Page Range | 28807-29201 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
80 FR 29201 - Delegation of Functions Under the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act | |
80 FR 29199 - Armed Forces Day, 2015 | |
80 FR 29197 - World Trade Week, 2015 | |
80 FR 29195 - Emergency Medical Services Week, 2015 | |
80 FR 29193 - National Safe Boating Week, 2015 | |
80 FR 28988 - Sunshine Act Notice | |
80 FR 29108 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
80 FR 28962 - Certain Steel Nails From the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination | |
80 FR 28964 - Certain Steel Nails From Taiwan: Final Negative Countervailing Duty Determination | |
80 FR 29017 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Personal Financial and Credit Statement | |
80 FR 29096 - Information Collection Request; Comment Request | |
80 FR 28976 - Permits; Foreign Fishing | |
80 FR 29101 - Western Nuclear, Inc.; Split Rock Conventional Uranium Mill Site | |
80 FR 29102 - Dominion Nuclear Connecticut, Inc., Millstone Power Station, Unit 2 | |
80 FR 28958 - Certain Steel Nails From the Sultanate of Oman: Final Negative Countervailing Duty Determination | |
80 FR 29149 - Notice of Intent To Release Airport Property From Quitclaim Deed; Fort Lauderdale Executive Airport, Fort Lauderdale, FL | |
80 FR 28999 - Request for Nominations of Experts to the Science and Information Subcommittee of the Great Lakes Advisory Board | |
80 FR 28929 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 28955 - Certain Steel Nails From the Republic of Korea: Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
80 FR 28835 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Illinois; NAAQS Update | |
80 FR 28893 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Illinois; NAAQS Update | |
80 FR 28968 - Certain Steel Nails From Malaysia: Final Negative Countervailing Duty Determination | |
80 FR 28969 - Certain Steel Nails From Malaysia; Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
80 FR 28953 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 174-Pima County, Arizona; Authorization of Production Activity; Global Solar Energy, Inc. (Thin Film Photovoltaic Solar Products); Tucson, Arizona | |
80 FR 28972 - Certain Steel Nails From the Sultanate of Oman: Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
80 FR 28959 - Certain Steel Nails From Taiwan: Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
80 FR 28966 - Certain Steel Nails From the Republic of Korea: Final Negative Countervailing Duty Determination | |
80 FR 29099 - OSHA Training Institute (OTI) Education Center Prerequisite Verification Form; Request Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
80 FR 28893 - Partial Approval and Disapproval of Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Nevada; Infrastructure Requirements for Ozone, Nitrogen Dioxide, and Sulfur Dioxide | |
80 FR 29013 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 29016 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 29009 - Proposed Revised Vaccine Information Materials for Seasonal Influenza Vaccines | |
80 FR 29009 - Proposed Revised Vaccine Information Materials for Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV13) | |
80 FR 28925 - Receipt of Several Pesticide Petitions Filed for Residues of Pesticide Chemicals in or on Various Commodities | |
80 FR 28906 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Pennsylvania; Redesignation Request and Associated Maintenance Plan for the Pittsburgh-Beaver Valley Nonattainment Area for the 1997 Annual and 2006 24-Hour Fine Particulate Matter Standard | |
80 FR 29012 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; State Enforcement Notifications | |
80 FR 29002 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
80 FR 29145 - Meetings of the United States-Peru Environmental Affairs Council, Environmental Cooperation Commission, and Sub-Committee on Forest Sector Governance | |
80 FR 29144 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Affidavit of Relationship (AOR) for Minors Who Are Nationals Of El Salvador, Guatemala, and Honduras | |
80 FR 28848 - Television Broadcasting Services; Bend, Oregon | |
80 FR 28872 - Guidance Regarding the Treatment of Transactions in Which Federal Financial Assistance Is Provided | |
80 FR 29004 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 28981 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 28983 - Defense Intelligence Agency National Intelligence University Board of Visitors; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
80 FR 28937 - Inviting Applications for Socially-Disadvantaged Groups Grants | |
80 FR 28943 - Notice of Solicitation of Applications (NOSA) for the Section 533 Housing Preservation Grants for Fiscal Year (FY) 2015 | |
80 FR 28988 - Proposed Agency Information Collection | |
80 FR 28850 - Energy Conservation Program for Consumer Products and Certain Commercial and Industrial Equipment: Test Procedures for Consumer and Commercial Water Heaters | |
80 FR 28807 - Biomass Crop Assistance Program | |
80 FR 28852 - Energy Conservation Program for Consumer Products: Energy Conservation Standards for Residential Boilers | |
80 FR 28851 - Energy Conservation Program for Consumer Products: Energy Conservation Standards for Residential Furnaces | |
80 FR 29022 - Filing of Plats of Survey; NV | |
80 FR 28991 - Commission Information Collection Activities (FERC-576); Comment Request; Extension | |
80 FR 28993 - Sabine Pass Liquefaction, LLC; Sabine Pass LNG, L.P.; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 28997 - Roadrunner Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed Roadrunner Border Crossing Project; Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
80 FR 28995 - Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed Line WB2VA Integrity Project, and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
80 FR 29158 - Proposed Information Collection (Application for Accreditation as Service Organization Representative) Activity: Comment Request | |
80 FR 29101 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 29003 - Office of Federal High-Performance Green Buildings; Green Building Advisory Committee; Notification of Upcoming Conference Calls | |
80 FR 28849 - General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR); Unique Item Identification (UID) | |
80 FR 28994 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
80 FR 28990 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
80 FR 28931 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request-Evaluation of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) Employment and Training (E&T) Pilots | |
80 FR 29146 - Projects Approved for Consumptive Uses of Water | |
80 FR 28974 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Annual Economic Survey of Federal Gulf and South Atlantic Shrimp Permit Holders | |
80 FR 29159 - Proposed Information Collection (Awards & ROI) Activity: Comment Request | |
80 FR 29096 - Notice of Charter Reestablishment | |
80 FR 29151 - Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation; Virginia Tech Transportation Institute Exemption Application | |
80 FR 29152 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
80 FR 28975 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Pacific Islands Region Coral Reef Ecosystems Logbook and Reporting | |
80 FR 29154 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
80 FR 28953 - In the Matter of: Joseph DeBose, 400 S. Ortonville Road, Ortonville, Michigan 48462; Order Denying Export Privileges | |
80 FR 28954 - Bureau Of Industry And Security In the Matter of: Wei Jiun Chu, a/k/a Jim Chu, 1530 Silver Rain Drive, Diamond Bar, CA 91765; Order Denying Export Privileges | |
80 FR 29149 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
80 FR 28930 - National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods | |
80 FR 29105 - Microbiome Research | |
80 FR 28832 - Certifications and Exemptions Under the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972 | |
80 FR 29018 - Receipt of Applications for Endangered Species Permits | |
80 FR 29021 - Notice of Availability of the Record of Decision for the West Eugene Wetlands in Oregon and Approved Resource Management Plan | |
80 FR 28987 - Notice of Intent To Grant Partially Exclusive Patent License; Equalizer Sight, Inc. | |
80 FR 28987 - Notice of Intent To Grant Partially Exclusive Patent License; 5D Analytics, LLC | |
80 FR 28993 - Revisions to Oil Pipeline Regulations Pursuant to the Energy Policy Act of 1992; Notice of Annual Change in the Producer Price Index for Finished Goods | |
80 FR 28989 - Evergreen Wind Power II, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
80 FR 28991 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
80 FR 28989 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 28995 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 28952 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 28984 - Defense Advisory Committee on Military Personnel Testing; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
80 FR 28974 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Student Information System (SIS) | |
80 FR 28928 - On-Time Performance Under Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008 | |
80 FR 29114 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market, LLC Options Facility | |
80 FR 28977 - Western Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meetings | |
80 FR 28978 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
80 FR 29010 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry on Formal Meetings With Sponsors and Applicants for Prescription Drug User Fee Act Products | |
80 FR 29001 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewal; Comment Request (3064-0135) | |
80 FR 29002 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10066, First National Bank of Anthony, Anthony, KS | |
80 FR 29144 - Kentucky Disaster #KY-00024 | |
80 FR 29143 - Data Collection Available for Public Comments | |
80 FR 29143 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
80 FR 28807 - Strategic Economic and Community Development | |
80 FR 28949 - Agenda and Notice of Public Meeting of the Wyoming Advisory Committee | |
80 FR 28949 - Agenda and Notice of Public Meeting of the New York Advisory Committee | |
80 FR 28980 - Notice of Availability of Government-Owned Inventions; Available for Licensing | |
80 FR 28986 - Meeting of the Chief of Engineers Environmental Advisory Board | |
80 FR 28979 - Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery Remember Subcommittee Meeting Notice | |
80 FR 28976 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Alaska Observer Program | |
80 FR 28890 - Maine State Plan for State and Local Government Employers; Notice of Submission; Proposal To Grant Initial State Plan Approval; Request for Public Comment and Opportunity To Request Public Hearing | |
80 FR 28984 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
80 FR 29108 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 29158 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 29136 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ISE Gemini, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Schedule of Fees To Introduce a New “Retail” Designation for Priority Customer Orders | |
80 FR 29106 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; International Securities Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Schedule of Fees To Introduce a New “Retail” Designation for Priority Customer Orders | |
80 FR 29121 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Regarding Limitation of Liability | |
80 FR 29139 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use of BATS Exchange, Inc. | |
80 FR 29127 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ OMX PHLX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Update the Public Disclosure of Sources of Data Utilized By PSX | |
80 FR 29138 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Securities Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Clarify NSCC's Rules & Procedures Relating to the Process by Which NSCC Members Submit Buy-Ins Within NSCC's Continuous Net Settlement System | |
80 FR 29109 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Regarding Limitation of Liability | |
80 FR 29131 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Trading Permit Holder Qualifications | |
80 FR 29118 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Update the Public Disclosure of Sources of Data BX Utilizes | |
80 FR 29142 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Stock-Option Order Handling | |
80 FR 29025 - Keith Ky Ly, D.O.; Decision and Order | |
80 FR 28981 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
80 FR 29003 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
80 FR 29003 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
80 FR 29067 - Jana Marjenhoff, D.O.; Decision and Order | |
80 FR 28928 - Petitions for Reconsideration of Action in Rulemaking Proceeding | |
80 FR 29000 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
80 FR 29037 - Cove Inc., D/B/A Allwell Pharmacy; Decision and Order | |
80 FR 29053 - Farmacia Yani; Decision and Order | |
80 FR 28979 - Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery Explore Subcommittee Meeting Notice | |
80 FR 29022 - The Main Pharmacy; Decision and Order | |
80 FR 29015 - Center for Scientific Review Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 29013 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 29014 - Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing | |
80 FR 28978 - Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery Honor Subcommittee Meeting Notice | |
80 FR 29105 - New Postal Product | |
80 FR 28950 - 2020 Decennial Census Residence Rule and Residence Situations | |
80 FR 29000 - Federal Advisory Committee Act; Communications Security, Reliability, and Interoperability Council | |
80 FR 29096 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act and Resource Conservation and Recovery Act | |
80 FR 29148 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; The Boeing Company | |
80 FR 28833 - Safety Zones; Apra Outer Harbor and Adjacent Waters, Guam | |
80 FR 29016 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Vessel Entrance or Clearance Statement | |
80 FR 29162 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Seismic Surveys in Cook Inlet, Alaska | |
80 FR 28863 - Antimicrobial Animal Drug Sales and Distribution Reporting | |
80 FR 28818 - International Services Surveys: BE-I80, Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions Between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons | |
80 FR 28843 - Trinexapac-ethyl; Pesticide Tolerances | |
80 FR 28838 - Notification of Submission to the Secretary of Agriculture; Pesticides; Agricultural Worker Protection Standard Revisions | |
80 FR 28839 - Fragrance Components; Exemption From the Requirement of a Tolerance | |
80 FR 29004 - Appointments to the Health Information Technology (HIT) Policy Committee | |
80 FR 29004 - Appointment to the Methodology Committee of the Patient-Centered Outcomes Research Institute (PCORI) | |
80 FR 29019 - Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill; Draft Phase IV Early Restoration Plan and Environmental Assessments | |
80 FR 28821 - Revised Medical Criteria for Evaluating Cancer (Malignant Neoplastic Diseases) | |
80 FR 29157 - Hazardous Materials: Notice of Application for Modification of Special Permit | |
80 FR 29156 - Hazardous Materials: Notice of Application for Special Permits | |
80 FR 28901 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; New Mexico; Revisions to the New Source Review (NSR) State Implementation Plan (SIP) for Albuquerque-Bernalillo County; Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) Permitting | |
80 FR 28853 - Wassenaar Arrangement 2013 Plenary Agreements Implementation: Intrusion and Surveillance Items |
Commodity Credit Corporation
Farm Service Agency
Food and Nutrition Service
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Rural Business-Cooperative Service
Rural Housing Service
Rural Utilities Service
Census Bureau
Economic Analysis Bureau
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Army Department
Engineers Corps
Navy Department
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
Drug Enforcement Administration
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Labor-Management Standards Office
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Surface Transportation Board
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this page for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, reminders, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Commodity Credit Corporation and Farm Service Agency, USDA.
Final rule; reopening of comment period.
The Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC) and the Farm Service Agency (FSA) published a final rule on February 27, 2015, amending the Biomass Crop Assistance Program (BCAP) regulations to implement changes required by the Agricultural Act of 2014 (the 2014 Farm Bill). We are extending the comment period for the final rule to give the public more time to provide input and recommendations on the final rule.
The comment period for the final rule published February 27, 2015 (80 FR 10569), effective May 28, 2015, is reopened. We will consider comments that we receive by May 27, 2015.
We invite you to submit comments on the final rule. In your comment, please specify RIN 0560-AI27, February 27, 2015, and 80 FR 10569-10575. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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All written comments will be available for inspection online at
Kelly Novak, telephone (202) 720-4053. Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication should contact the USDA Target Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice).
On February 27, 2015, CCC and FSA published a final rule titled “Biomass Crop Assistance Program.” The final rule implements all the required 2014 Farm Bill changes to BCAP and seeks comment on FSA's implementation of BCAP, given the required changes and changes to funding.
BCAP is administered by FSA using Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC) funds. Section 9010 of the 2014 Farm Bill (Pub. L. 113-79) amends 7 U.S.C. 8111 and reauthorizes BCAP with certain changes. BCAP provides assistance to biomass producers and owners in two payment categories:
• Matching payments to eligible material owners for the delivery of eligible material to qualified Biomass Conversion Facilities (BCFs). Qualified BCFs use biomass feedstocks to produce heat, power, biobased products, research, or advanced biofuels. The 2014 Farm Bill adds research as an authorized use of material by BCFs.
• Establishment and annual payments to producers who enter into contracts with CCC to produce eligible biomass crops on contract acres within BCAP project areas.
The final rule requested comments on how BCAP should be implemented in future years. FSA is, in particular, requesting public comments on the following questions:
• What information could FSA reasonably collect that would provide assurance that the biomass conversion facility has sufficient equity to be in operation by the date on which project area eligible crops are ready for harvest?
• How could FSA best determine if expansion of a project area would advance the maturity of that project area?
• What credible risk tools and sources should FSA consider in determining whether proposed crops are potentially invasive?
• With a new cost share cap of 50 percent for establishment costs for perennial crops in project areas, what establishment practices should FSA consider as most important to support?
• With the new limits to the BCAP budget, what priorities should FSA consider in implementing the program?
FSA received several comments requesting an extension of the comment period. We have determined that providing an extension of the original comment period will give the public more time to provide input and to make recommendations on the final rule. With this extension, the public may submit comments through May 27, 2015. This extension of comment period does not change the effective date of the final rule, which is May 28, 2015, so as not to delay the implementation of the changes to BCAP required by the 2014 Farm Bill.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, Rural Housing Service, Rural Utilities Service, Farm Service Agency, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
Interim rule with public comment.
This interim rule implements Section 6025, Strategic Economic and Community Development, under the Agricultural Act of 2014 (2014 Farm Bill). Unless the Agency provides otherwise, the Agency will reserve up to 10 percent of the funds appropriated to
Effective June 19, 2015. Written comments must be received on or before August 18, 2015. The comment period for the information collection under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 ends July 20, 2015.
Submit your comments on this rule by any of the following methods:
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All written comments will be available for public inspection during regular work hours at the 300 7th Street SW., 7th Floor address listed above.
Aaron Morris, Rural Housing Service, Community Facilities, U.S. Department of Agriculture, STOP 0787, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-3225; email:
This action is needed in order to implement Section 6025 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (2014 Farm Bill) (7 U.S.C. 2008v). Section 6025 provides the Secretary of Agriculture the authority to give priority to projects that support strategic economic development or community development plans. Section 6025 enables the Secretary to reserve up to 10 percent of program funds from certain Rural Development programs, as identified in the section. This action implements this priority.
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2.
Any funding that is not expended by June 30, as specified by the authorizing statute, will be returned to the applicable underlying program's account for obligation for all eligible projects in that program.
3.
4.
• The underlying program's criteria.
• The proposed project's direct support of the objectives found in the strategic economic development or community development plan that it supports.
• Certain characteristics (as specified in the authorizing statute) of strategic economic development or community plan that the proposed project support.
The scores from these three areas will be summed, with higher scoring applications receiving priority for reserved funding.
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The cost to the individual applicant to apply for reserved funding is nominal. RD estimates the cost to complete the specific form to be no more than $300 assuming on average approximately 9 hours per form. The primary benefit of this action is to foster an environment of increased collaboration between project applicants and rural communities as they consider how to best use RD resources to address multi-jurisdictional needs, by leveraging federal, state, local or private funding, or otherwise capitalize upon the unique strengths of the rural area to support successful community and economic development.
This action has been reviewed under Executive Order (EO) 12866 and has been determined to be “economically significant” by the Office of Management and Budget. The EO defines a “economically significant regulatory action” as one that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect, in
The Agency conducted a benefit-cost analysis to fulfill the requirements of EO 12866. In this analysis, the Agency identifies alternatives considered, the distributional effects of the reserved funding, the estimated costs of applying for and the potential benefits of receiving reserved funding to the various applicants under the eight programs included and to the Agency, the effect on the underlying programs, and the present value of the reserved funding.
To the extent that there is an increase in Agency funding of projects that support such plans, the Agency expects areas within the region covered by a plan to be “better off” than if the project was not funded. The extent of this transfer, however, cannot be calculated at this time. In contrast, the proposed action may result in a negative impact by not funding a project that does not support such a plan.
The number of applicants was determined by first estimating the most recent estimate of the number of applicants (
The number of awardees was estimated in a similar fashion. For each included program, the number of awardees over the last few years was determined and then the percentage of those awardees that are in an area covered by an EDA approved plan was determined. Next, the number of underlying program awardees was multiplied by the percentage of awardees in an EDA-approved plan area and this result was multiplied by the percentage of potential applicants that would likely apply for Section 6025 reserved funds (as determined earlier for estimating the number of applicants). For RBDG, the same steps were used with two additional modifications—(1) using the same adjustment as for determining applicants to take into account difference in funding levels between the “old” RBEG and RBOG programs and the new RBDG program and (2) taking into account the requirement that no more than 10 percent of the RBDG funding could be used to support projects that support “RBOG” purposes.
In terms of costs to the Government for administering and implementing this project, the Agency estimated a cost of approximately $121,200 for reviewing and scoring the Section 6025 applications assuming 12 hours per application.
Aligning projects with regional economic and community development plans helps engage individuals, organizations, local governments, institutes of learning, and the private sector in a meaningful conversation about what capacity building efforts would best serve the community in terms of creating jobs, creating investments, and generating regional wealth. In addition, the alignment helps take into account and, where possible, leverage other regional planning efforts, including the use of other federal funds and resources that support a region's goals and objectives. This helps prevent duplication, while better harnessing and directing limited federal resources for implementation efforts.
In sum, the Agency expects that the reservation of funds under this provision will result in an increased share of existing program funding going to projects that support strategic economic development or community development plans, thereby helping to address regional specific needs more directly and more generally strengthening the Agency's ability to help ensure a thriving rural economy.
The results show that the net present value associated with funding Section 6025 priority applications ranges from $448 million to $466 million, but that there is no net difference between the baseline scenario and the “with Section 6025 priority” scenario. This occurs because Section 6025 neither increases nor decreases the program level fund allocation for any of the underlying programs.
RD programs affected by this rulemaking are shown in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) with numbers as indicated:
All active CFDA programs can be found at
This action is not subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials.
This interim rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. RD has determined that this rule meets the applicable standards provided in section 3 of the Executive Order. Additionally, (1) all State and local laws and regulations that are in conflict with this rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect will be given to the rule; and (3) administrative appeal procedures, if any, must be exhausted before litigation against the Department or its agencies may be initiated, in accordance with the regulations of the National Appeals Division of USDA at 7 CFR part 11.
This document has been reviewed in accordance with 7 CFR part 1940, subpart G, “Environmental Program” and 7 CFR 1794 “Environmental Policies and Procedures.” To be eligible for the set-aside funds, a project must meet all of the requirements of the applicable underlying program, including its National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requirements. Any project eligible for the set-aside funding is already an action included the underlying programs and such actions are covered by NEPA, and therefore categorically excluded. Therefore, RD has determined that this action does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment and, in accordance with the NEPA of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321
This rule contains no Federal mandates (under the regulatory provisions of Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995) for State, local, and Tribal governments or the private sector. Thus, this rule is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
Under section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), RD certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rule affects applicants across eight RD programs. Many of these applicants are small businesses. For example, with the Business and Industry (B&I) Guaranteed Loan program alone, RD estimates that approximately 50 percent of the 1,117 active lenders in the current B&I portfolio are small entities as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Therefore, RD has determined that this rule will affect a substantial number of small entities.
However, RD has determined that the economic impact of the rule on these small entities will not be significant. The rule does not make any changes to the programs from which funds will be reserved. The rule will require applicants to submit an additional form if seeking funding that is reserved for projects that support strategic economic development or community development plans. Based on the data in the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) burden package, RD estimates that the cost to complete this form will, on average, be no more than $300. Therefore, this rule will not have a significant impact on small entities.
The policies contained in this rule do not have any substantial direct effect on states, on the relationship between the National Government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Nor does this interim rule impose substantial direct compliance costs on state and local governments. Therefore, consultation with states is not required.
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
Rural Development has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that the interim rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under EO 13175. On August 21, 2014, however, Rural Development opened consultation on Farm Bill section 6025 pertaining to this regulation. Twenty one (21) Tribes participated in this consultation, and Rural Development received zero (0) formal and actionable comments. Primary Tribal concerns included definitions within the rule regarding “plans” and “multi-jurisdictional” strategies.
Rural Development plans to use an inclusive definition of “plans” so that a wide range of plans that Tribes currently have adopted and implemented may be used, as long as certain minimum standards are met. For instance the plan must be multi-jurisdictional and include:
• Economic conditions of the region;
• economic and community strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats for the region;
• consideration of such aspects as the environmental and social conditions;
• strategies and implementation plan that build upon the region's strengths and opportunities ;=-and resolve the
• performance measures to evaluate the successful implementation of the plan;
• support of key community stakeholders.
These minimum criteria do not pose any unique or additional implications or challenges for Tribes. The rule incentivizes additional planning, partnering and strategies between Tribes and other units of government/jurisdictions, such as other Indian Tribes, States, Counties, Cities, Townships, Towns, Boroughs, etc. These details of the rule, along with many others, were explained, contextualized and clarified during the consultation event on August 21, to provide a deeper understanding of the agency's underlying rationale in implementing this program in this manner.
If a Tribe requests additional consultation, Rural Development will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
The information collection requirements contained in this interim rule have been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). However, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, USDA RD will seek OMB approval of the reporting and recordkeeping requirements contained in this rule and hereby opens a 60-day public comment period.
In order to ensure a project qualifies for these reserved funds, RD must collect information on the proposed project, including how the project supports the implementation of a strategic community or economic development plan, and information on the plan itself in order to allow RD to prioritize projects if the reserved funding is insufficient to fund all eligible projects. The information required does not depend on the specific program whose reserved funding the applicant is seeking.
The following estimates are based on the average over the first 3 years the program will be in place.
RD is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizens to access Government information and services electronically.
The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) prohibits discrimination against its customers, employees, and applicants for employment on the bases of race, color, national origin, age, disability, sex, gender identity, religion, reprisal and, where applicable, political beliefs, marital status, familial or parental status, sexual orientation, or all or part of an individual's income is derived from any public assistance program, or protected genetic information in employment or in any program or activity conducted or funded by the Department. (Not all prohibited bases will apply to all programs and/or employment activities.)
If you wish to file an employment complaint, you must contact your agency's EEO Counselor (PDF) within 45 days of the date of the alleged discriminatory act, event, or in the case of a personnel action. Additional information can be found online at
If you wish to file a Civil Rights program complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form (PDF), found online at
Individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or have speech disabilities and you wish to file either an EEO or program complaint please contact USDA through the Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339 or (800) 845-6136 (in Spanish).
Persons with disabilities who wish to file a program complaint, please see information above on how to contact us by mail directly or by email. If you require alternative means of communication for program information (
RD administers a multitude of Federal programs for the benefit of rural America, ranging from housing and community facilities to infrastructure and business development. Its mission is to increase economic opportunity and improve the quality of life in rural communities by providing the leadership, infrastructure, capital, and technical support that enables rural communities to prosper. To achieve its mission, RD provides financial support (including direct loans, grants, and loan guarantees) and technical assistance.
Section 6025 of the 2014 Farm Bill amends the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act by adding a new section—Section 379H, Strategic Economic and Community Development. This section provides RD the ability to prioritize projects that are part of multi-jurisdictional strategic economic develoment or community development plans. This provides RD an important mechanism to further our mission by leveraging projects that spur regional economic and community development. In addition, this will reward communities that demonstrate best practices for furthering sustainable regional and community prosperity by bringing together key local and regional stakeholders and using long-term planning that integrates targeted investments across communities and regions.
The following paragraphs discuss each section of the interim rule and provide additional information on RD's intent in implementing each.
This section summarizes the purpose of this subpart, which is to prioritize funding of projects that specifically further the implementation of strategic economic development and community development plans.
This section of the rule identifies the RD programs that the Secretary may elect to include for reserving funds for projects that support strategic economic development or community development plans. These programs are:
• Rural Community Facilities—community facility grants, guaranteed loans, and direct loans;
• Rural Utilities—water and waste disposal grants, guaranteed loans, and direct loans; and
• Rural Business and Cooperative Development—business and industry direct and guaranteed loans; and rural business development grants.
One of the requirements for a project to be eligible for Section 6025 funds is that it meets the “applicable eligibility requirements of this title;” that is, the project must meet the applicable eligibility requirements for at least one of the programs identified within Section 6025 (referred to hereafter as the “underlying program(s)”) and from which the funding is reserved. For example, if a project is seeking Section 6025 funds from Community Facility grants, the project must meet the applicant and project eligibility requirements of the underlying Community Facility program.
It is also the intent of RD that all of the provisions of the underlying programs apply to applicants and their projects seeking funding under this subpart. These provisions include, but are not limited to, definitions, application requirements, and reporting, recordkeeping, and servicing requirements.
Of particular note is the incorporation by reference of the definitions of “rural area” for the underlying programs. Section 6025 requires a project seeking funding under this subpart to, in part, be “carried out solely in a rural area.” In addition, Section 6025 requires using the definitions of rural area for the underlying programs as defined in the applicable provisions of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act, as amended. Rather than including a definition of “rural area” in this subpart, the applicable rural area definitions are incorporated by reference.
Finally, in order to implement Section 6025, RD found it necessary to supplement certain provisions of the underlying programs. This section thus also indicates where certain provisions of the underlying programs have been supplemented.
Section 6025 allows RD to reserve “an amount that does not exceed 10 percent of the funds made available for a fiscal year” for the three “functional categories”—Rural Community Facilities Category, Rural Utilities Category, and Rural Business and Cooperative Development Category. This section of the rule identifies how RD will implement the reservation of funds. Highlights of this section are:
• RD will reserve 10 percent of the funds appropriated each year to each underlying program, unless RD announces otherwise; and
• Any reserved funding not obligated by June 30 (or earlier if specified by RD) will be returned to the underlying program's regular funding account.
The following paragraphs discuss these and other provisions associated with funding.
For ease of implementation at both the program level and the administration level, RD will reserve funds on an individual program basis. The rule allows RD to reserve funds on a basis other than an individual program basis. If RD elects to do so, RD will notify the public by publishing a notice.
The primary factors that RD will take into account for determining whether to set a lower percentage for a program are (1) the funding level for that program for the upcoming fiscal year and (2) based on past experience, the level of demand for reserved funding for the program. For example, if the demand for reserved funding for a program is consistently less than 10 percent, RD would likely reduce the percentage it reserves for this priority funding.
If RD decides to set a lower percentage, RD will announce in a notice the lower percentage(s) and for which program(s). Once the percentage to be used for a given fiscal year is determined, RD will not change that percentage so that the amount of funding reserved for each program will remain the same for the fiscal year.
Section 6025, however, does not prohibit RD from establishing a date earlier than June 30th after which unobligated reserved funds are returned to the underlying program's account. RD may decide that an earlier date for a program is appropriate, for example, in order to coordinate the award of reserved funds with awards made for the underlying program. If RD elects to establish an earlier date, RD will announce in a notice the earlier date(s) and for which programs. This provision may result in programs having different dates for when unobligated reserved funds are returned to their respective underlying program's regular funding account. For example, the date for one
This section identifies the definitions that apply to this subpart. It also incorporates by reference definitions from the underlying regulations, including as discussed earlier the definitions of “rural area.” Lastly, if a term is defined in this subpart and in one of the underlying subparts, it has the meaning as defined in this subpart for purposes of receiving funding under this subpart. Terms specific to this subpart are discussed below.
• The entire project is physically located in a rural area or
• The beneficiaries of the service(s) provided through the project must either reside in a rural area (in the case of individuals) or be located in a rural area (in the case of entities).
The first metric focuses on the physical location of the project and without regard as to who would benefit from the project. For example, a hospital built entirely in a rural area would be an eligible project regardless if it provides health care services to non-rural residents.
The second metric focuses on where the beneficiaries of the services provided are located. For example, consider a project designed to provide water to residents of a rural area, but part of the project is located in a non-rural area and part of the project is located in a rural area. This project would not be an eligible project under the first metric (because part of the project is located in a non-rural area), but would be an eligible project under the second metric because the beneficiaries of the services (the individuals) reside entirely in a rural area. If, however, some of the beneficiaries reside in a non-rural area, then this project would not be an eligible project under either metric.
RD notes that projects must first be eligible under the appropriate underlying program in order to be considered eligible under this subpart. Then, the project must meet one of the two metrics established under this subpart. In most instances, meeting the underlying program's eligibility requirement will mean that the project already meets one or the other of these two metrics.
The principal component of “jurisdiction” is a unit of government, such as a State, Indian tribe, county, city, township, town, borough, etc. However, a plan is not always developed by, nor necessarily targeted at, such units of governments. For example, there are regional authorities, such as regional planning organizations, that may assist with developing and implementing regional economic development or community development plans. Thus, RD intends the definition of jurisdiction to be broad enough to take into account such entities.
Using the definition of jurisdiction, RD is defining “multi-jurisdictional” to mean more than one jurisdiction. This provides the broadest concept.
RD intends the definition of “plan” be inclusive rather than exclusive, but at the same time require the plan to address certain minimum elements in order to be effective in improving the economies of the region(s) addressed by the plan. RD examined plan requirements associated with other Federal agencies.
For the purposes of this subpart, a plan is a comprehensive economic development or community development strategy that outlines a region's vision for shaping its economy. This strategy would cover, as appropriate and necessary, a wide range of aspects such as natural resources, land use, transportation, and housing. Such plans bring together key community stakeholders to create a roadmap to diversify and strengthen their communities and to build a foundation to create the environment for regional economic prosperity.
To be an acceptable plan for the purposes of the subpart, the plan must be supported by the jurisdictions affected by the plan and must address each of the following elements:
• The economic conditions of the region;
• the economic and community strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats for the region, to include consideration of such aspects as the environmental and social conditions;
• strategies and implementation plan that build upon the region's strengths and opportunities and resolve the weaknesses and threats facing the region;
• performance measures to evaluate the successful implementation of the plan; and
• support of key community stakeholders.
RD notes that inclusion of each of the five elements does not speak to the quality of the plan (as discussed below under Scoring) or to whether the plan has been adopted (as discussed earlier under Adopted in the Definitions section of the preamble).
The statute identifies three criteria that a project must meet in order to be eligible for reserved funding. These criteria, which RD is implementing directly from the statute, are:
• The project must meet the project eligibility criteria of the applicable program identified in § 1980.1002;
• The project must be carried out solely in a rural area; and
• The project must support the implementation of a strategic economic development or community development plan on a multi-jurisdictional basis.
The first criterion simply means that a project must meet the project eligibility criteria of the underlying program. For example, if a project is applying for reserved funds from the Community Facility Grant program, the project must meet the eligibility criteria for that program.
For implementing the second criterion, RD is defining “carried out solely in a rural area.” See discussion under Definitions for more information.
For the third criterion, RD is shortening the criterion to read “supports a plan on a multi-jurisdictional basis” and is using the definition of “plan” to address the statute's “strategic community and economic development plan.”
The section of the rule identifies two main components as follows:
1.
2.
As noted below in scoring, applications will be scored, in part, on the number of a plan's objectives that a project will directly support for implementing the plan. To enable RD to score an application in this regard, the applicant must provide from the most current version of the plan a list and description of each objective that the project will directly support. To provide this information, the applicant may submit copies of the relevant pages from the plan or their own list and descriptions.
Applications will be also scored on the quality of the plan based on five criteria, as established in Section 6025—(1) collaboration, (2) regional resources, (3) investment from other Federal agencies, (4) investment from philanthropic organizations, and (5) clear objectives and the ability to establish measurable performance measures and track progress toward meeting the objectives. The Agency will evaluate each plan based on information provided by the applicant on each of these five criteria. Applicants may provide this information by submitting copies of the relevant pages from the plan or providing their own descriptions. In either case, failure to provide sufficient detail may result in a lower score for the application.
Because the criterion for collaboration is based, in part, on the collaboration of stakeholders within the service area of the plan, the applicant is also required to describe the service area of the plan. Lastly, the applicant may provide, if available, a Web site address to the plan.
While the applicant is not required to submit a copy of the entire plan, RD encourages the applicant to provide a copy of relevant portions of the plan to facilitate RD review and scoring of the project and the plan.
The applicant is also required to provide a detailed description of how the project directly supports one or more of the plan's objectives (which are identified by the applicant under the information being requested on the plan, see above). Failure to provide sufficient information to demonstrate direct support may result in a lower score for the application.
Lastly, applicants that include a State, county, municipal, or tribal government must submit a letter from the appropriate entity(ies) who approved the plan (such as an elected or appointed official) certifying that the applicant's project is consistent with the plan and that the plan has been adopted.
1.
2.
An applicant may submit applications at different times of the fiscal year. For example, an applicant may submit an application in November of a fiscal year and then another application in March of that same fiscal year. In such instances, the applicant would only need to identify the November application when submitting the March application.
3.
• The date the previous application was submitted;
• The name of the project;
• The specific program area(s) from which funds were sought;
• Whether or not the project was selected for funding; and
• If the applicant received an award under this subpart, the specific program(s) that provided the funding; the date and amount of the award; and whether any of the funding came from funds reserved under this subpart.
It is possible that the total amount of funds being requested by applicants for a particular program under this subpart may exceed the total reserved funds available for that program. To address this issue, RD will score projects on the basis of both the underlying program's scoring criteria, including discretionary points, and the scoring criteria, as described below, specific to this subpart.
To rank applications competing for the reserved funding under this subpart, RD will score an application considering two sets of scoring criteria (in addition to the scoring criteria of the applicable underlying program): (1) The number of a plan's objectives that the project supports (maximum of 10 points) and (2) the plan itself based on the five criteria identified in Section 6025 (maximum of 10 points). The maximum number of “Section 6025” points that a project can receive is 20 points.
• If the project directly supports implementation of three or more of the plan's objectives, the application will receive 10 points.
• If the project directly supports implementation of two of the plan's objectives, the application will receive 5 points.
• If the project directly supports implementation of less than two of the plan's objectives, the application will receive no points.
•
•
•
•
•
RD will calculate an application's total score by summing the application's scores received from (1) the underlying program, (2) the two sets of scoring criteria under this subpart, and (3) any discretionary points that may awarded by the State Director or the Administrator under the provisions of the applicable underlying program. RD will give higher priority for the reserved funding to higher scoring applications, based on the combined score.
Unless RD indicates otherwise in a notice, the award process for the underlying program will be used to determine which projects receive funding under this subpart.
In years where funding is made available under this subpart, if a project is not awarded funds under this subpart, it is still eligible to compete for funds through the underlying program. Such projects will be scored only according to the criteria in the underlying program including any discretionary points. Any points awarded through the Section 6025 scoring criteria will not be included when competing with other projects in the underlying program. However, in years where funding is not made available under this subpart, projects are still eligible to compete for funding under the applicable underlying program. The scores for such projects when competing for underlying program funding will include the score assigned to the application under § 1980.1020(b) as described in a notice published in the
An applicant that receives funding under this subpart is required to submit to the Agency information on the project's measures, metrics, and outcomes to the appropriate entity(ies) monitoring the implementation of the plan. Applicants would submit this information to the Agency for as long as the plan is in effect.
RD encourages interested persons and organizations to submit written
Comments may be submitted by any of the means identified in the
Agriculture, Business and industry, Community facilities, Credit, Disaster assistance, Livestock, Loan programs—agriculture, Loan programs—business, Loan programs—housing and community development, Low and moderate income housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 1980 is amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 7 U.S.C. 1989
The purpose of this subpart is to give priority to Projects that support implementation of strategic economic development and community development plans on a Multi-jurisdictional basis for applications submitted for the programs identified in § 1980.1002.
The Agency may elect to reserve funds from one or more of the programs listed in paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section.
(a) Community Facility Loans (7 CFR part 1942, subpart A).
(b) Fire and Rescue and Other Small Community Facilities Projects (7 CFR part 1942, subpart C).
(c) Community Facilities Grant Program (7 CFR part 3570, subpart B).
(d) Community Programs Guaranteed Loans (7 CFR part 3575, subpart A).
(e) Water and Waste Disposal Programs Guaranteed Loans (7 CFR part 1779).
(f) Water and Waste Loans and Grants (7 CFR part 1780, subparts A, B, C, and D).
(g) Business and Industry Guaranteed Loanmaking and Servicing (7 CFR part 4279, subparts A and B; 7 CFR part 4287, subpart B).
(h) Rural Business Development Grants (7 CFR part 4280, subpart E).
Except as supplemented by this subpart, the provisions of the programs identified in § 1980.1002 are incorporated into this subpart.
Unless the Agency publishes a notice that indicates otherwise, the Agency will reserve funds according to the procedures specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section for each of the programs identified in § 1980.1002 each fiscal year.
(a)
(b)
(c)
In addition to the definitions found in the regulations for the programs identified in § 1980.1002, the following definitions apply to this subpart. If the same term is defined in any of the regulations for the programs identified in § 1980.1002, for purposes of this subpart, that term will have the meaning identified in this subpart.
(1) The Project is physically located in a rural area; or
(2) All of the beneficiaries of the services provided by the Project either reside in a rural area (for individuals) or are located in a rural area (for businesses).
(1) A summary of the economic conditions of the region;
(2) An in-depth analysis of the economic and community strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats for the region, to include consideration of such aspects as the environmental and social conditions;
(3) Strategies and implementation Plan to build upon the region's strengths and opportunities and to resolve the weaknesses and threats facing the region;
(4) Performance measures that evaluate the successful implementation of the Plan's objectives; and
(5) Support of key community stakeholders.
In order to be eligible to receive funds under this subpart, the Project must meet the following:
(a) The Project must meet the Project eligibility criteria of the applicable program identified in § 1980.1002;
(b) The Project must be Carried Out Solely in a rural area; and
(c) The Project must support the implementation of a Plan on a Multi-Jurisdictional basis.
In addition to the application material specific to the applicable program identified in § 1980.1002, each applicant seeking funding under this subpart must provide the information specified in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
(a)
(1) Name of the applicant;
(2) Telephone number of the applicant;
(3) Email address of the applicant; and
(4) A statement indicating whether or not the applicant is or includes one of the following:
(i) State government;
(ii) County government;
(iii) Municipal government; or
(iv) Tribal government.
(b)
(1) The name of the Plan the Project supports;
(2) The date the Plan became effective;
(3) The dates the Plan is to remain in effect;
(4) Contact information for the entity(ies) approving the Plan, including name(s), telephone number(s), and email address(es);
(5) As found in the most current version of the Plan, the name and description of each objective that the Project will directly support;
(6) A description of the service area of the Plan;
(7) Documentation that the Plan was developed through the collaboration of multiple stakeholders in the service area of the Plan, including the participation of combinations of stakeholders;
(8) Documentation that the Plan demonstrates an understanding of the applicable region's assets that could support the Plan;
(9) Documentation indicating whether or not the Plan includes monetary or non-monetary contributions from Federal agencies other than the U.S. Department of Agriculture;
(10) Documentation indicating whether or not the Plan includes monetary or non-monetary contributions from one or more Philanthropic organizations.
(11) Documentation that the Plan contains:
(i) Clear objectives and
(ii) The ability to establish measurable performance measures and to track progress towards meeting the Plan's objectives; and
(12) If available, a Web site address link to the Plan.
(c)
(1) The name of the Project;
(2) Sufficient detail to allow the Agency to determine that the Project has been Carried Out Solely in a rural area as defined in § 1980.1005;
(3) A detailed description of how the Project directly supports each objective identified under paragraph (b)(5) of this section; and
(4) If the application is from an applicant that includes a State, county, municipal, or tribal government, a letter from the appropriate entity(ies) indicating that:
(i) The Project is consistent with the Plan and
(ii) The Plan has been Adopted.
(d)
(1)
(2)
(i) The name(s) of the Project(s);
(ii) The program area(s) for which funds are being sought; and
(iii) The date that each application was submitted to the Agency.
(3)
(i) The date the application was submitted;
(ii) The name of the Project;
(iii) The program area(s) from which funds were sought;
(iv) Whether or not the Project was selected for funding; and
(v) If the Project was selected for funding,
(A) The name(s) of the specific program(s) that provided the funding;
(B) The date and amount of the award; and
(C) Whether any of the funding came from the funds reserved under this subpart.
The Agency will score each eligible application seeking funding under this subpart as described in this section.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(i) If the Project directly supports implementation of 3 of the Plan's objectives, 10 points will be awarded.
(ii) If the Project directly supports implementation of 2 of the Plan's objectives, 5 points will be awarded.
(iii) If the Project directly supports implementation of less than 2 of the Plan's objectives, no points will be awarded.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(c)
(a) Unless RD indicates otherwise in a notice, the award process for the applicable underlying program will be used to determine which Projects receive funding under this subpart.
(b) In years when funding is made available under this subpart, Projects not receiving funding under this subpart are eligible to compete for funding under the applicable underlying program. The scores for such Projects when competing for underlying program funding will not include the score assigned to the application under § 1980.1020(b).
(c) In years when funding is not made available under this subpart, Projects are eligible to compete for funding for the applicable underlying program. The scores for such Projects when competing for underlying program funding will include the score assigned the application § 1980.1020(b) as described in a notice published in the
To assist the Agency in evaluating the effectiveness of this subpart, each applicant that receives funding under this subpart must submit to the Agency all measures, metrics, and outcomes of the Project that are reported to the entity(ies) who are monitoring Plan implementation. This information will be submitted for as long as the Plan is in effect.
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
This final rule amends regulations of the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA), Department of Commerce, to reinstate reporting requirements for the BE-180, Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons. Benchmark surveys are conducted every five years; the prior survey covered 2009. For the 2014 benchmark survey, BEA is making one change in the survey data items to collect data on equity- and debt-related underwriting transactions separately. This mandatory survey is conducted under the authority of the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act (the Act). Unlike most other BEA surveys conducted pursuant to the Act, a response is required from persons subject to the reporting requirements of the BE-180, Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons, whether or not they are contacted by BEA, to ensure Complete coverage of financial services transactions between U.S. financial services providers and foreign persons.
This final rule is effective June 19, 2015.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230; phone (202) 606-9850.
On January 27, 2015, BEA published a notice of proposed rulemaking that set forth revised reporting criteria for the BE-180, Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons (80 FR 4228-4231). BEA received four comments on the proposed rule.
One comment was written on behalf of hedge fund managers who are subject to BE-180 reporting requirements. The letter stated that the BE-180 survey is not well suited to hedge funds and that, for these respondents, the burden of reporting is significant. The commenter made two recommendations: (1) Entities that are not contacted by BEA should have no reporting responsibilities (similar to other BEA surveys); and (2) BEA should not extend reporting by U.S. investment managers to other BEA surveys. BEA is very concerned about respondent burden and has employed several approaches to reduce the burden where possible. However, BEA does not adopt the above two recommendations because of the statistical needs that govern how the data are collected and tabulated. If BEA does not require responses from all persons subject to the reporting requirements of the BE-180, we could not ensure that a complete and accurate sample frame is maintained in the non-benchmark years. Thus, lack of this information in a benchmark year would result in incomplete data in our tabulated information in non-
Another comment was written on behalf of the international banking community in the United States. The letter requested that BEA adopt an accommodating approach to allow impacted companies adequate time to complete the BE-180 survey. As the BE-180 applies to a broader audience and has reporting requirements that differ from the related BE-185 Quarterly Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons, the commenter stated that additional time to comply was necessary to help alleviate the filing burden. To provide ample time for respondents to complete and file the BE-180 survey, BEA will accept filing extension requests through the October 1, 2015 due date. Respondents can request extensions of 30 days or less over the phone or in writing; requests of greater than 30 days must be provided in writing. Additionally, any respondent that chooses to file electronically through BEA's eFile system will automatically receive a 30 day extension.
The third comment was written on behalf of the commercial energy industry and was concerned with the BE-180 definition of financial services provider. The commenter requested that BEA provide clarification with regard to what information should be reported by principals to commodity contracts. The commenter recommended that if BEA is unable to provide this clarification, the obligation to file the BE-180 should be limited only to those entities that are contacted by BEA. We will consider what additional guidance it can offer to clarify how commodity-related activities are to be reported, including expanded form instructions and FAQs.
The final comment was written on behalf of asset management firms that are subject to BE-180 reporting requirements. The letter stated that the impact of the BE-I80 survey and the reporting burden for entities in this industry are significant. The commenter made three recommendations: (1) Entities that are not contacted by BEA should have no reporting responsibilities (similar to other BEA surveys); (2) BEA should raise the $3 million monetary threshold for mandatory reporting on the BE-180 of financial services transactions; and (3) BEA should provide additional guidance to asset managers in order to collect meaningful Survey data. BEA does not adopt the first recommendation because of the statistical needs that govern data collection and tabulation. As previously stated, BEA could not ensure that a complete and accurate sample frame is maintained in the non-benchmark years if we did not require responses from all persons subject to the reporting requirements of the BE-180, which is a benchmark survey. BEA does not adopt the second recommendation because the $3 million threshold for mandatory reporting on the BE-180 survey is necessary to ensure an accurate sample frame for the quarterly BE-I85 survey. Therefore, this threshold is unchanged from the previous benchmark survey. Regarding the third recommendation, BEA will consider what additional guidance it can offer to asset managers, possibly in the form of expanded instructions and FAQs, to aid in communicating the filing requirements.
The change in data items collected (described in the Description of Changes section below) will be reflected in the final version of the BE-180 survey form.
This final rule adds 15 CFR part 801.9 to set forth the reporting requirements for the BE-180, Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons. BEA conducts the BE-180 under the authority provided by the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act (22 U.S.C. 3101-3108) and by Section 5408 of the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988.
