraph (32)(e), of the Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration and a Memorandum for the Record are not required for this rule.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Bridges.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 117 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 499; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
The draw of the Chambers Bay railroad lift bridge, mile 0.01, at Chambers Bay, shall open on signal except between 10 p.m. to 6 a.m. The draw shall open on signal from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m. when at least four hours of notice has been given via the phone number displayed at the bridge, and as soon as possible, no later than 1 hour after notification, for vessels engaged in emergency response.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce safety zones regulations at various locations in the Sector Columbia River Captain of the Port zone. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters during fireworks displays. While these safety zone regulations are subject to enforcement, persons and vessels are prohibited from being in the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Columbia River or a designated representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1315 will be enforced for the safety zones identified in the
If you have questions about this notice of enforcement, call or email LCDR Laura Springer, Waterways Management Division, Marine Safety Unit Portland, Coast Guard; telephone 503-240-9319, email
These safety zones found in 33 CFR 165.1315 will be activated and thus subject to enforcement at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the duration of the event each day as listed in the following Table:
All coordinates are listed in reference Datum NAD 1983.
In addition to this notice of enforcement in the
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for multiple fireworks events launched in the vicinity of Penn's Landing, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, for waters of the Delaware River, Philadelphia, PA. Establishment of this safety zone is necessary to enhance safety of life on navigable waters immediately prior to, during, and immediately after these fireworks events. During the enforcement periods, no vessel may enter in or transit this regulated area without approval from the Captain of the Port Delaware Bay or a designated representative.
This rule is effective from May 24, 2018 through May 27, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Petty Officer Edmund Ofalt, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Delaware Bay, Waterways Management Division, Coast Guard; telephone (215) 271-4814, email
On March 1, 2018, the Coast Guard was notified of fireworks events planned for May 24, 25, 26, and 27, 2018. In response, on May 2, 2018, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled Safety Zone; Fireworks, Delaware River, Philadelphia, PA (83 FR 19189). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this fireworks display. During the comment period that ended May 9, 2018, we received no comments.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP Delaware Bay has determined that potential hazards associated with the fireworks to be used in fireworks displays from May 24 through May 27, 2018 will be a safety concern for anyone within the area defined later in this document. The purpose of this rule is to ensure safety of vessels and the navigable waters in the safety zone before, during, and after the scheduled event.
As noted above, we received no comments on our NPRM published May 2, 2018. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.
This rule establishes a safety zone on the Delaware River adjacent to Penns Landing in Philadelphia, PA, May 24, 2018, through May 27, 2018. The safety zone will be enforced from approximately 8 p.m. to 11 p.m. on nights on which fireworks are being displayed from a barge in the Delaware River. These fireworks displays may be held on May 24th, 25th, 26th, and 27th, or on only some of these dates. Notification of enforcement dates and times will be published in the Coast Guard District 5 Local Notice to Mariners and broadcast via Broadcast Notice to Mariners. The safety zone will include all navigable waters of Delaware River, adjacent to Penns Landing, Philadelphia, PA, bounded from shoreline to shoreline, bounded on the south by a line running east to west from points along the shoreline connecting at latitude 39°56′31.2″ N, longitude 075°08′28.1″ W; thence westward to latitude 39°56′29″.1 N, longitude 075°07′56.5″ W, and bounded on the north by the southern edge of the Benjamin Franklin Bridge where it crosses the Delaware River.
Access to this safety zone will be restricted during the specified enforcement dates and time periods. Vessels may not take on bunkers or conduct lightering operations inside the zone during times of enforcement. Only vessels or persons specifically authorized by the COTP Delaware Bay or designated representative may enter or remain in the regulated area. Requests to enter or remain in the zone will be required to be submitted to the COTP Delaware Bay, or his designated representative via VHF-FM channel 16
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration and time of day of the safety zone. The proposed safety zone will impact waters affected by this rule on May 24, 25, 26, and 27, 2018 from 8 p.m. to 11 p.m. During this time of day commercial and recreational traffic is normally low. Notifications of enforcement dates and times will be made to the maritime community via Broadcast Notice to Mariners and Local Notice to Mariners so that plans may be adjusted accordingly. Notifications will be updated as necessary, to keep the maritime community informed of the status of the safety zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.1D, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone that will only be enforced for a short duration and excludes vessels from entry into or remaining within a specified area on the Delaware River. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) To seek permission to enter or remain in the zone, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative via VHF-FM channel 16 or 215-271-4807. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
(3) No vessel may take on bunkers or conduct lightering operations within the safety zone during its enforcement period(s).
(4) This section applies to all vessels except those engaged in law enforcement, aids to navigation servicing, and emergency response operations.
(d)
(e)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for certain navigable waters of Laguna Madre, South Padre Island, TX. This safety zone is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with firework displays. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Corpus Christi or a designated representative.
This rule is effective from 8:45 p.m. on May 25, 2018, through 9:45 p.m. on September 2, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Petty Officer Kevin Kyles, Sector Corpus Christi Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 361-939-5125, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it would be impracticable. This safety zone must be established by May 25, 2018 and we lack sufficient time to provide a reasonable comment period and then consider those comments before issuing this rule. The NPRM process would delay the establishment of the safety zone until after the scheduled date of the fireworks and compromise public safety.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port Sector Corpus Christi (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the fireworks display occurring on May 25, 2018 through September 2, 2018 will be a safety concern for anyone within a 1000-foot radius of the fireworks display. This rule is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment before, during, and after the scheduled firework displays.
This rule establishes a safety zone from 8:45 p.m. on May 25, 2018 through 9:45 p.m. on September 2, 2018. It will be enforced from 8:45 p.m. through 9:45 p.m. each day on May 25, 27; June 1, 7, 8, 14, 15, 21, 22, 28, 29; July 4, 5, 6, 12, 13, 19, 20, 26, 27; August 2, 3, 9, 10, 17,
Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Corpus Christi (COTP) or a designated representative. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. A designated representative is a commissioned, warrant, or petty officer of the U.S. Coast Guard assigned to units under the operational control of USCG Sector Corpus Christi. All persons and vessels permitted to enter this safety zone must transit at the slowest safe speed and comply with all lawful directions issued by the COTP or the designated representative. The COTP or a designated representative will inform the public of the enforcement times and date for this safety zone through Broadcast Notices to Mariners (BNMs), Local Notices to Mariners (LNMs), and/or Marine Safety Information Bulletins (MSIBs), as appropriate.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the safety zone. Vessel traffic will be able to safely transit around this safety zone, which will impact a small designated area of Laguna Madre for about 1 hour during evenings when vessel traffic is normally low. Moreover, the Coast Guard will issue a BNMs via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone, and the rule allows vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.1D, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting one hour that would prohibit entry within 500 feet of the fireworks launch location. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A Record of Environmental Consideration
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) Persons or vessels seeking to enter the safety zone must request permission from the COTP or a designated representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at 361-939-0450.
(3) All persons and vessels permitted to enter this safety zone must transit at the slowest safe speed and comply with all lawful directions issued by the COTP or the designated representative.
(e)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary moving safety zone in the navigable waters of the San Francisco Bay near AT&T Park in support of the San Francisco State University Fireworks Display on May 24, 2018. This safety zone is established to ensure the safety of participants and spectators from the dangers associated with pyrotechnics. Unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into, transiting through, or remaining in the safety zone without permission of the Captain of the Port or their designated representative.
This rule is effective from 11:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m. on May 24, 2018.
Documents mentioned in this preamble are part of docket USCG-2018-0420. To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Lieutenant Junior Grade Emily Rowan, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Francisco; telephone (415) 399-7443 or email at
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary final rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule. Since the Coast Guard received notice of this event on March 26, 2018, notice and comment procedures would be impracticable in this instance.
For similar reasons as those stated above, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port (COTP) San Francisco has determined that potential hazards associated with the planned fireworks display on May 24, 2018, will be a safety concern for anyone within a 100-foot radius of the fireworks barge and anyone within a 560-foot radius of the fireworks firing site. This rule is needed to protect spectators, vessels, and other property from hazards associated with pyrotechnics.
This rule establishes a temporary safety zone during the loading and transit of the fireworks barge, until after completion of the fireworks display. During the loading of the pyrotechnics onto the fireworks barge, scheduled to take place from 11:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
The fireworks barge will remain at Pier 50 until the start of its transit to the display location. Towing of the barge from Pier 50 to the display location is scheduled to take place from 8:00 p.m. to 8:30 p.m. on May 24, 2018, where it will remain until the conclusion of the fireworks display.
At 9:00 p.m. on May 24, 2018, 30 minutes prior to the commencement of the 10-minute fireworks display, the safety zone will increase in size and encompass the navigable waters around and under the fireworks barge within a radius of 560 feet in approximate position 37°46′36″ N, 122°22′56″ W (NAD 83) for the San Francisco State University Graduation Fireworks Display. The safety zone shall terminate at 10:00 p.m. on May 24, 2018.
The effect of the temporary safety zone is to restrict navigation in the vicinity of the fireworks loading, transit, and firing site. Except for persons or vessels authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative, no person or vessel may enter or remain in the restricted areas. These regulations are needed to keep spectators and vessels away from the immediate vicinity of the fireworks firing sites to ensure the safety of participants, spectators, and transiting vessels.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the limited duration and narrowly tailored geographic area of the safety zone. Although this rule restricts access to the waters encompassed by the safety zone, the effect of this rule will not be significant because the local waterway users will be notified via public Broadcast Notice to Mariners to ensure the safety zone will result in minimum impact. The entities most likely to be affected are waterfront facilities, commercial vessels, and pleasure craft engaged in recreational activities.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This rule may affect the following entities, some of which may be small entities: Owners and operators of waterfront facilities, commercial vessels, and pleasure craft engaged in recreational activities and sightseeing, if these facilities or vessels are in the vicinity of the safety zone at times when this zone is being enforced. This rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities for the following reasons: (i) This rule will encompass only a small portion of the waterway for a limited period of time, and (ii) the maritime public will be advised in advance of these safety zones via Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) The safety zone is closed to all vessel traffic, except as may be permitted by the COTP or a designated representative.
(3) Vessel operators desiring to enter or operate within the safety zone must contact the COTP or a designated representative to obtain permission to do so. Vessel operators given permission to enter or operate in the safety zone must comply with all directions given to them by the COTP or a designated representative. Persons and vessels may request permission to enter the safety zones on VHF-23A or through the 24-hour Command Center at telephone (415) 399-3547.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a state submission as a revision to the Illinois state implementation plan (SIP). The revision, submitted on May 30, 2017, incorporates changes to the Illinois Administrative Code (IAC) definition of “volatile organic material” or “volatile organic compounds” (VOC). The revision removes recordkeeping and emission reporting requirements related to the use of tertiary butyl acetate (also known as t-butyl acetate) as a VOC. The revision is consistent with an EPA 2016 rulemaking related to tertiary butyl acetate. In addition, Illinois' submission includes the addition of chemical identification information to the list of compounds excluded from the definition of VOC and the deletion of an unnecessary phrase in the definition of VOC. EPA proposed this action on November 2, 2017, and received one public comment in response.
This final rule is effective on June 25, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2017-0323. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Charles Hatten, Environmental Engineer, Control Strategies Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-3031,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
On May 30, 2017, Illinois submitted, as a SIP revision, a request to revise and update the definition of VOC at Part 211, Subpart B, Section 7150 (35 IAC 211.7150). Illinois also submitted corrections to chemical names and revisions to chemical identifiers included in the list of compounds excluded from the definition of VOC at 35 IAC 211.7150(a) and a minor deletion of an unnecessary phrase in 35 IAC 211.7150(d).
The revision addresses an existing exemption related to defining tertiary butyl acetate as a VOC. Before this action, the Illinois SIP excluded this compound from the definition of VOC for purposes of VOC emission limitations and VOC content requirements, but defined the compound as a VOC for all recordkeeping, emissions reporting, photochemical dispersion modeling and inventory requirements that apply to VOC. (69 FR 69298, November 29, 2004). This approach was consistent with EPA's regulation of tertiary butyl acetate at the time this portion of the SIP was originally approved. (64 FR 52731, September 30, 1999).
On February 25, 2016, EPA promulgated a final rule amending the definition of VOC to remove the recordkeeping, emissions reporting, photochemical dispersion modeling and inventory requirements related to the use of tertiary butyl acetate as a VOC. (81 FR 9339, codified at 40 CFR 51.100(s)). See 82 FR 50812 for a more detailed summary of the basis for EPA's 2016 rulemaking. In order to conform to EPA's current definition, Illinois revised its definition of VOC to remove the recordkeeping, emissions reporting, photochemical dispersion modeling and inventory requirements for tertiary butyl acetate within the definition of VOC (35 IAC 211.7150).
Additionally, Illinois amended the list of excluded compounds in 35 IAC 211.7150 by adding the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) names
On November 2, 2017, EPA published a proposed rule approving Illinois' requested revision to the SIP at 35 IAC 211.7150 and providing a 30-day public comment period. (82 FR 50853, published in parallel with a Direct Final Rule that was subsequently withdrawn, see 82 FR 50811, 60545).
EPA received one adverse comment on the proposed approval of the Illinois definition of VOC.
The comment primarily concerns two separate EPA actions related to tertiary butyl acetate, the exclusion of the compound from the definition of VOC and the removal of related recordkeeping and reporting requirements, which were taken in 2004 and 2016, respectively.
Nevertheless, EPA notes that it has previously addressed the commenter's concerns in the preambles to the final rules referenced above. Those documents discuss in great detail the nature of VOCs, EPA's approach to organic compounds with a negligible level of reactivity, the chemical characteristics of tertiary butyl acetate, and the bases for EPA's 2004 and 2016 decisions to exclude tertiary butyl acetate from the definition of VOC and remove the recordkeeping and emission reporting requirements related to tertiary butyl acetate as a VOC.
EPA is approving, as a SIP revision, the removal of the recordkeeping and emission reporting requirements applicable to tertiary butyl acetate as a VOC at 35 IAC 211.7150(e), the addition of chemical identification information for excluded compounds in 35 IAC 211.7150(a), and the removal of the phrase “of this Section” in 35 IAC 211.7150(d) contained in the May 30, 2017, submittal.
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Illinois Regulations described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866.
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 23, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve a revision to the Antelope Valley Air Quality Management District (AVAQMD) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). This revision concerns the emissions of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from motor vehicle assembly coating operations. We are approving a local rule to regulate these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
This rule will be effective on June 25, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2017-0760. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Arnold Lazarus, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3024,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA.
On March 19, 2018 (83 FR 11944), the EPA proposed to approve the following rule into the California SIP.
We proposed to approve this rule because we determined that it complies with the relevant CAA requirements. Our proposed action contains more information on the rule and our evaluation.
The EPA's proposed action provided a 30-day public comment period. During this period, we received six comments. One comment noted that the rule focuses specifically on “motor vehicle assembly coating operations,” and stated that it should include all components of the car manufacturing process, in order to address issues related to climate change. Rule 1151.1 is intended to control VOC emissions from a specific type of operation, and as such, we believe that the rule is appropriate in scope and stringency. For the reasons addressed in the proposal, the EPA has determined that the rule is consistent with applicable CAA requirements and appropriate for inclusion in the SIP.
The other five comments raised issues outside the scope of this rulemaking, including bird and bat deaths associated with wind turbines and the risks of unmanaged forests and wildfires. None of those comments are germane to our evaluation of Rule 1151.1.
No comments were submitted that changed our assessment of the rule as described in our proposed action. Therefore, as authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is fully approving this rule into the California SIP.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the AVAQMD rule described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L, 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 23, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(503) New and amended regulations for the following APCDs were submitted on August 9, 2017 by the Governor's designee.
(i) Incorporation by reference.
(A) Antelope Valley Air Quality Management District.
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
Whenever a new or revised National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) is promulgated, the Clean Air Act requires states to submit a plan for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the standard, commonly referred to as infrastructure requirements. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the Oregon State Implementation Plan (SIP) as meeting infrastructure requirements for the 2010 nitrogen dioxide, 2010 sulfur dioxide, and 2012 fine particulate matter NAAQS. The EPA is also approving, and incorporating by reference, rule changes made by the state to implement the fine particulate matter NAAQS, relevant to this infrastructure action, and the ozone NAAQS, unrelated to this action, but included for efficiency.
This final rule is effective June 25, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2016-0056. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Kristin Hall at (206) 553-6357, or
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On February 23, 2018, the EPA proposed to approve Oregon's December 27, 2013, and October 20, 2015, SIP submissions as meeting certain infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act for the 2010 nitrogen dioxide (NO
The public comment period for the EPA's proposed action ended on March 26, 2018. We received 26 electronic comments submitted anonymously through
The EPA is approving Oregon's December 27, 2013, and October 20, 2015, SIP submissions as meeting specific infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act. We find that the Oregon SIP meets the following Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2) infrastructure elements for the 2010 NO
We are also approving, and incorporating by reference at 40 CFR part 52, subpart MM, the following rule sections:
• OAR 340-202-0060
• OAR 340-250-0030
• OAR 340-202-0090
We note that the approval of OAR 340-202-0090 is unrelated and unnecessary for our infrastructure action. We are including it in this action for efficiency. This action is being taken under section 110 of the Clean Air Act.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Oregon Administrative Rules related to ambient air quality standards described in section II. Final Action, and the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 23, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(f) The EPA approves Oregon's December 27, 2013, submission as meeting the following CAA section 110(a)(2) infrastructure elements for the 2010 nitrogen dioxide and 2010 sulfur dioxide NAAQS: (A), (B), (C), (D)(i)(II), (D)(ii), (E), (F), (G), (H), (J), (K), (L), and (M).
(g) The EPA approves Oregon's October 20, 2015, submission as meeting the following CAA section 110(a)(2) infrastructure elements for the 2012 PM
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of pydiflumetofen in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Syngenta Crop Protection requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective May 24, 2018. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before July 23, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0775, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0775 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before July 23, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0775, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
Additionally, the petition requested to establish tolerances for residues of pydiflumetofen and 2,4,6-trichlorophenol in or on cattle, fat at 0.03 ppm; cattle, kidney at 0.02 ppm; cattle, liver at 0.04 ppm; cattle, meat at 0.02 ppm; cattle, byproducts at 0.04 ppm; goat, fat at 0.03 ppm; goat, kidney at 0.02 ppm; goat, liver at 0.04 ppm; goat, meat at 0.02 ppm; goat, meat byproducts at 0.04 ppm; horse, fat at 0.03 ppm; horse, kidney at 0.02 ppm; horse, liver at 0.04 ppm; horse, meat at 0.02 ppm; horse, meat byproducts at 0.04 ppm; milk at 0.02 ppm; milk, cream at 0.04 ppm; sheep, fat at 0.03 ppm; sheep, kidney at 0.02 ppm; sheep, liver at 0.04 ppm; sheep, meat at 0.02 ppm; and sheep, meat byproducts at 0.04 ppm. That document referenced a summary of the petition prepared by Syngenta Crop Protection, the registrant, which is available in the docket,
Consistent with the authority in FFDCA section 408(d)(4)(A)(1), EPA is establishing tolerances as requested with some variations. The reasons for these changes are explained in Unit IV.D.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for pydiflumetofen including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with pydiflumetofen follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
The liver was a common target across species tested, likely in part due to the extensive first pass metabolism of absorbed pydiflumetofen. Liver effects were either concurrent with body weight depression and other target organ toxicity as in rats, or the first symptoms of treatment-related toxicity as in mice and dogs. Liver toxicity commonly manifested as increased liver weight concordant with hepatocyte hypertrophy in all species and was accompanied by increased cholesterol and triglyceride serum levels and a higher incidence of liver masses and eosinophilic foci of cellular alteration in mice and increased serum levels of liver enzymes and triglycerides in dogs. Male mice further exhibited a dose-dependent increase in the incidence of hepatocellular adenomas and carcinomas (accounted for separately and combined) and in the frequency of individual mice exhibiting multiple liver adenomas following chronic exposure. Treatment-related liver tumors were not observed in female mice nor in rats of either sex.
Body weight effects were also observed in rodents in response to treatment. Adult rats experienced depressed body weight following both subchronic (concurrent with liver toxicity) and chronic oral exposure (in isolation) and mice exhibited body weight depression following chronic exposure concurrent with symptoms of liver toxicity. A dose-dependent increase in the incidence and severity of thyroid gland follicular cell hypertrophy was also noted in rats following subchronic dietary exposure at doses greater than or equal to 587 mg/kg/day. In general, short and intermediate duration repeat dose oral exposures were well tolerated by adult rodents and dogs. Rodents were, however, considerably less tolerant of long-term exposure. Liver and body weight effects manifested at doses 25 and 12 times lower in chronic studies as compared to subchronic studies in mice and rats, respectively. A similar progression of toxicity was not evident in dogs.
The database does not support a conclusion that the pesticide is a neurotoxicant. Although a dose-dependent decrease in two locomotor activity parameters, number of rears and total distance traveled, was observed in female adult rats only within 6 hours of exposure following acute gavage oral exposure to doses greater than or equal to 300 mg/kg in the acute neurotoxicity study, there were no neuropathology lesions or consistent evidence of other behavioral changes accompanying the depressed locomotor activity up to acute doses of 2000 mg/kg. Detailed functional observations of rats and dogs following repeat dose dietary exposure did not identify similar changes in locomotor activity or any other behavioral changes indicative of neurotoxicity.
Body weight toxicity was not a unique observation in adults; it was also observed in rat offspring. In the two-generation reproduction study, rat pups exhibited significantly reduced weight during lactation that persisted through weaning and into adulthood. The pup body weight decrements were observed in the absence of parental toxicity indicating post-natal susceptibility to pydiflumetofen exposure. There was no evidence of enhanced fetal susceptibility following gestational exposure to pregnant rats or rabbits in the developmental studies.
Although there is some evidence of carcinogenicity in the database (
Pydiflumetofen exhibited low acute toxicity via the dermal and inhalation route. Acute dermal exposure to dermal doses of 5000 mg/kg elicited reduced activity in rats similar to observations following acute oral exposure, but it did not incur mortality. Acute exposure did not irritate the skin nor did it elicit dermal sensitization. No dermal or systemic toxicity was observed following repeat-dose dermal exposures up to 1000 mg/kg/day. Acute lethality from inhalation exposure was limited to high inhalation concentrations and it was a mild acute eye irritant. The requirement for the subchronic inhalation toxicity study was waived for the pydiflumetofen risk assessment based on a weight of evidence (WoE) approach that considered all of the available hazard and exposure information for pydiflumetofen, including: (1) The physical-chemical properties of pydiflumetofen indicated low volatility (vapor pressure is 3.98 x 10
The toxicity of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol—a pydiflumetofen metabolite and residue of concern in livestock commodities—was evaluated based on studies from the open literature that were provided by the registrant, identified in a previous EPA review of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol (
These studies illustrate a spectrum of responses to increasing oral 2,4,6-trichlorophenol exposure: Isolated organ weight changes and a reduction in litter size were observed at doses as low as 30 mg/kg/day with adverse effects in the target tissues and significant body weight depression in adult animals manifesting when the oral dose exceeded 200 mg/kg/day. However, the 2,4,6-trichlorophenol doses that elicited the subchronic and chronic toxicity described above were not below the empirical NOAELs established in comparable pydiflumetofen guideline studies (after converting both to millimoles/kg/day) suggesting that direct exposure to 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is not more toxic than direct exposure to pydiflumetofen. Furthermore, direct exposure to 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is anticipated from dietary exposures only and the dietary PODs selected for pydiflumetofen are protective of all adverse effects reported in the 2,4,6-trichlorophenol literature.
The carcinogenic potential of 2,4,6-tricholorophenol was assessed in 1990 by EPA and classified as a B2-probable human carcinogen in accordance with the 1986 cancer classification guidance based on an increased incidence of combined lymphomas and leukemias in male F344 rats and hepatocellular adenomas or carcinomas in male and female mice. Since that evaluation of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol, new literature has been published on the human relevance of leukemias in the F344 rat. The EPA re-evaluated the 2,4,6-trichlorophenol carcinogenicity literature and the broader scientific literature on rodent leukemia to determine if the data supported conducting a separate cancer assessment for 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. The rodent leukemia literature indicated that the leukemia finding in male F344 rats is common for this strain of rat, is highly variable, and lacks a direct human correlate. Although treatment-related, the EPA concluded the leukemia incidence in rats did not support a linear approach to cancer quantification given its questionable relevance to human health risk assessment. Furthermore, the incidence of lymphomas was not remarkable when examined independently from the leukemias and thus not evidence of carcinogenicity in isolation. The liver tumors observed in male and female mice were considered treatment-related; however, the tumors could not be solely attributed to 2,4,6-trichlorophenol exposure because the investigators did not account for known carcinogenic contaminants of commercial 2,4,6-trichlorophenol solutions that may have contributed to the induction of the liver tumors. These carcinogenic contaminants would not be present when 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is formed through metabolism; therefore, these data were not considered strong evidence of carcinogenicity and did not support a linear approach to 2,4,6-trichlorophenol cancer quantification for exposure resulting from pydiflumetofen use. The literature also did not suggest 2,4,6-trichlorophenol was a mutagenic concern
Based on the limited evidence of carcinogenicity and mutagenicity for the metabolite, the EPA concluded that using the RfD approach with the chronic dietary POD selected for the pydiflumetofen dietary assessment would be adequate for assessing direct dietary exposure to 2,4,6-trichlorophenol from the proposed pydiflumetofen uses. Because the chronic POD selected for pydiflumetofen is 66 and 165x lower than the 2,4,6-trichlorophenol dose (on a molar basis) that elicited tumors in rats and mice, respectively, this approach will be protective of potential carcinogenicity from exposure to the metabolite. Consequently, a separate cancer dietary assessment for 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is not warranted at this time.
Specific information on the studies received and referenced in this section and the nature of the adverse effects caused by pydiflumetofen and its metabolite 2,4,6-triclorophenol, as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment.
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for pydiflumetofen used for human risk assessment is shown in Table 1 of this unit. Because the Agency concludes that that the pydiflumetofen toxicity database accounts for 2,4,6-trichlorophenol toxicity that would result from exposure to pydiflumetofen, that exposure to the metabolite is not more toxic than direct exposure to pydiflumetofen, and that there is insufficient information to warrant a separate cancer assessment of the metabolite at this time, EPA concludes that the endpoints for pydiflumetofen will be protective of effects from exposure to the metabolite 2,4,6-trichlorophenol.
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Such effects were identified for pydiflumetofen. In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used 2003-2008 food consumption data from the US Department of Agriculture's (USDA's) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, What We Eat in America (NHANES/WWEIA). As to residue levels in food, EPA assumed tolerance level residues and 100 percent crop treated (PCT).
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Based on the Pesticides Water Calculator (PWC) modeling, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of pydiflumetofen for acute exposures are estimated to be 17 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 95 ppb for ground water and for chronic exposures are estimated to be 3.62 ppb for surface water and 93.4 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For the acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 95 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
For the chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 93.4 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
Pydiflumetofen is proposed for the following uses that could result in residential exposures: Golf course turf and ornamentals in greenhouses, nurseries, fields, and outdoor residential landscapes. EPA assessed residential exposure using the following assumptions: Residential handler exposures are not expected since the proposed residential uses require that handlers wear specific clothing (
The quantitative exposure/risk assessment for residential post-application exposures is based on the short-term dermal exposure from contact with residues on treated golf course turf while golfing for adults, children 6 to less than 11 years old, and children 11 to less than 16 years old, and short-term dermal exposure from post-application activities with treated ornamental plants for adults and for children ages 6 to less than 11. Intermediate-term exposures are not expected.
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at
4.
EPA has not found pydiflumetofen to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and although pydiflumetofen metabolizes into 2,4,6-trichlorophenol, this metabolite does not appear to be produced by other registered pesticides. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that pydiflumetofen does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's website at
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i. The toxicity database for pydiflumetofen is complete.
ii. Regarding neurotoxicity, evidence of behavioral changes in the pydiflumetofen toxicity database was limited to adult rats in the acute neurotoxicity study (ACN). Female rats exhibited depressed locomotor activity in the form of fewer number of rears and less distance traveled following acute exposure to doses of pydiflumetofen >300 mg/kg (3x to 30x higher than the PODs selected for risk assessment). Male
iii. There was evidence of quantitative offspring sensitivity in the 2-generation reproduction study; however, as noted in Section D.2., PODs were selected for each exposure scenario to be protective of the offspring susceptibility in the risk evaluation.
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to pydiflumetofen in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by pydiflumetofen.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
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Pydiflumetofen is currently registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with short-term residential exposures to pydiflumetofen.
Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 400 for adults, 590 for children 6 to less than 11 years old, and 2,500 for children 11 to less than 16 years old. Because EPA's level of concern for pydiflumetofen is a MOE of 100 or below, these MOEs are not of concern.
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Intermediate-term adverse effects were identified; however, pydiflumetofen is not registered for any use patterns that would result in intermediate-term residential exposure. Intermediate-term risk is assessed based on intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no intermediate-term residential exposure and chronic dietary exposure has already been assessed under the appropriately protective cPAD (which is at least as protective as the POD used to assess intermediate-term risk), no further assessment of intermediate-term risk is necessary, and EPA relies on the chronic dietary risk assessment for evaluating intermediate-term risk for pydiflumetofen.
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Analytical multi-residue method QuEChERS (Quick, Easy, Cheap, Effective, Rugged, and Safe) as described in Eurofins validation study S14-05402 was independently validated in the following crop matrices: lettuce (high water content), wheat grain (high starch content), oil seed rape (high oil content) and coffee bean (difficult commodity). QuEChERS has been proposed as the enforcement analytical method for plant commodities.
The livestock analytical method was derived from the QuEChERS (EN 15662:2009-02) multi-residue method. It is based on extraction and clean-up procedures, and subsequent LC-MS/MS determination.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established any MRLs for pydiflumetofen at this time.
The applicant requested a few tolerances on commodities that EPA does not consider to be food or feed items (“corn, sweet, cannery waste,” “grape, wet pomace,” “potato, dried pulp,” “tomato, dried pomace,” and “tomato, wet pomace”); therefore, tolerances are unnecessary. With respect to rye grain, the applicant proposed a tolerance based on barley residue data, but the Agency determined that translating the rye grain tolerance from wheat residue data was more appropriate. For the petitioner-proposed tolerances for soybean forage and hay, there is a feeding restriction on the label, which makes these tolerances unnecessary; therefore, the Agency is not establishing tolerances for those two commodities. The pop corn stover tolerance was revised due to only pop corn stover residues used. For the oat grain and peanut hay tolerances, the petitioner included residues from both formulations, whereas EPA assessed the emulsifiable concentrate (EC) and soluble concentrate (SC) separately to determine if there was a formulation difference and set the tolerance at the higher level to cover residues from either formulation.
Although the petitioner requested tolerances for livestock commodities based on the aggregate residues of the parent and metabolite, EPA is establishing tolerances for livestock commodities based only on measuring residues of the parent compound, in order to harmonize tolerances with Canada. EPA is establishing a meat byproduct tolerance, which covers residues found in liver and kidney, instead of separate liver and kidney tolerances since separate tolerances are not needed. A tolerance for Grain, Cereal, Forage, Fodder and Straw, Group 16 was not set since residue data among the representative commodities varied by more than a factor of five; instead, EPA is establishing individual tolerances. The Agency used the Langmuir model to determine the tolerances for livestock tissue and milk. The milk tolerance was raised to harmonize with Canada's MRLs and in effect would cover the expected cream residues. With respect to wheat germ, milled byproducts, and field corn flour, the median concentration factor was used by the Agency which resulted in different tolerances than those proposed by the petitioner. In addition, EPA has modified some of the commodity definitions, and numerical expression of the tolerance values in order to conform to current Agency policy on significant figures.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of pydiflumetofen, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on the following commodities. Compliance with the tolerance levels specified below is to be determined by measuring only pydiflumetofen (3-(difluoromethyl)-
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), nor is it considered a regulatory action under Executive Order 13771, entitled “Reducing Regulations and Controlling Regulatory Costs” (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
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(b)
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Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would implement a recommendation from the Colorado Potato Administrative Committee (Committee) to increase the assessment rate established for Area No. 2 for the 2018-2019 and subsequent fiscal periods. The assessment rate would remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated.
Comments must be received by June 25, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposed rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237;
Barry Broadbent, Senior Marketing Specialist, or Gary Olson, Regional Director, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA;
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237;
This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, proposes an amendment to regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j). This proposed rule is issued under Marketing Agreement No. 97 and Order No. 948, as amended (7 CFR part 948), regulating the handling of Irish potatoes grown in Colorado. Part 948, (referred to as the “Order”) is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” The Committee locally administers the Order and is comprised of producers and handlers operating within the area of production.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this proposed rule in conformance with Executive Orders 13563 and 13175. This proposed rule falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this proposal does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action, it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017, titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the Order, Colorado Area No. 2 potato handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the Order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate would be applicable to all assessable potatoes in Area No. 2 for the 2018-2019 fiscal period, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
The Order provides authority for each area Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members are familiar with the Committee's needs and with the costs of goods and services in their local area and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
This proposal would increase the assessment rate for Area No. 2 from $0.0033 to $0.006 per hundredweight of potatoes handled for the 2018-2019 and subsequent fiscal periods. The Committee established the current rate in 2013-2014 fiscal period to reduce the Committee's monetary reserve to a level that it determined to be appropriate under the Order. Since that action, the reserve fund has been drawn down to approximately 15 percent of annual budgeted expenditures. The $0.006 per hundredweight assessment rate would realign annual assessment revenue with expected administrative expenses moving forward and would no longer require the utilization of the monetary
The Committee met on March 15, 2018 to consider the Committee's projected 2018-2019 financial requirements, the size of the Committee's operating reserve, and the Order's continuing assessment rate. The Committee unanimously recommended an assessment rate of $0.006 per hundredweight of potatoes for the 2018-2019 fiscal period. The proposed assessment rate of $0.006 is $0.0027 higher than the rate currently in effect. Without the proposed increase, anticipated assessment revenue would not be sufficient to fund the Committee's ongoing administrative function, and the balance in the Committee's monetary reserve would not be enough to cover the deficit. The assessment rate increase is necessary to maintain the Committee's oversight activities at current levels and avoid a reduction in the program's effectiveness.
For the 2017-2018 fiscal period, the Committee adopted a budget of $79,623. The Committee expects to recommend a similar level of budgeted expenditures for the 2018-2019 fiscal period at its meeting in May 2018. The Committee anticipates its budgeted expenditures for the 2018-2019 fiscal period to be close to the budgeted amounts for the 2017-2018 fiscal period. Budgeted expenditures for the 2017-2018 fiscal period included $66,110 for administrative expenses, $6,138 for office expenses, and $7,375 for facilities/utilities. The Committee's annual budget has been relatively stable over the past five years, with average growth of approximately 2.7 percent. The Committee's budget five years ago for the 2013-2014 fiscal period was $71,227, compared to the 2017-2018 fiscal period budget of $79,623.
The assessment rate recommended by the Committee was derived by considering anticipated expenses, expected shipments, and the amount of funds available in the authorized reserve. Expected income derived from handler assessments of $84,000 (estimated 14,000,000 hundredweight times $0.006 per hundredweight) would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses of between $81,000 and $83,000 and put a small amount back into the Committee's monetary reserve fund. Funds in the reserve (currently expected to be $11,848 at the end of the 2017-2018 fiscal period) would be kept within the maximum permitted by § 948.78.
The assessment rate proposed in this rule would continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate would be in effect for an indefinite period, the Committee would continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA would evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking would be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's budget for subsequent fiscal periods would be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this proposed rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 160 producers of Colorado Area No. 2 potatoes in the production area and approximately 60 handlers subject to regulation under the Order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
According to data from USDA's Market News, the 2016-2017 season weighted average f.o.b. price for Colorado potatoes was approximately $12.06 per hundredweight. The Committee reported that shipments for the 2016-2017 fiscal period were 13.9 million hundredweight. Using the number of handlers, and assuming a normal distribution, the majority of handlers would have average annual receipts of less than $7,500,000 ($12.06 times 13.9 million equals $167,634,000 divided by 60 handlers equals $2,793,900 per handler).
In addition, based on data from USDA's National Agricultural Statistics Service, the season average producer price for Colorado potatoes for the 2016-2017 crop year was approximately $9.60 per hundredweight. Based on producer price, shipment data, and the total number of Colorado Area No. 2 potato producers, and assuming a normal distribution, the average annual producer revenue is above $750,000 ($9.60 times 13.9 million hundredweight equals $133,440,000 divided by 160 producers equals $834,000 per producer). Thus, the majority of Colorado Area No. 2 potato handlers may be classified as small entities, while many of the Colorado Area No. 2 potato producers may be classified as large entities.
This proposal would increase the assessment rate collected from handlers for the 2018-2019 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.0033 to $0.006 per hundredweight of Colorado Area No. 2 potatoes. The Committee unanimously recommended the proposed increase. The proposed assessment rate of $0.006 is $0.0027 higher than the 2017-2018 rate. The quantity of assessable potatoes for the 2018-2019 fiscal period is estimated at 14 million hundredweight. Thus, the $0.006 rate should provide $84,000 in assessment income. Income derived from handler assessments would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses.
The Committee adopted a budget of $79,623 for the 2017-2018 fiscal period and expects to recommend a similar amount in budgeted expenditures for the 2018-2019 fiscal period at its scheduled May 2018 meeting. The major budgeted expenditures for the 2017-2018 year included $66,110 for administrative expenses, $6,138 for office expenses, and $7,375 for facilities/utilities. Budgeted expenses for these items in 2016-2017 were $65,894, $6,587, and $6,313, respectively.
Prior to arriving at this proposed assessment rate, the Committee considered the benefits and costs related to establishing other assessment rates. However, the Committee determined that any assessment rate other than the $0.006 per hundredweight rate would either generate insufficient revenue to meet the Committee's expected expenses for the 2018-2019 fiscal period or would result in a larger than desired addition to the Committee's reserve. Based on estimated shipments, the recommended assessment rate of $0.006 should provide $84,000 in
A review of historical information and preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming fiscal year indicates that the average producer price for the 2018-2019 season should be approximately $9.26 per hundredweight of potatoes. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2018-2019 fiscal period as a percentage of total producer revenue would be about 0.06 percent.
This proposed action would increase the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. While assessments impose some additional costs on handlers, the costs are minimal and uniform on all handlers. Some of the additional costs may be passed on to producers. However, these costs would be offset by the benefits derived by the operation of the Order. In addition, the Committee's meetings were widely publicized throughout the Colorado potato industry. All interested persons were invited to attend the meetings and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the March 15, 2018 meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this proposed rule, including the regulatory and information collection impacts of this action on small businesses.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178, Generic Vegetable and Specialty Crops. No changes in those requirements would be necessary as a result of this action. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This proposed rule would not impose any additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Colorado potato handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this proposed rule.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
Marketing agreements, Potatoes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 948 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after September 1, 2018, an assessment rate of $0.006 per hundredweight is established for Colorado Area No. 2 potatoes.
Proposed Rule document 2018-10466 was originally published on pages 22891 through 22894 in the issue of Thursday, May 17, 2018. In that publication, on pages 22893 through 22894, the latitude coordinates appeared incorrectly. The corrected document is published here in its entirety.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend six United States Area Navigation (RNAV) routes (Q-88, Q-90, Q-114, Q-126, Q-136, and Q-150) and establish one RNAV route (Q-92) in the western United States. The routes would support standard instrument departures (SIDs) and standard terminal arrival routes (STARs) for Denver International Airport. Additionally, the routes will promote operational efficiencies for users and provide connectivity to current and proposed RNAV enroute procedures while enhancing capacity for adjacent airports.
Comments must be received on or before July 2, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1 (800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2018-0232; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-33 at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Kenneth Ready, Airspace Policy Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA Docket No. FAA-2018-0232; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-33) and be submitted in triplicate to the Docket Management Facility (see
Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2018-0232; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-33.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified comment closing date will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this action may be changed in light of comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the comment closing date. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The Denver, Salt Lake City, and Minneapolis Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCCs) requested the FAA to amend six existing and establish one new RNAV Q-Routes. These routes would support new SIDs and STARs that are being developed for Denver International Airport and surrounding airports. Moreover, the current routes are being amended to connect the midwest and east coast airports with west coast airports. Additional waypoints are being strategically added to existing routes over the Rocky Mountains to provide more flexibility in route planning to avoid mountain wave effect (severe turbulence, strong vertical currents, and icing) and to provide flexibility in flight planning for oxygen escape routes (oxygen escape routes are used in the event of cabin depressurization during a flight).
Furthermore, amending the six existing routes and adding the one new route will facilitate the implementation of traffic management initiatives such as adjacent ARTCC metering (ACM) and time based flow management.
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to modify United States RNAV routes Q-88, Q-90, Q-114, Q-126, Q-136, Q-150; and establish United States RNAV route Q-92. The proposed route changes are outlined below.
United States Area Navigation Routes are published in paragraph 2006 of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The United States Area Navigation Routes listed in this document will be subsequently published in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E en route airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface to accommodate instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft under control of the Los Angeles Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC), Los Angeles, CA. Establishment of this airspace area would ensure controlled airspace exists in those areas where the Federal airway structure is inadequate.
Comments must be received on or before July 9, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-1202; Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-31, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 2200 S 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198-6547; telephone (206) 231-2253.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E en route airspace at Los Angeles Air Route Traffic Control Center, Los Angeles, CA.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-1202/Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-31.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
Current airspace design is primarily based on airport terminal areas and airways, often leaving small areas of uncontrolled airspace between airports. Class E en route domestic airspace provides controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR en route air traffic control services but the Federal airway structure is inadequate.
Numerous smaller Class E en route areas have been established to provide controlled airspace where the airway structure is inadequate; however, additional areas of uncontrolled airspace have been discovered due to technological improvements in locating and mapping. Also, as aging ground-based navigation aids are removed from service, the airway structure is reduced, uncovering larger areas of uncontrolled airspace.