By rule issued in 2012 (77 FR 24373), BEA established guidelines for collecting data on international trade in services and direct investment through notices, rather than through rulemaking. This final rule amends the regulations to require a response from persons subject to the reporting requirements of the BE-180, whether or not they are contacted by BEA, to ensure complete coverage of financial services transactions between U.S. financial services providers and foreign persons.
The BE-180 survey covers financial services transactions with foreign persons. In non-benchmark years, the universe estimates covering these transactions are derived from the sample data reported on BEA's BE-185, Quarterly Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons.
The data are used by BEA to estimate the financial services component of the U.S. International Transactions Accounts and other economic accounts compiled by BEA. The data are needed to monitor U.S. exports and imports of financial services; analyze their impact on the U.S. and foreign economies; support U.S. international trade policy on financial services; and assess and promote U.S. competitiveness in international trade in services. In addition, these data will improve the ability of U.S. businesses to identify and evaluate market opportunities.
The services covered by the BE-180 include the following transactions: (1) Brokerage services related to equity transactions; (2) other brokerage services; (3) underwriting and private placement services; (4) financial management services; (5) credit-related services, except credit card services; (6) credit card services; (7) financial advisory and custody services; (8) securities lending services; (9) electronic funds transfer services; and (10) other financial services.
The changes amend the regulations and the survey form for the BE-180 Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons. These amendments include changes in the data items collected and questionnaire design. Under this final rule and unlike many other BEA surveys conducted pursuant to the Act, persons subject to the reporting requirements of the BE-180 are required to respond whether or not they are contacted by BEA. Also, we are adding one item to the 2014 BE-180 survey form to collect data on equity- and debt-related underwriting transactions separately. The 2009 BE-180 survey collected these transactions as a combined amount. Separate reporting of these transactions is needed to accurately remove equity- and debt-related underwriting fees from purchases and sales of equity and debt security transactions, which are reported inclusive of underwriting and brokerage fees. A number of reporters include language in their financial statements that suggests equity- and debt-related underwriting transactions are readily obtainable from their accounting records. In addition, BEA is redesigning the format and wording of the survey form. The new design incorporates cognitive design improvements made to other BEA surveys that improve the flow of the survey form and eliminate redundancies in the survey questions. Survey instructions and data item descriptions are being changed to improve clarity and to make the benchmark survey form more consistent with those of other BEA surveys.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of E.O. 12866.
This final rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a Federalism assessment under E.O. 13132.
The collection of information in this final rule has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). OMB has pre-approved the information collection under OMB control number 0608-0062. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA unless that collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The BE-180 survey is expected to result in the filing of reports from approximately 8,750 respondents. Approximately 1,250 respondents would report mandatory or voluntary data on the survey and approximately 7,500 would file exemption claims. The respondent burden for this collection of information will vary from one respondent to another, but is estimated to average ten hours for the respondents that file mandatory or voluntary data-including time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information and two hours for other responses. Thus the total respondent burden for this survey is estimated at 27,500 hours, compared to 24,000 hours for the 2009 BE-180 survey. The increase in burden hours is due to an increase in the size of the respondent universe. Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-Information requirements contained in the final rule should be sent to both BEA via email at
The Chief Counsel for Regulation, Department of Commerce, certified at the proposed rule stage to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy, Small Business Administration, under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for the certification was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here.
BEA received one comment on the impact on small entities. The commenter, writing on behalf of asset management firms, stated that the broad scope of the financial services collected on the BE-180 survey, and the fact that the $3 million mandatory reporting level applies separately to sales or purchases, will impact a larger number of small businesses than indicated by BEA. BEA is very concerned about respondent burden and only collects data from the broader group of filers on benchmark surveys that are conducted once every five years. BEA acknowledges that a larger number of asset managers may be required to complete the BE-180 survey as a result of the $3 million threshold. However, even with a larger number of entities being required to report, preparing and submitting the required data will not have a significant economic impact on any entity, large or small. While the resources required to respond to the survey will vary from one respondent to another, BEA estimates that it will take, on average, ten hours for the respondents that file mandatory or voluntary data, and two hours for other responses. These estimates include time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing, reviewing, and submitting the appropriate form. This rule has no other impact or regulatory burden beyond the one-time reporting of the required information. Therefore, even businesses required to provide mandatory data on the survey will only expend a minimal number of hours of staff time to comply, which does not constitute a significant economic impact. Because this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, no FRFA is required and none has been prepared.
International transactions, Economic statistics, Foreign trade, Penalties, Reporting and record keeping requirements, International Services.
For reasons set forth in the preamble, BEA amends 15 CFR part 801 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 15 U.S.C. 4908; 22 U.S.C. 3101-3108; E.O. 11961 (3 CFR, 1977 Comp., p. 86), as amended by E.O. 12318 (3 CFR, 1981 Comp. p. 173); and E.O. 12518 (3 CFR, 1985 Comp. p. 348).
Except for surveys subject to rulemaking in §§ 801.7, 801.8 and 801.9, reporting requirements for all other surveys conducted by the Bureau of Economic Analysis shall be as follows:
(a) Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is required to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be published by the Director of the Bureau of Economic Analysis in the
(b) In accordance with section 3104(6)(2) of title 22 of the United States Code, persons notified of these surveys and subject to the jurisdiction of the United States shall furnish, under oath, any report containing information which is determined to be necessary to carry out the surveys and studies provided for by the Act; and
(c) Persons not notified in writing of their filing obligation by the Bureau of Economic Analysis are not required to complete the survey.
A BE-180, Benchmark Survey of Financial Services Transactions between U.S. Financial Services Providers and Foreign Persons will be conducted covering 2014. All legal authorities, provisions, definitions, and requirements contained in §§ 801.1 through 801.2 and 801.4 through 801.6 are applicable to this survey. Specific additional rules and regulations for the BE-180 survey are given in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. More detailed instructions are given on the report forms and in instructions accompanying the report forms.
(a)
(1) Completing and returning the BE-180 survey by the due date; or,
(2) If exempt, by completing pages one through five of the BE-180 survey and returning them to BEA.
(b)
(i) The determination of whether a U.S. financial services provider or intermediary is subject to this mandatory reporting requirement may be based on the judgment of knowledgeable persons in a company who can identify reportable transactions on a recall basis, with a reasonable degree of certainty, without conducting a detailed manual records search.
(ii) Reporters that file pursuant to this mandatory reporting requirement must provide data on total sales and/or purchases of each of the covered types of financial services transactions and must disaggregate the totals by country and by relationship to the foreign transactor (foreign affiliate, foreign parent group, or unaffiliated).
(2)
(3)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Social Security Administration.
Final rule.
We are revising the criteria in parts A and B of the Listing of Impairments (listings) that we use to evaluate claims involving cancer (malignant neoplastic diseases) under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act (Act). These revisions reflect our adjudicative experience, advances in medical knowledge, recommendations from medical experts we consulted, and public comments we received in response to a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM).
This rule is effective July 20, 2015.
Cheryl A. Williams, Office of Medical Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401, (410) 965-1020. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
We are revising and making final the regulations for evaluating cancer (malignant neoplastic diseases) that we proposed in an NPRM published in the
In the preamble to the NPRM, we discussed our proposed changes and our reasons for making them. Since we are mostly adopting those revisions as we proposed them, we are not repeating that information here. Interested readers may refer to the preamble in the NPRM, available at
We are making some changes in this final rule based on the public comments we received on the NPRM. We explain these changes in the “Summary of Public Comments” below.
We developed this final rule as part of our ongoing review of the cancer body system. When we last revised the listings for this body system in a final rule published on October 6, 2009, we indicated that we would monitor and update the listings as needed.
We are extending the effective date of the cancer body system in parts A and B of the listings until 5 years after the effective date of this final rule. The rule will remain in effect only until that date unless we extend the expiration date. We will continue to monitor the rule and may revise it, as needed, before the end of the 5-year period.
In the NPRM, we gave the public a 60-day comment period that ended on February 18, 2014. We received 15 comments. The commenters included national cancer advocacy groups, State agencies, a national group representing disability examiners in State agencies that make disability determinations for us, medical professionals, and individual members of the public.
We carefully considered all of the significant comments relevant to this rulemaking. We have condensed and summarized the comments below. We believe we have presented the commenters' concerns and suggestions accurately and completely and responded to all significant issues that were within the scope of this rule. We provide our reasons for adopting or not adopting the recommendations in our responses below.
Comment: A commenter recommended that we include cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings as evidence for determining listing-level lymphoma under final listings 113.05A1 and 113.05B1.
Similarly, a commenter recommended we add a listing that prescribes a period of disability of at least 18 months for people receiving multimodal therapy that includes surgery for low anal cancers and rectal cancers. The commenter noted that neoadjuvant chemotherapy or radiation followed by surgery to eliminate these anal or rectal cancers frequently takes at least 12 months to complete. The treatment may result in prolonged debilitation although the impairment may not meet or medically equal the listings.
However, we agree with the commenter that in some cases multimodal therapy may take substantially longer than 6 months to complete. For example, very serious adverse effects may interrupt and prolong therapy, resulting in an active impairment lasting almost 12 months. It is a long-standing principle that we may make a finding of disability at the listing step if there is the expectation that an impairment that has been active for almost 12 months will preclude a person from engaging in any gainful activity for the required 12 months. We base this finding on the nature of the impairment; prescribed treatment; therapeutic history, including adverse effects of treatment; and other relevant considerations. Therefore, we partially adopted the comment by providing language in final section 13.00G3 to clarify that we can apply this principle to multimodal anticancer therapy for breast cancer and other cancers. We also added the clarifying language in final section 113.00G3 for children.
We did not make changes to listing 13.18 for evaluating anal and rectal cancers. This listing and the commenter's recommendation for a new listing covering multimodal therapy with surgery for anal and rectal cancers
Comment: One commenter recommended that we clarify in the introductory text whether adjudicators should use listing 13.13 to evaluate pituitary gland cancer in adults.
We made a number of editorial changes and technical corrections in the final rule to increase the clarity and consistency of the listings. For example, we redesignated proposed listing 13.05A3 for evaluating mantle cell lymphoma in adults as final listing 13.05D to make it a stand-alone listing consistent with stand-alone final listing 113.05D for evaluating mantle cell lymphoma in children. We also changed the parenthetical examples in prior sections 13.00H1 and 113.00H1 from “at least 18 months from the date of diagnosis” and “at least 12 months from the date of diagnosis,” respectively, to “until at least 12 months from the date of transplantation” to make these adult and child sections consistent.
Additionally, we redesignated proposed listings 13.29A3 and 113.29A3 for evaluating mucosal melanoma as stand-alone listings 13.29C and 113.29C. We made this change because we determined, through our ongoing review of the scientific and medical literature, that mucosal melanoma carries a very poor prognosis and is of listing-level severity regardless of whether it is an initial disease or a recurrent disease. We also added examples of distant sites frequently affected by metastases from cutaneous and ocular melanomas in 13.29B3 and 113.29B3.
Under the Act, we have full power and authority to make rules and regulations and to establish necessary and appropriate procedures to carry out such provisions.
We have consulted with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and determined that this final rule meets the criteria for a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563, and was reviewed by OMB.
We certify that this final rule has no significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it affects only individuals. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis was not required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended.
This final rule does not create any new or affect any existing collections and, therefore, does not require OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Blind, Disability benefits, Old-age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Social Security.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we are amending 20 CFR part 404 subpart P as set forth below:
Secs. 202, 205(a)-(b) and (d)-(h), 216(i), 221(a), (i), and (j), 222(c), 223, 225, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 402, 405(a)-(b), and (d)-(h), 416(i), 421(a), (i), and (j), 422(c), 423, 425, and 902(a)(5)); sec. 211(b), Pub. L. 104-193, 110 Stat. 2105, 2189; sec. 202, Pub. L. 108-203, 118 Stat. 509 (42 U.S.C. 902 note).
The revised and added text is set forth as follows:
14. Cancer (Malignant Neoplastic Diseases) (13.00 and 113.00): July 20, 2020.
A.
B.
1. Origin of the cancer.
2. Extent of involvement.
3. Duration, frequency, and response to anticancer therapy.
4. Effects of any post-therapeutic residuals.
C.
D.
1. We need medical evidence that specifies the type, extent, and site of the primary, recurrent, or metastatic lesion. When the primary site cannot be identified, we will use evidence documenting the site(s) of metastasis to evaluate the impairment under 13.27.
2. For operative procedures, including a biopsy or a needle aspiration, we generally need a copy of both the:
a. Operative note, and
b. Pathology report.
3. When we cannot get these documents, we will accept the summary of hospitalization(s) or other medical reports. This evidence should include details of the findings at surgery and, whenever appropriate, the pathological findings.
4. In some situations, we may also need evidence about recurrence, persistence, or progression of the cancer, the response to therapy, and any significant residuals. (See 13.00G.)
E.
1.
2.
3.
a. Whenever the initial planned therapy is a single modality, enough time must pass to allow a determination about whether the therapy will achieve its intended effect. If the treatment fails, the failure often happens within 6 months after treatment starts, and there will often be a change in the treatment regimen.
b. Whenever the initial planned therapy is multimodal, we usually cannot make a determination about the effectiveness of the therapy until we can determine the effects of all the planned modalities. In some cases, we may need to defer adjudication until we can assess the effectiveness of therapy. However, we do not need to defer adjudication to determine whether the therapy will achieve its intended effect if we can make a fully favorable determination or decision based on the length and effects of therapy, or the residuals of the cancer or therapy (see 13.00G).
c. We need evidence under 13.02E, 13.11D, and 13.14C to establish that your treating
F.
1. These listings are only examples of cancer that we consider severe enough to prevent you from doing any gainful activity. If your severe impairment(s) does not meet the criteria of any of these listings, we must also consider whether you have an impairment(s) that meets the criteria of a listing in another body system.
2. If you have a severe medically determinable impairment(s) that does not meet a listing, we will determine whether your impairment(s) medically equals a listing. (See §§ 404.1526 and 416.926 of this chapter.) If your impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listing, you may or may not have the residual functional capacity to engage in substantial gainful activity. In that situation, we proceed to the fourth, and, if necessary, the fifth steps of the sequential evaluation process in §§ 404.1520 and 416.920 of this chapter. We use the rules in §§ 404.1594 and 416.994 of this chapter, as appropriate, when we decide whether you continue to be disabled.
G.
1.
2.
a. We consider each case on an individual basis because the therapy and its toxicity may vary widely. We will request a specific description of the therapy, including these items:
i. Drugs given.
ii. Dosage.
iii. Frequency of drug administration.
iv. Plans for continued drug administration.
v. Extent of surgery.
vi. Schedule and fields of radiation therapy.
b. We will also request a description of the complications or adverse effects of therapy, such as the following:
i. Continuing gastrointestinal symptoms.
ii. Persistent weakness.
iii. Neurological complications.
iv. Cardiovascular complications.
v. Reactive mental disorders.
3.
4.
H.
1. In some listings, we specify that we will consider your impairment to be disabling until a particular point in time (for example, until at least 12 months from the date of transplantation). We may consider your impairment to be disabling beyond this point when the medical and other evidence justifies it.
2. When a listing does not contain such a specification, we will consider an impairment(s) that meets or medically equals a listing in this body system to be disabling until at least 3 years after onset of complete remission. When the impairment(s) has been in complete remission for at least 3 years, that is, the original tumor or a recurrence (or relapse) and any metastases have not been evident for at least 3 years, the impairment(s) will no longer meet or medically equal the criteria of a listing in this body system.
3. Following the appropriate period, we will consider any residuals, including residuals of the cancer or therapy (see 13.00G), in determining whether you are disabled. If you have a recurrence or relapse of your cancer, your impairment may meet or medically equal one of the listings in this body system again.
I.
1.
2.
3.
4.
a. Surgery followed by chemotherapy or radiation.
b. Chemotherapy followed by surgery.
c. Chemotherapy and concurrent radiation.
5.
6.
7.
8.
J.
1. The type of cancer and its location.
2. The extent of involvement when the cancer was first demonstrated.
3. Your symptoms.
K.
1.
a. Many indolent (non-aggressive) lymphomas are controlled by well-tolerated treatment modalities, although the lymphomas may produce intermittent symptoms and signs. We may defer adjudicating these cases for an appropriate period after therapy is initiated to determine whether the therapy will achieve its intended effect, which is usually to stabilize the disease process. (See 13.00E3.) Once your disease stabilizes, we will assess severity based on the extent of involvement of other organ systems and residuals from therapy.
b. A change in therapy for indolent lymphomas is usually an indicator that the therapy is not achieving its intended effect. However, your impairment will not meet the requirements of 13.05A2 if your therapy is changed solely because you or your
c. We consider Hodgkin lymphoma that recurs more than 12 months after completing initial anticancer therapy to be a new disease rather than a recurrence.
2.
a.
b.
c.
i. We require the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) to be documented by evidence of a chronic lymphocytosis of at least 10,000 cells/mm
ii. We evaluate the complications and residual impairment(s) from CLL under the appropriate listings, such as 13.05A2 or the hematological listings (7.00).
d.
3.
4.
a. We evaluate bilateral primary breast cancer (synchronous or metachronous) under 13.10A, which covers local primary disease, and not as a primary disease that has metastasized.
b. We evaluate secondary lymphedema that results from anticancer therapy for breast cancer under 13.10E if the lymphedema is treated by surgery to salvage or restore the functioning of an upper extremity. Secondary lymphedema is edema that results from obstruction or destruction of normal lymphatic channels. We may not restrict our determination of the onset of disability to the date of the surgery; we may establish an earlier onset date of disability if the evidence in your case record supports such a finding.
5.
6.
a. The CNS cancers listed in 13.13A1 are highly malignant and respond poorly to treatment, and therefore we do not require additional criteria to evaluate them. We do not list pituitary gland cancer (for example, pituitary gland carcinoma) in 13.13A1, although this CNS cancer is highly malignant and responds poorly to treatment. We evaluate pituitary gland cancer under 13.13A1 and do not require additional criteria to evaluate it.
b. We consider a CNS tumor to be malignant if it is classified as Grade II, Grade III, or Grade IV under the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of tumors of the CNS (
c. We evaluate benign (for example, WHO Grade I) CNS tumors under 11.05. We evaluate metastasized CNS cancers from non-CNS sites under the primary cancers (see 13.00C). We evaluate any complications of CNS cancers, such as resultant neurological or psychological impairments, under the criteria for the affected body system.
7.
8.
9.
L.
1.
2.
3.
a.
b.
4.
a. Graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.
b. Immunosuppressant therapy, such as frequent infections.
c. Significant deterioration of other organ systems.
13.02
B. Persistent or recurrent disease following initial anticancer therapy, except persistence or recurrence in the true vocal cord.
D. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
E. Soft tissue cancers originating in the head and neck treated with multimodal anticancer therapy (see 13.00E3c). Consider under a disability until at least 18 months from the date of diagnosis. Thereafter,
13.03
B. Carcinoma invading deep extradermal structures (for example, skeletal muscle, cartilage, or bone).
13.04 Soft tissue sarcoma.
B. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
13.05
A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, as described in 1 or 2:
1. Aggressive lymphoma (including diffuse large B-cell lymphoma) persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
2. Indolent lymphoma (including mycosis fungoides and follicular small cleaved cell) requiring initiation of more than one (single mode or multimodal) anticancer treatment regimen within a period of 12 consecutive months. Consider under a disability from at least the date of initiation of the treatment regimen that failed within 12 months.
B. Hodgkin lymphoma with failure to achieve clinically complete remission, or recurrent lymphoma within 12 months of completing initial anticancer therapy.
D. Mantle cell lymphoma.
13.06
B. * * *
1. Accelerated or blast phase (see 13.00K2b). * * *
2. Chronic phase, as described in a or b:
b. Progressive disease following initial anticancer therapy.
13.07
A. Failure to respond or progressive disease following initial anticancer therapy.
13.10
A. Locally advanced cancer (inflammatory carcinoma, cancer of any size with direct extension to the chest wall or skin, or cancer of any size with metastases to the ipsilateral internal mammary nodes).
C. Recurrent carcinoma, except local recurrence that remits with anticancer therapy.
D. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
E. With secondary lymphedema that is caused by anticancer therapy and treated by surgery to salvage or restore the functioning of an upper extremity. (See 13.00K4b.) Consider under a disability until at least 12 months from the date of the surgery that treated the secondary lymphedema. Thereafter, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
13.11
B. Recurrent cancer (except local recurrence) after initial anticancer therapy.
D. All other cancers originating in bone with multimodal anticancer therapy (see 13.00E3c). Consider under a disability for 12 months from the date of diagnosis. Thereafter, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
13.12
C. Cancer with extension to the orbit, meninges, sinuses, or base of the skull.
13.13
A. Primary central nervous system (CNS; that is, brain and spinal cord) cancers, as described in 1, 2, or 3:
1. Glioblastoma multiforme, ependymoblastoma, and diffuse intrinsic brain stem gliomas (see 13.00K6a).
2. Any Grade III or Grade IV CNS cancer (see 13.00K6b), including astrocytomas, sarcomas, and medulloblastoma and other primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNETs).
3. Any primary CNS cancer, as described in a or b:
a. Metastatic.
b. Progressive or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
B. Primary peripheral nerve or spinal root cancers, as described in 1 or 2:
1. Metastatic.
2. Progressive or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
13.14
C. Carcinoma of the superior sulcus (including Pancoast tumors) with multimodal anticancer therapy (see 13.00E3c). * * *
13.15
B. * * *
2. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
C. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.16
B. * * *
C. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.17
B. * * *
C. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.18
C. * * *
D. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.19
13.20
B. Islet cell carcinoma that is physiologically active and is either inoperable or unresectable.
13.22
D. * * *
E. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.23
A. * * *
3. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
B. Uterine cervix, as described in 1, 2, or 3:
1. Extending to the pelvic wall, lower portion of the vagina, or adjacent or distant organs.
2. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
3. With metastases to distant (for example, para-aortic or supraclavicular) lymph nodes.
C. * * *
3. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
D. * * *
2. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
E. Ovaries, as described in 1 or 2:
1. All cancers except germ-cell cancers, with at least one of the following:
a. Extension beyond the pelvis; for example, implants on, or direct extension to, peritoneal, omental, or bowel surfaces.
b. Metastases to or beyond the regional lymph nodes.
c. Recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
2. Germ-cell cancers—progressive or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
F. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.24
A. Progressive or recurrent (not including biochemical recurrence) despite initial hormonal intervention. (See 13.00K8.)
B. * * *
C. Small-cell (oat cell) carcinoma.
13.25
13.28
13.29
A. Recurrent (except an additional primary melanoma at a different site, which is not considered to be recurrent disease) following either 1 or 2:
1. Wide excision (skin melanoma).
2. Enucleation of the eye (ocular melanoma).
B. With metastases as described in 1, 2, or 3:
1. Metastases to one or more clinically apparent nodes; that is, nodes that are detected by imaging studies (excluding lymphoscintigraphy) or by clinical evaluation (palpable).
2. If the nodes are not clinically apparent, with metastases to four or more nodes.
3. Metastases to adjacent skin (satellite lesions) or distant sites (for example, liver, lung, or brain).
C. Mucosal melanoma.
A.
B.
1. Origin of the cancer.
2. Extent of involvement.
3. Duration, frequency, and response to anticancer therapy.
4. Effects of any post-therapeutic residuals.
C.
D.
1. We need medical evidence that specifies the type, extent, and site of the primary, recurrent, or metastatic lesion. When the primary site cannot be identified, we will use evidence documenting the site(s) of metastasis to evaluate the impairment under 13.27 in part A.
2. For operative procedures, including a biopsy or a needle aspiration, we generally need a copy of both the:
a. Operative note, and
b. Pathology report.
3. When we cannot get these documents, we will accept the summary of hospitalization(s) or other medical reports. This evidence should include details of the findings at surgery and, whenever appropriate, the pathological findings.
4. In some situations, we may also need evidence about recurrence, persistence, or progression of the cancer, the response to therapy, and any significant residuals. (See 113.00G.)
E.
1.
2.
3.
a. Whenever the initial planned therapy is a single modality, enough time must pass to allow a determination about whether the therapy will achieve its intended effect. If the treatment fails, the failure often happens within 6 months after treatment starts, and there will often be a change in the treatment regimen.
b. Whenever the initial planned therapy is multimodal, we usually cannot make a determination about the effectiveness of the therapy until we can determine the effects of all the planned modalities. In some cases, we may need to defer adjudication until we can assess the effectiveness of therapy. However, we do not need to defer adjudication to determine whether the therapy will achieve its intended effect if we can make a fully favorable determination or decision based on the length and effects of therapy, or the residuals of the cancer or therapy (see 113.00G).
F.
1. These listings are only examples of cancers that we consider severe enough to result in marked and severe functional limitations. If your severe impairment(s) does not meet the criteria of any of these listings, we must also consider whether you have an impairment(s) that meets the criteria of a listing in another body system.
2. If you have a severe medically determinable impairment(s) that does not meet a listing, we will determine whether your impairment(s) medically equals a listing. (See §§ 404.1526 and 416.926 of this chapter.) If your impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listing, we will also consider whether you have an impairment(s) that functionally equals the listings. (See § 416.926a of this chapter.) We use the rules in § 416.994a of this chapter when we decide whether you continue to be disabled.
G.
1.
2.
a. We consider each case on an individual basis because the therapy and its toxicity may vary widely. We will request a specific description of the therapy, including these items:
i. Drugs given.
ii. Dosage.
iii. Frequency of drug administration.
iv. Plans for continued drug administration.
v. Extent of surgery.
vi. Schedule and fields of radiation therapy.
b. We will also request a description of the complications or adverse effects of therapy, such as the following:
i. Continuing gastrointestinal symptoms.
ii. Persistent weakness.
iii. Neurological complications.
iv. Cardiovascular complications.
v. Reactive mental disorders.
3.
4.
H.
1. In some listings, we specify that we will consider your impairment to be disabling until a particular point in time (for example, until at least 12 months from the date of transplantation). We may consider your impairment to be disabling beyond this point when the medical and other evidence justifies it.
2. When a listing does not contain such a specification, we will consider an impairment(s) that meets or medically equals a listing in this body system to be disabling until at least 3 years after onset of complete remission. When the impairment(s) has been in complete remission for at least 3 years, that is, the original tumor or a recurrence (or relapse) and any metastases have not been evident for at least 3 years, the impairment(s) will no longer meet or medically equal the criteria of a listing in this body system.
3. Following the appropriate period, we will consider any residuals, including residuals of the cancer or therapy (see 113.00G), in determining whether you are disabled. If you have a recurrence or relapse of your cancer, your impairment may meet or medically equal one of the listings in this body system again.
I.
1.
2.
3.
a. Surgery followed by chemotherapy or radiation.
b. Chemotherapy followed by surgery.
c. Chemotherapy and concurrent radiation.
4.
5.
6.
J.
1. The type of cancer and its location.
2. The extent of involvement when the cancer was first demonstrated.
3. Your symptoms.
K.
1.
a. We provide criteria for evaluating lymphomas that are disseminated or have not responded to anticancer therapy in 113.05.
b. Lymphoblastic lymphoma is treated with leukemia-based protocols, so we evaluate this type of cancer under 113.06.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
4.
a. The CNS cancers listed in 113.13A are highly malignant and respond poorly to treatment, and therefore we do not require additional criteria to evaluate them. We do not list pituitary gland cancer (for example, pituitary gland carcinoma) in 113.13A, although this CNS cancer is highly malignant and responds poorly to treatment. We evaluate pituitary gland cancer under 113.13A and do not require additional criteria to evaluate it.
b. We consider a CNS tumor to be malignant if it is classified as Grade II, Grade III, or Grade IV under the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of tumors of the CNS (
c. We evaluate benign (for example, WHO Grade I) CNS tumors under 111.05. We evaluate metastasized CNS cancers from non-CNS sites under the primary cancers (see 113.00C). We evaluate any complications of CNS cancers, such as resultant neurological or psychological impairments, under the criteria for the affected body system.
5.
6.
L.
1.
2.
3.
a. Graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.
b. Immunosuppressant therapy, such as frequent infections.
c. Significant deterioration of other organ systems.
113.01 Category of Impairments, Cancer (Malignant Neoplastic Diseases)
113.03
A. For 24 months from the date of initial diagnosis. Thereafter, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
B. For 24 months from the date of recurrence of active disease. Thereafter, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
113.05
A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (including Burkitt's and anaplastic large cell), with either 1 or 2:
1. Bone marrow, brain, spinal cord, liver, or lung involvement at initial diagnosis. Consider under a disability for 24 months from the date of diagnosis. Thereafter, evaluate under 113.05A2, or any residual impairments(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
2. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
B. Hodgkin lymphoma, with either 1 or 2:
1. Bone marrow, brain, spinal cord, liver, or lung involvement at initial diagnosis. Consider under a disability for 24 months from the date of diagnosis. Thereafter, evaluate under 113.05B2, or any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
2. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
D. Mantle cell lymphoma.
113.06
A. Acute leukemia (including all types of lymphoblastic lymphomas and juvenile chronic myelogenous leukemia (JCML)). Consider under a disability until at least 24 months from the date of diagnosis or relapse, or at least 12 months from the date of bone marrow or stem cell transplantation, whichever is later. Thereafter, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
B. * * *
1. Accelerated or blast phase (see 113.00K2b). Consider under a disability until at least 24 months from the date of diagnosis or relapse, or at least 12 months from the date of bone marrow or stem cell transplantation, whichever is later. Thereafter, evaluate any residual impairment(s) under the criteria for the affected body system.
113.12 Retinoblastoma.
B. Persistent or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
113.13
A. Glioblastoma multiforme, ependymoblastoma, and diffuse intrinsic brain stem gliomas (see 113.00K4a).
B. Any Grade III or Grade IV CNS cancer (see 113.00K4b), including astrocytomas, sarcomas, and medulloblastoma and other primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNETs).
C. Any primary CNS cancer, as described in 1 or 2:
1. Metastatic.
2. Progressive or recurrent following initial anticancer therapy.
113.29
A. Recurrent (except an additional primary melanoma at a different site, which is not considered to be recurrent disease) following either 1 or 2:
1. Wide excision (skin melanoma).
2. Enucleation of the eye (ocular melanoma).
B. With metastases as described in 1, 2, or 3:
1. Metastases to one or more clinically apparent nodes; that is, nodes that are detected by imaging studies (excluding lymphoscintigraphy) or by clinical evaluation (palpable).
2. If the nodes are not clinically apparent, with metastases to four or more nodes.
3. Metastases to adjacent skin (satellite lesions) or distant sites (for example, liver, lung, or brain).
C. Mucosal melanoma.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Final rule.
The Department of the Navy (DoN) is amending its certifications and exemptions under the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, as amended (72 COLREGS), to reflect that the Deputy Assistant Judge Advocate General (DAJAG) (Admiralty and Maritime Law) has determined that USS PRINCETON (CG 59) is a vessel of the Navy which, due to its special construction and purpose, cannot fully comply with certain provisions of the 72 COLREGS without interfering with its special function as a naval ship. The intended effect of this rule is to warn mariners in waters where 72 COLREGS apply.
This rule is effective May 20, 2015 and is applicable beginning May 11, 2015.
Commander Theron R. Korsak, (Admiralty and Maritime Law), Office of the Judge Advocate General, Department of the Navy, 1322 Patterson Ave. SE., Suite 3000, Washington Navy Yard, DC 20374-5066, telephone 202-685-5040.
Pursuant to the authority granted in 33 U.S.C. 1605, the DoN amends 32 CFR part 706.
This amendment provides notice that the DAJAG (Admiralty and Maritime Law), under authority delegated by the Secretary of the Navy, has certified that USS PRINCETON (CG 59) is a vessel of the Navy which, due to its special construction and purpose, cannot fully comply with the following specific provisions of 72 COLREGS without interfering with its special function as a naval ship: Annex I, paragraph 3(a), pertaining to the horizontal distance between the forward and after masthead lights. The DAJAG (Admiralty and Maritime Law) has also certified that the lights involved are located in closest possible compliance with the applicable 72 COLREGS requirements.
Moreover, it has been determined, in accordance with 32 CFR parts 296 and 701, that publication of this amendment for public comment prior to adoption is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to public interest since it is based on technical findings that the placement of lights on this vessel in a manner differently from that prescribed herein will adversely affect the vessel's ability to perform its military functions.
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Vessels.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the DoN amends part 706 of title 32 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1605.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a safety zone for underwater detonation operations in the waters of Apra Outer Harbor, Guam. This rule is effective from 10 a.m. until 4 p.m. on May 15, 2015 and May 21, 2015 (kilo, Local Time). The enforcement period for this rule is from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. on May 15, 2015 and May 21, 2015. The Coast Guard believes this safety zone regulation is necessary to protect all persons and vessels that would otherwise transit or be within the affected area from possible safety hazards associated with underwater detonation operations.
This rule is effective without actual notice from May 20, 2015 through 4 p.m. May 21, 2015 (kilo, Local Time). For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 10 a.m. on May 15, 2015 until May 20, 2015.
Documents indicated in this preamble are part of docket USCG-2015-0304. To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Chief, Kristina Gauthier, Sector Guam, U.S. Coast Guard; (671) 355-4866,
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary final rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a)of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because doing so would be impracticable. The Coast Guard received notice of this operation on March 31, 2015, only 46 days before the operation is scheduled. Due to this late notice, the Coast Guard did not have time to issue a notice of proposed rulemaking.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), for the same reason mentioned above, the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The legal basis for this rule is the Coast Guard's authority to establish regulated navigation areas and other limited access areas: 33 U.S.C 1231; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-6, 160.5; and Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1. A safety zone is a water area, shore area, or water and shore area, for which access is limited to authorized person, vehicles, or vessels for safety purposes.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to protect mariners from the potential hazards associated with a U.S. Navy training exercise which include detonation of underwater explosives. Approaching too close to such exercises could potentially expose the mariner to flying debris or other hazardous conditions.
In order to protect the public from the hazards of the U.S. Navy training exercise, the Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone, effective from 10 a.m. May 15, 2015 through 4 p.m. May 21, 2015 (Kilo, Local Time). The enforcement periods for this rule will be from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. on May 15, 2015 and May 21, 2015.
The safety zone is located within the Guam COTP Zone (See 33 CFR 3.70-15), and will cover all waters bounded by a circle with a 700-yard radius for vessels
The general regulations governing safety zones contained in 33 CFR 165.23 apply. Entry into, transit through or anchoring within safety zones is prohibited unless authorized by the COTP or a designated representative thereof. Any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant, or petty officer, and any other COTP representative permitted by law, may enforce the zone. The COTP may waive any of the requirements of this rule for any person, vessel, or class of vessel upon finding that application of the safety zone regulation is unnecessary or impractical for the purpose of maritime safety. Vessels or persons violating this rule may be subject to the penalties set forth in 33 U.S.C. 1232 and/or 50 U.S.C. 192.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes or executive orders.
This rule is not a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review, and does not require an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of Executive Order 12866 or under section 1 of Executive Order 13563. The Office of Management and Budget has not reviewed it under those Orders. The Coast Guard expects the economic impact of this rule to be extremely minimal based on the short duration of the safety zone regulation and the limited geographic area affected by it.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This safety zone regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities for the following reasons. This rule would affect the following entities, some of which might be small entities: the owners or operators of vessels intending to transit through a portion of the zones from 10 a.m. through 4 p.m. on May 15, 2015 and May 21, 2015. This rule will be enforced for only 6 hours each day and vessel traffic can pass safely around the safety zone. The safety zone does not encompass the entire harbor and safe transit is still allowed to pass through, in and out of Apra Harbor. Further, traffic will be allowed to pass through the zones with the permission of the Coast Guard Patrol Commander 671-487-4817. Before the effective period, we will issue maritime advisories widely available to users of outer Apra Harbor.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and determined that this rule does not have implications for federalism.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
This rule will not cause a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. This rule is not an economically significant rule and would not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that might disproportionately affect children.
This rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
This rule is not a “significant energy action” under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use.
This rule does not use technical standards. Therefore, we did not consider the use of voluntary consensus standards.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a closed area of Apra Outer Harbor, to vessel traffic, for 6 hours on both May 15, 2015 and May 21, 2015. This rule is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and record-keeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 46 U.S.C. Chapter 701, 3306, 3703; 50 U.S.C. 191, 195; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Pub. L. 107-295, 116 Stat. 2064; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
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Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency (IEPA) on December 2, 2013. The state rule revisions update Illinois' ambient air quality standards for sulfur dioxide (SO
This direct final rule will be effective July 20, 2015, unless EPA receives adverse comments by June 19, 2015. If adverse comments are received by EPA, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2013-0819, by one of the following methods:
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Edward Doty, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-6057,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This
Section 109 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) requires the EPA to establish national primary (protective of human health) and secondary (protective of human welfare) air quality standards. Individually or collectively these standards are referred to as NAAQS. Section 109(d)(1) of the CAA requires EPA to review, and if necessary, based on accumulated health or welfare data, to revise each NAAQS every five years. States that maintain state air quality standard definitions in their state rules and SIPs must periodically revise their rules and SIPs to reflect the latest NAAQS.
On December 2, 2013, IEPA submitted a SIP revision containing rule revisions to address the NAAQS for SO
Illinois' rule revisions ensure consistency between the state and Federal definitions of the air quality standards and associated monitoring methods, and support consistency between the state and the EPA in the determination of attainment or nonattainment of the air quality standards.
The state rule revisions were adopted by the Illinois Pollution Control Board (IPCB) on July 25, 2013, and became effective on July 29, 2013.
A public hearing on the rule revisions was held on June 26, 2013, and the state addressed several comments made during this hearing or received through written comments submitted by the public.
Illinois' submittal covers revisions to state rules contained in 35 Illinois Administrative Code (IAC) Part 243 (35 IAC 243). Significant additions, modifications, and deletions to Part 243 are discussed and evaluated below.
35 IAC Section 243.101, Definitions, contains term and concentration unit definitions critical to the implementation of the state's air quality standards. This section has been modified to change or add definitions of, terms including, but not limited to, “Exceedance of a NAAQS;” “Exceptional event;” “Federal reference method;” “Federal equivalent method;” “Micrograms per cubic meter;” “Milligrams per cubic meter;” “Parts per million;” “Parts per billion;” “PM
The heading of 35 IAC Section 243.102, Scope, has been revised from “Preamble” to “Scope” to correspond with the Federal regulations. The former preamble statement in 35 IAC Section 243.102(a) has been replaced with the statement of scope from 40 CFR 50.2. This section also adds in parentheses “primary NAAQS” after “National
Section 243.103, Applicability, has been revised to improve its readability and notes that the adopted air quality standards are applicable throughout the entire state of Illinois.
The IPCB has chosen to repeal Section 243.104 (the Non-degradation Rule) from 35 IAC 243 and from the Illinois SIP. The Non-degradation Rule predates the Illinois Environmental Protection Act and adoption of the state's air quality standard rules. When adopting the air quality standard rules, the IPCB chose to adopt the Non-degradation Rule from earlier rules of the Air Pollution Control Board (a predecessor of the IPCB). This rule section was intended to protect areas in Illinois currently attaining the air quality standards. The IPCB chose to remove this rule section from 35 IAC 243 because: (1) it might conflict with Federal non-degradation rules; (2) it is not necessary in the context of the NAAQS; and, (3) it was not possible to correct its flaws in the context of the state's air quality standard rules contained in 35 IAC 243. This rule removal is acceptable.
Section 243.105, Air Quality Monitoring Data Influenced by Exceptional Events, has been added to correspond with 40 CFR 50.14 (2012). This section provides for a state request to the EPA for a determination that certain monitored air quality concentrations that are the result of exceptional events may be excluded from the consideration of air quality for purposes of determining exceedances of the air quality standards. This section describes the nature of the state's exceptional event demonstration to the EPA and specifies the criteria that the exceptional event demonstration must meet for approval by the EPA. Of particular note, this section describes exclusion of air quality data resulting from fireworks and prescribed fires. Finally, this section describes the schedules and procedures to be followed when the state petitions the EPA for a determination of an exceptional event. This section was derived from 40 CFR part 50, and is acceptable.
Section 243.106, Monitoring, which described the general approach to the monitoring of air quality levels, has been repealed. This section provided no specific criteria for the monitoring of air levels, and its removal is acceptable.
Section 243.107, Reference Conditions, has been revised to improve its readability and specifies the reference temperature and reference air pressure to which monitored air quality concentrations must be adjusted to assure acceptable comparability of the monitored air quality concentrations. The rule revision is acceptable and reflects ambient condition adjustments required by the EPA in 40 CFR part 50.
Section 243.108, Incorporation by Reference, includes Federal rules and documents incorporated by reference into Illinois' air quality rules. More specifically, this section includes the required reference methods applicable to the monitoring of specific pollutants as specified in the appendices to 40 CFR part 50 and documents published by the National Exposure Research Laboratory, Human Exposure and Atmospheric Sciences Division of EPA. In addition, this section incorporates by reference all appendices in 40 CFR part 50 needed to interpret the adopted air quality standards or to define the FRMs and FEMs for each pollutant. These incorporations by reference are needed to implement the state's air quality standards in a manner equivalent to the NAAQS.
The air quality standards themselves are contained in sections 243.120 through 243.126, with each of these sections being applicable to a specific pollutant (each section covers all standards applicable to the given pollutant). Illinois has rewritten these sections to eliminate ambient air quality standards that have been revoked or eliminated by EPA and to add or update standards for each pollutant as currently adopted/promulgated by the EPA through 2012. Each section also defines the Federal reference and equivalent monitoring methods applicable to each pollutant. The state has rewritten the air quality standards to be “identical-in-substance” with EPA's promulgated NAAQS. The state's adopted air quality standards contain the same air quality levels, averaging times, and forms as the NAAQS, but have been rewritten for consistency in Illinois' rule system. All NAAQS contained in 40 CFR part 50 (2012) are reflected by the Illinois air quality standards now specified in sections 243.120 through 243.126. EPA has compared the adopted air quality standards to the NAAQS specified in 40 CFR part 50, and has found them to be acceptable.
EPA is approving the requested SIP revision submission pertaining to the amendments to Illinois' ambient air quality standards since these revised air quality standards are consistent with the NAAQS promulgated by EPA and in existence during 2012. The state will adopt new air quality standards as new NAAQS are adopted by EPA and will subsequently remove/repeal certain air quality standards as EPA revokes the standards as NAAQS. Specifically, we are approving 35 IAC sections 243.101, 243.102, 243.103, 243.105, 243.107, 243.108, 243.120, 243.122, 243.123, 243.124, 243.125, 243.126, and 243.TableA, and we are incorporating by reference these rules into the Illinois SIP. We are also approving the repeal from the SIP of 35 IAC sections 243.104, 243.106, 243.Appendix A, 243.Appendix B, and 243.Appendix C.
We are publishing this action without prior proposal because we view this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipate no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Illinois Regulations described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 20, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of this
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(204) On December 2, 2013, Illinois submitted an amendment to its State Implementation Plan at 35 Illinois Administrative Code part 243, which updates Illinois air quality standards to reflect National Ambient Air Quality Standards for sulfur dioxide, ozone, nitrogen dioxide, lead, fine particulate matter, particulate matter, and carbon monoxide and incorporates Federal test procedures for these pollutants.
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Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of submission to the Secretary of Agriculture.
This document notifies the public as required by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) that the EPA Administrator has forwarded to the Secretary of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) a draft regulatory document concerning Pesticides; Agricultural Worker Protection Standard Revisions. The draft regulatory document is not available to the public until after it has been signed and made available by EPA.
See Unit I. under
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2011-0184, is available at
Kathy Davis, Field and External Affairs Division (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 308-7002; email address:
Section 25(a)(2)(B) of FIFRA requires the EPA Administrator to provide the Secretary of USDA with a copy of any draft final rule at least 30 days before signing it in final form for publication in the
No. This document is merely a notification of submission to the Secretary of USDA. As such, none of the regulatory assessment requirements apply to this document.
Agricultural worker safety, Environmental protection, Farmworker, Handler, Pesticide handler, Pesticide safety training, Pesticide worker safety, Worker, Worker Protection Standard regulations, WPS.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of various fragrance component substances when used as inert ingredients in antimicrobial pesticide formulations for use on food contact surfaces in public eating places, dairy-processing equipment, and food-processing equipment and utensils. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of these various fragrance component substances
This regulation is effective May 20, 2015. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before July 20, 2015, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2013-0821, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Publishing Office's e-CFR site at
Under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2013-0821 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2013-0821, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
EPA is taking this action under section 408(e) the FFDCA, 21 U.S.C. 346a(e), which allows EPA to establish a tolerance exemption under FFDCA section 408, 21 U.S.C. 346a
EPA performs a number of analyses to determine the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide residues. For further discussion of the regulatory requirements of FFDCA section 408 and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
EPA, on its own initiative under FFDCA section 408(e), is establishing exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of various fragrance component substances identified at the end of this document.
In the
As discussed in that document, EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action, consistent with FFDCA section 408(c)(2), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(C and D). EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for these various fragrance components including exposure resulting from the exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance established by this action. For a detailed discussion of the aggregate risk assessments and determination of safety that support the establishment of these exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance, please refer to the July 25, 2014
EPA received nine comments to the proposed rule. Six of the comments were fully supportive of the proposed rule. One comment made specific reference to the fragrance component acetaldehyde and stated that the risk assessment of acetaldehyde should reconsider the compound's cancer risk. The comment noted that part of the safety finding for the fragrance components was based on no structural alerts for genotoxicity or carcinogenicity but in the case of acetaldehyde EPA had previously considered acetaldehyde to
Two comments made reference to fragrance sensitivity among certain individuals. The Agency understands the commenter's concerns, however the legal framework provided by FFDCA section 408 states that tolerances may be set when the pesticide chemical meets the safety standard imposed by that statute. The Agency is required by FFDCA section 408 to estimate the risk of the potential exposure to these residues. Neither the supporting information cited by the commenters or other reliable data demonstrate the occurrence of specific adverse effects directly attributable to exposures to the substances listed in Unit III and EPA has concluded that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population and to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the fragrance components listed in Unit III when used as inert ingredients in antimicrobial formulations for use on food contact surfaces in public eating places, dairy processing equipment, and food processing equipment and utensils at end-use concentrations not to exceed 100 ppm.
Except for the exclusion of acetaldehyde, EPA is not making any changes to the risk assessment or final rule text that was proposed in July 25, 2014
An analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes since the Agency is establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance without any numerical limitation.
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established a MRL for the fragrance components listed in Unit II above.
Therefore, exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance are established for residues of acetic acid (CAS Reg. No. 64-19-7), allyl cyclohexyl propionate (CAS Reg. No. 2705-87-5), butryic acid (CAS Reg. No. 107-92-6), butyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 71-36-3), citral (CAS Reg. No. 5392-40-5), citronellol (CAS Reg. No. 106-22-9), citronellyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 150-84-5), β-damascone, (Z)- (CAS Reg. No. 23726-92-3), decanal (CAS Reg. No. 112-31-2), (E)-4-decenal (CAS Reg. No. 65405-70-1), decanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 334-48-5), 1-decanol (CAS Reg. No. 112-30-1), 2,6-dimethyl-5-heptanal (CAS Reg. No. 106-72-9), 2-dodecanol, (2E)- (CAS Reg. No. 20407-84-5), d-limonene (CAS Reg. No. 5989-27-5), ethyl 2-methylbutyrate (CAS Reg. No. 452-79-1), (E)-geraniol (CAS Reg. No. 106-24-1), (E)-geraniol acetate (CAS Reg. No. 105-87-3), heptanal (CAS Reg. No. 111-71-7), heptanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 111-14-8), heptyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 111-70-6), hexanal (CAS Reg. No. 66-25-1), hexanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 142-62-1), (Z)-3-hexenol (CAS Reg. No. 928-96-1), (Z)-3-hexenol acetate (CAS Reg. No. 3681-71-8), hexyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 142-92-7), hexyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 111-27-3), lauric acid (CAS Reg. No. 143-07-7), lauric aldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 112-54-9), lauryl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 112-53-8), methyl-α-ionone (CAS Reg. No. 127-42-4), 3-methyl-2-butenyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 1191-16-8), 2-methylundecanal (CAS Reg. No. 110-41-8), myristaldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 124-25-4), myristic acid (CAS Reg. No. 544-63-8), neryl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 141-12-8), n-hexanol (CAS Reg. No. 111-27-3), nonanal (CAS Reg. No. 124-19-6), nonanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 112-05-0), nonyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 143-08-8), octanal (CAS Reg. No. 124-13-0), octanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 124-07-2), 1-octanol (CAS Reg. No. 111-87-5), palmitic acid (CAS Reg. No. 57-10-3), propionic acid (CAS Reg. No. 79-09-4), stearic acid (CAS Reg. No. 57-11-4), 2-tridecanal (CAS Reg. No. 7774-82-5), 3,5,5-trimethylhexanal (CAS Reg. No. 5435-64-3), undecanal (CAS Reg. No. 112-44-7), undecyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 112-42-5), valeraldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 110-62-3), and valeric acid (CAS Reg. No. 109-52-4) when used as fragrance components (
This action establishes exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance under FFDCA section 408(e). The Office
This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, but it does not regulate State or tribal governments. Nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). Therefore, the Agency has determined that Executive Orders 13132, entitled
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of trinexapac-ethyl in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Syngenta Crop protection LLC requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective May 20, 2015. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before July 20, 2015, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0340, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Publishing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0340 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before July 20, 2015. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0340, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA has modified the proposed tolerances on rye commodities to rye, bran at 6.0 ppm; rye, grain at 4.0 ppm; rye, hay at 1.5 ppm; and rye, straw at 0.9 ppm. The reason for these changes are explained in Unit IV.C.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue . . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for trinexapac-ethyl including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with trinexapac-ethyl follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the
Trinexapac-ethyl exhibits low acute toxicity as shown in the standard acute toxicity battery as well as in the acute neurotoxicity study in rats with no systemic or neurotoxic effects up to the limit dose. The dog appears to be the most sensitive species while no systemic adverse effects were seen in rats, rabbits, or mice up to the limit dose (1,000 milligram/kilogram/day (mg/kg/day)) following subchronic or chronic oral exposure. In the dogs; however, decreased body weight gain and food consumption, diffuse thymic atrophy, and changes in the epithelial cells of the renal tubules were seen in the 90-day dog study at 516/582 mg/kg/day (males/females). Following chronic exposure, dose-related neuropathology of the brain characterized as focal bilateral vacuolation of the dorsal medial hippocampus and/or lateral midbrain was seen at ≥365/357 mg/kg/day in male and female dogs, respectively. The lesions remained confined to the supporting cells in the central nervous system and did not progress to more advanced or more extensive damage of the nervous tissue. These lesions were not associated with other neuropathological findings or overt neurological signs, so their biological significance is unknown. Similar lesions were not observed in the rat or mouse following subchronic or chronic dietary exposure, and there was no other evidence in any other species tested to indicate a neurotoxicity potential. Furthermore, the brain lesions observed in the chronic dog study are not likely to develop from a short-term exposure and were not observed in either the rat or mouse short-term studies. In support of these findings, no evidence of neurotoxicity in the acute or subchronic rat neurotoxicity studies was found.
In the rat and rabbit developmental toxicity studies, there is evidence of increased qualitative and quantitative susceptibility in the rat (increased incidence of asymmetrical sternebrae at the limit dose) and rabbit (decreased number of live fetuses/litter and increased post-implantation loss and early resorption at 360 mg/kg/day) in the absence of maternal toxicity. Qualitative sensitivity was observed in the 2-generation reproduction study but only in excess of the limit dose (1,212 mg/kg/day). The decreased pup survival when analyzed with sexes combined, resulted in statistical significance (5-7%); this finding was not significant when the data were analyzed separately. Further evaluation of the individual litters suggested that one or two litters were the cause of the reduced pup survival at the highest dose tested. Reproductive toxicity was not observed up to the limit dose. There was also no indication of immunotoxicity in mice up to the limit dose.
Data from the combined chronic toxicity/carcinogenicity study in the rat did not demonstrate an increase in any tumor type that would be relevant to humans. The observation of squamous cell carcinomas in the non-glandular portion of the stomach of two males at 806 mg/kg/day does not provide reasonable evidence of a possible deleterious effect of trinexapac-ethyl on the pharynx and/or esophagus (non-glandular areas) of the human. This is because trinexapac-ethyl would not be in contact with human tissues for a significant period of time compared to the length of time it was in contact with the non-glandular portion of the rat stomach. Follicular adenocarcinomas of the thyroid were significantly increased in males (5%) at 806 mg/kg/day but this value was within the historical control range. In the mouse, there was no evidence of carcinogenicity. The mutagenicity database is complete, with no evidence of mutagenicity. The cancer classification for trinexapac-ethyl is “Not Likely to be Carcinogenic to Humans.”
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by trinexapac-ethyl as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for trinexapac-ethyl used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III B. of the final rule published in the
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Based on the Tier 1 Rice Model and Pesticide Root Zone Model Ground Water (PRZM GW), the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of trinexapac-ethyl for acute exposures are estimated to be 31.68 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 0.116 ppb for ground water. The EDWCs of trinexapac-ethyl for chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments are estimated to be 31.68 ppb for surface water and 0.054 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 31.68 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water. For chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 31.68 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
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EPA uses the term “post-application” to describe exposure to individuals that occur as a result of being in an environment that has been previously treated with a pesticide. Trinexapac-ethyl can be used in many areas that can be frequented by the general population including residential areas (
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i. The toxicity database for trinexapac-ethyl is complete.
ii. There is no indication that trinexapac-ethyl is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional Uncertainty Factor's to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. Although, there is evidence of susceptibility in the rat and rabbit developmental studies and qualitative susceptibility in the 2-generation rat reproduction study, these effects only occurred at the highest doses tested for each study, and there were clearly identified NOAELs/LOAELs for the rabbit developmental study, the rat developmental study and for the reproduction study for each fetal/offspring effect. Therefore, there are no residual concerns with respect to developmental and reproductive effects.
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to trinexapac-ethyl in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess postapplication exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by trinexapac-ethyl.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
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Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 4500 for children 11-16 years old and 230 for adult females. Because EPA's level of concern for trinexapac-ethyl is a MOE of 100 or below, these MOEs are not of concern.
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Adequate enforcement methodology (Method GRM020.01A, which utilizes high performance liquid chromatography with triple-quadrupole mass spectrometry (LC-MS/MS) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level. The Codex has not established a MRL for trinexapac-ethyl.
EPA revised the petitioned-for tolerances on rye which were determined by extrapolating from residue data on barley. EPA concurs with translating from the existing cereal grains, however, from a residue perspective, rye is more similar to wheat than to barley. Since the tolerances for wheat commodities are higher than the tolerances for barley commodities, EPA has revised the tolerances for rye to be consistent with the wheat tolerances. The use of the higher wheat tolerances also represents a more conservative (protective) approach for assessing risk from total residues.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of trinexapac-ethyl, (4-(cyclopropyl-a-hydroxy-methylene)-3,5-dioxo-cyclohexanecarboxylic acid ethyl ester), and the associated metabolite trinexapac, (4-(cyclopropylhydroxymethylene)-3,5-dioxocyclohexanecarboxylic acid), calculated as the stoichiometric equivalent of trinexapac-ethyl, in or on rice, bran at 1.5 ppm; rice, grain at 0.4 ppm; rice, straw at 0.07 ppm; rice, wild, grain at 0.4 ppm; rye, bran at 6.0 ppm; rye, grain at 4.0 ppm; rye, hay at 1.5 ppm; and rye, straw at 0.9 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a) * * *
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
The Commission has before it a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking issued in response to a petition for rulemaking filed by TDS Broadcasting LLC (“TDS”), the licensee of KOHD, channel 51, Bend, Oregon, requesting the substitution of channel 18 for channel 51 at Bend. TDS filed comments reaffirming its interest in the proposed channel substitution and stated that if the proposal is granted, it will promptly file an application for the facilities specified in its rulemaking petition and construct the station. TDS also reiterates that the grant of the petition would serve the public interest because its operation on channel 18 would eliminate potential interference to and from wireless operations in the Lower 700 MHZ A Block located adjacent to channel 51 in Portland, Oregon market, permitting the wireless licensee to expand service to additional consumers sooner than would otherwise be possible.
This rule is effective May 20, 2015.
Joyce Bernstein,
This is a synopsis of the Commission's
This document does not contain information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, therefore, it does not contain any information collection burden “for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees,” pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
The Commission will send a copy of this
Television.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications
47 U.S.C. 154, 303, 334, 336, and 339.
Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Final rule.
The General Services Administration (GSA) is issuing a final rule amending the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) to remove the GSAR clause Unique Item Identification.
Mr. James Tsujimoto, Program Analyst, at 202-208-3585, or via email at
GSA published a proposed rule with a request for public comments in the
There were no comments received in response to the proposed rule by its closing date of April 6, 2015. Therefore, there are no changes made in the proposed rule.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under Section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
The General Services Administration certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
The final rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
Government procurement.
Therefore, GSA amends 48 CFR parts 511 and 552 as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c).
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Reopening of the public comment period and announcement of public meeting.
On April 14, 2015, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) published in the
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No telefacsimilies (faxes) will be accepted. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see section V (Public Participation) of the April 14, 2015 NOPR for the Conversion Factor for Test Procedures for Consumer and Certain Commercial Water Heaters. 80 FR 20116.
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
Ms. Ashley Armstrong, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-6590. Email:
Mr. Eric Stas, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-9507. Email:
For information on how to submit a comment, to review other public comments and the docket, or to attend the public meeting, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
The Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (EPCA), as amended by the American Energy Manufacturing Technical Corrections Act (AEMTCA), Public Law 112-210, requires that DOE establish a uniform efficiency descriptor and accompanying test methods for covered residential water heaters and commercial water heating equipment within one year of the enactment of AEMTCA. (42 U.S.C. 6295(e)(5)(B)) Further, beginning one year after the
In response to the NOPR for the Conversion Factor for Test Procedures for Consumer and Certain Commercial Water Heaters, the Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute (AHRI) requested a 60-day extension to the comment period, a public meeting, and a delay in compliance date for the test procedure. AHRI stated in its request that it needed additional time to analyze the specific conversion factors and underlying analysis, review the water heater tests conducted by DOE to assess to what extent those tests reflected the range of models covered by the test procedure, and evaluate the validity of the conclusions derived from the testing conducted by DOE as provided in the conversion factors and translated energy conservation standards. After careful consideration of this request, DOE has determined that extending the public comment period by reopening to allow additional time for interested parties to submit comments and that convening a public meeting are appropriate based on the foregoing reasons. Accordingly, DOE is granting approximately 30-day comment period extension and announcing a public meeting. In this document, DOE is reopening the comment period for the NOPR for the Conversion Factor for Test Procedures for Consumer and Certain Commercial Water Heaters to midnight of June 15, 2015 and will deem any comments received by that time to be timely submitted. Also, DOE will host a public meeting on Thursday, May 28, 2015. Additional details on the public meeting are provided in the
DOE is not extending the compliance dates, which were set by statute based on the completion of various rulemakings. The test method will have been final for a year, and manufacturers should be able to test any new basic models using that test method. Furthermore, because the energy conservation standards for residential water heaters changed earlier this year, DOE expects that very few, new basic models will be introduced in the interim between July 13, 2015, and when the conversion factor final rule is effective.
All participants will undergo security processing upon building entry. Any participant with a laptop computer or similar device (
Due to the REAL ID Act implemented by the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), there have been recent changes regarding identification (ID) requirements for individuals wishing to enter Federal buildings from specific States and U.S. territories. As a result, driver's licenses from the following States or territory will not be accepted for building entry, and instead, one of the alternate forms of ID listed below will be required.
DHS has determined that regular driver's licenses (and ID cards) from the following jurisdictions are not acceptable for entry into DOE facilities: Alaska, American Samoa, Arizona, Louisiana, Maine, Massachusetts, Minnesota, New York, Oklahoma, and Washington.
Acceptable alternate forms of Photo-ID include: U.S. Passport or Passport Card; an Enhanced Driver's License or Enhanced ID-Card issued by the States of Minnesota, New York or Washington (Enhanced licenses issued by these States are clearly marked Enhanced or Enhanced Driver's License); a military ID or other Federal government-issued Photo-ID card.
In addition, you can attend the public meeting via webinar. Webinar registration information, participant instructions, and information about the capabilities available to webinar participants at:
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Extension of public comment period.
On March 12, 2015, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) published in the
DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding the notice of proposed rulemaking no later than July 10, 2015.
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No telefacsimilies (faxes) will be accepted. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the “Public Participation” section of the March 12, 2015 NOPR. 80 FR 13120.
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
For further information on how to submit a comment or review other public comments and the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
Mr. John Cymbalsky, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-1692. Email:
Mr. Eric Stas, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 5869507. Email:
For information on how to submit or review public comments and the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
DOE published a NOPR in the
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Extension of public comment period.
On March 31, 2015, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) published in the
The comment period for the notice of proposed rulemaking published March 31, 2015, at 80 FR 17222, is extended. DOE will accept comments, data, and information no later than July 1, 2015.
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No telefacsimilies (faxes) will be accepted. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the “Public Participation” section of the March 31, 2015 NOPR. 80 FR 17222.
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
For further information on how to submit a comment or review other public comments and the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
Mr. John Cymbalsky, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-1692. Email:
Mr. Eric Stas, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202)-5869507. Email:
For information on how to submit or review public comments and the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
DOE published a NOPR in the
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Proposed rule, with request for comments.
The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) proposes to implement the agreements by the Wassenaar Arrangement (WA) at the Plenary meeting in December 2013 with regard to systems, equipment or components specially designed for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, intrusion software; software specially designed or modified for the development or production of such systems, equipment or components; software specially designed for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, intrusion software; technology required for the development of intrusion software; Internet Protocol (IP) network communications surveillance systems or equipment and test, inspection, production equipment, specially designed components therefor, and development and production software and technology therefor. BIS proposes a license requirement for the export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) of these cybersecurity items to all destinations, except Canada. Although these cybersecurity capabilities were not previously designated for export control, many of these items have been controlled for their “information security” functionality, including encryption and cryptanalysis. This rule thus continues applicable Encryption Items (EI) registration and review requirements, while setting forth proposed license review policies and special submission requirements to address the new cybersecurity controls, including submission of a letter of explanation with regard to the technical capabilities of the cybersecurity items.
BIS also proposes to add the definition of “intrusion software” to the definition section of the EAR pursuant to the WA 2013 agreements.
Submit comments on or before July 20, 2015.
Comments on this rule may be submitted to the Federal rulemaking
Catherine Wheeler, Director, Information Technology Control Division, Phone: (202) 482-0707 or by email at
The Wassenaar Arrangement (WA) on Export Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual-Use Goods and Technologies is a group of 41 like-minded states committed to promoting responsibility and transparency in the global arms trade, and preventing destabilizing accumulations of arms. As a Participating State, the United States has committed to controlling for export all items on the WA control lists. The lists were first established in 1996 and have been revised annually thereafter. Proposals for changes to the WA control lists that achieve consensus are approved by Participating States at annual December Plenary meetings. Participating States are charged with implementing the agreed list changes as soon as possible after approval. Implementation of WA list changes ensures U.S. companies have a level playing field with their competitors in other WA member states.
In 2013, WA agreed to add the following to their list of dual-use goods: systems, equipment or components specially designed for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, intrusion software; software specially designed or modified for the development or production of such systems, equipment or components; software specially designed for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, intrusion software; technology required for the development of intrusion software; Internet Protocol (IP) network communications surveillance systems or equipment and test, inspection, production equipment, specially designed components therefor, and development and production software and technology therefor. BIS, the Departments of Defense and State, as well as other agencies have been discussing the best way to add these items, which we have named “cybersecurity items,” to the Commerce Control List (CCL) (Supplement No. 1 to part 774 of the Export Administration Regulations) without reducing encryption controls and while balancing the national security and foreign policy. For resource planning purposes, as well as license requirements, license exceptions, license submission requirements, and internal license reviews and processing planning purposes, this rule is published as a proposed rule.
Systems, equipment, components and software specially designed for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, intrusion software include network penetration testing products that use intrusion software to identify vulnerabilities of computers and network-capable devices. Certain penetration testing products are currently classified as encryption items due to their cryptographic and/or cryptanalytic functionality. Technology for the development of intrusion software includes proprietary research on the vulnerabilities and exploitation of computers and network-capable devices. The new entry on the CCL that would control Internet Protocol (IP) network communications surveillance systems or equipment is restricted to products that perform all of the functions listed; however, the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) also prohibits the export of equipment if the exporter intends it will be combined with other equipment to comprise a system described in the new entry.
This rule proposes to add Export Control Classification Number (ECCN) 4A005 (“systems,” “equipment,” or “components” therefor, “specially designed” for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, “intrusion software”) and ECCN 4D004 (“software” “specially designed” for the generation, operation or delivery of, or communication with, “intrusion software”) to the CCL. These ECCNs are proposed to be controlled for national security (NS), regional stability (RS), and anti-terrorism (AT) reasons to all destinations, except Canada. No license exceptions would be available for these items, except certain provisions of License Exception GOV,
This rule also proposes to amend ECCN 4D001 by adding ECCN 4A005 to Items paragraph 4D001.a in order to add control of “software” “specially designed” or modified for the “development” or “production,” of equipment controlled by 4A005; adding an RS:1 license requirement paragraph for 4D001.a (as it applies to 4A005 or 4D004), removing License Exceptions TSR and STA eligibility; and adding the same explanatory License Requirement Note and Related Controls Note that would be added to ECCNs 4A005 and 4D004.
As a technical correction, this rule proposes to remove from the “Reason for control” paragraph “NP,” and from the License Requirement section the two sentences, “NP applies, unless a license exception is available. See § 742.3(b) of the EAR for information on applicable licensing review policies.” That text does not articulate any license requirement, and no nuclear non-proliferation license requirement for software classified as 4D001 is set forth elsewhere in the EAR. BIS's regular practice is to impose a license requirement for nuclear non-proliferation reasons on items that are specified on the “List of Nuclear-Related Dual-Use Equipment, Materials, Software, and Related Technology” by the Nuclear Suppliers Group. ECCN 4D001 software is not so specified.
This rule also proposes to amend ECCN 4E001 by adding a new Items paragraph 4E001.c to control “technology” “required” for the “development” of “intrusion software.” ECCN 4E001.a controls ““technology” according to the General Technology Note, for the “development,” “production,” or “use” of equipment or “software” controlled by 4A (except 4A980 or 4A994) or 4D (except 4D980, 4D993 or 4D994).” Therefore, ECCN 4E001.a would control “technology” for the newly added 4A005 and 4D004, as well as 4D001.a (for 4A005 and 4D004). This rule also proposes to add an RS:1 license requirement paragraph for 4E001.a “technology” (as it applies to 4A005, 4D001.a (as it applies to 4A005 or 4D004) or 4D004) and 4E001.c, which would require a license to export, reexport, and transfer (in-country) to all destinations, except Canada. BIS also proposes to remove License Exception Technology and Software Under
Lastly, the same technical correction regarding the Nuclear Non-proliferation (NP) control is proposed for 4E001 as is proposed for 4D001, see explanation above.
Network communication traffic analysis systems are becoming an increasingly sensitive issue, which is why WA agreed to add the control of these items to the WA dual-use list. These systems are using the process of intercepting and analyzing messages to produce personal, human and social information from the communications traffic. BIS proposes to add these items in paragraph 5A001.j and group them with cybersecurity items. The license requirements for these items are proposed to under NS Column 1, RS Column 1 and AT Column 1 on the Commerce Country Chart (Supplement No. 1 to part 738 of the EAR) and would require a license for export, reexport, and transfer (in-country) to all destinations, except Canada. Only certain provisions of License Exception GOV,
The same addition of a License Requirement Note and Related Control Note is proposed for ECCNs 5A001, 5D001, and 5E001 as is proposed for ECCNs 4A005, 4D001, 4D004 and 4E001 (see explanation under 4A005 and 4D005 above).
BIS proposes to remove cybersecurity software from the mass market provision of License Exception TSU eligibility by adding a new paragraph (d)(2)(ii). This is consistent with the existing encryption exclusion.
As previously introduced and explained in the preamble, this rule proposes to add a Related Control note to ECCNs 4A005, 4D004, 4E001, 5A001, 5A002, 5D002 and 5E002 that states that cybersecurity items are classified in cybersecurity ECCNs, even if the items are designed or modified to use “cryptography” or cryptanalysis; however, all such cybersecurity items using or incorporating encryption or other “information security” functionality classified under ECCNs 5A002, 5D002, 5A992.c, 5D992.c or 5E002, must also satisfy the registration, review and reporting requirements set forth in §§ 740.17, 742.15(b) and 748.3(d) of the EAR, including submissions to the ENC Encryption Request Coordinator, Ft. Meade, MD. This note is added so that people will not be confused under which ECCN to classify their products and when a cybersecurity item is designed or modified to use “cryptography” or cryptanalysis, after the relevant Encryption Items (EI) requirements for registration and review have been separately satisfied. One effect this will have is that these cybersecurity items will not be eligible for License Exception ENC. However, BIS anticipates licensing broad authorizations to certain types of end users and destinations that will counterbalance the loss of the use of License Exception ENC.
In addition to the general information required by § 748.3(b) of the EAR and the requirement that all encryption registration and review provisions must be separately satisfied with BIS and the ENC Encryption Request Coordinator, Ft. Meade, MD, this rule proposes to add a requirement to submit specific technical information in support of applications to export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) cybersecurity items. The specified technical information is set forth in newly added paragraph (z) of Supplement No. 2 to part 748 “Unique application and submission requirements.” The Commodity Classification Application Tracking System (CCATS) number(s) or license number(s) for the cyber security item(s) must be included in the license application. If no classification or license application has been done for the cybersecurity item, then the answers to three (3) questions are to be submitted in a letter of explanation.
Also, this rule proposes that upon request from BIS, the applicant must include a copy of the sections of source code and other software (
The license review policies for cybersecurity items controlled under NS and AT will not be revised. A new license review policy for cybersecurity items is proposed under § 742.6(b) for regional stability. Cybersecurity items controlled for RS are proposed to be reviewed favorably if destined to a U.S. company or subsidiary not located in Country Group D:1 or E:1, foreign commercial partners located in Country Group A:5, government end users in Australia, Canada, New Zealand or the United Kingdom, and on a case-by-case basis to determine whether the transaction is contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States, including the foreign policy interest of promoting the observance of human rights throughout the world. Note that there is a policy of presumptive denial for items that have or support rootkit or zero-day exploit capabilities. The governments of Australia, Canada, New Zealand or the United Kingdom have partnered with the United States on cybersecurity policy and issues, which affords these countries with favorable treatment for license applications. A note that describes “foreign commercial partner” is proposed to be added to § 742.6(b). Any “information security” functionality incorporated in the cybersecurity item will also receive a focused case-by-case review for reasons of Encryption Items (EI) control.
The WA-agreed definition for “intrusion software” is proposed to be added to § 772.1 of the EAR. The definition also includes a Note that describes some items not included as “intrusion software,”
BIS is seeking information about the effect of this rule and would appreciate the submission of comments, and especially answers to the following questions:
1. How many additional license applications would your company be required to submit per year under the requirements of this proposed rule? If any, of those applications:
a. How many additional applications would be for products that are currently eligible for license exceptions?
b. How many additional applications would be for products that currently are classified EAR99?
2. How many deemed export, reexport or transfer (in-country) license applications would your company be required to submit per year under the requirements of this rule?
3. Would the rule have negative effects on your legitimate vulnerability research, audits, testing or screening and your company's ability to protect your own or your client's networks? If so, explain how.
4. How long would it take you to answer the questions in proposed paragraph (z) to Supplement No. 2 to part 748? Is this information you already have for your products?
* The
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866.
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under Executive Order 13132.
4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553) requiring notice of proposed rulemaking, the opportunity for public participation, and a 30-day delay in effective date, are inapplicable because this regulation involves a military and foreign affairs function of the United States (5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1)). Nonetheless, BIS is providing the public with an opportunity to review and comment on this rule, despite its being exempted from that requirement of the APA. Because this rule is not required by the APA to undergo a period of notice and comment, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
BIS is interested in the potential impacts to businesses of this rule. Because most of the items impacted by this rule have encryption capabilities, BIS believes they are already being controlled under Category 5 part 2 of the EAR. Even though most encryption items are eligible for License Exception ENC and these cybersecurity items will not be eligible for License Exception ENC, BIS anticipates issuing broad licenses for these items. The impact of this rule is unknown to BIS, therefore the implementation of the Wassenaar Arrangement agreement of 2013 with regard to cybersecurity items is issued as a proposed rule with request for comments concerning the impact of the rule. Comments should be submitted to Sharron Cook, Office of Exporter Services, Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce, 14th and Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Room 2099, Washington, DC 20230 or emailed to
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Exports, Terrorism.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Exports.
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, parts 740, 742, 748, 772, and 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730 through 774) are proposed to be amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
(a) * * *
(19) The item is a cybersecurity item,
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(vi) Cybersecurity items,
(c) * * *
(3) * * *
(viii) Cybersecurity items,
(d) * * *
(2)
(ii)
(b) * * *
(3) * * *
(iii) Encryption commodities and software not described by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and not further controlled for NS and RS reasons under ECCNs 5A001.j, 5B001.a (“specially designed” for 5A001.j), 5D001.a (“specially designed” or modified for 5A001.j) or 5D001.c (“specially designed” or modified for 5A001.j or 5B001.a), that provide or perform vulnerability analysis, network forensics, or computer forensics functions characterized by any of the following:
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(ix) License Exception STA may not be used for any cybersecurity items,
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
(b) * * *
(5)
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
(z) Cybersecurity Items.
(z)
(1) In block 9 of the application (Special Purpose) indicate the phrase “Cybersecurity Item.” In addition to the information required by § 748.3(b) of the EAR, submit the following information in a letter of explanation:
(i) Whether the cybersecurity item has encryption or other “information security” functionality, Encryption Registration Number (ERN) and encryption Commodity Classification Application Tracking System (CCATS) number(s);
(ii) Whether the cybersecurity item has been previously classified or included in a license application submitted on or after May 20, 2015 for which all requirements of this section (including the questions set forth in paragraph (z)(1)(iii) of this section) have been satisfied. If so, then provide the Commodity Classification Automated Tracking System (CCATS) number(s) or issued license number(s).
(iii) If the cybersecurity item has not been previously classified or included in a license application, then:
(A) Describe the cybersecurity functions and user interfaces (
(B) Describe the cybersecurity functionality (including as related to “intrusion software”) that is provided by third-party frameworks, platforms, tools, modules or components (if any). Identify the manufacturers of the cybersecurity items, including specific part numbers and version information as needed to describe the item. As applicable, describe whether the third-party cybersecurity software is statically or dynamically linked.
(C) For items related to “intrusion software,” describe how rootkit or zero-day exploit functionality is precluded from the item. Otherwise, for items that incorporate or otherwise support rootkit or zero-day exploit functionality, this must be explicitly stated in the application.
(2) Upon request, include a copy of the sections of source code and other software (
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
(a) The extraction of data or information, from a computer or network-capable device, or the modification of system or user data;
(b) The modification of the standard execution path of a program or process in order to allow the execution of externally provided instructions.
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
The revisions and addition read as follows:
The revisions and additions read as follows:
c. “Technology” “required” for the “development” of “intrusion software”.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
j. IP network communications surveillance “systems” or “equipment”, and “specially designed” components therefor, having all of the following:
j.1. Performing all of the following on a carrier class IP network (
j.1.a. Analysis at the application layer (
j.1.b. Extraction of selected metadata and application content (
j.1.c. Indexing of extracted data;
j.2. Being “specially designed” to carry out all of the following:
j.2.a. Execution of searches on the basis of `hard selectors';
j.2.b. Mapping of the relational network of an individual or of a group of people.
The revisions and addition to read as follows:
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Proposed rule.
The Animal Drug User Fee Amendments of 2008 (ADUFA) amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) to require that sponsors of approved or conditionally approved applications for new animal drugs containing an antimicrobial active ingredient submit an annual report to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) on the amount of each such ingredient in the drug that is sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals, and further requires FDA to publish annual summary reports of the data it receives from sponsors. At this time, FDA is issuing proposed regulations for the administrative practices and procedures for animal drug sponsors who must report under this law. This proposal also includes an additional reporting provision intended to enhance FDA's understanding of antimicrobial animal drug sales intended for use in specific food-producing animal species.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the proposed rule by August 18, 2015. Submit comments on information collection issues under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA) by June 19, 2015 (see the “Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995” section of this document).
You may submit comments by any of the following methods, except that comments on information collection issues under the PRA must be submitted to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB) (see the “Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995” section).
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Submit written submissions in the following way:
• Mail/Hand delivery/Courier (for paper submissions): Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
Neal Bataller, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-210), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-276-9062,
Section 105 of ADUFA (ADUFA 105) amended section 512 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360b) to require that sponsors of approved or conditionally approved applications for new animal drugs containing an antimicrobial active ingredient submit an annual report to FDA on the amount of each such ingredient in the drug that is sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals. ADUFA 105 also requires FDA to publish annual summary reports of the data it receives. In accordance with the new law, sponsors of the affected antimicrobial new animal drug products began submitting their sales and distribution data to FDA on an annual basis, and FDA published summaries of such data for each calendar year beginning with 2009. The purpose of this rulemaking is to amend the Agency's existing records and reports regulation in part 514 (21 CFR part 514) to incorporate the sales and distribution data reporting requirements specific to antimicrobial new animal drugs that were added to the FD&C Act by ADUFA 105. This proposal also includes an additional reporting provision intended to further enhance FDA's understanding of antimicrobial animal drug sales
The proposed rule, if finalized, will amend the records and reports regulation in part 514 to include the following:
• Procedures relating to the submission to FDA of annual sales and distribution data reports by sponsors of approved new animal drug products sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals. The proposal includes specific reporting criteria, including the requirement that sponsors submit species-specific estimates of product sales as a percentage of total sales.
• Procedures applicable to FDA's preparation and publication of summary reports on an annual basis based on the sales and distribution data it receives from sponsors of approved antimicrobial new animal drug products. The proposal includes specific parameters for the content of the annual summary reports as well as provisions intended to protect confidential business information and national security, consistent with ADUFA 105.
• Provisions that will give sponsors of approved new animal drug products containing antimicrobial active ingredients that are sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals the opportunity to avoid duplicative reporting of product sales and distribution data to FDA under part 514.
FDA estimates one-time costs to industry from this proposed rule, if finalized, at about $138,800. FDA estimates annual costs at about $55,700. These costs equate to an estimated total annualized cost of about $75,400 at a 7 percent discount rate over 10 years and about $71,900 at a 3 percent discount rate over 10 years. The total annualized costs include the administrative cost to review the rule ($9,700), plus the cost to those sponsors who wish to avoid duplicative reporting requirements under part 514 ($4,800), plus the cost of providing the species-specific estimate of the percent of the drug product distributed domestically ($61,000).
The proposed rule would provide some flexibility for the manner in which new animal drug sponsors report the sales and distribution data under both § 514.80 and proposed § 514.87, by allowing for only one set of report submissions under certain circumstances. FDA estimates that this will reduce labor costs for new animal drug sponsors by $100,200 annually.
Another benefit of this proposed rule would be the cost savings associated with reporting monthly sales and distribution data to FDA in terms of product units rather than calculating the amount of antimicrobial active ingredients associated with these monthly product sales and distribution data. FDA estimates the calculation reductions would amount to an annual benefit of about $18,600. FDA estimates total annual benefits at about $118,800.
Section 105 of ADUFA (Pub. L. 110-316) amends section 512(
The first reporting year under new section 512(
FDA previously issued an advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) to obtain public input on potential amendments to its animal drug records and reports regulation at part 514, including the proposed provision to require data about specific food-producing animal species discussed in this document. The comments FDA received in response to the ANPRM were considered in preparing this proposed rule.
Under current § 514.80(b)(4) of the Agency's regulations, sponsors of approved new animal drugs are required to submit a periodic drug experience report to FDA. Such reports include information regarding known adverse drug experiences, study reports from any recently conducted laboratory or clinical studies, current product labeling, and, under paragraph (b)(4)(i), product distribution data. In order to avoid duplicative reporting, FDA proposes that applicants submitting annual sales and distribution reports for antimicrobial new animal drug products under proposed § 514.87 would have the option to choose not to report distribution data under current § 514.80(b)(4)(i) for their approved applications that include these same products. However, this exemption from reporting under § 514.80(b)(4)(i) would only apply provided the following proposed conditions are met:
• Applicants would have to submit complete periodic drug experience
• Applicants who wish to have the option of not providing distribution data as part of the periodic drug experience reports they submit under current § 514.80(b)(4)(i) for those approved applications that include the same antimicrobial new animal drug products that are covered by the reporting requirements under proposed § 514.87 would have to assure that the beginning of the reporting period for the annual periodic drug experience reports for such applications is January 1. Under § 514.80(b)(4), the reporting period and submission deadline of yearly periodic drug experience reports is tied to the anniversary date of the drug's approval unless the applicant petitions for, and is granted, approval to change the reporting timeframes. For approved applications that have a reporting period that begins on a date other than January 1, applicants would submit a one-time request to change the submission date for their yearly (annual) periodic drug experience report such that the reporting period begins on January 1 and ends on December 31, as currently provided for in § 514.80(b)(4). Such requests may be made at any time, but, consistent with the timeframe discussed in the previous paragraph, FDA will only grant such requests after at least 2 full years have elapsed since the date of the initial approval of the subject application. In accordance with section 512(
• Once an applicant has changed the submission date to align with the reporting period for proposed § 514.87 (beginning January 1 of each year), the Agency would also expect the applicant to submit, on a one-time basis, a special drug experience report as described in current § 514.80(b)(5)(i), that would address any gaps in distribution data caused by the change in reporting periods.
• Sponsors who hold approved applications for antimicrobial new animal drugs intended for use in food-producing animals who choose not to separately report distribution data for their products under § 514.80(b)(4)(i) would have to assure that full sales and distribution data for each product approved under such applications are alternatively reported under proposed § 514.87, including products approved under such applications that are labeled only for use in nonfood-producing animals. This would assure that all distribution data for every drug product under approved applications for antimicrobial new animal drugs intended for use in food-producing animals are reported to FDA and that all such data are reported under one regulation, proposed § 514.87.
FDA also proposes to revise § 514.80(b)(4) by extending the deadline for submission of annual periodic drug experience reports from within 60 days to within 90 days of the anniversary date of the approval. For those applicants whose reporting period under § 514.80(b)(4) begins on January 1—either because the anniversary of the drug application's approval falls on that date or because the applicant petitions for, and is granted, a new submission date that aligns the reporting period under § 514.80(b)(4) with the reporting period under proposed § 514.87 (
Proposed paragraph (a) would reflect the requirement, under section 512(
Proposed paragraph (b) sets out what information would need to be included in the drug sponsor's annual report in order to satisfy paragraph (a). Specifically, proposed paragraph (b) would require each annual report to identify the approved or conditionally approved application for the subject antimicrobial new animal drug product and include the following product-specific information (see section 512(
• A listing of each antimicrobial active ingredient contained in the product;
• a description of each unique marketed product by unit (
• for each such product, a listing of the target animal species, indications, and production classes that are specified on the approved label;
• for each such product, the number of units sold or distributed in the United States (
• for each such product, the number of units sold or distributed outside the United States (
Currently, animal drug sponsors are complying with the requirements of section 512(
The Agency also believes a “reporting by product” approach is consistent with the requirements of ADUFA 105. Section 512(
Further, proposed paragraph (b) would require the sponsor of an approved or conditionally approved antimicrobial new animal drug product to list in its annual report the target animals, indications, and production classes that are specified on the approved label of each unique product. FDA believes this requirement is consistent with the reporting requirements added to the FD&C Act by ADUFA 105. Section 512(
Proposed paragraph (c) would require that each annual report to FDA provide a species-specific estimate of the percentage of each new animal drug product containing an antimicrobial active ingredient that was sold or distributed domestically for use in cattle, swine, chickens, or turkeys, but only if such animal species appears on the approved label. This provision is not intended to require animal drug sponsors to conduct studies of on-farm drug use practices. FDA believes that animal drug sponsors have access to information obtained in the ordinary course of their business (for example, through marketing activities) to estimate the percentage of annual product sales that are sold or distributed domestically for use in any of these four major food-producing species that appear on the approved product label. While certain products may be legally used in an extralabel manner, promotion of such extralabel use is prohibited, and FDA believes that drug sponsors are unlikely to possess meaningful data on the percentage of their products that may be sold for extralabel use, especially for species not on the product label. If, however, a sponsor
The Agency believes having species-specific estimates of product sales and distribution for use in the four major food-producing categories of animal species (cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys) would be important in supporting efforts such as the National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System (NARMS), a surveillance program that monitors trends in antimicrobial resistance among foodborne bacteria from humans, retail meats, and animals. NARMS retail meat and animal sampling focus on the same four major food-producing species proposed here. Since there is currently limited resistance data related to minor food-producing animals and companion animals, requiring estimates of these additional species would cause additional burden without clear benefit.
In order to assure that the total of the species-specific percentages reported for each product adds up to 100 percent of its sales and distribution, a fifth category for “other species/unknown” would also be included in this provision. This category would be used to capture the percentage of each new animal drug product that was sold or distributed for use in animal species other than the four major food-producing species or otherwise unknown to the reporting drug sponsor.
The following hypothetical scenarios are presented here as illustration:
• An antimicrobial product is approved for use only in cattle and swine, and the sponsor estimates that 100 percent of the annual sales were for use in cattle. In this situation, the sponsor would report: Cattle 100 percent, swine 0 percent, chickens 0 percent, turkeys 0 percent, other species/unknown 0 percent.
• An antimicrobial product is approved for use only in cattle and swine, and the sponsor estimates that 50 percent of the annual sales were for use in cattle, 30 percent were for use in swine, and 20 percent were unknown to the sponsor. In this situation, the sponsor would report: Cattle 50 percent, swine 30 percent, chickens 0 percent, turkeys 0 percent, other species/unknown 20 percent.
• An antimicrobial product is approved for use only in cattle, sheep, and dogs, and the sponsor estimates that 50 percent of the annual sales were for use in cattle, 10 percent were for use in sheep, and 40 percent were for use in dogs. Since dogs are companion animals and sheep are a minor species, sales estimates for these would be reported together in the “other species/unknown” category. Thus, in this situation, the sponsor would report: Cattle 50 percent, swine 0 percent, chickens 0 percent, turkeys 0 percent, other species/unknown 50 percent.
As noted earlier, under this proposal, sponsors who hold approved applications for antimicrobial new animal drugs intended for use in food-producing animals who choose not to separately report distribution data for their products under § 514.80(b)(4)(i) would have to assure that full sales and distribution data for each product approved under such applications are alternatively reported under proposed § 514.87, including products approved under such applications that are labeled only for use in nonfood-producing animals. In this situation, sponsors would report the species-specific estimate of sales for the products labeled only for use in nonfood-producing animals as 100 percent “other species/unknown.”
All species-specific estimates would reflect domestic sales for the entire reporting year and would not include separate information for each month of the reporting year. ADUFA 105 requires drug sponsors to report sales and distribution data to FDA broken out by month; however, antimicrobial drug products may be used at any time up to several years after distribution. The Agency considers monthly fluctuations in drug product sales to be of limited value in reflecting when products may actually be administered to animals and interpreting antimicrobial resistance trends; therefore, FDA reports yearly sales and distribution information in its annual summary reports instead of monthly amounts. The Agency believes that requiring sponsors to report monthly species-specific estimates would entail a greater burden to drug sponsors without providing meaningful information.
Most antimicrobial new animal drug products that are approved for use in food-producing animals are labeled for use in more than one animal species, in some cases five or more species. Therefore, since the antimicrobial sales and distribution data reported to FDA by drug sponsors under section 512(
Since it is likely that many sponsors would consider their species-specific sales and distribution estimates as proprietary information, and that such estimates may often be derived from proprietary marketing analyses, FDA would, as described in proposed paragraph (e), consider the species-specific information reported by individual sponsors under paragraph (c) to be confidential business information consistent with section 512(
Proposed paragraph (d) would incorporate the requirement specified in section 512(
Proposed paragraph (f) would incorporate the requirement established by ADUFA 105 for FDA to publish an annual summary report of the antimicrobial drug sales and distribution data collected from drug sponsors by antimicrobial class (see section 512(
Proposed paragraph (f) would also require FDA to publish its annual summary report of the information it receives under this section for each calendar year by December 31 of the following year. Proposed paragraph (f) also provides that, in addition to summarizing sales and distribution data by antimicrobial drug class, the annual summary report may also include additional summaries of the data received under this section, as determined by FDA. For example, on October 2, 2014, FDA published annual summary reports that include additional data tables on the importance of each drug class in human medicine, the approved routes of administration for these antimicrobials, whether these antimicrobials are available over-the-counter or require veterinary oversight, and whether the antimicrobial drug products are approved for therapeutic purposes or for production purposes, or both therapeutic and production purposes.
Paragraph (f) also proposes that the publication of any summary data in addition to drug class would be limited by the same confidentiality and national security protections as is required by the statute, as noted previously, for the publication of summary data by drug class. Specifically, each individual datum appearing in the summary report, regardless of its classification or source, would be required to: (1) Reflect cumulative product sales and distribution data from three or more distinct sponsors of approved products that were actively sold or distributed that reporting year and (2) be reported
FDA's authority for issuing this proposed rule is provided by section 512(
FDA has examined the impacts of the proposed rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct Agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). The Agency believes that this proposed rule is not an economically significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866.
FDA has developed a preliminary regulatory impact analysis (PRIA) that presents the benefits and costs of this proposed rule to stakeholders and the government. The summary analysis of benefits and costs included in the Executive Summary of this document is drawn from the detailed PRIA, which is available at
This proposed rule contains information collection provisions that are subject to review by OMB under the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). A description of these provisions is given in the
FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
With these concerns in mind, Congress passed and the President signed ADUFA 105 in 2008, which amended section 512 of the FD&C Act to require that sponsors of approved or conditionally approved applications for new animal drugs containing an antimicrobial active ingredient submit an annual report to FDA on the amount of each such ingredient in the drug that is sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals.
Each report must specify: (1) The amount of each antimicrobial active ingredient by container size, strength, and dosage form; (2) quantities distributed domestically and quantities exported; and (3) a listing of the target animals, indications, and production classes that are specified on the approved label of the product. The report must cover the period of the preceding calendar year and include separate information for each month of the calendar year.
ADUFA 105 also requires FDA to publish annual summary reports of the data it receives.
In accordance with the new law, sponsors of the affected antimicrobial new animal drug products have submitted their sales and distribution data to FDA, and FDA has published summaries of such data, for each calendar year since 2009.
The proposed rule, if finalized, will amend the records and reports regulation in part 514 to include the following:
• Procedures relating to the submission to FDA of annual sales and distribution data reports by sponsors of approved new animal drug products sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals. The proposal includes specific reporting criteria, including the requirement that sponsors submit species-specific estimates of product sales as a percentage of total sales.
• Procedures applicable to FDA's preparation and publication of summary reports on an annual basis based on the sales and distribution data it receives from sponsors of approved antimicrobial new animal drug products. The proposal includes specific parameters for the content of the annual summary reports as well as provisions intended to protect confidential business information and national security, consistent with ADUFA 105.
• Provisions that will give sponsors of approved new animal drug products containing antimicrobial active ingredients that are sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals the opportunity to avoid duplicative reporting of product sales and distribution data to FDA under part 514.
This proposed rule would, among other things, revise existing OMB control number 0910-0659 (expiration date November 30, 2016) for antimicrobial drug products under ADUFA 105 by codifying statutory provisions. Many of the provisions of the information collection will not be affected by the proposed rule, if finalized. Therefore, this PRA section will concentrate on the changes being proposed in this rulemaking and will describe how the paperwork reduction implications will be affected.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Because the information collection requirements of ADUFA 105 have been in effect for some time (the first report sponsors submitted was for calendar year 2009), one-time capital costs for the design of the report by firms have already occurred and need not be reported here.
In addition, the paper Form FDA 3744, the e-Form FDA 3744a, and
Table 1 provides the one-time costs for the proposed rule, if finalized, which is estimated at $138,800, about one-half of which is the unavoidable cost of reviewing the rule and developing a compliance plan. Current sponsors of approved or conditionally approved applications for antimicrobial new animal drugs sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals would need to review the rule; however, since the proposed rule would mostly codify current practices, sponsors would not require significant review time. FDA estimates that there are 34 sponsors total, 23 sponsors with active (
For the one-time, 1-hour review of the rule for the 11 sponsors of inactive approved applications, FDA assigns one-half, or 5.5 hours, at the $134 per hour adjusted rate for general and operations managers, while one-half, or 5.5 hours, is assigned at the $109 adjusted rate for industrial production managers. The total cost for the review by sponsors of inactive approved applications is estimated at about $1,300 (rounded to be in accordance with the PRIA).
FDA estimates that the total administrative costs for rule review and compliance plan development to be about $68,300 ($67,000 + $1,300).
The proposed rule would allow applicants submitting annual sales and distribution reports for antimicrobial new animal drug products under § 514.87 the option to not report distribution data under § 514.80(b)(4)(i)(A) for the approved applications that include these same products, but only provided certain conditions are met. One condition is that sponsors must ensure that the beginning of the reporting period for the annual periodic drug experience reports for such applications is January 1. For applications that currently have a reporting period that begins on a date other than January 1, applicants must request a change in reporting submission date for their annual periodic drug experience report such that the reporting period begins on January 1 and ends on December 31, as described in § 514.80(b)(4). A second, and related, condition, is that applicants that change their reporting submission date must also, on a one-time basis, submit a special drug experience report, as described in current § 514.80(b)(5)(i), that addresses any gaps in distribution data caused by the change in reporting periods.
FDA estimates that 90 percent of the sponsors currently marketing approved new animal drugs containing an antimicrobial active ingredient for use in food-producing animals would make the request to change the submission date such that the reporting period begins on January 1 and ends on December 31. There are 23 sponsors of 153 approved applications. Ninety percent of 153 applications equates to about 138 applications held by 21 sponsors. FDA estimates that it would take approximately 2 hours for personnel to meet the first two conditions, making the change of date request for each application and preparing the one-time special drug experience report for each application. This results in approximately 276 hours. At the overhead and other benefits-adjusted wage rate of about $134 per hour for general and operations managers for one-half of the hours, and at $109 per hour for industrial production managers for the other one-half of the hours, the one-time cost would be about $33,400 (rounded to be in accordance with the PRIA).
Proposed § 514.87(c) would require that each report containing the amount of antimicrobial ingredient that is sold or distributed contain a species-specific estimate of the percentage of each product that was sold or distributed domestically in the reporting year for use in any of the following animal species categories, but only for such species that appear on the approved label: Cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys. The total of the species-specific percentages reported for each product must account for 100 percent of its sales and distribution; therefore, a fifth category of “other species/unknown” must also be reported.
FDA estimates that an individual would spend about 5 hours complying with this requirement in the first year. (Subsequent years are estimated to require about 3 hours to comply.) The additional 2 hours in the first year is a one-time cost incurred as individual company personnel discuss and settle upon a method to calculate these species-specific estimates. With the labor split evenly over the two wage rates, these 2 hours amount to a one-time cost of about $37,100 for the 153 active applications.