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 to establish Class E en route airspace extending upward from
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6006 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
In proposed rule document 2018-09877 beginning on page 21214 in the issue of Wednesday, May 9, 2018, make the following correction:
On page 21215, in the second column, the 39th line should read as follows:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish a temporary safety zone for certain waters of the Middle River. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on the navigable waters of the Middle River in Baltimore County, MD, during a fireworks display on June 30, 2018 (with alternate date of July 1, 2018). This action would prohibit persons and vessels from entering the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Maryland-National Capital Region or a designated representative. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before June 25, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2018-0293 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Mr. Ron Houck, Sector Maryland-National Capital Region Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 410-576-2674, email
On March 21, 2018, the Marine Trades Association of Baltimore County, Inc. of Baltimore, MD notified the Coast Guard that it will be conducting a fireworks display on June 30, 2018 at 9 p.m., to commemorate the July 4th Holiday. Details of the proposed event were provided to the Coast Guard on March 29, 2018. The private fireworks display is to be launched from a fireworks barge located in the Middle River, approximately 300 yards southeast of Wilson Point in Baltimore County, MD. In the event of inclement weather, the fireworks display will be scheduled for July 1, 2018. Hazards from fireworks displays include accidental discharge of fireworks, dangerous projectiles, and falling hot embers or other debris. The COTP Maryland-National Capital Region has determined that potential hazards associated with the fireworks to be used in this display would be a safety concern for anyone within 200 yards of the fireworks barge.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of persons and vessels on the navigable waters of the Middle River within 200 yards of the fireworks barge before, during, and after the scheduled event. The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231.
The COTP proposes to establish a safety zone from 8 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. on June 30, 2018, and if necessary due to inclement weather, from 8 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. on July 1, 2018. The safety zone would cover all navigable waters of the Middle River, within 200 yards of a fireworks barge in approximate position latitude 39°18′24″ N, longitude 076°24′29″ W, located in Baltimore County, MD. The duration of the zone is intended to ensure the safety of persons and vessels on the specified navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled 9 p.m. fireworks display. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the safety zone. Vessel traffic will be able to safely transit around this safety zone, which would impact a small designated area of the Middle River for 2.5 hours during the evening when vessel traffic is normally low. The Coast Guard will issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine band channel 16 to provide information about the safety zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves a safety zone lasting less than 3 hours that would prohibit vessel movement within a portion of the Middle River. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A preliminary Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(c)
(1) Entry into or remaining in this safety zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Coast Guard Captain of the Port Maryland-National Capital Region. All vessels underway within this safety zone at the time it is implemented are to depart the zone.
(2) Persons desiring to transit the area of the safety zone must obtain authorization from the Captain of the Port Maryland-National Capital Region or designated representative. To request permission to transit the area, the Captain of the Port Maryland-National Capital Region or designated representatives can be contacted at telephone number 410-576-2693 or on marine band radio VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz). Coast Guard vessels enforcing this section can be contacted on marine band radio VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz). Upon being hailed by a Coast Guard vessel, or other Federal, State, or local agency vessel, by siren,
(4)
(d)
U.S. Copyright Office, Library of Congress.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Copyright Office is proposing the adoption of a new fee schedule. The proposed fees would help the Office recover a significant part, though not the whole, of its costs. The Office is providing an opportunity to the public to comment on the proposed changes before it submits the fee schedule to Congress.
Written comments must be received no later than 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on July 23, 2018.
For reasons of government efficiency, the Copyright Office is using the
Regan A. Smith, Deputy General Counsel, by email at
The Copyright Office is proposing the establishment of a new fee schedule for Copyright Office services. Below, the Office describes the legal authority for establishment and adjustment of its fees, describes the overarching methodology employed by the Office in studying its costs and establishing a new fee schedule, and describes and provides justification for each of the Office's proposed fee adjustments.
The Copyright Act provides for the funding of Copyright Office operations through user fees to cover its reasonable costs. The main provision authorizing the establishment and collection of such fees is 17 U.S.C. 708. Section 708(a) specifies that “[f]ees shall be paid to the Register of Copyrights” for the following services:
(1) On filing an application under section 408 for registration of a copyright claim or for a supplementary registration, including the issuance of a certificate of registration if registration is made;
(2) on filing each application for registration of a claim for renewal of a subsisting copyright under section 304(a), including the issuance of a certificate of registration if registration is made;
(3) for the issuance of a receipt for a deposit under section 407;
(4) for the recordation, as provided by section 205, of a transfer of copyright ownership or other document;
(5) for the filing, under section 115(b), of a notice of intention to obtain a compulsory license;
(6) for the recordation, under section 302(c), of a statement revealing the identity of an author of an anonymous or pseudonymous work, or for the recordation, under section 302(d), of a statement relating to the death of an author;
(7) for the issuance, under section 706, of an additional certificate of registration;
(8) for the issuance of any other certification;
(9) for the making and reporting of a search as provided by section 705, and for any related services;
(10) on filing a statement of account based on secondary transmissions of primary transmissions pursuant to section 119 or 122; and
(11) on filing a statement of account based on secondary transmissions of primary transmissions pursuant to section 111.
Fees for the services described in paragraphs (1) through (9) above are established in accordance with the following process. The Register must first “conduct a study of the costs incurred by the Copyright Office for the registration of claims, the recordation of documents, and the provision of services.” 17 U.S.C. 708(b)(1). The study must “consider the timing of any adjustment in fees and the authority to use such fees consistent with the budget.”
Importantly, section 708 also requires that fees under section 708(a)(1)-(9) “be fair and equitable and give due consideration to the objectives of the copyright system.”
The Copyright Act also authorizes the Register of Copyrights to establish fees for services other than those listed in paragraphs (1) through (9) of section 708(a). Though not subject to the procedural requirements of section 708(b), these fees are often evaluated and adjusted as part of the fee study mandated by section 708(b)—as is the case here. First, paragraphs (10) and (11) of section 708 provide that the Copyright Office's Licensing Division may charge filing fees for the statements of account that cable and satellite companies must submit under the statutory licenses in sections 111, 119, and 122 for the secondary transmissions of primary broadcast television transmissions. 17 U.S.C. 708(a)(10), (11).
In 1997, Congress amended section 708 specifically to grant the Register both wide discretion and permanent authority to set fees for the Office.
Congress first gave the Register of Copyrights the authority to set and adjust Copyright Office fees in 1997. 17 U.S.C. 708(b) (1997). Since then, the Office has adjusted its fees every three to five years. The last such adjustment went into effect in May 2014.
The Office initiated a new cost study in June 2017, contracting with a private accounting and consulting firm, Booz Allen Hamilton (“Booz Allen”), to analyze the Office's current as well as any expected future costs.
In assessing the costs of the Office's various functions, Booz Allen used an industry-standard, activity-based costing (ABC) model, using overhead, compensation, and volume as primary cost drivers; the particulars of that model are detailed in the Booz Allen Study.
Some of the key data Booz Allen used in its study was from Fiscal Year 2016, although more current data was available for certain other variables, like salaries and employee estimates of time spent performing fee-related tasks. As the Booz Allen Study acknowledged, however, after Fiscal Year 2016 the Office “engaged in a variety of regulatory reforms that are projected to increase the efficiency of various registration, recordation, or licensing activities,” and that “[b]ecause the ABC model is necessarily based on retrospective data, Booz Allen understands that the Office may choose to make adjustments to the cost-based fee recommendations to account for predicted changes in activity efficiency.”
Booz Allen's cost assessment also included anticipated expenses associated with the Office's ongoing information technology and business process modernization efforts. These efforts are generally described in two documents. In February 2016, the Copyright Office released its
In total, the Booz Allen study projected the Office's base year costs to be approximately $67.7 million, and estimated that costs will increase by approximately 1.8% in each subsequent year for the next five years, assuming no staffing changes. A detailed list of the five-year costs is found at Appendix A of the Booz Allen Study.
In establishing a fee schedule, Booz Allen began with the Office's cost-recovery goals. Importantly, the Office has never recovered its full costs from user fees. Instead, the Office has traditionally recovered approximately 60% of its costs through fees; the remainder is provided through appropriated dollars from the U.S. treasury. Consistent with the Office's historical practice, the targeted cost recovery rate in the Booz Allen study was 60% for all costs, except those associated with IT modernization efforts. With respect to modernization costs, the Modified IT Plan noted that “[p]ublic comments to the original Provisional IT Plan were generally supportive of increased fees for enhanced technological services.”
The Office is often asked why it does not set a goal of full-cost recovery from fees. The answer is that the Office's primary services—including copyright registration and recordation—are mostly voluntary, and the significantly higher fees needed for total cost recovery would result in less use of those services to the detriment of the public interest in a robust registration system. In economics terms, demand for these services is
Booz Allen's fee model accounted for the price elasticity of demand for the Office's services. As Booz Allen noted, “[t]he vast majority of the Office's revenue, 86.6%, is generated from fees deemed elastic.”
Significantly, using this validated measure of elasticity, Booz Allen concluded that the goal of full-cost recovery was “impossible to achieve.”
At the same time, maintaining fees at a flat level is not an option either, given the increase in Office costs, including the cost of IT modernization. As a result, to maintain a steady level of cost recovery, Booz Allen recommended a weighted average increase of 38% to existing fees across all service categories.
In recommending individual fees, Booz Allen reviewed the cost per transaction calculated in the ABC model, and then “adjusted [it] to account for external considerations,” including the Office's guidance regarding the relative demand for Office services.
The Office has independently evaluated and adjusted the Booz Allen schedule, which focused principally on the economic analysis, based on our assessment of fairness, equity, the objectives of the Copyright Act
Critically, the Office analyzed potential changes to fees under 708(a)(1)-(9) to ensure that they are “fair and equitable and give due consideration to the objectives of the copyright system,” as required by the statute. The voluntary registration and recordation system is vital to a number of national objectives. They facilitate the marketplace for licensing and other valuable uses of works, as well as business transactions that rely on protection of copyrighted works. Additionally, while the system is voluntary in that copyright protection exists independent of registration, registration provides crucial benefits for copyright owners. Before bringing a lawsuit for infringement of a U.S. work, for example, a copyright owner is required to receive either a registration or refusal from the Office. And copyright owners must obtain a timely registration to qualify for certain legal presumptions and to seek statutory damages and attorney's fees in litigation. Ensuring that most copyright owners can register their works thus is very important to providing access to judicial remedies. Due to the public interest inherent in the copyright system, the Office struck a balance between being a prudent fiduciary of public funds and creating a fee schedule that supports the Office's policy goal of promoting creativity and protecting creators' rights.
The following sections set forth the Office's proposed fees, and explain any changes from current fees. In addition, the Office has provided its revised fee model summary on the rulemaking page, which was developed using Booz Allen's fee modeling tool, and provides additional detail regarding the bases for the proposed fee schedule. Although the Office has not set forth specific proposed rule language, the proposed changes would be made to the fee tables that currently appear in 37 CFR 201.3. When it promulgates the final rule, the Office will reorganize the fee tables in that provision to make them easier to read, including by deleting the unnecessary definitions that appear in section 201.3(b).
Overall, the Office has determined that fees should increase an average of 41% to account for inflationary
Section 708(a)(1) requires the payment of fees “on filing each application under section 408 for registration of a copyright claim or for a supplementary registration, including the issuance of a certificate of registration if registration is made.” 17 U.S.C. 708(a)(1). The Office proposes the following increases to the fees for basic registration applications, to be codified in 37 CFR 201.3(a).
As the Booz Allen study noted, basic registration applications produce the highest volume of all the Office's fee generating services; at the same time, examination of those applications is, in aggregate, the costliest activity the Office performs.
While in the past, the fee for electronic applications was kept artificially low to incentivize electronic filings,
To begin to close the shortfall, the Office is proposing to increase fees to $75 for Standard Applications to achieve an 83% cost recovery based on current costs. In addition, the Office proposes raising the fee for the electronic Single Application, a special application intended for individual creators who file the simplest types of claims, to $55, which achieves a 52% cost recovery based on current costs. The latter fee thus represents a significant subsidy intended for smaller creators.
Turning to the paper application, the Office believes it continues to be appropriate to differentiate between paper and electronic applications, given the substantially higher costs of processing paper applications, and as a means of incentivizing use of the electronic system. The Office accordingly proposes a fee of $125 for paper applications.
The Office has concluded that these proposed fees are “fair and equitable, and give due consideration to the objectives of the copyright system.” 17 U.S.C. 708(b)(4).
In general, each registration application should be limited to a unitary “work of authorship.” Under the Copyright Act, however, the Register of Copyrights may allow groups of related works to be registered with one application and one filing fee—a procedure known as “group registration.”
As the data above suggests, processing group registrations can be costly and time-consuming. Indeed, the Office's cost recovery for several categories of group registrations has been quite low. For example, based on the data above, the Office currently recovers only 12% of the cost of group registration of updates and revisions to non-photographic databases through fees for that service. The high cost of processing group registrations is compounded by the fact that group registrations are the second highest volume service the Copyright Office provides according to the Booz Allen Study. Thus, the Office proposes increasing many of the group registration fees to achieve a higher rate of cost recovery. The Office understands the demand for many of these services to be relatively inelastic, especially because, on a per-work basis, the fees are relatively low. Accordingly, achieving a higher rate of recovery should not result in a significant decrease in registrations.
The Office has proposed fees that are fair and equitable, and give due consideration to the objectives of the copyright system. The Office recommends keeping the current fee for group registration of contributions to periodicals the same ($85). The Office estimates that this service costs $71, but maintaining the fee at $85 allows the Office to achieve less than full cost recovery in other categories of fees.
The Office proposes adopting two fees for group registration of serials: A new fee of $35 per issue for electronic applications and a fee of $70 per issue for paper applications (which is an increase from the current $25 fee for all applications). The calculated cost for electronic applications is $76, and the cost for paper applications is $101. The two-tiered fee structure reflects the fact that paper applications are more costly to process than electronic applications. The slightly higher fees should recover more of the costs of providing this service without greatly decreasing demand. Charging a higher amount for paper applications will also encourage the use of the electronic application, which is more efficiently processed.
The Office also proposes somewhat higher fees for group registration of newspapers and group registration of newsletters. Currently the filing fee is $80. The estimated cost of processing the paper applications for group registration of newsletters is $88,
The Office also proposes increased filing fees for group registration of published photographs (“GRPPH”) and group registration of unpublished photographs (“GRUPH”), both of which use the Office's electronic registration system. These services currently are provided for a $55 fee. The Office estimates, however, that the cost for providing each of these services is $284. The Office accordingly proposes offering both services for $100. The Office believes these new fees will achieve greater cost recovery while maintaining a relatively low fee on a per-work basis for photographers. Specifically, the per-photograph cost is currently $0.07 if the applicant registers the maximum number of photographs (
The Office is proposing significant fee increases for the group registration options that apply to databases. The Office currently charges $85 per application for group registration of updates and revisions to non-photographic databases, and $65 (paper application) or $55 (electronic application) per application for group registration of updates and revisions to photographic databases. These applications are quite costly to process, in part because there is no limit on the number of works that may be included in each submission. The Office calculates that applications for group
The Office provides other, less commonly used registration services, as authorized by various provisions of the Copyright Act. The Office proposes the following schedule of fees for such services, to be codified in 37 CFR 201.3(b).
Several
There were approximately 500 renewal registrations filed in FY 2016, each of which cost the Office $148 to process. The Office accordingly proposes raising the current fee for Form RE from $100 to $125. The Office proposes keeping the fee for the addendum to the renewal application at $100. Although processing an
Although it costs the Office $71 to process applications for preregistration of unpublished works, the Office proposes raising the fee for this service from $140 to $200 to offset the losses associated with some of the Office's other services. The likely stakeholder group affected by this increase is less price sensitive, and the works at issue are largely commercially viable. This is consistent with the Register's discretionary authority to use fee revenue to offset losses to further “the objectives of the copyright system,” 17 U.S.C. 708(b)(4), as discussed above.
Registrations of vessel hull designs (Form D-VH) are relatively low volume, and cost the Office $6,528 to process, so the Office proposes raising the fee for such a registration from $400 to $500, although this only achieves an 7% cost recovery. The Office proposes keeping the fee for correcting a vessel design registration (Form DC) at $100—although it costs the Office $71 to process—to offset some of the lost revenue. The Office spends $2,176 to process a registration of a mask work (Form MW), so the Office proposes raising the fee from $120 to $150 to achieve slightly higher cost recovery. The Office will examine its processes to determine how to more efficiently process vessel hull design and mask work registrations.
For a registration of a claim in a restored copyright (Form GATT), the Office proposes raising the fee from $85 to $100 to better cover the $380 cost of this service.
For the time being, the Office will maintain the secure test examination fee (per staff member per hour) at $250, although it costs the Office $900 per staff member per hour. The Office recently adopted an interim rule establishing a group registration option that lets applicants submit an unlimited number of secure test items,
The Office provides an opportunity for a user to appeal a denied registration, which is called a request for reconsideration. Because the work necessary to process these requests is more time consuming than current pricing reflects, the Office proposes raising the fee for the first request for an appeal from $250 to $350 per claim, to offset some of the $729 cost associated with this service, which requires work by attorney-advisors. The second request for an appeal involves extensive work by senior attorneys at the agency, resulting in a cost to the Office of $4,470 per appeal. Accordingly the Office proposes raising the fee for a second appeal from $500 to $700 per claim.
The Office set several new fees as part of this fee study. The Office is authorized to grant special relief from the registration deposit requirements in certain circumstances,
The Office also proposes a fee of $40 per half-hour for the service of matching “deposit ticket” claims with unidentified deposits. A “deposit ticket” claim is one where the applicant submits an online application and filing fee, but is separately required to submit a physical deposit copy of the work to the Office. When sending the physical deposit copy, applicants are required to attach a system-generated shipping slip to the copy, so that the Office can quickly match the deposit copy to the application.
The Office proposes to raise the special handling surcharge for expedited processing of a registration application from $800 to $1,000 per claim. The description of the fee as a “surcharge” is to make clear that it applies in addition to any other applicable fee. The actual cost to the Office for this service is estimated to be $67, which reflects the fact that payment of the special handling surcharge simply moves the requester towards the front of the processing queue. But demand for this service is highly inelastic, so the fees collected help offset the cost of other registration services.
The Office proposes keeping the fee for full-term retention of physical published copyright deposits at $540. This accounts for projected storage costs for the full span of the full term retention period, which is currently 75 years, but which the Office has indicated it will extend to 95 years to conform with the Copyright Term Extension Act.
The Office's other major service is recordation, which allows individuals to record various documents pertinent to ownership of copyrights. Recordation is important to the Office's mission, because it creates a public record of copyright ownership. Various provisions of the Copyright Act authorize the establishment of recordation fees.
The
The Office is also proposing a new fee for electronic submissions to record documents, in anticipation of the development of a new electronic recordation system at some point during the period that the new fee schedule is in place. The fee for such submissions is set at $95, based on our current estimate of processing costs ($131). This will achieve a 73% cost recovery. This electronic filing fee is set lower than the paper filing fee to discount the RAC costs associated with paper filings (
The Office proposes reducing the per-transfer fee for additional transfers to $95. This fee is charged when a single document involves multiple transfers or other transactions among more than two parties. Each transaction has to be separately indexed by the recordation specialist, and so the Office charges an additional fee for each additional transaction in the document. That fee has traditionally been the same as the base fee for recordation of a document. But that base fee accounts for the costs incurred by RAC upon intake of the paper document. Because those costs are incurred only once
When recording a document, the Office must index information about each of the copyrighted works to which the document pertains.
The Office proposes an increase for the fee for recordation of notices of termination to $125 (from $105), which achieves only 23% cost recovery. This accounts for the fact that the Office charges a flat fee for this service, though some terminations require additional indexing work, such as when the notice terminates multiple transfers of ownership of the same work. The Office also engages in a more robust examination of terminations, to ensure that authors are complying with the relevant time limits set forth in the statute, and can cure any defects in a timely manner.
The special handling surcharge for recordation of documents has been raised from $550 to $700, which will be charged in addition to the otherwise applicable processing fee. This is consistent with special handling surcharges the Office charges for other services.
Record Retrieval, Search, and Certification Services (RRC) provides copies of completed and in-process registration and recordation records, search reports, and registration deposit materials. By the time this fee schedule goes into effect, RRC will also have taken on responsibility for providing retrieval, search, and certification services for Licensing Division records. RRC also administers the Office's Records Reading Room and the Historic Public Records Program. The Office proposes the following fee schedule for records retrieval, search, and certification services, to be codified at 37 CFR 201.3(c).
Location
In general, the proposed fee schedule above is intended to be simpler and easier for the public to understand and for the Office to apply. For instance, currently the fee charged for copying of Copyright Office records varies widely based on the type of media involved (paper, audiocassette, videocassette, CD etc.). The Office above proposes simplifying the copying fee to $12 regardless of media. Similarly, rather than try to distinguish among these various services, the Office proposes maintaining a simpler fee structure by maintaining a $200-per-hour fee in place for most RRC services.
The creation of an estimate itself can be costly, as it requires Office personnel to conduct a preliminary search of the Office's records. The Office proposes maintaining that fee at a flat $200 level, which can be credited against the final search and retrieval fee.
The Office proposes raising the fee for an additional certificate of registration from $40 to $55 to achieve greater cost recovery; this service costs $285 to provide. The Office also proposes setting a new fee of $100 for litigation statements,
In addition, the Office currently charges three different special handling fees for the different kinds of services RRC provides. The Office instead proposes adopting a standard $500 hourly fee for special handling of records retrieval, search, and certification services, which would apply in lieu of the $200-per-hour fees that are otherwise charged for such services. Because payment of the special handling fee simply moves the requester towards the front of the queue, the revenues from this service exceed the costs. Those excess revenues, however, help offset the cost of other services.
The Office proposes the following miscellaneous fees, as authorized by 17 U.S.C. 708 and other provisions of the Copyright Act, to be codified at 37 CFR 201.3(e).
The
Taking into account labor and costs, the Office estimates that it costs $35 to deliver documents by fax and by Federal Express mailing. The Office proposes that the $1 and $45 fees for such services, respectively, remain unchanged.
The Office proposes raising the payment processing service charges to account for a near complete cost recovery for those types of charges. Thus, the Office proposes raising the fee for overdraft of a deposit account from $250 to $285 to account for the estimated cost of $280. The Office proposes raising the fee for dishonored replenishment checks for deposit accounts from $100 to $500 to account for the $513 cost of such service. And the Office proposes raising the fee for uncollectable or nonnegotiable payments from $30 to $115 to recover the $110 it costs the Office to address such a situation.
Finally, the Office proposes keeping the fee for designation of an agent under 17 U.S.C. 512(c)(2) at $6, despite its $52 cost. That higher cost figure largely reflects the cost of staff time during initial development of a new electronic designation of agent system, and the Office anticipates that the ongoing costs will be lower now that system development is largely complete.
The Licensing Division administers the various statutory licenses and related provisions, and also provides services to the Copyright Royalty Board, which oversees rate determinations and disbursements for certain statutory and compulsory licenses. Specifically, the Licensing Division administers statutory licenses for secondary transmissions by cable systems (section 111), statutory licenses for ephemeral recordings (section 112); statutory licenses for the public perforce of sound recordings by means of a digital audio transmission (section 114), compulsory licenses for making and distributing phonorecords (section 115), statutory licenses for secondary transmissions for satellite carriers (section 119), statutory licenses for secondary transmissions by satellite carriers for local retransmissions (section 122), and statutory obligation for distribution of digital audio recording devices and media (section 1003).
The Licensing Division collects fees for the filing of cable and satellite statements of account, to reimburse some of the costs of administering the cable and satellite licenses. It deducts its operating costs from the royalty fees it collects, and invests any remaining balance in interest-bearing securities with the U.S. Treasury for later distribution to copyright owners. Unlike other fees collected by the Copyright Office, the revenue from filing fees under sections 111, 119, and 122 may not exceed 50% of certain costs associated with the Licensing Division's administration of the statutory licenses under those provisions.
The Office proposes the following Licensing Division fees to be codified at 37 CFR 201.3(f).
For
The fee for an amended statement of account filed by cable systems, satellite systems, and digital audio recording device distributors will be reduced to $50. The Office notes, however, that it intends to charge that amendment fee in a wider range of circumstances. In particular, the Office does not always charge the amendment fee when Office examination uncovers an error that requires the filing of an amended statement of account; the Office plans to regularly charge that fee in the future.
The Office has proposed fees associated with section 111, 119, and
The Office proposes keeping the fee for section 115 notices at their current levels. As the Booz Allen Study notes, “subsequent to FY2016, the Office received a significant increase in electronic Section 115 notices with large numbers of titles, and has devoted resources to developing a new system to ingest and process these large filings.”
The Office proposes raising the fee for notices under sections 112 and 114 from $40 to $50 to achieve greater recovery of the $300 cost associated with such notices. The Office did not have sufficient data to evaluate the fee for recordation of certain contracts by cable television stations located outside the 48 contiguous states, so the Office proposes keeping it at $50.
The Office will adopt technical amendments as needed to conform existing regulations to the changes proposed in this notice.
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to streamline its rules to facilitate the deployment of a class of satellites known as small satellites, which have relatively short duration missions.
Comments are due on or before July 9, 2018. Reply comments are due on or before August 7, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by IB Docket No. 18-86, by any of the following methods:
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•
For detailed instructions for submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the
Merissa Velez, 202-418-0751.
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
Pursuant to §§ 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS).
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• All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th Street SW, Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. The filing hours are 8:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.
• Commercial overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701.
• U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail must be addressed to 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554.
Pursuant to 47 CFR 1.1200(a), this proceeding will be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's
This document contains proposed new and modified information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and the Office of Management and Budget to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this document, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, we seek specific comment on how we might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
In this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
The impetus for this
The Commission has authorized small satellites both as commercial operations under part 25 of the Commission's rules and as experimental operations—including scientific and research missions for purposes of experimentation, product development, and market trials—under part 5 of the Commission's rules. Some amateur small satellite operations have also been authorized under part 97 of the Commission's rules. Because of the increasingly commercial nature of small
Today the small satellite sector is engaged in a range of activities, from brief research-oriented satellite missions to regularly replenishing commercial satellite constellations operating over a number of years.
For much of the history of the satellite industry, economies of scale, increased capabilities of launch vehicles, and rising global demand for satellite services pushed satellite manufacturers to focus their efforts on designing larger and more powerful satellites. In the last 15 years, however, the miniaturization of components and the ability of small satellite developers to capitalize on commercial off-the-shelf equipment has enabled smaller, cheaper satellites to be built and launched into space. In 1999, engineers at California Polytechnic State University and Stanford University developed a small satellite standard known as the “CubeSat” design, with the goal to train students and expose them to real-world engineering practices and design. The CubeSat is a standardized interface consisting of an approximately 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm unit or “U” that can be scaled up to create CubeSats that are 3U (three units) or 12U (12 units) in size, for example. The standardized specification enables CubeSats to be fully enclosed in specially developed deployment mechanisms that can be added to launch vehicles as secondary payloads. The CubeSat specification has been widely adopted even outside the academic community, largely due to low costs and access to launch services, and satellites based on the standard constitute a large percentage of small satellites deployed in recent years. While the advantages of small satellites have ensured their continuing use by universities and research institutions, it has also encouraged the growing number of CubeSat missions that are commercial.
Commercial sector involvement in all small satellites, not just CubeSats, has increased significantly in recent years. Venture capital firms are investing in small satellite companies, such as those providing Earth imagery. According to one report, the use of small satellites for commercial purposes represents a shift from the practice before 2013, when the majority of small satellites were used for government and academic operations.
The United States continues to be the leader in the number of small satellites launched, and in the last several years the Commission has licensed several commercial earth exploration satellite service (EESS)
The Commission currently authorizes small satellites in three ways: (1) As commercial satellite operations under
The Commission has licensed under the part 25 rules several NGSO constellations utilizing smaller satellites based on the CubeSat concept. While some waivers have been requested in these applications, many of the Commission's existing NGSO rules have been readily applicable to these types of systems. However, the types of NGSO constellations that have been licensed under part 25 that use smaller-sized satellites are often large commercial constellations, in some cases envisioned to include hundreds of small satellites deployed more or less continuously over an extended period. The same procedures may not be suitable for an operator launching fewer small satellites with an intended short duration mission, because of fees and those costs associated with posting a surety bond, as well as the extended timelines associated with a Commission processing round. A processing round may not be necessary for systems that do not require constant spectrum availability, since sharing may be more easily attainable with future systems seeking to use the same spectrum. Some of these factors specific to the application process in part 25 may explain why the number of part 25 licenses has not increased appreciably in recent years while the number of individual small satellites licensed by the Commission, particularly through experimental licenses, has increased.
To date, the majority of non-governmental small satellite operations in the United States have been authorized through the experimental process under part 5 of the Commission's rules on a non-interference, unprotected basis and with limited license terms. Non-interference, unprotected operations may be acceptable for some satellite operations, but for other types of operations, and particularly for satellite mission critical functions such as telemetry, tracking, and command (TT&C), it can be important that satellite links have some level of interference protection.
A variety of frequency bands have been used for, or requested for use by, the types of operations frequently thought of as “small satellite” operations,
The Commission has found that many small satellites are launched not as part of large constellations, but as part of small-scale operations consisting of a single satellite or only a few satellites. As noted, existing part 25 rules governing NGSO-like
A primary goal of this proceeding is to better tailor the Commission's regulatory process to small satellites. Currently, an application for an NGSO satellite system under part 25 of the Commission's rules requires the applicant to submit an FCC Form 312, Main Form and Schedule S, along with exhibits as described in section 25.114 of the Commission's rules.
Under our existing rules, entities may file a petition for a declaratory ruling to access the U.S. market using a non-U.S.-licensed space station. Although we at some points use the term “license” in this
We also seek comment on whether there are other criteria not considered below that should be met by satellites applying under this streamlined process. Many proposals in this
Given the possibility of seeking additional licenses under the streamlined process, it does not appear necessary or efficient to adopt rules for replacement satellites or expectation of replacement,
We also recognize the possibility of commercial lunar missions or other non-Earth-orbiting missions in the future utilizing CubeSats or other small satellite designs.
Deployment of satellites lacking maneuvering capabilities above the ISS, to orbits from which they will eventually transit through the ISS altitude band, increase the likelihood that the ISS will need to conduct avoidance maneuvers, potentially disrupting ISS operations. For that reason, deployment of satellites without propulsion capabilities above the ISS may not be appropriate for streamlined consideration. We propose as a third option, however, to authorize small satellites under the streamlined process to deploy at altitudes above the ISS if they certify that the satellite(s) have sufficient propulsion capabilities to perform collision avoidance maneuvers and deorbit within the license term proposed above. While many small satellites to date have not been equipped with onboard propulsion systems, new technologies are being developed that could provide a means for actively maneuvering.
The Commission has granted several waivers of the processing round rules for NGSO satellites, including small satellites, operating in the EESS. For these small satellites, the Commission has relied on the applicants'
We propose that applications qualifying for the streamlined small satellite process be exempt from processing round procedures. Instead, each applicant under the streamlined small satellite process would be required to (a) certify that operations of its satellite will not interfere with those of existing operators, (b) certify that it will not unreasonably preclude future operators from utilizing the assigned frequency band(s), and (c) provide a brief narrative description illustrating the methods by which future operators will not be unreasonably precluded. Such methods could include the sharing of ephemeris data to avoid RF interference events,
Although there would be no processing round under our proposed licensing approach, small satellite operators licensed pursuant to the streamlined process would still typically receive interference protections in accordance with the relevant service allocation in the U.S. Table of Allocations. For example, small satellite applicants seeking to operate EESS systems in frequency bands with a secondary EESS allocation will be authorized on a secondary basis. In bands where part 25 licensees are authorized pursuant to a processing round, however, the Commission anticipates that small satellites authorized on a streamlined basis would be subject to some limitations on a frequency-band specific basis, including, in appropriate circumstances, that operations are on a non-interference, unprotected basis with respect to those part 25 systems. We seek comment on this proposed approach to interference protection.
For typical NGSO FSS, MSS, or other operations requiring full-time uninterrupted availability of assigned spectrum, the ability to share spectrum with all existing and future operations is more limited or nonexistent because of the complexities of these systems. We tentatively conclude that the required indicia of sharing would not be present in these instances, and that such operations are more appropriately addressed for authorization under existing part 25 procedures, including processing rounds. We recognize, however, that not all FSS and MSS operations require full time spectrum availability. In these instances, where the other criteria are satisfied, authorization under the proposed streamlined small satellite process might be appropriate. We seek comment on these tentative conclusions. In determining whether an application is acceptable for filing within the streamlined small satellite process, we propose to rely on the applicant's certification that it can reasonably share with existing and future operators, as described above, in addition to the other criteria we set forth in this
Consistent with the above tentative conclusion that small satellites will not preclude others from operating in the band, we further propose to exempt small satellites from the limitations on unbuilt NGSO-like systems contained in section 25.159 of the Commission's rules.
In lieu of the narrative demonstrations required by the existing part 25 rules, we propose that applicants may instead provide the various certifications described above as the qualifying criteria for the streamlined small satellite process.
We propose a change to the bond requirement normally applicable to NGSO satellites authorized under part 25. Specifically, we propose a one-year “grace period” during which small satellites that qualify for the streamlined process as outlined in this
This grace period may be warranted for two reasons. First, most small satellite operators have a comparatively short window between filing of their application and deployment of their satellites. Applicants for small satellite short-duration missions frequently deploy and begin operations with their satellites within one year or less of obtaining a Commission license. In these instances, once satellites are authorized, there is little opportunity for the applicant to warehouse spectrum that it does not intend to use. Second, as described above, we propose that the estimated on-orbit lifetime of the individual satellites that may be authorized will be five years or less, and that licenses granted under the streamlined process may not be renewed or extended. Thus, to the extent that the satellite is authorized to operate in a particular frequency band, the licensee is unlikely to preclude the availability of resources to competitors or discourage innovation during this short amount of time. Furthermore, the limitations we propose to place on the applicant's license term, including the start of the five-year license term at launch of the first satellite, discussed
Following the one-year grace period, if the authorized satellite(s) have not yet been deployed, we propose that operators could still launch and operate their satellites subject to the bond and milestone requirements applicable to NGSO satellites, provided that the satellite(s) can still meet the criteria for the small satellite process, including deorbit within the five-year license term (which we have proposed would begin when the first satellite is placed into its authorized orbit). Under this proposal, the escalating bond would need to be filed with the Commission, at the amount that would be applicable for a part 25 NGSO satellite one year after the license has been issued. We seek comment on this approach, and ask whether alternatively we should develop a different bond amount or a more or less rigorous approach to milestones for satellites licensed under the streamlined small satellite process.
In addition, we propose that grantees failing to begin operations during the one-year grace period, because of launch delays, for example, may surrender their license to avoid the bond requirement. Further, we suggest that grantees launching and operating one or more satellites within the one-year grace period, but failing to launch and operate 50 percent of their authorized satellites within that period, may choose to either be subject to the standard NGSO bond and milestone requirements or, in the case of licenses that specify multiple satellites, accept an automatic reduction in the number of authorized satellites to the number actually in orbit as of the close of the grace period. This proposal would not preclude the filing of a new application for additional satellites. We seek comment on these suggested outcomes.
In this section, we address a number of issues relevant to frequency selection for small satellite systems generally having the characteristics described above.
The current part 25 rules include a list of frequency bands available for particular types of services, but indicate that operations can be authorized in other bands allocated for satellite services. In order to assist small satellite operators in identifying possible frequency bands for use, we seek comment on including a non-exclusive list of frequencies in section 25.202 of the Commission's rules. We seek comment on the types of bands that should be specified in any such rule. We also seek comment on an alternative proposal to omit a specific list and consider applications on a case-by-case basis, bearing in mind the relevant frequency allocations. As a third alternative, we seek comment on whether the proposed process should be limited to specific frequency bands. We also seek comment on the type and quantity of spectrum that will be needed for small satellites to operate. Commenters should include data, analysis, and engineering studies on the expected demand for small satellites. We request that commenters address their need to access specific bands, bearing in mind the case of bands that have other allocations and services.
In addition to the sharing characteristics described above, we anticipate that the actual amount of spectrum used by any particular small satellite will be small, generally no more than a few megahertz and in some cases only a few tens-of-kilohertz, and RF output power will be low. Notably, the ITU has found that for a short duration missions (three years or less) operating on frequencies below 1 GHz, a typical small satellite space segment mission uses a bandwidth of less than 100 kilohertz, a non-directional type antenna with a gain under 3 dBi, and RF output power of 1 W. For small satellites operating on frequencies between 1 and 3 GHz, the ITU found generally a wider bandwidth of less than 7.5 megahertz is used, with non-directional antennae gain under 10 dBi, and an RF output power of less than 1 W. These technical characteristics, such as low power and low bandwidth, are generally consistent with the small satellites granted experimental licenses by the Commission, and are also consistent with the type of operations we envision being authorized pursuant to the streamlined small satellite process described in this
In the discussion above, we sought comment on whether the existing part 25 technical rules should apply to small satellites. Here we also ask whether particular service rules, on a band-specific basis, may be needed to ensure protection of incumbent users. For example, geographic isolation of small satellite earth stations, power level restrictions on transmissions to and from small satellites, temporal restrictions on small satellite communications with earth stations, antenna specifications or other limitations on satellite design parameters, and/or other technical requirements may enable protection of incumbent operations, depending on the RF environment in each band.
In discussing the compatibility of small satellites with other operations, however, we note that a number of the frequency bands where small satellites have been authorized, and where there are non-Federal allocations for services such as EESS and space operations,
In this section, we highlight frequency bands with existing non-Federal frequency allocations for space operations or other satellite services (
The 137-138 MHz and 148-150.05 MHz bands were the subject of a processing round and rulemaking in 1997 and 1998, which resulted in the grant of several licenses for the provision of MSS in these bands. Of the initial licensees, only one, ORBCOMM License Corp. (ORBCOMM), remains licensed to provide commercial NVNG MSS in the 137-138 MHz or 148-150.05 MHz bands. In 2008, ORBCOMM was granted a modification of its license for an NVNG MSS system to construct, launch, and operate additional satellites capable of operating in the 137-138 MHz and 148-150.05 MHz frequency bands. ORBCOMM subsequently received another modification of its license in 2016.
In light of the existing frequency allocation for space operation downlinks in the 137-138 MHz band, and the allocation for space operation uplinks the 148-149.9 MHz band in accordance with international footnote 5.218, we seek comment on use of these bands for small satellite operations. Additionally, we propose to permit small satellite uplinks in the 149.9-150.05 MHz frequency band as an application of the MSS. The ORBCOMM system is currently operating in portions, if not all, of these frequency bands. As these frequency bands were originally considered for use by multiple satellite systems, we request comment generally on whether, and if so, how, small satellite space operations could share this spectrum while protecting ORBCOMM's existing and future MSS operations. As part of this proposal, we consider whether small satellites could utilize spectrum in those frequency bands where ORBCOMM has been authorized to operate pending commencement of operations by another U.S.-licensed NVNG MSS system (
In addition, we note the additional requirements applicable to these frequency bands. We note that operations in the downlink band, 137-138 MHz, in the MSS are subject to a number of service rules to effectuate coordination with NOAA. We seek comment on whether any of these service rules should be similarly applied to potential operations by small satellites in this frequency band. The uplink band, 148-150.05 MHz, is subject to coordination, to the extent specified in the U.S. Table and/or International Table, under Nos. 9.11A and 9.21 of the ITU Radio Regulations.
We seek comment on whether small satellites could operate in this band as an application of the MSS under the existing uplink allocation. These would be small satellite Earth-to-space links operating independently of the Globalstar system.
In the MSS, Globalstar has operated several experimental inter-satellite links with small satellites. The small satellites use Globalstar equipment developed for earth station operations to transmit and receive data by means of the Globalstar system, including Globalstar satellites and ground infrastructure. The experimental communications have taken place on frequencies currently authorized to Globalstar for MSS, typically in the 1615-1617.75 MHz or 2483.5-2495 MHz bands. Iridium has similarly been authorized on an experimental basis to utilize its MSS satellites to communicate with small satellites equipped with Iridium user terminals in spectrum authorized for use by Iridium, including in the 1618.725-1626.5 MHz band. In filings for experimental authorizations, Iridium and Globalstar acknowledge that their part 25 authorizations currently do not
We tentatively conclude that it would serve the public interest to develop an allocation for space-to-space operations in the MSS in the frequency bands that have been used for communications with the Globalstar and Iridium systems. There are a number of benefits to inter-satellite operations, given the capabilities and existing infrastructure of these MSS systems and the ability of small satellite operators to obtain components needed to communicate with these systems. We believe that encouraging relay operations using Iridium, Globalstar, or other systems can alleviate some of the difficulties faced by small satellite operators in identifying frequencies for Earth-to-space and space-to-Earth links and building or seeking out ground station infrastructure. We seek comment on these tentative conclusions. In addition, given the interest in similar relay communications with satellites operating in the FSS, we ask whether there are other frequency bands that may be appropriate to identify for facilitating inter-satellite communications between satellites operating in the FSS and small satellites. Alternatively, we ask whether there is a definitional change we could develop and propose for MSS, FSS, or ISS that would enable broader change at the ITU for future accommodation of these services within existing allocations. We also seek comment on whether there are additional requirements, for example, technical requirements, that could be adopted to facilitate the use of MSS or FSS frequency bands for inter-satellite links without creating potential interference to other operations.
Additionally, we seek comment on providing for the authorization of inter-satellite service links in the frequency bands that have been used for communications with the Globalstar and Iridium systems through a footnote to the U.S. Table. We also seek comment on the bands within the MSS allocations currently used by Globalstar and Iridium, such as 1613.8-1626.5 MHz and 2483.5-2495 MHz, that would be appropriate for this proposal. We recognize, for example, that frequency bands such as 1610-1613.8 MHz may not be appropriate for such operations, in order to ensure protection of radio astronomy installations.