A benefit of the proposed rule is to provide some flexibility in which new animal drug sponsors report the sales and distribution data under both § 514.80 and proposed § 514.87 by allowing sponsors to meet two separate reporting obligations under part 514 with one set of report submissions under certain circumstances. FDA estimates that 90 percent of the sponsors currently marketing approved new animal drugs containing an antimicrobial active ingredient for use in food-producing animals would make the request to change the submission date such that the reporting period begins on January 1 and ends on December 31, as provided in proposed § 514.87. These 138 approved applications (90 percent of 152) would still have to account for the costs of data collection and preparation, but they would no longer be required to include distribution data along with the other information required in the Drug Experience Report (DER) under § 514.80(b)(4)(i). FDA estimates that the time saved per application from the removal of the requirement for the distribution data in the DER could be as much as 6 hours per application. Using the same adjusted wage rates and distribution of hours by adjusted wage rates (one-half of the total hours at each rate), the annual benefit of the reduction of 138 hours times an average of $121 per hour is about $100,200.
Another benefit of this proposed rule would be the cost savings associated with reporting monthly product sales and distribution data to FDA rather than calculating the amount of antimicrobial active ingredients associated with these monthly product sales and distribution data. Proposed § 514.87, if finalized, would eliminate the need for sponsors to perform and report calculations of the amount of antimicrobial active ingredients associated with monthly product sales and distribution data. These data have shown a wide variability in accuracy, causing additional verification efforts for FDA personnel. Therefore, it would be more efficient for sponsors (and for FDA) if sponsors were to limit their annual reporting to product sales and distribution data. This would allow FDA to calculate the exact amounts of antimicrobial active ingredients associated with those product sales. FDA estimates that this would reduce the industry reporting effort by 1 hour per application. FDA estimates that 153 approved applications for antimicrobial new animal drugs that are currently marketed would be affected by this change in policy, resulting in 153 fewer compliance hours annually. At the overhead and other benefits-adjusted wage rate of about $134 per hour for general and operations manager for one-half of the hours, and at $109 per hour for industrial production managers for the other one-half of the hours, the annual cost saving would be about $18,600 (rounded to be in accordance with the PRIA).
FDA estimates total annual benefits of this proposed rule, if finalized, at about $118,800.
As stated previously, proposed § 514.87(c) would require that each report containing the amount of antimicrobial ingredient that is sold or distributed contain a species-specific estimate of the percentage of each product that was sold or distributed domestically in the reporting year for use in any of the following animal species categories, but only for such species that appear on the approved label: Cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys. The total of the species-specific percentages reported for each product must account for 100 percent of its sales and distribution; therefore, a fifth category of “other species/unknown” must also be reported. FDA estimates that affected sponsors will require about 3 hours to comply with this provision annually. FDA estimates that 153 approved, currently marketed applications containing antimicrobial drugs as active ingredients would be affected by this change in policy, resulting in 459 additional compliance hours annually. At the overhead and other benefits-adjusted wage rate of about $134 per hour for general and operations managers for one-half of the hours, and at $109 per hour for industrial production managers for the other one-half of the hours, the additional 459 hours results in an additional annual cost of approximately $55,700 (rounded to be in accordance with the PRIA).
Data for 2012 was submitted by 23 sponsors of 153 active applications for antimicrobial new animal drug products sold or distributed for use in food-producing animals. FDA estimates that 60 hours are currently required to collect the necessary data and prepare the submission to FDA for each of the estimated one-half of active applications for which data is submitted on a paper Form FDA 3744, for a total of 4,590 hours. FDA estimates that 50 hours are required to collect the necessary data and prepare the submission to FDA for each of the estimated one-half of active applications for which data is submitted on e-Form FDA 3744a, for a total of 3,825 hours. Thus, FDA estimates a total of 8,415 burden hours are currently needed for the 23 sponsors of 153 active applications to report to FDA. At the overhead and other benefits-adjusted wage rate of about $134 per hour for general and operations managers for one-half of the hours, and at $109 per hour for industrial production managers for the other one-half of the hours, the annual cost of reporting to FDA is currently approximately $1.02 million.
FDA estimates that under the proposed rule, if finalized, affected sponsors would need 62 hours to report the necessary data on a paper Form FDA 3744 and 52 hours to report via e-Form FDA 3744a (3 additional hours for the species-specific reporting requirement minus 1 hour for cessation of the requirement to calculate the amount of antimicrobial ingredients associated with monthly product sales and distribution data). The total annual burden hours for the 23 sponsors of the 153 active applications to report under the proposed rule, if finalized would be 8,721 hours (4,743 hours for one-half of the industry using paper Form FDA 3744 and 3,978 hours for one-half of the industry using e-Form FDA 3744a), an
The 2012 data also show 11 sponsors with only inactive applications for antimicrobial new animal drug products for use in food-producing animals. FDA estimates that sponsors of these inactive applications for antimicrobial drug products need 2 hours per application to prepare and submit a report stating that there were no products distributed for the year, a total of 196 inactive approved applications times 2 hours annually equals 392 hours. This burden estimate would not be affected by the proposed rule, if finalized, and thus is not included in the following table.
FDA will not address the recordkeeping provisions of all affected sponsors (34), who prepare 1 report per year and spend 2 hours annually maintaining those records (68 hours total), because the number of burden hours would not be affected by the proposed rule, if finalized.
To ensure that comments on information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3407(d)), the Agency has submitted the information collection provisions of this proposed rule to OMB for review. These requirements will not be effective until FDA obtains OMB approval. FDA will publish a notice concerning OMB approval of these requirements in the
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
FDA has analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. FDA has determined that the proposed rule, if finalized, would not contain policies that would have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, the Agency tentatively concludes that the proposed rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the Executive order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
Interested persons may submit either electronic comments regarding this document to
Administrative practice and procedure, Animal drugs, Confidential business information, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, it is proposed that 21 CFR part 514 be amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 354, 356a, 360b, 360ccc, 371, 379e, 381.
(b) * * *
(4) * * * The yearly periodic drug experience reports must be submitted within 90 days of the anniversary date of the approval of the NADA or ANADA. * * *
(i)
(A) Information about the distribution of each new animal drug product, including information on any distributor-labeled product. This information must include the total number of distributed units of each size, strength, or potency (
(B) Applicants submitting annual sales and distribution reports for antimicrobial new animal drug products under § 514.87 have the option not to report distribution data under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section for the approved applications that include these same products, but only provided
(
(
(
(
(a) The applicant for each new animal drug product approved under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or conditionally approved under section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and containing an antimicrobial active ingredient, must submit an annual report to FDA on the amount of each such antimicrobial active ingredient in the drug that is sold or distributed in the reporting year for use in food-producing animal species, including information on any distributor-labeled product.
(b) This report must identify the approved or conditionally approved application and must include the following information for each new animal drug product described in paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) A listing of each antimicrobial active ingredient contained in the product;
(2) A description of each product sold or distributed by unit, including the container size, strength, and dosage form of such product units;
(3) For each such product, a listing of the target animal species, indications, and production classes that are specified on the approved label;
(4) For each such product, the number of units sold or distributed in the United States (
(5) For each such product, the number of units sold or distributed outside the United States (
(c) Each report must also provide a species-specific estimate of the percentage of each product described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was sold or distributed domestically in the reporting year for use in any of the following animal species categories, but only for such species that appear on the approved label: Cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys. The total of the species-specific percentages reported for each product must account for 100 percent of its sales and distribution; therefore, a fifth category of “other species/unknown” must also be reported.
(d) Each report must:
(1) Be submitted not later than March 31 each year;
(2) Cover the period of the preceding calendar year; and
(3) Be submitted using Form FDA 3744, “Antimicrobial Animal Drug Distribution Report.”
(e) Sales and distribution data and information reported under this section will be considered to fall within the exemption for confidential commercial information established in § 20.61 of this chapter and will not be publicly disclosed, except that summary reports of such information aggregated in such a way that does not reveal information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision will be prepared by FDA and made available to the public as provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
(f) FDA will publish an annual summary report of the data and information it receives under this section for each calendar year by December 31 of the following year. Such annual reports must include a summary of sales and distribution data and information by antimicrobial drug class and may include additional summary data and information as determined by FDA. In order to protect confidential commercial information, each individual datum appearing in the summary report must:
(1) Reflect combined product sales and distribution data and information obtained from three or more distinct sponsors of approved products that were actively sold or distributed that reporting year, and
(2) Be reported in a manner consistent with protecting both national security and confidential commercial information.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains proposed regulations under section 597 of the Internal Revenue Code (the “Code”). The proposed regulations, which will apply to banks and domestic building and loan associations (and related parties) that receive Federal financial assistance (“FFA”), will modify and clarify the treatment of transactions in which FFA is provided to such institutions. This document also invites comments from the public and requests for a public hearing regarding these proposed regulations.
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by August 18, 2015.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-140991-09), room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-140991-09), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC, or sent electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations, Russell G. Jones, (202) 317-5357, or Ken Cohen, (202) 317-5367; concerning the submission of comments or to request a public hearing, Oluwafunmilayo (Funmi) P. Taylor, (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
The collection of information contained in this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)). Comments on the collection of information should be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for the Department of Treasury, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20224. Comments on the collection of information should be received by July 20, 2015.
The Treasury Department and the IRS previously issued a comprehensive set of regulations providing guidance to banks and domestic building and loan associations (and related parties) that receive FFA. These regulations (see TD 8641) were previously approved under control number 1545-1300.
The collections of information in this proposed regulation are in §§ 1.597-2(c)(4), 1.597-4(g)(5), 1.597-6(c), and 1.597-7(c)(3). The collections of information in these regulations are necessary for the proper performance of the function of the IRS by providing relevant information concerning the deferred FFA account and the amount of income tax potentially not subject to collection. The collections also inform the IRS and certain financial institutions that certain elections in these regulations have been made. The likely recordkeepers will be banks and domestic building and loan associations (and related parties) that receive FFA.
The estimated burden is as follows:
Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden estimate and suggestions for reducing this burden should be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for the Department of Treasury, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington DC 20503, with copies to the Internal Revenue Service, Attn: IRS Reports Clearance Officer, SE:W:CAR:MP:T:T:SP, Washington, DC 20224. Any such comments should be submitted not later than July 20, 2015. Comments are specifically requested concerning:
Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the Internal Revenue Service, including whether the information will have practical utility;
The accuracy of the estimated burden associated with the proposed collection of information;
How the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected may be enhanced;
How the burden of complying with the proposed collection of information may be minimized, including through the application of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of service to provide information.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number assigned by the Office of Management and Budget.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by section 6103.
Section 597 was enacted as part of the Economic Recovery Tax Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-34, 95 Stat 172 (1981)) in response to the emerging savings and loan crisis. As originally enacted, section 597 provided that money or other property provided to a domestic building and loan association by the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation (“FSLIC”) was excluded from the recipient's gross income, and that such recipient was not required to make a downward adjustment to the basis of its assets.
The Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-647, 102 Stat 3342 (1988)) modified section 597 by requiring taxpayers to reduce certain tax attributes by one-half of the amount of financial assistance received from the FSLIC or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”). Yet troubled financial institutions still could receive half of such financial assistance without any corresponding reduction in tax attributes. These rules thus continued to allow the FSLIC and the FDIC to arrange acquisitions of troubled financial institutions by healthy financial institutions at a tax-subsidized cost. Notice 89-102 (1989-2 CB 436).
Section 1401 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat 183 (1989)) (“FIRREA”) further amended section 597 to provide that FFA generally is treated as taxable income. Congress believed that the tax subsidy provided to troubled financial institutions was an inefficient way to provide assistance to such institutions.
In 1995, the Treasury Department and the IRS issued a comprehensive set of regulations (the “current regulations”) providing guidance for banks and domestic building and loan associations (“Institutions”) and their affiliates for transactions occurring in connection with the receipt of FFA.
The current regulations reflect certain principles derived from the legislative history of FIRREA. First, FFA generally is treated as ordinary income of the troubled Institution that is being compensated for its losses through the provision of assistance. Second, an Institution should not get the tax benefit of losses for which it has been compensated with FFA. Third, the timing of the inclusion of FFA should, where feasible, match the recognition of the Institution's losses. Finally, the income tax consequences of the receipt of FFA as part of a transaction in which a healthy Institution acquires a troubled Institution should not depend on the form of the acquisition (for example, the income tax consequences should not differ depending on whether the stock or the assets of a troubled Institution are acquired).
As provided in section 597(c) and current § 1.597-1(b), “FFA” means any money or property provided by Agency to an Institution or to a direct or indirect owner of stock in an Institution under
The amount of FFA received or accrued is the amount of any money, the fair market value of any property (other than an Agency Obligation), and the issue price of any Agency Obligation. An “Agency Obligation” is a debt instrument that Agency issues to an Institution or to a direct or indirect owner thereof.
FFA includes “Loss Guarantee” payments, “Net Worth Assistance,” and certain other types of payments. A “Loss Guarantee” is an agreement pursuant to which Agency (or an entity under “Agency Control”) guarantees or agrees to pay an Institution a specified amount upon the disposition or charge-off (in whole or in part) of specific assets, an agreement pursuant to which an Institution has a right to put assets to Agency (or to an entity under “Agency Control”) at a specified price, or a similar arrangement. An Institution or entity is under “Agency Control” if Agency is conservator or receiver of the Institution or entity or if Agency has the right to appoint any of the Institution's or entity's directors. “Net Worth Assistance” is money or property that Agency provides as an integral part of certain actual or deemed transfers of assets or deposit liabilities, other than FFA that accrues after the date of the transfer (Net Worth Assistance thus does not include Loss Guarantee payments).
Other terms are defined in current §§ 1.597-1(b) or 1.597-5(a)(1). “Taxable Transfers” generally include (i) transfers of deposit liabilities (if FFA is provided) or of any asset for which Agency or an entity under Agency Control has any financial obligation (for example, pursuant to a Loss Guarantee), and (ii) certain deemed asset transfers. “Acquiring” refers to a corporation that is a transferee of the assets and liabilities of a troubled Institution in a Taxable Transfer (other than a deemed transferee in a Taxable Transfer described in current § 1.597-5(b)). A “New Entity” is the new corporation that is treated as purchasing all the assets of a troubled Institution in a Taxable Transfer described in § 1.597-5(b)). A “Consolidated Subsidiary” is a member of the consolidated group of which an Institution is a member that bears the same relationship to the Institution that the members of a consolidated group bear to their common parent under section 1504(a)(1). For additional terms not otherwise defined herein,
Under the current regulations, FFA generally is includible as ordinary income to the recipient at the time the FFA is received or accrued in accordance with the recipient's method of accounting. Section 1.597-2(a)(1). There are three exceptions to this general rule, however. First, if Net Worth Assistance is provided to Acquiring or a New Entity, the troubled Institution is treated as having directly received such FFA immediately before the transfer, and the Net Worth Assistance is treated as an asset that is sold in the Taxable Transfer. Section 1.597-5(c)(1). The inclusion of Net Worth Assistance in the troubled Institution's income generally will be offset by the Institution's net operating losses and other losses. Second, § 1.597-2(c) limits the amount of FFA an Institution currently must include in income under certain circumstances (for example, if the Institution has insufficient net operating losses and other losses to offset the inclusion of Net Worth Assistance in income) and provides rules for the deferred inclusion in income of amounts in excess of those limits. This provision results in matching the inclusion of FFA in income with the recognition of an Institution's built-in losses. Third, under § 1.597-2(d)(2), certain amounts received pursuant to a Loss Guarantee are included in the amount realized by Acquiring with respect to an asset subject to the Loss Guarantee rather than being included directly in gross income.
The typical Agency-assisted transaction involves the sale by Agency (in its capacity as receiver) of the troubled Institution's assets and the provision of FFA to Acquiring, which agrees to assume the troubled Institution's deposit liabilities. If, instead, an Agency-assisted transaction were structured as a stock purchase, the current regulations would treat the transaction as an asset transfer under certain circumstances. A deemed asset transfer occurs if a transaction structured as a transfer of Institution or Consolidated Subsidiary stock causes an Institution or its Consolidated Subsidiary to enter or leave a consolidated group (other than pursuant to an election under § 1.597-4(g)), or if the Institution or its Consolidated Subsidiary issues sufficient stock to cause an ownership change of at least 50 percent (
If an Agency-assisted transaction involves an actual asset transfer, the amount realized by the transferor Institution is determined under section 1001(b) by reference to the consideration paid by Acquiring. If the transaction involves a deemed asset transfer instead, the amount realized is the grossed-up basis in the acquired stock plus the amount of liabilities assumed (plus certain other items). Section 1.597-5(c)(2).
Section 1.597-5(d)(2)(i) of the current regulations provides that the purchase price for assets acquired in a Taxable Transfer generally is allocated among the assets in the same manner as amounts are allocated among assets under § 1.338-6(b), (c)(1), and (c)(2). This means that the purchase price first is allocated to the Class I assets; then, to the extent the purchase price exceeds the value of the Class I assets, the remaining purchase price is allocated among the Class II assets in proportion to their fair market value. Any remaining purchase price after allocation to the Class II assets is then allocated in a similar method among the Class III, IV, V, VI, and VII assets seriatim.
The current regulations modify certain aspects of the section 338 allocation rules. Section 1.597-5(c)(3)(ii) treats an asset subject to a Loss Guarantee as a Class II asset with a fair market value that cannot be less than its highest guaranteed value or the highest price at which it can be put. Further, § 1.597-5(d)(2)(iii) provides that if the fair market value of the Class I and Class II assets acquired in a Taxable Transfer is greater than Acquiring's or a New Entity's purchase price for the acquired assets, then the basis of the Class I and Class II assets equals their fair market value (which, in the case of an asset subject to a Loss Guarantee, cannot be less than its highest guaranteed value or the highest price at which it can be put). The amount by which the assets' fair market value exceeds the purchase price is included ratably as ordinary income by Acquiring or a New Entity over a six-year period beginning in the year of the Taxable Transfer.
In certain situations, Agency may organize a “Bridge Bank” to hold the deposit liabilities and assets of a troubled Institution and continue its operations pending its acquisition or liquidation. In general, a Bridge Bank and its associated “Residual Entity” (the entity that remains after the troubled Institution transfers its deposit liabilities to the Bridge Bank) are treated as a single entity for income tax purposes and are treated together as the successor to the troubled Institution. Thus, for example, the transferring Institution recognizes no gain or loss on the transfer of deposit liabilities to a Bridge Bank, and the Bridge Bank succeeds to the transferring Institution's basis in any transferred assets, its other tax attributes, its Taxpayer Identification Number (“TIN”), its taxable year, and its status as a member of a consolidated group. The Bridge Bank also is responsible for filing all income tax returns and statements for this single entity and is the agent for the Residual Entity (which effectively is treated as a division of the Bridge Bank). Section 1.597-4(d) and (e).
To ensure that FFA is included in the income of the transferor Institution or its consolidated group, current § 1.597-4(f) provides that the Institution remains a member of its consolidated group regardless of its placement under Agency Control or the transfer of its deposit liabilities to a Bridge Bank, unless an election is made under § 1.597-4(g) to disaffiliate the Institution. Under § 1.597-4(g), a consolidated group may elect to exclude from the group a subsidiary member that is an Institution in Agency receivership. The election is irrevocable and requires the inclusion of a “toll charge” in the group's income (the toll charge is intended to reflect the amount the group would include in income if Agency were to provide the entire amount of FFA necessary to restore the Institution's solvency at the time of the event permitting disaffiliation). Section § 1.597-4(g)(6) further imposes a deemed election (subject to the toll charge) if members of a consolidated group deconsolidate a subsidiary Institution in contemplation of Agency Control or the receipt of FFA. After any affirmative or deemed election to disaffiliate, an Institution generally is treated as a new unaffiliated corporation that received its assets and liabilities in a section 351 transaction (and thus has no net operating or capital loss carryforwards) and that holds an account receivable for future FFA with a basis equal to the toll charge (to offset the inclusion of future FFA). Section 1.597-4(g)(4)(i). The regulations under section 597 take precedence over any conflicting provisions in the regulations under section 1502. Section 1.597-4(f)(3).
The Treasury Department and the IRS received many comments suggesting that changes be made to the current regulations under section 597. These proposed regulations address many of these comments as well as additional concerns not raised in comments. Not all comments resulted in proposed modifications to the regulations. For example, as discussed in sections 9, 10, and 11 of this preamble, the proposed regulations generally have not been modified to match non-tax accounting treatment. This preamble describes the proposed changes and also addresses certain areas in which commenters requested changes but no changes are proposed.
These regulations propose to modify and clarify the treatment of certain transactions in which FFA is provided to Institutions (and related persons). The proposed regulations remove all references to “highest guaranteed value” and provide guidance relating to the determination of assets' fair market value. In addition, the proposed regulations provide guidance regarding the transfer of property to Agency by a non-consolidated affiliate of an Institution, the ownership of assets subject to a Loss Guarantee (“Covered Assets”), and the determination of Acquiring's purchase price when it has an option to purchase additional assets. The proposed regulations also make changes to facilitate e-filing, remove the reference to former § 1.1502-76(b)(5)(ii) (which allowed a subsidiary that was a consolidated group member for 30 days or less during the group's taxable year to elect not to be included as a group member for that year), make a non-substantive change to the terminology used in § 1.597-5(b)(1) and (2) to clarify that the events resulting in a deemed acquisition of assets must occur to an Institution or a Consolidated Subsidiary of an Institution, and make a non-substantive change to the definition of Consolidated Subsidiary. In addition, there are numerous non-substantive changes that pervade all sections of the current regulations. Thus, the proposed regulations amend and restate all of §§ 1.597-1 through 1.597-7 in order to make the reading of the regulations more user-friendly. The proposed regulations make no changes to § 1.597-8.
It is common practice for Agency to provide a Loss Guarantee that does not provide for payment of a specific amount with respect to a Covered Asset, but that instead provides for reimbursement to an Institution for a percentage of its losses on Covered Assets, with the reimbursement percentage changing if a certain threshold of losses is met (a “Loss Share Agreement”). For example, assume that a guaranteed party has a pool of loans with an unpaid principal balance of $90 million and owns real estate with a book value of $10 million, and that Agency enters into a Loss Share Agreement whereby Agency will reimburse the guaranteed party zero percent of the first $20 million of losses (the “first loss tranche”) on the Covered Assets (the pool of loans and the real estate) and 80 percent of any additional losses (the “second loss tranche”) on the Covered Assets. Losses generally are determined by reference to the unpaid principal balance of a loan or the book value of an asset, not by reference to tax basis.
The Treasury Department and the IRS have received comments and inquiries from taxpayer groups asking how to calculate a Covered Asset's “highest guaranteed value” under a Loss Share Agreement. This term, which appears in §§ 1.597-3(f), 1.597-5(c)(3)(ii), and 1.597-5(f) (Example 4) of the current regulations, is not presently defined, and the Treasury Department and the IRS understand that there may be uncertainty in determining how to calculate highest guaranteed value in the absence of guidance. Moreover, commenters have observed that reliance on certain measures of highest guaranteed value may cause basis to be allocated to assets in amounts that exceed the total principal collections and Agency reimbursements that Acquiring reasonably can expect to receive.
To alleviate confusion and possible distortions created by use of the term “highest guaranteed value,” and because of the clarification of the meaning of “fair market value” (as discussed in the paragraphs that follow), the Treasury Department and the IRS have removed all references to “highest guaranteed value” from the regulations.
Taxpayers have asked whether potential Agency payments pursuant to a Loss Guarantee are included in determining the fair market value of a Covered Asset. Legislative history
More specifically, the fair market value of a Covered Asset equals its “Expected Value”—the sum of (i) the amount a third party would pay for the asset absent the existence of a Loss Guarantee (the “Third-Party Price” or “TPP”), and (ii) the amount Agency would pay if the asset actually were sold for the Third-Party Price. If the amount Agency agrees to reimburse the guaranteed party is determined by a Loss Share Agreement, then for purposes of calculating the Expected Value, the amount that Agency would pay is determined by multiplying the loss (as determined under the terms of the Loss Share Agreement) that would be realized if the asset were disposed of at the Third-Party Price by the “Average Reimbursement Rate” (or “ARR”). In turn, the Average Reimbursement Rate is the percentage of losses under a Loss Share Agreement that would be reimbursed if every Covered Asset were disposed of for the Third-Party Price at the time of the Taxable Transfer. In effect, the ARR converts a multiple-tranche reimbursement into a single rate that covers all losses.
For example, assume that a guaranteed party has a pool of loans with an unpaid principal balance of $90 million and owns real estate with a book value of $10 million, and that Agency enters into a Loss Share Agreement whereby Agency will reimburse the guaranteed party zero percent of the first $20 million of losses on the pool of loans and the real estate and 80 percent of any additional losses on these Covered Assets. Further assume that the Third-Party Price is $46 million for the pool of loans and $4 million for the real estate. If all of these assets were disposed of for the $50 million Third-Party Price, the guaranteed party would have a total realized loss of $50 million ($100 million − $50 million), and Agency would reimburse the guaranteed party a total of $24 million (($20 million realized loss × 0%) + ($30 million realized loss × 80%)). Therefore, the Average Reimbursement Rate would equal 48 percent ($24 million reimbursement/$50 million realized loss). The Expected Value of the pool of loans thus would equal $67.12 million ($46 million TPP plus $21.12 million from Agency ($44 million realized loss × 48% ARR)), and the Expected Value of the real estate would equal $6.88 million ($4 million TPP plus $2.88 million from Agency ($6 million realized loss × 48% ARR)).
The Treasury Department and the IRS believe this definition of a Covered Asset's fair market value furthers Congress's intent and correctly represents the true economic value of a Covered Asset. Whether an Institution receives an amount on the disposition of an asset entirely from either the purchaser or from Agency, or whether the Institution instead receives a portion of the amount from the purchaser and the remainder from Agency, the asset is worth the same amount from the Institution's perspective. To simplify the administration of these regulations, however, the Average Reimbursement Rate is determined at the time of the Taxable Transfer and is not adjusted for any changes in Third-Party Price over the life of any asset subject to a Loss Share Agreement or the prior disposition of any asset subject to a Loss Share Agreement.
For purposes of the foregoing example, the pool of loans has been treated as if it were a single asset. However, in applying the proposed regulations, the fair market value, Third-Party Price, and Expected Value of each loan within a pool must be determined separately. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments as to whether an Institution that holds assets subject to a Loss Guarantee should be permitted or required to “pool” those assets for valuation purposes rather than value each asset separately. The Treasury Department and the IRS also request comments about how such a pooling approach should be implemented and about valuation and other issues that may arise from pooling assets.
Under current § 1.597-2(c)(4), an Institution must establish and maintain a deferred FFA account if any FFA received by the Institution is not currently included in its income. In general terms, a deferred FFA account is necessary if an Institution has insufficient net operating losses and other losses to fully offset an FFA inclusion. For example, assume that, at the beginning of the taxable year, Institution A has assets with a value of $750 and a basis of $800 (written down from $1,000) and liabilities of $1,000. A has a $200 net operating loss from writing down its assets. Further assume that Agency provides $250 of Net Worth Assistance to Institution B in connection with B's acquisition of A's assets and liabilities. Under these circumstances, A would currently include $200 of the Net Worth Assistance in income, and A would establish a deferred FFA account for the remaining $50. As A recognizes built-in losses upon the sale of its assets, a corresponding amount of the $50 of deferred FFA (which would be offset by these losses) would be taken into account. See § 1.597-2(c)(2).
Under current § 1.597-2(d)(4)(i), if an Institution transfers money or property to Agency, the amount of money and the fair market value of the property will decrease the balance in its deferred FFA account to the extent the amount transferred exceeds the amount Agency provides in the exchange. For purposes of the foregoing rules, an Institution is treated under § 1.597-2(d)(4)(iv) as having made any transfer to Agency that was made by any other member of its consolidated group, and appropriate investment basis adjustments must be made. However, there is no corresponding provision for transfers made by a person other than the Institution if the Institution is not a member of a consolidated group.
For example, assume that Corporation X (an includible corporation within the meaning of section 1504(b)) owns all of the outstanding stock of an Institution, but X and the Institution do not join in filing a consolidated return. Further assume that Agency provides $10 million of FFA to the Institution in 2015 in exchange for a debt instrument of X (which, under § 1.597-3(b), is not treated as debt for any purposes of the Code while held by Agency); that the Institution has a deferred FFA account of $5 million at the beginning of 2016; and that, during 2016, X makes a $1 million payment on the debt instrument to Agency. Because X and the Institution do not join in filing a consolidated return, the Institution would not be able to reduce its FFA account to reflect X's payment. Moreover, because the debt instrument is not treated as debt while held by Agency, X would not be allowed a deduction for any portion of the payment to Agency.
The proposed regulations expand § 1.597-2(d)(4)(iv) by providing that an Institution is treated as having made any transfer to Agency that was made by any other member of its affiliated group, regardless of whether a consolidated return is filed. Because the affiliate is transferring property to Agency to
Section 1.597-3(a) of the current regulations provides that, for all Federal income tax purposes, an Institution is treated as the owner of all Covered Assets, regardless of whether Agency otherwise would be treated as the owner under general principles of income taxation. The Treasury Department and the IRS have become aware of certain instances in which Agency has provided Loss Guarantees to an Institution for assets held by a subsidiary of the Institution that is not a member of the Institution's consolidated group (for example, a real estate investment trust (“REIT”)).
The intent behind § 1.597-3(a) of the current regulations was to prevent Agency from being considered the owner of Covered Assets even though Agency might have significant indicia of tax ownership with respect to such assets. The question of whether the Institution or its non-consolidated subsidiary should be treated as the owner of a Covered Asset was not considered because that scenario was not envisioned at the time the current regulations were promulgated. The proposed regulations modify this rule to clarify that the entity that actually holds the Covered Asset will be treated as the owner of such asset. Pursuant to proposed regulation § 1.597-2(d)(2)(ii), appropriate basis adjustments must be made to reflect the receipt of FFA by the Institution when the Covered Asset is disposed of or charged off by the asset's owner. The proposed regulations also provide that the deemed transfer of FFA by a regulated investment company (“RIC”) or a REIT to the Institution, if a deemed distribution, will not be treated as a preferential dividend for purposes of sections 561, 562, 852, or 857.
Some taxpayers have questioned how the purchase price for assets is determined when the purchase agreement provides Acquiring an option period (for example, 90 days) to decide whether it also wants to acquire the troubled Institution's physical assets (for example, branch buildings). The Treasury Department and the IRS believe that, in accord with general principles of tax law and the intent of the current regulations, the amount paid for assets subsequently acquired under an option should be integrated into the overall purchase price because the purchase of those assets relates back to, and is part of, the overall purchase agreement. The proposed regulations clarify the current regulations and update the citation in § 1.597-5(d)(1) to the final regulations under section 1060.
The proposed regulations make two changes to facilitate e-filing. First, the proposed regulations replace the requirement in current § 1.597-4(g)(5)(i)(A) that a consolidated group attach a copy of any election statement mailed to an affected Institution and the accompanying certified mail receipt to its income tax return with the requirement that the consolidated group include an election statement with its income tax return and retain a copy of certain documents in its records. Second, if an Institution without Continuing Equity (in other words, an Institution that is a Bridge Bank, in Agency receivership, or treated as a New Entity on the last day of the taxable year) is liable for income tax that is potentially not subject to collection because it would be borne by Agency, the proposed regulations replace the requirement in current § 1.597-6(c) that a consolidated group make a notation of such amount directly on the front page of its tax return with the requirement that a consolidated group include a statement providing such amount on its income tax return.
The proposed regulations remove paragraph § 1.597-4(f)(2) of the current regulations relating to a 30-day election to be excluded from the consolidated group. The 30-day election was eliminated for subsidiary members of a consolidated group that became or ceased to be members of the consolidated group on or after January 1, 1995. Therefore, the reference to such election is no longer necessary.
As noted previously, § 1.597-1(b) of the current regulations defines “Consolidated Subsidiary” to mean a member of the consolidated group of which an Institution is a member that bears the same relationship to the Institution that the members of a consolidated group bear to their common parent under section 1504(a)(1). These proposed regulations modify this definition to provide that a “Consolidated Subsidiary” is a corporation that both (i) is a member of the same consolidated group as an Institution, and (ii) would be a member of the affiliated group that would be determined under section 1504(a) if the Institution were the common parent thereof. This change is intended merely to clarify the meaning of “Consolidated Subsidiary” and is not intended to be a substantive change.
The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments as to whether the rules in these proposed regulations concerning Consolidated Subsidiaries should be expanded to apply either to (i) an Institution's subsidiaries that are “includible corporations” (within the meaning of section 1504(b)) but that are not members of the Institution's consolidated group (such as affiliated but non-consolidated subsidiaries of an Institution or subsidiaries of an Institution that is an S corporation), or (ii) an Institution's subsidiaries that are not “includible corporations” (such as REITs). Any such comments should explain which (if any) provisions in the regulations should be changed and which provisions should continue to apply solely to Consolidated Subsidiaries (as defined in the proposed regulations). Such comments also should describe the reasons for the recommended change (or for making no change). Final regulations issued pursuant to this notice of proposed rulemaking may contain a broader rule than these proposed regulations.
As noted previously, certain Taxable Transfers can result in the fair market value of Class I and Class II assets exceeding their purchase price and the inclusion of the excess in income by Acquiring or a New Entity over a six-year period. See § 1.597-5(d)(2)(iii). For example, assume that Acquiring assumes $150,000 of a troubled Institution's deposit liabilities in Year 1 in exchange for Institution's Assets 1 and 2 (which have a 10-year weighted average life) and Agency's provision of an $80,000 Loss Guarantee with respect to Asset 1 and a $100,000 Loss Guarantee with respect to Asset 2. (These Loss Guarantees are not Loss Share Agreements.) Further assume that the Third-Party Price for Assets 1 and 2 is $70,000 and $95,000, respectively. Under the current regulations, the fair
One commenter suggested that the current rules may create a mismatch in the timing of a taxpayer's economic and taxable income that results in a timing benefit for, or a timing detriment to, either the taxpayer or the government, depending on the expected life of the purchased assets. For instance, in the foregoing example, Acquiring must include amounts in income over a six-year period even though Assets 1 and 2 have a 10-year weighted average life; consequently, this mismatch results in a detriment to the taxpayer. The commenter thus would eliminate the basis-step-up and six-year-inclusion rules, have Acquiring take an initial basis in the Class I and Class II assets equal to their purchase price, and then have Acquiring either (a) recognize gain upon the disposition of the assets, or (b) accrue income (and increase basis) in each year based on the weighted average life of the assets (rather than over a six-year period).
Under the commenter's first proposed approach, Acquiring's aggregate asset basis in the foregoing example would be $150,000 (the amount of liabilities assumed) rather than $180,000, and Acquiring would recognize $30,000 of gain at the end of Year 2. Under the commenter's second proposed approach, the $30,000 would be spread over 10 years; thus, Acquiring's economic and taxable income would be matched.
After consideration of the comment, these proposed regulations retain the current basis-step-up and six-year-inclusion rules. The basis-step-up and six-year-inclusion rules prevent the realization of income from being a factor in the acquirer's decision whether to retain or dispose of Covered Assets. Furthermore, these rules lock in the tax cost of the purchase, which reduces the cost of uncertainties ultimately borne by Agency.
The Treasury Department and the IRS believe that, although the current rules may be imperfect (in that sometimes there will be a benefit and other times a detriment), they are administratively efficient and they satisfy the intent of the current regulations. Accordingly, these proposed regulations retain the current rules.
Section 1.597-3(b) of the current regulations disregards any debt of or equity interests in the Institution (or any affiliates) that Agency receives in connection with a transaction in which FFA is provided while such debt or equity interests are held by Agency. One commenter supported eliminating the current rule (resulting in an Institution's debt or equity issued to Agency being included in Acquiring's purchase price) and replacing it with anti-abuse rules to address any concerns.
After consideration of the comment, these proposed regulations retain the current rules. The Treasury Department and the IRS believe that treating debt or equity interests in an Institution as having value would be inconsistent with section 597(c), which provides that all amounts provided by Agency are FFA regardless of whether Agency takes back an instrument in exchange therefor. Further, the current rule eliminates any issues for Agency and the IRS relating to valuation of the debt or equity interests.
The current regulations integrate the treatment of Loss Guarantee payments with other proceeds received with respect to Covered Assets, whereas under non-tax accounting principles a Loss Guarantee is treated as a separate asset and source of income. Commenters suggested that the tax treatment of Loss Guarantees and payments thereunder be conformed to the non-tax accounting treatment thereof. After consideration of these comments, these proposed regulations retain the current rules. The Treasury Department and the IRS believe the treatment of Loss Guarantee payments in the current and proposed regulations comports better with general income tax principles (for example, treating Loss Guarantee payments as part of the consideration received with respect to a Covered Asset is analogous to the tax treatment of insurance proceeds received with respect to other losses).
The proposed regulations will be effective on the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these proposed rules as final regulations in the
It has been determined that this notice of proposed rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required. It also has been determined that section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 5) does not apply to these regulations. It is hereby certified that these regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This certification is based on the fact that the regulations apply only to transactions involving banks or domestic building and loan associations, which tend to be larger businesses. Accordingly, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) is not required. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, these regulations have been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on their impact on small business.
Before these proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any written comments (a signed original and eight (8) copies) or electronic comments that are submitted timely to the IRS. In addition to the specific requests for
The principal author of these proposed regulations is Russell G. Jones of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Corporate). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805, unless otherwise noted. * * *
For purposes of the regulations under section 597—
(a) Unless the context otherwise requires, the terms
(b) The following terms have the meanings provided below:
(1) A national bank chartered by the Comptroller of the Currency under section 11(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(n)) or section 21A(b)(10)(A) of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441a(b)(10)(A), prior to its repeal by Pub. L. 111-203), or under any successor sections;
(2) A Federal savings association chartered by the Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision under section 21A(b)(10)(A) of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441a(b)(10)(A), prior to its repeal by Pub. L. 111-203) or any successor section; or
(3) A similar Institution chartered under any other statutory provisions.
(1) Is a member of the same consolidated group as an Institution; and
(2) Would be a member of the affiliated group that would be determined under section 1504(a) if the Institution were the common parent thereof.
(a)
(2)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(i) The excess at the beginning of the taxable year of the Institution's liabilities over the adjusted bases of the Institution's assets; and
(ii) The amount by which the excess for the taxable year of the Institution's deductions allowed by chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code (other than net operating and capital loss carryovers) over its gross income (determined without regard to FFA) is greater than the excess at the beginning of the taxable year of the adjusted bases of the Institution's assets over the Institution's liabilities.
(3)
(i) The excess at the beginning of the taxable year of the Institution's liabilities over the adjusted bases of the Institution's assets;
(ii) The greater of—
(A) The excess for the taxable year of the Institution's deductions allowed by chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code (other than net operating and capital loss carryovers) over its gross income (determined without regard to FFA); or
(B) The excess for the taxable year of the deductions allowed by chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code (other than net operating and capital loss carryovers) of the consolidated group of which the Institution is a member on the last day of the Institution's taxable year over the group's gross income (determined without regard to FFA); and
(iii) The excess of the amount of any net operating loss carryover of the Institution (or in the case of a carryover from a consolidated return year of the Institution's current consolidated group, the net operating loss carryover of the group) to the taxable year over the amount described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(
(
(
(
(
(
(B)
(iv)
(v)
(5)
(6)
(ii)
(iii)
(7)
(d)
(2)
(ii) If Agency makes a payment to an Institution pursuant to a Loss Guarantee with respect to a Covered Asset owned by an entity other than the Institution, the payment will be treated as made directly to the owner of the Covered Asset and included in the amount realized with respect to the Covered Asset when the Covered Asset is sold or charged off. The payment will be treated as further transferred through chains of ownership to the extent necessary to reflect the actual receipt of such payment. Any such transfer, if a deemed distribution, will not be a preferential dividend for purposes of sections 561, 562, 852, or 857.
(iii) For the purposes of this paragraph (d)(2), references to an amount realized include amounts obtained in whole or partial satisfaction of loans, amounts obtained by virtue of charging off or marking to market a Covered Asset, and other amounts similarly related to property, whether or not disposed of.
(3)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(B)
(iv)
(5)
(A) The amount of any FFA that is otherwise includible in income for the taxable year (before application of paragraph (c) of this section); and
(B) The balance (but not below zero) in the deferred FFA account, if any, maintained under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
(ii)
(iii)
(A) By an Institution other than a New Entity or Acquiring, as a deduction of the amount in excess of FFA received that is required to be transferred to Agency under section 11(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(g)); or
(B) By a New Entity or Acquiring, as an adjustment to the purchase price paid in the Taxable Transfer (see § 1.338-7).
(e)
(ii) If Agency instead lends M the $30 million, M's indebtedness to Agency is disregarded and the results are the same as in paragraph (i) of this
(ii) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, M is treated as selling the property for $1 million, its fair market value, thus recognizing a $4 million loss ($5 million − $1 million). In addition, because M did not receive any consideration from Agency, under paragraph (d)(4) of this section M has an adjustment to FFA of $1 million, the amount by which the fair market value of the transferred property ($1 million) exceeds the consideration M received from Agency ($0). Because no FFA is provided to M in 2016, this adjustment reduces the balance of M's deferred FFA account to $9 million ($10 million − $1 million) under paragraph (d)(5)(i)(B) of this section. Because M's $4 million loss causes M's deductions to exceed its gross income by $4 million in 2016 and M has no remaining equity, under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section M must include $4 million of deferred FFA in income and must decrease the remaining $9 million balance of its deferred FFA account by the same amount, leaving a balance of $5 million.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(d)
(e) [Reserved].
(f)
(g)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2)
(e)
(f)
(2)
(g)
(2)
(i) All adjustments of the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries under section 481 are accelerated;
(ii) Deferred intercompany gains and losses and intercompany items with respect to the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries are taken into account and the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries take into account any other items required under the regulations under section 1502 for members that become nonmembers within the meaning of § 1.1502-32(d)(4);
(iii) The taxable year of the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries closes and the Institution includes the amount described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section in income as ordinary income as its last item for that taxable year;
(iv) The members of the consolidated group owning the common stock of the Institution include in income any excess loss account with respect to the Institution's stock under § 1.1502-19 and any other items required under the regulations under section 1502 for members that own stock of corporations that become nonmembers within the meaning of § 1.1502-32(d)(4); and
(v) If the Institution's liabilities exceed the aggregate fair market value of its assets on the date the Institution is placed in Agency receivership (or, in the case of a deemed election under paragraph (g)(6) of this section, on the date the consolidated group is deemed to make the election), the members of the consolidated group treat their stock in the Institution as worthless. (See §§ 1.337(d)-2, 1.1502-35(f), and 1.1502-36 for rules applicable when a member of a consolidated group is entitled to a worthless stock deduction with respect to stock of another member of the group.) In all other cases, the consolidated group will be treated as owning stock of a nonmember corporation until such stock is disposed of or becomes worthless under rules otherwise applicable.
(3)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(5)
(B)
(ii)
(6)
(ii)
(h)
(ii)
(iii)
(a)
(i) A transaction in which an entity transfers to a transferee other than a Bridge Bank—
(A) Any deposit liability (whether or not the Institution also transfers assets), if FFA is provided in connection with the transaction; or
(B) Any asset for which Agency or a Controlled Entity has any financial obligation (for example, pursuant to a Loss Guarantee or Agency Obligation); or
(ii) A deemed transfer of assets described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(2)
(b)
(i) In connection with a transaction in which FFA is provided;
(ii) While the Institution is a Bridge Bank;
(iii) While the Institution has a positive balance in a deferred FFA account (see § 1.597-2(c)(4)(v) regarding the optional accelerated recapture of deferred FFA); or
(iv) With respect to a Consolidated Subsidiary, while the Institution of which it is a Consolidated Subsidiary is under Agency Control.
(2)
(i) Becomes a non-member (within the meaning of § 1.1502-32(d)(4)) of its consolidated group, other than pursuant to an election under § 1.597-4(g);
(ii) Becomes a member of an affiliated group of which it was not previously a member, other than pursuant to an election under § 1.597-4(g); or
(iii) Issues stock such that the stock that was outstanding before the imposition of Agency Control or the occurrence of any transaction in connection with the provision of FFA represents 50 percent or less of the vote or value of its outstanding stock (disregarding stock described in section 1504(a)(4) and stock owned by Agency or a Controlled Entity).
(3)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(ii)
(d)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(B)
(e)
(2)
(ii)
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(f)
(ii) The transaction is a Taxable Transfer in which M receives $121 million of Net Worth Assistance under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (M is treated as directly receiving the $121 million of Net Worth Assistance immediately before the Taxable Transfer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.) M transfers branches having a basis of $1 million and is treated as transferring $121 million in cash (the Net Worth Assistance) to N in exchange for N's assumption of $120 million of liabilities. Thus, M realizes a loss of $2 million on the transfer. The amount of the FFA M must include in its income in 2016 is limited by paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2 to $102 million, which is the sum of the $100 million excess of M's liabilities ($200 million) over the total adjusted basis of its assets ($100 million) at the beginning of 2016 and the $2 million excess for the taxable year (which results from the Taxable Transfer) of M's deductions (other than carryovers) over its gross income other than FFA. M must establish a deferred FFA account for the remaining $19 million of FFA under paragraph (c)(4) of § 1.597-2.
(iii) N, as Acquiring, must allocate its $120 million purchase price for the assets acquired from M among those assets. Cash is a Class I asset. The branch assets are in Classes III and IV. N's adjusted basis in the cash is its amount, that is, $121 million under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Because this amount exceeds N's purchase price for all of the acquired assets by $1 million, N allocates no basis to the other acquired assets and, under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, must recapture the $1 million excess at an annual rate of $166,667 in the six consecutive taxable years beginning with 2016 (subject to acceleration for certain events).
(ii) On September 1, 2016, Agency causes PB to issue 100 percent of its common stock
(iii) The stock issuance is a Taxable Transfer in which PB is treated as selling all of its assets to a new corporation, New PB, under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. PB is treated as directly receiving $25 million of Net Worth Assistance (the issue price of the Agency Obligation) immediately before the Taxable Transfer under paragraph (c)(2) of § 1.597-3 and paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The amount of FFA PB must include in income is determined under paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 1.597-2. PB in turn is deemed to transfer the note (with a basis of $25 million) to New PB in the Taxable Transfer, together with $20 million of cash, all its loans outstanding (with a basis of $50 million) and its other non-financial assets (with a basis of $5 million). The amount realized by PB from the sale is $100 million (the amount of PB's liabilities deemed to be assumed by New PB). This amount realized equals PB's basis in its assets; thus, PB realizes no gain or loss on the transfer to New PB.
(iv) Residual Entity P also is treated as selling all its assets (consisting of real estate and claims in litigation) for $0 (the amount of consideration received by P) to a new corporation (New P) in a Taxable Transfer under paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (P's only liability is to Agency and a liability to Agency is not treated as a debt under paragraph (b) of § 1.597-3.) P's basis in its assets is $10 million; thus, P realizes a $10 million loss on the transfer to New P. The combined return filed by PB and P for 2016 will reflect a total loss on the Taxable Transfer of $10 million ($0 for PB and $10 million for P) under paragraph (e)(3) of this section. That return also will reflect FFA income from the Net Worth Assistance, determined under paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 1.597-2.
(v) New PB is treated as having acquired the assets it acquired from PB for $100 million, the amount of liabilities assumed. In allocating basis among these assets, New PB treats the Agency note and the loans outstanding (which are Covered Assets) as Class II assets. For the purpose of allocating basis, the fair market value of the Agency note is deemed to equal its adjusted issue price immediately before the transfer ($25 million), and the fair market value of the loans is their Expected Value, $50 million (the sum of the $40 million Third-Party Price and the $10 million that Agency would pay if PB sold the loans for $40 million) under paragraph (b) of § 1.597-1. Alternatively, if the Third-Party Price for the loans were $60 million, then the fair market value of the loans would be $60 million, and there would be no payment from Agency.
(vi) New P is treated as having acquired its assets for no consideration. Thus, its basis in its assets immediately after the transfer is zero. New PB and New P are not treated as a single entity under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
(ii) During May 2016, MB earns $25,000 of interest income and accrues $20,000 of interest expense on depositor accounts and there is no net change in deposits other than the additional $20,000 of interest expense accrued on depositor accounts. MB pays $5,000 of wage expenses and has no other items of income or expense.
(iii) On June 1, 2016, Agency causes MB to issue 100 percent of its stock to Corporation Y. In connection with the stock issuance, Agency provides an Agency Obligation for $2 million and no other FFA.
(iv) The stock issuance results in a Taxable Transfer under paragraph (b) of this section. MB is treated as receiving the Agency Obligation immediately prior to the Taxable Transfer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. MB has $1 million of basis in its account receivable for FFA. This receivable is treated as satisfied, offsetting $1 million of the $2 million of FFA provided by Agency in connection with the Taxable Transfer. The status of the remaining $1 million of FFA as includible income is determined as of the end of the taxable year under paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2. However, under paragraph (b) of § 1.597-2, MB obtains a $2 million basis in the Agency Obligation received as FFA.
(v) Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in the Taxable Transfer, Old Entity MB is treated as selling, to New Entity MB, all of Old Entity MB's assets, having a basis of $6,020,000 (the original $4 million of asset basis as of April 30, 2016, plus $20,000 net cash from May 2016 activities, plus the $2 million Agency Obligation received as FFA), for $5,020,000, the amount of Old Entity MB's liabilities assumed by New Entity MB pursuant to the Taxable Transfer. Therefore, Old Entity MB recognizes, in the aggregate, a loss of $1 million from the Taxable Transfer.
(vi) Because this $1 million loss causes Old Entity MB's deductions to exceed its gross income (determined without regard to FFA) by $1 million, Old Entity MB must include in its income the $1 million of FFA not offset by the FFA receivable under paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2. (As of May 1, 2016, Old Entity MB's liabilities ($5 million) did not exceed MB's $5 million adjusted basis of its assets. For the taxable year, MB's deductions of $1,025,000 ($1 million loss from the Taxable Transfer, $20,000 interest expense and $5,000 of wage expense) exceeded its gross income (disregarding FFA) of $25,000 (interest income) by $1 million. Thus, under paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2, MB includes in income the entire $1 million of FFA not offset by the FFA receivable.)
(vii) Therefore, Old Entity MB's taxable income for the taxable year ending on the date of the Taxable Transfer is $0.
(viii) Residual Entity M is also deemed to engage in a deemed sale of its assets to New Entity M under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, but there are no tax consequences as M has no assets or liabilities at the time of the deemed sale.
(ix) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, New Entity MB is treated as purchasing Old Entity MB's assets for $5,020,000, the amount of New Entity MB's liabilities. Of this, $2 million is allocated to the $2 million Agency Obligation, and $3,020,000 is allocated to the other assets New Entity MB is treated as purchasing in the Taxable Transfer.
(ii) At the end of 2016, the Third-Party Price for the loans drops to $400,000, and the Third-Party Price for each of the foreclosed properties remains at $50,000, The fair market value of the loans at the end of Year 2 is their Expected Value, $600,000 ($400,000 Third-Party Price + $200,000 (the amount of the loss if the loans were disposed of for the Third-Party Price × 33.33% (the Average Reimbursement Rate does not change)). Thus, if the loans otherwise may be charged off, marked to a market value, depreciated, or amortized, then the loans may be marked down to $600,000. The fair market value of each of the foreclosed properties remains at $66,667 ($50,000 Third-Party Price + $16,667 (the amount of the loss if the foreclosed property were sold for the Third-Party Price × 33.33%)). Therefore, the foreclosed properties may not be charged off or depreciated in 2016.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(2)
(f)
(a)
(b)
(c)
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Department of Labor.
Proposed rule; request for written comments; notice of opportunity to request informal public hearing.
This document gives notice of the submission by the Maine Department of Labor of a developmental State Plan for occupational safety and health, applicable only to public sector employment (employees of the State and its political subdivisions), for determination of initial approval under Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the “Act”). OSHA is seeking written public comment on whether or not initial State Plan approval should be granted and offers an opportunity to interested persons to request an informal public hearing on the question of initial State Plan approval. Approval of the Maine State and Local Government Only State Plan will be contingent upon a determination that the Plan meets, or will meet within three years, OSHA's Plan approval criteria and the availability of funding as contained in the Department of Labor's Fiscal Year 2015 budget.
Comments and requests for a hearing must be submitted by June 19, 2015.
Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the “Act”), 29 U.S.C. 667, provides that a State which desires to assume responsibility for the development and enforcement of standards relating to any occupational safety and health issue with respect to which a Federal standard has been promulgated may submit a State Plan to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for
Since 1971, the Maine Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Standards (Bureau), has adopted standards and performed inspections in the public sector (State, county, and municipal employers) as outlined under the provisions of the State's existing enabling legislation: Maine Revised Statutes, Title 26: Labor and Industry. Maine began working on a State and Local Government Only State Plan in 2012 and submitted a draft Plan to OSHA in February of 2013. OSHA's review findings were detailed in various memoranda and other documents. OSHA determined that the Maine statutes, as structured, and the proposed State Plan necessitated changes in order to meet the State and Local Government Only State Plan approval criteria in 29 CFR 1956. Maine formally submitted a revised Plan applicable only to public employers for Federal approval on May 2, 2013. Over the next several months, OSHA worked with Maine in identifying areas of the proposed Plan which needed to be addressed or required clarification. In response to Federal review of the proposed State Plan, supplemental assurances, and revisions, corrections and additions to the Plan were submitted on September 4, 2013 and November 7, 2014. Further modifications were submitted by the State on December 19, 2014. Amendments to Maine Revised Statutes, Title 26 were proposed and enacted by the Maine Legislature and signed into law by the Governor in 2014. The amended legislation provides the basis for establishing a comprehensive occupational safety and health program applicable to the public employers in the State. The revised Plan has been found to be conceptually approvable as a developmental State Plan.
The Act provides for funding of up to 50% of the State Plan costs, but longstanding language in OSHA's appropriation legislation further provides that OSHA must fund “* * * no less than 50% of the costs . . . required to be incurred” by an approved State Plan. Such Federal funds to support the State Plan must be available prior to State Plan approval. The Fiscal Year 2015 Omnibus Appropriations Act includes $400,000 in additional OSHA State Plan grant funds to allow for Department of Labor approval of a Maine State Plan. After an opportunity for public comment and a hearing, should one be requested, the Assistant Secretary will approve the Maine State and Local Government Only State Plan if it is determined that the Plan meets the criteria set forth in the Act and applicable regulations at 29 CFR part 1956, subpart B. The approval of a State Plan for state and local government employers in Maine is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Order 12866.
The Plan designates the Maine Department of Labor as the State agency responsible for administering the Plan throughout the State. Under the Plan's legislation, Title 26 of the Maine Revised Statutes, the Maine Department of Labor has full authority to adopt standards and regulations (through the Board of Occupational Safety and Health) and enforce and administer all laws and rules protecting the safety and health of employees of the State and its political subdivisions. Maine will adopt State standards identical to Federal occupational safety and health standards (with minor exceptions) as promulgated through March 30, 2015. The Plan also provides that future OSHA standards and revisions will be adopted by the State within six months of Federal promulgation (30 days for any emergency temporary standard) in accordance with the requirements at 29 CFR 1953.5. Title 26, Chapter 6, Section 571 of the Maine Revised Statutes includes provisions for the granting of permanent and temporary variances from State standards to public employers in terms substantially similar to the variance provisions contained in the Act. Variances may not be granted unless it is established that adequate protection is afforded employees under the terms of the variance. Title 26, Chapter 6, Section 566 and Chapter 3, Section 44 of the Maine Revised Statutes provides for inspections of covered workplaces. Title 26, Chapter 3, Subsection 50 provides for inspections in response to employee complaints. If a determination is made that an employee complaint does not warrant an inspection, the complainant will be notified in writing of such determination. Additionally, Section 44-A of Chapter 3 provides the opportunity for employer and employee representatives to accompany an inspector during an inspection for the purpose of aiding in the inspection. The Plan in Title 26, Chapter 3, Sections 42-B and 45, provides for notification to employees of their protections and obligations under the Plan by such means as a State poster, required posting of notices of violation, etc. Title 26, Chapter 6, subsection 570 provides for protection of employees against discharge or discrimination resulting from exercise of their rights under the State Acts in terms essentially identical to Section 11(c) of the Federal Act. The Plan also includes provisions for right of entry for inspection, prohibition of advance notice of inspection, and employers' obligations to maintain records and provide reports as required.
Section 46 of Title 26 contains authority for a system of first instance monetary penalties, and the State's intent is to issue monetary penalties for serious violations. The State has discretionary authority for civil penalties of up to $1,000 per day the violation continues for repeat and willful violations. Serious and other-than-serious violations may be assessed a penalty of up to $1,000 per violation and failure-to-correct violations may be assessed a penalty of up to $1,000 per day. In addition, criminal penalties can be issued to public employers who willfully violate any standard, rule or order. The Plan provides a scheme of enforcement for compelling compliance under which public employers are issued citations for any violation of standards. These citations must describe the nature of the violation, including reference to the standard, and fix a reasonable time for abatement. The Maine Plan includes the Board of Occupational Safety and Health (Board), which adopts standards, and also is an independent review authority for review of contested cases. The Director of the Bureau will remain responsible for the enforcement process, including the
The State currently has a staff of two safety compliance officers and zero health compliance officers. The Bureau delivers OSHA's On-Site Consultation program to private sector employers throughout the State. Maine currently has a staff of three safety and two health consultants, who perform duties equivalent to OSHA's On-Site Consultation program, for state and local government employers. Currently, for these employers, if the state receives a health complaint, a consultant will accompany and assist the enforcement officer. The Plan provides assurances that within six months no staff will have dual roles, and the State will have a fully trained, adequate staff of two safety compliance officers and one health compliance officer for enforcement inspections, and three safety consultants and one health consultant to perform consultation services in the public sector. As new staff members are hired they will perform either enforcement or consultation functions. 29 CFR 1956.10(g) requires that State Plans for public employers provide a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of standards. The compliance staffing requirements (or benchmarks) for State Plans covering both the private and public sectors are established based on the “fully effective” test established in
Public comment on the Maine State and Local Government Only State Plan is hereby requested. Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and comments with respect to this proposed initial State Plan approval. These comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015. Written submissions must clearly identify the issues that are addressed and the positions taken with respect to each issue. The State of Maine will be afforded the opportunity to respond to each submission. The Maine Department of Labor must also publish appropriate notice within the State of Maine within five days of publication of this notice, announcing OSHA's proposal to approve a Maine State and Local Government Only State Plan, contingent on the availability of appropriated funds, and giving notice of the opportunity for public comment. Pursuant to 29 CFR 1902.13(f), interested persons may request an informal hearing concerning the proposed initial State Plan approval. Such requests also must be received on or before June 19, 2015 and may be submitted electronically, by facsimile, or by regular mail, hand delivery, express mail, messenger or courier service, as indicated under
OSHA certifies pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” emphasizes consultation between Federal agencies and the States and establishes specific review procedures the Federal government must follow as it carries out policies which affect state or local governments. OSHA has consulted extensively with Maine
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC, authorized the preparation of this notice. OSHA is issuing this notice under the authority specified by Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 667), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), and 29 CFR parts 1902 and 1956.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a revision to the Illinois State Implementation Plan. The submitted state rule revisions update Illinois' ambient air quality standards for sulfur dioxide, ozone, nitrogen dioxide, lead, fine particulate matter, particulate matter, and carbon monoxide and bring them up to date (through 2012) with EPA-promulgated National Ambient Air Quality Standards. The SIP revision also adopts EPA-promulgated monitoring methods and test procedures for the revised state air quality standards.
Comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2013-0819, by one of the following methods:
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5.
Edward Doty, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-6057,
In the Final Rules section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
EPA is proposing to partially approve and partially disapprove the Nevada State Implementation Plan (SIP) as meeting the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act) for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the 2008 ozone, 2010 nitrogen dioxide (NO
Written comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
EPA has established a docket for this action, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R09-OAR-2014-0812. The index to the docket for this action is available electronically at
Tom Kelly, Air Planning Office (AIR-2), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region IX, (415) 972-3856,
Throughout this document, the terms “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to EPA.
EPA is acting upon several SIP submittals from Nevada that address the infrastructure requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submittals made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submittals. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submittal from submittals that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment SIP” submittals to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submittals required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of CAA section 169A, and nonattainment new source review (NSR) permit program submittals to address the permit requirements of CAA, title I, part D.
Section 110(a)(1) addresses the timing and general requirements for infrastructure SIP submittals, and section 110(a)(2) provides more details concerning the required contents of these submittals. The list of required elements provided in section 110(a)(2) contains a wide variety of disparate provisions, some of which pertain to required legal authority, some of which pertain to required substantive program provisions, and some of which pertain to requirements for both authority and substantive program provisions.
The following examples of ambiguities illustrate the need for EPA to interpret some section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) requirements with respect to infrastructure SIP submittals for a given new or revised NAAQS. One example of ambiguity is that section 110(a)(2) requires that “each” SIP submittal must meet the list of requirements therein, while EPA has long noted that this literal reading of the statute is internally inconsistent and would create a conflict with the nonattainment provisions in part D of title I of the Act, which specifically address nonattainment SIP requirements.
Another example of ambiguity within sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) with respect to infrastructure SIPs pertains to whether states must meet all of the infrastructure SIP requirements in a single SIP submittal, and whether EPA must act upon such SIP submittal in a single action. Although section 110(a)(1) directs states to submit “a plan” to meet these requirements, EPA interprets the CAA to allow states to make multiple SIP submittals separately addressing infrastructure SIP elements for the same NAAQS. If states elect to make such multiple SIP submittals to meet the infrastructure SIP requirements, EPA can elect to act on such submittals either individually or in a larger combined action.
Ambiguities within sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) may also arise with respect to infrastructure SIP submittal requirements for different NAAQS. Thus, EPA notes that not every element of section 110(a)(2) would be relevant, or as relevant, or relevant in the same way, for each new or revised NAAQS. The states' attendant infrastructure SIP submittals for each NAAQS therefore could be different. For example, the monitoring requirements that a state might need to meet in its infrastructure SIP submittal for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(B) could be very different for different pollutants, for example because the content and scope of a state's infrastructure SIP submittal to meet this element might be very different for an entirely new NAAQS than for a minor revision to an existing NAAQS.
EPA notes that interpretation of section 110(a)(2) is also necessary when EPA reviews other types of SIP submittals required under the CAA. Therefore, as with infrastructure SIP submittals, EPA also has to identify and interpret the relevant elements of section 110(a)(2) that logically apply to these other types of SIP submittals. For example, section 172(c)(7) requires that attainment plan SIP submittals required by part D have to meet the “applicable requirements” of section 110(a)(2). Thus, for example, attainment plan SIP submittals must meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) regarding enforceable emission limits and control measures and section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) regarding air agency resources and authority. By contrast, it is clear that attainment plan SIP submittals required by part D would not need to meet the portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) that pertains to the air quality prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) program required in part C of title I of the CAA, because PSD does not apply to a pollutant for which an area is designated nonattainment and thus subject to part D planning requirements. As this example illustrates, each type of SIP submittal may implicate some elements of section 110(a)(2) but not others.
Given the potential for ambiguity in some of the statutory language of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2), EPA believes that it is appropriate to interpret the ambiguous portions of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) in the context of acting on a particular SIP submittal. In other words, EPA assumes that Congress could not have intended that each and every SIP submittal, regardless of the NAAQS in question or the history of SIP development for the relevant pollutant, would meet each of the requirements, or meet each of them in the same way. Therefore, EPA has adopted an approach under which it reviews infrastructure SIP submittals against the list of elements in section 110(a)(2), but only to the extent each element applies for that particular NAAQS.
Historically, EPA has elected to use guidance documents to make recommendations to states for infrastructure SIPs, in some cases conveying needed interpretations on newly arising issues and in some cases conveying interpretations that have already been developed and applied to individual SIP submittals for particular elements.
As an example, section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) is a required element of section 110(a)(2) for infrastructure SIP submittals. Under this element, a state must meet the substantive requirements of section 128, which pertain to state boards that approve permits or enforcement orders and heads of executive agencies with similar powers. Thus, EPA reviews infrastructure SIP submittals to ensure that the state's SIP appropriately addresses the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) and section 128. The 2013 Infrastructure SIP Guidance explains EPA's interpretation that there may be a variety of ways by which states can appropriately address these substantive statutory requirements, depending on the structure of an individual state's permitting or enforcement program (
As another example, EPA's review of infrastructure SIP submittals with respect to the PSD program requirements in sections 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), and (J) focuses upon the structural PSD program requirements
For other section 110(a)(2) elements, however, EPA's review of a state's infrastructure SIP submittal focuses on assuring that the state's SIP meets basic structural requirements. For example, section 110(a)(2)(C) includes,
With respect to certain other issues, EPA does not believe that an action on a state's infrastructure SIP submittal is necessarily the appropriate type of action in which to address possible deficiencies in a state's existing SIP. These issues include: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions from sources during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions (“SSM”); (ii) existing provisions related to “director's variance” or “director's discretion” that may be contrary to the CAA because they purport to allow revisions to SIP-approved emissions limits while limiting public process or not requiring further approval by EPA; and (iii) existing provisions for PSD programs that may be inconsistent with current requirements of EPA's “Final NSR Improvement Rule,” 67 FR 80186, December 31, 2002, as amended by 72 FR 32526, June 13, 2007 (“NSR Reform”). Thus, EPA believes it may approve an infrastructure SIP submittal without scrutinizing the totality of the existing SIP for such potentially deficient provisions and may approve the submittal even if it is aware of such existing provisions.
EPA's approach to review of infrastructure SIP submittals is to identify the CAA requirements that are logically applicable to that submittal. EPA believes that this approach to the review of a particular infrastructure SIP submittal is appropriate, because it would not be reasonable to read the general requirements of section 110(a)(1) and the list of elements in 110(a)(2) as requiring review of each and every provision of a state's existing SIP against all requirements in the CAA and EPA regulations merely for purposes of assuring that the state in question has the basic structural elements for a functioning SIP for a new or revised NAAQS. Because SIPs have grown by accretion over the decades as statutory and regulatory requirements under the CAA have evolved, they may include some outmoded provisions and historical artifacts. These provisions, while not fully up to date, nevertheless may not pose a significant problem for the purposes of “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of a new or revised NAAQS when EPA evaluates adequacy of the infrastructure SIP submittal. EPA believes that a better approach is for states and EPA to focus attention on those elements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA most likely to warrant a specific SIP revision due to the promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS or other factors.
For example, EPA's 2013 Infrastructure SIP Guidance gives simpler recommendations with respect to carbon monoxide than other NAAQS pollutants to meet the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), because carbon monoxide does not affect visibility. As a result, an infrastructure SIP submittal for any future new or revised NAAQS for carbon monoxide need only state this fact in order to address the visibility prong of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II).
Finally, EPA believes that its approach with respect to infrastructure SIP requirements is based on a reasonable reading of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) because the CAA provides other avenues and mechanisms to address specific substantive deficiencies in existing SIPs. These other statutory tools allow EPA to take appropriately tailored action, depending upon the nature and severity of the alleged SIP deficiency. Section 110(k)(5) authorizes EPA to issue a “SIP call” whenever the Agency determines that a state's SIP is substantially inadequate to attain or maintain the NAAQS, to mitigate interstate transport, or to otherwise comply with the CAA.
Section 110(a)(1) of the CAA requires states to make a SIP submission within 3 years after the promulgation of a new or revised primary NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2) includes a list of specific elements that “[e]ach such plan” submission must include. Many of the section 110(a)(2) SIP elements relate to the general information and authorities that constitute the “infrastructure” of a state's air quality management program and SIP submittals that address these requirements are referred to as “infrastructure SIPs.” These infrastructure SIP elements required by section 110(a)(2) are as follows:
• Section 110(a)(2)(A): Emission limits and other control measures.
• Section 110(a)(2)(B): Ambient air quality monitoring/data system.
• Section 110(a)(2)(C): Program for enforcement of control measures and regulation of new and modified stationary sources.
• Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i): Interstate pollution transport.
• Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii): Interstate and international pollution abatement.
• Section 110(a)(2)(E): Adequate resources and authority, conflict of interest, and oversight of local and regional government agencies.
• Section 110(a)(2)(F): Stationary source monitoring and reporting.
• Section 110(a)(2)(G): Emergency episodes.
• Section 110(a)(2)(H): SIP revisions.
• Section 110(a)(2)(J): Consultation with government officials, public notification, PSD, and visibility protection.
• Section 110(a)(2)(K): Air quality modeling and submittal of modeling data.
• Section 110(a)(2)(L): Permitting fees.
• Section 110(a)(2)(M): Consultation/participation by affected local entities.
Two elements identified in section 110(a)(2) are not governed by the three-year submittal deadline of section 110(a)(1) and are therefore not addressed in this action. These two elements are: Section 110(a)(2)(C) to the extent it refers to permit programs required under part D (nonattainment NSR), and section 110(a)(2)(I), pertaining to the nonattainment planning requirements of part D. As a result, this action does not address infrastructure for the nonattainment NSR portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) or the whole of section 110(a)(2)(I).
Between 1997 and 2012, EPA promulgated a series of new or revised NAAQS for ozone, NO
• 2008 ozone NAAQS, which revised the 8-hour ozone standards to 0.075 ppm.
• 2010 NO
• 2010 SO
With respect to Elements (C) and (J), EPA interprets the Clean Air Act to require each state to make an infrastructure SIP submission for a new or revised NAAQS that demonstrates that the air agency has a complete PSD permitting program meeting the current requirements for all regulated NSR pollutants. The requirements of Element D(i)(II) may also be satisfied by demonstrating the air agency has a complete PSD permitting program correctly addressing all regulated NSR pollutants. Nevada has shown that it currently has a PSD program in place that covers all regulated NSR pollutants, including greenhouse gases (GHGs), with the exception of the deficiencies in the NDEP and Washoe County portions of the SIP, described elsewhere in this document.
On June 23, 2014, the United States Supreme Court issued a decision addressing the application of PSD permitting requirements to GHG emissions.
At present, EPA has determined the Clark County SIP is sufficient to satisfy Elements C, D(i)(II), and J with respect to GHGs because the PSD permitting program previously approved by EPA into the SIP continues to require that PSD permits (otherwise required based on emissions of pollutants other than GHGs) contain limitations on GHG emissions based on the application of BACT. Although the SIP-approved Clark County PSD permitting program may currently contain provisions that are no longer necessary in light of the Supreme Court decision, this does not render the infrastructure SIP submission inadequate to satisfy Elements C, (D)(i)(II), and J. The SIP contains the necessary PSD requirements at this time, and the application of those requirements is not impeded by the presence of other previously-approved provisions regarding the permitting of sources of GHGs that EPA does not consider necessary at this time in light of the Supreme Court decision. Accordingly, the Supreme Court
The Nevada Department of Environmental Protection (NDEP) has submitted several infrastructure SIP submittals pursuant to EPA's promulgation of specific NAAQS, including:
• The Nevada Division of Environmental Protection Portion of the Nevada State Implementation Plan for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS: Demonstration of Adequacy April 10, 2013.
• State Implementation Plan Revision to Meet the Ozone Infrastructure SIP Requirements of the Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2), Clark County, Nevada, February 2013.
• The Washoe County Portion of the Nevada State Implementation Plan for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS: Demonstration of Adequacy, February 28, 2013.
• NDEP letter to EPA, dated May 9, 2013 and Washoe County letter, dated April 26, 2013, containing the Approved Minutes of the February 28, 2013 public hearing and the Certificate of Adoption.
• The Nevada Division of Environmental Protection Portion of the Nevada State Implementation Plan for the 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide Primary NAAQS: Demonstration of Adequacy and appendices, January 18, 2013.
• State Implementation Plan Revision to Meet the Nitrogen Dioxide Infrastructure SIP Requirements of the Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2), and attachments Clark County, Nevada December 2012.
• The Washoe County Portion of the Nevada State Implementation Plan to Meet the Nitrogen Dioxide Infrastructure SIP Requirements of Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2) (draft document) and attachments, January 24, 2014.
• The Nevada Division of Environmental Protection Portion of the Nevada State Implementation Plan for the 2010 Sulfur Dioxide Primary NAAQS, and appendices, June 3, 2013.
• State Implementation Plan Revision to Meet the Sulfur Dioxide Infrastructure SIP Requirements of the Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2), and attachments Clark County, Nevada, May 2013.
• The Washoe County Portion of the Nevada State Implementation Plan to Meet the Sulfur Dioxide Infrastructure SIP Requirements of Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2), and attachments, March 28, 2013.
We find that these submittals meet the procedural requirements for public participation under CAA section 110(a)(2) and 40 CFR 51.102. We are proposing to act on all of these submittals since they collectively address the infrastructure SIP requirements for the NAAQS addressed by this proposed rule. We refer to them collectively herein as “Nevada's Infrastructure SIP Submittals.”
We have evaluated Nevada's Infrastructure SIP Submittals and the existing provisions of the Nevada SIP for compliance with the infrastructure SIP requirements (or “elements”) of CAA section 110(a)(2) and applicable regulations in 40 CFR part 51 (“Requirements for Preparation, Adoption, and Submittal of State Implementation Plans”). The Technical Support Document (TSD), which is available in the docket to this action, includes our evaluation for many elements, as well as our evaluation of various statutory and regulatory provisions. For some elements, it refers to older TSDs for prior Nevada Infrastructure SIPs, which have also been included in the docket.
Based upon this analysis, we propose to approve the 2008 Ozone, 2010 NO
• Section 110(a)(2)(A): Emission limits and other control measures.
• Section 110(a)(2)(B): Ambient air quality monitoring/data system.
• Section 110(a)(2)(C) (in part): Program for enforcement of control measures and regulation of new stationary sources (full approval for Clark County).
• Section 110(a)(2)(D) (in part, see below): Interstate Pollution Transport.
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) (in part)—significant contribution to nonattainment, or prongs 1 and 2 (full approval of NDEP, Clark County and Washoe County for the NO2 NAAQS).
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) (in part)—interference with maintenance, or prong 3 (full approval for Clark County).
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) (full approval)—visibility transport, or prong 4.
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) (in part)—interstate pollution abatement and international air pollution (full approval for Clark County).
• Section 110(a)(2)(E): Adequate resources and authority, conflict of interest, and oversight of local governments and regional agencies.
• Section 110(a)(2)(F): Stationary source monitoring and reporting.
• Section 110(a)(2)(G): Emergency episodes.
• Section 110(a)(2)(H): SIP revisions.
• Section 110(a)(2)(J) (in part): Consultation with government officials, public notification, and prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) and visibility protection (full approval for Clark County).
• Section 110(a)(2)(K): Air quality modeling and submission of modeling data.
• Section 110(a)(2)(L): Permitting fees.
• Section 110(a)(2)(M): Consultation/participation by affected local entities.
EPA is taking no action on Interstate Transport—significant contribution to nonattainment for NDEP, Clark County and Washoe County on the Ozone and SO
EPA proposes to disapprove Nevada's Infrastructure SIP Submittals with respect to the following infrastructure SIP requirements:
• Section 110(a)(2)(C) (in part): Program for enforcement of control measures and regulation of new and modified stationary sources (for all NAAQS addressed by this proposed rule and covered by the NDEP and Washoe County PSD permitting programs).
• Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) (in part, see below): Interstate pollution transport,
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) (in part)—interference with maintenance, or prong 3 (disapproved for all NAAQS addressed by this proposed rule and covered by the NDEP and Washoe County PSD permitting programs).
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) (in part)—interstate pollution abatement and international air pollution (disapproved for all NAAQS addressed by this proposed rule and covered by the NDEP and Washoe County PSD permitting programs).
• Section 110(a)(2)(J) (in part): Consultation with government officials, public notification, PSD, and visibility protection (for all NAAQS addressed by this proposed rule and covered by the NDEP and Washoe County PSD permitting programs).
As explained more fully in our TSD, we are proposing to disapprove the NDEP and Washoe County portions of Nevada's Infrastructure Submittals with
In EPA's evaluation of Nevada's Infrastructure SIP Submittal for Lead (Pb), the requirements under sections 110(a)(2)(C), 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) and 110(a)(2)(J) regarding Clark County's PSD permitting program, specifically PSD increments for PM
In reviewing the Nevada SIP Infrastructure submittal for compliance with CAA section 110(a)(2)(G), as discussed in section D below, we noted that the Nevada Intrastate Air Quality Control Region has not been defined in subpart B of 40 CFR part 81. The emergency episode priority classifications for the Region is provided by 40 CFR 52.1471 for many NAAQS. Additionally, EPA identified the counties of the Nevada Intrastate Region in a 1972 EPA report titled: Federal Air Quality Control Regions.
NDEP's portion of Nevada's SO
The Nevada Intrastate Air Quality Control Region is classified as priority IA for SO
Our attainment finding for Steptoe Valley (SO
We also evaluated the Las Vegas Intrastate Air Quality Control Region (
NDEP also requested that EPA remove paragraphs (a) and (b) of 40 CFR 52.1475, “Control strategy and regulations: Sulfur oxides.” This section was added to the Nevada SIP “. . . to promulgate substitute regulations for the control of SO
EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document or on other relevant matters. We will accept comments from the public on this proposal for the next 30 days. We will consider these comments before taking final action.
This action is not a “significant regulatory action” under the terms of
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) generally requires an agency to conduct a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Small entities include small businesses, small not-for-profit enterprises, and small governmental jurisdictions. For purposes of assessing the impacts of this rule on small entities, small entity is defined as: (1) A small business as defined by the Small Business Administration's (SBA) regulations at 13 CFR 121.201; (2) a small governmental jurisdiction that is a government of a city, county, town, school district or special district with a population of less than 50,000; and (3) a small organization that is any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.
After considering the economic impacts of this proposed rule, we certify that this proposed action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. This proposed rule does not impose any requirements or create impacts on small entities. This proposed partial SIP approval and partial SIP disapproval under CAA section 110 will not in-and-of itself create any new requirements but simply proposes to approve certain State requirements, and to disapprove certain other State requirements, for inclusion into the SIP. Accordingly, it affords no opportunity for EPA to fashion for small entities less burdensome compliance or reporting requirements or timetables or exemptions from all or part of the rule. Therefore, this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
We continue to be interested in the potential impacts of this proposed rule on small entities and welcome comments on issues related to such impacts.
This action contains no Federal mandates under the provisions of Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538 for State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector. EPA has determined that the proposed partial approval and partial disapproval action does not include a Federal mandate that may result in estimated costs of $100 million or more to either State, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or to the private sector. This action proposes to approve certain pre-existing requirements, and to disapprove certain other pre-existing requirements, under State or local law, and imposes no new requirements. Accordingly, no additional costs to State, local, or tribal governments, or to the private sector, result from this proposed action.
Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), requires EPA to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have federalism implications.” “Policies that have federalism implications” is defined in the Executive Order to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.”
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132, because it merely proposes to approve certain State requirements, and to disapprove certain other State requirements, for inclusion into the SIP and does not alter the relationship or the distribution of power and responsibilities established in the Clean Air Act. Thus, Executive Order 13132 does not apply to this action.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP on which EPA is proposing action would not apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this proposed action.
EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern health or safety risks, such that the analysis required under section 5-501 of the Executive Order has the potential to influence the regulation. This proposed action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This proposed partial approval and partial disapproval under CAA section 110 will not in-and-of itself create any new regulations but simply proposes to approve certain State requirements, and to disapprove certain other State requirements, for inclusion into the SIP.
This proposed rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (“NTTAA”), Public Law 104-113, 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs EPA to use voluntary consensus standards in its regulatory activities unless to do so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
The EPA believes that this proposed action is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of NTTAA because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.
Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629 (Feb. 16, 1994)) establishes federal executive policy on environmental justice. Its main provision directs federal agencies, to the greatest extent practicable and permitted by law, to make environmental justice part of their mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies, and activities on minority populations and low-income populations in the United States.
EPA lacks the discretionary authority to address environmental justice in this proposed rulemaking.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Approval and promulgation of implementation plans, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, and Sulfur dioxide.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve two revisions to the New Mexico State Implementation Plan (SIP) to update the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) SIP permitting program consistent with federal requirements. New Mexico submitted the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD SIP permitting revisions on July 26, 2013, and March 4, 2015, which included a request for parallel processing of the submitted 2015 revisions. These submittals contain revisions to address the requirements of the EPA's May 2008, July 2010, and October 2012 PM
Written comments should be received on or before June 19, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2013-0616, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Ms. Ashley Mohr, (214) 665-7289,
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
The Act at section 110(a)(2)(C) requires states to develop and submit to the EPA for approval into the State Implementation Plan (SIP), preconstruction review and permitting programs applicable to certain new and modified stationary sources of air pollutants for attainment and nonattainment areas that cover both major and minor new sources and modifications, collectively referred to as the New Source Review (NSR) SIP. The Clean Air Act (CAA) NSR SIP program is composed of three separate programs: Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD), Nonattainment New Source Review (NNSR), and Minor NSR. PSD is established in part C of title I of the CAA and applies in areas that meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)—“attainment areas”—as well as areas where there is insufficient information to determine if the area meets the NAAQS—“unclassifiable
Since the EPA's last SIP approval on September 19, 2012, of PSD SIP requirements for Albuquerque-Bernalillo County,
The July 26, 2013, SIP submittal contains revisions to adopt and implement: (1) the EPA's 2008 NSR PM
On March 4, 2015, New Mexico submitted a request for the parallel processing of additional SIP revisions to the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program. This means that the EPA is proposing approval of the submitted revisions at the same time that the public comment and rulemaking process is taking place at the state and local level. These proposed revisions to part 61 are being made in response to comments the EPA provided on the July 26, 2013, SIP submittal. Specifically, the March 2015 parallel processing request contains proposed revisions to Section 7—Definitions and Section 11—Applicability. New Mexico's parallel processing request was made in accordance with paragraph 2.3.1 of appendix V to 40 CFR part 51. As part of this proposed rulemaking, the EPA is addressing the proposed revisions to the New Mexico SIP contained in the March 4, 2015, parallel processing request. As required by paragraph 2.3.2 of appendix V to 40 CFR part 51, the EPA will not take final action on the proposed revisions contained in the March 4, 2015, submittal until the final SIP revision submittal containing these revisions to the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program as a final adoption is received from New Mexico. Therefore, the EPA is proposing to approve the SIP revision request after the completion of the state public process and final submittal. More information regarding the anticipated timeline of the state's rulemaking process is contained in the TSD accompanying this proposed action.
On May 8, 2008, the EPA finalized the NSR PM
Prior to the adoption of the revisions included in the July 26, 2013, SIP submittal, the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County Air Board adopted revisions to 20.11.61 NMAC to incorporate all but one of the amendments consistent with the EPA's 2008 NSR PM
On October 20, 2010, the EPA finalized the PM
Under section 165(a)(3) of the CAA, a PSD permit applicant must demonstrate that emissions from the proposed construction and operation of a facility “will not cause, or contribute to, air pollution in excess of any maximum allowable increase or allowable concentration for any pollutant.” In other words, when a source applies for a PSD SIP permit to emit a regulated pollutant in an attainment or unclassifiable area, the permitting
For PSD baseline purposes, a baseline area for a particular pollutant emitted from a source includes the attainment or unclassifiable/attainment area in which the source is located as well as any other attainment or unclassifiable/attainment area in which the source's emissions of that pollutant are projected (by air quality modeling) to result in an ambient pollutant increase of at least 1 μg/m3 (annual average). See 40 CFR 51.166(b)(15)(i) and (ii). Under the EPA's existing regulations, the establishment of a baseline area for any PSD increment results from the submission of the first complete PSD permit application and is based on the location of the proposed source and its emissions impact on the area. Once the baseline area is established, subsequent PSD sources locating in that area need to consider that a portion of the available increment may have already been consumed by previous emissions increases. In general, the submittal date of the first complete PSD permit application in a particular area is the operative “baseline date.”
In addition to PSD increments for the PM
The EPA's PM
The PM
New Mexico's July 26, 2013, SIP revision submittal includes revisions to 20.11.61 NMAC that incorporate the amendments to the PSD regulations consistent with the changes in the 2010 PM
On October 12, 2012, the EPA finalized amendments to its rules for the CAA NSR permitting program regarding the definition of “regulated NSR pollutant.” This rulemaking clarified when condensable particulate matter should be measured. The final rule continued to require that condensable particulate matter be included as part of the emissions measurements for regulation of PM
New Mexico's July 26, 2013, SIP revision submittal includes a revision to the definition of “regulated NSR pollutant.” Specifically, the SIP revision revises this definition found at 20.11.61.7(WW) NMAC to include the clarifying language related to the condensable particulate matter portion accounted for in PM
On March 8, 2011, the EPA issued an interim rule to stay a December 2008 rule known as the Fugitives Emissions Rule. The 2008 Rule established new provisions for how fugitive emissions should be treated for NSR permitting. The EPA's 2011 interim rule replaced the stay issued by the EPA on March 31, 2010, which inadvertently covered portions of the NSR permitting requirements that should not have been stayed. The 2011 rulemaking stayed the 2008 Fugitive Emissions Rule as originally intended and reverted the regulatory text back to the language that existed prior to those amendments, which the EPA is reconsidering in response to a 2009 Natural Resources Defense Council petition for reconsideration of the 2008 Fugitive Emissions Rule.
New Mexico's July 26, 2013, SIP revision submittal includes revisions to 20.11.61 NMAC that incorporate the amendments to the PSD regulations consistent with the changes in the 2011 Fugitives Interim Rule. The EPA finds that these revisions in the July 2013 submittal are consistent with the 2011 rulemaking and meet the requirements of section 110 and part C of the CAA.
On July 20, 2011, the EPA promulgated the Biomass Deferral Rule, which deferred, for a period of three years, the application of the PSD and title V permitting requirements to CO
New Mexico's July 26, 2013, SIP revision submittal includes revisions to 20.11.61 NMAC that incorporate the 2011 Biomass Deferral Rule into the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program. However, as discussed in this proposed rulemaking, New Mexico's March 4, 2015, SIP Submittal contains revisions to update the PSD program to remove the biomass deferral, which was vacated in 2013. The EPA finds that the combined revisions from the July 2013 and March 2015 submittals are consistent with current PSD regulations with respect to the vacated Biogas Referral Rule and meet the requirements of section 110 and part C of the CAA.
On June 3, 2010, the EPA issued a final rule, known as the Tailoring Rule, which phased in permitting requirements for GHG emissions from stationary sources under the CAA PSD and title V permitting programs (75 FR 31514). For Step 1 of the Tailoring Rule, which began on January 2, 2011, PSD or title V requirements applied to sources of GHG emissions only if the sources were subject to PSD or title V “anyway” due to their emissions of non-GHG pollutants. These sources are referred to as “anyway sources.” Step 2 of the Tailoring Rule, which began on July 1, 2011, applied the PSD and title V permitting requirements under the CAA to sources that were classified as major, and, thus, required to obtain a permit, based solely on their potential GHG emissions and to modifications of otherwise major sources that required a PSD permit because they increased only GHG above applicable levels in the EPA regulations.
On July 12, 2012, the EPA promulgated the final “Prevention of Significant Deterioration and Title V Greenhouse Gas Tailoring Rule Step 3 and GHG Plantwide Applicability Limits” (GHG Tailoring Rule Step 3 and GHG PALs).
“Endangerment and Cause or Contribute Findings for Greenhouse Gases Under Section 202(a) of the Clean Air Act.” 74 FR 66496 (December 15, 2009).
“Interpretation of Regulations that Determine Pollutants Covered by Clean Air Act Permitting Programs.” 75 FR 17004 (April 2, 2010).
“Light-Duty Vehicle Greenhouse Gas Emission Standards and Corporate Average Fuel Economy Standards; Final Rule.” 75 FR 25324 (May 7, 2010).
“Prevention of Significant Deterioration and Title V Greenhouse Gas Tailoring Rule; Final Rule.” 75 FR 31514 (June 3, 2010).
The GHG PALs portion of the July 12, 2012, final rule promulgated revisions to the EPA regulations under 40 CFR part 52 for establishing PALs for GHG emissions. For a full discussion of the EPA's rationale for the GHG PALs provisions, see the notice of final rulemaking at 77 FR 41051. A PAL
New Mexico's July 26, 2013, and March 4, 2015, SIP revision submittals include amendments to the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program found in 20.11.61 NMAC to incorporate changes to federal PSD provisions resulting from the following EPA rulemakings: 2008 NSR PM
On June 23, 2014, the United States Supreme Court, in
In accordance with the Supreme Court decision, on April 10, 2015, the D.C. Circuit issued an amended judgment vacating the regulations that implemented Step 2 of the Tailoring Rule, but not the regulations that implement Step 1 of the Tailoring Rule. A copy of the judgment is included in the docket to this rulemaking.
The EPA may need to take additional steps to revise federal PSD rules in light of the Supreme Court decision and recent D.C. Circuit judgment. In addition, the EPA anticipates that many states will revise their existing SIP-approved PSD programs. The EPA is not expecting states to have revised their existing PSD program regulations at this juncture. However, the EPA is evaluating PSD program submissions to assure that the state's program correctly addresses GHGs consistent with both decisions.
New Mexico's existing approved SIP for the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program contains the greenhouse gas permitting requirements required under 40 CFR 51.166, as amended in the Tailoring Rule. As a result, the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County's SIP-approved PSD permitting program continues to require that PSD permits (otherwise required based on emissions of pollutants other than GHGs) contain limitations on GHG emissions based on the application of BACT when sources emit or increase greenhouse gases in the amount of 75,000 tons per year (tpy), measured as carbon dioxide equivalent. Although the SIP-approved Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD permitting program may also currently contain provisions that are no longer necessary in light of the D.C. Circuit's judgment or the Supreme Court decision, this does not prevent the EPA from approving the submission addressed in this rule. New Mexico's July 26, 2013, and March 4, 2015, SIP submissions do not add any greenhouse gas permitting requirements that are inconsistent either decision.
Likewise, this revision does add to the New Mexico SIP for the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program elements of the EPA's July 12, 2012, rule implementing Step 3 of the phase in of PSD permitting requirements for greenhouse gases described in the Tailoring Rule, which became effective on August 13, 2012. Specifically, the incorporation of the Step 3 rule provisions will allow GHG-emitting sources to obtain PALs for their GHG emissions on a CO
As discussed in this rulemaking and the accompanying TSD, the EPA finds that the revisions to the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program contained in the July 26, 2013, and March 4, 2015, SIP revision submittals are consistent with the aforementioned the EPA rulemakings and meet the associated federal requirements. The
The EPA is proposing to approve revisions to the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program that were submitted by New Mexico as a SIP revision on July 26, 2013, and March 4, 2015. We are proposing approval of the portions of the July 26, 2013, and March 4, 2015, submittals that revised the following sections under 20.11.61:
• 20.11.61.2 NMAC—Scope,
• 20.11.61.5 NMAC—Effective Date,
• 20.11.61.6 NMAC—Objective,
• 20.11.61.7 NMAC—Definitions,
• 20.11.61.10 NMAC—Documents,
• 20.11.61.11 NMAC—Applicability,
• 20.11.61.12 NMAC—Obligations of Owners or Operators of Sources,
• 20.11.61.14 NMAC—Control Technology Review and Innovative Control Technology,
• 20.11.61.15 NMAC—Ambient Impact Requirements,
• 20.11.61.18 NMAC—Air Quality Analysis and Monitoring Requirements,
• 20.11.61.20 NMAC—Actuals Plantwide Applicability Limits (PALs),
• 20.11.61.23 NMAC—Exclusions from Increment Consumption,
• 20.11.61.24 NMAC—Sources Impacting Federal Class I Areas-Additional Requirements,
• 20.11.61.27 NMAC—Table 2-Significant Emission Rates,
• 20.11.61.29 NMAC—Table 4-Allowable PSD Increments, and
• 20.11.61.30 NMAC—Table 5-Maximum Allowable Increases for Class I Variances.
The EPA has determined that these revisions to the New Mexico SIP's Albuquerque-Bernalillo County PSD program are approvable because the submitted rules are adopted and submitted in accordance with the CAA and are consistent with the EPA regulations regarding PSD permitting. The EPA is proposing this action under section 110 and part C of the Act.
The EPA is severing from our proposed approval action the revisions to 20.11.60 NMAC submitted on July 26, 2013, which are revisions to the Albuquerque-Bernalillo County NNSR Program and will be addressed in a separate action.
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the New Mexico regulations discussed in section III. of this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule is not proposed to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania's December 22, 2014 request to redesignate to attainment the Pittsburgh-Beaver Valley nonattainment area (Pittsburgh Area or Area) for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
Written comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2015-0029 by one of the following methods:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rose Quinto, (215) 814-2182 or by email at
The first air quality standards for PM
On January 5, 2005 (70 FR 944), EPA published air quality area designations for the 1997 PM
On October 17, 2006 (71 FR 61144), EPA retained the annual average standard at 15 μg/m
On October 12, 2012 (77 FR 62147) and May 2, 2014 (79 FR 25014), EPA made determinations that the Pittsburgh Area had attained the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
On December 22, 2014, the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, through the Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection (PADEP), formally submitted a request to redesignate the Pittsburg-Beaver Valley Area from nonattainment to attainment for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
In this proposed rulemaking action, EPA addresses the effects of several decisions of the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia (D.C. Circuit Court) and a decision of the United States Supreme Court: (1) The D.C. Circuit Court's August 21, 2012 decision to vacate and remand to EPA the Cross-State Air Pollution Control Rule (CSAPR); (2) the Supreme Court's April 29, 2014 reversal of the vacature of CSAPR, and remand to the D.C. Circuit Court; (3) the D.C. Circuit Court's October 23, 2014 decision to lift the stay of CSAPR; and (4) the D.C. Circuit Court's January 4, 2013 decision to remand to EPA two final rules implementing the 1997 annual PM
The CAA provides the requirements for redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment. Specifically, section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA allows for redesignation providing that: (1) EPA determines that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS; (2) EPA has fully approved the applicable implementation plan for the area under section 110(k); (3) EPA determines that the improvement in air quality is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the applicable SIP and applicable Federal air pollutant control regulations and other permanent and enforceable reductions; (4) EPA has fully approved a maintenance plan for the area as meeting the requirements of section 175A of the CAA; and (5) the state containing such area has met all requirements applicable to the area under section 110 and part D of the CAA. Each of these requirements are discussed in Section V. of this proposed rulemaking action.
EPA provided guidance on redesignations in the “SIPs; General Preamble for the Implementation of Title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990,” (57 FR 13498, April 16, 1992) (the General Preamble) and has provided further guidance on processing redesignation requests in the following documents: (1) “Procedures for Processing Requests to Redesignate Areas to Attainment,” Memorandum from John Calcagni, Director, Air Quality Management Division, September 4, 1992 (hereafter referred to as the 1992 Calcagni Memorandum); (2) “SIP Actions Submitted in Response to CAA Deadlines,” Memorandum from John Calcagni, Director, Air Quality Management Division, October 28, 1992; and (3) “Part D New Source Review (Part D NSR) Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment,” Memorandum from Mary D. Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, October 14, 1994.