Recently, Congress passed the Repack Airwaves Yielding Better Access for Users of Modern Services Act of 2018, or the RAY BAUM'S Act of 2018, which authorized the Commission to “by rule amend the schedule of application fees . . . so that the schedule reflects the . . . addition of new categories of applications.”
Small satellites represent a dynamic sector in the satellite industry. Our goal is to encourage innovation in this realm by developing processes that can accommodate new types of missions while still ensuring that operators do not experience harmful interference and that the operations are in the public interest. Accordingly, we seek comment on these proposals.
As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Commission has prepared this present Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities by the policies and rules proposed in this
This
The proposed action is authorized under sections 4(i), 7, 8, 301, 303, 308 and 309 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 157, 158, 301, 303, 308, 309.
The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and, where feasible, an estimate of, the number of small entities that may be affected the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small business concern” is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA).
The rules proposed in this
The first category of Satellite Telecommunications “comprises establishments primarily engaged in providing telecommunications services to other establishments in the telecommunications and broadcasting industries by forwarding and receiving communications signals via a system of satellites or reselling satellite telecommunications.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2012 show that there were a total of 333 satellite telecommunications firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 299 firms had annual receipts of under $25 million, and 12 firms had receipts of $25 million to $49,999,999.
The second category of Other Telecommunications is comprised of entities “primarily engaged in providing specialized telecommunications services, such as satellite tracking, communications telemetry, and radar station operation. This industry also includes establishments primarily engaged in providing satellite terminal stations and associated facilities connected with one or more terrestrial systems and capable of transmitting telecommunications to, and receiving telecommunications from, satellite systems. Establishments providing internet services or voice over internet protocol (VoIP) services via client-supplied telecommunications connections are also included in this industry.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2012 show that there were a total of 1,442 firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 1,415 firms had annual receipts of under $25 million. We anticipate that some of these “Other Telecommunications firms,” which are small entities, are earth station applicants/licensees, but since we do not propose changes to our licensing rules specific to earth station, we do not anticipate that these entities would be affected if our proposed rule changes are adopted.
We anticipate that our proposed rule changes may have an impact on space station applicants and licensees. While traditionally space station applicants and licensees only rarely qualified under the definition of a small entity, the small satellite applicants and licensees that are contemplated by this
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The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rules for such small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for such small entities.”
This NPRM seeks comment from all interested parties. The Commission is aware that some of the proposals under consideration may impact small entities. Small entities are encouraged to bring to the Commission's attention any specific concerns they may have with the proposals outlined in this NPRM.
The Commission expects to consider any economic impact on small entities, as identified in comments filed in response to this NPRM, in reaching its final conclusions and taking action in this proceeding.
In this NPRM, the Commission considers rule revisions to reflect changes and advances in the satellite industry. This NPRM proposes to eliminate some information filing requirements. We propose that applicants may provide certifications in lieu of narrative information. In addition, we propose that applicants be exempt from the bond requirement for a certain period of time, and that applications for small satellites will not be subject to the processing round procedures. These proposals are designed to lower the regulatory burden involved in licensing small satellites and reduce application processing times, thereby lessening the burden of compliance on small entities with more limited resources than larger entities. Additionally, the NPRM proposes to decrease the application fee for small satellite applicants.
The proposed streamlined process is optional, so a small satellite applicant could still choose to apply under the Commission's existing part 5 or part 25 rules. The proposed changes, however, would facilitate authorization of small satellites under part 25 of the Commission's rules. These changes could support smaller entities who aim to develop and launch a small satellite or a small satellite constellation.
None.
Radio, Table of Frequency Allocations.
Communications equipment, Earth stations, Radio, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Satellites.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 parts 2 and 25 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 154, 302a, 303, and 336, unless otherwise noted.
USXXX In the bands 149.9-150.05 MHz and 1610.6-1613.8 MHz, small satellites as authorized under 47 CFR 25.122 operate as an application of the mobile-satellite service (Earth-to-space).
47 U.S.C. 154, 301, 302, 303, 307, 309, 310, 319, 332, 605, and 721 unless otherwise noted.
(i) An operator of NGSO space stations under a blanket license granted by the Commission, except for those authorized pursuant to the application process in § 25.122, need not apply for license modification to deploy and operate technically identical replacement satellites in an authorized orbit within the term of the system authorization. However, the licensee must notify the Commission of the intended launch at least 30 days in advance and certify that its operation of the additional space station(s) will not increase the number of space stations providing service above the maximum number specified in the license.
(d) The following information in narrative form shall be contained in each application, except NGSO space station applications filed pursuant to § 25.122:
(d)(1) Except as set forth in § 25.118(e) and (f), applications for modifications of space station authorizations shall be filed in accordance with § 25.114 and/or § 25.122, as applicable, but only those items of information listed in § 25.114 and/or § 25.122 that change need to be submitted, provided the applicant certifies that the remaining information has not changed.
(a) * * *
(1) Except for licenses for DBS space stations, SDARS space stations and terrestrial repeaters, 17/24 GHz BSS space stations licensed as broadcast facilities, and licenses for which the application was filed pursuant to § 25.122, licenses for facilities governed
(3) Licenses for which the application was filed pursuant to § 25.122 will be issued for a period of 5 years, without the possibility of extension or replacement authorization.
(a) This Section shall only apply to applicants for NGSO satellite systems that are able to certify compliance with the certifications set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. For applicants seeking to be authorized under this section, a comprehensive proposal for Commission evaluation must be submitted for each satellite in the proposed NGSO satellite system on FCC Form 312, Main Form and Schedule S, as described in § 25.114(a) through (c), together with the certifications described in paragraph (c) of this section and the narrative requirements described in paragraph (d) of this section.
(b) Applications for NGSO satellite systems may be filed under this section, provided that the total number of space stations in the system is ten or fewer.
(1) To the extent that space stations in the satellite system will be technically-identical, the applicant may submit an application for blanket-licensed space stations.
(2) Where the space stations in the satellite system are not technically-identical, the applicant must certify that each type of space station satisfies the criteria in paragraph (c) of this section, and submit technical information for each type of space station.
(c) Certifications under this section. Applicants filing for licenses under the streamlined procedure described in this section must include with their applications certifications that the following criteria will be met for all space stations to be operated under the license:
(1) The space station(s) will operate only in non-geostationary orbit;
(2) The total on-orbit lifetime is planned to be five years or less for the system;
(3) The space station(s):
(i) Will be deployed at an orbital altitude of 400 km or below;
(ii) Will be deployed from the International Space Station, or a vehicle docked with the International Space Station; or
(iii) Will maintain a propulsion system and have the ability to make collision avoidance maneuvers at any time the space station is located above an altitude of 400 km.
(4) The space station(s) will be identifiable by unique markers distinguishing it from other space stations or space objects;
(5) The space station(s) will release no operational debris;
(6) No debris will be generated in an accidental explosion resulting from the conversion of energy sources on board the space station into energy that fragments the spacecraft;
(7) The probability of a collision between each space station and any other large object during the orbital lifetime of the space station is less than 0.001.
(8) The space station(s) will be disposed of post-mission through atmospheric re-entry. The probability of human casualty from portions of the spacecraft surviving re-entry and reaching the surface of the Earth is zero based on reasonable calculations;
(9) Operation of the space station(s) will not cause harmful interference to space stations currently authorized under this part and operating in the requested frequency band(s) consistent with the U.S. Table of Frequency Allocations. Operations will not unreasonably preclude future entrants from utilizing the requested frequency band(s);
(10) The space station(s) will not transmit unless it receives a command originating from the ground to do so and can be commanded by command originating from the ground to cease transmissions;
(11) Each space station will have physical dimensions greater than 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm; and
(12) Each space station will have a mass of 180 kg or less.
(d) Other application information. The following information in narrative form shall be contained in each application:
(1) An overall description of system facilities, operations, and services and an explanation of how uplink frequency bands would be connected to downlink frequency bands;
(2) Public interest considerations in support of grant;
(3) A description of means by which requested spectrum could be shared with both current and future operators, (
(4) For space stations with any means of maneuverability, including both active and passive means, a description of the design and operation of maneuverability and de-orbit systems; and
(5) If at the time of application any manned spacecraft is located at or below the deployment orbital altitude of the space station seeking a license, a description of the design and operational strategies that will be used to avoid in-orbit collision with such manned spacecraft.
(d)(1) Applications for NGSO-like satellite operation will be considered pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 25.157, except as provided in § 25.157(b) or § 25.157(i), as appropriate.
(a) This section specifies the procedures for considering license applications for “NGSO-like” satellite operation, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (i) of this section. For purposes of this section, the term “NGSO-like satellite operation” means:
(1) Operation of any NGSO satellite system, and
(2) Operation of a GSO MSS satellite to communicate with earth stations with non-directional antennas.
(i) For consideration of license applications filed pursuant to the procedures described in § 25.122, the application will be processed and granted in accordance with §§ 25.150 through 25.156, taking into consideration the information provided by the applicant under § 25.122(d)(3), but without a processing round as described in this section and without a queue as described in § 25.158.
(b) Applicants with an application for one NGSO-like satellite system license on file with the Commission in a particular frequency band, or one licensed-but-unbuilt NGSO-like satellite system in a particular frequency band, will not be permitted to apply for another NGSO-like satellite system license in that frequency band, except
(a) For all space station licenses issued after September 20, 2004, other than licenses for DBS space stations, SDARS space stations, space stations licensed under the process outlined in section 25.122, and replacement space stations as defined in paragraph (e) of this section, the licensee must post a bond within 30 days of the grant of its license. Failure to post a bond will render the license null and void automatically.
(e) A replacement space station is one that:
(1) Is authorized to operate at an orbital location within ±0.15° of the assigned location of a GSO space station to be replaced or is authorized for NGSO operation and will replace an existing NGSO space station in its authorized orbit, except for space stations authorized under section 25.122;
(2) Is authorized to operate in the same frequency bands, and with the same coverage area as the space station to be replaced; and
(3) Is scheduled to be launched so that it will be brought into use at approximately the same time, but no later than, as the existing space station is retired.
(h) Licensees of space stations under the process outlined in § 25.122 need not post a bond unless the space station is not launched, orbiting, and operational, as described in § 25.164, within a period of one year plus 30 days following grant of license. If the space station is not operational following the one years plus 30 days period, then the licensee must file a bond in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this Section, and be subject to the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (g) of this section.
(b)(1) For all NGSO-like satellite licenses, except as specified in paragraph (b)(4), for which the application was filed pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 25.157 after August 27, 2003, authorizing operations in a frequency band for which the Commission has not adopted frequency band-specific service rules at the time the license is granted, the licensee will be required to comply with the following technical requirements, notwithstanding the frequency bands specified in these rule provisions: §§ 25.143(b)(2)(ii) (except NGSO FSS systems) and (iii), 25.204(e), and 25.210(f) and (i).
(4) For all small satellite licensees, for which the application was filed pursuant to § 25.122, authorizing operations in a frequency band for which the Commission has not adopted frequency-band specific service rules at the time the license is granted, the licensee will not be required to comply with the technical requirements specified in this section.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Announcement.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), inform the public that we are no longer considering preparation of a programmatic environmental impact statement (PEIS) pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act to evaluate the potential environmental impacts of a proposed rule to authorize incidental take of migratory birds under the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.
As of May 24, 2018, no further action will be taken in regard to the notice of intent to prepare a PEIS that was published in the
The notice of intent and the comments received can be viewed online at
Ken Richkus, Deputy Chief, Division of Migratory Bird Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803, telephone 703-358-1780.
On May 26, 2015, the Service published in the
Due to issuance of the December 22, 2017, DOI Solicitor Opinion (M-37050), the actions contemplated are superseded, and we are no longer pursuing action on the PEIS as announced in the notice of intent that was published in the
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by June 25, 2018 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notice
The Department of Agriculture (USDA), Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has determined that the suspension of the assessment of fees for supervision of official inspection and weighing services performed by delegated States and/or designated agencies under the United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA) will continue through June 30, 2019.
This notice is applicable beginning July 1, 2018, and remains applicable for one year.
Denise Ruggles, USDA-AMS-FGIS-ODA; Telephone: (816) 659-8406; Email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audio tape, etc.) should contact the USDA Target Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
The Agriculture Reauthorizations Act of 2015, Public Law 114-54, amended the USGSA (7 U.S.C. 71-87k) to require AMS to adjust fees for the supervision of official grain inspection and weighing in order to maintain an operating reserve of not less than 3 and not more than 6 months (7 U.S.C. 79(j)(4)).
The Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyard Administration (GIPSA) published a notification of the suspension of supervision fee assessment on June 12, 2017, which became effective on July 1, 2017 (82 FR 26843). The realignment of offices within the U.S. Department of Agriculture authorized by the Secretary's Memorandum dated November 14, 2017, eliminates GIPSA as a standalone agency. The grain inspection activities formerly part of GIPSA are now organized under AMS.
In order to maintain an operating reserve not less than 3 and not more than 6 months, AMS reviewed the operating reserve at the end of fiscal year 2017. The supervision of official inspection and weighing program-
Accordingly, AMS is issuing this notice to announce the suspension of the fee for supervision of official inspection and weighing services of domestic grain and land carriers to Canada and Mexico performed by delegated States and/or designated agencies. According to the regulations under the USGSA, AMS may suspend any provision of the regulations in emergencies or other circumstances, which would not impair the objectives of the USGSA (7 CFR 800.2). AMS has determined that suspending supervision fees will not impair the objectives of the USGSA because the operating reserve for supervision services is sufficient to maintain the service without additional funds.
AMS will continue the suspension of the assessment fee of $0.011 per metric ton on domestic shipments officially inspected and/or weighed, including land carrier shipments to Canada and Mexico, performed by delegated States and/or designated agencies on or after July 1, 2018 (7 CFR 800.71 Schedule B). These fees will remain suspended for one year, at which time AMS will reassess the operating reserve for supervision of official agency inspection and weighing.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Uinta-Wasatch-Cache Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in South Jordan, Utah. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following website:
The meeting will be held on June 19, 2018, from 6:00 p.m.-8:30 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of the meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Uinta-Wasatch-Cache Forest Service Office, Room #314, 857 West South Jordan Parkway, South Jordan, Utah. The meeting will also be available via teleconference. For anyone who would like to attend via teleconference, please visit the website listed in the
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Loyal Clark, RAC Coordinator, by phone at 801-999-2113 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to review and recommend project proposals.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by June 8, 2018, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time to make oral comments must be sent to Loyal Clark, RAC Coordinator, Uinta-Wasatch-Cache National Forest, 857 West South Jordan Parkway, South Jordan, Utah 84095; by email to
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Hood-Willamette Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Salem Oregon. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following website:
The meeting will be held on the following dates: June 6, 2018, at 10:00 a.m., and June 7, 2018, at 9:30 a.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of the meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Keizer Community Center, Claggett Room, 930 Chemawa Road Northeast, Keizer, Oregon.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Jennifer Lippert, RAC Coordinator, by phone at 541-225-6440 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Introduce all the RAC members to one another;
2. Review the rules and regulations surrounding the Secure Rural School Title II process and Charter; and
3. Make recommendations on 27 new or modified recreation fee proposals submitted by the Columbia River Gorge National Scenic Area (1 proposal) and the Willamette National Forest (26 proposals).
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by May 30, 2017, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time for oral comments must be sent to Jennifer Lippert, RAC Coordinator, 3106 Pierce Parkway, Suite D, Springfield, Oregon 97477; by email to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The boundaries collected in SDRP and other geographic programs will create census blocks, which are the building blocks for all Census Bureau geographic boundaries. Legal, administrative, and statistical geographies are all used to define block boundaries. While the geographic programs differ in requirements, time frame, and participants, SDRP and the other geographic programs all follow the same basic process:
1. The Census Bureau invites eligible participants to take part in the program. For SDRP, the Census Bureau invites the following state officials: Title I coordinators and mapping coordinators. The Title 1 Coordinator designates the mapping coordinator for the SDRP.
2. If they elect to join the program, the state officials receive a copy of the school district boundaries that the Census Bureau has on file. The Census Bureau also provides SDRP participants with free customized mapping software to facilitate their work.
3. Participants review the boundaries in the Census Bureau-provided digital maps and update them if needed. For SDRP, the state government participants reach out to contacts in school districts across their state to collect updates. State officials will provide the Census Bureau with updates as well as corrections to the federal Local Education Agency (LEA) identification numbers, school district boundaries, school names, grade ranges, and levels for which each school district is financially responsible.
4. Participants return their updates to the Census Bureau. In the SDRP, this is known as the Annotation Phase.
5. The Census Bureau updates its geographic database with boundary updates from participants.
6. The Census Bureau creates maps from its geographic database and sends them to participants for final review. In the SDRP, this is known as the Verification Phase.
7. The Census Bureau uses the newly updated and verified boundaries to tabulate statistics, in particular the Small Area Income and Poverty Estimates (SAIPE) Program's estimates of the number of families with children, aged 5 through 17, in poverty for each school district for the U.S. Department of Education. The U.S. Department of Education uses these estimates to allocate more than $14 billion in Title I funding annually. These Census Bureau estimates are the basis of the Title I allocation for each school district. The SDRP is of vital importance for each state's allocation of funds under Title I of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act (ESEA) as amended by Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015, Public Law 114-95.
The National Center for Education Statistics (NCES) sponsors the SDRP. The NCES identifies a Title I coordinator for each state and the District of Columbia, and the Census Bureau works with the Title I coordinator on identifying a mapping coordinator in each state to work with the Census Bureau to implement this work. The mapping coordinator collects updates from local school districts, state education officials, county planners, and state data centers, and ensures that submissions are completed within the SDRP's time frame.
The SDRP encompasses Type 1 and Type 2 school districts as defined by the NCES. Type 1 is a local school district that is not a component of a supervisory union. Type 2 is a local school district component of a supervisory union sharing a superintendent and administrative services with other local school districts.
The SDRP consists of two phases—the Annotation Phase and the Verification Phase—described below:
In the Annotation Phase, mapping coordinators gather school district updates from school district superintendents and other state officials
In the Verification Phase, the Census Bureau sends mapping coordinators newly created listings and digital files, and mapping coordinators use the SDRP verification module in GUPS to review these files and verify that the Census Bureau correctly captured their submitted information. The mapping coordinator can tag the area of issue and send the information to the Census Bureau to make corrections if the Census Bureau did not incorporate their boundary changes or other updates correctly.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Deere-Hitachi Construction Machinery Corp. (DHCMC) submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board for its facility in Kernersville, North Carolina. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on May 11, 2018.
DHCMC already has authority to produce finished and unfinished hydraulic excavators within Sites 30 and 32 of FTZ 230. The current request would add forestry machinery, forestry machinery frames/booms/arms, and hydraulic excavator frames/booms/arms to the scope of authority. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), additional FTZ authority would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials/components and specific finished products described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt DHCMC from customs duty payments on the foreign-status materials/components used in export production. On its domestic sales, for the foreign-status materials/components noted below and in the existing scope of authority, DHCMC would be able to choose the duty rates during customs entry procedures that apply to: Main frames for hydraulic excavators; track frames for hydraulic excavators; booms for hydraulic excavators; arms for hydraulic excavators; forestry machinery; main frames for forestry machinery; track frames for forestry machinery; booms for forestry machinery; and, arms for forestry machinery (duty-free). DHCMC would be able to avoid duty on foreign-status components which become scrap/waste.
The materials/components sourced from abroad include: Plastic hoses; decals; plastic O-rings/seals; rubber hoses not reinforced or otherwise combined with other materials, with fittings; rubber hoses reinforced or otherwise combined only with textile materials; rubber hoses reinforced or otherwise combined with other material; endless transmission belts of trapezoidal cross section (V-belts), other than V-ribbed, of an outside circumference exceeding 60 cm but not exceeding 180 cm; endless transmission belts of trapezoidal cross section (V-belts and belting); rubber floor mats; rubber O-rings/seals; rubber bushings; rubber caps; rubber trim; rubber isolators; steel socket bolts; steel eye bolts; steel SEMS bolts; steel U-bolts; steel screws; steel SEMS screws; steel nuts; steel U-nuts; steel screws that act as nuts; steel spring washers; retainer steel washers; disc steel washers; spacer steel washers; steel washers; steel cotters; steel cotter pins; steel pins; steel stoppers; steel track springs; steel rings; steel holders; steel spacers; steel clamps; steel plugs; steel clips; steel caps; steel bands; steel tool boxes; steel catches; steel latches; steel locks; engines; steel hydraulic cylinders; steel hydraulic motors; adapters for hydraulic cylinders and motors; steel hydraulic cylinder and motor parts (couplings; elbows; pipes; reducers; and, tees); hydraulic fluid power pumps; compressors; air conditioner hoses; air conditioner condensers; fuel/oil filters; receiver-dryer used in air conditioning systems; air filters; filter floats; filter screens; steel forestry machinery parts (arms; booms; anchors; bands; shaped, welded boss attachments; brackets; cabs; caps; cases; center joints; coolers; covers; ducts; fuel coolers; guides; intercoolers; links; manifolds; oil coolers; pins; exhaust pipes; air pipes; water pipes; fuel pipes; plates; thrust plates; radiators; rings; upper rollers; lower rollers; shrouds; shims; stays; stoppers; urea tanks; water tanks; trays; and, shoes for the tracks); other forestry machinery parts (decomposition tubes; floats of steel and rubber; handles of PC/ABS alloy; iron levers; roll over protection service plates; textile seat belts); control valves; ball valves; solenoid valves; manifold blocks; plain metal bushings; steel bushings; pulleys; swing bearings; gaskets made of metal sheeting; horns/alarms; sensors, such as thermistors; battery relays; electrical switches; sockets; controllers; wire harness; temperature sensors; pressure sensors; and, electric lighters (duty rate ranges from duty-free to 8.5%).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is July 3, 2018.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the Board's website, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Juanita Chen at
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Section 315 of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (NMSA) (16 U.S.C. 1445a) allows the Secretary of Commerce to establish one or more advisory councils to provide advice to the Secretary regarding the designation and management of national marine sanctuaries. Executive Order 13178 similarly established a Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve Council pursuant to the NMSA for the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve. Councils are individually chartered for each site to meet its specific needs. Once an advisory council has been chartered, a sanctuary superintendent starts a process to recruit members for that council by providing notice to the public and requesting interested parties to apply for the available seat(s) (
Two application forms are currently associated with this information collection: (a) National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council Application form; and (b) National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council Youth Seat Application form. These application forms are currently being revised to ensure consistency between forms, as well as clarify the information and supplemental materials to be submitted by applicants. Application form instructions will specify requirements imposed upon the agency when reviewing applicants as potential council members or alternates, including the need to assess potential conflicts of interest (or other issues) and the applicant's status as a federally registered lobbyist. Specific questions posed to applicants will be reordered, reworded and, at times, condensed to improve the organization of applicant responses and, thereby, simplify the applicant review process.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This request is for a reinstatement with change of a previously approved collection.
The NOAA Fisheries, Northeast Fisheries Science Center, Social Science Branch (SSB) seeks to conduct surveys to provide for the ongoing collection of social and economic data related to the fishing industry in the New England and Mid-Atlantic States. The purpose of this survey is to assess the current social and economic conditions of commercial fishing crews for which little is known. The proposed survey is as a follow-up to a baseline study conducted in 2011/2012. The intent of the proposed study is to assess how and why commercial crew working conditions may have changed since the initial 2011/2012 assessment. Data needed for this assessment support fishery performance measures developed by the SSB, which include information on financial viability, distributional outcomes, stewardship, governance, and well-being. Data to be collected include demographic information on crew, wage calculations systems, individual and community well-being, fishing practices, job satisfaction, job opportunities, and attitudes toward fisheries management.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) and Magnuson-Stevens Conservation and Management Act (MSA) both contain requirements for considering the social and economic impacts of fishery management decisions. There is a need to understand how such fishery management policies and programs will affect the social and economic characteristics of those involved in the commercial fishing industry. To help meet these requirements of NEPA and MSA, the SSB will collect data on an ongoing basis to track how socio-economic characteristics of fisheries are changing over time and the impact of fishery management policies and programs implemented in New England and the Mid-Atlantic regions.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Department of Defense.
Renewal of Federal Advisory Committee.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that it is renewing the charter for the Board of Visitors for the Western Hemisphere Institute for Security Cooperation (“the Board”).
Jim Freeman, Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, 703-692-5952.
The Board's charter is being renewed pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2166(e)(1) and in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended) and 41 CFR 102-3.50(a). The Board's charter and contact information for the Board's Designated Federal Officer (DFO) can be found at
The Board provides the Secretary of Defense and the Deputy Secretary of Defense, through the Secretary of the Army, independent advice and recommendations on matters pertaining to the operations and management of the Western Hemisphere Institute for Security Cooperation (“the Institute”). The Board shall (a) Inquire into the curriculum, instruction, physical equipment, fiscal affairs, and academic methods of the Institute; other matters relating to the Institute that the Board decides to consider; and any other matter that the Secretary of Defense determines appropriate (10 U.S.C. 2166(e)(4)(A); (b) Review the curriculum to determine whether it complies with applicable U.S. laws and regulations, is consistent with U.S. policy goals toward Latin America and the Caribbean, and adheres to current U.S. doctrine (10 U.S.C. 2166(e)(4)(B)(i)-(iii); and (c) Determine whether the instruction under the curriculum of the Institute appropriately emphasizes human rights, the rule of law, due process, civilian control of the military and the role of the military in a democratic society (10 U.S.C. 2166(d)(1)(e)(4)(B)(iv)).
The Board will be composed 14 members, 6 of whom are designated by the Secretary of Defense including, to the extent practicable, persons from academia, religious institutions, and human rights communities. The Secretary of Defense will also affirm the appointments, designated in statute, of the senior military officer responsible for training and doctrine in the U.S. Army (or designee) and the Commanders of the Combatant Commands with geographic responsibility for the Western Hemisphere (U.S. Northern Command and the U.S. Southern Command) (or the designees of those officers). The Board will also be composed of: (a) Two Members of the Senate (the Chair and Ranking Member of the Armed Services Committee or a designee of either of them); (b) Two Members of the House of Representatives (the Chair and Ranking Member of the Armed Services Committee or a designee of either of them; and (c) One person designated by the Secretary of State (10 U.S.C. 2166(e)(1)). All members of the Board are appointed to provide advice on behalf of the Government on the basis of their best judgment without representing any particular point of view and in a manner that is free from conflict of interest. Except for reimbursement of official Board-related travel and per diem, Board members serve without compensation.
The public or interested organizations may submit written statements to the Board membership about the Board's mission and functions. Written
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Reserve Forces Policy Board (RFPB) will take place.
The RFPB will hold a meeting on Wednesday, June 6, 2018 from 8:40 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. The portion of the meeting from 8:40 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. will be closed to the public. The portion of the meeting from 1:15 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. will be open to the public.
The RFPB meeting address is the Pentagon, Room 3E863, Arlington, VA.
Alexander Sabol, (703) 681-0577 (Voice), 703-681-0002 (Facsimile),
Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Department of Defense (DoD) and the Designated Federal Officer, the Reserve Forces Policy Board was unable to provide public notification required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a) concerning the meeting on June 6, 2018, of the Reserve Forces Policy Board. Accordingly, the Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150(b), waives the 15-calendar day notification requirement.
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
Office of Postsecondary Education, Department of Education.
Notice.
The Department of Education is issuing a notice inviting applications for fiscal year (FY) 2018 for the Language Resource Centers (LRC) Program, Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) number 84.229A.
For the addresses for obtaining and submitting an application, please refer to our Common Instructions for Applicants to Department of Education Discretionary Grant Programs, published in the
Carolyn Collins, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW, Room 258-40, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 453-7854. Email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
These priorities are:
The findings in the MLA survey are consistent with the definition of “Less Commonly Taught Languages” used by the Center for Advanced Research on Language Acquisition (CARLA).
Applications that propose significant and sustained collaborative activities with one or more Minority-Serving Institutions (MSIs) (as defined in this notice) and/or with one or more community colleges (as defined in this notice).
These activities must be designed to incorporate foreign languages into the curriculum at the MSI(s) or community college(s), and to improve foreign language instruction at the MSI(s) or community college(s). If an applicant institution is an MSI or a community college (as defined in this notice), that institution can meet the intent of this priority by proposing intra-campus collaborative activities instead of, or in addition to, collaborative activities with other MSIs and/or community colleges. For the purpose of this priority:
The institutions designated eligible under title III and title V may be viewed at:
The regulations in 34 CFR part 86 apply to IHEs only.
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2019 from the list of unfunded applications from this competition.
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice. The estimated range and average size of awards are based on a single 12-month budget period.
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(ii) A non-Federal entity that expends less than $750,000 during the non-Federal entity's fiscal year in Federal awards is exempt from Federal audit requirements for that year, except as noted in 2 CFR 200.503 (Relation to Other Audit Requirements), but records must be available for review or audit by appropriate officials of the Federal agency, pass-through entity, and Government Accountability Office (GAO). (2 CFR 200.501(d)).
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• A “page” is 8.5″ × 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative,
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch). However, you may use a 10 point font in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
The recommended page limit does not apply to Part I, the Application for Federal Assistance face sheet (SF 424); the supplemental SF 424 form; Part II, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524); Part IV, the assurances, certifications, and the response to section 427 of the General Education Provisions Act; the table of contents; the one-page project abstract; the appendices; or the line item budget. However, the recommended page limit does apply to all of the application narrative section.
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The Secretary reviews each application for information that shows the quality of the plan of operation for the project.
The Secretary looks for information that shows—
(1) High quality in the design of the project;
(2) An effective plan of management that ensures proper and efficient administration of the project;
(3) A clear description of how the objectives of the project relate to the purpose of the program;
(4) The way the applicant plans to use its resources and personnel to achieve each objective; and
(5) A clear description of how the applicant will provide equal access and treatment for eligible project participants who are members of groups that have been traditionally underrepresented, such as—
(i) Members of racial or ethnic minority groups;
(ii) Women; and
(iii) Handicapped persons.
(b)
The Secretary reviews each application for information that shows the quality of the key personnel the applicant plans to use on the project.
(1) The Secretary looks for information that shows—
(a) The qualifications of the project director (if one is to be used);
(b) The qualifications of each of the other key personnel to be used in the project. In the case of faculty, the qualifications of the faculty and the degree to which that faculty is directly involved in the actual teaching and supervision of students; and
(c) The time that each person referred to in paragraphs (b)(1)(a) and (b) of this section plans to commit to the project; and
(d) The extent to which the applicant, as part of its nondiscriminatory employment practices, encourages applications for employment from persons who are members of groups that have been traditionally underrepresented, such as members of racial or ethnic minority groups, women, handicapped persons, and the elderly.
(2) To determine the qualifications of a person, the Secretary considers evidence of past experience and training, in fields related to the objectives of the project, as well as other information that the applicant provides.
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The Secretary reviews each application for information that shows that the project has an adequate budget and is cost effective.
The Secretary looks for information that shows—
(1) The budget for the project is adequate to support the project activities; and
(2) Costs are reasonable in relation to the objectives of the project.
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The Secretary reviews each application for information that shows the quality of the evaluation plan for the project.
The Secretary looks for information that shows methods of evaluation that are appropriate for the project and, to the extent possible, are objective and produce data that are quantifiable.
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The Secretary reviews each application for information that shows that the applicant plans to devote adequate resources to the project.
The Secretary looks for information that shows—
(1) Other than library, facilities that the applicant plans to use are adequate (language laboratory, museums, etc.); and
(2) The equipment and supplies that the applicant plans to use are adequate.
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The Secretary reviews each application to determine—
(1) The extent to which the proposed materials or activities are needed in the foreign languages on which the project focuses;
(2) The extent to which the proposed materials may be used throughout the United States; and
(3) The extent to which the proposed work or activity may contribute significantly to strengthening, expanding, or improving programs of foreign language study in the United States.
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The Secretary reviews each application to determine—
(1) The quality of the outlined methods and procedures for preparing the materials; and
(2) The extent to which plans for carrying out activities are practicable and can be expected to produce the anticipated results.
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The Secretary reviews each application to determine the degree of specificity and the appropriateness of the description of the expected results from the project.
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In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary also requires various assurances including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Education (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
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Please note that if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually.
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If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
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We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
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(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as specified by the Secretary in 34 CFR 75.118. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
Performance reports for the LRC Program must be submitted electronically into the office of International and Foreign Language (IFLE) web-based reporting system, International Resource Information System (IRIS). For information about IRIS and to view the reporting instructions, please go to
(c) Under 34 CFR 75.250(b), the Secretary may provide a grantee with additional funding for data collection analysis and reporting. If a grantee is provided additional funding for this purpose, the Secretary establishes a data collection period.
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(a) Percentage of LRC products or activities judged to be successful by LRC customers with respect to quality, usefulness and relevance.
(b) Percentage of LRC products judged to be successful by an independent expert review panel with respect to quality, usefulness and relevance.
(c) Cost per LRC project that increased the number of training programs for K-16 instructors of LCTLs (efficiency measure).
The information provided by grantees in their performance reports submitted via the IRIS reporting system will be the source of data for these measures. Reporting screens for institutions can be viewed at:
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In making a continuation award, the Secretary also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is requesting the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to conduct an emergency review of a new information collection.
Approval by the OMB has been requested by May 21, 2018. A regular clearance process is also hereby being initiated. Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 23, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Section 315 of Title III, Division H in the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018, (Pub. L. 115-141) included a provision for ED to implement “. . . a simple method for borrowers to apply for loan cancellation . . .” under a temporary expansion of the PSLF program. The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018, required ED to implement an application process within 60 days of enactment. To meet that requirement, we are requesting emergency clearance by May 21, 2018. We are also requesting the initiation of the full clearance review to allow for public comment on the process.
ED is requesting a new collection to be used to obtain information from federal student loan borrowers to make a determination of their eligibility for participation in the loan forgiveness mandated by the new appropriations law. This loan forgiveness is only available to Direct Loan borrowers who otherwise qualify for Public Service Loan Forgiveness (PSLF) and meet other new requirements.
• This is a request for an emergency clearance to enable FSA to ensure that the required operational changes can be implemented to allow for the benefits to be available to federal student loan borrowers as well as to remain in compliance with the statutory requirements.
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, Department of Education.
Notice; extension of deadlines.
On April 25, 2018, the U.S. Department of Education (Department) published in the
Deadline for Transmittal of SEA Application for the Emergency Impact Aid program: June 4, 2018. SEAs must submit any application amendments affecting allocations under the Emergency Impact Aid program to the Department no later than July 20, 2018.
Deadline for Transmittal of SEA Application for the Homeless Children and Youth program: June 4, 2018.
Deadline for LEAs to submit applications to SEAs under the Emergency Impact Aid program: May 25, 2018. An SEA may establish additional reasonable deadlines to collect necessary revisions from LEAs, Bureau of Indian Education schools, and non-public schools, to facilitate submission of SEA final application amendments by July 20, 2018.
Deadline for LEAs to submit applications to SEAs under the Assistance for Homeless Children and Youth program: There is no statutory deadline for LEA applications under this program. Each eligible SEA will set a reasonable deadline for the submission of LEA applications.
For additional information on the Emergency Impact Aid program, please contact Francisco Ramirez. Telephone (202) 260-1541. Email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
On April 25, 2018, we published in the
Additional information about the Emergency Impact Aid and the Assistance for Homeless Children and Youth programs is available on the Department's website at
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 25, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Alfreida Pettiford, 202-245-6110.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The 524B is being revised to collect additional information to sufficiently monitor states on data security requirements for grant programs.
This notice identifies the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission staff's revised schedule for the completion of the environmental assessment (EA) for National Grid LNG, LLC's (National Grid) Fields Point Liquefaction Project. The original notice of schedule, issued on September 15, 2017, identified March 30, 2018, as the EA issuance date. Due to staff's request for supplemental engineering information that was recently filed by National Grid, staff has revised the schedule for issuance of the EA.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the project's progress.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC website (
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Startrans IO, L.L.C. submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
On December 7, 2017, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern) filed an application in Docket No. CP18-26-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to sections 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to abandon, construct, and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities at its existing Lambertville Compressor Station in Hunterdon County, New Jersey. The proposed project is known as the Lambertville East Expansion Project (Project), and would provide about 60 million cubic feet of natural gas per day of incremental pipeline transportation service to existing city gates in New Jersey.
On December 20, 2017, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's Environmental Assessment (EA) for the Project. This instant notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for the completion of the EA for the Project.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Texas Eastern proposes to abandon by removal two 5,000 horsepower natural gas-fired turbine compressor units and appurtenant facilities, and replace these units with two new 8,600 horsepower natural gas-fired turbine compressor units and appurtenant facilities at its existing Lambertville Compressor Station in Hunterdon County, New Jersey. In addition to the incremental pipeline transportation service, the Project is also proposed to comply with new air emissions regulations under the New Jersey Reasonably Achievable Control Technology program.
On January 10, 2018, the Commission issued a
• Impacts on air quality, nearby high consequence areas, and health;
• compressor type and size;
• effects on local communities, nearby properties, and property rights and values;
• direct harm to commercial, cultural, and historical interests and open space;
• water quality impacts;
• contaminated groundwater and soil;
• traffic impacts;
• impacts on tourism; and
• effects on quality of life.
All substantive comments will be addressed in the EA.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC website (
Take notice that on May 10, 2018, Transource Maryland, LLC and Transource Pennsylvania, LLC submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of AL Mesquite Marketing, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is June 7, 2018.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the website that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Tucson Electric Power Company (Tucson Electric) submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, San Diego Gas & Electric Company submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, UNS Electric, Inc. submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Pacific Gas and Electric Company submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Avista Corporation submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Orange and Rockland Utilities, Inc. submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Northwestern Corporation submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Consolidated Edison Company of New York, Inc. submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Deseret Generation & Transmission Co-operative, Inc. submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on May 10, 2018, DATC Path 15, LLC submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Citizen Sunrise Transmission LLC submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 10, 2018, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc. (WBI Energy), 1250 West Century Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58503, filed a prior notice application pursuant to sections 157.205(b), and 157.208(f)(2) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and WBI Energy's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-487-000. WBI Energy requests authorization to increase the maximum allowable operating pressure (MAOP) of its 6-inch-diameter Garland to Powell Lateral located in Park and Big Horn Counties, WY from the Garland Transfer Station to Valve No. 3. The increase in the MAOP on this portion of pipeline is required to meet an increase in capacity to the Powell, WY town border station requested by Montana Dakota Utilities Co., all as more fully set forth in the application, which is open to the public for inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions regarding this application should be directed to Lori Myerchin, Manager, Regulatory Affairs, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc., 1250 West Century Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58503 or phone (701) 530-1563 or by email
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding, or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commenter will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Trans Bay Cable LLC submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, El Paso Electric Company submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Florida Power & Light Company submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Smoky Mountain Transmission LLC submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on April 30, 2018, Cheyenne Light, Fuel and Power Company submitted a response to the March 15, 2018 Show Cause Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
This notice identifies the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission staff's revised schedule for the completion of the environmental impact statement (EIS) for Venture Global Calcasieu Pass, LLC and TransCameron Pipeline, LLC's Calcasieu Pass Project. The first notice of schedule, issued on November 29, 2017, identified July 3, 2018 as the final EIS issuance date. Due to staff's recent request for supplemental engineering information, staff has revised the schedule for issuance of the final EIS based on an issuance of the draft EIS in June 2018. The forecasted schedule for both the draft and final EIS is based upon Global Calcasieu Pass, LLC and TransCameron Pipeline, LLC providing complete and timely responses to any future data requests. In addition, the schedule assumes that the cooperating agencies will provide input on their areas of responsibility on a timely basis.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, an additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the project's progress.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EIS and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's
Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC website (
Take notice that on May 14, 2018, Portland General Electric Company
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
On May 2, 2018, TCAI Incorporated (transferor) and Waneta Holdings (US) Inc. (transferee) filed an application for the transfer of license of the Cedar Creek Project No. 2103. The project is located on Cedar Creek in Stevens County, Washington, and partially occupies Federal lands managed by the U.S. Department of Interior's Bureau of Land Management.
The applicants seek Commission approval to transfer the license for the Cedar Creek Project from the transferor to the transferee.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces EPA's plan for a public meeting regarding technical issues in the Formaldehyde Emission Standards for Composite Wood Products Final Rule published on December 12, 2016. The meeting will inform EPA's potential development of a proposed rule to address these technical issues and to further align the rule requirements with the California Air Resources Board (CARB) Airborne Toxic Control Measures (ATCM) Phase II program. The primary audience for this public meeting is Third Party Certifiers (TPCs) and panel producers who contract with TPCs to certify composite wood products under the December 12, 2016 final rule; however, this meeting is open to the public.
The meeting will be held on June 28, 2018 from 1:00 p.m. EDT to 4:00 p.m. EDT. EPA will accept questions from the public in advance of the meeting, and will address these questions during the meeting as time allows, if such questions are received by June 22, 2018.
Members of the public who register to speak at the meeting may make comments and may ask additional questions. Online requests to participate in the meeting must be received on or before June 8, 2018. On-site registration will be permitted, but seating and speaking priority will be given to those who pre-register by the deadline. See Unit III.B. for information on public participation in the meeting.
To request accommodation of a disability, please contact the meeting logistics or registration person listed under
The meeting will be held at the U.S. EPA William Jefferson Clinton East Building, Room 4225, 1201 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20004.
To participate in the
The comment period for this public meeting will open on May 24, 2018 and close July 28, 2018. The docket will remain open to receive comments and materials until this date. When submitting comments to the docket, please be as specific as possible, and please include any supporting data or other information.
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets in general is available at
This public meeting is primarily directed to the TPCs and panel producers who contract with TPCs to certify composite wood products under the Formaldehyde Emission Standards for Composite Wood Products final rule. Many of the technical issues that the Agency is considering are directly related to the third-party certification testing requirements for regulated composite wood products. In general, fabricators, distributors and retailers who are affected by the Formaldehyde Emission Standards for Composite Wood Products final rule may also be interested in this meeting. Since stakeholders other than TPCs may also be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be interested in the issues to be discussed at the public meeting. Additionally, while the Agency seeks to focus the public meeting on technical issues already raised to the Agency, we are aware there may be other technical issues of interest to stakeholders and have provided an opportunity under III. Meeting for comments to be provided to the Agency in advance of the public meeting, during oral comment at the meeting if time permits, or during the public comment period after the meeting.
The docket for this notice, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2018-0174, is available at
The Formaldehyde Emission Standards for Composite Wood Products final rule published on December 12, 2016 (81 FR 89674) and became effective March 21, 2017 (82 FR 14324). Since publication of the final rule, EPA received letters and other feedback from industry stakeholders, including the Composite Panel Association, Hardwood Plywood Veneer Association, Kitchen Cabinet Manufacturers Association, and various TPCs requesting that EPA provide clarification and possibly amend certain provisions of the December 12, 2016 final rule to further align this rule with the CARB ATCM Phase II program. The Agency has already taken other actions to amend the rule to address other issues, including allowing early labeling of compliant composite wood products (
The general nature of the issues raised by stakeholders, which are reflected on the meeting agenda included in the docket for this meeting, surround the testing and certification of composite wood products under the final rule, including correlation of test methods, equivalence of test methods, treatment of test data, and sampling requirements under EPA's final rule. The Agency is also aware there is interest from stakeholders in obtaining further guidance on how one can petition the Agency for additional exemptions for laminated products from the definition of “hardwood plywood” as allowed under § 770.4(b) of the December 12,
The public meeting on the technical issues is meant to enable the Agency to receive broad input from all TPCs and other interested stakeholders, request further public comment, data, or related information on these and any related rule provisions that can help improve consistency with CARB's regulation, improve clarity in the rule where needed, and help improve overall implementation of the rule.
The meeting will be accessible remotely for registered participants. Registered participants will receive information on how to connect to the meeting prior to its start.
Attendees and participants may register to attend the
To attend the meeting in person or to receive remote access, you must register online no later than June 22, 2018, using one of the methods described under
Attendees and participants may register to attend as observers or to speak if planning to offer oral comments. To register for the meeting online, you must provide your full name, organization or affiliation, and contact information.
Section 601 of TSCA, 15 U.S.C. 2697.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces the availability of EPA's draft human health and ecological risk assessments for the registration review of acephate, biobor, diflubenzuron, prohexadione calcium, pyridaben, thiobencarb, and zinc borate. It also announces the availability of EPA's draft human health risk assessment for the registration review of flumethrin.
Comments must be received on or before July 23, 2018.
Submit your comments, to the docket identification (ID) number for the specific pesticide of interest provided in the Table in Unit IV, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, farm worker, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the Chemical Review Manager identified in the Table in Unit IV.
1.
2.
3.
Registration review is EPA's periodic review of pesticide registrations to ensure that each pesticide continues to satisfy the statutory standard for registration, that is, the pesticide can perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on human health or the environment. As part of the registration review process, the Agency has completed comprehensive draft human health and/or ecological risk assessments for all pesticides listed in the Table in Unit IV. After reviewing comments received during the public comment period, EPA may issue a revised risk assessment, explain any changes to the draft risk assessment, and respond to comments and may request public input on risk mitigation before completing a proposed registration review decision for the pesticides listed in the Table in Unit IV. Through this program, EPA is ensuring that each pesticide's registration is based on current scientific and other knowledge, including its effects on human health and the environment.
EPA is conducting its registration review of the chemicals listed in the Table in Unit IV pursuant to section 3(g) of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Procedural Regulations for Registration Review at 40 CFR part 155, subpart C. Section 3(g) of FIFRA provides, among other things, that the registrations of pesticides are to be reviewed every 15 years. Under FIFRA, a pesticide product may be registered or remain registered only if it meets the statutory standard for registration given in FIFRA section 3(c)(5) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(5)). When used in accordance with widespread and commonly recognized practice, the pesticide product must perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on the environment; that is, without any unreasonable risk to man or the environment, or a human dietary risk from residues that result from the use of a pesticide in or on food.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 155.58, this notice announces the availability of EPA's human health and/or ecological risk assessments for the pesticides shown in the following table, and opens a 60-day public comment period on the risk assessments.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 155.53(c), EPA is providing an opportunity, through this notice of availability, for interested parties to provide comments and input concerning the Agency's draft human health and/or ecological risk assessments for the pesticides listed in the Table in Unit IV. For flumethrin, the ecological assessment was previously published for comment along with the Preliminary Work Plan in the
• To ensure that EPA will consider data or information submitted, interested persons must submit the data or information during the comment period. The Agency may, at its discretion, consider data or information submitted at a later date.
• The data or information submitted must be presented in a legible and useable form. For example, an English translation must accompany any material that is not in English and a written transcript must accompany any information submitted as an audio-graphic or video-graphic record. Written material may be submitted in paper or electronic form.
• Submitters must clearly identify the source of any submitted data or information.
• Submitters may request the Agency to reconsider data or information that the Agency rejected in a previous review. However, submitters must explain why they believe the Agency should reconsider the data or information in the pesticide's registration review.
As provided in 40 CFR 155.58, the registration review docket for each pesticide case will remain publicly accessible through the duration of the registration review process; that is, until all actions required in the final decision on the registration review case have been completed.
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces the availability of EPA's proposed interim registration review decisions and opens a 60-day public comment period on the proposed interim decisions for the following pesticides: Acibenzolar,
Comments must be received on or before July 23, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by the docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0750 for the specific pesticide of interest provided in the Table in Unit IV, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, farm worker, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the Chemical Review Manager for the pesticide of interest identified in the Table in Unit IV.
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2.
Registration review is EPA's periodic review of pesticide registrations to ensure that each pesticide continues to satisfy the statutory standard for registration, that is, the pesticide can perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on human health or the environment. As part of the registration review process, the Agency has completed proposed interim
EPA is conducting its registration review of the chemicals listed in the Table in Unit IV pursuant to section 3(g) of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Procedural Regulations for Registration Review at 40 CFR part 155, subpart C. Section 3(g) of FIFRA provides, among other things, that the registrations of pesticides are to be reviewed every 15 years. Under FIFRA, a pesticide product may be registered or remain registered only if it meets the statutory standard for registration given in FIFRA section 3(c)(5) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(5)). When used in accordance with widespread and commonly recognized practice, the pesticide product must perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on the environment; that is, without any unreasonable risk to man or the environment, or a human dietary risk from residues that result from the use of a pesticide in or on food.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 155.58, this notice announces the availability of EPA's proposed interim registration review decisions for the pesticides shown in the following table, and opens a 60-day public comment period on the proposed interim decisions. For fenhexamid, niclosamide, and TFM, this notice also opens a comment period on the ecological and human health risk assessments.
The registration review docket for a pesticide includes earlier documents related to the registration review case. For example, the review opened with a Preliminary Work Plan, for public comment. A Final Work Plan was placed in the docket following public comment on the Preliminary Work Plan.
The documents in the dockets describe EPA's rationales for conducting additional risk assessments for the registration review of the pesticides included in the table in Unit IV, as well as the Agency's subsequent risk findings and consideration of possible risk mitigation measures. These proposed interim registration review decisions are supported by the rationales included in those documents. Following public comment, the Agency will issue interim or final registration review decisions for the pesticides listed in the table in Unit IV.
The registration review final rule at 40 CFR 155.58(a) provides for a minimum 60-day public comment period on all proposed interim registration review decisions. This comment period is intended to provide an opportunity for public input and a mechanism for initiating any necessary amendments to the proposed interim decision. All comments should be submitted using the methods in
The Agency will carefully consider all comments received by the closing date and may provide a “Response to Comments Memorandum” in the docket. The interim registration review decision will explain the effect that any comments had on the interim decision and provide the Agency's response to significant comments.
Background on the registration review program is provided at:
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is required under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), as amended by the Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act, to make information publicly available and to publish information in the
Comments identified by the specific case number provided in this document must be received on or before June 25, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2017-0715, and the specific case number for the chemical substance related to your comment, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This document provides the receipt and status reports for the period from January 1, 2018 to January 31, 2018. The Agency is providing notice of receipt of PMNs, SNUNs and MCANs (including amended notices and test information); an exemption application under 40 CFR part 725 (Biotech exemption); TMEs, both pending and/or concluded; NOCs to manufacture a new chemical substance; and a periodic status report on new chemical substances that are currently under EPA review or have recently concluded review.
EPA is also providing information on its website about cases reviewed under the amended TSCA, including the section 5 PMN/SNUN/MCAN and exemption notices received, the date of receipt, the final EPA determination on the notice, and the effective date of EPA's determination for PMN/SNUN/MCAN notices on its website at:
Under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), 15 U.S.C. 2601
Any person who intends to manufacture (including import) a new chemical substance for a non-exempt commercial purpose, or to manufacture or process a chemical substance in a non-exempt manner for a use that EPA has determined is a significant new use, is required by TSCA section 5 to provide EPA with a PMN, MCAN or SNUN, as appropriate, before initiating the activity. EPA will review the notice, make a risk determination on the chemical substance or significant new use, and take appropriate action as described in TSCA section 5(a)(3).
TSCA section 5(h)(1) authorizes EPA to allow persons, upon application and under appropriate restrictions, to manufacture or process a new chemical substance, or a chemical substance subject to a significant new use rule (SNUR) issued under TSCA section 5(a)(2), for “test marketing” purposes, upon a showing that the manufacture, processing, distribution in commerce, use, and disposal of the chemical will not present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment. This is referred to as a test marketing exemption, or TME. For more information about the requirements applicable to a new chemical go to:
Under TSCA sections 5 and 8 and EPA regulations, EPA is required to publish in the
This action provides information that is directed to the public in general.
No.
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2.
In the past, EPA has published individual notices reflecting the status of TSCA section 5 filings received, pending or concluded. In 1995, the Agency modified its approach and streamlined the information published in the
For the PMN/SNUN/MCANs received by EPA during this period, Table I provides the following information (to the extent that such information is not subject to a CBI claim) on the notices received by EPA during this period: The EPA case number assigned to the notice, a notation of whether the submission is an initial submission, or an amendment, a notation of which version was received, the date the notice was received by EPA, the submitting manufacturer (
As used in each of the tables in this unit, (S) indicates that the information in the table is the specific information provided by the submitter, and (G) indicates that this information in the table is generic information because the specific information provided by the submitter was claimed as CBI. Submissions which are initial submissions will not have a letter following the case number and the version column will note “Initial submission”. Submissions which are amendments to previous submissions will have a case number followed by the letter “A” (
In Table II of this unit, EPA provides the following information (to the extent that such information is not subject to a CBI claim) on the TMEs received by EPA during this period: The EPA case number assigned to the TME, the submission document type (initial or amended), the version number, the date the TME was received by EPA, the submitting manufacturer (
In Table III of this unit, EPA provides the following information (to the extent that such information is not claimed as CBI) on the NOCs received by EPA during this period: The EPA case number assigned to the NOC, the submission document type (initial or amended), the date the NOC was received by EPA, the date of commencement provided by the submitter in the NOC, a notation of the type of amendment (
In Table IV of this unit, EPA provides the following information (to the extent such information is not subject to a CBI claim) on the test information received by EPA during this time period: The EPA case number assigned to the test information; the date the test information was received by EPA, the type of test information submitted, and chemical substance identity.
If you are interested in information that is not included in these tables, you may contact EPA's technical information contact or general information contact as described above to access additional non-CBI information that may be available.
15 U.S.C. 2601
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of the existing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on the renewal of the information collection described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before July 23, 2018.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
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•
•
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All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Jennifer Jones, Counsel, 202-898-6768,
1.
There is no change in the method or substance of the collection. The overall reduction in burden hours is the result of economic fluctuation. In particular, the number of respondents has decreased while the hours per response and frequency of responses have remained the same.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of the existing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on the renewal of the information collection described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before July 23, 2018.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Jennifer Jones, Counsel, 202-898-6768,
1.
The FDIC has reviewed its previous submission related to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and has updated its methodology for calculating the burden in order to be consistent with the Federal Reserve Board and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency. In addition, the FDIC has reviewed and revised its estimated number of respondents to ensure that only those institutions with income from securities brokerage activity are included its respondent count. The overall decrease in burden hours is the result of these changes.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than June 19, 2018.
1.
2.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response, (BSC, OPHPR); May 9, 2018, 10:00 a.m.-5:30 p.m., EDT and May 10, 2018, 8:30 a.m.-3:30 p.m., EDT which was published in
The meeting will be held one day only, May 9, 2018, 9:00 a.m.-4:15 p.m., EDT, and should read as follows:
Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response, (BSC, OPHPR); May 9, 2018, 9:00 a.m.-4:15 p.m. The public is also welcome to listen to the meeting by via Adobe Connect. Pre-registration is required by clicking the links below. WEB ID: May 9, 2018 (100 seats)
Dometa Ouisley, Office of Science and Public Health Practice, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, Mailstop D-44, Atlanta, Georgia 30329, Telephone: (404) 639-7450, Fax: (404) 471-8772, Email:
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Administration for Children and Families, HHS.
Notice: Realignment of the Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration.
The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) has realigned The Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration (ODASA). This realignment removes the Office of the Chief Information Officer as a direct report to the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families and realigns the Office within the ODASA. It moves the National Grants Center of Excellence to the ODASA's Immediate Office. It also removes the Ethics and Facilities team from the Immediate Office of the ODASA and places the functions in the Office of Workforce Planning and Development.
Ben Goldhaber, Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, 330 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20201, (202) 795-7790.
This notice amends Part K of the Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Administration for Children and Families (ACF) as follows: Chapter KP, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, (ODASA), as last amended, 81 FR 49223-49224, July 27, 2016, and 77 FR 67653-67655, November 13, 2012; Chapter KQ, Office of the Chief Information Officer (OCIO), as last amended, 81 FR 49223-49224, July 27, 2016; Chapter K, Administration for Children and Families (ACF), as last amended, 81 FR 87563, December 5, 2016.
I. Under Chapter K, Administration for Children and Families, delete Section K.10, in its entirety and replace with the following:
II. Under Chapter KP, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, KP.00 Mission, delete in its entirety and replace with the following:
III. Under Chapter KP, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, KP.10 Organization, delete in its entirety and replace with the following:
IV. Under Chapter KP, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, KP.20 Functions, paragraph A, delete in its entirety and replace with the following:
The Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration represents the Assistant Secretary in HHS and with other federal agencies and task forces in defining objectives and priorities, and in coordinating activities associated with federal reform initiatives. ODASA provides leadership of assigned ACF special initiatives arising from Departmental, federal and non-federal directives to improve service delivery to customers.
The Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration provides day-to-day executive leadership and direction to the Immediate Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary, Office of Financial Services, Office of Workforce Planning and Development, the Office of Grants Management, Office of Diversity Management and Equal Employment Opportunity, and the Office of the Chief Information Officer. The Immediate Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration consists of the Deputy Director, Chief of Staff, the Management Operations Team, the Acquisition Team, and the Budget Team.
The Management Operations Team coordinates human capital management needs within ODASA. The Team provides leadership, guidance, oversight and liaison functions for ODASA personnel related issues and activities as well as other administrative functions within ODASA. The Management Operations Team coordinates with the Office of Workforce Planning and Development to provide ODASA staff with a full array of personnel services, including position management, performance management, employee recognition, staffing, recruitment, employee and labor relations, employee worklife, payroll liaison, staff development, training services, and special hiring and placement programs. The Team develops and implements ACF travel policies and procedures consistent with federal requirements. The Team provides technical assistance and oversight; coordinates ACF's use of the Travel Management System; manages employee participation in the Travel Charge Card program, and coordinates Travel Management Center services for ACF. It purchases and tracks common use supplies, stationery and publications. It plans and manages reprographic services.
The Budget Team manages the formulation and execution of ODASA's federal administration budget and assigned ACF program and common expense budgets. The Budget Team maintains budgetary controls on ODASA accounts, reconciling accounting reports and invoices, and monitoring all spending. The Team develops, defends and executes the assigned funds for rent, repair and alterations, facilities activities, telecommunication, information technology, personnel services and training. The Team also controls ODASA's credit card for small purchases.
The Acquisition Team provides expert advice and counsel to ACF officials on acquisition issues, develops guidance and procedures, and ensures compliance with applicable regulations, rules, and policies. The Team serves as the liaison with the contracting offices, and provides analysis, evaluation, consultation, and advice to management on acquisition strategies. The Team leads the ACF implementation on cost effective strategies and in the development of the ACF annual acquisition plan. The Team works with ACF offices to strategically plan short-term and long-term objectives, and leads the agency workgroup on acquisition activities. The Team works with the ACF Training Officer and the Acquisition Career Manager to coordinate and communicate certification training for ACF's Contracting Officer's Representatives.
V. Under Chapter KP, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, KP.20 Functions, paragraph D, delete in its entirety and replace with the following:
D. The Office of Workforce Planning and Development (OWPD) advises the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration on human resource management, and organizational and employee development activities for ACF. OWPD provides leadership, direction and oversight for human resource management services provided to ACF. OWPD, in collaboration and coordination with the Washington Human Resource Services Center, provides advice and assistance to ACF managers in their personnel management activities, including recruitment, selection, position management, performance management, designated performance and incentive awards and employee assistance programs and other services to ACF employees. OWPD provides management, direction and oversight of the following personnel administrative services: The exercise of appointing authority, position classification, awards authorization, performance management evaluation, personnel action processing and record keeping, merit promotion, special hiring, and placement programs. OWPD serves as liaison between ACF, the Department, and the Office of Personnel Management. It provides technical advice and assistance on personnel policy, regulations, and laws. OWPD formulates and interprets policies pertaining to existing personnel administration and management matters and formulates and interprets new human resource programs and strategies. The Office, in collaboration and coordination with the Washington Human Resource Services Center provides oversight and management advisory services on all ACF employee relations issues. The Office plans and coordinates ACF employee relations and labor relations activities, including the application and interpretation of the Federal Labor Management Relations Program collective bargaining agreements, disciplinary and adverse action regulations and appeals. The Office participates in the formulation and implementation of policies, practices and matters affecting bargaining unit employees' working conditions by assuring management's compliance with the Federal Labor Relations Program (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71). The Office maintains oversight, leadership and direction of the labor-management and employee relations services provided under contract with the Washington Human Resource Services Center.
OWPD is responsible for formulation, planning, analysis and development of ACF human resource policies and programs, workforce planning, and liaison functions to the Department on ACF payroll matters. The Office formulates and oversees the implementation of ACF-wide policies, regulations and procedures concerning all aspects of the Senior Executive Service (SES), and SES-equivalent recruitment, staffing, position establishment, compensation, award, performance management and related personnel areas. The Office manages the ACF SES performance recognition systems and provides services for
The Office of Workforce Planning and Development is responsible for planning, managing, and directing ACF's facility, safety, security, and emergency management programs. OWPD provides leadership and direction to the Ethics and Facilities team. OWPD serves as the lead for ACF in coordination and liaison with Departmental, GSA and other federal agencies on implementation of federal facility and security directives. The OWPD serves as lead and coordinator for all tenant matters in ACF headquarter locations. The Office coordinates facility activities for ACF's regional offices. OWPD is responsible for planning and executing ACF's environmental health program, and ensuring that appropriate occupational health and safety plans are in place. The Office is responsible for issuing, managing and controlling badge and cardkey systems to control access to agency space for security purposes. The Office provides, prepares, coordinates, and disseminates information, policy and procedural guidance on administrative and materiel management issues on an agency-wide basis. It directs and/or coordinates management initiatives to improve ACF administrative and materiel management services with the goal of continually improving services while containing costs. OWPD establishes and manages contracts and/or blanket purchase agreements for administrative support and materiel management services, including space design, building alteration and repair, reprographics, moving, labor, property management and inventory, systems furniture acquisitions and assembly, and fleet management. The Office provides management and oversight of ACF mail delivery services and activities, including Federal and contractor postal services nationwide, covering all classes of U.S. Postal Service mail, priority and express mail services, and courier services, etc. The Office plans, manages/operates employee transportation programs, including shuttle service and fleet management; employee and visitor parking. OWPD directs all activities associated with the ACF Master Housing Plan, including coordination and development of the agency long-range space budget; planning, budgeting, identification, solicitation, acceptance and utilization of office and special purpose space, repairs, and alterations; serving as principal liaison with GSA and other Federal agencies, building managers and materiel engineers, architects and commercial representatives, for space acquisitions, negotiation of lease terms, dealing with sensitive issues such as handicapped barriers, and space shortages. It develops and maintains space floor plans and inventories, directory boards, and locator signs. The Office serves as principal liaison with private and/or Federal building managers for all administrative services and materiel management activities. It develops and implements policies and procedures for the ACF Personal Property Management program, including managing the ACF Personal Property Inventory, and other personal property activities.
OWPD manages the agency-wide ethics program. The Office ensures that the agency and ACF employees are in compliance with the Executive Branch Standards of Ethical Conduct, the HHS Supplemental Standards of Ethical Conduct, the criminal conflict of interest statutes, and other ethics related laws and regulations. The agency-wide ethics program includes the public financial disclosure reporting system, confidential financial disclosure reporting system, outside activity prior approval and annual report process, non-federal source cash or in-kind travel reimbursement, procurement integrity enforcement, standards of ethical conduct determinations, conflicts resolution, advisory committees ethics program, advice and counsel, education and training, and enforcement. The Ethics Officer reports to the DASA, through the Director of OWPD, who serves as the ACF Deputy Ethics Counselor.
VI. Under Chapter KP, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, KP.20 Functions, add paragraph J.
J. The mission of the Office of the Chief Information Officer (OCIO) is to obtain, procure or develop cost effective and efficient IT solutions that enable ACF's staff and grantees to successfully fulfill programmatic missions that result in the realization of the ACF vision. The OCIO implements IT strategies, policies and governance frameworks to improve the efficiency and performance of ACF's information technology (IT) systems that support ACF business processes in a manner that balances risk and cost with required outcomes, while ensuring compliance with all federal statutes and regulations. OCIO has ACF-wide responsibility for the direction and development of ACF's IT acquisition strategy, planning analysis and approval, management of IT investments both pre- and post-award, and leadership of key technology initiatives. The OCIO provides oversight and guidance on the use of business
The Office of the Chief Information Officer is responsible for providing centralized information technology (IT) policy, procedures, standards, and guidelines. OCIO's responsibilities include: Strategy, policy and IT governance, including performance measurement and innovation; security, privacy, and risk management, including business continuity, standardization and oversight of business processes, external compliance, and security strategy and management; financial and vendor management and IT acquisition oversight, including acquisition strategies, technological approaches, performance measurement, vendor selection, cost estimating and optimization; service planning and architecture, including quality management and enterprise architecture; program and project management; portfolio management, applications management, development, and maintenance; IT infrastructure and operations; and data services, big data analytics and business intelligence.
The Division of Portfolio Management & Governance provides centralized IT Portfolio management functions to include: IT governance execution services, vendor management services, IT process training services, IT acquisition oversight, portfolio risk management, portfolio performance metrics reporting and analysis, post-award acquisition support, enterprise architecture compliance oversight, 508 Compliance oversight, finance and budget execution services, integration services, and independent verification testing services.
The Division of Policy, Strategy, and Planning is responsible for providing governance and oversight of centralized enterprise wide IT functions across ACF which includes: Strategy, policy and IT governance, IT planning and strategic goal alignment, enterprise architecture definition and oversight, pre-award acquisition support, IT budget definition and oversight, Capital Planning and Investment Control (CPIC) services, and business relationship management and IT investment planning services.
The Division of Cyber Security & Privacy provides overall IT Security Management for all ACF systems including security and privacy risk management, security architecture and engineering support services, security assessments and authorizations, privacy and security incident response services, privacy impact assessments, vulnerability management, security operations functions, security testing, and security and privacy policy and governance.
The Division of Service & Solution Delivery provides overall solution delivery and operations services, including: Project management, application development, quality assurance testing services, infrastructure and operations maintenance services, system/application training services, data processing services and overall customer support service delivery services,
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is evaluating its current thinking regarding the design of studies intended to generate data to support substantial evidence of effectiveness for investigational new animal drugs intended for the prevention of heartworm disease in dogs. We are specifically requesting public input on possible alternative approaches for evaluating such products or information to assist in the potential development of alternative recommended study designs.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the proposed method by August 22, 2018.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before August 22, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the proposed method to the Policy and Regulations Staff (HFV-6), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. Persons with access to the internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
Steven Fleischer, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-110), Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-0809,
FDA is evaluating its current thinking regarding the design of studies intended to generate data to support substantial evidence of effectiveness for investigational new animal drugs intended for the prevention of heartworm disease in dogs.
An application for a new animal drug shall include “evidence to establish safety and effectiveness” (21 CFR 514.1(b)(8)). Additionally, “an application may be refused unless it includes substantial evidence of the effectiveness of the new animal drug as defined in 514.4 [21 CFR 514.4]” (21 CFR 514.1(b)(8)(ii)). Regarding studies, under 21 CFR 514.4(b)(3)(i) substantial evidence of the effectiveness of a new animal drug for each intended use and associated conditions of use shall consist of a sufficient number of current adequate and well-controlled studies of sufficient quality and persuasiveness to permit qualified experts:
• To determine that the parameters selected for measurement and the measured responses reliably reflect the effectiveness of the new animal drug;
• To determine that the results obtained are likely to be repeatable, and that valid inferences can be drawn to the target animal population [(independent substantiation and inferential value)]; and
• To conclude that the new animal drug is effective for the intended use at the dose or dose range and associated conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling.
The current recommended approach to demonstrating substantial evidence of effectiveness of an investigational new animal drug intended for the prevention of heartworm disease is for sponsors to conduct two laboratory dose confirmation studies and one multi-site field safety and effectiveness study under the principles of Good Clinical Practice (GCP) as described in Guidance for Industry #85, “Good Clinical Practice (VICH GL9).”
Both study types have strengths and limitations. Strengths of the laboratory studies includes the use of a negative control group, which provides direct evidence of the effect of the new animal drug and that results are not due to the impact of other treatments or external influences on disease transmission and progression. In addition, laboratory studies allow for appropriate classification of exposure due to contemporaneous experimental infection of the same number of infectious
The strength of the field study is that the study evaluates the investigational new animal drug under actual conditions of use and with the current
In recognition of the limitations of the current recommended laboratory and field effectiveness studies for heartworm preventatives for use in dogs, we are interested in evaluating alternative approaches to these study designs that would mitigate the limitations of such studies while ensuring that the studies generate data to support substantial evidence of effectiveness as defined in 21 CFR 514.4.
Currently, there are gaps in knowledge and understanding that prevent us from fully evaluating alternative approaches to meeting the substantial evidence of effectiveness standard. To address these gaps, we are seeking public comment regarding the following questions:
1. Assuming that a product was administered according to labeled directions, what would be an acceptable rate of failure of an approved heartworm preventative in the overall United States canine population to which it is administered?
2. What would be the maximum acceptable rate of failure in a high-risk population?
3. Alternatively, if you do not have a numerical estimate, what recommendations do you have for determining what an acceptable rate of failure should be?
4. Can available tests be used to determine an individual dog's exposure to infective larvae? What are the sensitivity and specificity of those tests in this application? How would the level of sensitivity and specificity of these tests impact the reliable assessment of rate of failure in the population?
5. Does the use of a heartworm preventative, even if only partially effective, have an impact on the results of these tests?
6. Could methods that consider a wider area (as opposed to an individual animal) such as mosquito testing, forecasting, or modeling be reliably used to determine the likely exposure to infective larvae of dogs at a specific study site? What information would be needed to create the methods or to verify the validity of the methods? What are the limitations to such an approach?
7. What are the most reliable ways of properly classifying the outcome in a non-terminal study?
8. Are there critical pieces of information supporting substantial evidence of effectiveness that can only be gained from a well-controlled laboratory study? Are there elements that could be added to a field study that would partially address those data gaps?
9. Are there laboratory study designs other than the traditional dose confirmation study that provide additional information or include a model that is more representative of real world exposure? For example, the use of live mosquitoes to induce infection rather than the mechanical injection of larvae.
10. How might differences in the route of administration, dosing frequency, or pharmacokinetic factors impact effectiveness? How might studies be designed to incorporate these factors? For example, a drug that demonstrates an early peak, with minimal to no drug levels in the dog for the remainder of the dosing interval versus a product with continuous drug levels in the dog for the entire dosing interval?
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by July 23, 2018.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before July 23, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
The information collection supports FDA regulations. As amended by the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) (Pub. L. 111-353), the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) enables the Agency to better protect the public health by helping to ensure the safety and security of the food supply. It enables FDA to focus
We estimate our burden of the information collection as follows:
These figures are based on our regulatory impact analysis in support of the final rule on Preventive Controls for Food for Animals, which published in the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by June 25, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
This information collection supports FDA regulations codified at part 203 (21 CFR part 203) implementing the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 (PDMA). The PDMA was intended to ensure safe and effective drug products and to avoid an unacceptable risk that counterfeit, adulterated, misbranded, subpotent, or expired drugs are sold to consumers. The reporting and recordkeeping requirements found in the regulations are intended to help achieve the following goals: (1) To ban the reimportation of prescription drugs produced in the United States, except when reimported by the manufacturer or under FDA authorization for emergency medical care; (2) to ban the sale, purchase, or trade, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade, of any prescription drug sample; (3) to limit the distribution of drug samples to practitioners licensed or authorized to prescribe such drugs or to pharmacies of hospitals or other healthcare entities at the request of a licensed or authorized practitioner; (4) to require licensed or authorized practitioners to request prescription drug samples in writing; (5) to mandate storage, handling, and recordkeeping requirements for prescription drug samples; (6) to prohibit, with certain exceptions, the sale, purchase, or trade, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade, of prescription drugs that were purchased by hospitals or other healthcare entities or that were donated or supplied at a reduced price to a charitable organization; and (7) to require unauthorized wholesale distributors to provide, prior to the wholesale distribution of a prescription drug to another wholesale distributor or retail pharmacy, a statement identifying each prior sale, purchase, or trade of the drug.
In the
We therefore estimate the burden for the information collection as follows:
Based on a review of Agency data, we retain the currently approved burden estimate for the information collection, as reflected in tables 1 and 2 above.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Anthrax: Developing Drugs for Prophylaxis of Inhalational Anthrax.” The purpose of this guidance is to assist sponsors in the development of new drugs for the prophylaxis of inhalational anthrax. This guidance finalizes the draft guidance of the same name issued on February 16, 2016.
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Joseph G. Toerner, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 6244, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-1400.
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Anthrax: Developing Drugs for Prophylaxis of Inhalational Anthrax.” The purpose of this guidance is to assist sponsors in the development of new drugs to be administered to people who have or may have inhaled
This guidance finalizes the draft guidance of the same name issued on February 16, 2016 (81 FR 7813). Changes made to the guidance took into consideration written and verbal comments received. In addition to changes primarily for clarification, the major changes are as follows: Clarity in defining specific populations that would receive a drug for prophylaxis of inhalational anthrax, for example, first responders who anticipate exposure to
Issuance of this guidance fulfills a portion of the requirements of Title VIII, section 804, of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (Pub. L. 112-144), which requires FDA to review and, as appropriate, revise not fewer than three guidance documents per year for the conduct of clinical trials with respect to antibacterial and antifungal drugs.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on prophylaxis of inhalational anthrax. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR parts 312 and 314 have been approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0014 and 0910-0001, respectively.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee and the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee. The general function of the committees is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. At least one portion of the meeting will be closed to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on June 26, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
DoubleTree by Hilton Hotel Bethesda—Washington DC, Grand Ballroom, 8120 Wisconsin Ave., Bethesda, MD 20814-3624. The conference center's telephone number is 301-652-2000. Answers to commonly asked questions about FDA Advisory Committee meetings including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-1797. The docket will close on June 25, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by June 25, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before June 25, 2018. The
Comments received on or before June 12, 2018, will be provided to the committees. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Yinghua Wang, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Yinghua Wang (see
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting of the NHLBI Heart, Lung, and Blood Program Project Review Committee.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0094, Ships Carrying Bulk Hazardous Liquids, without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before July 23, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2018-0281] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at
Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2018-0281], and must be received by July 23, 2018.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0045, Adequacy Certification for Reception Facilities and Advance
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before July 23, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2018-0280] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at
Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2018-0280], and must be received by July 23, 2018.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of AmSpec LLC (Penuelas, PR), as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that AmSpec LLC (Penuelas, PR), has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of January 31, 2018.
AmSpec LLC (Penuelas, PR) was approved and accredited as a commercial gauger and laboratory as of January 31, 2018. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for January 2021.
Christopher J. Mocella, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec LLC, Road 127, Km 15.6, Penuelas, PR 00624,
AmSpec LLC is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of AmSpec LLC (Freeport, TX), as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that AmSpec LLC (Freeport, TX), has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of March 7, 2018.
AmSpec LLC (Freeport, TX) was approved and accredited as a commercial gauger and laboratory as of March 7, 2018. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for March 2021.
Christopher J. Mocella, Laboratories and Scientific Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec LLC, 2004 Victoria Ln., Freeport, TX 77541, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. AmSpec LLC (Freeport, TX) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
AmSpec LLC (Freeport, TX) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of final determination.
This document provides notice that U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) has issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of a vehicle digital video camera known as the FleetCam
The final determination was issued on May 18, 2018. A copy of the final determination is attached. Any party-at-interest, as defined in 19 CFR 177.22(d), may seek judicial review of this final determination within June 25, 2018.
Robert Dinerstein, Valuation and Special Programs Branch, Regulations and Rulings, Office of Trade (202-325-0132).
Notice is hereby given that on May 18, 2018, pursuant to subpart B of Part 177, Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Regulations (19 CFR part 177, subpart B), CBP issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of the FleetCam
Section 177.29, CBP Regulations (19 CFR 177.29), provides that a notice of final determination shall be published in the
This is in response to your eruling request of January 27, 2018, for a final determination on behalf of Forward Thinking Systems LLC, (the Company), concerning the country of origin of a FleetCam vehicle camera pursuant to subpart B of Part 177, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) Regulations (19 CFR § 177.21
The product at issue is referred to as a FleetCam, which is a high-resolution digital video camera installed in a vehicle for streaming and recording images in real time. The FleetCam allows companies who purchase the product to watch the drivers that they employee in real-time, as well as view recorded speeding and other behavior moments. The FleetCam is also able to capture, record, and transmit images of a driver's view of the road ahead. The FleetCam is comprised of a physical digital video camera or several cameras setup together. The product also contains related cabling and a receiver that is compatible for use specifically with the Company's software and mobile applications. To use the FleetCam product, a user must purchase the hardware and a subscription to the software from the Company.
The FleetCam's physical digital video camera is made in China and sourced by the Company from a Chinese firm. The firmware that is loaded onto the camera to allow it to be operational with the Company's software was also developed by the Chinese firm; however, you state that the firmware was developed based upon the design, specifications, and software architecture produced by the Company's staff located in the United States. The firmware developed for the FleetCam is designed specifically for use with the Company's fleet management software. The digital camera hardware (together with the firmware) is purchased by the Company from a Chinese producer.
The firmware is not loaded onto the camera hardware until it is received by the Company in the United States. Upon receipt of the camera and the firmware code, the Company's engineers load and install the firmware on the camera hardware at the Company's offices in the United States. An additional hardware component of the
The basic software component of the FleetCam product is produced in the United States. In addition, other than the firmware development for the camera hardware, all of the FleetCam software (including without limitation, software applications and mobile applications) are designed, developed, and integrated with the Company's cloud service in the United States. In order for the FleetCam to be functional and operational, the hardware and the related firmware is installed with the cabling and integrated with the FleetCam software platform. This compilation process occurs entirely in the United States.
The Company sells the FleetCam software as a software-as-a service subscription, whereby the Company's customers enter into a separate subscription for use of the FleetCam software. After purchase of the FleetCam hardware, the Company's customers pay a separate monthly fee for using its proprietary software. The FleetCam hardware and software must be purchased together as part of the same package. Without the FleetCam software, it is stated that the camera and the related components are not operational. If a customer cancels its software subscription, the FleetCam product will no longer be functional.
Whether the imported components including the digital video camera and cabling for the FleetCam are substantially transformed through the downloading of the Company's proprietary software in the United States so as to make the FleetCam a product of the United States.
CBP issues country of origin advisory rulings and final determinations as to whether an article is or would be a product of a designated country or instrumentality for the purposes of granting waivers of certain “Buy American” restrictions in U.S. law or practice for products offered for sale to the U.S. Government, pursuant to subpart B of Part 177, 19 C.F.R. § 177.21
In rendering final determinations for purposes of U.S. Government procurement, CBP applies the provisions of subpart B of Part 177 consistent with the Federal Procurement Regulations. See 19 C.F.R. § 177.21. In this regard, CBP recognizes that the Federal Acquisition Regulations restrict the U.S. Government's purchase of products to U.S.-made or designated country end products for acquisitions subject to the Trade Agreements Act. See 48 C.F.R. § 25.403(c)(1). The Federal Acquisition Regulations define “U.S.-made end product” as “an article that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States or that is substantially transformed in the United States into a new and different article of commerce with name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed.” See 48 C.F.R § 25.003.
In
“The term `character' is defined as `one of the essentials of structure, form, materials, or function that together make up and usually distinguish the individual.' ”
HQ H258960, dated May 19, 2016, reviewed the country of origin of hardware components of certain transceivers in two scenarios that are instructive to the case at issue here. The hardware components of the transceivers were wholly manufactured in a foreign country and imported into the United States. In the first scenario, the transceivers were “blanks” and completely non-functional and specialized proprietary software was developed and downloaded in the United States, making the transceivers functional and compatible with the OEM technology. In the second scenario, the transceivers were preprogrammed with a generic program that was replaced with specialized proprietary software. It was argued that in both scenarios, the imported hardware was substantially transformed by the development, configuration, and downloading operations of the U.S. origin software. In the first scenario, we found that the non-functional transceivers were substantially transformed as a result of downloading performed in the United States, with proprietary software developed in the United States. However, in the second scenario, it was determined that since the transceivers had generic network functionality, programming them merely to customize their network compatibility would not actually change the identity of the imported transceivers.
A similar finding was made in HQ H284523, dated August 23, 2017, where imported tablet computers were preprogrammed with a generic program when they were first imported. The tablets could perform all of the standard functions of an android tablet in their imported condition. After importation, the imported tablets were customized for a particular use as part of a system to collect and transmit a patient's medical data by the installation of proprietary software. The original tablet had the ability to perform all of previous functions, but it was determined that for ease of use and for other reasons it was best to disable these functions and to consolidate them in one function via the specialized software. It was stated that the general functionality of the tablet was removed and replaced so that it was easier for patients to use the device and access the system. It was also stated that the security of the patient's medical data would be better protected. In HQ H284523, we noted that it was clear that merely loading the specialized software onto the tablet computer that remained fully functional as a computer would be insufficient to constitute a new and different article of commerce, since all of the functionality of the original computer would be retained.
In this case, the Company's proprietary software is being installed onto a digital video camera so that the camera can provide live-streaming of a driver and his view of the road from multiple vantage points. In addition, after the software is installed onto the FleetCam, it is able to capture, record, and store footage of particular incidents that may have occurred. While the particular proprietary software is written and downloaded in the United States, we note that the firmware being used to operate the FleetCam, although designed in the United States, was not written in the United States, but in China. Therefore, similar to HQ H284523, where the tablet could function, in this case, because the digital camera contains SD cards, it can fully function as a digital
Based on the information presented in this case, the imported digital video cameras are not substantially transformed by the processing performed in the United States. Therefore, the country of origin of the FleetCams is the country where the digital video cameras and the firmware were originally produced, which in this case is China.
Notice of this final determination will be given in the
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of official filing.
The plats of survey of lands described in this notice are scheduled to be officially filed in the Bureau of Land Management (BLM), Alaska State Office, Anchorage, Alaska. The surveys, which were executed at the request of the U.S. Coast Guard, the Bureau of Indian Affairs and BLM, are necessary for the management of these lands.
Protests must be received by the BLM by June 25, 2018.
A copy of the plats may be obtained from the Alaska Public Information Center at the BLM Alaska State Office, 222 W. 7th Avenue, Anchorage, Alaska 99513, upon required payment. The plats may be viewed at this location at no cost. Please use this address when filing written protests.
Douglas N. Haywood, Chief, Branch of Cadastral Survey, Bureau of Land Management, Alaska State Office, 222 W. 7th Avenue, Anchorage, Alaska 99513; 1-907-271-5481;
The lands surveyed are:
A person or party who wishes to protest one or more plats of survey identified above must file a written notice of protest with the State Director for Alaska, BLM. The notice of protest must identify the plat(s) of survey that the person or party wishes to protest. The notice of protest must be filed before the scheduled date of official filing for the plat(s) of survey being protested. Any notice of protest filed after the scheduled date of official filing will not be considered. A notice of protest is considered filed on the date it is received by the State Director for Alaska during regular business hours; if received after regular business hours, a notice of protest will be considered filed the next business day. A written statement of reasons in support of a protest, if not filed with the notice of protest, must be filed with the State Director for Alaska within 30 calendar days after the notice of protest is filed. If a notice of protest against a plat of survey is received prior to the scheduled date of official filing, the official filing of the plat of survey identified in the notice of protest will be stayed pending consideration of the protest. A plat of survey will not be officially filed until the dismissal or resolution of all protests of the plat.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in a notice of protest or statement of reasons, you should be aware that the documents you submit, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available in their entirety at any time. While you can ask us to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
43 U.S.C. Chap. 3.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before May 5, 2018, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by June 8, 2018.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW, MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:
A request for removal has been made for the following resource(s):
Nomination(s) submitted by Federal Preservation Officers:
The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nomination and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nomination and supports listing the property in the National Register of Historic Places.
The following nominations are not located in state waters and therefore not subject to review by the State Historic Preservation Officer:
Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE) proposes to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 23, 2018.
Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by either of the following methods listed below:
• Electronically go to
• Email
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Kelly Odom by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comments addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of BSEE; (2) Will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) Is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) How might BSEE enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) How might BSEE minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time.