Section 175A of the CAA sets forth the elements of a maintenance plan for areas seeking redesignation from nonattainment to attainment. Under section 175A, the plan must demonstrate continued attainment of the applicable NAAQS for at least 10 years after approval of a redesignation of an area to attainment. Eight years after the redesignation, the state must submit a revised maintenance plan demonstrating that attainment will continue to be maintained for the 10 years following the initial 10-year period. To address the possibility of future NAAQS violations, the maintenance plan must contain such contingency measures, with a schedule for implementation, as EPA deems necessary to assure prompt correction of any future PM
The 1992 Calcagni Memorandum provides additional guidance on the content of a maintenance plan. The Memorandum states that a maintenance plan should address the following provisions: (1) An attainment emissions inventory; (2) a maintenance demonstration showing maintenance for 10 years; (3) a commitment to maintain an ambient air quality monitoring network in accordance with 40 CFR part 58; (4) verification of continued attainment; and (5) a contingency plan to prevent or correct future violations of the NAAQS.
Under the CAA, states are required to submit, at various times, control strategy SIP revisions for nonattainment areas and maintenance plans for areas seeking redesignation to attainment for a given NAAQS. These emission control strategy SIP revisions (
The maintenance plan for the Pittsburgh Area, comprised of Beaver, Butler, Washington, Westmoreland Counties and portions of Allegheny, Armstrong, Green and Lawrence Counties in Pennsylvania, includes the 2017 and 2025 PM
EPA is proposing to take several rulemaking actions related to the redesignation of the Pittsburgh Area to attainment for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
EPA previously determined that the Pittsburgh Area attained both the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
The D.C. Circuit Court and the Supreme Court have issued a number of decisions and orders regarding the status of EPA's regional trading programs for transported air pollution, the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) and CSAPR, that impact this proposed redesignation action. In 2008, the D.C. Circuit Court initially vacated CAIR,
On August 21, 2012, the D.C. Circuit Court issued its ruling, vacating and remanding CSAPR to EPA and once again ordering continued implementation of CAIR.
On April 29, 2014, the Supreme Court vacated and reversed the D.C. Circuit Court's decision regarding CSAPR, and remanded that decision to the D.C. Circuit Court to resolve remaining issues in accordance with its ruling.
Because CAIR was promulgated in 2005 and incentivized sources and states to begin achieving early emission reductions, the air quality data examined by EPA in issuing a final determination of attainment for the Pittsburgh Area in 2012 (October 12, 2012, 77 FR 62147) and the air quality data from the Area since 2005 necessarily reflect reductions in emissions from upwind sources as a result of CAIR, and Pennsylvania included CAIR as one of the measures that helped to bring the Area into attainment. However, modeling conducted by EPA during the CSAPR rulemaking process, which used a baseline emissions scenario that “backed out” the effects of CAIR,
The status of CSAPR is not relevant to this redesignation. CSAPR was promulgated in June 2011, and the rule was stayed by the D.C. Circuit Court just six months later, before the trading programs it created were scheduled to go into effect. As stated previously, EPA began implementing CSAPR on January 1, 2015, subsequent to the emission reductions documented in the Commonwealth's December 22, 2014 request for resedignation. Therefore, the Area's attainment of the 1997 annual or the 2006 24-hour PM
On January 4, 2013, in
Prior to the January 4, 2013 decision, the states had worked towards meeting the air quality goals of the 1997 and 2006 PM
On June 2, 2014 (79 FR 31566), EPA issued a final rule, “Identification of Nonattainment Classification and Deadlines for Submission of SIP Provisions for the 1997 and 2006 PM
As explained in detail in the following section, since Pennsylvania submitted its request to redesignate the Pittsburgh Area on December 22, 2014, any additional attainment-related SIP elements that may be needed for the Area to meet the applicable requirements of subpart 4 were not due at the time Pennsylvania submitted its request to redesignate the Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
In this proposed rulemaking action, EPA addresses the effect of the D.C. Circuit Court's January 4, 2013 ruling and the June 2, 2014 PM
With respect to the 1997 PM
EPA's view that, for purposes of evaluating the redesignation of the Area, the subpart 4 requirements were not due at the time Pennsylvania submitted the redesignation request is in keeping with the EPA's interpretation of subpart 2 requirements for subpart 1 ozone areas redesignated subsequent to the D.C.
EPA's interpretation derives from the provisions of section 107(d)(3) of the CAA. Section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) states that, for an area to be redesignated, a state must meet “all requirements `applicable' to the area under section 110 and part D.” Section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) provides that EPA must have fully approved the “applicable” SIP for the area seeking redesignation. These two sections read together support EPA's interpretation of “applicable” as only those requirements that came due prior to submission of a complete redesignation request.
First, holding states to an ongoing obligation to adopt new CAA requirements that arose after the state submitted its redesignation request, in order to be redesignated, would make it problematic or impossible for EPA to act on redesignation requests in accordance with the 18-month deadline Congress set for EPA action in section 107(d)(3)(D). If “applicable requirements” were interpreted to be a continuing flow of requirements with no reasonable limitation, states, after submitting a redesignation request, would be forced continuously to make additional SIP submissions that in turn would require EPA to undertake further notice-and-comment rulemaking actions to act on those submissions. This would create a regime of unceasing rulemaking that would delay action on the redesignation request beyond the 18-month timeframe provided by the CAA for this purpose.
Second, a fundamental premise for redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment is that the area has attained the relevant NAAQS due to emission reductions from existing controls. Thus, an area for which a redesignation request has been submitted would have already attained the NAAQS as a result of satisfying statutory requirements that came due prior to the submission of the request. Absent a showing that unadopted and unimplemented requirements are necessary for future maintenance, it is reasonable to view the requirements applicable for purposes of evaluating the redesignation request as including only those SIP requirements that have already come due. These are the requirements that led to attainment of the NAAQS. To require, for redesignation approval, that a state also satisfy additional SIP requirements coming due after the state submits its complete redesignation request, and while EPA is reviewing it, would compel the state to do more than is necessary to attain the NAAQS, without a showing that the additional requirements are necessary for maintenance.
In the context of this redesignation, the timing and nature of the D.C. Circuit Court's January 4, 2013 decision in
To require Pennsylvania's fully-complete and pending redesignation request for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Even if EPA were to take the view that the D.C. Circuit Court's January 4, 2013 decision, or the June 2, 2014 PM
With respect to evaluating the relevant substantive requirements of subpart 4 for purposes of redesignating the Area, EPA notes that subpart 4 incorporates components of subpart 1 of part D, which contains general air quality planning requirements for areas designated as nonattainment.
For the purposes of this redesignation request, in order to identify any additional requirements which would apply under subpart 4, consistent with EPA's June 2, 2014 PM
The permit requirements of subpart 4, as contained in section 189(a)(1)(A), refer to and apply the subpart 1 permit provisions requirements of sections 172 and 173 to PM
The General Preamble also explained that: “[t]he section 172(c)(9) requirements are directed at ensuring RFP and attainment by the applicable date. These requirements no longer apply when an area has attained the standard and is eligible for redesignation. Furthermore, section 175A for maintenance plans . . . provides specific requirements for contingency measures that effectively supersede the requirements of section 172(c)(9) for these areas.”
It is evident that even if we were to consider the D.C. Circuit Court's January 4, 2013 decision in
Moreover, even outside the context of redesignations, EPA has viewed the obligations to submit attainment-related SIP planning requirements of subpart 4 as inapplicable for areas that EPA determines are attaining the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
As stated previously in this proposed rulemaking action, on October 12, 2012 (77 FR 62147) and May 2, 2014 (79 FR 25014), EPA made determinations that the Pittsburgh Area had attained the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
The D.C. Circuit Court in
EPA's 1997 PM
The D.C. Circuit Court in its January 4, 2013 decision made reference to both section 189(e) and 40 CFR 51.1002, and stated that, “In light of our disposition, we need not address the petitioners' challenge to the presumptions in [40 CFR 51.1002] that VOCs and NH
Elsewhere in the D.C. Circuit Court's opinion, however, the D.C. Circuit Court observed: “NH
For a number of reasons, the redesignation of the Pittsburgh Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
However, even if EPA takes the view that the requirements of subpart 4 were deemed applicable at the time the state submitted the redesignation request, and disregards the 1997 PM
Precursors in subpart 4 are specifically regulated under the provisions of section 189(e), which requires, with important exceptions, control requirements for major stationary sources of PM
In the General Preamble, EPA discusses its approach to implementing section 189(e).
EPA notes that its 1997 PM
Although, as EPA has emphasized, its consideration here of precursor requirements under subpart 4 is in the context of a redesignation to attainment, EPA's existing interpretation of subpart 4 requirements with respect to precursors in attainment plans for PM
In summary, even if, prior to submitting its December 22, 2014 redesignation request, or subsequent to such submission and prior to December 31, 2014, Pennsylvania was required to address precursors for the Area under subpart 4 rather than under subpart 1, as interpreted in EPA's remanded 1997 PM
EPA is proposing several rulemaking actions for the Pittsburgh Area: (1) To redesignate the Pittsburgh Area to attainment for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
On October 12, 2012 (77 FR 62147), EPA determined that the Pittsburgh Area attained the 1997 annual PM
EPA has reviewed the ambient air quality PM
EPA's review of the monitoring data from 2008 through 2013 supports EPA's previous determinations that the Area has attained the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
In accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(v), the SIP revision for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Section 110(a)(2) of Title I of the CAA delineates the general requirements for a SIP, which include enforceable emissions limitations and other control measures, means, or techniques, provisions for the establishment and operation of appropriate devices necessary to collect data on ambient air quality, and programs to enforce the limitations. The general SIP elements and requirements set forth in section 110(a)(2) include, but are not limited to, the following: (1) Submittal of a SIP that has been adopted by the state after reasonable public notice and hearing; (2) provisions for establishment and operation of appropriate procedures needed to monitor ambient air quality; (3) implementation of a minor source permit program and provisions for the implementation of part C requirements (PSD); (4) Provisions for the implementation of part D requirements for NSR permit programs; (5) provisions for air pollution modeling; and (6) provisions for public and local agency participation in planning and emission control rule development.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) of the CAA requires that SIPs contain certain measures to prevent sources in a state from significantly contributing to air quality problems in another state. To implement this provision for various NAAQS, EPA has required certain states to establish programs to address transport of air pollutants in accordance with EPA's Finding of Significant Contribution and Rulemaking for Certain States in the Ozone Transport Assessment Group Region for Purposes of Reducing Regional Transport of Ozone (63 FR 57356, October 27, 1998), also known as the NO
In addition, EPA believes that the other section 110(a)(2) elements not connected with nonattainment plan submissions and not linked with an area's attainment status are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. The Area will still be subject to these requirements after it is redesignated. EPA concludes that the section 110(a)(2) and part D requirements which are linked with a particular area's designation and classification are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request, and that section 110(a)(2) elements not linked to the area's nonattainment status are not applicable for purposes of redesignation. This approach is consistent with EPA's existing policy on applicability of conformity (
EPA has reviewed the Pennsylvania SIP and has concluded that it meets the general SIP requirements under section 110(a)(2) of the CAA to the extent they are applicable for purposes of redesignation. EPA has previously approved provisions of Pennsylvania's SIP addressing section 110(a)(2) requirements, including provisions addressing PM
Subpart 1 sets forth the basic nonattainment plan requirements applicable to PM
EPA's longstanding interpretation of the nonattainment planning requirements of section 172 is that once an area is attaining the NAAQS, those requirements are not “applicable” for purposes of section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) and therefore need not be approved into the SIP before EPA can redesignate the area. In the 1992 General Preamble for Implementation of Title I, EPA set forth its interpretation of applicable requirements for purposes of evaluating redesignation requests when an area is attaining a standard.
Therefore, because attainment has been reached for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
The requirement under section 172(c)(3) of the CAA was not suspended by EPA's clean data determination for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Section 172(c)(3) of the CAA requires submission and approval of a comprehensive, accurate, and current inventory of actual emissions. For purposes of the PM
To satisfy the 172(c)(3) requirement for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Section 172(c)(4) of the CAA requires the identification and quantification of allowable emissions for major new and modified stationary sources in an area, and section 172(c)(5) requires source permits for the construction and operation of new and modified major stationary sources anywhere in the nonattainment area. EPA has determined that, since PSD requirements will apply after redesignation, areas being redesignated need not comply with the requirement that a nonattainment NSR program be approved prior to redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without part D NSR. A more detailed rationale for this view is described in a memorandum from Mary Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, dated October 14, 1994, entitled, “Part D New Source Review Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment.” Nevertheless, Pennsylvania currently has an approved NSR program codified in Pennsylvania's regulations at 25 Pa. Code Chapter 127.201,
Section 172(c)(7) of the CAA requires the SIP to meet the applicable provisions of section 110(a)(2). As noted previously, EPA believes the Pennsylvania SIP meets the requirements of section 110(a)(2) that are applicable for purposes of redesignation.
Section 175A requires a state seeking redesignation to attainment to submit a SIP revision to provide for the maintenance of the NAAQS in the area “for at least 10 years after the redesignation.” In conjunction with its request to redesignate the Pittsburgh Area to attainment status, Pennsylvania submitted a SIP revision on December 22, 2014 to provide for maintenance of the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires states to establish criteria and procedures to ensure that Federally supported or funded projects conform to the air quality planning goals in the applicable SIP. The requirement to determine conformity applies to transportation plans, programs, and projects that are developed, funded or approved under Title 23 of the United States Code (U.S.C.) and the Federal Transit Act (transportation conformity) as well as to all other Federally supported or funded projects (general conformity). State transportation conformity SIP revisions must be consistent with Federal conformity regulations relating to consultation, enforcement and enforceability which EPA promulgated pursuant to its authority under the CAA. EPA approved Pennsylvania's transportation conformity SIP requirements on April 29, 2009 (74 FR 19541).
EPA interprets the conformity SIP requirements as not applying for
Thus, for purposes of redesignating to attainment the Pittsburgh Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Upon final approval of the 2007 and 2011 comprehensive emissions inventories as proposed in this rulemaking action, EPA will have fully approved all applicable requirements of Pennsylvania's SIP for the Pittsburgh Area for purposes of redesignation to attainment for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, section 107(d)(3)(E)(iii) requires EPA to determine that the air quality improvement in the area is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the SIP and applicable Federal air pollution control regulations and other permanent and enforceable reductions. Pennsylvania has calculated the change in emissions between 2005, a year showing nonattainment for the 1997 annual and the 2006 24-hour PM
A summary of the emissions reductions in tpy of PM
A summary of the emissions reductions in tpy of PM
The reduction in emissions and the corresponding improvement in air quality in the Pittsburgh Area from 2005 to 2007 for the 1997 annual PM
Reductions in PM
PM
NO
These emission control requirements result in lower NO
EPA issued the Heavy-Duty Diesel Engine Rule in July 2000. This rule included standards limiting the sulfur content of diesel fuel, which went into effect in 2004. A second phase took effect in 2007 which reduced PM
On June 29, 2004 (69 FR 38958), EPA promulgated the Nonroad Diesel Rule for large nonroad diesel engines, such as those used in construction, agriculture, and mining, to be phased in between 2008 and 2014. The rule phased in requirements for reducing the sulfur content of diesel used in nonroad diesel engines. The reduction in sulfur content prevents damage to the more advanced emission control systems needed to meet the engine standards. It will also reduce fine particulate emissions from diesel engines. The combined engine standards and the sulfur in fuel reductions will reduce NO
In November 2002, EPA promulgated emission standards for groups of previously unregulated nonroad engines. These engines include large spark-ignition engines such as those used in forklifts and airport ground-service equipment; recreational vehicles using spark-ignition engines such as off-highway motorcycles, all-terrain vehicles, and snowmobiles; and recreational marine diesel engines. Emission standards from large spark-ignition engines were implemented in two tiers, with Tier 1 starting in 2004 and Tier 2 in 2007. Recreational vehicle emission standards are being phased in from 2006 through 2012. Marine Diesel engine standards were phased in from 2006 through 2009. With full implementation of all of the nonroad spark-ignition engine and recreational engine standards, an overall 80 percent reduction in NO
As required by the CAA, EPA developed Maximum Available Control Technology (MACT) Standards to regulate emissions of hazardous air pollutants from a published list of industrial sources referred to as “source categories.” The MACT standards have been adopted and incorporated by reference in Section 6.6 of Pennsylvania's Air Pollution Control Act and implementing regulations in 25 Pa. Code § 127.35 and are also included in Federally enforceable permits issued by PADEP for affected sources. The Industrial/Commercial/Institutional (ICI) Boiler MACT standards (69 FR 55217, September 13, 2004 and 76 FR 15554, February 21, 2011) are estimated to reduce emissions of PM, SO
In 2002, Pennsylvania adopted the Heavy-Duty Diesel Emissions Control Program for model years starting in May 2004. The program incorporates California standards by reference and required model year 2005 and beyond heavy-duty diesel highway engines to be certified to the California standards, which were more stringent than the Federal standards for model years 2005 and 2006. After model year 2006, Pennsylvania required implementation of the Federal standards that applied to model years 2007 and beyond, discussed in the Federal measures section of this proposed rulemaking action. This program reduced emissions of NO
The Pittsburgh Area has had a vehicle emissions inspection program since 1984, and in 2004, Pennsylvania revised the implementation of its Vehicle Emission I/M program in the Pittsburgh Area, and applies to model year 1975 and newer gasoline-powered vehicles that are 9,000 pounds and under. The program, approved into the Pennsylvania SIP on October 6, 2005 (70 FR 58313), consists of annual on-board diagnostics and gas cap test for model year 1996 vehicles and newer, and an annual visual inspection of pollution control devices and gas cap test for model year 1995 vehicles and older. This program reduces emissions of NO
On December 10, 2009 (74 FR 65446), EPA approved Pennsylvania regulation 25 Pa. Code Chapter 145, Subchapters B and C (relating to emissions of NO
Pennsylvania regulation 25 Pa. Code Chapter 130, Subchapter B (Consumer Products) established, effective January 1, 2005, VOC emission limits to numerous categories of consumer products, and applies statewide to any person who sells, supplies, offers for sale, or manufactures such consumer products on or after January 5, 2005 for use in Pennsylvania. It was approved into the Pennsylvania SIP on December 8, 2004 (69 FR 70895).
Based on the information summarized above, Pennsylvania has adequately
On December 22, 2014, PADEP submitted a combined maintenance plan for the Pittsburgh Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
An attainment inventory is comprised of the emissions during the time period associated with the monitoring data showing attainment. PADEP determined that the appropriate attainment inventory year for the maintenance plan for the 1997 annual NAAQS is 2007, one of the years in the periods during which the Pittsburgh Area monitored attainment of the 1997 annual PM
In its redesignation request and maintenance plan for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Section 175A requires a state seeking redesignation to attainment to submit a SIP revision to provide for the maintenance of the NAAQS in the area “for at least 10 years after the redesignation.” EPA has interpreted this as a showing of maintenance “for a period of ten years following redesignation.” The Federal and State measures described in Section V.A.3 of this proposed rulemaking action demonstrate that the reductions in emissions from point, area, and mobile sources in the Area have occurred and will continue to occur through 2025. In addition, the following State and Federal regulations and programs ensure the continuing decline of SO
Pennsylvania established NO
EPA promulgated CSAPR to replace CAIR as an emission trading program for EGUs. As discussed previously, pursuant to the D.C. Circuit Court's October 23, 2014 Order, the stay of CSAPR has been lifted and implementation of CSAPR commenced in January 2015. EPA expects that the implementation of CSAPR will preserve the reductions achieved by CAIR and result in additional SO
On July 19, 2011 (76 FR 52558), EPA approved amendments to 25 Pa. Code Chapter 145 Subchapter C to further reduce NO
Amendments to Pennsylvania regulation 25 Pa. Code Chapter 130, Subchapter B (Consumer Products) established, effective January 1, 2009, new or more stringent VOC standards for consumer products. The amendments were approved into the Pennsylvania SIP on October 18, 2010 (75 FR 63717).
The Pennsylvania Clean Vehicles Program (formerly, New Motor Vehicle Control Program) incorporates by reference the California Low Emission Vehicle program (CA LEVII), although it allowed automakers to comply with the National Low Emission Vehicle (NLEV) program as an alternative to this program until Model Year (MY) 2006. The Clean Vehicles Program, codified in 25 Pa. Code Chapter 126, Subchapter D, was modified to require CA LEVII to apply to MY 2008 and beyond, and was approved into the Pennsylvania SIP on January 24, 2012 (77 FR 3386). The Clean Vehicles Program incorporates by reference the emission control standards of CA LEVII, which, among other requirements, reduces emissions of NO
Two Pennsylvania regulations—the Diesel-Powered Motor Vehicle Idling Act (August 1, 2011, 76 FR 45705) and the Outdoor Wood-Fired Boiler regulation (September 20, 2011, 76 FR 58114)—were not included in the projection inventories, but may also assist in maintaining the standard. Also, the Tier 3 Motor Vehicle Emission and Fuel Standards (79 FR 23414, April 29, 2014) establishes more stringent vehicle emissions standards and will reduce the sulfur content of gasoline beginning in 2017. The fuel standard will achieve NO
The emissions growth due to a new emissions source, development of natural gas resources from Marcellus Shale (and other deep formations), is included in the area source inventory.
The State and Federal regulations and programs described above ensure the continuing decline of SO
Where the emissions inventory method of showing maintenance is used, its purpose is to show that emissions during the maintenance period will not increase over the attainment year inventory.
EPA has reviewed the documentation provided by PADEP for developing annual 2017 and 2025 emissions inventories for the Pittsburgh Area.
Table 9 provides a summary of the PM
As shown in Table 9, the projected levels of PM
Pennsylvania's maintenance plan includes a commitment to operate its EPA-approved monitoring network, as necessary to demonstrate ongoing compliance with the NAAQS. Pennsylvania currently operates a PM
To provide for tracking of the emission levels in the Area, PADEP will: (a) Evaluate annually the vehicle miles travelled (VMT) data and the annual emissions reported from stationary sources to compare them with the assumptions used in the maintenance plan, and (b) evaluate the periodic emissions inventory for all PM
The contingency plan provisions are designed to promptly correct any violation of the 1997 annual and/or the 2006 24-hour PM
Pennsylvania's maintenance plan describes the procedures for the adoption and implementation of contingency measures to reduce emissions should a violation occur. Pennsylvania's contingency measures include a first level response and a second level response. A first level response is triggered when the annual mean PM
A second level response will be prompted if the two-year average of the annual mean concentration exceeds 15.0 μg/m
Pennsylvania's candidate contingency measures include the following: (1) A regulation based on the Ozone Transport Commission (OTC) Model Rule to update requirements for consumer products; (2) a regulation based on the Control Techniques Guidelines (CTG) for industrial cleaning solvents; (3) voluntary diesel projects such as diesel retrofit for public or private local onroad or offroad fleets, idling reduction technology for Class 2 yard locomotives, and idling reduction technologies or strategies for truck stops, warehouses, and other freight-handling facilities; (4) promotion of accelerated turnover of lawn and garden equipment, focusing on commercial equipment; and (5) promotion of alternative fuels for fleets, home heating and agricultural use. Pennsylvania's rulemaking process and schedule for adoption and implementation of any necessary contingency measure is shown in the SIP submittals as being 18 months from PADEP's approval to initiate rulemaking. For all of the reasons discussed in this section, EPA is proposing to approve Pennsylvania's 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires Federal actions in nonattainment and maintenance areas to “conform to” the goals of SIPs. This means that such actions will not cause or contribute to violations of a NAAQS, worsen the severity of an existing violation, or delay timely attainment of any NAAQS or any interim milestone. Actions involving Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) funding or approval are subject to the transportation conformity rule (40 CFR part 93, subpart A). Under this rule, metropolitan planning organizations (MPOs) in nonattainment and maintenance areas coordinate with state air quality and transportation agencies,
On December 22, 2014, Pennsylvania submitted a SIP revision that contains the 2017 and 2025 PM
EPA's substantive criteria for determining adequacy of MVEBs are set out in 40 CFR 93.118(e)(4). Additionally, to approve the MVEBs, EPA must complete a thorough review of the SIP, in this case the PM
In this proposed rulemaking action, EPA is also initiating the process for determining whether or not the MVEBs are adequate for transportation conformity purposes. The publication of this rulemaking starts a 30-day public comment period on the adequacy of the submitted MVEBs. This comment period is concurrent with the comment period on this proposed action and comments should be submitted to the docket for this rulemaking. EPA may choose to make its determination on the adequacy of the budgets either in the final rulemaking on this maintenance plan and redesignation request or by informing Pennsylvania of the determination in writing, publishing a notice in the
EPA has reviewed the MVEBs and finds that the submitted MVEBs are consistent with the maintenance plan and that the budgets meet the criteria for adequacy and approval. Therefore, EPA is proposing to approve the 2017 and 2025 PM
EPA is proposing to approve Pennsylvania's request to redesignate the Pittsburgh Area from nonattainment to attainment for the 1997 annual and the 2006 24-hour PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule proposing to approve Pennsylvania's redesignation request, maintenance plan, 2007 and 2011 comprehensive emissions inventories for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen oxides, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of filing of petitions and request for comment.
This document announces the Agency's receipt of several initial filings of pesticide petitions requesting the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various commodities.
Comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number and the pesticide petition number (PP) of interest as shown in the body of this document, by one of the following methods:
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Susan Lewis, Registration Division (RD) (7505P), main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under
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EPA is announcing its receipt of several pesticide petitions filed under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, requesting the establishment or modification of regulations in 40 CFR part 174 and/or part 180 for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various food commodities. The Agency is taking
Pursuant to 40 CFR 180.7(f), a summary of each of the petitions that are the subject of this document, prepared by the petitioner, is included in a docket EPA has created for each rulemaking. The docket for each of the petitions is available at
As specified in FFDCA section 408(d)(3), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), EPA is publishing notice of the petition so that the public has an opportunity to comment on this request for the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticides in or on food commodities. Further information on the petition may be obtained through the petition summary referenced in this unit.
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21 U.S.C. 346a.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for reconsideration.
Petitions for Reconsideration (Petitions) have been filed in the Commission's Rulemaking proceeding by Kevin L. Tucker, on behalf of AirNorth Communications, Inc.; Michael D. Donnell on behalf of Michael D. Donnell d/b/a San Joaquin Broadband; and Hamid Vahdatipour, on behalf of Lake Region Technology & Communications, LLC.
Oppositions to the Petitions must be filed on or before June 4, 2015. Replies to an opposition must be filed on or before June 15, 2015.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Alexander Minard, Telecommunications Access Policy Division, Wireline Competition Bureau, (202) 418-7400, email:
This is a summary of Commission's document, Report No. 3021, released May 11, 2015. The full text of the Petitions is available for viewing and copying in Room CY-B402, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC or may be accessed online via the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System at
Surface Transportation Board.
Notice of commencement of proceeding.
The Surface Transportation Board (the Board) is commencing a proceeding to define “on-time performance” for purposes of Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008.
May 20, 2015.
Scott M. Zimmerman at (202) 245-0386. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at (800) 877-8339.
The Association of American Railroads (AAR) submitted a conditional petition for rulemaking to define “on-time performance” for purposes of Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008 (PRIIA), 49 U.S.C. 24308(f). The Board concludes that it is appropriate to institute a rulemaking proceeding to define on-time performance for purposes of PRIIA Section 213 and invite public participation. The Board intends to issue a notice of proposed rulemaking and a procedural schedule in a subsequent decision.
Additional information is contained in the Board's decision, which is available on our Web site at
This action will not significantly affect either the quality of the human environment or the conservation of energy resources.
By the Board, Acting Chairman Miller and Vice Chairman Begeman.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments regarding (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by June 19, 2015 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments regarding (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by June 19, 2015 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of public meeting.
This notice is announcing a meeting of the National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods (NACMCF), that will be held on June 10, 2015, by audio conference call that is open to the public. The Committee will continue its discussions, from its November 17, 2014 meeting, on microbiological criteria as indicators of poor process control or insanitary conditions. After further discussion, the committee plans to adopt its final recommendations.
Wednesday, June 10, 2015.
All documents related to the full Committee meeting will be available for public inspection in the FSIS Docket Room, USDA, at Patriots Plaza 3, 355 E. Street SW., Room 8-164, Washington, DC 20250 between 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, as soon as they become available. The NACMCF documents also will be available on the Internet at
FSIS will finalize the agenda on or before the date of the meeting and will post it on the FSIS Web page at
The official meeting minutes of the June 10, 2015 full Committee meeting, when they become available, will be located in the FSIS Docket Room at the above address and also will be posted on
The NACMCF was established in 1988 in response to a recommendation of the National Academy of Sciences for an interagency approach to microbiological criteria for foods and in response to a recommendation of the U.S. House of Representatives Committee on Appropriations, as expressed in the Rural Development, Agriculture, and Related Agencies Appropriation Bill for fiscal year 1988. The charter for the NACMCF is available on the FSIS Web page at
The NACMCF provides scientific advice and recommendations to the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of Health and Human Services on issues related to the safety and wholesomeness of the U.S. food supply, including development of microbiological criteria, as well as the review and evaluation of epidemiological and risk assessment data and methodologies for assessing microbiological hazards in foods. The Committee also provides scientific advice and recommendations to the Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the Departments of Commerce and Defense.
Mr. Brian Ronholm, Deputy Under Secretary for Food Safety, USDA, is the Committee Chair; Dr. Susan T. Mayne, Director of the Food and Drug Administration's Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN), is the Vice-Chair; and Dr. James Rogers, FSIS, is the Executive Secretary.
FSIS will make all materials reviewed and considered by NACMCF regarding its deliberations available to the public. Generally, these materials will be made available as soon as possible after the full Committee meeting. Further, FSIS intends to make these materials available in electronic format on the FSIS Web page (
In order to meet the electronic and information technology accessibility standards in Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act, NACMCF may add alternate text descriptors for non-text elements (graphs, charts, tables, multimedia, etc.). These modifications only affect the Internet copies of the documents.
Copyrighted documents will not be posted on the FSIS Web site, but will be available for inspection in the FSIS Docket Room.
FSIS will announce this notice online through the FSIS Web page located at
FSIS also will make copies of this
USDA prohibits discrimination in all of its programs and activities on the basis of race, color, national origin, gender, religion, age, disability, political beliefs, sexual orientation, and marital or family status (Not all prohibited bases apply to all programs).
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication of program information (Braille, large print, and audiotape) should contact USDA's Target Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TTY).
To file a written complaint of discrimination, write USDA, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-9410 or call (202) 720-5964 (voice and TTY). USDA is an equal opportunity provider and employer.
Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), USDA.
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This is a new collection for the purpose of evaluating the Fiscal Year 2015 Pilot Projects to Reduce Dependency and Increase Work Requirements and Work Effort Under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP).
Written comments must be received on or before July 20, 2015.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments may be sent to: Wesley R. Dean, Food and Nutrition Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1014, Alexandria, VA 22302. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of Wesley R. Dean at 703-305-2576 or via email to
All written comments will be open for public inspection at the Office of the Food and Nutrition Service during regular business hours (8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. Monday through Friday) at 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1014, Alexandria, Virginia 22302.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.
Requests for additional information or copies of this information collection should be directed to Wesley R. Dean, Office of Policy Support, Food and Nutrition Service, USDA, 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1014, Alexandria, VA 22302.
The Agriculture Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-79, Section 4022), otherwise known as the 2014 Farm Bill authorized grants for up to 10 pilot sites to develop and rigorously test innovative SNAP E&T strategies for engaging more SNAP work registrants in unsubsidized employment, increasing participants' earnings and reducing reliance on public assistance. The pilots' significant funding can expand the reach of employment and training services and enable States to experiment with promising strategies to increase engagement and promote employment. An evaluation of the pilot sites will be critical in helping Congress and FNS identify strategies that effectively assist SNAP participants to succeed in the labor market and become self-sufficient.
The 10 States receiving grants to fund pilot projects are California, Delaware, Georgia, Kansas, Kentucky, Illinois, Mississippi, Vermont, Virginia and Washington State. The evaluation will collect data from all 10 pilot sites in 2015-2016 (baseline), 2016-2017 (12-month follow-up) and 2018-2019 (36-month follow-up). The data collected for this evaluation will be used for implementation, impact, participant and cost-benefit analyses for each pilot site. Research objectives include: (1) Documenting the context and operations of each pilot, identify lessons learned, and to help interpret and understand impacts within each pilot and across pilots, (2) identifying the impacts on employment, earnings, and reliance on public assistance and food security and other outcomes, to determine what works, and what works for whom, (3) examine the characteristics of service paths of pilot participants and the control group to assess whether the mere presence of the pilots and their offer of services or participation requirements influence whether people apply for SNAP (entry effects), and (4) estimate the total and component costs of each pilot and provide an estimate of the return to each dollar invested in the pilot services. Primary outcomes will be employment, earnings, and participation in public assistance programs, which will be measured through state administrative records, a baseline survey administered during enrollment into the study, and through follow-up telephone surveys conducted at approximately 12 months and 36 months. Impacts on secondary outcomes, such as food security, health status, and self-esteem, will be measured through the follow-up telephone surveys as well. The end products (interim and final reports) will provide scientifically valid evidence of the pilot project impacts.
160 individuals will be contacted for a time-use survey. This sample will also be used to recruit staff to participate in the case study. 100 staff members responsible for data management will also be contacted for the provision of administrative data.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, USDA.
Notice.
The Rural Business-Cooperative Service announces the availability of $3,000,000 in competitive grant funds for the FY 2015 Socially-Disadvantaged Groups Grant (SDGG) program, formerly known as the Small Socially-Disadvantaged Producer Grant program, as authorized by the Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015 (Pub. L. 113-235). We are requesting proposals from applicants who will provide technical assistance to socially-disadvantaged groups in rural areas. The Agency is encouraging applications that direct grants to projects based in or serving census tracts with poverty rates greater than or equal to 20 percent. This emphasis will support Rural Development's (RD) mission of improving the quality of life for rural Americans and commitment to directing resources to those who most need them. Eligible applicants include Cooperatives, Groups of Cooperatives, and Cooperative Development Centers.
Completed applications for grants must be submitted on paper or electronically according to the following deadlines:
Paper copies must be postmarked and mailed, shipped, or sent overnight no later than July 20, 2015. You may also hand carry your application to one of our field offices, but it must be received by close of business on the deadline date.
Electronic copies must be received by
You should contact the USDA Rural Development State Office (State Office) located in the State where you are headquartered if you have questions. Contact information for State Offices can be found at:
If you want to submit an electronic application, follow the instructions for the SDGG funding announcement located at
Grants Division, Cooperative Programs, Rural Business-Cooperative Service, United States Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., MS 3253, Room 4208-South, Washington, DC 20250-3250, or call 202-690-1376.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, the paperwork burden associated with this Notice has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB Control Number 0570-0052.
The SDGG Program is authorized by 310B (e)(11) of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act (7 U.S.C. 1932 (e)(11)). The primary objective of the SDGG program is to provide Technical Assistance to Socially-Disadvantaged Groups. Grants are available for Cooperative Development Centers, individual Cooperatives, or Groups of Cooperatives that serve Socially-Disadvantaged Groups and where a majority of the boards of directors or governing board is comprised of individuals who are members of Socially-Disadvantaged Groups.
(1) Not in a city or town that has a population of more than 50,000 inhabitants, according to the latest decennial census of the United States; and
(2) The contiguous and adjacent urbanized area,
(3) Urbanized areas that are rural in character as defined by 7 U.S.C. 1991 (a) (13).
(4) For the purposes of this definition, cities and towns are incorporated population centers with definite boundaries, local self-government, and legal powers set forth in a charter granted by the State. Notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph, within the areas of the County of Honolulu, Hawaii, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Secretary may designate any part of the areas as a rural area if the Secretary determines that the part is not urban in character, other than any area included in the Honolulu census designated place (CDP) or the San Juan CDP.
Applicants must meet all of the following eligibility requirements. Applications which fail to meet any of these requirements by the application deadline will be deemed ineligible and will not be evaluated further.
1.
(a) An applicant is ineligible if they have been debarred or suspended or otherwise excluded from or ineligible for participation in Federal assistance programs under Executive Order 12549, “Debarment and Suspension.” In addition, an applicant will be considered ineligible for a grant due to an outstanding judgment obtained by the U.S. in a Federal Court (other than U.S. Tax Court), is delinquent on the payment of Federal income taxes, or is delinquent on Federal debt.
(b) Any corporation (i) that has been convicted of a felony criminal violation under any Federal law within the past 24 months or (ii) that has any unpaid Federal tax liability that has been assessed, for which all judicial and administrative remedies have been exhausted or have lapsed, and that is not being paid in a timely manner pursuant to an agreement with the authority responsible for collecting the tax liability, is not eligible for financial assistance provided with funds appropriated by the Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015, unless a Federal agency has considered suspension or debarment of the corporation and has made a determination that this further action is not necessary to protect the interests of the Government.
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3.
However, you may not have more than one active SDGG during the same grant period. If you receive another SDGG during the next grant cycle, the first grant must be closed before funds can be obligated for the new grant. Applications that request funds for a time period ending after December 31, 2016, will not be considered for funding.
If you have an existing Small Socially-Disadvantaged Producer Grant award, you must be performing satisfactorily to be considered eligible for a new SDGG award. Satisfactory performance
The application template for applying on paper for this funding opportunity is located at
You may submit your application in paper form or electronically through Grants.gov. Your application must contain all required information.
To submit an application electronically, you must follow the instructions for this funding announcement at
You can locate the Grants.gov downloadable application package for this program by using a keyword, the program name, or the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Number for this program.
When you enter the Grants.gov Web site, you will find information about submitting an application electronically through the site, as well as the hours of operation.
To use Grants.gov, you must already have a DUNS number and you must also be registered and maintain registration in SAM. We strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the application process through Grants.gov.
You must submit all of your application documents electronically through Grants.gov. Applications must include electronic signatures. Original signatures may be required if funds are awarded.
After electronically submitting an application through Grants.gov, you will receive an automatic acknowledgement from Grants.gov that contains a Grants.gov tracking number.
If you want to submit a paper application, send it to the State Office located in the State where you are headquartered. You can find State Office contact information at:
Your application must also contain the following required forms and proposal elements:
a. Form SF-424, “Application for Federal Assistance,” to include your DUNS number and SAM Commercial and Government Entity (CAGE) code and expiration date. Because there are no specific fields for a CAGE code and expiration date, you may identify them anywhere you want to on the form. If you do not include the CAGE code and expiration date and the DUNS number in your application, it will not be considered for funding.
b. Form SF-424A, “Budget Information-Non-Construction Programs.” This form must be completed and submitted as part of the application package.
c. Form SF-424B, “Assurances—Non-Construction Programs.” This form must be completed, signed, and submitted as part of the application package.
d. Form AD-3030, “Representations Regarding Felony Conviction and Tax Delinquent Status for Corporate Applicants,” if you are a corporation. A corporation is any entity that has filed articles of incorporation in one of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of Palau, and the Republic of the Marshall Islands, or the various territories of the United States including American Samoa, Guam, Midway Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands. Corporations include both for profit and non-profit entities.
e. You must certify that there are no current outstanding Federal judgments against your property and that you will not use grant funds to pay for any judgment obtained by the United States. To satisfy the Certification requirement, you should include this statement in your application: “[INSERT NAME OF APPLICANT] certifies that the United States has not obtained an unsatisfied judgment against its property and will not use grant funds to pay any judgments obtained by the United States.” A separate signature is not required.
f. Table of Contents. Your application must contain a detailed Table of Contents (TOC). The TOC must include page numbers for each part of the application. Page numbers should begin immediately following the TOC.
g. Executive Summary. A summary of the proposal, not to exceed one page, must briefly describe the Project, tasks to be completed, and other relevant information that provides a general overview of the Project.
h. Eligibility Discussion. A detailed discussion, not to exceed four pages, must describe how you meet the following requirements:
(i) Applicant Eligibility. You must describe how you meet the definition of a Cooperative, Group of Cooperatives, or Cooperative Development Center. Your application must show that your individual Cooperative, Group of Cooperatives or Cooperative Development Center serves socially disadvantaged groups and a majority of the board of directors or governing board is comprised of individuals who are members of Socially-Disadvantaged Groups. Your application must include a list of your board of directors/governing board and the percentage of board of directors/governing board that are members of Socially-Disadvantaged Groups. NOTE: Your application will not be considered for funding if you fail to show that a majority of your board of directors/governing board is comprised of individuals who are members of Socially-Disadvantaged Groups.
If applying as a Cooperative or a Group of Cooperatives, you must verify your incorporation and status in the State that you have applied by providing the State's Certificate of Good Standing and your Articles of Incorporation. If applying as a nonprofit corporation, you must provide evidence of your status as a nonprofit corporation in good standing and your Articles of Incorporation. If applying as an institution of higher education, you must qualify as an Institution of Higher Education as defined at 20 U.S.C. 1001. You must apply as only one type of applicant. If the requested verification documents are not included, your application will not be considered for funding.
(ii) Use of Funds. You must provide a detailed discussion on how the proposed Project activities meet the definition of Technical Assistance and identify the socially-disadvantaged groups that will be assisted.
(iii) Project Area. You must provide specific information that details the
(iv) Grant Period. You must provide a time frame for the proposed Project and discuss how the Project will be completed within that time frame. You must have a time frame of one year or less.
i. Scoring Criteria. Each of the scoring criteria in this Notice must be addressed in narrative form, with a maximum of two pages for each individual scoring criterion, unless otherwise specified. Failure to address each scoring criteria will result in the application being determined ineligible.
j. The Agency has established annual performance evaluation measures to evaluate the SDGG program. You must provide estimates on the following performance evaluation measures as part of your narrative:
• Number of businesses assisted;
• Number of cooperatives assisted; and
• Number of socially disadvantaged groups assisted.
In order to be eligible (unless you are excepted under 2 CFR 25.110(b), (c) or (d), you are required to:
(a) Provide a valid DUNS number in your application, which can be obtained at no cost via a toll-free request line at (866) 705-5711;
(b) Register in SAM before submitting your application. You may register in SAM at no cost at
(c) Continue to maintain an active SAM registration with current information at all times during which you have an active Federal award or an application or plan under consideration by a Federal awarding agency.
The Agency may not make a Federal award to you until you have complied with all applicable DUNS and SAM requirements. If you have not fully complied with requirements by the time the Agency is ready to make a Federal award, the Agency may determine that the applicant is not qualified to receive a Federal award and the Agency may use this determination as a basis for making an award to another applicant.
Electronic applications must be RECEIVED by
Executive Order (EO) 12372, Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs, applies to this program. This EO requires that Federal agencies provide opportunities for consultation on proposed assistance with State and local governments. Many States have established a Single Point of Contact (SPOC) to facilitate this consultation. A list of States that maintain a SPOC may be obtained at
You are also encouraged to contact Cooperative Programs at 202-690-1376 or
Grant funds must be used for Technical Assistance. No funds made available under this solicitation shall be used to:
a. Plan, repair, rehabilitate, acquire, or construct a building or facility, including a processing facility;
b. Purchase, rent, or install fixed equipment, including processing equipment;
c. Purchase vehicles, including boats;
d. Pay for the preparation of the grant application;
e. Pay expenses not directly related to the funded Project;
f. Fund political or lobbying activities;
g. To fund any activities considered unallowable by the applicable grant cost principles, including 2 CFR part 200, subpart E and the Federal Acquisition Regulation.
h. Fund architectural or engineering design work for a specific physical facility;
i. Fund any direct expenses for the production of any commodity or product to which value will be added, including seed, rootstock, labor for harvesting the crop, and delivery of the commodity to a processing facility;
j. Fund research and development;
k. Purchase land;
l. Duplicate current activities or activities paid for by other funded grant programs.
m. Pay costs of the Project incurred prior to the date of grant approval;
n. Pay for assistance to any private business enterprise that does not have at least 51 percent ownership by those who are either citizens of the United States or reside in the United States after being legally admitted for permanent residence;
o. Pay any judgment or debt owed to the United States;
p. Pay any Operating Costs of the Cooperative, Group of Cooperatives, or Cooperative Development Center not directly related to the Project;
q. Pay expenses for applicant employee training; or
r. Pay for any goods or services from a person who has a Conflict of Interest with the grantee.
In addition, your application will not be considered for funding if it does any of the following:
• Requests more than the maximum grant amount;
• Proposes ineligible costs that equal more than 10 percent of total grant funds requested; or
• Proposes Participant Support Costs that equal more than 10 percent of total grant funds requested.
We will consider your application for funding if it includes ineligible costs of 10 percent or less of total grant funds requested, as long as it is determined eligible otherwise. However, if your application is successful, those ineligible costs must be removed and replaced with eligible costs before the Agency will make the grant award or the amount of the grant award will be reduced accordingly. If we cannot determine the percentage of ineligible costs, your application will not be considered for funding.
(a) You should not submit your application in more than one format. You must choose whether to submit
(b) National Environmental Policy Act. This NOFA has been reviewed in accordance with 7 CFR part 1940, subpart G, “Environmental Program.” We have determined that an Environmental Impact Statement is not required because the issuance of regulations and instructions, as well as amendments to them, describing administrative and financial procedures for processing, approving, and implementing the Agency's financial programs is categorically excluded in the Agency's National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) regulation found at 7 CFR 1940.310(e)(3) of subpart G, “Environmental Program.” We have determined that this NOFA does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. Individual awards under this NOFA are hereby classified as Categorical Exclusions according to 7 CFR 1940.310(e), the award of financial assistance for planning purposes, management and feasibility studies, or environmental impact analyses, which do not require any additional documentation.
(c) Civil Rights Compliance Requirements. All grants made under this Notice are subject to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 as required by the USDA (7 CFR part 15, subpart A) and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
All eligible and complete applications will be evaluated based on the following criteria. Failure to address any one of the following criteria by the application deadline will result in the application being determined ineligible and the application will not be considered for funding. Evaluators will base scores only on the information provided or cross-referenced by page number in each individual scoring criterion. The total points possible for the criteria are 60.
I.
Higher points are awarded if you identify specific needs of the Socially-Disadvantaged Groups to be assisted; clearly explain a logical and detailed plan of assistance for addressing those needs; and discuss realistic outcomes of planned assistance.
II.
Higher points will be awarded if a majority of identified staff or consultants demonstrate 5 or more years of experience in providing relevant Technical Assistance in accordance with the work plan. Maximum points will be awarded if all of the identified staff or consultants demonstrate 5 or more years of experience in providing relevant Technical Assistance.
III.
IV.
A panel of USDA employees will evaluate your work plan for detailed actions and an accompanying timetable for implementing the proposal. Clear, logical, realistic, and efficient plans will result in a higher score. You must discuss at a minimum:
a. Specific tasks to be completed using grant funds;
b. How customers will be identified;
c. Key personnel; and
d. The evaluation methods to be used to determine the success of specific tasks and overall project objectives. Please provide qualitative methods of evaluation. For example, evaluation methods should go beyond quantitative measurements of completing surveys or number of evaluations.
V.
(i) 0 points are awarded if you do not address this criterion.
(ii) 1 point is awarded if you provide 2-3 support letters that show support from potential beneficiaries and/or support from local organizations.
(iii) 2 points are awarded if you provide 4-5 support letters that show support from potential beneficiaries and/or support from local organizations.
(iv) 3 points are awarded if you provide 6-7 support letters that show support from potential beneficiaries and/or support from local organizations.
(v) 4 points are awarded if you provide 8-9 support letters that show support from potential beneficiaries and/or support from local organizations.
(vi) 5 points are awarded if you provide 10 support letters that show support from potential beneficiaries and/or support from local organizations.
You may submit a maximum of 10 letters of support. Support letters should come from potential beneficiaries and
The State Offices will review applications to determine if they are eligible for assistance based on requirements in this Notice, and other applicable Federal regulations. If determined eligible, your application will be scored by a panel of USDA employees in accordance with the point allocation specified in this Notice. The panel will consist of USDA employees with expertise in providing Technical Assistance to Socially-Disadvantaged Groups. The review panel will convene to reach a consensus on the scores for each of the eligible applications. A recommendation will be submitted to the Administrator to fund applications in highest ranking order. Applications that cannot be fully funded may be offered partial funding at the Agency's discretion. If your application is ranked and not funded, it will not be carried forward into the next competition.
If you are selected for funding, you will receive a signed notice of Federal award by postal mail, containing instructions on requirements necessary to proceed with execution and performance of the award.
If you are not selected for funding, you will be notified in writing via postal mail and informed of any review and appeal rights. Funding of successfully appealed applications will be limited to available FY 2015 funding.
Additional requirements that apply to grantees selected for this program can be found in 7 CFR part 4284, subpart A, and 2 CFR parts 200, 215, 400, 415, 417, 418, and 421. All recipients of Federal financial assistance are required to report information about first-tier subawards and executive compensation (See 2 CFR part 170). You will be required to have the necessary processes and systems in place to comply with the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act reporting requirements (See 2 CFR 170.200(b), unless you are exempt under 2 CFR 170.110(b)). These regulations may be obtained at
The following additional requirements apply to grantees selected for this program:
• Agency approved Grant Agreement.
• Letter of Conditions.
• Form RD 1940-1, “Request for Obligation of Funds.”
• Form RD 1942-46, “Letter of Intent to Meet Conditions.”
• Form AD-1047, “Certification Regarding Debarment, Suspension, and Other Responsibility Matters-Primary Covered Transactions.”
• Form AD-1048, “Certification Regarding Debarment, Suspension, Ineligibility and Voluntary Exclusion-Lower Tier Covered Transactions.”
• Form AD-1049, “Certification Regarding a Drug-Free Workplace Requirement (Grants).”
• Form AD-3031, “Assurance Regarding Felony Conviction or Tax Delinquent Status for Corporate Applicants.” Must be signed by corporate applicants who receive an award under this Notice.
• Form RD 400-4, “Assurance Agreement.”
• SF LLL, “Disclosure of Lobbying Activities,” if applicable.
After grant approval and through grant completion, you will be required to provide the following:
a. A SF-425, “Federal Financial Report,” and a project performance report will be required on a semiannual basis (due 30 working days after end of the semiannual period). For the purposes of this grant, semiannual periods end on March 31st and September 30th. The project performance reports shall include the following: A comparison of actual accomplishments to the objectives established for that period;
b. Reasons why established objectives were not met, if applicable;
c. Reasons for any problems, delays, or adverse conditions, if any, which have affected or will affect attainment of overall project objectives, prevent meeting time schedules or objectives, or preclude the attainment of particular objectives during established time periods. This disclosure shall be accompanied by a statement of the action taken or planned to resolve the situation; and
d. Objectives and timetable established for the next reporting period.
e. Provide a final project and financial status report within 90 days after the expiration or termination of the grant.
f. Provide outcome project performance reports and final deliverables.
For general questions about this announcement and for program Technical Assistance, please contact the appropriate State Office as indicated in the
USDA prohibits discrimination against its customers, employees, and applicants for employment on the bases of race, color, national origin, age, disability, sex, gender identify, religion, reprisal, and where applicable, political beliefs, marital status, familial or parental status, sexual orientation, or all or part of an individual's income is derived from any public assistance program, or protected genetic information in employment or in any program or activity conducted or funded by the Department. (Not all prohibited bases will apply to all programs and/or employment activities.)
If you wish to file a Civil Rights program complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form (PDF), found online at
Individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing or have speech disabilities and who wish to file either an EEO or program complaint, please contact USDA through the Federal Relay
Persons with disabilities, who wish to file a program complaint, please see information above on how to contact us by mail directly or by email. If you require alternative means of communication for program information (
Notice.
The Rural Housing Service (RHS), an agency within Rural Development, announces that it is soliciting competitive applications under its Housing Preservation Grant (HPG) program. This action is taken to comply with Agency regulations found in 7 CFR part 1944, subpart N, which requires the Agency to announce the opening and closing dates for receipt of pre-applications for HPG funds from eligible applicants.
The closing deadline for receipt of all pre-applications in response to this Notice is 5:00 p.m., local time for each Rural Development State Office on July 6, 2015. Rural Development State Office locations can be found at:
For general information, applicants may contact Bonnie Edwards-Jackson, Finance and Loan Analyst, Multi-Family Housing Preservation and Direct Loan Division, USDA Rural Development, Stop 0781, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-0781, telephone (202) 690-0759 (voice) (this is not a toll free number) or (800) 877-8339 (TDD-Federal Information Relay Service) or via email at,
The reporting requirements contained in this Notice have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0575-0115.
The HPG program is a grant program, authorized under 42 U.S.C. 1490m and implemented at 7 CFR part 1944, subpart N, which provides qualified public agencies, private non-profit organizations including, but not limited to, faith-based and neighborhood partnerships, and other eligible entities, grant funds to assist low- and very low-income homeowners in repairing and rehabilitating their homes in rural areas. In addition, the HPG program assists rental property owners and cooperative housing complexes in rural areas in repairing and rehabilitating their units if they agree to make such units available to low- and very low-income persons.
The funding instrument for the HPG program will be a grant agreement. The term of the grant can vary from 1 to 2 years, depending on available funds and demand. No maximum or minimum grant levels have been established at the National level. In accordance with 7 CFR 1944.652, coordination and leveraging of funding for repair and rehabilitation activities with housing and community development organizations or activities operating in the same geographic area are expected, but not required. You should contact the Rural Development State Office to determine the allocation. HPG applicants who were previously selected for HPG funds are eligible to submit new applications to apply for FY 2015 HPG program funds. New HPG applications must be submitted for the renewal or supplementation of existing HPG repair and/or rehabilitation projects that will be completed with FY 2015 HPG funds.
For Fiscal Year 2015, the amount of funding available for the HPG Program can be found at the following link:
The commitment of program dollars will be made to selected applicants that have fulfilled the necessary requirements for obligation.
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All applicants will file an original and two copies of Standard Form (SF) 424, “
(a) A statement of activities proposed by the applicant for its HPG program as appropriate to the type of assistance the applicant is proposing, including:
(1) A complete discussion of the type of and conditions for financial assistance for housing preservation, including whether the request for assistance is for a homeowner assistance program, a rental property assistance program, or a cooperative assistance program;
(2) The process for selecting recipients for HPG assistance, determining housing preservation needs of the dwelling, performing the necessary work, and monitoring/inspecting work performed;
(3) A description of the process for identifying potential environmental impacts in accordance with 7 CFR 1944.672 and the provisions for compliance with Stipulation I, A-G of the Programmatic Memorandum of Agreement, also known as PMOA, (RD Instruction 2000-FF, available in any Rural Development State Office) in accordance with 7 CFR 1944.673(b);
(4) The development standard(s) the applicant will use for the housing preservation work; and, if not the Rural Development standards for existing dwellings, the evidence of its acceptance by the jurisdiction where the grant will be implemented;
(5) The time schedule for completing the program;
(6) The staffing required to complete the program;
(7) The estimated number of very low- and low-income minority and nonminority persons the grantee will assist with HPG funds; and, if a rental property or cooperative assistance program, the number of units and the term of restrictive covenants on their use for very low- and low-income;
(8) The geographical area(s) to be served by the HPG program;
(9) The annual estimated budget for the program period based on the financial needs to accomplish the objectives outlined in the proposal. The budget should include proposed direct and indirect administrative costs, such as personnel, fringe benefits, travel, equipment, supplies, contracts, and other cost categories, detailing those costs for which the grantee proposes to use the HPG grant separately from non-HPG resources, if any. The applicant budget should also include a schedule (with amounts) of how the applicant proposes to draw HPG grant funds,
(10) A copy of an indirect cost proposal when the applicant has another source of Federal funding in addition to the Rural Development HPG program;
(11) A brief description of the accounting system to be used;
(12) The method of evaluation to be used by the applicant to determine the effectiveness of its program which encompasses the requirements for quarterly reports to Rural Development in accordance with 7 CFR 1944.683(b) and the monitoring plan for rental properties and cooperatives (when applicable) according to 7 CFR 1944.689;
(13) The source and estimated amount of other financial resources to be obtained and used by the applicant for both HPG activities and housing development and/or supporting activities;
(14) The use of program income, if any, and the tracking system used for monitoring same;
(15) The applicant's plan for disposition of any security instruments held by them as a result of its HPG activities in the event of its loss of legal status;
(16) Any other information necessary to explain the proposed HPG program; and
(17) The outreach efforts outlined in 7 CFR 1944.671(b).
(b) Complete information about the applicant's experience and capacity to carry out the objectives of the proposed HPG program.
(c) Evidence of the applicant's legal existence, including, in the case of a private non-profit organization, which may include, but not be limited to, faith-based and community organizations, a copy of, or an accurate reference to, the specific provisions of State law under which the applicant is organized; a certified copy of the applicant's Articles of Incorporation and Bylaws or other evidence of corporate existence; certificate of incorporation for other than public bodies; evidence of good standing from the State when the corporation has been in existence 1 year or more; and the names and addresses of the applicant's members, directors and officers. If other organizations are members of the applicant-organization, or the applicant is a consortium, pre-applications should be accompanied by the names, addresses, and principal purpose of the other organizations. If the
(d) For a private non-profit entity, which may include, but not be limited to, faith-based and community organizations, the most recent audited statement and a current financial statement dated and signed by an authorized officer of the entity showing the amounts and specific nature of assets and liabilities together with information on the repayment schedule and status of any debt(s) owed by the applicant.
(e) A brief narrative statement which includes information about the area to be served and the need for improved housing (including both percentage and the actual number of both low-income and low-income minority households and substandard housing), the need for the type of housing preservation assistance being proposed, the anticipated use of HPG resources for historic properties, the method of evaluation to be used by the applicant in determining the effectiveness of its efforts.
(f) A statement containing the component for alleviating any overcrowding as defined by 7 CFR 1944.656.
(g) Applicant must submit an original and one copy of Form RD 1940-20, “
(h) Applicant must also submit a description of its process for:
(1) Identifying and rehabilitating properties listed on or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places;
(2) Identifying properties that are located in a floodplain or wetland;
(3) Identifying properties located within the Coastal Barrier Resources System; and
(4) Coordinating with other public and private organizations and programs that provide assistance in the rehabilitation of historic properties (Stipulation I, D, of the PMOA, RD Instruction 2000-FF, available as an electronic document and in any Rural Development State Office).
(i) The applicant must also submit evidence of the State Historic Preservation Office's, (SHPO), concurrence in the proposal, or in the event of non-concurrence, a copy of SHPO's comments together with evidence that the applicant has received the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's advice as to how the disagreement might be resolved, and a copy of any advice provided by the Council.
(j) The applicant must submit written statements and related correspondence reflecting compliance with 7 CFR 1944.674(a) and (c) regarding consultation with local government leaders in the preparation of its program and the consultation with local and state government pursuant to the provisions of Executive Order 12372.
(k) The applicant is to make its statement of activities available to the public for comment prior to submission to Rural Development pursuant to 7 CFR 1944.674(b). The application must contain a description of how the comments (if any were received) were addressed.
(l) The applicant must submit an original and one copy of Form RD 400-1, “Equal Opportunity Agreement,” and Form RD 400-4, “
Applicants should review 7 CFR part 1944, subpart N for a comprehensive list of all application requirements.
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4. Intergovernmental Review Intergovernmental Review. The HPG program is subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials.
5. Funding Restrictions. There are no limits on proposed direct and indirect costs. Expenses incurred in developing pre-applications will be at the applicant's risk.
6. Other Submission Requirements. To comply with the President's Management Agenda, the Department of Agriculture is participating as a partner in the Government-wide Grants.gov site. Housing Preservation Grants [Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance #10.433] is one of the programs included at this Web site. If you are an applicant under the Housing Preservation Grant program, you may submit your pre-application to the Agency in either electronic or paper format. Please be mindful that the pre-application deadline for electronic format differs from the deadline for paper format. The electronic format deadline will be based on Eastern Standard Time. The paper format deadline is local time for each Rural Development State Office.
Users of Grants.gov will be able to download a copy of the pre- application package, complete it off line, and then upload and submit the application via the Grants.gov site. You may not email an electronic copy of a grant pre-application to USDA Rural Development; however, the Agency encourages your participation in Grants.gov.
The following are useful tips and instructions on how to use the Web site:
• When you enter the Grants.gov site, you will find information about submitting an application electronically through the site as well as the hours of operation. USDA Rural Development strongly recommends that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the application process through Grants.gov. To use Grants.gov, applicants must have a DUNS number.
• You may submit all documents electronically through the Web site, including all information typically included on the Application for Rural Housing Preservation Grants, and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• After you electronically submit your application through the Web site, you will receive an automatic acknowledgement from Grants.gov that contains a Grants.gov tracking number.
• RHS may request that you provide original signatures on forms at a later date.
• If you experience technical difficulties on the closing date and are unable to meet the 5:00 p.m. (Eastern Standard Time) deadline, print out your application and submit it to your State Office, you must meet the closing date and local time deadline.
• Please note that you must locate the downloadable application package for this program by the CFDA Number or FedGrants Funding Opportunity Number, which can be found at
In addition to the electronic pre- application at the
Applicants are encouraged but not required, to also provide an electronic copy of all hard copy forms and documents submitted in the pre-application/application package as requested by this Notice. The forms and documents must be submitted as read-only Adobe Acrobat PDF files on an electronic media such as CDs, DVDs or USB drives. For each electronic device that you submit, you must include a Table of Contents listing all of the documents and forms on that device. The electronic medium must be submitted to the local Rural Development State Office where the project will be located.
If you receive a loan or grant award under this Notice, USDA reserves the right to post all information that is not protected by the Privacy Act submitted as part of the pre-application/application package on a public Web site with free and open access to any member of the public.
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(a) Providing a financially feasible program of housing preservation assistance. “Financially feasible” is defined as proposed assistance which will be affordable to the intended recipient or result in affordable housing for very low- and low-income persons.
(b) Serving eligible rural areas with a concentration of substandard housing for households with very low- and low-income.
(c) Being an eligible applicant as defined in 7 CFR 1944.658.
(d) Meeting the requirements of consultation and public comment in accordance with 7 CFR 1944.674.
(e) Submitting a complete pre-application as outlined in 7 CFR 1944.676.
3. Scoring. For applicants meeting all of the requirements listed above, the Rural Development State Offices will use weighted criteria in accordance with 7 CFR part 1944, subpart N as selection for the grant recipients. Each pre-application and its accompanying statement of activities will be evaluated and, based solely on the information contained in the pre-application, the applicant's proposal will be numerically rated on each criteria within the range provided. The highest-ranking applicant(s) will be selected based on allocation of funds available to the state.
(a) Points are awarded based on the percentage of very low-income persons that the applicant proposes to assist, using the following scale:
(b) The applicant's proposal may be expected to result in the following percentage of HPG fund use (excluding administrative costs) to total cost of unit preservation. This percentage reflects maximum repair or rehabilitation with the least possible HPG funds due to leveraging, innovative financial assistance, owner's contribution or other specified approaches. Points are awarded based on the following percentage of HPG funds (excluding administrative costs) to total funds:
(c) The applicant has demonstrated its administrative capacity in assisting very low- and low-income persons to obtain adequate housing based on the following:
(1) The organization or a member of its staff has at least one or more years experience successfully managing and operating a rehabilitation or weatherization type program: 10 points.
(2) The organization or a member of its staff has at least one or more years experience successfully managing and operating a program assisting very low- and low-income persons obtain housing assistance: 10 points.
(3) If the organization has administered grant programs, there are no outstanding or unresolved audit or investigative findings which might impair carrying out the proposal: 10 points.
(d) The proposed program will be undertaken entirely in rural areas outside Metropolitan Statistical Areas, also known as MSAs, identified by Rural Development as having populations below 10,000 or in remote parts of other rural areas (
(e) The program will use less than 20 percent of HPG funds for administration purposes:
In the event more than one pre-application receives the same amount of points, those pre-applications will then be ranked based on the actual percentage figure used for determining the points. Further, in the event that pre-applications are still tied, then those pre-applications still tied will be ranked based on the percentage for HPG fund use (low to high). Further, for applications where assistance to rental properties or cooperatives is proposed, those still tied will be further ranked based on the number of years the units are available for occupancy under the program (a minimum of 5 years is required). For this part, ranking will be based from most to least number of years.
Finally, if there is still a tie, then a lottery system will be used. After the award selections are made, all applicants will be notified of the status of their applications by mail.
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2. Administrative and National Policy Requirements. Rural Development is encouraging applications for projects that will support rural areas where, according to the American Community Survey data by census tracts, at least 20
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The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) prohibits discrimination against its customers, employees, and applicants for employment on the basis of race, color, national origin, age, disability, sex, gender identity, religion, reprisal and where applicable, political beliefs, marital status, familial or parental status, religion, sexual orientation, or all or part of an individual's income is derived from any public assistance program, or protected genetic information in employment or in any program or activity conducted or funded by the Department. (Not all prohibited bases will apply to all programs and/or employment activities.)
If you wish to file a Civil Rights program complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form (PDF), found online at
Individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing or have speech disabilities and you wish to file either an EEO or program complaint please contact USDA through the Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339 or (800) 845-6136 (in Spanish).
Persons with disabilities, who wish to file a program complaint, please see information above on how to contact us by mail directly or by email. If you require alternative means of communication for program information (
Applicants are encouraged, but not required, to submit this pre-application form electronically by accessing the Web site:
Supporting documentation required by this pre-application may be attached to the email generated when you click the Send Form button to submit the form. However if the attachments are too numerous or large in size, the email box will not be able to accept them. In that case, submit the supporting documentation for this pre-application to the State Office with your complete application package under item IX.
Documents Submitted, indicate the supporting documents that you are submitting either with the pre-application or to the State Office.
The number of low- and very-low income persons that the grantee will assist in the Homeowner assistance program: _ OR
The number of units for low- and very-low income persons in the Rental property or Cooperative assistance program: _
Check the percentage of very low-income persons that this pre- application proposes to assist in relation to the total population of the project:
IV. Percent of HPG Fund Use
Check the percentage of HPG fund use (excluding administrative costs) in comparison to the total cost of unit preservation. This percentage reflects maximum repair or rehabilitation results with the least possible HPG funds due to leveraging, innovative financial assistance, owner's contribution or other specified approaches.
The following three criteria demonstrate your administrative
a. Does this organization or a member of its staff have at least one or more years of experience successfully managing and operating a rehabilitation or weatherization type of program? (10 points) Yes _ No _ Points: _
b. Does this organization or a member of its staff have at least one or more years of experience successfully managing and operating a program assisting very low- or low-income persons obtain housing assistance? (10 points) Yes _ No _ Points: _
c. If this organization has administered grant programs, are there any outstanding or unresolved audit or investigative findings which might impair carrying out the proposal? (10 points for No) No _ Yes _ Points: _
If Yes, please explain:
Will this proposal be undertaken entirely in rural areas outside Metropolitan Statistical Areas, also known as MSAs, and identified by Rural Development as having populations below 10,000 or in remote parts of other rural areas (
Check the percentage of HPG funds that will be used for Administration purposes:
Does the proposed program contain a component for alleviating overcrowding as defined in 7 CFR 1944.656? (5 points) Yes _ No _ Points: _
Check if the following documents are being submitted electronically with this pre-application or will be mailed to the State Office with your complete pre-application package.
NOTE: You are only required to submit supporting documents for programs in which you will be participating as indicated in this pre-application. Points will be assigned for the items that you checked based on a review of the supporting documents.
Please refer to the NOSA for the complete list of documents that you are required to submit with your complete pre-application package.
Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a planning meeting of the New York Advisory Committee to the Commission will convene at 12:00 p.m. (EDT) on Friday, June 12, 2015, at the law offices of Sullivan & Cromwell, 125 Broad Street, New York, NY 10004. The purpose of the planning meeting is for the Advisory Committee to discuss plans to conduct a public meeting on the over-policing of communities of color in New York.
Friday, June 12, 2015, at 12:00 p.m. EDT.
The meeting will be held at the at law offices of Sullivan & Cromwell, 125 Broad Street, New York, NY 10004.
Barbara de la Viez at
Members of the public are invited to make statement during the open comment period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments for the record. The comments must be received in the regional office by Monday, July 13, 2015. Written comments may be mailed to the Eastern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue, Suite 1150, Washington, DC 20425, faxed to (202) 376-7548, or emailed to Evelyn Bohor at
Persons needing accessibility services should contact the Eastern Regional Office at least ten (10) working days before the scheduled meeting date. Please contact Evelyn Bohor at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at
Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a planning meeting of the Wyoming Advisory Committee to the Commission will convene at 10:00 a.m. (MDT) on Thursday, June 11, 2015, via teleconference. The purpose of the planning meeting is for the Advisory Committee to discuss civil rights issues in the state and select issues for further study.
Thursday, June 11, 2015, at 10:00 a.m. (MDT)
To be held via teleconference:
Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-523-1228; Conference ID: 6982953.
TDD: Dial Federal Relay Service 1-800-977-8339 and give the operator the above conference call number and conference ID.
Malee V. Craft, DFO,
Members of the public may listen to the discussion by dialing the following Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-523-1228, Conference ID: 6982953. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement at the end of the meeting. Please be advised that before being placed into the conference call, the operator will ask callers to provide their names, their organizational affiliations (if any), and an email address (if available) prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free phone number.
Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the discussion by first calling the Federal Relay Service (FRS) at 1-800-977-8339 and provide the FRS operator with the Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-523-1228; Conference ID: 6982953.
Members of the public are invited to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office by Monday, July 13, 2015. Written comments may be mailed to the Rocky Mountain Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 1961 Stout Street, Suite 13-201, Denver, CO 80294, faxed to (303) 866-1040, or emailed to Evelyn Bohor at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at
Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce.
Notice and Request for Comment.
The Bureau of the Census (U.S. Census Bureau) requests public comment on the 2010 Census Residence Rule and Residence Situations. The Residence Rule is applied to living situations to determine where people should be counted during the decennial Census. Specific Residence Situations have been included with the Residence Rule to illustrate how the Rule is applied. The Census Bureau is currently reviewing the 2010 Residence Rule and Residence Situations, to determine if changes should be made to the Rule and/or if the situations should be updated for the 2020 Census. The Census Bureau anticipates publishing the final 2020 Census Residence Rule and Residence Situations in late 2017.
To ensure consideration during the decision-making process, comments must be received by July 20, 2015. The Census Bureau anticipates publishing a summary of comments received in response to this
Direct all written comments regarding the 2010 Census Residence Rule and Residence Situations to Karen Humes, Chief, Population Division, U.S. Census Bureau, Room 5H174, Washington, DC 20233; or Email [
Population and Housing Programs Branch, U.S. Census Bureau, 6H185, Washington, DC 20233, telephone (301) 763-2381; or Email [
The Census Bureau is committed to counting every person in the 2020 Census. Just as important, however, is the Census Bureau's commitment to counting every person in the correct place. The fundamental reason that the decennial census is conducted is to fulfill the Constitutional requirement (Article I, Section 2) to apportion the seats in the U.S. House of Representatives among the states. Thus, for a fair and equitable apportionment, it is crucial that people are counted in the right place during the 2020 Census.
The Census Act of 1790 established the concept of “usual residence” as the main principle in determining where people are to be counted. This concept has been followed in all subsequent censuses. Usual residence has been defined as the place where a person lives and sleeps most of the time. This place is not necessarily the same as the person's voting residence or legal residence.
Every decade the Census Bureau undertakes a review of the decennial residence rule guidance to ensure that the concept of usual residence is interpreted and applied in the decennial census as intended, and that these interpretations are in keeping with the intent of law, which directs the Census Bureau to enumerate people at their usual residence. This review also serves as an opportunity to identify new or changing living situations resulting from societal change, and create or revise the residence rule guidance where those situations are concerned.
Determining usual residence is straightforward for most people. However, given our Nation's wide diversity in types of living arrangements, the usual residence for some people is not as apparent. A few examples are people experiencing homelessness, people with a seasonal/second residence, people in prisons, people in the process of moving, people in hospitals, children in shared custody arrangements, college students, live-in employees, military personnel, and people who live in workers' dormitories. For these “residence situations,” the Census Bureau has provided guidance on how to interpret the usual residence concept to determine where to count those people.
The Census Bureau is requesting public comment on the 2010 Residence Rule (section “B”) and on the 2010 Residence Situations (section “B,” numbers 1-21, including all sub-paragraphs under each numbered section) to determine if changes should be made to the Rule and/or if the situations should be updated for the 2020 Census. The 2010 Residence Rule and Residence Situations are described in the next sections of this
The Residence Rule was used to determine where people should be counted during the 2010 Census. The Rule said:
• Count people at their usual residence, which is the place where they live and sleep most of the time.
• People in certain types of facilities or shelters (
• People who do not have a usual residence, or cannot determine a usual residence, should be counted where they are on Census Day.
The following sections describe how the Residence Rule applied for people in various living situations.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
(2) Reports to Stakeholders, (3) Continuous Improvement; and (4) Identification of Distinctive Practices.
Copies of the above information collection proposal can be obtained by calling or writing Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, (202) 482-0336, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to OIRA
On January 14, 2015, Tucson Regional Economic Opportunities, Inc., grantee of FTZ 174, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board on behalf of Global Solar Energy, Inc. (Global Solar), located in Tucson, Arizona. A separate application for subzone designation at the Global Solar facility is planned and will be processed under Section 400.38 of the FTZ Board's regulations.
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
On July 19, 2013, in the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of New York, Joseph DeBose (“DeBose”), was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, DeBose knowingly and willfully exported from the United States to China firearms and firearms barrels, including a Beretta 9mm semi-automatic handgun, which were designated as defense articles on the United States Munitions List, without first obtaining the required license or written approval from the State Department. DeBose was sentenced to 24 months of imprisonment, three years of supervised release, and fined a $100 assessment.
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of DeBose's conviction for violating the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for DeBose to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from DeBose.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny DeBose's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of DeBose's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which DeBose had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly, it is hereby
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, License Exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or in any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On August 25, 2014, in the U.S. District Court for the District of Arizona, Wei Jiun Chu, a/k/a Jim Chu (“Chu”), was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, Chu knowingly and willfully exported from the United States to Taiwan 40 radiation-hardened adjustable positive voltage regulators, which were designated as defense articles from Category XV(e) of the United States Munitions List, without having first obtained from the United States Department of State, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls, a license for such export or written authorization for such export. Chu was sentenced to 36 months of probation, with no confinement time and a $100 assessment.
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Chu's conviction for violating the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Chu to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Chu.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Chu's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Chu's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Chu had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly, it is hereby
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, License Exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or in any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“the Department”) determines that imports of certain steel nails (“nails”) from the Republic of Korea (“Korea”) are being sold in the United States at less than fair value (“LTFV”), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the “Act”). The final weighted-average dumping margins of sales at LTFV are listed below in the section entitled “Final Determination Margins.”
Krisha Hill or Drew Jackson, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4037 or (202) 482-4406, respectively.
On December 29, 2014, the Department published in the
The following events have occurred since the
The period of investigation (“POI”) is April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Malaysia. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.307(b)(1)(i), from January 2015 through February 2015, we verified the sales and cost information submitted by Jinheung Steel and Daejin, as well as sales information submitted by ITW, for use in our final determination. We used standard verification procedures including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by Jinheung Steel, Daejin, and ITW.
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum accompanying this notice, and which is hereby adopted by this notice.
Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding our
For Daejin:
• We used an updated sales database submitted by Daejin which reflects minor corrections and findings from the sales verification.
• We adjusted U.S. price for domestic brokerage and handling charges incurred in U.S. dollars (“DBROK2U”).
• We used Jinheung Steel's business proprietary home market financial information as the data source to calculate Daejin's CV profit and selling expense.
• We corrected the programming error related to the calculation of total cost of manufacturing (“TOTCOM”) for certain control numbers (“CONNUMs”).
For Jinheung Steel:
• We assigned a single manufacturer code to all home-market and U.S. sales based on our determination to treat Jinheung Steel, Duo-Fast Korea Co. Ltd. (“DFK”), and Jinsco International Corporation (“Jinsco”) as a single entity.
• We used updated sales and cost databases submitted by Jinheung Steel and ITW, which reflect minor corrections presented during the verification of these companies.
• We revised certain reported product characteristics to reflect changes found during verification of ITW's response.
• We disallowed Jinheung Steel's duty drawback offset.
• We adjusted Jinheung Steel's reported scrap offset.
• We recalculated Jinheung Steel's general and administrative and financial expenses so that they reflect our adjustment to Jinheung Steel's reported scrap offset.
• We reversed an adjustment to Jinheung Steel's reported costs involving work in process that we made at the
The Department determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014:
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated “All Others” rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero or
We will disclose to parties in this proceeding the calculations performed for this final determination within five days of the date of public announcement of our final determination, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) to continue to suspend liquidation of all of entries of certain steel nails from Korea, except as noted below, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after December 29, 2014, the date of publication of the
Pursuant to CFR 351.210(d), we will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the weighted-average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as follows: (1) The rate for Daejin will be the rate we determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a firm identified in this investigation but the producer is, the rate will be the rate established for the producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the rate for all other producers or exporters will be 11.80 percent. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we notified the U.S. International Trade Commission (“ITC”) of our final determination. As our final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will determine within 45 days whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of the subject merchandise. If the ITC determines that such injury exists, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on appropriate imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice will serve as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination and notice in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: 1) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; 2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; 3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; 4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); 5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; 6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); 7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or 8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that
Dana Mermelstein or Trisha Tran, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1391 and (202) 482-4852, respectively.
Petitioner in this investigation is Mid Continent Steel & Wire, Inc. (Petitioner). This investigation covers 10 subsidy programs. In addition to the Government of the Sultanate of Oman (the GSO), the respondent in this investigation is Oman Fasteners LLC (Oman Fasteners).
The following events have occurred since we published the
We conducted verification of the GSO's and Oman Fasteners' questionnaire responses from January 11, 2015 through January 15, 2015, and issued verification reports on February 9, 2015 and February 13, 2015. Oman Fasteners, the GSO, and Petitioner submitted case briefs on February 26, 2015. Petitioner, Oman Fasteners, the GSO, and Overseas International Steel Industry, LLC (OISI) submitted rebuttal briefs on March 3, 2015.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Sultanate of Oman. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
The subsidy programs under investigation and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum,
The total estimated net countervailable subsidy rate is:
Because the total estimated net countervailable subsidy rate for the
In the
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the USITC of our final determination. Because our final determination is negative, this investigation is terminated.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation that is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of (i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that imports of certain steel nails from Taiwan are being sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act
Victoria Cho or Scott Hoefke, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5075 or (202) 482-4947.
On December 29, 2014, the Department published in the
On the same day, we received timely-filed allegations from Respondents
Between January 26, 2015, and February 6, 2015, the Department conducted verifications in Taiwan of the sales and cost information submitted by Quick Advance, Ko, PT and Proteam. In accordance with 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(i), we invited parties to comment on our
The period of investigation is April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Taiwan. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, in January 2015 through February 2015, we conducted verification of the sales and cost information submitted by PT Enterprises, Inc. (PT) and its affiliated producer Pro-Team Coil Nail Enterprise, Inc. (Proteam), and Quick Advance, Inc. (Quick Advance) and its affiliated producer Ko's Nail, Inc. (Ko) for use in our final determination. We used standard verification procedures including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by PT and its affiliate, Proteam, and Quick Advance and its affiliate, Ko.
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised is attached to this notice as Appendix II. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
Based on our review and analysis of the comments received from parties, and minor corrections presented at verification, we made certain changes to Respondents' margin calculations since the
For Quick Advance:
• We used an updated sales and cost database submitted by Quick Advance which reflects minor corrections and findings from the sales and cost verifications.
• We revised the programing language to reflect the changes to constructed value (CV).
• We revised the calculation of CV.
• We added in lines of code to take into account quantity adjustments.
• We added credit expenses and inventory carrying cost incurred in Taiwan to account for expenses reported in Taiwanese dollars.
• We made changes to Quick Advance's reported cost data as set forth in the Quick Advance's Final Cost Memo.
For PT:
• We used updated sale database by PT which reflect minor corrections presented during the verification of these companies.
• We revised the programing language to reflect the changes to CV.
• We revised the calculation of CV.
• We added in lines of code to take into account quantity adjustments.
• We made changes to PT's reported cost data as set forth in the PT's Final Cost Memo.
The Department determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014:
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated “all others” rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero or
We will disclose to parties in this proceeding the calculations performed for this final determination within five days of the date of public announcement of our final determination, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Pursuant to sections 735(c)(1)(B) and (C) of the Act, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of all entries of certain steel nails from Taiwan, except for those from Quick Advance, which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final determination. For Quick Advance and Ko, because their estimated weighted-average final dumping margins are zero, we are not directing CBP to suspend liquidation of entries of nails produced and exported by these companies. We will not instruct CBP to suspend liquidation of any entries of certain steel nails from as described in the “Scope of the Investigation” in Appendix I which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice. We will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the weighted-average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as follows: (1) The rate for PT will be the rate we determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a firm identified in this investigation but the producer is, the rate will be the rate established for the producer of the subject merchandise; (3) the rate for all other producers or exporters will be 2.24 percent. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of our final determination. As our final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(3) of the Act, the ITC will determine within 75 days whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of the subject merchandise. If the ITC determines that such injury exists, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice will serve as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination and notice in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Department) has determined that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of certain steel nails (nails) from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (Vietnam). For information on the estimated countervailing duty rates,
Sergio Balbontin, Thomas Schauer, or Shane Subler, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6478, (202) 482-0410, and (202) 482-0189, respectively.
The petitioner in this investigation is Mid Continent Steel & Wire, Inc. The period for which we are measuring subsidies, or period of investigation, is January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013.
The events that have occurred since the Department published the
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Vietnam. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since
The subsidy programs under investigation and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties to this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. Attached as Appendix II is a list of the issues that parties have raised and to which we have responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
For purposes of this final determination, we have relied on facts available and applied adverse inferences, in accordance with sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, to determine the subsidy rates for the mandatory respondents. For a full discussion of these issues,
In accordance with section 705(c)(1)(B)(i) of the Act, we calculated a countervailing duty rate for the two individually investigated producers/exporters of the subject merchandise, Region Industries Co., Ltd. (Region) and United Nail Products Co. (United). With respect to the all-others rate, section 705(c)(5)(A)(ii) of the Act provides that if the countervailable subsidy rates established for all exporters and producers individually investigated are determined entirely in accordance with section 776 of the Act, the Department may use any reasonable method to establish an all-others rate for exporters and producers not individually investigated. In this case, the rates calculated for the investigated companies are based entirely on adverse facts available under section 776 of the Act. Because there is no other information on the record, we based the all-others rate on the AFA rates calculated for Region and United, consistent with our practice.
We determine the total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates to be:
As a result of our affirmative
In accordance with section 703(d) of the Act, we later issued instructions to CBP to discontinue the suspension of liquidation for countervailing duty purposes for subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, on or after March 3, 2015, but to continue the suspension of liquidation of all entries from November 3, 2014, through March 2, 2015.
We will issue a countervailing duty order and reinstate the suspension of liquidation under section 706(a) of the Act if the United States International Trade Commission (ITC) issues a final affirmative injury determination, and we will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit of estimated countervailing duties for such entries of merchandise in the amounts indicated above. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all estimated duties deposited or securities posted as a result of the suspension of liquidation will be refunded or canceled.
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information related to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (APO), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
In the event that the ITC issues a final negative injury determination, this notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an
This determination is published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that no countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of certain steel nails (nails) from Taiwan. The period of investigation is January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013.
Joshua Morris or Dana Mermelstein, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1779 and (202) 482-1391, respectively.
The petitioner in this investigation is Mid Continent Steel & Wire, Inc. (the petitioner). This investigation covers 10 subsidy programs. In addition to the Taiwan Authorities (the TA), the respondents in this investigation are PT Enterprise, Inc. (PT Enterprise) and Quick Advance, Inc. (Quick Advance).
The following events have occurred since we published the
We conducted verification of the TA's, PT Enterprise's, and Quick Advance's questionnaire responses from November 6 through November 13, 2014, and issued verification reports on December 4, 2014. PT Enterprise submitted a case brief on December 12, 2014. Petitioner submitted a rebuttal brief on December 17, 2014. No other parties submitted case or rebuttal briefs.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Taiwan. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
The subsidy programs under investigation and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of subsidy programs and the issues that parties raised, and to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, is attached to this notice as Appendix II. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically
The total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates are:
Because the total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates are zero, we determine that countervailable subsidies are not being provided to producers or exporters of nails in Taiwan. We have not calculated an all-others rate pursuant to sections 705(c)(1)(B) and (c)(5) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act) because we have not reached an affirmative final determination. Because our final determination is negative, this proceeding is terminated in accordance with section 705(c)(2) of the Act.
In the
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the USITC of our final determination. Because our final determination is negative, this investigation is terminated.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation that is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of i)
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
List of Comments and Issues in the Issues and Decision Memorandum
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that
Dana Mermelstein or Erin Kearney, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1391 and (202) 482-0167, respectively.
The petitioner in this investigation is Mid Continent Steel & Wire, Inc. (Petitioner). This investigation covers 26 subsidy programs. In addition to the Government of Korea (the GOK), the respondents in this investigation are Daejin Steel Company (Daejin) and Jinheung Steel Corporation, including cross-owned affiliates Duo-Fast Korea Co., Ltd. and Jinsco International Corporation (collectively, Jinheung).
The following events have occurred since we published the
We conducted verification of the questionnaire responses of the GOK, Daejin, and Jinheung between December 8 and December 17, 2014, and issued verification reports between February 4 and February 10, 2015.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Korea. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since
The subsidy programs under investigation are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
The total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates
Because the total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates for the examined companies are
In the
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the USITC of our final determination. Because our final determination is negative, this investigation is terminated.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation that is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of (i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and (ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that
Yasmin Nair or Ilissa Shefferman, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3813 and (202) 482-4684, respectively.
The petitioner in this investigation is Mid Continent Steel & Wire, Inc. (Petitioner). The Department has determined two subsidy programs to be countervailable in this investigation. In addition to the Government of Malaysia (the GOM), the respondents to this investigation are Inmax Sdn. Bhd. and Inmax Industries Sdn. Bhd (collectively, Inmax) and Region System Sdn. Bhd (Region).
The following events have occurred since we published the
We conducted verification of the GOM's, Inmax's, and Region System's questionnaire responses from January 22 through January 28, 2015, and issued verification reports on March 3, 2015. Petitioner submitted a case brief on March 18, 2015. Inmax and Region System submitted a rebuttal brief on March 23, 2015.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Malaysia. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
The subsidy programs under investigation and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are discussed in the Memorandum to Christian Marsh, Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Determination in the Countervailing Duty Investigation of Certain Steel Nails from Malaysia” (Issues and Decision Memorandum),
The total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates are:
Because the total estimated net countervailable subsidy rates for the examined companies are
In the
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the USITC of our final determination. Because our final determination is negative, this investigation is terminated.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation that is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that imports of certain steel nails from Malaysia are being sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The final weighted-average dumping margins of sales at LTFV are listed below in the section entitled “Final Determination Margins.”
Edythe Artman or Steve Bezirganian, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3931 or (202) 482-1131, respectively.
On December 29, 2014, the Department published in the
The following events occurred since December 17, 2014, the day on which the
Between January 26, 2015, and February 13, 2015, the Department conducted sales and cost verifications of both respondents.
The period of investigation is April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Malaysia. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, in January 2015 through February 2015, we conducted verifications of the sales and cost information submitted by Inmax and Region for use in our final determination. We used standard verification procedures including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by Inmax and its affiliate, Inmax Industries Sdn. Bhd., and by Region.
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised is attached to this notice as Appendix II. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically
Following analysis of the comments submitted by interested parties, we have assigned a margin to Inmax based on adverse facts available (AFA). For Region, we have made the following changes: Revised energy and labor costs; revised common variable overhead; modified the transactions regarded adjustment related to heat treatment service costs; revised U.S. packing expenses for certain packing materials; corrected a billing adjustment for one home market sale; corrected the inland freight expense for several home market sales; corrected product coding for several home market and U.S. sales; and corrected the shipment date and associated imputed credit expense calculations for several U.S. sales. For more details,
In the
The Department determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014:
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated “All Others” rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero or
We will disclose to parties in this proceeding the calculations performed for this final determination within five days of the date of public announcement of our final determination, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Pursuant to sections 735(c)(1)(B) and (C) of the Act, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of all entries of certain steel nails from Malaysia which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final determination. We will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the weighted-average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as follows: (1) The rates for Inmax, Region, and Tag will be the rates we determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a firm identified in this investigation but the producer is, the rate will be the
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of our final determination. As our final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(3) of the Act, the ITC will determine within 45 days whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of the subject merchandise. If the ITC determines that such injury exists, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice will serve as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination and notice in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.55.02, 7317.00.55.03, 7317.00.55.05, 7317.00.55.07, 7317.00.55.08, 7317.00.55.11, 7317.00.55.18, 7317.00.55.19, 7317.00.55.20, 7317.00.55.30, 7317.00.55.40, 7317.00.55.50, 7317.00.55.60, 7317.00.55.70, 7317.00.55.80, 7317.00.55.90, 7317.00.65.30, 7317.00.65.60 and 7317.00.75.00. Certain steel nails subject to this investigation also may be classified under HTSUS subheading 8206.00.00.00 or other HTSUS subheadings.
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Comment 1: Application of Adverse Facts Available for Inmax
Comment 2: Region System Energy and Labor Costs
Comment 3: Region System Common Variable Overhead
Comment 4: Region System Heat Treatment Service Costs
Comment 5: Region System Financial Expense Rate
Comment 6: Whether to Revise Region System G&A Expenses to include Region Products Marketing G&A Expenses
Comment 7: Region System G&A and Interest Expense Calculations
Comment 8: U.S. Warranty Expenses
Comment 9: Packing Expenses
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“the Department”) determines that imports of certain steel nails (“nails”) from the Sultanate of Oman (“Oman”) are being sold in the United States at less than fair value (“LTFV”), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the “Act”). The final weighted-average dumping margins of sales at LTFV are listed below in the section entitled “Final Determination Margins.”
Lilit Astvatsatrian, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6412.
On December 29, 2014, the Department published in the
The following events have occurred since the
The period of investigation (“POI”) is April 1, 2013 through March 31, 2014.
The product covered by this investigation is certain steel nails from Oman. For a full description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, in January 2015, we verified the sales and cost information submitted by Oman Fasteners for use in our final determination. We used standard verification procedures including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by Oman Fasteners.
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum accompanying this notice, and which is hereby adopted by this notice. A list of the issues raised and to which the Department responded is attached to this notice as Appendix II. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
• We updated Oman Fasteners' reported sales quantity as a result of minor corrections and findings at the verification.
• We corrected the misspelled name of a variable in the U.S. sales database which was used in the calculation of the freight revenue cap.
• We excluded a sale with a sale date prior to the beginning of the POI.
• We updated the shipment dates and the U.S. credit expense for certain sales as a result of findings at the verification.
• We adjusted the reported total cost of manufacturing of each control number to reflect the revised per-unit scrap offset identified at the cost verification.
The Department determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period April 1, 2013, through March 31, 2014:
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated “all others” rate shall be an amount equal to the
We will disclose to parties in this proceeding the calculations performed for this final determination within five days of the date of public announcement of our final determination, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) to continue to suspend liquidation of all entries of certain steel nails from Oman which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after December 29, 2014, the date of publication of the
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (“ITC”) of our final determination. As our final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will determine within 45 days whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of the subject merchandise. If the ITC determines that such injury exists, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice will serve as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination and notice in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is certain steel nails having a nominal shaft length not exceeding 12 inches.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are certain steel nails packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is less than 25. If packaged in combination with one or more non-subject articles, certain steel nails remain subject merchandise if the total number of nails of all types, in aggregate regardless of size, is equal to or greater than 25, unless otherwise excluded based on the other exclusions below.
Also excluded from the scope are certain steel nails with a nominal shaft length of one inch or less that are (a) a component of an unassembled article, (b) the total number of nails is sixty (60) or less, and (c) the imported unassembled article falls into one of the following eight groupings: (1) Builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as windows, French-windows and their frames; (2) builders' joinery and carpentry of wood that are classifiable as doors and their frames and thresholds; (3) swivel seats with variable height adjustment; (4) seats that are convertible into beds (with the exception of those classifiable as garden seats or camping equipment); (5) seats of cane, osier, bamboo or similar materials; (6) other seats with wooden frames (with the exception of seats of a kind used for aircraft or motor vehicles); (7) furniture (other than seats) of wood (with the exception of (i) medical, surgical, dental or veterinary furniture; and ii) barbers' chairs and similar chairs, having rotating as well as both reclining and elevating movements); or (8) furniture (other than seats) of materials other than wood, metal, or plastics (
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are steel nails that meet the specifications of Type I, Style 20 nails as identified in Tables 29 through 33 of ASTM Standard F1667 (2013 revision).
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, whether or not threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheadings 7317.00.20.00 and 7317.00.30.00.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are nails having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 on the Rockwell Hardness C scale (HRC), a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made up of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side.
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS subheading 7317.00.10.00.
Certain steel nails subject to this investigation are currently classified under
While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before July 20, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Kristen Gilbert, Office of Human Resources Management, NIST, 100 Bureau Dr., Mail Stop 1720, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-1080; 301-975-3001;
The Student Information System (SIS) is designed to collect on-line applications from students for NIST programs such as the Student Volunteer Program (SVP) and Summer High School Intern Program (SHIP). The purpose of the application is to obtain information needed to evaluate applicant qualifications for potential positions.
The Student Information System is an online application which collects basic biographical information about the student. The application contains four sections. The first section collects personal information to include name, address, phone, email, program selection, work availability, and location preferences. The second section collects work and volunteer experience including start and end date, hours worked, name and address of employer, supervisor's contact information, job description, and job-related skills. The third section collects any special training, knowledge, skill, ability, and/or publications that demonstrate the applicant's skill sets to perform a position. The fourth section collects education information to include current enrollment, name and address of the educational institution, grade point average, and expected date of program completion.
The information is collected via NIST's on-line Student Information System.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before July 20, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Christopher Liese, Industry Economist, SEFSC, NMFS, 75 Virginia Beach Drive, Miami FL 33149, (305) 365-4109 or
This request is for revision and extension of a currently approved information collection.
NOAA Fisheries, Southeast Fisheries Science Center, annually collects
The information will be collected on paper using a mail survey.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before July 20, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Walter Ikehara, (808) 725-5175 or
This request is for extension of a current information collection.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) requires any United States (U.S.) citizen issued a Special Coral Reef Ecosystem Fishing Permit to complete logbooks and submit them to NMFS (50 CFR 665). The Special Coral Reef Ecosystem Fishing Permit is authorized under the Fishery Ecosystem Plans for American Samoa Archipelago, Hawaiian Archipelago, Mariana Archipelago, and Pacific Remote Island Areas. The information in the logbooks is used to obtain fish catch/fishing effort data on coral reef fishes and invertebrates harvested in designated low-use marine protected areas and on those listed in the regulations as potentially-harvested coral reef taxa in waters of the U.S. exclusive economic zone in the western Pacific region. These data are needed to determine the condition of the stocks, whether the current management measures are having the intended effects, and to evaluate the benefits and costs of changes in management measures. The logbook information includes interactions with protected species, including sea turtles, monk seals, and other marine mammals, which are used to monitor and respond to incidental takes of endangered and threatened marine species.