In general, BSEE uses the information collected under subpart C to ensure that:
• The lessee or operator records the location of items lost overboard to aid in recovery during site clearance activities on the lease;
• Operations are conducted according to all applicable regulations, requirements, and in a safe and workmanlike manner;
• Discharge or disposal of drill cuttings, sand, and other well solids, including those containing naturally occurring radioactive materials (NORM), are properly handled for the protection of OCS workers and the environment; and
• Facilities are inspected daily for the prevention of pollution, and problems observed are corrected.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined not to review the presiding administrative law judge's (“ALJ”) initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 12), which granted a motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation.
Sidney A. Rosenzweig, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 708-2532. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at
The Commission instituted this investigation on October 30, 2017, based on a complaint filed by Metglas, Inc. of Conway, South Carolina and Hitachi Metals, Ltd. of Tokyo, Japan. 82 FR 50156 (Oct. 30, 2017). The complaint alleged violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337 by reason of misappropriation of trade secrets.
On April 10, 2018, the complainants moved for leave to amend the complaint and notice of investigation for two reasons. First, the complainants sought to add as a respondent AT&M-NARI Amorphous Technology Co., Ltd. (“AT&M-NARI”) of Zhouzhou, China. Second, the complainants sought to make corrections to the names of two existing respondents: Advanced Technology & Materials Beijing ZLJG Amorphous Technology Co., Ltd. should be corrected to Beijing ZJLG Amorphous Technology Co., Ltd.; and Qingdao Yunlu Energy Technology Co., Ltd. should be corrected to Qingdao Yunlu Advanced Materials Technology Co., Ltd. The respondents did not oppose the motion and on April 17, 2018, the Commission investigative attorney responded in support of the motion.
On April 18, 2018, the ALJ granted the motion as the subject ID. The ID finds that good cause exists for amending the complaint and notice of investigation because the complainants were unaware of AT&M-NARI, and only learned of AT&M-NARI's involvement when existing respondent AT&M identified it in interrogatory responses. ID at 1-2;
No petitions for review of the ID were filed. The Commission has determined not to review the ID.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office of the Chief Information Officer, is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until June 25, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Jenna Dee, Project Manager, Justice Management Division, Office of the Chief Information Officer, 145 N Street NE, Room 3W 1405A, Washington, DC 20002 (Phone 202-598-0345). Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL or Department) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored Information Collection Request (ICR) revision, titled, “Labor Condition Application for H-1B, H-1B1, and E-3 Nonimmigrants,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995. Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before June 25, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden, may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064 (these are not toll-free numbers); or by sending an email to:
This ICR seeks approval under the PRA for revisions to the Labor Condition Application for H-1B, H-1B1, and E-3 Nonimmigrants information collection. More specifically, the Department is proposing changes to Form ETA-9035,
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
This ICR may be summarized as follows:
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Postal Service®.
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on May 21, 2018, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA is proposing to amend FINRA Rule 6710 to modify the definition of “Agency Debt Security.”
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's website at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
FINRA requires members to report to the Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (“TRACE”) transactions in Agency Debt Securities,
FINRA believes that the new issuance structure for CRTs will not materially change the characteristics of the CRTs to warrant altered treatment for purposes of TRACE categorization and dissemination. While a trust will be issuing the CRTs, FINRA understands that Fannie and Freddie will retain a material net economic interest
FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. FINRA has requested that the SEC waive the requirement that the proposed rule
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. FINRA does not anticipate that the proposed rule change will lead to any material costs or benefits to members, as it does not affect the TRACE reporting requirements that are applicable today. The proposed rule change would simply allow FINRA to continue classifying the CRTs as Agency Debt Securities for data categorization and dissemination purposes.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
FINRA has asked the Commission to waive the 30-day operative delay so that the proposal may become operative immediately upon filing. FINRA has stated that, based on conversations with Fannie and Freddie, it understands that the first CRTs will be issued under the new structure imminently. The Commission believes that waiver of the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. Such action should help avoid confusion among consumers of TRACE data products; if the proposal were not immediately operative, debt securities issued by GSE-sponsored trusts that retain economic characteristics of Agency Debt Securities would instead be treated as corporate debt securities, contrary to established expectations. In addition, the Commission's action will preserve the same degree of post-trade transparency for debt securities issued by GSE-sponsored trusts, as such securities will continue utilizing the $5 million dissemination cap and avoid the $1 million cap that would apply if securities newly issued by GSE-sponsored trusts were characterized as corporate debt securities. Accordingly, the Commission hereby waives the operative delay and designates the proposed rule change operative upon filing.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Office of the Assistant Legal Adviser for Private International Law, Department of State, hereby gives notice the Advisory Committee on Private International Law (ACPIL) will hold a public meeting via teleconference to discuss several matters relating to MSMEs. This is not a meeting of the full Advisory Committee.
The UNCITRAL Commission Session, which will be held June 25 through July 13, will, among other things, finalize and adopt a Legislative Guide on Key Principles of a Business Registry (A/CN.9/940) and an instrument on Reducing the Legal Obstacles Faced by MSMEs (A/CN.9/941). Additionally, the Commission will consider a proposal by the Government of Italy on possible future work by UNCITRAL on alternative forms of organization to corporate like models (contractual networks) (A/CN.9/954). The Commission documents will be available at
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt seven individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were applicable on April 26, 2018. The exemptions expire on April 26, 2020.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On March 22, 2018, FMCSA published a notice announcing receipt of applications from seven individuals requesting an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) and requested comments from the public (83 FR 12641). The public comment period ended on April 23, 2018, and one comment was received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that granting exemptions to these individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
FMCSA received one comment in this proceeding. This comment supported granting exemptions to these applicants.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA may grant an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows the applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
In reaching the decision to grant these exemption requests, FMCSA considered
The Agency's decision regarding these exemption applications is based on an individualized assessment of each applicant's medical information, including the root cause of the respective seizure(s) and medical information about the applicant's seizure history, the length of time that has elapsed since the individual's last seizure, the stability of each individual's treatment regimen and the duration of time on or off of anti-seizure medication. In addition, the Agency reviewed the treating clinician's medical opinion related to the ability of the driver to safely operate a CMV with a history of seizure and each applicant's driving record found in the Commercial Driver's License Information System (CDLIS) for commercial driver's license (CDL) holders, and interstate and intrastate inspections recorded in the Motor Carrier Management Information System (MCMIS). For non-CDL holders, the Agency reviewed the driving records from the State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). A summary of each applicant's seizure history was discussed in the March 22, 2018
These seven applicants have been seizure-free over a range of 29 years while taking anti-seizure medication and maintained a stable medication treatment regimen for the last two years. In each case, the applicant's treating physician verified his or her seizure history and supports the ability to drive commercially.
The Agency acknowledges the potential consequences of a driver experiencing a seizure while operating a CMV. However, the Agency believes the drivers granted this exemption have demonstrated that they are unlikely to have a seizure and their medical condition does not pose a risk to public safety.
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
The terms and conditions of the exemption are provided to the applicants in the exemption document and includes the following: (1) Each driver must remain seizure-free and maintain a stable treatment during the two-year exemption period; (2) each driver must submit annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) each driver must undergo an annual medical examination by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5; and (4) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy of his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the seven exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition, 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), subject to the requirements cited above:
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 119 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. The exemptions enable these individuals to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce without meeting the vision requirements in one eye.
Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates stated in the discussions below. Comments must be received on or before June 25, 2018.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-1999-6480; FMCSA-2001-11426; FMCSA-2002-11714; FMCSA-2002-12844; FMCSA-2003-15268; FMCSA-2003-16564; FMCSA-2004-19477; FMCSA-2006-23773; FMCSA-2006-24015; FMCSA-2007-0071; FMCSA-2007-27897; FMCSA-2008-0021; FMCSA-2009-0011; FMCSA-2009-0291; FMCSA-2009-0321; FMCSA-2010-0050; FMCSA-2011-0140; FMCSA-2011-0365; FMCSA-2011-0366; FMCSA-2011-0379; FMCSA-2011-0380; FMCSA-2012-0039; FMCSA-2013-0027; FMCSA-2013-0030; FMCSA-2013-0165; FMCSA-2013-0166; FMCSA-2013-0167;
•
•
•
•
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, 202-366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for five years if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the five-year period. FMCSA grants exemptions from the FMCSRs for a two-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding vision found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) states that a person is physically qualified to driver a CMV if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber.
The 119 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the vision standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period.
Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 119 applicants has satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement (64 FR 68195; 65 FR 20251; 67 FR 10471; 67 FR 15662; 67 FR 17102; 67 FR 19798; 67 FR 37907; 67 FR 68719; 68 FR 2629; 68 FR 37197; 68 FR 48989; 68 FR 74699; 69 FR 10503; 69 FR 17267; 69 FR 19611; 69 FR 26206; 69 FR 64806; 69 FR 71100; 70 FR 2705; 70 FR 42615; 71 FR 6826; 71 FR 6829; 71 FR 14566; 71 FR 16410; 71 FR 19602; 71 FR 19604; 71 FR 26602; 71 FR 30227; 72 FR 1053; 72 FR 1054; 72 FR 39879; 72 FR 40360; 72 FR 52419; 73 FR 6242; 73 FR 11989; 73 FR 15567; 73 FR 16950; 73 FR 27014; 73 FR 27015; 73 FR 27017; 73 FR 76440; 74 FR 26464; 74 FR 34632; 74 FR 41971; 74 FR 49069; 74 FR 64124; 74 FR 65842; 75 FR 1835; 75 FR 9477; 75 FR 9480; 75 FR 9482; 75 FR 13653; 75 FR 14656; 75 FR 19674; 75 FR 22176; 75 FR 27621; 75 FR 27622; 75 FR 28684; 76 FR 37169; 76 FR 50318; 76 FR 54530; 76 FR 62143; 76 FR 70212; 76 FR 78729; 77 FR 3552; 77 FR 5874; 77 FR 7233; 77 FR 10604; 77 FR 13689; 77 FR 13691; 77 FR 15184; 77 FR 17107; 77 FR 17108; 77 FR 17117; 77 FR 20879; 77 FR 23797; 77 FR 23800; 77 FR 26816; 77 FR 27849; 77 FR 27850; 77 FR 31427; 78 FR 24798; 78 FR 41975; 78 FR 46407; 78 FR 47818; 78 FR 56986; 78 FR 62935; 78 FR 63302; 78 FR 63307; 78 FR 64271; 78 FR 64274; 78 FR 67454; 78 FR 67460; 78 FR 76395; 78 FR 77778; 78 FR 77780; 78 FR 77782; 78 FR 78477; 79 FR 1908; 79 FR 2247; 79 FR 2748; 79 FR 4803; 79 FR 10602; 79 FR 10607; 79 FR 10609; 79 FR 10611; 79 FR 13085; 79 FR 14331; 79 FR 14333; 79 FR 14571; 79 FR 17641; 79 FR 17642; 79 FR 17643; 79 FR 18391; 79 FR 18392; 79 FR 21996; 79 FR 22000; 79 FR 22003; 79 FR 23797; 79 FR 28588; 79 FR 29498; 80 FR 31636; 80 FR 40122; 80 FR 48413; 80 FR 59230; 80 FR 62163; 80 FR 63839; 80 FR 67476; 80 FR 67481; 80 FR 70060; 80 FR 79414; 80 FR 80443; 81 FR 1284; 81 FR 1474; 81 FR 15401; 81 FR 15404; 81 FR 16265; 81 FR 17237; 81 FR 20433; 81 FR 20435; 81 FR 21647; 81 FR 21655; 81 FR 44680; 81 FR 48493; 81 FR 52516; 81 FR 66718; 81 FR 91239; 81 FR 96196). They have submitted evidence showing that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement specified at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and that the vision impairment is stable. In addition, a review of each record of safety while driving with the respective vision deficiencies over the past two years indicates each applicant continues to
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following groups of drivers received renewed exemptions in the month of May and are discussed below:
As of May 7, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 46 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (68 FR 37197; 68 FR 48989; 69 FR 64806; 70 FR 2705; 70 FR 42615; 71 FR 6826; 71 FR 19602; 72 FR 1054; 72 FR 39879; 72 FR 40360; 72 FR 52419; 73 FR 6242; 73 FR 11989; 73 FR 16950; 74 FR 26464; 74 FR 34632; 74 FR 41971; 74 FR 49069; 74 FR 64124; 74 FR 65842; 75 FR 1835; 75 FR 9477; 75 FR 9480; 75 FR 9482; 75 FR 13653; 75 FR 22176; 76 FR 37169; 76 FR 50318; 76 FR 54530; 76 FR 62143; 76 FR 70212; 76 FR 78729; 77 FR 3552; 77 FR 5874; 77 FR 7233; 77 FR 10604; 77 FR 13689; 77 FR 13691; 77 FR 17107; 77 FR 17108; 77 FR 17117; 78 FR 24798; 78 FR 41975; 78 FR 46407; 78 FR 47818; 78 FR 56986; 78 FR 62935; 78 FR 63302; 78 FR 63307; 78 FR 64271; 78 FR 64274; 78 FR 67454; 78 FR 67460; 78 FR 76395; 78 FR 77778; 78 FR 77780; 78 FR 77782; 78 FR 78477; 79 FR 1908; 79 FR 2247; 79 FR 2748; 79 FR 4803; 79 FR 10602; 79 FR 10607; 79 FR 10609; 79 FR 10611; 79 FR 13085; 79 FR 14331; 79 FR 14333; 79 FR 17641; 79 FR 17642; 79 FR 17643; 79 FR 18391; 79 FR 22003; 80 FR 31636; 80 FR 40122; 80 FR 48413; 80 FR 59230; 80 FR 62163; 80 FR 63839; 80 FR 67476; 80 FR 67481; 80 FR 70060; 80 FR 79414; 80 FR 80443; 81 FR 1284; 81 FR 1474; 81 FR 15401; 81 FR 15404; 81 FR 16265; 81 FR 17237; 81 FR 20433; 81 FR 20435; 81 FR 44680; 81 FR 48493; 81 FR 52516; 81 FR 91239):
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2003-15268; FMCSA-2004-19477; FMCSA-2006-23773; FMCSA-2007-0071; FMCSA-2007-27897; FMCSA-2009-0011; FMCSA-2009-0291; FMCSA-2009-0321; FMCSA-2011-0140; FMCSA-2011-0365; FMCSA-2011-0366; FMCSA-2013-0027; FMCSA-2013-0030; FMCSA-2013-0165; FMCSA-2013-0166; FMCSA-2013-0167; FMCSA-2013-0168; FMCSA-2013-0169; FMCSA-2013-0170; FMCSA-2013-0174; FMCSA-2014-0002; FMCSA-2015-0049; FMCSA-2015-0053; FMCSA-2015-0056; FMCSA-2015-0070; FMCSA-2015-0072; FMCSA-2015-0345; FMCSA-2015-0347; FMCSA-2015-0351. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 7, 2018, and will expire on May 7, 2020.
As of May 11, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following six individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (77 FR 15184; 77 FR 27850; 79 FR 21996; 81 FR 91239):
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2011-0379; FMCSA-2011-0380. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 11, 2018, and will expire on May 11, 2020.
As of May 12, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following seven individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (67 FR 68719; 68 FR 2629; 68 FR 74699; 69 FR 10503; 69 FR 71100; 71 FR 6826; 71 FR 6829; 71 FR 19602; 72 FR 1053; 73 FR 11989; 73 FR 15567; 73 FR 27015; 73 FR 76440; 75 FR 13653; 75 FR 19674; 77 FR 23797; 79 FR 23797; 81 FR 91239):
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2002-12844; FMCSA-2003-16564; FMCSA-2006-23773; FMCSA-2008-0021. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 12, 2018, and will expire on May 12, 2020.
As of May 13, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 11 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (81 FR 21647; 81 FR 21655; 81 FR 66718):
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2016-0024; FMCSA-2016-0025. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 13, 2018, and will expire on May 13, 2020.
As of May 16, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 23 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (79 FR 14571; 79 FR 28588; 81 FR 91239; 81 FR 96196):
The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2014-0003. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 16, 2018, and will expire on May 16, 2020.
As of May 21, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following three individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (75 FR 9480; 75 FR 14656; 75 FR 22176; 75 FR 28684; 77 FR 23800; 79 FR 22000; 81 FR 91239): Herbert C. Hirsch, (MO); Douglas L. Norman, (NC); Wayne J. Savage, (VA).
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2009-0011; FMCSA-2010-0050. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 21, 2018, and will expire on May 21, 2020.
As of May 22, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 13 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (79 FR 18392; 79 FR 29498; 81 FR 91239):
The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2014-0004. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 22, 2018, and will expire on May 22, 2020.
As of May 25, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following seven individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (64 FR 68195; 65 FR 20251; 67 FR 10471; 67 FR 17102; 67 FR 19798; 69 FR 17267; 69 FR 19611; 71 FR 14566; 71 FR 16410; 71 FR 19604; 71 FR 30227; 73 FR 27014; 75 FR 27622; 77 FR 20879; 77 FR 26816; 77 FR 31427; 81 FR 91239):
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-1999-6480; FMCSA-2001-11426; FMCSA-2006-24015; FMCSA-2012-0039. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 25, 2018, and will expire on May 25, 2020.
As of May 30, 2018, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following three individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (67 FR 15662; 67 FR 37907; 69 FR 26206; 71 FR 26602; 73 FR 27017; 75 FR 27621; 77 FR 27849; 81 FR 91239): Joe W. Brewer, (SC); James W. Ellis, 4th, (NC); Kevin R. Stoner, (PA).
The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2002-11714. Their exemptions are applicable as of May 30, 2018, and will expire on May 30, 2020.
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) Each driver must undergo an annual physical examination (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5, who attests that the driver is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) each driver must provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the Medical Examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file or keep a copy of his/her driver's qualification if he/her is self- employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the 119 exemption applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the aforementioned drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), subject to the requirements cited above. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval.
FMCSA proposes a voluntary survey to inquire about driver commuting practices to fulfill Section 5515 of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act, 2015 (FAST Act), which requires FMCSA to conduct a study on the safety effects of motor carrier operator commutes exceeding 150 minutes. The FMCSA Administrator is then required to submit a report to Congress containing the findings of the study. There are no current or future planned regulations associated with this survey,
The survey proposed within this ICR is entirely voluntary, and would gather information on the prevalence of excessive (greater than 150 minutes) commuting of interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers, including the number and percentage of drivers who commute; the distances traveled, time zones crossed, time spent commuting, and methods of transportation used; the impact of excessive commuting on safety and CMV driver fatigue; and the commuting practices of CMV drivers and policies of motor carriers.
Please send your comments by June 25, 2018. OMB must receive your comments by this date in order to act quickly on the ICR.
All comments should reference Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2017-0313. Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the attention of the Desk Officer, Department of Transportation/Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, and sent via electronic mail to
Nicole Michel, Mathematical Statistician, FMCSA's Office of Analysis, Research, and Technology's Research Division, Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 6th Floor, West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001. Telephone: 202-366-4354; Email Address:
On December 4, 2015, the FAST Act was signed into law (Pub. L. 114-94,129 Stat. 1312, 1557 (Dec. 4, 2015)). Section 5515 of the FAST Act directs the FMCSA Administrator to “conduct a study on the safety effects of motor carrier operator commutes exceeding 150 minutes” (subsection (a)). The Act further specifies that a report containing the findings of this study should be submitted to Congress no later than 18 months after the date of enactment of the Act (subsection (b)). FMCSA must complete this information collection to meet the specified congressional requirements set forth in the FAST Act.
Additionally, during the 114th Congress (2015-2016), legislation titled “The Truck Safety Act” was introduced. This legislation, which has not been enacted to date, provided greater context to inform study of this area (S. 1739, 114th Cong. § 7) by proposing the following:
(a) Effects of Excessive Commuting.—The Administrator of the FMCSA shall conduct a study of the effects of excessive commuting on safety and commercial motor vehicle driver fatigue.
(b) Study.—In conducting the study, the Administrator shall consider—
(1) the prevalence of excessive driver commuting in the commercial motor vehicle industry, including the number and percentage of drivers who commute;
(2) the distances traveled, time zones crossed, time spent commuting, and methods of transportation used;
(3) research on the impact of excessive commuting on safety and commercial motor vehicle driver fatigue;
(4) the commuting practices of commercial motor vehicle drivers and policies of motor carriers;
(5) the FMCSA regulations, policies, and guidance regarding excessive driver commuting; and
(6) any other matters the Administrator considers appropriate.
In the past two decades, as the number of workers has increased and the distance to affordable housing has also increased in most metropolitan areas, commuting times have increased in the United States. According to the
Long commuting times can adversely affect CMV drivers in multiple ways, for example:
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•
The objective of the survey proposed in this ICR is to study the following CMV driver characteristics:
• Work history;
• Commuting time, transportation mode, and recording of that time;
• Driving schedules;
• Rests and breaks;
• Miles driven annually; and
• Demographics.
Safety data obtained by the Motor Carrier Information Management System (MCMIS) database will be used to determine whether there are any noticeable safety impacts corresponding to commuting times.
The information collection is a one-time, Web-based collection, including surveys of current and past drivers of freight and passenger vehicles. The survey will be entirely online. There will be no paper survey. The general survey approach and design is as follows:
1. FMCSA will provide a random sample of 12,000 drivers obtained by cross-referencing a random sample of records from the Commercial Driver's License Information System (CDLIS) data with the licensing States' Commercial Driver's License (CDL) driver histories. The samples will be divided into one list for drivers who operate (or previously operated) freight vehicles and a second list for those who drive (or previously drove) passenger-carrying vehicles.
2. The sample of drivers obtained from CDLIS data will also be queried in MCMIS for safety results of these drivers; this data will be used to assess non-response bias and to compare safety records of responding drivers with their survey responses on commuting times. To the extent possible, MCMIS data may be used to try to verify whether drivers with a passenger endorsement on their CDL are, in fact, passenger bus drivers.
3. Using a mail-Web methodology, the driver commute survey will be sent out by the research team, on behalf of FMCSA, to the 12,000 selected drivers identified in step 1. These drivers will be solicited to complete an online survey, using a recruitment letter (with a $2 pre-incentive), a reminder postcard, and a second follow-up letter. The letter will inform the drivers that they will receive a check for $10 upon completion of the survey, which is expected to average 20 minutes to complete. Our initial expectation is that 4.17 percent of the 12,000 (500) will complete the survey on the Web. The burden analysis is based on this figure of 500 responses.
The Agency received 381 comments in response to this notice, of which 18 were supportive of the study, 22 were deemed not relevant to this information collection, 11 were neutral or provided information regarding the proposed topic of driver commuting, 326 were negative toward the study (one of these comments was a duplicate posting and two of the comments were second submissions from one individual), and four were suggestions for the study.
The 18 comments received in support of the information collection request focused on the impacts commuting can have on commercial drivers, and suggested it could be beneficial to look at whether a commute should be included in a driver's hours-of-service and properly accounted for. The majority of these comments came from individuals, as well as the National Transportation Safety Board, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine, and the Owner-Operator Independent Drivers Association. All parties acknowledged that longer commute times can lead to excessive fatigue, particularly for professional drivers.
The 22 comments that were deemed to be not relevant to this information collection addressed the Electronic Logging Device (ELD) mandate or the 14-hour rule in the current Hours-of-Service regulations, but did not mention or comment on driver commuting time or safety impacts. All of these comments were received from individuals.
The 11 comments received that were simply informative in nature, or neutral to the study, were submitted by individuals. The majority of these comments gave insight into these drivers' commute times and how they commute. One commenter noted that the survey was fine as long as it was voluntary and not mandated; as stated earlier in this notice, this will be a voluntary survey and each individual question on the survey will be voluntary. All survey materials will reinforce this information.
The 326 negative comments received were all from individuals (mostly drivers) and not organizations. These comments expressed that the survey is an invasion of privacy and that any attempt to regulate a commute would be equivalent to the Government telling working citizens how far they can live from work, which would be unconstitutional. Additionally, several felt that it was unfairly targeting drivers and if conducted should be expanded to the general public, as they also may have longer commuting times.
While FMCSA appreciates these views, the agency's mission is focused solely on safety of the CMV operations, and it has no authority to regulate non-CMV commuters; therefore, it does not conduct surveys of the general public unrelated to CMV safety. FMCSA is aware that the National Institute of Health is currently working on surveys relating to commuting times for other professions than commercial drivers.
None of these comments were actionable, as FMCSA has no plans, nor legal authority, to regulate non-CMV commuting distances. The survey is completely voluntary and is not intended to support a mandate or regulate driver commutes, but will help the agency gain further insights into commuting times experienced by commercial drivers.
Of the four comments that provided suggestions on the proposed information collection, three suggested that the survey should be sent to carriers and employers instead of individual drivers. FMCSA has considered this suggestion, but believes that employers and carriers would not necessarily know how long an individual employee is commuting. Every driver has a unique circumstance with their commute, and this information collection is aimed at better understanding the dynamics of individual drivers' commutes.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 23 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) to operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in interstate commerce. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions enable these individuals to operate CMVs in interstate commerce without meeting the vision requirement in one eye.
The exemptions were applicable on March 17, 2018. The exemptions expire on March 17, 2020.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at
On February 14, 2018, FMCSA published a notice announcing receipt of applications from 23 individuals requesting an exemption from vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and requested comments from the public (83 FR 6681). The public comment period ended on March 16, 2018, and no comments were received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that granting the exemptions to these individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding vision found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) states that a person is physically qualified to driver a CMV if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber.
FMCSA received no comments in this proceeding.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the vision standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The Agency's decision regarding these exemption applications is based on medical reports about the applicants' vision as well as their driving records and experience driving with the vision deficiency. The qualifications, experience, and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the February 14, 2018,
FMCSA recognizes that some drivers do not meet the vision requirement but have adapted their driving to accommodate their limitation and demonstrated their ability to drive safely. The 23 exemption applicants listed in this notice are in this category. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons, including amblyopia, chorioretinal scar, complete loss of vision, corneal scarring, macular scarring, nystagmus, prosthesis, retinal detachment, retinal scarring, and retinal vein occlusion. In most cases, their eye conditions were not recently developed. Fourteen of the applicants were either born with their vision impairments or have had them since childhood. The nine individuals that sustained their vision conditions as adults have had it for a range of 3 to 41 years. Although each applicant has one eye which does not meet the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), each has at least 20/40 corrected vision in the other eye, and in a doctor's opinion, has sufficient vision to perform all the tasks necessary to operate a CMV.
Doctors' opinions are supported by the applicants' possession of a valid license to operate a CMV. By meeting State licensing requirements, the applicants demonstrated their ability to operate a CMV, with their limited vision in intrastate commerce, even though their vision disqualified them from driving in interstate commerce. We believe that the applicants' intrastate driving experience and history provide an adequate basis for predicting their ability to drive safely in interstate commerce. Intrastate driving, like interstate operations, involves substantial driving on highways on the interstate system and on other roads built to interstate standards. Moreover, driving in congested urban areas exposes the driver to more pedestrian and vehicular traffic than exists on interstate highways. Faster reaction to traffic and traffic signals is generally required because distances between them are more compact. These conditions tax visual capacity and driver response just as intensely as interstate driving conditions.
The applicants in this notice have driven CMVs with their limited vision in careers ranging for 3 to 95 years. In the past three years, no drivers were involved in crashes, and one driver was convicted of moving violations in a CMV. All the applicants achieved a record of safety while driving with their vision impairment, demonstrating the likelihood that they have adapted their driving skills to accommodate their condition. As the applicants' ample driving histories with their vision deficiencies are good predictors of future performance, FMCSA concludes their ability to drive safely can be projected into the future.
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
The terms and conditions of the exemption are provided to the applicants in the exemption document and includes the following: (1) Each driver must be physically examined every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and (b) by a certified Medical Examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) each driver must provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the Medical Examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the 23 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the vision requirement, 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), subject to the requirements cited above:
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from seven individuals for an exemption from the prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against persons with a clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition that is likely to cause a loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) to drive in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before June 25, 2018.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0052 using any of the following methods:
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Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the FMCSRs for a five-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the five-year period. FMCSA grants exemptions from the FMCSRs for a two-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
The seven individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
The advisory criteria states the following:
If an individual has had a sudden episode of a non-epileptic seizure or loss of consciousness of unknown cause that did not require anti-seizure medication, the decision whether that person's condition is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or loss of ability to control a CMV should be made on an individual basis by the Medical Examiner in consultation with the treating physician. Before certification is considered, it is suggested that a six-month waiting period elapse from the time of the episode. Following the waiting period, it is suggested that the individual have a complete neurological examination. If the results of the examination are negative and anti-seizure medication is not required, then the driver may be qualified.
In those individual cases where a driver had a seizure or an episode of loss of consciousness that resulted from a known medical condition (
Drivers who have a history of epilepsy/seizures, off anti-seizure medication and seizure-free for 10 years, may be qualified to operate a CMV in interstate commerce. Interstate drivers with a history of a single unprovoked seizure may be qualified to drive a CMV in interstate commerce if seizure-free and off anti-seizure medication for a five-year period or more.
As a result of Medical Examiners misinterpreting advisory criteria as regulation, numerous drivers have been prohibited from operating a CMV in interstate commerce based on the fact that they have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication, rather than an individual analysis of their circumstances by a qualified Medical Examiner based on the physical qualification standards and medical best practices.
On January 15, 2013, FMCSA announced in a Notice of Final Disposition titled, Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders, (78 FR 3069), its decision to grant requests from 22 individuals for exemptions from the regulatory requirement that interstate CMV drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” Since the January 15, 2013 notice, the Agency has published additional notices granting requests from individuals for exemptions from the regulatory requirement regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8).
To be considered for an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), applicants must meet the criteria in the 2007 recommendations of the Agency's Medical Expert Panel (MEP) (78 FR 3069).
Mr. DeJarnette is a 54-year old Class DB driver in Kentucky. He has a history of epilepsy and has been seizure free since 1988. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2009. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. DeJarnette receiving an exemption.
Mr. Grant is a 60-year-old Class CDL-A MC driver in New Hampshire. He has a history of epilepsy and has been seizure free since 1993. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2015. His physician states that she is supportive of Mr. Grant receiving an exemption.
Mr. Hansen is a 35-year-old Class D driver in Minnesota. He has a history of generalized epilepsy and has been seizure free since 2003. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2003. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Hansen receiving an exemption.
Mr. Nichols is a 47-year-old Class A driver in Illinois. He has a history of complex partial seizures and has been seizure free since 2001. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2008. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Nichols receiving an exemption.
Mr. Ramirez is a 39-year-old Class C driver in California. He has a history of epilepsy and has been seizure free since 2010. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2008. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Ramirez receiving an exemption.
Mr. Ready is a 52-year-old Class D driver in Wisconsin. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has been seizure free since 2005. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2010. His physician states that she is supportive of Mr. Ready receiving an exemption.
Mr. Warren is a 35-year-old Class C Driver in Michigan. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has been seizure free since 2007. He takes anti-seizure medication, with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2013. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Warren receiving an exemption.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the dates section of the notice.
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and materials received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for its review and approval and invites public comment. The Executive Order directs Federal agencies to provide service to the public that matches or exceeds the best service available in the private sector. In order to work continuously to ensure that our programs are effective and meet our customers' needs, the FMCSA seeks to obtain OMB approval of a currently approved generic clearance to collect feedback on our service delivery. By feedback, we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study. On January 19, 2018, FMCSA published a notice in the
Please send your comments by June 25, 2018. OMB must receive your comments by this date in order to act on the ICR.
All comments should reference Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2017-0321. Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the attention of the Desk Officer, Department of Transportation/Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, and sent via electronic mail to
Ms. Roxane Oliver, FMCSA, Office of Analysis, Research and Technology, Analysis Division/MC-RRA. Telephone (202) 385-2324; or email
The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of
The Agency will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if the collections are:
• Voluntary;
• Low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• Noncontroversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Only collecting personally identifiable information (PII) to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Only collecting information intended to be used internally for general service improvement and program management, and any release outside the agency must indicate the qualitative nature of the information;
• Not to be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Intended to yield only qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalized to the population of study.
This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential nonresponse bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results. As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
Under part 211 of Title 49 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), this document provides the public notice that on May 10, 2018, the Santa Clara Valley Transportation Authority (SCVTA) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) for a waiver of compliance from certain provisions of the Federal railroad safety regulations. FRA assigned the petition docket number FRA-1999-6254.
In its petition, SCVTA seeks to extend the terms and conditions of its Shared Use waiver regarding operations in its Vasona Corridor, originally granted by FRA's Railroad Safety Board (Board) on September 26, 2005; modified in 2008; and extended in 2011 and 2013. Specifically, this Shared Use waiver is for the continued operation of the SCVTA rail fixed guideway transit system in the Vasona Corridor. SCVTA shares this corridor with Union Pacific Railroad (UP) running parallel for 5 miles of the existing 15-mile long UP Vasona Industrial Lead and serves the cities of southwest San Jose, CA, and Campbell, CA. SCVTA and the parallel UP line share grade crossings and the corridor, but have no other connection. Because SCVTA owns this 5-mile-long portion of the shared corridor, SCVTA and UP have executed an Operations and Maintenance Agreement, which includes an exclusive operating easement, allowing UP to fulfill its obligations as a common carrier of freight by continuing its existing freight operations within the purchased corridor. This agreement requires SCVTA to inspect, maintain, and repair all tracks, signal systems and automatic warning devices along the freight track within that portion of the corridor shared with SCVTA tracks.
SCVTA continues to seek partial relief from 49 CFR part 220,
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing in connection with these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested parties desire an opportunity for oral comment and a public hearing, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Communications received by July 9, 2018 will be considered by FRA before
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Federal Transit Administration (FTA), DOT.
Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO).
The Federal Transit Administration (FTA) announces the opportunity to apply for approximately $25.79 million of funding under the Pilot Program for Transit-Oriented Development Planning (Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance #20.500). As required by federal transit law and subject to funding availability, funds will be awarded competitively to support comprehensive planning associated with new fixed guideway and core capacity improvement projects.
Complete proposals must be submitted electronically through the
Benjamin Owen, FTA Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 366-5602, or
Section 20005(b) of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21; Pub. L. 112-141, July 6, 2012), with funding authorized by 49 U.S.C. 5338(a)(2)(B), authorizes FTA to award funds under the Pilot Program for Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) Planning (TOD Pilot Program) through a competitive process, as described in this notice, to local communities to integrate land use and transportation planning with a new fixed guideway or core capacity improvement transit capital project as defined in Federal transit statute. (See section C of this NOFO for more information about eligibility.)
As outlined in MAP-21, the TOD Pilot Program is intended to fund comprehensive planning that supports economic development, ridership, multimodal connectivity and accessibility, increased transit access for pedestrian and bicycle traffic, and mixed-use development near transit stations. The TOD Pilot Program also encourages identification of infrastructure needs and engagement with the private sector.
Consistent with direction in MAP-21, FTA is seeking comprehensive planning projects covering an entire transit capital project corridor, rather than proposals that involve planning for individual station areas or only a small section of the corridor. To ensure any proposed planning work reflects the needs and aspirations of the local community and results in concrete, specific deliverables and outcomes, transit project sponsors must partner with entities with land use planning authority in the transit project corridor to conduct the planning work.
Federal transit law authorizes FTA to make grants for eligible comprehensive planning projects under Section 20005(b) of MAP-21, with funding authorized by 49 U.S.C. 5338(a)(2)(B). FTA intends to award all available funding to selected applicants responding to this NOFO.
Only proposals from eligible recipients for eligible activities will be considered for funding. FTA anticipates minimum grant awards of $250,000 and maximum grant awards of $2,000,000. The maximum period of performance allowed for the work covered by the award is 36 months.
Applicants under the TOD Pilot Program must be FTA grantees (
Only one application per transit capital project corridor may be submitted to FTA. Multiple applications submitted for a single transit capital project corridor indicate that partnerships are not in place and FTA will reject all of the applications.
The maximum Federal funding share is 80 percent.
Eligible sources of local match include the following: Cash from non-Government sources other than revenues from providing public transportation services; revenues derived from the sale of advertising and concessions; amounts received under a service agreement with a State or local social service agency or private social service organization; revenues generated from value capture financing mechanisms; or funds from an undistributed cash surplus; replacement or depreciation cash fund or reserve; or new capital. In-kind contributions are
Any comprehensive planning work proposed for funding under the TOD Pilot Program must be associated with an eligible transit capital project. To be eligible, the proposed transit capital project must be a new fixed guideway project or a core capacity improvement project as defined in Section 5309(a) of title 49, United States Code.
A fixed guideway is a public transportation facility:
(A) Using and occupying a separate right-of-way for the exclusive use of public transportation;
(B) using rail;
(C) using a fixed catenary system;
(D) for a passenger ferry system; or
(E) for a bus rapid transit system.
A new fixed guideway capital project is defined in statute to be:
(A) A new fixed guideway project that is a minimum operable segment or extension to an existing fixed guideway system; or
(B) a fixed guideway bus rapid transit project that is a minimum operable segment or an extension to an existing bus rapid transit system.
A fixed guideway bus rapid transit project is defined more specifically in statute as a bus capital project:
(A) In which the majority of the project operates in a separated right-of-way dedicated for public transportation use during peak periods;
(B) that represents a substantial investment in a single route in a defined corridor or subarea; and
(C) that includes features that emulate the services provided by rail fixed guideway public transportation systems, including:
(i) Defined stations;
(ii) traffic signal priority for public transportation vehicles;
(iii) short headway bidirectional services for a substantial part of weekdays and weekend days; and
(iv) any other features the Secretary may determine are necessary to produce high-quality public transportation services that emulate the services provided by rail fixed guideway public transportation systems.
A core capacity improvement project is defined in statute as a substantial corridor-based capital investment in an existing fixed guideway system that increases the capacity of the corridor by not less than 10 percent. The term does not include project elements designed to maintain a state of good repair of the existing fixed guideway system.
Any transit capital project that does not meet the statutory definition above of either a new fixed guideway project or a core capacity improvement project is not eligible under the TOD Pilot Program.
Any comprehensive planning efforts funded under the TOD Pilot Program must address all six aspects of the general authority stipulated in Section 20005(b)(2) of MAP-21:
i. Enhances economic development, ridership, and other goals established during the project development and engineering processes;
ii. facilitates multimodal connectivity and accessibility;
iii. increases access to transit hubs for pedestrian and bicycle traffic;
iv. enables mixed-use development;
v. identifies infrastructure needs associated with the eligible project; and
vi. includes private sector participation.
MAP-21 also requires the comprehensive planning effort to advance the metropolitan planning organization's metropolitan transportation plan. Further, MAP-21 requires applicants to establish performance criteria for the planning effort.
Following are examples of the types of substantial deliverables that may result from the comprehensive planning work. Substantial deliverables are reports, plans and other materials that represent the key accomplishments of the comprehensive planning effort and that must be submitted to FTA as each is completed. Substantial deliverables may include, but are not restricted to, the following:
i. A comprehensive plan report that includes corridor development policies and station development plans, a proposed timeline, and recommended financing strategies for these plans, which may include use of Federal loan programs such as USDOT's Transportation Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act (TIFIA) and Railroad Rehabilitation Improvement and Financing (RRIF) programs;
ii. A strategic plan report that includes corridor specific planning strategies and program recommendations to support comprehensive planning;
iii. Revised TOD-focused zoning codes and/or resolutions;
iv. A report evaluating and recommending financial tools to encourage TOD implementation such as land banking, value capture, and development financing;
v. Policies to encourage TOD; and/or
vi. Local or regional resolutions to implement TOD plans and/or establish TOD funding mechanisms.
Applications should not include the following activities, which include activities that are targeted to only a single location rather than a comprehensive corridor-focused TOD planning study:
i. TOD planning work in a single transit capital project station area;
ii. Transit project development activities that would be reimbursable under an FTA capital grant, such as project planning, the design and engineering of stations and other facilities, environmental analyses needed for the transit capital project, or costs associated with specific joint development activities;
iii. Capital projects, such as land acquisition, construction, and utility relocation; and
iv. Site- or parcel-specific planning, such as the design of individual structures.
Applications must be submitted electronically through
Proposals should include only a completed SF 424 Mandatory form (downloaded from
i. A completed Applicant and Proposal Profile supplemental form for the TOD Pilot Program (supplemental form) found on the FTA website at
ii. A map of the proposed study area showing the transit project alignment and stations, major roadways, major
iii. Documentation of a partnership between the transit project sponsor and an entity in the project corridor with land use planning authority to conduct the planning work, if the applicant does not have both of these responsibilities. Documentation may consist of a memorandum of agreement or letter of intent signed by all parties that describes the parties' roles and responsibilities in the proposed comprehensive planning project; and
iv. Documentation of any funding commitments for the proposed planning work.
Information such as proposer name, Federal amount requested, local match amount, description of areas served, etc. may be requested in varying degrees of detail on both the SF 424 form and supplemental form. Proposers must fill in all fields unless stated otherwise on the forms. Proposers should use both the “Check Package for Errors” and the “Validate Form” validation buttons on both forms to check all required fields on the forms, and ensure that the federal and local amounts specified are consistent. In the event of errors with the supplemental form, FTA recommends saving the form on your computer and ensuring that JavaScript is enabled in your PDF reader. The information listed below MUST be included on the SF 424 and supplemental forms for all requests for TOD Pilot Program funding.
The SF 424 and supplemental form will prompt applicants to address the following items:
1. Provide the name of the lead applicant and, if applicable, the specific co-sponsors submitting the application.
2. Provide the applicant's Dun and Bradstreet (D&B) Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number.
3. Provide contact information including: Contact name, title, address, fax and phone number, and email address.
4. Specify the Congressional district(s) where the planning project will take place.
5. Identify the project title and project scope to be funded, including anticipated substantial deliverables and the milestones at which they will be provided to FTA.
6. Identify and describe an eligible transit project that meets the requirements of section C, subsection 3 of this notice.
7. Provide evidence of a partnership between the transit project sponsor and at least one agency with land use authority in the transit capital project corridor, as described earlier in this subsection.