Reports are submitted to NMFS in the form of paper logbook sheets and paper transshipment forms within 30 days of each landing of coral reef harvest. No electronic forms or web-based reporting is currently available. Notifications are submitted via telephone.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before July 20, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Patsy Bearden, (907) 586-7008 or
The North Pacific Groundfish and Halibut Observer Program (Observer Program) plays a critical role in the conservation and management of Bering Sea, Aleutian Islands, and Gulf of Alaska groundfish and halibut fisheries. Five observer contracting companies provide observer services (see
All sectors of the groundfish fishery, including vessels less than 60 feet length overall and the commercial halibut sector, are now included in the Observer Program. The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) has the flexibility to decide when and where to deploy observers based on a scientifically defensible deployment plan reviewed annually by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council. The Observer Program places all vessels and processors in the groundfish and halibut fisheries off Alaska into one of two observer coverage categories: A full coverage category and a partial coverage category.
This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection.
Electronically submitted landing information submitted by managers of shoreside processors and stationary floating processors (SFPs) is used to assess the observer fee liability for each landing. Managers of shoreside processors and SFPs access reports generated by NMFS' Web-based application for a receipt of the observer fee liability associated with each landing. NMFS makes electronic monitoring available as an alternative tool for fulfilling observer coverage requirements. The electronic monitoring option does not change the funding mechanism or fee amount, but does provide an alternative to carrying a human observer.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of application for permit; request for comments.
NMFS publishes for public review and comment information regarding a permit application for transshipment of Atlantic herring by Canadian vessels, submitted under
Written comments must be received by June 3, 2015.
Written comments on this action, identified by RIN 0648- XD946, should be sent to Melissa Garcia in the NMFS Office for International Affairs and Seafood Inspection at 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 (phone: (301) 427-8385, fax: (301) 713-2313, email:
Melissa Garcia at (301) 427-8385 or by email at
Section 204(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act (16 U.S.C. 1824(d)) authorizes the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) to issue a transshipment permit authorizing a vessel other than a vessel of the United States to engage in fishing consisting solely of transporting fish or fish products at sea from a point within the United States Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) or, with the concurrence of a state, within the boundaries of that state, to a point outside the United States. In addition, Public Law 104-297, section 105(e), directs the Secretary to issue section 204(d) permits for up to 14 Canadian transport vessels to receive Atlantic herring harvested by United States fishermen and to be used in sardine processing. Transshipment must occur from within the boundaries of the State of Maine or within the portion of the EEZ east of the line 69 degrees 30 minutes west and within 12 nautical miles from Maine's seaward boundary.
Section 204(d)(3)(D) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act provides that an application may not be approved until the Secretary determines that “no owner or operator of a vessel of the United States which has adequate capacity to perform the transportation for which the application is submitted has indicated . . . an interest in performing the transportation at fair and reasonable rates.” NMFS is publishing this notice as part of its effort to make such a determination with respect to the application described below.
NMFS received an application requesting authorization for four Canadian transport vessels to receive transfers of herring from United States purse seine vessels, stop seines, and weirs for the purpose of transporting the herring to Canada for processing. The transshipment operations will occur within the boundaries of the State of Maine or within the portion of the EEZ east of the line 69°30′ W. longitude and within 12 nautical miles from Maine's seaward boundary.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meetings and hearings.
The Western Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a meeting of its Guam and Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI) Mariana Archipelago Fishery Ecosystem Plan (FEP) Advisory Panels (AP) to discuss and make recommendations on fishery management issues in the Western Pacific Region.
The Guam Mariana Archipelago FEP AP will meet on Friday, June 5, 2015, between 6 p.m. and 7:30 p.m. and the CNMI Mariana Archipelago FEP AP will meet on Friday, June 5, 2015, between 5 p.m. and 7 p.m. All times listed are local island times.
For specific times and agendas, see
The Guam Mariana Archipelago FEP AP will meet at the Guam Fishermen's Cooperative Association Lanai in Hagatna, Guam, and the CNMI Mariana Archipelago FEP AP will meet at the Division of Fish and Wildlife Conference Room in Tanapag, Saipan, CNMI.
Kitty M. Simonds, Executive Director; telephone (808) 522-8220.
Public comment periods will be provided in the agenda. The order in which agenda items are addressed may change. The meetings will run as late as necessary to complete scheduled business.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Kitty M. Simonds, (808) 522-8220 (voice) or (808) 522-8226 (fax), at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Groundfish Management Team (GMT) will hold a conference call that is open to the public. To attend the GMT teleconference, participants need to dial the following toll-free number 1-888-283-0166 Participant Code: 4432591.
The GMT meeting will be held Thursday, June 4, 2015 from 1 p.m. until business for the day is completed.
The meeting will be held via conference call with a listening station provided at the Pacific Council Office, 7700 NE Ambassador Place, Suite 101, Portland, OR 97220-1384; telephone: (503) 820-2280.
Ms. Kelly Ames, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2426.
The primary purpose of the GMT working meeting is to prepare for the June 2015 Council meeting. Specific agenda topics include a review of the latest West Coast Groundfish Observer Program data; inseason adjustments to groundfish fisheries; salmon Endangered Species Act reconsultation update; and the process for adopting harvest specifications and management measures for the 2017-2018 fisheries. The GMT may also address other assignments relating to groundfish management. No management actions will be decided by the GMT. Public comment will be accommodated if time allows, at the discretion of the GMT Chair. The GMT's task will be to develop recommendations for consideration by the Pacific Council at its June 10-16, 2015 meeting in Spokane, WA.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt at (503) 820-2425 at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice of open subcommittee meeting.
The Department of the Army is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal advisory committee meeting of the Honor Subcommittee of the Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery (ACANC). The meeting is open to the public. For more information about the Committee and the Honor Subcommittee, please visit
The Honor Subcommittee will meet from 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on Tuesday, June 23, 2015.
Women in Military Service for America Memorial, Conference Room, Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington, VA 22211.
Ms. Brenda K. Curfman; Alternate Designated Federal Officer for the committee and the Honor Subcommittee, in writing at Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington, VA 22211, or by email at
This subcommittee meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Sunshine in the Government Act of 1976 (U.S.C. 552b, as amended) and 41 Code of the Federal Regulations (CFR 102-3.150).
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice of open subcommittee meeting.
The Department of the Army is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal advisory committee meeting of the Explore Subcommittee of the Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery (ACANC). The meeting is open to the public. For more information about the Committee and the Explore Subcommittee, please visit
The Explore Subcommittee will meet from 10:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m. on Tuesday, June 23, 2015.
Women in Military Service for America Memorial, Conference Room, Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington, VA 22211.
Ms. Brenda K. Curfman; Alternate Designated Federal Officer for the committee and the Explore Subcommittee, in writing at Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington, VA 22211, or by email at
This subcommittee meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Sunshine in the Government Act of 1976 (U.S.C. 552b, as amended) and 41 Code of the Federal Regulations (CFR 102-3.150).
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice of open subcommittee meeting.
The Department of the Army is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal advisory committee meeting of the Remember Subcommittee of the Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery (ACANC). The meeting is open to the public. For more information about the Committee and the Remember Subcommittee, please visit
The Remember Subcommittee will meet from 09:00 a.m. to 10:00 a.m. on Tuesday, June 23, 2015.
Women in Military Service for America Memorial, Conference Room, Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington, VA 22211.
Ms. Brenda K. Curfman; Alternate Designated Federal Officer for the committee and the Remembrance Subcommittee, in writing at Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington VA 22211, or by email at
This subcommittee meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Sunshine in the Government Act of 1976 (U.S.C. 552b, as amended) and 41 Code of the Federal Regulations (CFR 102-3.150).
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are assigned to the United States (U.S.) Government as represented by the Secretary of the Army and are available for licensing by the Department of the Army (DoA):
• U.S. Patent Number 7,812,366 entitled “Ultraviolet Light Emitting AlGaN Composition, and Ultraviolet Light Emitting Device Containing Same”, Inventors Sampath
• U.S. Patent Number 8,564,014 entitled “Ultraviolet Light Emitting AlGaN Composition and Ultraviolet Light Emitting Device Containing Same”, Inventors Sampath
• U.S. Patent 7,498,182 entitled “Method of Manufacturing an AlGaN Composition and Ultraviolet Light Emitting Device Containing Same”, Inventors Sampath
Request for supplemental information should be made prior to July 1, 2015.
Request for supplemental information, including licensing application packages and procedures should be directed to Austin Leach, Ph.D., 406-994-7707,
U.S. Army Research Laboratory Technology Transfer Office, RDRL-DPP/Thomas Mulkern, Building 321, Room 110, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21005-5425. Phone: (410) 278-0889. Email:
The U.S. Army intends to move expeditiously to
The DoA intends to ensure that its licensed inventions are broadly commercialized throughout the United States.
Defense Logistics Agency, DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by July 20, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Defense Logistics Agency Headquarters, ATTN: Mr. Robert Bednarcik, J33, 8725 John J. Kingman Rd., Ft. Belvoir, VA 22060-6221; or call (703) 767-1178.
Respondents are individuals/businesses/contractors who receive defense property identified as U.S. Munitions List Items and Commerce Control List Items through: purchase, exchange/trade sale, authorized transfer or donation. They are checked to determine if they are responsible, not debarred bidders, Specially Designated Nationals or Blocked Persons, or have not violated U.S. export laws.
The form is available on the DOD DEMIL/Trade Security Controls Web page, DLA Disposition Services usable property sales Web page, General Services Administration (GSA) auction Web page, and Defense Contract Management Agency offices, FormFlow and ProForm.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Ms. B. English, DSCA/DBO/CFM, (703) 601-3740.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittals 15-31 with attached transmittal, policy justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Norway has requested a possible sale of up to 200 AIM-9X Block II Sidewinder Tactical Missiles, 2 AIM-9X Special Air Training Missiles (NATMs), 40 CATM-9X Block II Captive Air Training Missiles (CATMs), 10 AIM-9X Block II Tactical Guidance Units, and 20 AIM-9X Block II CATM Guidance Units, containers, support and test equipment, spare and repair parts, personnel training and training equipment, publications and technical documentation, U.S. Government and contractor logistics and technical support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $345 million.
This proposed sale will contribute to the foreign policy and national security of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally which has been, and continues to be, and important force for political stability throughout the world.
Norway requires these capabilities for mutual defense, regional security, force modernization, and U.S. and NATO interoperability. This sale will enhance the Royal Norwegian Air Force's ability to defend Norway against future threats and contribute to current and future NATO operations. Although this is a new capability, Norway will have no difficulty absorbing these missiles into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be Raytheon Missile Systems Company in Tucson, Arizona. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale may require the assignment of additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Government of Norway.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. The AIM-9X (Block II) Sidewinder Missile represents a substantial increase in missile acquisition and kinematics performance over the AIM-9M and replaces the AIM-9X (Block I) Missile configuration. The missile includes a high off-boresight seeker, enhanced countermeasure rejection capability, low drag/high angle of attack airframe, and the ability to integrate the Helmet Mounted Cueing System. The software algorithms are the most sensitive portion of the AIM-9X missile. A Software Improvement Program (SIP) provides for Software updates. No software source code or algorithms will be released. The missile is classified as Confidential.
2. The AIM-9X (Block II) will result in the transfer of sensitive technology and information. The equipment, hardware, and documentation are classified Confidential. The software and operational performance are classified Secret. The seeker/guidance control section and the target detector are Confidential and contain sensitive state-of-the-art technology. Manuals and technical documentation that are necessary or support operational use and organizational management are classified up to Secret. Performance and operating logic of the counter-countermeasures circuits are classified Secret. The hardware, software, and data identified are classified to protect vulnerabilities, design and performance parameters, and similar critical information.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that the recipient country can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to Norway.
National Intelligence University, Defense Intelligence Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice of closed meeting.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the National Intelligence University Board of Visitors has been scheduled. The meeting is closed to the public.
Tuesday, June 16, 2015 (7:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.) and Wednesday, June 17, 2015 (7:30 a.m. to 1:30 p.m.).
Intelligence Community Campus—Bethesda, 4600 Sangamore Road, Bethesda, MD 20816.
Dr. David R. Ellison, President, DIA National Intelligence University, Washington, DC 20340-5100, Phone: (202) 231-3344.
The entire meeting is devoted to the discussion of classified information as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(1) and therefore will be closed. Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.105(j) and 102-3.140, and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, the public or interested organizations may submit written statements to the National Intelligence University Board of Visitors about its mission and functions. Written statements may be submitted at any time or in response to the stated agenda of a planned meeting of the National Intelligence University Board of
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, Department of Defense.
Meeting notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal Advisory Committee Meeting of the Defense Advisory Committee on Military Personnel Testing. This meeting will be open to the public.
Thursday, June 25, 2015, from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. and Friday, June 26, 2015, from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
The Magnolia Hotel, 818 17th Street, Denver, Colorado 80202.
Dr. Jane M. Arabian, Assistant Director, Accession Policy, Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, Room 3D1066, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-4000, telephone (703) 697-9271.
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
Public's Accessibility to the Meeting: Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102-3.165, and the availability of space, this meeting is open to the public. Committee's Designated Federal Officer or Point of Contact: Dr. Jane M. Arabian, Assistant Director, Accession Policy, Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, Room 3D1066, The Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-4000, telephone (703) 697-9271.
Persons desiring to make oral presentations or submit written statements for consideration at the Committee meeting must contact Dr. Jane M. Arabian at the address or telephone number in the
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Ms. B. English, DSCA/DBO/CFM, (703) 601-3740.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittals 15-34 with attached transmittal, policy justification, and Sensitivity of Technology.
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FMS case SAF-$2.2B-02May07
FMS case GQY-$358M-6May11
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* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Japan has requested a possible sale of forty eight (48) UGM-84L Harpoon Block II Missiles, containers, spare and repair parts, support equipment, publications and technical documentation, personnel training and training equipment, U.S. Government and contractor logistics and technical support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $199 million.
This proposed sale will contribute to the foreign policy and national security of the United States. Japan is one of the major political and economic powers in East Asia and the Western Pacific and a key partner of the United States in ensuring peace and stability in that region. It is vital to the U.S. national interest to assist Japan in developing and maintaining a strong and ready self-defense capability. This proposed sale is consistent with U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives and the 1960 Treaty of Mutual Cooperation and Security.
Japan intends to use the Harpoon Block II missiles to supplement its existing Harpoon missile capability. This sale will strengthen the capabilities of the Japan Maritime Self Defense Force and enhance its interoperability with U.S. Naval forces. Japan, which has Harpoon missiles in its inventory, will have no difficulty absorbing these additional missiles into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this weapon system will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be The Boeing Company in St. Louis, Missouri. There are no known offset agreements in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require any additional U.S. Government or contractor personnel in Japan. However, U.S. Government or contractor personnel in-country visits will be required on a temporary basis in conjunction with program technical and management oversight and support requirements.
There will be no adverse impact on United States defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. The UGM-84L Harpoon Block II missile is a submarine launched Anti-Surface Warfare (ASuW) missile that provides Naval forces with a capability to engage targets in both the “blue water” regions and the littorals of the world. The Harpoon Block II missile, including publications, documentation, operations, supply, maintenance, and training to be conveyed with this proposed sale have the highest classification level of Confidential.
2. The Harpoon Block II missile incorporates components, software, and technical design information that are considered sensitive. The following Harpoon Block II missile components being conveyed by the proposed sale that are considered sensitive and are classified Confidential include:
3. If a technologically advanced adversary obtained knowledge of the specific hardware or software in the proposed sale, the information could be used to develop countermeasures which might reduce weapons system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that the recipient country can provide the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Japan.
Department of the Army, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of open Federal advisory committee meeting.
The Department of the Army is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal advisory committee meeting of the Chief of Engineers, Environmental Advisory Board (EAB). This meeting is open to the public. For additional information about the EAB, please visit the committee's Web site at
The meeting will be held from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on June 23, 2015. Public registration will begin at 8:30 a.m.
The EAB meeting will be conducted at the Embassy Suites Alexandria Old Town; 1900 Diagonal Road; Alexandria, VA 22314 at 703-684-5900.
Ms. Mindy M. Simmons, the Designated Federal Officer (DFO) for the committee, in writing at U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, ATTN: CECW-P, 441 G St. NW.; Washington, DC 20314; by telephone at 202-761-4127; and by email at
The committee meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
DoD Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
The invention listed below is assigned to the United States Government as represented by the Secretary of the Navy. The Department of the Navy hereby gives notice of its intent to grant to Equalizer Sight, Inc., a revocable, nonassignable, partially exclusive license to practice in the United States, the Government-owned invention described below: U.S. Patent 7,765,731 (Navy Case 97099): issued August 3, 2010, entitled “QUICK RELEASE GUN SIGHT ADAPTER.”
Anyone wishing to object to the grant of this license has fifteen days from the date of this notice to file written objections along with supporting evidence, if any.
Written objections are to be filed with Naval Surface Warfare Center, Crane Div, Code OOL, Bldg 2, 300 Highway 361, Crane, IN 47522-5001.
Mr. Christopher Monsey, Naval Surface Warfare Center, Crane Div, Code OOL, Bldg 2, 300 Highway 361, Crane, IN 47522-5001, telephone 812-854-4100.
35 U.S. C. 207, 37 CFR part 404.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are assigned to the United States Government as represented by the Secretary of the Navy. The Department of the Navy hereby gives notice of its intent to grant to 5D Analytics, LLC, a revocable, nonassignable, partially exclusive license to practice in the United States, the Government-owned inventions described below:
U.S. Patent 8,156,050 (Navy Case 99452): issued April 10, 2012, entitled “Project Management System and Method”//and U.S. Patent Application No. 12/623,374 (Navy Case 100130): published December 2, 2010, entitled “Project Management System and Method.”
Anyone wishing to object to the grant of this license has fifteen days from the date of this notice to file written objections along with supporting evidence, if any.
Written objections are to be filed with Naval Surface Warfare Center, Crane Div, Code OOL, Bldg 2, 300 Highway 361, Crane, IN 47522-5001.
Mr. Christopher Monsey, Naval Surface Warfare Center, Crane Div, Code OOL, Bldg 2, 300 Highway 361, Crane, IN 47522-5001, telephone 812-854-4100.
35 U.S.C. 207, 37 CFR part 404.
Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board.
Notice of Closed Meeting.
Pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act 5 U.S.C. 552b, and the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board's (Board) regulations implementing the Government in the Sunshine Act, notice is hereby given of the Board's closed meeting described below.
3:00 p.m.-4:00 p.m., June 3, 2015.
Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue NW., Room 352, Washington, DC 20004.
Closed. During the closed meeting, the Board Members will discuss issues dealing with potential Recommendations to the Secretary of Energy. The Board is invoking the exemption to close a meeting described in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3) and 10 CFR 1704.4(c). The Board has determined that it is necessary to close the meeting since conducting an open meeting is likely to disclose matters that are specifically exempted from disclosure by statute. In this case, the deliberations will pertain to Board Recommendations which, under 42 U.S.C. 2286d(b) and (h)(3), may not be made publicly available until after they have been received by the Secretary of Energy or the President, respectively.
The meeting will proceed in accordance with the closed meeting agenda which is posted on the Board's public Web site at
Mark Welch, General Manager, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004-2901, (800) 788-4016. This is a toll-free number.
The meeting will be closed to the public. No participation from the public will be considered during the meeting.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice and Request for OMB Review and Comment.
The Department of Energy (DOE) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance, a proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed collection will enable DOE to understand the universe of organizations participating in four voluntary programs: Zero Energy Ready Home Program, the Better Buildings Residential Network, the Home Energy Score, and the Home Performance with ENERGY STAR Program (HPwES). The information gathered by DOE in these four programs is necessary for DOE to run the programs effectively.
Comments regarding this collection must be received on or before June 19, 2015. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, please advise the DOE Desk Officer at OMB of your intention to make a submission as soon as possible. The Desk Officer may be telephoned at 202-395-4650.
Written comments should be sent to the DOE Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503.
And to Mr. Chris Early, U.S. Department of Energy, Building Technologies Program, Mail Stop EE-5B, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121 or by fax at 202-586-4617 or by email at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Mr. Chris Early, U.S. Department of Energy, Building Technologies Program, Mail Stop EE-5B, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121.
This information collection request contains: (1) OMB No. {“New”}; (2)
In place of EPA, DOE wants to collect the information for only one of the three collections associated with Control Number 2060-0586; the one with the Information Collection title “ENERGY STAR Program in the Residential Sector: States and Locals”. EPA did not receive any comments in either the 30 or 60 day
42 U.S.C. 16191.
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Evergreen Wind Power II, LLC application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability is June 3, 2015.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding(s) are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following qualifying facility filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric reliability filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Notice of information collection and request for comments.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on the currently approved information collection, FERC-576, Report of Service Interruptions.
Comments on the collection of information are due July 20, 2015.
You may submit comments (identified by Docket No. IC15-8-000) by either of the following methods:
• eFiling at Commission's Web site:
• Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
Ellen Brown may be reached by email at
Filings (in accordance with the provisions of section 4(d) of the NGA)
Respondents to the FERC-576 are encouraged to submit the reports by email to
A report required by 18 CFR 260.9(a)(1)(i) of damage to natural gas facilities resulting in loss of pipeline throughput or storage deliverability shall be reported to the Director of the Commission's Division of Pipeline Certificates at the earliest feasible time when pipeline throughput or storage deliverability has been restored.
In any instance in which an incident or damage report involving jurisdictional natural gas facilities is required by Department of Transportation (DOT) reporting requirements under the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act of 1968, a copy of such report shall be submitted to the Director of the Commission's Division of Pipeline Certificates, within 30 days of the reportable incident
If the Commission failed to collect these data, it would lose the ability to monitor and evaluate transactions, operations, and reliability of interstate pipelines and perform its regulatory functions. These reports are kept by the Commission Staff as non-public information and are not made part of the public record.
The Commission's regulations include a methodology for oil pipelines to change their rates through use of an index system that establishes ceiling levels for such rates. The Commission bases the index system, found at 18 CFR 342.3, on the annual change in the Producer Price Index for Finished Goods (PPI-FG), plus two point six five percent (PPI-FG + 2.65). The Commission determined in an
The regulations provide that the Commission will publish annually, an index figure reflecting the final change in the PPI-FG, after the Bureau of Labor Statistics publishes the final PPI-FG in May of each calendar year. The annual average PPI-FG index figures were 196.6 for 2013 and 200.4 for 2014.
In addition to publishing the full text of this Notice in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and other aspects of FERC's Web site during normal business hours. For assistance, please contact the Commission's Online Support at 1-866-208-3676 (toll free) or 202-502-6652 (email at
Take notice that on May 5, 2015, Sabine Pass Liquefaction, LLC and Sabine Pass LNG, L.P. (collectively, Sabine), 700 Milam Street, Suite 1900, Houston, Texas 77002, filed in Docket No. CP15-482-000 an application pursuant to section 3(a) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) for a limited amendment to construct approximately 5,000 feet of 36-inch diameter pipeline and appurtenances in Cameron Parish, Louisiana (EMP Project). Sabine states that the EMP Project will connect to Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC's proposed Gulf Trace Expansion Project in Docket No. CP15-29-000, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
Any questions concerning these applications may be directed to Lisa M. Tonery, Norton Rose Fulbright US LLP, 666 Fifth Avenue, New York, New York 10103 by telephone at (212) 318-3009 or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice, the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street, NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Line WB2VA Integrity Project (project) involving abandonment, construction, and operation of facilities by Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC (Columbia) in Hardy County, West Virginia, and Shenandoah, Page, Rockingham, and Greene Counties, Virginia. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before June 15, 2015.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on April 2, 2015, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP15-150-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
Columbia provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” This fact sheet addresses a number of typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. It is also available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods available to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP15-150-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Columbia proposes replacement and modification of existing equipment at numerous sites along the Line WB2VA pipeline, and at Lost River and Bickers Compressor Stations in Hardy County, West Virginia, and Shenandoah, Page, Rockingham, and Greene Counties, Virginia. The project would include the installation of pig launchers,
This project is part of Columbia's multi-year modernization program developed to address its aging infrastructure. The existing mainline valves do not permit the use of smart pigs as an inspection tool, and the two existing 20-inch-diameter pipelines crossing the South Fork of Shenandoah River create a similar barrier. The project modifications would create a continuous, 24-inch-diameter pipeline between Columbia's existing Lost River and Bickers Compressor Stations that would allow for smart pig inspections.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the proposed facilities would disturb about 37.9 acres of land. Following construction, Columbia would maintain about 26.0 acres for permanent operation of the project's facilities; which is 1.0 acre more than it is currently using. The remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under these general headings:
We will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before making our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Offices (SHPO), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
We have already identified several issues that we think deserve attention based on a preliminary review of the proposed facilities and the environmental information provided by Columbia. This preliminary list of
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the proposed project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the User's Guide under the “e-filing” link on the Commission's Web site.
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public meetings or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Roadrunner Border Crossing Project involving construction and operation of facilities for the export of natural gas by Roadrunner Gas Transmission, LLC (Roadrunner) in El Paso County, Texas. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public interest.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before June 13, 2015.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on April 9, 2015, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP15-161-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
Roadrunner provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?”. This fact sheet addresses a number of typically-asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. It is also available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP15-161-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Roadrunner proposes to construct a new border crossing at the international boundary between the United States and Mexico in El Paso County, Texas. The Roadrunner Border Crossing Project would consist of the construction of approximately 900 feet of FERC-jurisdictional 30-inch-diameter pipeline, installed beneath the Rio Grande River near San Elizario in El Paso County, Texas. The new pipeline would have a maximum daily export capacity of 875,000 million cubic feet per day, designed to transport natural gas to a new delivery interconnect with Tarahumara Pipeline S. de C.V. (Tarahumara Pipeline) at the United States/Mexico border for electric generation and industrial market needs in Mexico.
The Roadrunner Border Crossing Project would interconnect with Roadrunner's new intrastate pipeline facilities, including 205 miles of 30-inch-diameter pipeline, metering stations, and a new natural gas compressor station in Pecos County, Texas. The intrastate facilities would be subject to the jurisdiction of the Texas Railroad Commission and would be non-jurisdictional to the FERC. Roadrunner would concurrently construct the non-jurisdictional facilities in two phases between 2015 and 2016.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the Roadrunner Cross Border Pipeline Project pipeline would affect a total of 23.4 acres of land in the United States including 3.1 acres of additional temporary workspace for HDD construction and hydrostatic testing of the pipeline, 18.7 acres of temporary access roads, and 1.6 acres of operational right-of-way that would overlap between the FERC jurisdictional and non-jurisdictional pipeline facilities.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of an Authorization. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under these general headings:
• geology and soils;
• land use;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• cultural resources;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• air quality and noise;
• endangered and threatened species;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before making our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office (SHPO), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes: federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are available on the Commission's Web site at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission now offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public meetings or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) announces the formation of a new Science and Information Subcommittee (SIS) of the Great Lakes Advisory Board (the Board) and requests nominations of experts to be considered for appointment to the SIS. The SIS will assist the Board in providing ongoing advice on Great Lakes “adaptive management,” the process of learning from past decisions to make more effective future Great Lakes Restoration Initiative (GLRI) decisions. The SIS may provide other recommendations, as requested by the federal Great Lakes Interagency Task Force (IATF) and for the benefit of the IATF. Sources in addition to this
Nominations should be submitted within June 19, 2015 per instructions below.
Submit nominations electronically with the subject line “SIS Nomination 2014” to
Rita Cestaric, Designated Federal Officer, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 77 W. Jackson, Chicago, IL 60604; email address:
The SIS is being formed to provide expert advice on matters related to Board work. Specifically, the SIS may provide advice on the technical aspects of Great Lakes restoration and protection including refinement and implementation of an Adaptive Management Framework under the GLRI. It may provide other advice as requested, such as domestic implementation of the Great Lakes Water Quality Agreement (Science) Annex 10, the identification of significant gaps in Great Lakes scientific knowledge, the development and use of information systems to assist in adaptive management and other matters as requested by the federal agencies regarding Great Lakes protection and restoration.
The SIS will as needed, but it is anticipated to meet in person or by teleconference at least two times a year. The anticipated workload for members will be approximately 100-150 hours per year. SIS members may be invited to participate in meetings of the Board, in addition to participation on the SIS.
The SIS is anticipated to be composed of ten to fifteen members. Federal agency representatives may serve as advisors to the SIS. EPA will work directly with federal agencies to solicit qualified federal participants. This solicitation is focused exclusively on non-Federal candidates for membership.
The SIS will include members who possess the necessary domains of knowledge and the collective breadth of experience to adequately address the charge. Selection criteria to be used for SIS membership include: (a) Scientific and/or technical expertise, knowledge and experience; (b) availability and willingness to serve; (c) skills working in committees, subcommittees and advisory panels; and, (d) diversity of expertise and viewpoints. EPA values and welcomes diversity and encourages nominations of women and men of all racial and ethnic groups. A SIS that includes geographically diverse membership will also be a consideration by EPA in selecting nominees.
Individuals having questions about the nomination procedures should contact Rita Cestaric, DFO, as indicated above in this notice. The EPA will acknowledge the receipt of all nominations. To help the Agency in evaluating the effectiveness of its outreach efforts, please tell us how you learned of this opportunity.
Federal Communications Commission
Notice.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice advises interested persons that the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC or Commission) Communications Security, Reliability, and Interoperability Council (CSRIC) V will hold its first meeting.
June 24, 2015.
Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305 (Commission Meeting Room), 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Jeffery Goldthorp, Designated Federal Officer, (202) 418-1096 (voice) or
The meeting will be held on June 24, 2015, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. in the Commission Meeting Room of the Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
The CSRIC is a Federal Advisory Committee that will provide recommendations to the FCC regarding best practices and actions the FCC can take to ensure the security, reliability, and interoperability of communications systems. On March 19, 2015, the FCC, pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, renewed the charter for the CSRIC for a period of two years through March 18, 2017. The meeting on June 24, 2015, will be the first meeting of the CSRIC under the current charter. The FCC will attempt to accommodate as many attendees as possible; however, admittance will be limited to seating availability. The Commission will provide audio and/or video coverage of the meeting over the Internet from the FCC's Web page at
Open captioning will be provided for this event. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. Requests for such accommodations should be submitted via email to
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before July 20, 2015. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of the above-captioned information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on renewal of the information collection described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before June 19, 2015.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to: OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Gary A. Kuiper or John Popeo, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently-approved collection of information:
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
NOTICE IS HEREBY GIVEN that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”) as Receiver for First National Bank of Anthony, Anthony, KS (“the Receiver”) intends to terminate its receivership for said institution. The FDIC was appointed receiver of First National Bank of Anthony on June 19, 2009. The liquidation of the receivership assets has been completed. To the extent permitted by available funds and in accordance with law, the Receiver will be making a final dividend payment to proven creditors.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 32.1, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than June 13, 2015.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Boston (Richard Walker, Community Affairs Officer) 600 Atlantic Avenue, Boston, Massachusetts 02210-2204:
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than June 3, 2015.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
1.
Office of Government-wide Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Meeting notice.
Notice of these conference calls is being provided according to the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 10(a)(2). This notice provides the schedule for a series of conference calls, supplemented by Web meetings, for two task groups of the Committee. The conference calls are open for the public to listen in. Interested individuals must register to attend as instructed below under
The
The
Mr. Ken Sandler, Designated Federal Officer, Office of Federal High-Performance Green Buildings, Office of Government-wide Policy, General Services Administration, 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-219-1121 (Note: This is not a toll-free number). Additional information about the Committee, including meeting materials and updates on the task groups and their schedules, will be available on-line at
Contact Mr. Ken Sandler at
The Administrator of the U.S. General Services Administration established the Committee on June 20, 2011 (
The
Both groups have met previously and had their work endorsed by the full Committee at its April 23, 2015 meeting. The conference calls will focus on how the task groups can further refine these motions into final consensus recommendations of each group to the full Committee, which will in turn decide whether to proceed with formal advice to GSA based upon these recommendations. Additional background information and updates will be posted on GSA's Web site at
Government Accountability Office (GAO).
Notice of appointment.
The Methodology Committee assists PCORI in developing and updating methodological standards and guidance for comparative clinical effectiveness research. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act directs the Comptroller General to appoint up to 15 members to PCORI's Methodology Committee. This notice announces the appointment of a new member, Adam Wilcox, Ph.D., Director of Medical Informatics at Intermountain Healthcare in Salt Lake City, Utah.
The appointment is effective May 2015.
GAO: 441 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20548.
PCORI: 1828 L Street NW., Suite 900, Washington, DC 20036.
GAO: Office of Public Affairs, (202) 512-4800.
PCORI: Joe Selby, MD, MPH, (202) 827-7700.
[Sec. 6301, Pub. L. 111-148].
Government Accountability Office (GAO).
Notice of appointments.
The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act requires the Comptroller General of the United States to appoint 13 of 20 members to the HIT Policy Committee. As of April 2015, new appointees to the HIT Policy Committee are Kathleen Blake, MD, MPH, an expert in health care quality measurement and reporting; Donna Cryer, JD, an advocate for patients or consumers; and Brent Snyder, Esq., a representative of health care providers.
Appointments are effective as of April 2015.
GAO: 441 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20548.
GAO: Office of Public Affairs, (202) 512-4800.
More information about the new appointees is provided below. Kathleen Blake, MD, MPH, is Vice President for Performance Improvement at the American Medical Association (AMA) and resides in Chicago, Illinois, and Santa Fe, New Mexico. She was appointed to fill the health care quality measurement and reporting opening.
Donna Cryer, JD, is Founder and President of the Global Liver Institute in Washington, DC, which facilitates collaboration among patient advocates, policymakers, regulators, health systems, and payers to solve challenges to advancing liver health and treating liver diseases. She was appointed to fill the patients or consumers advocate opening.
Brent Snyder, Esq. is Chief Information Officer at Adventist Health System (AHS) and lives in Springfield, Tennessee. He was appointed to fill the representative of health care providers opening.
42 U.S.C. 300jj-12.
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the proposed changes to the currently approved information collection project:
Comments on this notice must be received by July 20, 2015.
Written comments should be submitted to: Doris Lefkowitz, Reports Clearance Officer, AHRQ, by email at
Copies of the proposed collection plans, data collection instruments, and specific details on the estimated burden can be obtained from the AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer.
Doris Lefkowitz, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, (301) 427-1477, or by email at
For over thirty years, results from the MEPS and its predecessor surveys (the 1977 National Medical Care Expenditure Survey, the 1980 National Medical Care Utilization and Expenditure Survey and the 1987 National Medical Expenditure Survey) have been used by OMB, DHHS, Congress and a wide number of health services researchers to analyze health care use, expenses and health policy.
Major changes continue to take place in the health care delivery system. The MEPS is needed to provide information about the current state of the health care system as well as to track changes over time. The MEPS permits annual estimates of use of health care and expenditures and sources of payment for that health care. It also permits tracking individual change in employment, income, health insurance and health status over two years. The use of the National Health Interview Survey (NHIS) as a sampling frame expands the MEPS analytic capacity by providing another data point for comparisons over time.
Households selected for participation in the MEPS-HC are interviewed five times in person. These rounds of interviewing are spaced about 5 months apart. The interview will take place with a family respondent who will report for him or herself and for other family members.
The goal of MEPS-HC is to provide nationally representative estimates for the U.S. civilian noninstitutionalized population for health care use, expenditures, sources of payment and health insurance coverage
The MEPS-MPC will contact medical providers (hospitals, physicians, home health agencies and institutions) identified by household respondents in the MEPS-HC as sources of medical care for the time period covered by the interview, and all pharmacies providing prescription drugs to household members during the covered time period. The MEPS-MPC is not designed to yield national estimates as a stand-alone survey. The sample is designed to target the types of individuals and providers for whom household reported expenditure data was expected to be insufficient. For example, Medicaid enrollees are targeted for inclusion in the MEPS-MPC because this group is expected to have limited information about payments for their medical care.
There is one addition to the MEPS-MPC being implemented in this renewal request, the MEPS MPC Medical Organizations Survey (MOS). The MEPS MOS will expand current MPC data collection activities to include information on the organization of the practices of office-based care providers identified as a usual source of care in the MEPS MPC. This additional data collection will be for a subset of office-based care providers already included in the MEPS MPC sample. In the MEPS MPC sample, for a nationally representative sample of adults, primary location for individual's office-based usual sources of care will be identified. The MEPS MPC will contact these places where medical care is provided, determine the appropriate respondent and administer a MEPS MOS. The design of the survey will be multimodal including some telephone contact. Additional data collection methods may include phone, fax, mail, self-administration, electronic transmission, and the Web. The data collection method chosen for a provider shall be the method that results in the most complete and accurate data with least burden to the provider.
The MEPS-MPC collects event level data about medical care received by sampled persons during the relevant time period. The data collected from medical providers include:
• Dates on which medical encounters during the reference period occurred
• Data on the medical content of each encounter, including ICD-9 (or ICD-10) and CPT-4 codes
• Data on the charges associated with each encounter, the sources paying for the medical care. including the patient/family, public sources, and private insurance, and amounts paid by each source
• Date of prescription fill.
• National drug code (NDC) or prescription name, strength and form.
• Quantity.
• Payments, by source.
• To serve as an imputation source for and to supplement/replace household reported expenditure and source of payment information. This data will supplement, replace and verify information provided by household respondents about the charges, payments, and sources of payment associated with specific health care encounters.
This study is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractors, Westat and RTI International, pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on healthcare and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the cost and use of health care services and with respect to health statistics and surveys. 42 U.S.C. 299a(a)(3) and (8); 42 U.S.C. 299b-2.
To achieve the goals of the MEPS-HC the following data collections are implemented:
1. Household Component Core Instrument. The core instrument collects data about persons in sample households. Topical areas asked in each round of interviewing include condition enumeration, health status, health care utilization including prescribed medicines, expense and payment, employment, and health insurance. Other topical areas that are asked only once a year include access to care, income, assets, satisfaction with health plans and providers, children's health, and adult preventive care. While many of the questions are asked about the entire reporting unit (RU), which is typically a family, only one person normally provides this information. All sections of the current core instrument are available on the AHRQ Web site at
2. Adult Self-Administered Questionnaire. A brief self-administered questionnaire will be used to collect self-reported (rather than through household proxy) information on health status, health opinions and satisfaction with health care for adults 18 and older (see
3. Diabetes Care Self Administered Questionnaire. A brief self-administered paper-and-pencil questionnaire on the quality of diabetes care is administered once a year (during round 3 and 5) to persons identified as having diabetes. Included are questions about the number of times the respondent reported having a hemoglobin A1c blood test, whether the respondent reported having his or her feet checked for sores or irritations, whether the respondent reported having an eye exam in which the pupils were dilated, the last time the respondent had his or her blood cholesterol checked and whether the diabetes has caused kidney or eye problems. Respondents are also asked if their diabetes is being treated with diet, oral medications or insulin. This questionnaire is unchanged from the previous OMB clearance. See
4. Authorization forms for the MEPS-MPC Provider and Pharmacy Survey. As in previous panels of the MEPS, we will ask respondents for authorization to obtain supplemental information from their medical providers (hospitals, physicians, home health agencies and institutions) and pharmacies. See
5. MEPS Validation Interview. Each interviewer is required to have at least 15 percent of his/her caseload validated to insure that computer-assisted personal interview (CAPI) questionnaire content was asked appropriately and procedures followed, for example the use of show cards. Validation flags are set programmatically for cases pre-selected by data processing staff before each round of interviewing. Home office and field management may also request that other cases be validated throughout the field period. When an interviewer fails a validation all their work is subject to 100 percent validation. Additionally, any case completed in less than 30 minutes is validated. A validation abstract form containing selected data collected in the CAPI interview is generated and used by the validator to guide the validation interview.
1. MPC Contact Guide/Screening Call. An initial screening call is placed to determine the type of facility, whether the practice or facility is in scope for the MEPS-MPC, the appropriate MEPS-MPC respondent and some details about the organization and availability of medical records and billing at the practice/facility. All hospitals, physician offices, home health agencies, institutions and pharmacies are screened by telephone. A unique screening instrument is used for each of these seven provider types in the MEPS-MPC, except for the two home care provider types which use the same screening form; see
2. Home Care Provider Questionnaire for Health Care Providers. This questionnaire is used to collect data from home health care agencies which provide medical care services to household respondents. Information collected includes type of personnel providing care, hours or visits provided per month, and the charges and payments for services received. See
3. Home Care Provider Questionnaire for Non-Health Care Providers. This questionnaire is used to collect information about services provided in the home by non-health care workers to household respondents because of a medical condition; for example, cleaning or yard work, transportation, shopping, or child care. See
4. Medical Event Questionnaire for Office-Based Providers. This questionnaire is for office-based physicians, including doctors of medicine (MDs) and osteopathy (DOs), as well as providers practicing under the direction or supervision of an MD or DO (
5. Medical Event Questionnaire for Separately Billing Doctors. This questionnaire collects information from physicians identified by hospitals (during the Hospital Event data collection) as providing care to sampled persons during the course of inpatient, outpatient department or emergency room care, but who bill separately from the hospital. See
6. Hospital Event Questionnaire. This questionnaire is used to collect information about hospital events, including inpatient stays, outpatient department, and emergency room visits. Hospital data are collected not only from the billing department, but from medical records and administrative records departments as well. Medical records departments are contacted to determine the names of all the doctors who treated the patient during a stay or visit. In many cases, the hospital administrative office also has to be contacted to determine whether the doctors identified by medical records billed separately from the hospital itself; the doctors that do bill separately from the hospital will be contacted as part of the Medical Event Questionnaire for Separately Billing Doctors. HMOs are included in this provider type. See
7. Institutions Event Questionnaire. This questionnaire is used to collect information about institution events, including nursing homes, rehabilitation facilities and skilled nursing facilities. Institution data are collected not only from the billing department, but from medical records and administrative records departments as well. Medical records departments are contacted to determine the names of all the doctors who treated the patient during a stay. In many cases, the institution administrative office also has to be contacted to determine whether the doctors identified by medical records billed separately from the institution itself. See
8. Pharmacy Data Collection Questionnaire. This questionnaire requests the national drug code (NDC) and when that is not available the prescription name, date prescription was filled, payments by source, prescription strength and form (when the NDC is not available), quantity, and person for whom the prescription was filled. When the NDC is available, we do not ask for prescription name, strength or form because that information is embedded in the NDC; this reduces burden on the respondent. Most pharmacies have the requested information available in electronic format and respond by providing a computer generated printout of the patient's prescription information. If the computerized form is unavailable, the pharmacy can report their data to a telephone interviewer. Pharmacies are also able to provide a CD-ROM with the requested information if that is preferred. HMOs are included in this provider type. See
9. Medical Organizations Survey Questionnaire. This questionnaire will collect essential information on important features of the staffing, organization, policies, and financing for identified usual source of office based care providers. This additional data collection will be a subset of office based care providers already included in the MEPS MPC sample and will be a nationally representative sample of adults' primary location for individuals office based usual sources of care.
Dentists, optometrists, psychologists, podiatrists, chiropractors, and others not providing care under the supervision of a MD or DO are considered out of scope for the MEPS-MPC.
The MEPS is a multi-purpose survey. In addition to collecting data to yield annual estimates for a variety of measures related to health care use and expenditures, MEPS also provides estimates of measures related to health status, consumer assessment of health care, health insurance coverage, demographic characteristics, employment and access to health care indicators. Estimates can be provided
• Annual estimates of health care use and expenditures for persons and families.
• Annual estimates of sources of payment for health care utilizations, including public programs such as Medicare and Medicaid, private insurance, and out of pocket payments.
• Annual estimates of health care use, expenditures and sources of payment of persons and families by type of utilization including inpatient stay, ambulatory care, home health, dental care and prescribed medications.
• The number and characteristics of the population eligible for public programs including the use of services and expenditures of the population(s) eligible for benefits under Medicare and Medicaid.
• The number, characteristics, and use of services and expenditures of persons and families with various forms of insurance.
• Annual estimates of consumer satisfaction with health care, and indicators of health care quality for key conditions.
• Annual estimates to track disparities in health care use and access.
In addition to national estimates, data collected in this ongoing, longitudinal study are used to study the determinants of the use of services and expenditures, and changes in the access to and the provision of health care in relation to:
• Socio-economic and demographic factors such as employment or income.
• The health status and satisfaction with health care of individuals and families.
• The health needs and circumstances of specific subpopulation groups such as the elderly and children.
To meet the need for national data on health care use, access, cost and quality, MEPS-HC collects information on:
• Access to care and barriers to receiving needed care.
• Satisfaction with usual providers.
• Health status and limitations in activities.
• Medical conditions for which health care was used.
• Use, expense and payment (as well as insurance status of person receiving care) for health services.
Given the twin problems of nonresponse and response error of some household reported data, information is collected directly from medical providers in the MEPS-MPC to improve the accuracy of expenditure estimates derived from the MEPS-HC. Because of their greater level of precision and detail, we also use MEPS-MPC data as the main source of imputations of missing expenditure data. Thus, the MEPS-MPC is designed to satisfy the following analytical objectives:
• Serve as source data for household reported events with missing expenditure information.
• Serve as an imputation source to reduce the level of bias in survey estimates of medical expenditures due to item nonresponse and less complete and less accurate household data.
• Serve as the primary data source for expenditure estimates of medical care provided by separately billing doctors in hospitals, emergency rooms, and outpatient departments, Medicaid recipients and expenditure estimates for pharmacies.
• Allow for an examination of the level of agreement in reported expenditures from household respondents and medical providers.
Data from the MEPS, both the HC and MPC components, are intended for a number of annual reports produced by AHRQ, including the National Healthcare Quality and Disparities Report.
The MEPS MPC MOS data will be used to create a database that will be unique in providing an internally consistent source of information both on individuals' characteristics and health care utilization and expenditures, and on the characteristics of the providers they use. The following areas will be addressed in the MOS as they potentially affect individuals' access to, use of and affordability of health care services:
• Organizational characteristics,
• Use of health information technology.
• Policies and practices related to the ACA.
• Financial arrangements,
Exhibit 1 shows the estimated annualized burden hours for the respondents' time to participate in the MEPS-HC and the MEPS-MPC. The MEPS-HC Core Interview will be completed by 15,093 * (see note below Exhibit 1) “family level” respondents, also referred to as RU respondents. Since the MEPS-HC consists of 5 rounds of interviewing covering a full two years of data, the annual average number of responses per respondent is 2.5 responses per year. The MEPS-HC core requires an average response time of 92 minutes to administer. The Adult SAQ will be completed once a year by each person in the RU that is 18 years old and older, an estimated 28,254 persons. The Adult SAQ requires an average of 7 minutes to complete. The Diabetes care SAQ will be completed once a year by each person in the RU identified as having diabetes, an estimated 2,345 persons, and takes about 3 minutes to complete. The authorization form for the MEPS-MPC Provider Survey will be completed once for each medical provider seen by any RU member. The 14,489 RUs in the MEPS-HC will complete an average of 5.4 forms, which require about 3minutes each to complete. The authorization form for the MEPS-MPC Pharmacy Survey will be completed once for each pharmacy for any RU member who has obtained a prescription medication. RUs will complete an average of 3.1 forms, which take about 3 minutes to complete. About one third of all interviewed RUs will complete a validation interview as part of the MEPS-HC quality control, which takes an average of 5 minutes to complete. The total annual burden hours for the MEPS-HC are estimated to be 67,826 hours.
All medical providers and pharmacies included in the MEPS-MPC will receive a screening call and the MEPS-MPC uses 7 different questionnaires; 6 for medical providers and 1 for pharmacies. Each questionnaire is relatively short and requires 2 to 19 minutes to complete. The total annual burden hours for the MEPS-MPC are estimated to be 18,876 hours. The total annual burden for the MEPS-HC and MPC is estimated to be 86,702 hours.
Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annual cost burden associated with the respondents' time to participate in this information collection. The annual cost burden for the MEPS-HC is estimated to be $1,680,727; the annual cost burden for the MEPS-MPC is estimated to be $299,477. The total annual cost burden for