8. Address the six aspects of general authority under MAP-21 Section 20005(b)(2).
9. Address each evaluation criterion separately, demonstrating how the project responds to each criterion as described in section E.
10. Provide a line-item budget for the total planning effort, with enough detail to indicate the various key components of the project.
11. Identify the Federal amount requested.
12. Document the matching funds, including amount and source of the match (may include local or private sector financial participation in the project). Describe whether the matching funds are committed or planned, and include documentation of the commitments.
13. Address whether other Federal funds have been sought or received for the project.
14. Provide a project schedule and process for the development of the comprehensive plan that includes anticipated dates for incorporating the planning work effort into the region's unified planning work program, completing major tasks and substantial deliverables, and completing the overall planning effort (which, per the maximum period of performance, must occur within 36 months of grant execution).
15. Describe how the planning work advances the metropolitan transportation plan of the metropolitan planning organization.
16. Propose performance criteria for the development and implementation of the planning work.
17. Identify potential State, local or other impediments to the planning work and its implementation, and how the work will address them.
For each of the above indicate yes or no, and attach a link to any applicable documents or websites. Do not attach the documentation.
FTA will not consider any additional materials submitted by applicants in its evaluation of proposals. The total length of the completed supplemental form and documentation of partnerships and funding commitments should be no more than 15 pages.
Each applicant is required to: (1) Be registered in SAM before submitting an application; (2) provide a valid unique entity identifier in its application; and (3) continue to maintain an active SAM registration with current information at all times during which the applicant has an active Federal award or an application or plan under consideration by FTA. These requirements do not apply if the applicant: (1) Is an individual; (2) is excepted from the requirements under 2 CFR 25.110(b) or (c); or (3) has an exception approved by FTA under 2 CFR 25.110(d). FTA may not make an award until the applicant has complied with all applicable unique entity identifier and SAM requirements. If an applicant has not fully complied with the requirements by the time FTA is ready to make an award, FTA may determine that the applicant is not qualified to receive an award and use that determination as a basis for making a Federal award to another applicant. All applicants must provide a unique entity identifier provided by SAM. Registration in SAM may take as little as 3-5 business days, but since there could be unexpected steps or delays (for example, if you need to obtain an Employer Identification Number), FTA recommends allowing ample time, up to several weeks, for completion of all steps. For additional information on obtaining a unique entity identifier, please visit
Project proposals must be submitted electronically through
Within 48 hours after submitting an electronic application, the applicant should receive two email messages from
Any addenda that FTA releases on the application process will be posted at
Proposers are encouraged to begin registration process on the
See section C of this NOFO for detailed eligibility requirements. FTA emphasizes that any comprehensive planning projects funded through the TOD Pilot Program must be associated with an eligible transit project, specifically a new fixed guideway project or a core capacity improvement project as defined in Federal transit statute, 49 U.S.C. 5309(a).
Project proposals must be submitted electronically through
FTA will evaluate proposals that include all components identified in section D of this notice according to the following three criteria:
FTA will evaluate each project to determine the need for funding based on the following factors:
i. Potential state, local or other impediments to implementation of the products of the comprehensive planning effort, and how the workplan will address them;
ii. How the proposed work will advance TOD implementation in the corridor and region;
iii. Justification as to why Federal funds are needed for the proposed work; and
iv. Extent to which the transit project corridor could benefit from TOD planning.
FTA will evaluate the strength of the work plan, schedule and process included in an application based on the following factors:
i. Extent to which the schedule contains sufficient detail, identifies all steps needed to implement the work proposed, and is achievable;
ii. The proportion of the project corridor covered by the work plan;
iii. Extent of partnerships, including with non-public sector entities;
iv. The partnerships' technical capability to develop, adopt and implement the plans, based on FTA's assessment of the applicant's description of the policy formation, implementation, and financial roles of the partners, and the roles and responsibilities of proposed staff; and
v. Whether the performance measures identified in the application relate to the goals of the planning work.
FTA will assess the status of local matching funds for the planning work. Applications demonstrating that matching funds for the proposed planning work are committed will receive higher ratings from FTA on this factor. Proposed planning projects for which matching funding sources have been identified, but are not yet committed, will be given lower ratings under this factor by FTA, as will proposed projects for which in-kind contributions constitute the primary or sole source of matching funds.
In addition to other FTA staff that may review the proposals, a technical evaluation committee will evaluate proposals based on the published evaluation criteria. Members of the technical evaluation committee and other FTA staff may request additional information from applicants, if necessary. Based on the findings of the technical evaluation committee, the FTA Administrator will determine the final selection of projects for program funding. Among the factors, FTA may consider geographic diversity, diversity in the size of the grantees receiving funding, and/or the applicant's receipt of other competitive awards in determining the allocation of program funds. FTA may prioritize projects proposed with a higher local share.
In addition to the criteria and considerations outlined in this section, the FTA Administrator will take into account the following key Departmental objectives:
(A) Supporting economic vitality at the national and regional level;
(B) Leveraging Federal funding to attract other, non-Federal sources of infrastructure investment, including value capture;
(C) Using innovative approaches to improve safety and expedite project delivery; and,
(D) Holding grant recipients accountable for their performance and achieving specific, measurable outcomes identified by grant applicants.
Prior to making an award, FTA is required to review and consider any information about the applicant that is in the designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM (currently FAPIIS). An applicant, at its option, may review information in the designated integrity and performance systems accessible through SAM and comment on any information about itself that a Federal awarding agency previously entered and is currently in the designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM. FTA will consider any comments by the applicant, in addition to the other information in the designated integrity and performance system, in making a judgment about the applicant's integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards when completing the review of risk posed by applicants as described in the 2 CFR 200.205 Federal awarding agency review of risk posed by applicants.
Subsequent to an announcement by the FTA Administrator of the final project selections, which will be posted on the FTA website, FTA will publish a list of the selected projects, Federal award amounts, and recipients in the
Local funds must be committed and grants awarded by September 30, 2019.
Funds under the TOD Pilot Program are available to existing FTA grantees. The anticipated minimum and maximum award amounts are $250,000
FTA will issue specific guidance to recipients regarding pre-award authority at the time of selection. FTA does not provide pre-award authority for competitive funds until projects are selected and even then there are Federal requirements that must be met before costs are incurred. Funds under this NOFO cannot be used to reimburse applicants for otherwise eligible expenses incurred prior to FTA award of a Grant Agreement until FTA has issued pre-award authority for selected projects, or unless FTA has issued a “Letter of No Prejudice” for the project before the expenses are incurred. For more information about FTA's policy on pre-award authority, please see the FY 2017 Apportionment Notice published on January 19, 2017.
If selected, awardees will apply for a grant through FTA's Transit Award Management System (TrAMS). Recipients of TOD Pilot Program funds are subject to the grant requirements of the Section 5303 Metropolitan Planning program, including those of FTA Circular 8100.1C and Circular 5010.1E. All competitive grants, regardless of award amount, will be subject to the Congressional Notification and release process. Technical assistance regarding these requirements is available from each FTA regional office.
FTA encourages proposers to notify the appropriate metropolitan planning organizations in areas likely to be served by the funds made available under this program. Selected projects must be incorporated into the unified planning work programs of metropolitan areas before they are eligible for FTA funding or pre-award authority.
The applicant assures that it will comply with all applicable Federal statutes, regulations, executive orders, FTA circulars, and other Federal administrative requirements in carrying out any project supported by the FTA grant. The applicant acknowledges that it is under a continuing obligation to comply with the terms and conditions of the grant agreement issued for its project with FTA. The applicant understands that Federal laws, regulations, policies, and administrative practices might be modified from time to time and may affect the implementation of the project. The applicant agrees that the most recent Federal requirements will apply to the project, unless FTA issues a written determination otherwise. The applicant must submit the Certifications and Assurances before receiving a grant if it does not have current certifications on file.
Post-award reporting requirements include submission of Federal Financial Reports and Milestone Progress Reports in FTA's electronic grants management system on a quarterly basis. Awardees must also submit copies of the substantial deliverables identified in the work plan to the FTA regional office at the corresponding milestones.
For program-specific questions, please contact Benjamin Owen, Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 366-5602, email:
This program is not subject to Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs.” FTA will consider applications for funding only from eligible recipients for eligible projects as listed in Section C.
Complete applications must be submitted through
*
At any time, you can track your AOR status by logging in with your username and password. Login as an Applicant (enter your username & password you obtained in Step 3) using the following link:
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Receipt of petition.
General Motors, LLC (GM), has determined that certain model year (MY) 2018 Buick Regal motor vehicles do not comply with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) 110,
Send comments on or before June 25, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments on this petition. Comments must refer to the docket and notice number cited in the title of this notice and submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
• Comments may also be faxed to (202) 493-2251.
Comments must be written in the English language, and be no greater than 15 pages in length, although there is no limit to the length of necessary attachments to the comments. If comments are submitted in hard copy form, please ensure that two copies are provided. If you wish to receive confirmation that comments you have submitted by mail were received, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard with the comments. Note that all comments received will be posted without change to
All comments and supporting materials received before the close of business on the closing date indicated above will be filed in the docket and will be considered. All comments and supporting materials received after the closing date will also be filed and will be considered to the fullest extent possible.
When the petition is granted or denied, notice of the decision will also be published in the
All comments, background documentation, and supporting materials submitted to the docket may be viewed by anyone at the address and times given above. The documents may also be viewed on the internet at
DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement is available for review in a
This notice of receipt of GM's petition is published under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120 and does not represent any agency decision or other exercise of judgment concerning the merits of the petition.
In support of its petition, GM submitted the following reasoning:
1. There is no issue with the spare tire itself, it's safe and nondefective. The only issue here is that certain information about the spare tire is not listed on the vehicle placard. But that is inconsequential because that information is provided in other locations.
2. Specifically, the spare tire information is located in at least three places: (1) On the sidewall of the spare tire; (2) in the owner's manual, which the vehicle placard specifically directs the customer to for additional information; and (3) on the Monroney label.
3. There is no issue with the road tires and the information on the vehicle placard for the road tires is correct.
4. In the event of a flat tire, the customer will have a spare tire that is labeled with the proper inflation pressure and has a sufficient load rating for the vehicle. It will be immediately apparent to any customer potentially confused by the “none” language that the vehicle has a spare tire when they lift the liftgate as explained in the
5. The spare-tire size and pressure information is readily available from additional sources (
6. Most, if not all, temporary spare tires have the same cold tire pressure, which is 60 psi. The 60 psi pressure is an industry standard and it is set by at least two governing bodies, the U.S. Tire and Rim Association and the European Tire Rim Technical Organization.
7. All other information on the vehicle placard is correct.
8. NHTSA has previously granted similar inconsequential petitions with respect to FMVSS No. 110 noncompliances.
9. GM is not aware of any field or owner complaints associated with this issue. GM is also not aware of any crashes or injuries associated with this condition.
GM's complete petition and all supporting documents are available by logging onto the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) website at:
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, any decision on this petition only applies to the subject vehicles that GM no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, any decision on this petition does not relieve vehicle distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant vehicles under their control after GM notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8).
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before June 25, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
Public Law 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee that the Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses will meet on June 25-26, 2018 at the InterContinental Mark Hopkins Hotel, 999 California Street, San Francisco, California 94108 in Room California & Powell at 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. (PST) on June 25, 2018 and from 8:45 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. (PST) on June 26, 2018. All sessions will be open to the public, and for interested parties who cannot attend in person, there is a
The purpose of the Committee is to provide advice and make recommendations to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs on proposed research studies, research plans, and research strategies relating to the health consequences of military service in the Southwest Asia Theater of operations during the Gulf War in 1990-1991.
The Committee will review VA program activities related to Gulf War Veterans' illnesses and updates on relevant scientific research published since the last Committee meeting. Presentations will include updates on the VA Gulf War research program and descriptions and discussions of new areas of research technology and treatments that can be applied to the health problems of Gulf War Veterans. Also, there will be a discussion of Committee business and activities.
The meeting will include time reserved for public comments in the afternoon. A signup sheet for 5-minute comments will be available at the meeting. Individuals who wish to address the Committee may submit a 1-2 page summary of their comments for inclusion in the official meeting record. Members of the public may also submit written statements for the Committee's review to Dr. Karen Block via email at
Any member of the public seeking additional information should contact Dr. Block, Designated Federal Officer, at (202) 443-5600.
(b) The prohibitions in subsection (a) of this section apply except to the extent provided by statutes, or in regulations, orders, directives, or licenses that may be issued pursuant to this order, and notwithstanding any contract entered into or any license or permit granted before the effective date of this order.
(b) Any conspiracy formed to violate any of the prohibitions set forth in this order is prohibited.
(a) The term “person” means an individual or entity;
(b) The term “entity” means a partnership, association, trust, joint venture, corporation, group, subgroup, or other organization;
(c) the term “United States person” means any United States citizen, permanent resident alien, entity organized under the laws of the United States or any jurisdiction within the United States (including foreign branches of such entities), or any person within the United States; and
(d) the term “Government of Venezuela” means the Government of Venezuela, any political subdivision, agency, or instrumentality thereof, including the Central Bank of Venezuela and Petroleos de Venezuela, S.A. (PdVSA),
Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule describes how articles the President determines no longer warrant control under United States Munitions List (USML) Category I—Firearms, Close Assault Weapons and Combat Shotguns; Category II—Guns and Armament; and Category III—Ammunition/Ordnance would be controlled under the Commerce Control List (CCL). This proposed rule is being published simultaneously with a proposed rule by the Department of State that would revise Categories I, II, and III of the USML to describe more precisely the articles warranting continued control on that list.
Comments must be received by July 9, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
• Submit comments via Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• By mail or delivery to Regulatory Policy Division, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 2099B, 14th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230. Refer to RIN 0694-AF47.
Steven Clagett, Office of Nonproliferation Controls and Treaty Compliance, Nuclear and Missile Technology Controls Division, tel. (202) 482-1641 or email
This proposed rule describes how articles the President determines no longer warrant control under United States Munitions List (USML) Category I—Firearms, Close Assault Weapons and Combat Shotguns; Category II—Guns and Armament; and Category III—Ammunition/Ordnance, would be controlled on the Commerce Control List (CCL) and by the Export Administration Regulations (EAR). This proposed rule is being published in conjunction with a proposed rule from the Department of State, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls, which would amend the list of articles controlled by USML Category I (Firearms, Close Assault Weapons and Combat Shotguns), Category II (Guns and Armament), and Category III (Ammunition/Ordnance) of the USML to describe more precisely items warranting continued control on that list.
The changes described in this proposed rule and in the State Department's companion proposed rule on Categories I, II, and III of the USML are based on a review of those categories by the Department of Defense, which worked with the Departments of State and Commerce in preparing the amendments. The review was focused on identifying the types of articles that are now controlled on the USML that are either (i) inherently military and otherwise warrant control on the USML or (ii) if of a type common to non-military firearms applications, possess parameters or characteristics that provide a critical military or intelligence advantage to the United States, and are almost exclusively available from the United States. If an article satisfies one or both of those criteria, the article remains on the USML. If an article does not satisfy either criterion, it has been identified in the new Export Control Classification Numbers (ECCNs) included in this proposed rule. Thus, the scope of the items described in this proposed rule is essentially commercial items widely available in retail outlets and less sensitive military items.
BIS has created ECCNs, referred to as the “600 series,” to control items that would be removed from the USML and controlled under the CCL, or items from the Wassenaar Arrangement on Export Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual Use Goods and Technologies Munitions List (Wassenaar Arrangement Munitions List or WAML) that are already controlled elsewhere on the CCL.
These ECCNs are referred to as the “600 series” because the third character in each of the new ECCNs is “6.” The first two characters of the “600 series” ECCNs serve the same function as any other ECCN as described in § 738.2 of the EAR. The first character is a digit in the range 0 through 9 that identifies the Category on the CCL in which the ECCN is located. The second character is a letter in the range A through E that identifies the product group within a CCL Category. With few exceptions, the final two characters identify the WAML category that covers items that are the same or similar to items in a particular “600 series” ECCN. Category II of the USML and category ML2 of the WAML cover large caliber guns and other military weapons such as: Howitzers, cannon, mortars, anti-tank weapons, projectile launchers, military flame throwers and recoilless rifles.
In this proposed rule, items that are currently controlled in Category II of the USML would be controlled on the CCL under four new “600 series” ECCNs. Placement of the items currently in USML Category II into the CCL's 600 series would be consistent with existing BIS practice of using 600 series ECCNs to control items of a military nature.
Items currently controlled in Categories I and III of the USML would be controlled in new ECCNs in which the third character is a “5.” These items are not appropriate for 600 series control because, for the most part, they have civil, recreational, law enforcement, or other non- military applications. As with 600 series ECCNs, the first character would represent the CCL category, the second character would represent the product group, and the final two characters would represent the WAML category that covers items that are the same or similar to items in the ECCN.
This proposed rule does not deregulate the transferred items. BIS would require licenses to export, or reexport to any country a firearm or other weapon currently on the USML that would be added to the CCL by this proposed rule. BIS would also require licenses for the export or reexport of guns and armament that would be controlled under new ECCN 0A602, such as guns and armaments manufactured between 1890 and 1919 to all destinations except Canada. As compared to decontrolling firearms and other items, in publishing this proposed rule, BIS, working with the Departments of Defense and State, is trying to reduce the procedural burdens and costs of export compliance on the U.S. firearms industry while allowing the U.S. Government to enforce export controls for firearms appropriately and to make better use of its export control resources. BIS encourages comments from the public on this aspect of the proposed rule.
All references to the USML in this rule are to the list of defense articles that are controlled for purposes of export, temporary import, or brokering pursuant to the International Traffic in
BIS believes the control of these firearms under the EAR is justified because the firearms described in this proposed rule are either not inherently military or do not warrant the obligations that are imposed under the ITAR pertaining to such items. After review, the Defense Department, in conjunction with the Departments of State and Commerce, concluded that the firearms in this proposed rule also do not provide a critical military or intelligence advantage to the United States, are not the types of weapons that are almost exclusively available from the United States, and are manufactured from “technology” that is widely available. Moreover, the firearms have commercial and other non-military characteristics that distinguish them from other articles controlled under the ITAR. There is a significant worldwide market for firearms in connection with civil and recreational activities such as hunting, marksmanship, competitive shooting, and other non-military activities. Because of the popularity of shooting sports in the United States, for example, many large chain retailers carry a wide inventory of the firearms described in the new ECCNs for sale to the general public. Firearms available through U.S. retail outlets include rim fire rifles, pistols, modern sporting rifles, shotguns, and large caliber bolt action rifles, as well as their “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments.”
An additional justification for the change in the jurisdictional status of the items described in this rule is that the current ITAR controls burden U.S. industry without any proportionate benefits to United States national security or foreign policy objectives. Similar to the challenges faced by other industries, the firearms trade has been negatively affected by the incentives the ITAR creates for foreign manufacturers to avoid U.S.-origin content. Currently, under the ITAR, any part, component, accessory, or attachment for any of the firearms described in this proposed rule remains ITAR controlled, regardless of its significance, when incorporated into foreign-made items or reexported to any third country. Under the EAR, the
The EAR also includes well-established and well understood criteria for excluding certain information from the scope of what is “subject to the EAR.” (
Pursuant to section 38(f) of the AECA, the President shall review the USML “to determine what items, if any, no longer warrant export controls under” the AECA. The President must report the results of the review to Congress and wait 30 days before removing any such items from the USML. The report must “describe the nature of any controls to be imposed on that item under any other provision of law.” 22 U.S.C. 2778(f)(1).
This Commerce proposed rule is being published simultaneously with a Department of State proposed rule. Collectively, the rules address defense articles currently controlled under Categories I (Firearms, Close Assault Weapons and Combat Shotguns), II (Guns and Armament), and III (Ammunition/Ordnance) of the USML. The Department of State proposed rule would revise Categories I (Firearms, Close Assault Weapons and Combat Shotguns), II (Guns and Armament), and III (Ammunition/Ordnance) of the USML so that they describe in positive terms the defense articles that should remain on the USML. The Department of Commerce rule would add to the CCL items that the President determines no longer warrant control under the USML.
In addition, this rule would clarify the scope of some ECCNs currently on the CCL. This rule would also renumber these ECCNs to place certain firearms-related items currently on the CCL in closer proximity to the firearms-related items that would be removed from the USML and added to the CCL to make it easier to identify and classify such items.
BIS is interested in comments in response to this proposed rule as to whether the public find this reorganization helpful. In some instances, the juxtapositions resulting from this reorganization highlight different license requirements and licensing policies for various firearms and related items. The public is invited to comment on the appropriateness of these license requirements and licensing policies. The public is also encouraged to comment on whether or not the proposed rule describes items that are not widely available in commercial outlets.
This proposed rule would create 17 new ECCNs to control items proposed for removal from the USML. A discussion of each new ECCN and the controls that would apply to items under that ECCN follows below.
New ECCN 0A501 would apply national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), Firearms Convention (FC Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) reasons for control to the following firearms, the following enumerated parts and components and to “specially designed” “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” for those firearms and “parts” and “components:”
ECCN 0A501.y would be subject only to anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) and United Nations (UN) reasons for control and would cover such items as scope mounts or accessory rails, iron sights, sling swivels, butt plates, recoil pads, bayonets, and stocks or grips that do not contain any fire control “parts” or “components.”
This proposed rule would add a technical note to ECCN 0A501 stating that “parts” and “components” include “parts” and “components” that are common to firearms described in ECCN 0A501 and to firearms “subject to the ITAR.”
It also would add a second note to ECCN 0A501 to state that certain firearms and similar items are EAR99,
In addition, for purposes of new ECCN 0A501 and the rest of the new ECCNs described below, items previously determined to be “subject to the EAR” under a commodity jurisdiction determination issued by the U.S. Department of State that were designated as EAR99 would generally not be classified in any of the new ECCNs that would be created with this proposed rule. This would be consistent with Supplement No. 1 to Part 736, General Order No. 5, paragraph (e)(3) (Prior commodity jurisdiction determination) and the paragraph (b)(1) release from “specially designed.” As a conforming change, this proposed rule would revise paragraph (e)(3) of General Order No. 5 to add a reference to “0x5zz” (to account for new ECCNs 0A501, 0A502, 0A503, 0A504, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, and 0E502 described below). The “600 series” and 9x515 (spacecraft and related items) are already included in paragraph (e)(3), and those references remain unchanged.
New ECCN 0A502 would control both the shotguns currently on the USML that are to be added to the CCL (barrel length less than 18 inches) and the shotguns and the enumerated “parts” and “components” currently controlled in ECCN 0A984 (barrel length 18 inches or greater). Shotguns currently controlled in ECCN 0A984 would retain their current reasons for control of Firearms Convention (FC), crime control (CC Column 1, 2 or 3 depending on barrel length and end user) and United Nations (UN) reasons. Shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches would be controlled under NS Column 1, CC Column 1, FC, UN and AT Column 1 plus regional stability (RS Column 1), consistent with their current control on the USML. The shotguns controlled in 0A502 currently controlled in ECCN 0A984 would not be controlled for national security reasons because they are not on the WAML.
This rule would replace existing ECCN 0A985 with a new ECCN 0A503. The rule would add “non-lethal or less-lethal grenades and projectiles and `specially designed' `parts' and `components' of those projectiles” to the description of controlled items in the header of ECCN 0A985 to make clear that such projectiles are classified in that ECCN 0A503 and not classified under ECCN 0A602 or on the USML. Renumbering this ECCN would cause entries controlling firearms and related items to be placed in close proximity to each other, which would make it easier for readers to identify items on the CCL.
New ECCN 0A504 would replace existing ECCN 0A987, which controls optical sighting devices for firearms. The reasons for control table, which currently states,
This change would make clear, consistent with BIS's existing interpretation, that such devices are not optical sights and are not subject to the
New ECCN 0A505 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), Firearms Convention (FC), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on ammunition not enumerated on the USML, for firearms that would be classified under proposed ECCN 0A501, and for most “parts” and “components” of such ammunition. Such ammunition would be for small arms, in most cases, firearms of caliber not exceeding 0.50 inches, although some ammunition for firearms of caliber up to 0.72 inches would be included. This proposed rule would retain the CCL reasons for control currently found in ECCNs 0A984 and 0A986 for shotgun shells. Buckshot shotgun shells would be subject to the CC Column 1, FC Column 1 and UN reasons for control. Other shotgun shells would be subject to the FC, UN and AT (North Korea only) reasons for control. Only “parts” and “components” would be eligible for License Exception LVS. Ammunition for larger caliber weapons such as howitzers, artillery, cannon, mortars, and recoilless rifles would remain in USML Category III. Ammunition that has little or no civil use or that is inherently military such as ammunition that is preassembled into links or belts, caseless ammunition, tracer ammunition, ammunition with a depleted uranium projectile or a projectile with a hardened tip or core and ammunition with an explosive projectile also would remain in USML Category III. Possession of the ammunition that would be added to the CCL by this rule does not provide a critical military advantage to the United States. Blank ammunition for firearms controlled by ECCN 0A501 and not enumerated in Category III of the USML would be controlled for United Nations and anti-terrorism reasons only. Consolidating all ammunition on the CCL into one ECCN would simplify use of the CCL.
Inclusion of this ammunition on the CCL is appropriate because such ammunition is available from a number of countries, some of which are not close allies of the United States or members of multilateral export control regimes. Possession of this ammunition does not confer a military advantage on the United States. This rule proposes adding three notes to clarify the scope of “parts” and “components” for ammunition classified under ECCN 0A505. Note 1 to 0A505.c would clarify the relationship between ECCNs 0A505 and 1A984 for shotgun shells, stating that shotgun shells that contain only chemical irritants would be controlled under 1A984 and not 0A505. Separately, Note 2 to 0A505.x would include an illustrative list of the controls on “parts” and “components” in this entry, such as Berdan and boxer primers. Note 3 to 0A505.x would clarify that the controls in ECCN 0A505 include “parts” and “components” that are common to ammunition and ordnance described in this entry and to those enumerated in USML Category III.
New ECCN 0A602 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN) and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on guns and armament manufactured between 1890 and 1919 and for military flame throwers with an effective range less than 20 meters. It would impose those same reasons for control on parts and components for those commodities and for defense articles in USML Category II if such parts or components are not specified elsewhere on the CCL or USML. Note 2 to 0A602 confirms that black powder guns and armament manufactured in or prior to 1890 and replicas thereof designed for use with black powder propellants are designated EAR99. Inclusion of these guns and armament on the CCL is appropriate because they do not confer a significant military or intelligence advantage on the United States. The guns controlled in this ECCN are between 98 and 127 years old. The parts, components, accessories and attachments controlled in this ECCN include some that are for modern artillery. Modern artillery will remain on the USML, along with the most sensitive “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” for these USML items. This proposed rule adds a note to clarify that “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” specified in USML subcategory II(j) are not subject to the EAR. The USML Order of Review and CCL Order of Review already provide guidance for making such a jurisdictional and classification determination, but to highlight that these “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” are not classified under paragraph (x) of 0A602, this rule proposes adding a note.
New ECCN 0B501 would cover “Test, inspection and production `equipment' and related commodities for the `development' or `production' of commodities enumerated in ECCN 0A501 or USML Category I.” This new ECCN would apply the national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN) and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) reasons for control to four specific types of machinery and to one class of items. The four specific types of machinery are: Small arms chambering machines, small arms deep hole drilling machines and drills therefor, small arms rifling machines, and small arms spill boring machines. The class of items covers dies, fixtures and other tooling “specially designed” for the “production” of items in the State Department proposed rule for USML Category I or ECCN 0A501.
The NS and RS reasons for control do not apply to equipment for the “development” or “production” of commodities in ECCN 0A501.y because those reasons for control do not apply to the commodities in ECCN 0A501.y themselves.
The first four specific items noted above currently are listed in ECCN 2B018, paragraphs .o, .p, .q, and .r and would be listed in paragraphs .a, .b, .c and .d of ECCN 0B501. In addition, the class of items in new 0B501 that is currently included within ECCN 2B018, paragraph .n (jigs and fixtures and other metal-working implements or “accessories” of the kinds exclusively designed for use in the manufacture of firearms, ordnance, and other stores and appliances for land, sea or aerial warfare) would, if applicable to firearms controlled in 0A501, be subsumed in paragraph .e. Jigs, fixtures and metal working implements currently in 2B018 that are applicable to larger guns would be controlled in ECCN 0B602 and are discussed below.
Moving these items from 2B018 to 0B501 would retain the national security (NS Column 1), anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) and United Nations (UN) reasons for control and would raise the regional stability (RS) reason for control from RS Column 2 to RS Column 1. This would cause no change in destination-based license requirements, but would allow consideration of whether the export or reexport could contribute to instability in any region, not just the region to which the item is exported or reexported in considering whether to approve a license.
New ECCN 0B505 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on tooling, templates, jigs, mandrels, molds, dies, fixtures, alignment mechanisms, and test equipment, not enumerated in USML Category III, and “specially designed” “parts” and “components” therefor, that are “specially designed” for the “production” of ammunition other than for the ammunition specified in 0A505.b, .c or .d (certain shotgun shells with buckshot and without buckshot and certain blank ammunition). Equipment for manufacturing shotgun shells that do not contain buckshot would be controlled for the AT (North Korea only) and UN reasons for control, which are the reasons for control that currently apply to this equipment in ECCN 0B986. ECCN 0B505 would not include equipment for the hand loading of cartridges and shotgun shells, so this rule specifies this in the heading.
The equipment controlled in ECCN 0B505 is used to produce conventional ammunition and is similar to equipment that is in operation in a number of countries, some of which are not allies of the United States or members of multinational export control regimes. Possession of such equipment does not confer a significant military advantage on the United States, and thus its inclusion on the CCL is appropriate.
New ECCN 0B602 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on test, inspection and production equipment enumerated for commodities enumerated or otherwise described in ECCN 0A602.a or USML Category II. ECCN 0B602 would control eight specific types of equipment that currently are listed in paragraphs .e through .l of ECCN 2B018. Those eight specific types of equipment are: Gun barrel rifling and broaching machines and tools therefor; Gun barrel rifling machines; Gun barrel trepanning machines; Gun boring and turning machines; Gun honing machines of 6 feet (183 cm) stroke or more; Gun jump screw lathes; Gun rifling machines; and Gun straightening presses. ECCN 0B602 also would control one class of equipment that is included within ECCN 2B018 paragraph .n (jigs and fixtures and other metal-working implements or accessories of the kinds exclusively designed for use in the manufacture of items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II). Moving these items from 2B018 to 0B501 would retain the national security (NS Column 1), anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) and United Nations (UN) reasons for control and would raise the regional stability reason for control from RS Column 2 to RS Column 1. This would cause no change in destination-based license requirements, but would allow consideration of whether the export or reexport could contribute to instability in any region, not just the region to which the items is exported or reexported in considering whether to approve or reject a license application.
Additionally, ECCN 0B602 would control any other tooling and equipment that is “specially designed” for the production of items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II along with test and evaluation equipment and test models, including diagnostic instrumentation and physical test models, “specially designed” for items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II.
New ECCN 0D501 would apply national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls to “software” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” operation or maintenance of all commodities classified under ECCNs 0A501 or equipment under 0B501 except those commodities classified under 0A501.y. “Software” for ECCN 0A501.y would be controlled only for United Nations and anti-terrorism reasons to match the reason for control that applies to commodities classified under that paragraph.
New ECCN 0D505 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on “software” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” operation or maintenance of commodities controlled by ECCNs 0A505.a and .x (rifle, pistol, carbine and revolver ammunition and “specially designed” parts and components therefor) or 0B505.a and .x. However, only United Nations and anti-terrorism controls would apply to “software” for the blank ammunition in ECCN 0A505.d.
New ECCN 0D602 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on “software” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” operation or maintenance of commodities controlled by ECCNs 0A602 or 0B602.
New ECCN 0E501 would apply the national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN) and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) reasons for control to “technology” “required” for the “development” and “production” of firearms other than shotguns. This new ECCN also would apply the anti-terrorism and United Nations reasons for control to “technology” “required” for the operation, installation, maintenance, repair, or overhaul of such firearms. Controlling this “technology” under the EAR rather than the ITAR is appropriate because the “technology” for the “development,” “production,” operation, installation, maintenance, repair, and overhaul of the firearms to be described in 0A501 is widely available throughout the world and its possession does not confer a significant military or intelligence advantage on the United States.
New ECCN 0E502 would apply the crime control (CC Column 1) and United Nations (UN) reasons for control to “technology” required for the development or production of shotguns that would be controlled in new ECCN 0A502. Crime control and United Nations are the reasons for control currently imposed on “technology” required for the “development” or “production” of shotguns in ECCN 0E984. The only difference between shotguns currently on the CCL and those that would be added by this proposed rule is barrel length. BIS believes that “technology” related to shotguns does not vary significantly based on the barrel length of the shotgun. Attempts to apply different reasons for control or to control different types of technology based
New ECCN 0E504 would replace existing ECCN 0E987, which controls “technology” “required” for the “development,” or “production” of certain commodities controlled by 0A504. The new ECCN number is intended to make identifying items on the CCL easier by grouping similar or related items closer to each other. New ECCN 0E504 would also impose a United Nations (UN) control on the entire entry.
New ECCN 0E505 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on “technology” “required” for the “development,” “production,” operation, installation, maintenance, repair, overhaul or refurbishing of commodities controlled by 0A505.a and .x (rifle and pistol ammunition and “parts” and “components); 0B505 equipment for those commodities; and “software” for that equipment and those commodities controlled by 0D505. “Technology” for the “development” or “production” of buckshot shotgun shells would be controlled for crime control (CC Column 1) and UN reasons. United Nations and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls would apply to “technology” for the blank ammunition (controlled in 0A505.d) for firearms controlled in ECCN 0A501 and to “technology” for that ammunition and “technology” for “software” for that ammunition. Inclusion of this “technology” on the CCL is appropriate because, like the ammunition and production equipment addressed by this rule, it is widely available, including in countries that are not allies of the United States or members of multilateral export control regimes and thus confers no military advantage on the United States.
New ECCN 0E602 would impose national security (NS Column 1), regional stability (RS Column 1), United Nations (UN), and anti-terrorism (AT Column 1) controls on “technology” “required” for the “development,” “production,” operation, installation, maintenance, repair, overhaul or refurbishing of commodities controlled by ECCNs 0A602 or 0B602, or “software” controlled by 0D602.
To conform to new
With the proposed removal of ECCN 0A984 and the addition of 0A502 described above, this proposed rule would make the conforming change of removing and reserving 0A018.c since all the items classified in 0A018.c would be classified under other entries on the CCL. This change includes the removal of the note to 0A018.c.
ECCN 0E982 controls “technology” exclusively for the “development” or “production” of equipment controlled by ECCN 0A982 or 0A985. This rule would replace “0A985,” which applies to discharge type arms and some other crime control equipment, with 0A503 to conform to the replacement of ECCN 0A985 with new ECCN 0A503 proposed elsewhere in this rule.
To clarify an existing agency practice of controlling shotguns shells that contain only chemical irritants under 1A984, this proposed rule would revise the heading of 1A984. As described above, the same type of clarification would be made to ECCN 0A505.c under new Note 1 to paragraph (c). BIS considers these to be conforming changes to the removal of ECCN 0A986 and the addition of ECCN 0A505.c in this proposed rule.
As a conforming change, this rule would replace the reference to ECCN 2B018 in the related controls paragraph of ECCN 2B004 with references to ECCNs 0B501, 0B602 and 0B606. This rule would make no substantive changes to ECCN 2B004.
This proposed rule would remove and reserve paragraphs .e, .f, .g, .h, .i, .j, and .l from ECCN 2B018 because the commodities listed in those paragraphs would be listed in ECCN 0B602. It would remove paragraph .n, because the commodities listed in that paragraph would be controlled under either ECCNs 0B501 or 0B602 or under existing ECCN 0B606 in this proposed rule. It would remove paragraphs .a through .d, .m and .s, because the commodities listed in those paragraphs would be controlled in ECCN 0B606. It would remove paragraphs .o, .p, .q, and .r because the commodities listed in those paragraphs would be controlled in ECCN 0B501. The commodities described in the MT control in ECCN 2B018 currently listed as MT are controlled elsewhere in the EAR, so no additional changes are needed to add these commodities to other ECCNs.
Currently ECCN 2D018 controls software for the “development,” “production” or “use” of equipment controlled by ECCN 2B018. As a conforming change, this rule would replace the control text of ECCN 2D018 with a statement referring readers to ECCNs 0D501, 0D602 and 0D606.
As a conforming change, this rule would remove the reference to 0A987 in the Related Controls paragraph (2) and add in its place 0A504.
ECCN 0A918 controls “bayonets” for regional stability, anti-terrorism, and United Nations reasons. This proposed rule would remove bayonets from ECCN 0A918 and add them to the .y paragraph of proposed ECCN 0A501, where they would be subject to United Nations and anti-terrorism (AT column 1) reasons for control. Bayonets and the “technology” to produce them are available in many countries. Possession of bayonets does not confer a significant military advantage on the United States and attempting to restrict their availability by requiring a license for export to most destinations is unlikely to be effective. Therefore, for these reasons, this proposed rule does not retain a regional stability (RS column 2) control on bayonets because it is no longer warranted.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0A984 because all of the commodities that it currently controls would be controlled by either proposed ECCN 0A502 or 0A505. As conforming changes, references to ECCN 0A984 would be replaced with references to ECCN 0A502 or 0A505 or both, as appropriate in §§ 742.7(a)(1), (2) and (3); 742.17(f) and 748.12(a)(1) and in ECCN 0A018.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0A985 because all of the commodities that it currently controls would be controlled by proposed ECCN 0A503. As conforming changes, references to ECCN 0A985 would be replaced with references to ECCN 0A503 in §§ 740.20(b)(2); 742.7(a)(4) and (c); 746.7(a) and ECCN 0E982.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0A986 because all of the commodities that it currently controls would be controlled by proposed 0A505.c, including less than lethal rounds. As conforming changes, references to ECCN 0A986 would be replaced with references to ECCN 0A505, as appropriate in §§ 742.17(f); 742.19(a)(1); 746.3(b)(2) and 748.12(a)(1).
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0A987 because proposed ECCN 0A504 would control all commodities currently controlled by ECCN 0A987. As conforming changes, references to ECCN 0A987 would be replaced with references to ECCN 0A504, as appropriate in §§ 740.16(b)(2)(iv); 742.7(a)(1); 742.17(f); 744.9(a)(1) and (b); and 748.12(a)(1); and in ECCN 7A611.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0B986 because all of the commodities that it controls would be controlled in proposed ECCN 0B505.c. As conforming changes, references to ECCN 0B986 would be replaced with references to 0B505.c in §§ 742.19(a) and 772.1, definition of specially designed Note 1.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0E918, which controls “technology” for the “development,” “production,” or “use” of bayonets for regional stability, United Nations, and anti-terrorism reasons. Because “technology” for the “development,” “production,” or “use” of bayonets is widely known, any attempt to limit its dissemination through export license requirements is unlikely to be effective.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0E984, which controls “technology” for the development of shotguns and buckshot shotgun shells, because such “technology” would be controlled under proposed ECCN 0E502 (shotguns) or 0E505 (buckshot shotgun shells). As a conforming change, this proposed rule would replace a reference to ECCN 0E984 in § 742.7(a) with references to ECCNs 0E502 and 0E505.
This proposed rule would remove ECCN 0E987 because proposed ECCN 0E504 would control all “technology” currently controlled by ECCN 0E987. As conforming change, references to ECCN 0E987 would be replaced with references to ECCN 0E504, as appropriate in §§ 740.20(b)(2)(ii) and 742.7(a)(1).
This proposed rule would amend General Order No. 5, paragraph (e)(3) (Prior commodity jurisdiction determinations), in Supplement No. 1 to part 736, to add a reference in two places to the new 0x5zz ECCNs that would be created by this rule. This change to paragraph (e)(3) is a conforming change and is needed because paragraph (e)(3) now only references the “600 series” and 9x515 ECCNs. 0x5zz ECCNs would include new ECCN 0A501, 0A502, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, 0E502, 0E505. Paragraph (e)(2) is important because, for example, it ensures that items previously determined to be “subject to the EAR” and designated EAR99, would not be classified in a new ECCN being created to control items moved from the USML to the CCL, unless specifically enumerated by BIS in an amendment to the CCL. For example, most swivels and scope mounts for firearms have previously been determined through the CJ and classification process to not be “subject to the ITAR” and designated as EAR99. The classification of such “parts” would not be changed, provided the “part” was not subsequently changed, which would require a separate jurisdiction and classification analysis.
This proposed rule would apply the regional stability licensing policy set forth in § 742.6(b)(1)(i) of the EAR to the items controlled for regional stability reasons in ECCNs 0A501, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0A504, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, 0E504 and 0E505. That policy, which also applies to “600 series” and 9x515 items is case-by-case review “to determine whether the transaction is contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States, including the foreign policy interest of promoting the observance of human rights throughout the world.” This proposed rule would also revise the regional stability licensing policy set forth in the last sentence of paragraph (b)(1)(i) that is specific to the People's Republic of China for 9x515 items. This proposed rule would add ECCNs 0A501, 0A504, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, 0E504, and 0E505 to this sentence to specify that these firearms and related items will be subject to a policy of denial when destined to the People's Republic of China or a country listed in Country Group E:1. Lastly, this proposed rule would add a sentence to the end of paragraph (b)(1)(i) to make it explicit that applications for exports and reexports of ECCN 0A501, 0A504, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, 0E504, and 0E505 items would be subject to a policy of denial when there is reason to believe the transaction involves certain parties of concern. In addition, transactions involving criminal organizations, rebel groups, street gangs, or other similar groups or individuals, that may be disruptive to regional stability, including within individual countries would be subject to a policy of denial.
Many of the items in the new “600 series” ECCNs generally would be eligible for the same license exceptions and subject to the same restrictions on use of license exceptions as other “600 series” ECCNs. BIS intends that those restrictions be no more restrictive than the ITAR license exemption restrictions that currently apply to those items.
For the ECCNs currently on the CCL that would be renumbered and placed in closer proximity to the firearms-related items that would be removed from the USML and added to the CCL, these existing firearms-related items would continue to be eligible for the same EAR license exceptions, as they were prior to publication of this rule, unless otherwise restricted under § 740.2, if the requirements of the license exceptions are met.
Under this proposed rule, complete firearms controlled under ECCN 0A501 would not be eligible for License Exception LVS, 15 CFR 740.3. Firearms “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” controlled under ECCN 0A501, other than receivers (frames), and complete breech mechanisms, including castings, forgings or stampings thereof, would be eligible for License Exception LVS, with
Guns and armament and related items controlled under ECCN 0A602 would be eligible for License Exception LVS, with a limit of $500 net value per shipment.
Ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505 would not be eligible for License Exception LVS; however, ammunition parts and components would be eligible with a limit of $100 net value per shipment.
Test, inspection and production equipment controlled under ECCNs 0B501, 0B602 and 0B505 for firearms, guns and armament and ammunition/ordnance would be eligible for License Exception LVS with a limit of $3,000 net value per shipment, which is consistent with LVS eligibility for most 600 series ECCNs.
This proposed rule would amend the regulations at § 740.9 to state that License Exception TMP would not be available to export or reexport the items that are the subject of this rule to destinations in Country Group D:5 (
This proposed rule would limit temporary exports of firearms controlled under ECCN 0A501 and any shotgun with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled under ECCN 0A502 pursuant to License Exception TMP to exhibition and demonstration (§ 740.9(a)(5) of the EAR) and inspection, test, calibration, and repair (§ 740.9(a)(6) of the EAR). Consistent with the ITAR requirements previously applicable to temporary exports of the firearms covered by this rule (see 22 CFR 123.17(c), 123.22), exporters would continue to be required to file Electronic Export Information (EEI) to the Automated Export System (AES) for transactions involving such firearms that are authorized pursuant to License Exception TMP (
The proposed rule would also authorize the use of License Exception TMP for the export of ECCN 0A501 firearms temporarily in the United States for a period of not more than one year subject to the requirement that the firearms not be imported from or ultimately destined for certain proscribed or restricted countries. Certain information as described below would also be collected by CBP on behalf of BIS and done under existing or new Commerce paperwork collections. The proposed rule would also make eligibility to export under License Exception TMP for ECCN 0A501.a or .b or shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in ECCN 0A502 subject to the following conditions:
Upon the entry portion of a temporary import, the temporary importer would be required to provide the required statement to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), as proposed in paragraph (b)(5)(iv)(A).
The temporary importer would be required to include on the invoice or other appropriate import-related documentation (or electronic equivalents) provided to CBP a complete list and description of the 0A501 firearms being imported, including their serial numbers, model, make, caliber, quantity, and U.S. dollar value, as proposed in paragraph (b)(5)(iv)(B).
If the firearms are temporarily imported for a trade show, exhibition, demonstration, or testing, the temporary importer must provide to CBP the relevant invitation or registration documentation for the event and an accompanying letter that details the arrangements to maintain effective control of the firearms while they are in the United States, as proposed in paragraph (b)(5)(iv)(C).
At the time of export, the temporary importer or its agent as proposed in paragraph (b)(5)(v) would be required to provide the temporary import documentation (
The proposed rule would include a note to License Exception TMP to direct temporary importers and exporters to contact CBP at the port of import or export for the proper procedures to provide any data or documentation required by BIS.
This proposed rule would revise the regulations at § 740.11 to limit the applicability of License Exception GOV for firearms, “parts” and “components” controlled by ECCN 0A501 and ammunition controlled by 0A505 to exports, reexports and transfers for official use by U.S. government agencies and official and personal use by U.S. government employees (and the immediate families and household employees of those government employees) (§ 740.11(b)(2)(i) and (ii) of the EAR). This proposed authorization under License Exception GOV would treat 0A501 firearms in the same manner that other items that are subject to the EAR may be exported to U.S. government employees under License Exception GOV. It would not impose certain restrictions that are imposed by the current ITAR license exemption. The ITAR exemption authorizes exports of only non-automatic firearms and “parts” and “components.” License Exception GOV would authorize non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms and “parts” and “components.”
The ITAR exemption (22 CFR 123.18) authorizes shipments consigned to and for the use of servicemen's clubs, and for service members or civilian employees if the firearms are for personal use and the shipment is accompanied by a written authorization from the commanding officer concerned. The ITAR exemption also authorizes exports to other U.S. government employees for personal use if the chief of the U.S. diplomatic mission in the country of destination has approved in writing to the Department of State the specific types and qualities of firearms into that country. The exporter must present a copy of the written statement to the CBP Port Director. License Exception GOV would impose none of the foregoing limitations. BIS believes that the limitations are unnecessary. The EAR control exports for national security and foreign policy reasons. BIS believes that the restrictions imposed in the ITAR exemption primarily pertain to concerns over the security of U.S. government personnel and property located outside the United States. Those concerns may be addressed more appropriately through policies and procedures implemented by the U.S. government agencies whose personnel and properties are located outside the United States. Export license requirements are not needed to implement such policies.
All other items that are the subject of this rule would be subject to the limits on use of License Exception GOV that apply to 600 series items generally,
This proposed rule would revise License Exception BAG, § 740.14, to allow United States citizens and permanent resident aliens leaving the United States temporarily to take up to three firearms controlled by proposed ECCN 0A501 and up to 1,000 rounds of ammunition for such firearms controlled under ECCN 0A505.a for personal use while abroad. This proposed change to License Exception BAG would be made to be consistent with 22 CFR 123.17(c), which authorizes U.S. persons to take up to three non-automatic firearms and up to 1,000 cartridges therefor abroad for personal use. This proposed amendment to License Exception BAG would apply to both non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms. Consistent with the ITAR requirements previously applicable to temporary exports of the firearms and associated ammunition covered by this rule, BIS is proposing to modify § 758.1 of the EAR to make clear that exporters would continue to be required to file Electronic Export Enforcement (EEI) to the Automated Export System (AES) for transactions involving such firearms and associated ammunition that are otherwise authorized pursuant to License Exception BAG. BIS is aware that U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) has temporarily suspended the requirement to file EEI to the AES for personally-owned firearms and ammunition that are “subject to the ITAR” being exported under 22 CFR 123.17(c), due to operational challenges related to implementation.
Though BIS does not require prior authorization to use License Exception BAG, in order to facilitate the physical movement and subsequent importation of firearms authorized under this license exception, this information would need to be collected by CBP by requiring EEI filing in AES.
Travelers leaving the United States temporarily would be required to declare the 0A501 and 0A505 items to a CBP officer prior to departure from the United States and present the firearms, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” “attachments,” and ammunition they are exporting to the CBP officer for inspection, confirming that the authority for the export is License Exception BAG, that the exporter is compliant with its terms. Should exporters desire to contact CBP prior to departure, contact information and a list of U.S. air, land and sea ports of entry can be found at:
This proposed rule also would revise License Exception BAG to allow nonresident aliens leaving the United States to take firearms, “accessories,” “attachments,” “components,” “parts,” and ammunition controlled by ECCN 0A501 or 0A505 that they lawfully brought into the United States. This change would be consistent with 22 CFR 123.17(d), which authorizes foreign persons leaving the United States to take firearms and ammunition controlled under Category I(a) of the USML (both non-automatic and semi-automatic) that they lawfully brought into the United States. This proposed rule would not make changes to the availability of License Exception BAG for shotguns and shotgun shells authorized under paragraph (e)(1) or (2).
As a clarification to License Exception BAG, this proposed rule would add two sentences to the introductory text of paragraph (b)(4) to highlight the special provisions that apply in paragraph (e) for firearms and ammunition and in paragraph (h) for personal protective equipment under ECCN 1A613.c or .d. These two sentences would not change the existing requirement and have been included to assist the public in better identifying these special provisions.
This proposed rule would revise the regulations at § 740.20 to make firearms controlled under ECCN 0A501 and most “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” controlled under ECCN 0A501 ineligible for License Exception STA. Only those “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” that are controlled under paragraph .x (
This proposed rule would exempt gun “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” controlled under ECCN 0A501.x; test, inspection and production equipment and “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” in ECCN 0B501; “software” in 0D501; and “technology” in ECCN 0E501 from the License Exception STA end-use limitation set forth in § 740.20(b)(3)(ii) that applies to “600 series” items. That end-use limitation is intended to ensure that the military-related items controlled by most 600 series ECCNs are ultimately used by appropriate agencies of the governments of certain U.S allies or multilateral export control regime members. Because the aforementioned exempted items are not of a military nature, the limitation is not necessary. As a conforming change, this proposed rule also would remove ECCNs 0A985 and 0E987 in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) and add in their place 0A503 and 0E504. This change does not change the availability of License Exception STA, but simply reflects the fact that these items would now be controlled under ECCNs 0A503 and 0E504 and the License Exception STA exclusion would continue to apply to them.
This proposed rule would require that for commodities controlled by ECCN 0A501 exported or reexported transactions for which a license would be required, the exporter or reexporter must obtain, prior to submitting an application, an import permit (or copy thereof) if the importing country requires such permits for import of firearms. That import permit would be a record that must be kept by the exporter or reexporter as required by part 762 of the EAR. The purpose of this requirement is to assure foreign governments that their regulations concerning the importation of firearms are not circumvented. Obtaining an import certificate or equivalent official document issued by member states of the Organization of American States meets this requirement. To implement this change, this proposed rule would revise § 748.12 to include the commodities controlled under ECCNs 0A501 (except 0A501.y), 0A502, 0A504 (except 0A504.f) and 0A505 (except 0A505.d) within the list of commodities that are subject to the requirement and would add a new paragraph (e) requiring that import certificates or permits be obtained from countries other than OAS member states if those states require such a certificate or permit.
Consistent with other BIS licenses, including “600 series” and 9x515 items, licenses for firearms and ammunition that move from the USML to the CCL would be limited to the authorized end use and end users specified on the license and supporting documentation submitted as part of the license application. This means any change in the authorized end use or end user for a licensed transaction would require a BIS authorization. This existing requirement of BIS licenses is specified in § 750.7(a) and on the boiler plate text included on all BIS licenses. These requirements would also be applied to firearms and ammunition licenses. A change in end use or end user, including a change of authorized end use or end user within a single foreign country for a firearm or ammunition authorized under a BIS license, would require a BIS authorization. BIS does not propose any changes in this rule to these well-established and understood requirements on using BIS licenses. Applicants for firearms and ammunition licenses are also advised that BIS would continue to exercise its authority, as specified in § 748.11 in the Note 2 to paragraph (a), on a case-by-case basis to require a Statement by Ultimate Consignee and Purchaser as warranted.
The exporter, reexporter or transferor using a BIS license, including for firearms and ammunition licenses, would also be required pursuant to § 750.7(a) to inform the other parties identified on the license, such as the ultimate consignees and end users of the license's scope and of the specific conditions applicable to them. As an additional safeguard for firearms and ammunition licenses, BIS would when warranted include a license condition that would require the exporter, reexporter or transferor to receive from the other parties identified on the license a confirmation in writing that those other parties had received and agreed to the terms and conditions of the license. For example, the condition may state “Prior to using this license, the exporter (reexporter or transferor) and other parties to the license must agree to the conditions in writing and the exporter (reexporter or transferor) must keep this on file with their other records.” The documents described in this paragraph would be required to be kept for EAR recordkeeping purposes under part 762 of the EAR.
In § 743.4 (Conventional arms reporting), this rule would revise paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(i) to add ECCN 0A501.a and .b as commodities that would require Wassenaar Arrangement reporting and United Nations reporting under this conventional arms reporting section of the EAR. This requirement would assist the United States Government to meet its multilateral commitments for the special reporting requirements for exports of certain items listed on the Wassenaar Arrangement Munitions List and the UN Register of Conventional
In part 758 (Export Clearance Requirements), this rule would make certain changes to clarify that a filing of Electronic Export Information (EEI) to the Automated Export System (AES) would be required for exports of the firearms transferred from the USML pursuant to this rule regardless of value or destination, including exports to Canada. As noted above, this requirement will also apply, as is presently the case under the ITAR, for temporary exports of such items pursuant to License Exception TMP or BAG.
In addition, this rule proposes to expand the data elements required as part of an AES filing for these items to include serial numbers, make, model and caliber. This requirement would ensure law enforcement officials are able to effectively verify that firearms exports are properly authorized and in conformance with all applicable regulations, including those associated with the temporary export and subsequent return of controlled firearms and unused ammunition. Similar to the description above regarding whether BIS would publish an EEI filing requirement in AES for personally-owned firearms and ammunition exported under License Exception BAG in the final rule, these expanded data elements required as part of an AES filing would be included in the final rule if CBP has made such data easily enterable in AES. If the necessary changes were not made by the time the final rule was to be published, CBP may continue to rely on CBP Form 4457 as described above.
Temporary imports are transactions that involve both the temporary entry of an item into the U.S. from a foreign country and the subsequent export of that item from the U.S. To preserve the treatment of temporary import transactions for items in this rule that transfer from the USML in the ITAR to become subject to the EAR, BIS would need to create a process under the EAR to impose entry clearance requirements for temporary imports of such items based on BIS's authorities over U.S. exports.
Therefore, BIS proposes a temporary imports entry clearance requirement by adding new § 758.10. This new section would be limited to items in this rule that are both “subject to the EAR” and on the USMIL in 27 CFR 447.21. To allow such items to temporarily enter the U.S., this rule proposes a process to collect identifying information for the sole purpose of tracking items being temporarily imported for subsequent export. BIS would not impose a license requirement for such imports, but this information would be necessary to facilitate the export after a temporary import. The entry clearance requirement would be an EAR requirement and any false representation made under the new § 758.10 would be a violation of the EAR.
BIS is particularly interested in receiving comments on these temporary import provisions in § 758.10 and the subsequent export under paragraph (b)(5) of License Exception TMP. A license requirement is not being proposed for these temporary imports, but BIS is proposing an entry clearance requirement whereby, as described above, the exporter at the time of import would need to make a legal representation to the U.S. Government under the EAR that the item was being temporarily imported into the United States for subsequent export under paragraph (b)(5) of License Exception TMP. BIS also welcomes comments on whether there are advantages to how the ITAR regulates temporary imports of USMIL items that should be incorporated into the Commerce final rule.
In part 762 (Recordkeeping), this rule would make two changes to the recordkeeping requirements under the EAR. These changes would specify that certain records, that are already created and kept in the normal course of business, must be kept by the “exporter” or any other party to the transaction (
Specifically, in § 762.2 (Records to be retained), this rule would redesignate paragraph (a)(11) as (a)(12) and add a new paragraph (a)(11) to specify the following information must be kept as an EAR record: Serial number, make, model, and caliber for any firearm controlled in ECCN 0A501.a and for shotguns with barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in 0A502. The “exporter” or any other “party to the transaction” that creates or receives such records would be the person responsible for retaining this record.
In § 762.3 (Records exempt from recordkeeping requirements), this rule would narrow the scope of an exemption from the EAR recordkeeping requirements for warranty certificates. This rule would narrow this exclusion to specify the exclusion from the recordkeeping requirements does not apply (meaning the record would need to be kept under the recordkeeping requirements) for warranty certificates for any firearm controlled in ECCN 0A501.a and for shotguns with barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in 0A502, when the certificate issued is for an address located outside the United States. This would be an expansion of the EAR recordkeeping requirements, but because warranty certificates are already created and kept as part of normal business recordkeeping purposes, this expansion is not anticipated to create any new or increased burden under the EAR, because it is a document that is created in the normal course of business and are records that should be easily accessible. These recordkeeping requirements would assist the United States Government because this information is important to have access to for law enforcement concerns for these types of items.
The public may submit comments on whether they agree with this BIS determination that these changes described above to the EAR recordkeeping requirements would not result in increased burdens under the EAR.
This rule maintains the alignment with respect to firearms, guns and armament, and ammunition that exists between the USML and the WAML. USML Category I firearms that would be added to the CCL under ECCN 0A501 are controlled under category ML1 of the WAML. USML Category II guns and armament that would be added to the CCL under 0A602 are controlled under WAML category ML2.
Rather than strictly following the Wassenaar Arrangement Munitions List pattern of placing production
BIS believes that the controls in proposed ECCNs 0A501, 0A602 and 0A505 are consistent with controls imposed by the Wassenaar Arrangement.
BIS also invites comments from the public on the appropriate delayed effective date needed to prepare for the changes included in this proposed rule if published in final form. A 180-day delayed effective date was used for many of the other rules that moved items from the USML to the CCL, but certain rules included shorter delayed effective dates. BIS requests the public to provide comments on whether 180-delayed effective date is warranted, or if some shorter period, such as 90-day delated effective date is warranted for this proposed rule if published in final form.
All comments on this proposed rule must be in writing and submitted via the Federal rulemaking portal
Although the Export Administration Act of 1979 expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013) and as extended by the Notice of August 15, 2017, 82 FR 39005 (August 16, 2017), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act. BIS continues to carry out the provisions of the Export Administration Act of 1979, as appropriate and to the extent permitted by law, pursuant to Executive Order 13222, as amended by Executive Order 13637.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This proposed rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Although the items identified in this proposed rule have been determined to no longer warrant ITAR control by the President, the proliferation of such items has been identified as a threat to domestic and international security if not classified and controlled at the appropriate level under the EAR. Commerce estimates that the combined effect of all rules to be published adding items removed from the ITAR to the EAR would increase the number of license applications to be submitted to BIS by approximately 30,000 annually.
This proposed rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under E.O. 13132.
To control these items under the EAR that no longer warrant ITAR control, appropriate controls on the CCL needed to be included in the Department of Commerce proposed rule. This includes creating new ECCNs and revising certain existing ECCNs, as well as making other changes to the EAR to control items that would be moved from these three USML categories to the CCL once the section 38(f) notification process is completed and a final rule is published and becomes effective. Adding new controls and other requirements to the EAR imposes regulatory burdens on exporters and some other parties involved with those items, but compared to the burdens these exporters and other parties faced under the ITAR, these regulatory burdens, including financial costs, would be reduced significantly. The EAR is a more flexible regulatory structure whereby the items can still be controlled appropriately, but in a much more efficient way that would significantly reduce the burdens on exporters and other parties compared to the regulatory burdens they faced when the item were “subject to the ITAR.” Deregulatory does not mean a decontrol of these items.
For those items in USML Categories I, II and III that would move by this rule to the CCL, BIS would be collecting the necessary information using the form associated with OMB Control No. 0694-0088. BIS estimates that this form takes approximately 43.8 minutes for a manual or electronic submission. Using the State Department's estimate that 10,000 applicants annually would move from the USML to the CCL and BIS's estimate that 6,000 of the 10,000 applicants would require licenses under the EAR, that constitutes a burden of 4,380 hours for this collection under the EAR. Those companies are currently using the State Department's forms associated with OMB Control No. 1405-0003 for which the burden estimate is 1 hour per submission, which for 10,000 applications results in a burden of 10,000 hours. Thus, subtracting the BIS burden hours of 4,380 from the State Department burden hours of 10,000, the burden is reduced by 5,620 hours. The other 4,000 applicants may use license exceptions under the EAR or the “no license required” designation, so these applicants would not be required to submit license applications under the EAR.
In addition to the reduced burden hours of 5,620 hours, there would also be direct cost savings to the State Department that would result from the 10,000 license applications no longer being required under the ITAR once these items are moved to the EAR. The Department of State charges a registration fee to apply for a license under the ITAR. Pursuant to the AECA, ITAR, and associated delegations of authority, every person who engages in the business of brokering activities, manufacturing, exporting, or temporarily importing any defense articles or defense services must register with the Department of State and pay a registration fee. The Department of State adopted the current fee schedule to align the registration fees with the cost of licensing, compliance and other related activities. The Department of Commerce would incur additional costs to administer these controls and process license applications. However, the Department of Commerce does not charge a registration fee to apply for a license under the EAR, and we are unable to estimate the increase in costs to the Department of Commerce to process the new license applications.
For purposes of E.O. 13771 of January 30, 2017 (82 FR 9339), the Department of State and Department of Commerce proposed rules are expected to be “net deregulatory actions.” The Department of Commerce has conducted this analysis in close consultation with the Department of State, because of how closely linked the two proposed rules are for the regulated public and the burdens imposed under the U.S. export control system.
E.O. 13771 and guidance provided to the agencies on interpreting the intended scope of the E.O. do not use the term “net deregulatory action,” but rather refer to deregulatory actions. As outlined above, the Departments of State and Commerce proposed rules are closely linked and are best viewed as a consolidated regulatory action although being implemented by two different agencies. Also, as noted above, items may not be subject to both sets of regulations. Therefore, the movement of a substantial number of items from the USML determined to no longer warrant ITAR control to the CCL would result in a significant reduction of regulatory burden for exporters and other persons involved with such items that were previously “subject to the ITAR.”
The Departments of State and Commerce for purposes of E.O. 13771 have agreed to equally share the cost burden reductions that would result from the publication of these two integral regulatory actions. The Department of State would receive 50% and the Department of Commerce would receive 50% for purposes of calculating the deregulatory benefit of these two integral regulatory actions.
For purposes of the Department of Commerce, the “net deregulatory actions” would result in a permanent and recurring cost savings of $1,250,000 per year, and a reduction in burden hours by 2,810 hours. The reduction in burden hours by 2,810 would result in an additional cost savings of
For purposes of the Department of State, the “net deregulatory actions” would result in a permanent and recurring cost savings of $1,250,000 per year, and a reduction in burden hours by 2,810 hours. The reduction in burden hours by 2,810 would result in an additional cost savings of $126,281 to the exporting public. Therefore, the total dollar cost savings would be $1,376,281 for purposes of E.O. 13771 for the Department of State.
The Department of Commerce welcomes comments from the public on the analysis under E.O. 13771 described here. Comments from companies that would no longer need to register with the Department of State because the company only deals with items under USML Category I, II, and/or III that would move to the CCL would be particularly helpful for the Department of Commerce and Department of State to receive. Comments are also encouraged on any of the other collections that may be relevant for the items that would move from the USML to the CCL. In particular, data on Department of State forms that would no longer need to be submitted would be helpful to receive.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person may be required to respond to or be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
This proposed regulation involves four collections currently approved by OMB under these BIS collections and control numbers: Simplified Network Application Processing System (control number 0694-0088), which includes, among other things, license applications; License Exceptions and Exclusions (control number 0694-0137); Import Certificates and End-User Certificates (control number 0694-0093); Five Year Records Retention Period (control number 0694-0096); and the U.S. Census Bureau collection for the Automated Export System (AES) Program (control number 0607-0152).
This proposed rule would affect the information collection, under control number 0694-0088, associated with the multi-purpose application for export licenses. This collection carries a burden estimate of 43.8 minutes for a manual or electronic submission for a burden of 31,833 hours. BIS believes that the combined effect of all rules to be published adding items removed from the ITAR to the EAR that would increase the number of license applications to be submitted by approximately 30,000 annually, resulting in an increase in burden hours of 21,900 (30,000 transactions at 43.8 minutes each) under this control number. For those items in USML Categories I, II and III that would move by this rule to the CCL, the State Department estimates that 10,000 applicants annually will move from the USML to the CCL. BIS estimates that 6,000 of the 10,000 applicants would require licenses under the EAR, resulting in a burden of 4,380 hours under this control number. Those companies are currently using the State Department's forms associated with OMB Control No. 1405-0003 for which the burden estimate is 1 hour per submission, which for 10,000 applications results in a burden of 10,000 hours. Thus, subtracting the BIS burden hours of 4,380 from the State Department burden hours of 10,000, the burden would be reduced by 5,620 hours. (
This proposed rule would also affect the information collection under control number 0694-0137, addressing the use of license exceptions and exclusions. Some parts and components formerly on the USML, and “software” and “technology” for firearms and their parts and components formerly on the USML, would become eligible for License Exception STA under this proposed rule. Additionally, test, inspection and production equipment and “software” and “technology” related to those firearms and “parts” may become eligible for License Exception STA. BIS believes that the increased use of License Exception STA resulting from the combined effect of all rules to be published adding items removed from the ITAR to the EAR would increase the burden associated with control number 0694-0137 by about 23,858 hours (20,450 transactions at 1 hour and 10 minutes each).
BIS expects that this increase in burden as a result of the increased use of License Exception STA would be more than offset by a reduction in burden hours associated with approved collections related to the ITAR. This proposed rule addresses controls on firearms and “parts,” production equipment and “parts” and related “software” and “technology” and specifically non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms and their “parts” and “parts,” “components,” “attachments,” and “accessories” that are used in both semi-automatic and fully automatic firearms. BIS has made this determination on the basis that with few exceptions, the ITAR allows exemptions from license requirements only for exports to Canada, and requires a specific State Department authorization for most exports of firearms used for hunting and recreational purposes and exports of “parts,” “components,” “attachments,” and “accessories” that are common to military fully automatic firearms and their semi-automatic civilian counterparts, even when destined to NATO and other close allies and also requires State Department authorization for the exports necessary to produce “parts” and “components” for defense articles in the inventories of the United States and its NATO and other close allies. However, under the EAR, as specified in this proposed rule, a number of low-level parts would be eligible for export under License Exception STA and would therefore not require a license to such destinations.
This proposed rule would also affect the information collection under control number 0694-0096, for the five-year recordkeeping retention because of two changes this rule would make to part 762 of the EAR. This rule would add a new paragraph (a)(55) to specify the following information must be kept as an EAR record: Serial number, make, model, and caliber for any firearm controlled in ECCN 0A501.a and for shotguns with barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in 0A502. This rule would also require warranty certificates for these items to be retained for EAR recordkeeping. However, because these records are already created and kept as part of normal business recordkeeping, this expansion is not anticipated to create any new or increased burden under the EAR.
Even in situations in which a license would be required under the EAR, the burden would likely be reduced compared to a license requirement under the ITAR. In particular, license applications for exports of “technology” controlled by ECCN 0E501 would likely be less complex and burdensome than the authorizations required to export ITAR-controlled technology,
This proposed rule would affect the information collection under control number 0694-0093, import certificates and end-user certificates because of the changes included in this proposed rule. First, this regulation would require that for shipments requiring a license of firearms, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” controlled under ECCN 0A501, the exporter obtain a copy of the import certificate or permit if the importing country requires one for importing firearms. License applications for which an import or end-user certificate is already required under § 748.12 of the EAR would not be subject to this new requirement. BIS expects that this requirement would result in no change in the burden under control number 0694-0093. Second, this proposed rule also would require that prior to departure, travelers leaving the United States and intending to temporarily export firearms, parts, and components controlled under ECCN 0A501 under License Exception BAG declare the firearms and parts to a CBP officer and present the firearms and parts to the CBP officer for inspection. As the State Department also requires that persons temporarily exporting firearms, parts and components declare the items to CBP, BIS does not expect that the requirement in this proposed rule would result in a change in burden under control number 0694-0093.
Third, this proposed rule would affect the information collection under control number 0694-0093 by creating a new temporary import entry clearance requirement by adding § 758.10. This new section would be limited to items in this rule that are both “subject to the EAR” and on the United States Munitions List (USMIL) in 27 CFR 447.21. To allow such items to temporarily enter the U.S., this rule proposes a process to collect identifying information for the sole purpose of tracking items being temporarily imported for subsequent export under License Exception TMP. BIS would not impose a license requirement for such imports, but collecting this information would be necessary to facilitate the export after a temporary import. The temporary import entry clearance requirement in § 758.10 would also conform to the requirement in License Exception TMP under § 740.9(b)(5), so providing this information to CBP at the entry after a temporary import would facilitate the export phase of a temporary import under License Exception TMP. At the time of entry for a temporary import, the importer would need to provide a statement to CBP indicating that this shipment was being temporarily imported in accordance with the EAR for subsequent export in accordance with and under the authority of License Exception TMP. The entry clearance requirement would be an EAR requirement and any false representation made under the new § 758.10 would be a violation of the EAR. The importer would also need to provide CBP an invoice or other appropriate import-related documentation (or electronic equivalents) that includes a complete list and description of the items being imported, including their model, make, caliber, serial numbers, quantity, and U.S. dollar value. If imported for a trade show, exhibition, demonstration, or testing, the temporary importer would need to provide CBP with the relevant invitation or registration documentation for the event and an accompanying letter that details the arrangements to maintain effective control of the firearms while they are temporarily in the United States. Lastly, at the time of exportation, as requested by CBP, the exporter, or an agent acting on his or her behalf, would have to provide the entry document number or a copy of the CBP document under which the “item” “subject to the EAR” on the USMIL was temporarily imported under this proposed entry clearance requirement. As the State Department also requires that persons temporarily importing items in this rule provide the same type of information to CBP, BIS expects that the requirement in this proposed rule would result in a change in burden under control number 0694-0093, but because of the decrease under the burden imposed under the State collection the burden on the public will not change.
This proposed rule would also affect the information collection under control number 0607-0152, for filing EEI in AES because of one change this rule would make to part 758 of the EAR. Under new paragraph (b)(10), EEI would be required for all exports of items controlled under ECCNs 0A501.a or .b, shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled under ECCN 0A502, or ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505 except for .c, regardless of value or destination, including exports to Canada. Exports of these USML firearms and ammunition prior to
The proposed rule would include a requirement that, for all exports of items controlled under ECCNs 0A501.a or .b, or shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled under ECCN 0A502, in addition to any other required data for the associated EEI filing requirements, the exporter provide to CBP the serial number, make, model, and caliber for each firearm being exported. The Department of Commerce is carrying over the existing CBP filing requirements for items transferred from the USML to the CCL. The Department of Homeland Security currently is collecting these data elements for firearms “subject to the ITAR” under OMB Control Number 1651-0010 (CBP Form 4457, Certificate of Registration for Personal Effects Taken Abroad). There is no change to the information being collected or to the burden hours as a result of this rule. Separate from this rule, CBP will update the information collection to reflect the use of AES or some other simplified electronic alternative to CBP Form 4457.
Any comments regarding the collection of information associated with this proposed rule, including suggestions for reducing the burden, may be sent to Jasmeet K. Seehra, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), by email to
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA), 5 U.S.C. 601
The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) does not collect data on the size of entities that apply for and are issued export licenses. Although BIS is unable to estimate the exact number of small entities that would be affected by this proposed rule, it acknowledges that this proposed rule would affect some unknown number.
This proposed rule and the companion State rule would assist in making the United States Munitions List (22 CFR part 121) (USML) into a more “positive” list,
Category I of the USML, entitled “Firearms, Close Assault Weapons and Combat Shotguns,” consists of small arms (typically up to a caliber of 0.50 inches) and related parts, components, accessories, attachments, production equipment, software, and technology. Fully automatic firearms would remain on the USML as would parts and components that are used only in fully automatic firearms. However, non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms, their parts and components and the parts and components common to them and to fully automatic firearms would become subject to the EAR. Department of State officials have informed BIS that license applications for such parts and components are a high percentage of the license applications for USML articles reviewed by that department. Such parts and components are more likely to be produced by small businesses than are complete firearms.
Category II of the USML, entitled “Guns and Armament,” encompasses large guns (caliber over 0.50 inches) such as howitzers, mortars, cannon and recoilless rifles along with related parts, components, accessories, attachments, production equipment, software and technology. Modern large guns would remain on the USML. Guns and armament manufactured between 1890 and 1919 would be controlled on the CCL. Unless specified elsewhere on the CCL or the USML, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” “attachments,” production equipment, “software” and “technology” for large guns would be controlled on the CCL.
Category III of the USML, entitled “Ammunition/Ordnance,” encompasses ammunition for a wide variety of firearms that may have military, law enforcement or civilian applications. Ammunition that has only or primarily military applications would remain on the USML as would parts, production equipment, “software” and “technology” therefor. Ammunition for firearms that have primarily civilian and sporting application and ammunition that is used in civilian, law enforcement and military small arms would move to the CCL. In most instances, these firearms have a caliber of 0.50 inches or less although ammunition for manual firearms with a caliber up to 0.72 inches is included. The proposed rule also applies to “parts,” “components,” production equipment, and “technology” related to that ammunition.
Changing the jurisdictional status of the articles described in this proposed rule would reduce the burden on small entities (and other entities as well) through elimination of some license requirements, simpler license application procedures, and reduced (or eliminated) registration fees. In addition, small entities would be able to take advantage of
Small entities (and other entities as well) that are affected by this proposed
Furthermore, many exports and reexports of Category I firearms along with “parts” and “components” that would be placed on the CCL by this proposed rule, would become eligible for license exceptions that apply to shipments to United States government agencies, shipments valued at $500 or less, “parts” and “components” being exported for use as replacement parts, and temporary exports. Similarly, exports and reexports of Category II firearms “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” that would be placed on the CCL by this proposed rule would become eligible for those license exceptions, although the value limit would be $3,000. Category III ammunition placed on the CCL by this proposed rule would also become eligible with a value limit of $100.
Even for exports and reexports in which a license would be required, the process would be simpler and less costly under the EAR. When a USML Category I, II, or III article is moved to the CCL, the number of destinations for which a license is required would remain largely unchanged. However, the burden on the license applicant would decrease because the licensing procedure for CCL items is simpler and more flexible than the licensing procedure for USML defense articles.
Under the USML licensing procedure, an applicant must include a purchase order or contract with its application. There is no such requirement under the CCL licensing procedure. This difference gives the CCL applicant at least two advantages. First, the applicant has a way of determining whether the U.S. Government would authorize the transaction before it enters into potentially lengthy, complex and expensive sales presentations or contract negotiations. Under the USML licensing procedure, the applicant would need to caveat all sales presentations with a reference to the need for government approval and would more likely have to engage in substantial effort and expense with the risk that the government might reject the application. Second, a CCL license applicant need not limit its application to the quantity or value of one purchase order or contract. It may apply for a license to cover all of its expected exports or reexports to a particular consignee over the life of a license, reducing the total number of licenses for which the applicant must apply.
In addition, many applicants exporting or reexporting items that this proposed rule would transfer from the USML to the CCL would realize cost savings through the elimination of some or all registration fees currently assessed under the ITAR. This is particularly relevant to small- and medium-sized companies that manufacture or export parts and components for Category I firearms. Registration fees for manufacturers and exporters of articles on the USML start at $2,250 per year, increase to $2,750 for organizations applying for one to ten licenses per year and further increase to $2,750 plus $250 per license application (subject to a maximum of three percent of total application value) for those who need to apply for more than ten licenses per year. There are no registration or application processing fees for applications to export items currently listed on the CCL. Once the items that are the subject to this proposed rulemaking are removed from the USML and added to the CCL, entities currently applying for licenses from the Department of State could find their registration fees reduced if the number of USML licenses those entities need declines. If an entity's entire product line is moved to the CCL, then its ITAR registration and registration fee requirement would be eliminated.
Finally,
For items currently on the CCL that would be moved from existing ECCNs to the new “600 series,” license exception availability would be narrowed somewhat. However, BIS believes that the increased burden imposed by those actions would be offset substantially by the reduction in burden attributable to the moving of items from the USML to CCL and the compliance benefits associated with the consolidation of all WAML items subject to the EAR in one series of ECCNs.
BIS is unable to determine the precise number of small entities that would be affected by this proposed rule. Based on the facts and conclusions set forth above, BIS believes that any burdens imposed by this proposed rule would be offset by a reduction in the number of items that would require a license, simpler export license applications, reduced or eliminated registration fees, and application of a
Exports.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Exports, Terrorism.
Administrative practice and procedure, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Terrorism.
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Business and industry, Confidential business information, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, parts 736, 740, 742, 743, 744, 746, 748, 758, 762, 772 and 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) are proposed to be amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4601
(e) * * *
(3)
50 U.S.C. 4601
The additions read as follows:
(a) * * * This paragraph (a) does not authorize any export of a commodity controlled under ECCNs 0A501.a or .b, or shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled under ECCN 0A502 to, or any export of such an item that was imported into the United States from, a country in Country Group D:5 (Supplement No. 1 of this part), or from Russia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, or Uzbekistan. The only provisions of this paragraph (a) that are eligible for use to export such items are paragraph (a)(5) of this section (“Exhibition and demonstration”) and paragraph (a)(6) of this section (“Inspection, test, calibration, and repair”). In addition, this paragraph (a) may not be used to export more than 75 firearms per shipment. In accordance with the requirements in § 758.1(b)(10) and (g)(4) of the EAR, the exporter or its agent must provide documentation that includes the serial number, make, model, and caliber of each firearm being exported by filing these data elements in an EEI filing in AES. In accordance with the exclusions in License Exception TMP under paragraph (b)(5), the entry clearance requirements in § 758.1(b)(10) do not permit the temporary import of firearms controlled in ECCN 0A501.a or .b that are shipped from or manufactured in a Country Group D:5 country; or that are shipped from or manufactured in Russia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, or Uzbekistan (except for any firearm model controlled by 0A501 that is specified under Annex A in Supplement No. 4 to part 740, or shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in ECCN 0A502 that are shipped from or manufactured in a Country Group D:5 country, or from Russia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, or Uzbekistan, because of the exclusions in License Exception TMP under paragraph (b)(5).
(b)
(1) * * * No provision of paragraph (b) of this section, other than paragraph (b)(3), (4), or (5), may be used to export firearms controlled by ECCN 0A501.a, .b or shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in ECCN 0A502.
(5)
(i) The firearms were not shipped from or manufactured in a U.S. arms embargoed country,
(ii) The firearms were not shipped from or manufactured in Russia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, or Uzbekistan, except for any firearm model controlled by 0A501 that is specified under Annex A in Supplement No. 4 to part 740; and
(iii) The firearms are not ultimately destined to a U.S. arms embargoed country,
(iv) When the firearms entered the U.S. as a temporary import, the temporary importer or its agent:
(A) Provided the following statement to U.S. Customs and Border Protection: “This shipment will be exported in accordance with and under the authority of License Exemption TMP (15 CFR 740.9(b)(5))”;
(B) Provided to U.S. Customs and Border Protection an invoice or other appropriate import-related documentation (or electronic equivalents) that includes a complete list and description of the firearms being temporarily imported, including their model, make, caliber, serial numbers, quantity, and U.S. dollar value; and
(C) Provided (if temporarily imported for a trade show, exhibition,
(v) In addition to the export clearance requirements of part 758 of the EAR, the exporter or its agent must provide the import documentation related to paragraph (b)(5)(iv)(B) of this section to U.S. Customs and Border Protection at the time of export.
The additions read as follows:
* * * Commodities listed in ECCN 0A501 are eligible only for transactions described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. Any item listed in a 0x5zz ECCN for export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to an E:1 country are eligible only for transactions described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) solely for U.S. government official use of this section.
(b) * * *
(4)
(e)
(3) A United States citizen or a permanent resident alien leaving the United States may export under this License Exception firearms, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” or “attachments” controlled under ECCN 0A501 and ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505.a, subject to the following limitations:
(i) Not more than three firearms and 1,000 rounds of ammunition may be taken on any one trip.
(ii) “Parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” exported pursuant to this paragraph must be of a kind and limited to quantities that are reasonable for the activities described in paragraph (e)(3)(iv) of this section or that are necessary for routine maintenance of the firearms being exported.
(iii) The commodities must be with the person's baggage.
(iv) The commodities must be for the person's exclusive use and not for resale or other transfer of ownership or control. Accordingly, except as provided in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, firearms, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” “attachments,” and ammunition, may not be exported permanently under this License Exception. All firearms, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” or “attachments” controlled under ECCN 0A501 and all unused ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505.a exported under this License Exception must be returned to the United States.
(v) Travelers leaving the United States temporarily are required to declare the firearms, “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” “attachments,” and ammunition being exported under this license exception to a Customs and Border Protection (CBP) officer prior to departure from the United States and present such items to the CBP officer for inspection, confirming that the authority for the export is License Exception BAG and that the exporter is compliant with its terms.
(4) A nonresident alien leaving the United States may export or reexport under this License Exception only such firearms controlled under ECCN 0A501 and ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505 as he or she brought into the United States under the provisions of Department of Justice Regulations at 27 CFR 478.115(d).
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) License Exception STA may not be used for:
(A) Any item controlled in ECCNs 0A501.a, .b, .c, .d, or .e; 0A981; 0A982; 0A983; 0A503, 0E504, 0E982; or
(B) Shotguns with barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in 0A502.
(a)
(1) German Model P08 Pistol = SMCR.
(2) IZH 34M, .22 Target pistol.
(3) IZH 35M, .22 caliber Target pistol.
(4) Mauser Model 1896 pistol = SMCR.
(5) MC-57-1 pistol.
(6) MC-1-5 pistol.
(7) Polish Vis Model 35 pistol = SMCR.
(8) Soviet Nagant revolver = SMCR.
(9) TOZ 35, .22 caliber Target pistol.
(10) MTs 440.
(11) MTs 57-1.
(12) MTs 59-1.
(13) MTs 1-5.
(14) TOZ-35M (starter pistol).
(15) Biathlon-7K.
(b)
(1) BARS-4 Bolt Action carbine.
(2) Biathlon target rifle, .22.
(3) British Enfield rifle = SMCR.
(4) CM2, .22 target rifle (also known as SM2, .22).
(5) German model 98K = SMCR.
(6) German model G41 = SMCR.
(7) German model G43 = SMCR.
(8) IZH-94.
(9) LOS-7, bolt action.
(10) MC-7-07.
(11) MC-18-3.
(12) MC-19-07.
(13) MC-105-01.
(14) MC-112-02.
(15) MC-113-02.
(16) MC-115-1.
(17) MC-125/127.
(18) MC-126.
(19) MC-128.
(20) Saiga.
(21) Soviet Model 38 carbine = SMCR.
(22) Soviet Model 44 carbine-SMCR.
(23) Soviet Model 91/30 rifle = SMCR.
(24) TOZ 18, .22 bolt action.
(25) TOZ 55.
(26) TOZ 78.
(27) Ural Target, .22lr.
(28) VEPR rifle.
(29) Winchester Model 1895, Russian Model rifle = SMCR.
(30) Sever—double barrel.
(31) IZH18MH single barrel break action.
(32) MP-251 over/under rifle.
(33) MP-221 double barrel rifle.
(34) MP-141K.
(35) MP-161K.
(36) MTs 116-1.
(37) MTs 116M.
(38) MTs 112-02.
(39) MTs 115-1.
(40) MTs 113-02.
(41) MTs 105-01.
(42) MTs 105-05.
(43) MTs 7-17 combination gun.
(44) MTs 7-12-07 rifle/shotgun.
(45) MTs 7-07.
(46) MTs 109-12-07 rifle.
(47) MTs 109-07 rifle.
(48) MTs 106-07 combination.
(49) MTs 19-97.
(50) MTs 19-09.
(51) MTs 18-3M.
(52) MTs 125.
(53) MTs 126.
(54) MTs 127.
(55) Berkut-2.
(56) Berkut-2M1.
(57) Berkut-3.
(58) Berkut-2-1.
(59) Berkut-2M2.
(60) Berkut-3-1.
(61) Ots-25.
(62) MTs 20-07.
(63) LOS-7-1.
(64) LOS-7-2.
(65) LOS-9-1.
(66) Sobol (Sable).
(67) Rekord.
(68) Bars-4-1.
(69) Saiga.
(70) Saiga-M.
(71) Saiga-308.
(72) Saiga-308-1.
(72) Saiga-308-2.
(74) Saiga-9.
(75) Korshun.
(76) Ural-5-1.
(77) Ural 6-1.
(78) Ural-6-2.
(79) SM-2.
(80) Biatlon-7-3.
(81) Biatlon-7-4.
(82) Rekord-1.
(83) Rekord-2.
(84) Rekord-CISM.
(85) Rekord-1-308.
(86) Rekord-2-308.
(87) Rekord-1-308-CISM.
(88) VEPR.
(89) VEPR Super.
(90) VEPR Pioner.
(91) VEPR Safari.
(92) TOZ 109.
(93) KO 44-1.
(94) TOZ 78-01.
(95) KO 44.
(96) TOZ 99.
(97) TOZ 99-01.
(98) TOZ 55-01 Zubr.
(99) TOZ 55-2 Zubr.
(100) TOZ 120 Zubr.
(101) MTs 111.
(102) MTs 109.
(103) TOZ 122.
(104) TOZ 125.
(105) TOZ 28.
(106) TOZ 300.
50 U.S.C. 4601
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Applications for exports and reexports of ECCN 0A501, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0A504, 0D505, 0E501, 0E504, and 0E505 items; 9x515 items and “600 series” items and will be reviewed on a case-by-case basis to determine whether the transaction is contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States, including the foreign policy interest of promoting the observance of human rights throughout the world. * * * When destined to the People's Republic of China or a country listed in Country Group E:1 in supplement no. 1 to part 740 of the EAR, items classified under ECCN 0A501, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, 0E504, and 0E505 or any 9x515 ECCN will be subject to a policy of denial. In addition, applications for exports and reexports of ECCN 0A501, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, 0E504, and 0E505 items; when there is reason to believe the transaction involves criminal organizations, rebel groups, street gangs, or other similar groups or individuals, that may be disruptive to regional stability, including within individual countries, will be subject to a policy of denial.
(a) * * *
(1) Crime control and detection instruments and equipment and related “technology” and “software” identified in the appropriate ECCNs on the CCL under CC Column 1 in the Country Chart column of the “License Requirements” section. A license is required to countries listed in CC Column 1 (Supplement No. 1 to part 738 of the EAR). Items affected by this requirement are identified on the CCL under the following ECCNs: 0A502, 0A504, 0A505.b, 0A978, 0A979, 0E502, 0E505 (“technology” for “development” or for “production” of buckshot shotgun shells controlled under ECCN 0A505.b), 1A984, 1A985, 3A980, 3A981, 3D980, 3E980, 4A003 (for fingerprint computers only), 4A980, 4D001 (for fingerprint computers only), 4D980, 4E001 (for fingerprint computers only), 4E980, 6A002 (for police-model infrared viewers only), 6E001 (for police-model infrared viewers only), 6E002 (for police-model infrared viewers only), and 9A980.
(2) Shotguns with a barrel length greater than or equal to 24 inches, identified in ECCN 0A502 on the CCL under CC Column 2 in the Country Chart column of the “License
(3) Shotguns with barrel length greater than or equal to 24 inches, identified in ECCN 0A502 on the CCL under CC Column 3 in the Country Chart column of the “License Requirements” section only if for sale or resale to police or law enforcement entities in countries listed in CC Column 3 (Supplement No. 1 to part 738 of the EAR).
(4) Certain crime control items require a license to all destinations, except Canada. These items are identified under ECCNs 0A982, 0A503, and 0E982. Controls for these items appear in each ECCN; a column specific to these controls does not appear in the Country Chart (Supplement No. 1 to part 738 of the EAR).
(c)
(a)
(f)
50 U.S.C. 4601
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) ECCN 0A501.a and .b.
(2) * * *
(i) ECCN 0A501.a and .b.
(h)
50 U.S.C. 4601
50 U.S.C. 4601
50 U.S.C. 4601
The revisions and additions read as follows.
License applications for certain firearms and related commodities require support documents in accordance with this section. For destinations that are members of the Organization of American States (OAS), an FC Import Certificate or equivalent official document is required in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. For other destinations that require a firearms import or permit, the firearms import certificate or permit is required in accordance with paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section.
(a)
(1)
(e)
(1) A license is not required for the export or reexport; or
(2) The exporter is required to obtain an import or end-user certificate or other equivalent official document pursuant to paragraphs (a) thorough (d) of this section and has, in fact, complied with that requirement.
(3)(i) The number or other identifying information of the import certificate or permit must be stated on the license application.
(ii) If the country to which the commodities are being exported does not require an import certificate or permit for firearms imports, that fact must be noted on any license application for ECCN 0A501 or 0A505 commodities.
50 U.S.C. 4601
(b) * * *
(7) For all items exported under authorization Validated End-User (VEU);
(8) For all exports of tangible items subject to the EAR where parties to the transaction, as described in § 748.5(d) through (f) of the EAR, are listed on the Unverified List (Supplement No. 6 to part 744 of the EAR), regardless of value or destination;
(9) For items that fall under ECCNs that list CC Column 1 and 3 and RS Column 2 (see Supplement No. 1 to part 738 of the EAR) as reasons for control and such items are for export, regardless of value, to India; or
(10) For all exports of items controlled under ECCNs 0A501.a or .b, shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled under ECCN 0A502, or ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505 except for .c, regardless of value or destination, including exports to Canada.
(c) * * *
(1) License Exception Baggage (BAG), except for exports of items controlled under ECCNs 0A501.a or .b, shotguns with a barrel length less than 18 inches controlled under ECCN 0A502, or ammunition controlled under ECCN 0A505, as set forth in § 740.14 of the EAR. See 15 CFR 30.37(x) of the FTR;
(g) * * *
(4)
(a)
(1) An authorization under the EAR is
(2) Permanent imports are regulated by the Attorney General under the direction of the Department of Justice's Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (see 27 CFR parts 447, 478, 479, and 555).
(b)
(1) At the time of entry into the U.S. of the temporary import:
(i) Provide the following statement to U.S. Customs and Border Protection: “This shipment is being temporarily imported in accordance with the EAR. This shipment will be exported in accordance with and under the authority of License Exception TMP (15 CFR 740.9(b)(5));”
(ii) Provide to U.S. Customs and Border Protection an invoice or other appropriate import-related documentation (or electronic equivalents) that includes a complete list and description of the firearms being temporarily imported, including their model, make, caliber, serial numbers, quantity, and U.S. dollar value; and
(iii) Provide (if temporarily imported for a trade show, exhibition, demonstration, or testing) to U.S. Customs and Border Protection the relevant invitation or registration documentation for the event and an accompanying letter that details the arrangements to maintain effective control of the firearms while they are in the United States.
(2) At the time of export, in accordance with the U.S. Customs and Border Protection procedures, the eligible exporter, or an agent acting on the filer's behalf, must as required under § 758.1(b)(10) of the EAR file the export information with CBP by filing EEI in AES, noting the applicable EAR authorization as the authority for the export, and provide as requested by CBP, the entry document number or a copy of the CBP document under which the “item” subject to the EAR” on the USMIL was temporarily imported.
50 U.S.C. 4601
(a) * * *
(11) The serial number, make, model, and caliber for any firearm controlled in ECCN 0A501.a and for shotguns with barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in 0A502 that have been exported. The “exporter” or any other party to the transaction (
(a) * * *
(5) Warranty certificate, except for a warranty certificate issued for an address located outside the United States for any firearm controlled in ECCN 0A501.a and for shotguns with barrel length less than 18 inches controlled in 0A502;
50 U.S.C. 4601
50 U.S.C. 4601
a. [RESERVED]
b. “Specially designed” components and parts for ammunition, except cartridge cases, powder bags, bullets, jackets, cores, shells, projectiles, boosters, fuses and components, primers, and other detonating devices and ammunition belting and linking machines (all of which are “subject to the ITAR”). (See 22 CFR parts 120 through 130);
c. [RESERVED]
d. [RESERVED]
a. Non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms of caliber less than or equal to .50 inches (12.7 mm).
b. Non-automatic and non-semi-automatic rifles, carbines, revolvers or pistols with a caliber greater than .50 inches (12.7 mm) but less than or equal to .72 inches (18.0 mm).
c. The following types of “parts” and “components” if “specially designed” for a commodity controlled by paragraph .a or .b of this entry, or USML Category I (unless listed in USML Category I(g) or (h)): Barrels, cylinders, barrel extensions, mounting blocks (trunnions), bolts, bolt carriers, operating rods, gas pistons, trigger housings, triggers, hammers, sears, disconnectors, pistol grips that contain fire control “parts” or “components” (
d. Detachable magazines with a capacity of greater than 16 rounds “specially designed” for a commodity controlled by paragraph .a or .b of this entry.
e. Receivers (frames) and complete breech mechanisms, including castings, forgings or stampings thereof, “specially designed” for a commodity by controlled by paragraph .a or .b of this entry.
f. through w. [Reserved]
x. “Parts” and “components” that are “specially designed” for a commodity classified under paragraphs .a through .c of this entry or the USML and not elsewhere specified on the USML or CCL.
y. Specific “parts,” “components,” “accessories” and “attachments” “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control in this ECCN or common to a defense article in USML Category I and not elsewhere specified in the USML or CCL.
y.1. Stocks or grips, that do not contain any fire control “parts” or “components” (
y.2. Scope mounts or accessory rails;
y.3. Iron sights;
y.4. Sling swivels;
y.5. Butt plates or recoil pads; and
y.6. Bayonets.
a. Telescopic sights.
b. Holographic sights.
c. Reflex or “red dot” sights.
d. Reticle sights.
e. Other sighting devices that contain optical elements.
f. Laser aiming devices or laser illuminators “specially designed” for use on firearms, and having an operational wavelength exceeding 400 nm but not exceeding 710 nm.
g. Lenses, other optical elements and adjustment mechanisms for articles in paragraphs .a, .b, .c, .d, .e or .i.
h. [Reserved]
i. Riflescopes that were not “subject to the EAR” as of [DATE ONE DAY PRIOR TO THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE] and are “specially designed” for use in firearms that are “subject to the ITAR.”
a. Ammunition for firearms controlled by ECCN 0A501 and not enumerated in paragraph .b, .c or .d of this entry or in USML Category III.
b. Buckshot (No. 4 .24” diameter and larger) shotgun shells.
c. Shotgun shells (including less than lethal rounds) that do not contain buckshot; and “specially designed” “parts” and “components” of shotgun shells.
d. Blank ammunition for firearms controlled by ECCN 0A501 and not enumerated in USML Category III.
e. through w. [Reserved]
x. “Parts” and “components” that are “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control in this ECCN or a defense article in USML Category III and not elsewhere specified on the USML, the CCL or paragraph .d of this entry.
a. Guns and armament manufactured between 1890 and 1919.
b. Military flame throwers with an effective range less than 20 meters.
c. through w. [Reserved]
x. “Parts,” and “components,” that are “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control in paragraphs .a or .b of this ECCN or a defense article in USML Category II and not elsewhere specified on the USML or the CCL.
a. Small arms chambering machines.
b. Small arms deep hole drilling machines and drills therefor.
c. Small arms rifling machines.
d. Small arms spill boring machines.
e. Dies, fixtures, and other tooling “specially designed” for the “production” of the items controlled in 0A501.a through .x. or USML Category I.
a. Tooling, templates, jigs, mandrels, molds, dies, fixtures, alignment mechanisms, and test equipment, not enumerated in USML Category III that are “specially designed” for the “production” of commodities controlled by ECCN 0A505.a or .x or USML Category III.
b. Equipment “specially designed” for the “production” of commodities in ECCN 0A505.b.
c. Equipment “specially designed” for the “production” of commodities in ECCN 0A505.c.
d. Equipment “specially designed” for the “production” of commodities in ECCN 0A505.d.
e. through .w [Reserved]
x. “Parts” and “components” “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control in paragraph .a of this entry.
a. The following commodities if “specially designed” for the “development” or “production” of commodities enumerated in ECCN 0A602.a or USML Category II:
a.1. Gun barrel rifling and broaching machines and tools therefor;
a.2. Gun barrel rifling machines;
a.3. Gun barrel trepanning machines;
a.4. Gun boring and turning machines;
a.5. Gun honing machines of 6 feet (183 cm) stroke or more;
a.6. Gun jump screw lathes;
a.7. Gun rifling machines; and
a. 8. Gun straightening presses.
b. Jigs and fixtures and other metal-working implements or accessories of the kinds exclusively designed for use in the manufacture of items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II.
c. Other tooling and equipment, “specially designed” for the “production” of items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II.
d. Test and evaluation equipment and test models, including diagnostic instrumentation and physical test models, “specially designed” for items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II.
a. “Technology” “required” for the “development,” or “production” of commodities controlled by ECCN 0A501 (other than 0A501.y) or 0B501.
b. “Technology” “required” for the operation, installation, maintenance, repair, or overhaul of commodities controlled by ECCN 0A501 (other than 0A501.y) or 0B501.
a. A controlled thermal environment within the closed cavity and possessing a chamber cavity with an inside diameter of 406 mm or more;
b. Having any of the following:
b.1. A maximum working pressure exceeding 207 MPa;
b.2. A controlled thermal environment exceeding 1,773 K (1,500 °C);
b.3. A facility for hydrocarbon impregnation and removal of resultant gaseous degradation products.
No commodities currently are controlled by this entry. Commodities formerly controlled by paragraphs .a through .d, .m and .s of this entry are controlled in ECCN 0B606. Commodities formerly controlled by paragraphs .e through .l of this entry are controlled by ECCN 0B602. Commodities formerly controlled by paragraphs .o through .r of this entry are controlled by ECCN 0B501. Commodities formerly controlled by paragraph .n of this entry are controlled in ECCN 0B501 if they are “specially designed” for the “production” of the items controlled in ECCN 0A501.a through .x or USML Category I and controlled in ECCN 0B602 if they are of the kind exclusively designed for use in the manufacture of items in ECCN 0A602 or USML Category II.
No software is currently controlled under this entry. See ECCNs 0D501, 0D602 and 0D606 for software formerly controlled under this entry.
See § 743.1 of the EAR for reporting requirements for exports under License Exceptions, and Validated End-User authorizations.
See § 743.1 of the EAR for reporting requirements for exports under License Exceptions, and Validated End-User authorizations.
a. Guidance or navigation systems, not elsewhere specified on the USML, that are “specially designed” for a defense article on the USML or for a 600 series item.
b. to w. [RESERVED]
x. “Parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments,” including accelerometers, gyros, angular rate sensors, gravity meters (gravimeters), and inertial measurement units (IMUs), that are “specially designed” for defense articles controlled by USML Category XII or items controlled by 7A611, and that are NOT:
1. Enumerated or controlled in the USML or elsewhere within ECCN 7A611;
2. Described in ECCNs 6A007, 6A107, 7A001, 7A002, 7A003, 7A101, 7A102 or 7A103; or
3. Elsewhere specified in ECCN 7A611.y or 3A611.y.
y. Specific “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control in this ECCN or a defense article in Category XII and not elsewhere specified on the USML or in the CCL, as follows, and “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” “specially designed” therefor:
y.1 [RESERVED]
Department of State.
Proposed rule.
The Department of State (the Department) proposes to amend the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) to revise Categories I (firearms, close assault weapons and combat shotguns), II (guns and armament) and III (ammunition and ordnance) of the U.S. Munitions List (USML) to describe more precisely the articles warranting export and temporary import control on the USML. Items removed from the USML would become subject to the Export Administration Regulations (EAR).
The Department will accept comments on this proposed rule until July 9, 2018.
Interested parties may submit comments within 45 days of the date of publication by one of the following methods:
•
•
Comments received after that date will be considered if feasible, but consideration cannot be assured. Those submitting comments should not include any personally identifying information they do not desire to be made public or information for which a claim of confidentiality is asserted, because those comments and/or transmittal emails will be made available for public inspection and copying after the close of the comment period via the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls website at
Robert Monjay, Office of Defense Trade Controls Policy, Department of State, telephone (202) 663-2817; email
The Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC), U.S. Department of State, administers the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) (22 CFR parts 120 through 130). The items subject to the jurisdiction of the ITAR,
Pursuant to section 38(a)(1) of the Arms Export Control Act (AECA), all defense articles controlled for export or import are part of the United States Munitions List under the AECA. All references to the USML in this rule, however, are to the list of AECA defense articles that are controlled for purposes of export or temporary import pursuant to the ITAR, and not to the list of AECA defense articles on the United States Munitions Import List (USMIL) that are controlled by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) for purposes of permanent import under its regulations at 27 CFR part 447. References to the USMIL are to the list of AECA defense articles controlled by ATF for purposes of permanent import.
Section 38(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the AECA, requires, with limited exceptions, registration of persons who engage in the business of brokering activities with respect to the manufacture, export, import, or transfer of any defense article or defense service designated by the President as such under section 38(a)(1) and licensing for such activities. Through Executive Order 13637, the President delegated the responsibility for registration and licensing of brokering activities to the Department of State with respect to defense articles or defense services controlled either for purposes of export by the Department of State or for purposes of permanent import by ATF. Section 129.1(b) of the ITAR states this requirement. As such, all defense articles described in the USMIL or the USML are subject to the brokering controls administered by the U.S. Department of State in part 129 of the ITAR. The transfer of defense articles from the ITAR's USML to the EAR's CCL for purposes of export controls does not affect the list of defense articles controlled on the USMIL under the AECA for purposes of permanent import or brokering controls for any brokering activity, including facilitation in their manufacture, export, permanent import, transfer, reexport, or retransfer. This rule proposes adding a new paragraph (b)(2)(vii) to § 129.2 to update the enumerated list of actions that are not considered brokering. This change is a conforming change and is needed to address the movement of items from the USML to the CCL that will be subject to the brokering controls, to ensure that the U.S. government does not impose a double licensing requirement on the export, reexport or retransfer of such items.
The Department of State is engaged in an effort to revise the U.S. Munitions List so that its scope is limited to those defense articles that provide the United States with a critical military or intelligence advantage or, in the case of weapons, are inherently for military end use. The articles now controlled by USML Categories I, II, and III that would be removed from the USML under this proposed rule do not meet this standard, including many items which are widely available in retail outlets in the United States and abroad.
This proposed rule revises USML Category I, covering firearms and related articles, to control only defense articles that are inherently military or that are not otherwise widely available for commercial sale. In particular, the revised category will not include non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms to caliber .50 (12.7mm) inclusive, currently controlled under paragraph (a), and all of the parts, components, accessories, and attachments specially designed for those articles. Such items will be subject to the new controls in Export Control Classification Numbers 0A501, 0A502, 0A503, 0A504, 0A505, 0B501, 0B505, 0D501, 0D505, 0E501, and 0E502. Such controls in Category 0 of the CCL will be published in a separate rule by the Department of Commerce.
Paragraph (a) of USML Category I will cover firearms that fire caseless ammunition. Paragraph (b) will continue to cover fully automatic firearms to caliber .50 (12.7mm) inclusive. Paragraph (c) will cover firearms specially designed to integrate fire control, automatic tracking, or automatic firing systems, and all
A new (x) paragraph will be added to USML Category I, allowing ITAR licensing for commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR, provided those commodities, software, and technology are to be used in or with defense articles controlled in USML Category I
The note to Category I will be retained, with conforming revisions. A new second note will be added to clarify the terms “firearm,” “fully automatic,” and “caseless ammunition”.
This proposed rule revises USML Category II, covering guns and armament, establishing a bright line between the USML and the CCL for the control of these articles.
Most significantly, paragraph (j), controlling parts and components, will be revised to enumerate the articles controlled therein.
Paragraph (a) will be revised to enumerate the articles controlled in that paragraph. The articles currently covered in paragraph (c) (apparatus and devices for launching or delivering ordnance) still warranting control on the ITAR will be included in new paragraph (a)(4). A new paragraph (a)(5) will be added for developmental guns and armaments funded by the Department of Defense and the specially designed parts and components of those developmental guns and armaments. The articles currently controlled in paragraph (f), engines for self-propelled guns and howitzers in paragraph (a), will be on the CCL in ECCN 0A606. Tooling and equipment for the production of articles controlled in USML Category II, currently in paragraph (g), will be on the CCL in ECCN 0B602. Test and evaluation equipment, currently in paragraph (h), will be on the CCL in ECCN 0B602. Certain autoloading systems controlled in paragraph (i) will be moved to paragraphs (j)(9) and (11).
A new (x) paragraph will be added to USML Category II, allowing ITAR licensing for commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR, provided those commodities, software, and technology are to be used in or with defense articles controlled in USML Category II
This proposed rule revises USML Category III, covering ammunition and ordnance, to establish a bright line between the USML and the CCL for the control of these articles and to be consistent with the changes to Category I.
Most significantly, paragraphs (a) and (d) will be revised to remove broad catch-alls and enumerate the articles to be controlled therein. For example, paragraph (a), which controls ammunition for articles in USML Categories I and II, will be revised to specifically list the ammunition that it controls. A new paragraph (a)(10) will be added for developmental ammunition funded by the Department of Defense and the parts and components specially designed for such developmental ammunition. Ammunition not enumerated in paragraph (a) will be subject to the EAR. Likewise, revised paragraph (d), which controls parts and components, will enumerate the articles it controls; those articles not identified but currently captured via the catch-all will be subject to the EAR.
Additionally, paragraph (c), which controls production equipment and tooling, will be removed and placed into reserve. The articles currently covered by this paragraph will be subject to the EAR.
A new (x) paragraph will be added to USML Category III, allowing ITAR licensing for commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR, provided those commodities, software, and technology are to be used in or with defense articles controlled in USML Category III
Additionally, conforming changes will be made to several sections of the ITAR that refer to the current controls in USML Category I(a). These sections will be amended because they all refer to firearms that will be controlled on the CCL. Section 123.16(b)(2) will be revised to remove reference to the firearms exemptions at § 123.17(a) through (e), which describe the firearms exemptions, because the paragraphs will be removed as a consequence of the control of non-automatic and semi-automatic firearms on the CCL. For the same reason, § 123.16(b)(6) will be revised to describe only the remaining exemption at § 123.17 (personal protective gear), and § 123.16(b)(7) will be reserved. Section 123.17 will be amended to remove paragraphs (a) through (e), consistent with changes made to the USML. Section 123.18, as it describes exemptions for firearms that will be controlled for export by the Department of Commerce, will be removed and placed into reserve. Revision of § 124.14(c)(9) will remove the example of “sporting firearms for commercial resale.” The policy guidance on Zimbabwe in § 126.1(s) will be revised to remove reference to the firearms exemption in § 123.17.
Section 129.1(b) of the ITAR will be revised to clarify that the regulations on brokering activities in part 129 apply to those defense articles and defense services designated as such on the USML and those items described on the USMIL (27 CFR 447.21). Section 129.4 of the ITAR will also be revised to clarify brokering requirements for items on the USMIL that are subject to the brokering requirements of the AECA. The items that will move to the CCL for export control purposes, yet are on the USMIL for permanent import purposes, remain subject to the brokering requirements of part 129 with respect to all brokering activities, including facilitation in their manufacture, export, permanent import, transfer, reexport, or retransfer. The revisions also clarify that foreign defense articles that are on the USMIL require brokering authorizations.
The Department welcomes comments from the public and specifically requests input on the following matters:
(1) A key goal of this rulemaking is to ensure the USML and the CCL together control all the items that meet Wassenaar Arrangement commitments embodied in its Munitions List Categories 1, 2 and 3 (WA-ML1, WA-ML2 and WA-ML3). Readers are asked to identify any potential gap in coverage
(2) The Department seeks to establish clear distinctions between the USML and the CCL for the control of firearms, large guns, armaments, ordnance and ammunition. The public should provide any specific examples of firearms (or parts, components, accessories thereof), large guns, armaments, ordnance or ammunition whose jurisdiction is unclear based on this revision.
(3) The Department has, in the past, adopted a delayed effective date of 180 days for rules revising entire categories of the USML and moving items to the CCL. The Department seeks to allow industry sufficient time to implement this rule, including time to make changes to IT systems, technology controls plans, and other business processes. The public should provide input on the time necessary to implement any final rule for these categories, as well as a description of any increased burden that, in the view of the commenter, would be imposed on businesses or individuals should this rule be adopted.
The Department of State is of the opinion that controlling the import and export of defense articles and services is a foreign affairs function of the United States government and that rules implementing this function are exempt from sections 553 (rulemaking) and 554 (adjudications) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA). Although the Department is of the opinion that this proposed rule is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of the APA and without prejudice to its determination that controlling the import and export of defense services is a foreign affairs function, the Department is publishing this proposed rule with a 45-day provision for public comment.
Since the Department is of the opinion that this proposed rule is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553, it does not require analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposed amendment does not involve a mandate that will result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any year and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This rulemaking has been found not to be a major rule within the meaning of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996.
This rulemaking will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this rulemaking does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities do not apply to this rulemaking.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributed impacts, and equity). The Department believes that the benefits of this rulemaking largely outweigh any costs, in that many items currently controlled on the more-restrictive USML are being moved to the CCL. We request comment from the public on any impact that would be imposed on the public if this rule were adopted.
Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of considering both benefits and costs, both qualitative and quantitative, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
The Department believes the effect of this proposed rule would decrease the number of license applications submitted to the Department under OMB Control No. 1405-0003 by approximately 10,000 annually, for which the average burden estimates are one hour per form, which results in a burden reduction of 10,000 hours per year.
The Department of Commerce estimates that 4,000 of the 10,000 licenses that were required by the Department will be eligible for license exceptions or otherwise not require a separate license under the EAR. The Department of Commerce estimates that 6,000 transactions will require an individual validated license. The Department of Commerce will be collecting the information necessary to process license applications under OMB Control No. 0694-0088. The Department of Commerce estimates that OMB Control No. 0694-0088 takes approximately 43.8 minutes for a manual or electronic submission. The Department of Commerce estimates that the 6,000 licenses constitute a burden of 4,380 hours for this collection. The Department estimates a reduction in burden of 10,000 hours due to the proposed transition of these items to the Department of Commerce. The Department of Commerce estimates that the burden of submitting license applications for these items to the Department of Commerce will be 4,380 burden hours. Therefore, the net burden would be reduced by 5,620 hours. The Department estimates that the burden hour cost for completing a license application is $44.94 per hour. Therefore, the estimated net reduction of 5,620 burden hours per year is estimated to result in annual burden hour cost reduction of $252,562.80. There may also be other State Department forms that will no longer need to be submitted and that may further reduce the burden hours for applicants. The Department is seeking comments on the reduction from the other forms, as referenced below.
In addition to the reduction in burden hours, there will be direct cost savings to the State Department that would result from the 10,000 license applications no longer being required under the ITAR once these items are moved to the EAR. Pursuant to the AECA, ITAR, and associated delegations of authority, every person who engages in the business of brokering activities, manufacturing, exporting, or temporarily importing any defense articles or defense services must register with the Department of State and pay a registration fee. The Department of State adopted the current fee schedule to align the registration fees with the cost of licensing, compliance and other
The Department welcomes comments from the public on the net reduction in burden described within this section, particularly if there are additional burden reductions that are not reflected here (please provide number of hours or cost) or if the estimates noted here appear otherwise inaccurate.
The Department of State is of the opinion that controlling the import and export of defense articles and services is a foreign affairs function of the United States government and that rules implementing this function are exempt from Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). Although the Department is of the opinion that this proposed rule is exempt from E.O. 13771 and without prejudice to its determination that controlling the import and export of defense services is a foreign affairs function, this proposed rule is expected to be an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action. The Department has conducted this analysis in close consultation with the Department of Commerce. The total annual recurring dollar cost savings is estimated to be $1,376,281 for purposes of E.O. 13771 for the Department of State.
The Department of State has reviewed this rulemaking in light of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
The Department of State has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not preempt tribal law. Accordingly, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this rulemaking.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor is subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Department of State believes there would be a reduction in burden for OMB Control No. 1405-0003, Application/License for Permanent Export of Unclassified Defense Articles and Related Unclassified Technical Data. This form is an application that, when completed and approved by Department of State, constitutes the official record and authorization for the commercial export of unclassified U.S. Munitions List articles and technical data, pursuant to the AECA and ITAR. For an analysis of the reduction in burden for OMB Control No. 1405-0003, see the above Section for E.O. 12866. The Department of State requests comments on the collection of information or potential reduction in burden be sent also to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for Department of State, at
Arms and munitions, Exports.
Accordingly, for the reasons set forth above, title 22, chapter I, subchapter M, parts 121, 123, 124, 126, and 129 are proposed to be amended as follows:
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; Pub. L. 105-261, 112 Stat. 1920; Section 1261, Pub. L. 112-239; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
*(a) Firearms using caseless ammunition.
*(b) Fully automatic firearms to .50 caliber (12.7 mm) inclusive.
*(c) Firearms specially designed to integrate fire control, automatic tracking, or automatic firing (
Integration does not include only attaching to the firearm or rail.
*(d) Fully automatic shotguns regardless of gauge.
*(e) Silencers, mufflers, and sound suppressors, and specially designed parts and components therefor.
(f) [Reserved]
(g) Barrels, receivers (frames), bolts, bolt carriers, slides, or sears specially designed for the articles in paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this category.
(h) Parts, components, accessories, and attachments, as follows:
(1) Drum and other magazines for firearms to .50 caliber (12.7 mm) inclusive with a capacity greater than 50 rounds, regardless of jurisdiction of the firearm, and specially designed parts and components therefor;
(2) Parts and components specially designed for conversion of a semi-automatic firearm to a fully automatic firearm.
(3) Accessories or attachments specially designed to automatically stabilize aim (other than gun rests) or for automatic targeting, and specially designed parts and components therefor.
(i) Technical data (
(j)-(w) [Reserved]
(x) Commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR (
Use of this paragraph is limited to license applications for defense articles where the purchase documentation includes commodities, software, or technology subject to the EAR (
Paragraphs (a), (b), (d), (e), (g), (h), and (i) of this category exclude: Any non-automatic or semi-
The following interpretations explain and amplify the terms used in this category:
(1) A firearm is a weapon not over .50 caliber (12.7 mm) which is designed to expel a projectile by the deflagration of propellant.
(2) A fully automatic firearm or shotgun is any firearm or shotgun which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can readily be restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot, without manual reloading, by a single function of the trigger.
(3) Caseless ammunition is firearm ammunition without a cartridge case that holds the primer, propellant, and projectile together as a unit.
(a) Guns and armament greater than .50 caliber (12.7 mm), as follows:
*(1) Guns, howitzers, artillery, and cannons;
*(2) Mortars;
*(3) Recoilless rifles;
*(4) Grenade launchers; or
(5) Developmental guns and armament greater than .50 caliber (12.7 mm) funded by the Department of Defense and specially designed parts and components therefor.
This paragraph does not control guns and armament greater than .50 caliber (12.7 mm) (a) in production, (b) determined to be subject to the EAR via a commodity jurisdiction determination (
Note 1 does not apply to defense articles enumerated on the U.S. Munitions List, whether in production or development.
This provision is applicable to those contracts or other funding authorizations that are dated (one year after publication of the final rule), or later.
This paragraph does not include: Non-automatic and non-semi-automatic rifles, carbines, and pistols between .50 (12.7 mm) and .72 caliber (18.288 mm) that are controlled on the CCL under ECCN 0A501; shotguns controlled on the CCL under ECCN 0A502; or black powder guns and armaments manufactured between 1890 and 1919 controlled on the CCL under ECCN 0A602.
Guns and armament when integrated into their carrier (
(b) Flame throwers with a minimum effective range of 20 meters.
(c) [Reserved]
*(d) Kinetic energy weapon systems specially designed for destruction or rendering mission-abort of a target.
Kinetic energy weapons systems include but are not limited to launch systems and subsystems capable of accelerating masses larger than 0.1g to velocities in excess of 1.6 km/s, in single or rapid fire modes, using methods such as: Electromagnetic, electrothermal, plasma, light gas, or chemical. This does not include launch systems and subsystems used for research and testing facilities subject to the EAR, which are controlled on the CCL under ECCN 2B232.
(e) Signature reduction devices specially designed for the guns and armament controlled in paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this category (
(f)-(i) [Reserved]
(j) Parts, components, accessories, and attachments, as follows:
(1) Gun barrels, rails, tubes, and receivers specially designed for the weapons controlled in paragraphs (a) and (d) of this category;
(2) Sights specially designed to orient indirect fire weapons;
(3) Breech blocks for the weapons controlled in paragraphs (a) and (d) of this category;
(4) Firing mechanisms for the weapons controlled in paragraphs (a) and (d) of this category and specially designed parts and components therefor;
(5) Systems for firing superposed or stacked ammunition and specially designed parts and components therefor;
(6) Servo-electronic and hydraulic elevation adjustment mechanisms;
(7) Muzzle brakes;
(8) Bore evacuators;
(9) Independently powered ammunition handling systems and platform interface components as follows:
(i) Mounts;
(ii) Carriages;
(iii) Gun pallets;
(iv) Hydro-pneumatic equilibration cylinders; or
(v) Hydro-pneumatic systems capable of scavenging recoil energy to power howitzer functions;
For weapons mounts specially designed for ground vehicles,
(10) Recoil systems to mitigate the shock associated with the firing process of guns integrated into air platforms and specially designed parts and components therefor;
(11) Independent ammunition handling systems for the guns and armament controlled in paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this category;
(12) Ammunition containers/drums, ammunition chutes, ammunition conveyor elements, and ammunition container/drum entrance and exit units, specially designed for the guns and armament controlled in paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this category;
(13) Aircraft/gun interface units to support gun systems with a designed rate of fire greater than 100 rounds per minute and specially designed parts and components therefor;
(14) Prime power generation, energy storage, thermal management, conditioning, switching, and fuel-handling equipment, and the electrical interfaces between the gun power supply and other turret electric drive components specially designed for kinetic weapons controlled in paragraph (d) of this category;
(15) Kinetic energy weapon target acquisition, tracking fire control, and damage assessment systems and specially designed parts and components therefor; or
*(16) Any part, component, accessory, attachment, equipment, or system that:
(i) Is classified;
(ii) Contains classified software; or
(iii) Is being developed using classified information.
“Classified” means classified pursuant to Executive Order 13526, or predecessor order, and a security classification guide developed pursuant thereto or equivalent, or to the corresponding classification rules of another government or intergovernmental organization.
(k) Technical data (
(l)-(w) [Reserved]
(x) Commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR (
Use of this paragraph is limited to license applications for defense articles where the purchase documentation includes commodities, software, or technology subject to the EAR (
*(a) Ammunition, as follows:
(1) Ammunition that incorporates a projectile controlled in paragraph (d)(1) or (3) of this category;
(2) Ammunition preassembled into links or belts;
(3) Shotgun ammunition that incorporates a projectile controlled in paragraph (d)(2) of this category;
(4) Caseless ammunition manufactured with smokeless powder;
Caseless ammunition is ammunition without a cartridge case that holds the primer, propellant, and projectile together as a unit.
(5) Ammunition, except shotgun ammunition, based on non-metallic cases, or non-metallic cases that have only a metallic base, which result in a total cartridge mass 80% or less than the mass of a brass- or steel-cased cartridge that provides comparable ballistic performance;
(6) Ammunition employing pyrotechnic material in the projectile base and any ammunition employing a projectile that incorporates tracer materials of any type having peak radiance above 710 nm and designed to be observed primarily with night vision optical systems;
(7) Ammunition for fully automatic firearms or guns that fire superposed or stacked projectiles;
(8) Electromagnetic armament projectiles or billets for weapons with a design muzzle energy exceeding 5 MJ;
(9) Ammunition, not specified above, for the guns and armaments controlled in Category II; or
(10) Developmental ammunition funded by the Department of Defense and specially designed parts and components therefor.
This paragraph does not control ammunition (a) in production, (b) determined to be subject to the EAR via a commodity jurisdiction determination (
Note 1 does not apply to defense articles enumerated on the U.S. Munitions List, whether in production or development.
This provision is applicable to those contracts or other funding authorizations that are dated (one year after publication of the final rule), or later.
(b) Ammunition/ordnance handling equipment specially designed for the articles controlled in this category, as follows:
(1) Belting, linking, and de-linking equipment; or
(2) Fuze setting devices.
(c) [Reserved]
(d) Parts and components for the articles in this category, as follows:
(1) Projectiles that use pyrotechnic tracer materials that incorporate any material having peak radiance above 710 nm or are incendiary, explosive, steel tipped, or contain a core or solid projectile produced from one or a combination of the following: tungsten, steel, or beryllium copper alloys;
(2) Shotgun projectiles that are flechettes, incendiary, tracer, or explosive;
This paragraph does not include explosive projectiles specially designed to produce noise for scaring birds or other pests (
(3) Projectiles of any caliber produced from depleted uranium;
(4) Projectiles not specified above, guided or unguided, for the items controlled in USML Category II, and specially designed parts and components therefor (
(5) Canisters or sub-munitions (
(6) Hardened cores, regardless of caliber, produced from one or a combination of the following: tungsten, steel, or beryllium copper alloy;
(7) Cartridge cases, powder bags, or combustible cases for the items controlled in USML Category II;
(8) Non-metallic cases, including cases that have only a metallic base, for the ammunition controlled in paragraph (a)(5) of this category;
(9) Cartridge links and belts for fully automatic firearms and guns controlled in USML Categories I or II;
(10) Primers other than Boxer, Berdan, or shotshell types;
This paragraph does not control caps or primers of any type in use prior to 1890.
(11) Safing, arming, and fuzing components (to include target detection and proximity sensing devices) for the ammunition in this category and specially designed parts therefor;
(12) Guidance and control components for the ammunition in this category and specially designed parts therefor;
(13) Terminal seeker assemblies for the ammunition in this category and specially designed parts and components therefor;
(14) Illuminating flares or target practice projectiles for the ammunition controlled in paragraph (a)(9) of this category; or
*(15) Any part, component, accessory, attachment, equipment, or system that:
(i) Is classified;
(ii) Contains classified software; or
(iii) Is being developed using classified information.
“Classified” means classified pursuant to Executive Order 13526, or predecessor order, and a security classification guide developed pursuant thereto or equivalent, or to the corresponding classification rules of another government or intergovernmental organization.
(e) Technical data (
(f)-(w) [Reserved]
(x) Commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR (
Use of this paragraph is limited to license applications for defense articles where the purchase documentation includes commodities, software, or technology subject to the EAR (
1. This category does not control ammunition crimped without a projectile (blank star) and dummy ammunition with a pierced powder chamber.
2. This category does not control cartridge and shell casings that, prior to export, have been rendered useless beyond the possibility of restoration for use as a cartridge or shell casing by means of heating, flame treatment, mangling, crushing, cutting, or popping.
3. Grenades containing non-lethal or less lethal projectiles are under the jurisdiction of the Department of Commerce.
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778,
(a) * * *
(3) A license for export of defense articles controlled under Category I paragraphs (a) through (g) of the United States Munitions List, § 121.1 of this subchapter, in an amount of $1,000,000 or more.
(b) * * *
(2) Port Directors of U.S. Customs and Border Protection shall permit the export of parts or components without a license when the total value does not exceed $500 in a single transaction and:
(6) For exemptions for personal protective gear, refer to § 123.17.
(j) If the articles temporarily exported pursuant to paragraphs (f) through (i) of this section are not returned to the United States, a detailed report must be submitted to the Office of Defense Trade Controls Compliance in accordance with the requirements of § 127.12(c)(2) of this subchapter.
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 2776; Section 1514, Pub. L. 105-261; Pub. L. 111-266; Section 1261, Pub. L. 112-239; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
(c)
(9) Unless the articles covered by the agreement are in fact intended to be distributed to private persons or entities (
Secs. 2, 38, 40, 42 and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2780, 2791 and 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 287c; E.O. 12918, 59 FR 28205; 3 CFR, 1994 Comp., p. 899; Sec. 1225, Pub. L. 108-375; Sec. 7089, Pub. L. 111-117; Pub. L. 111-266; Section 7045, Pub. L. 112-74; Section 7046, Pub. L. 112-74; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
(s)
Section 38, Pub. L. 104-164, 110 Stat. 1437, (22 U.S.C. 2778); E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
(b) All brokering activities identified in this subchapter apply equally to those defense articles and defense services designated in § 121.1 of this subchapter and those items designated in 27 CFR 447.21 (U.S. Munitions Import List).
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(vii) Activities by persons to facilitate the export, reexport, or transfer of an item subject to the EAR that has been approved pursuant to a license or license exception under the EAR or a license or other approval under this subchapter.
(a) * * *
(1) Any foreign defense article or defense service enumerated in part 121 of this subchapter (
(2) * * *
(i) Firearms and other weapons of a nature described by Category I(a) through (d), Category II(a) and (d), and Category III(a) of § 121.1 of this subchapter or Category I(a) through (c), Category II(a), and Category III(a) of the U.S. Munitions Import List (
(b) * * *
(3) * * *
(i) The U.S. Munitions List (
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |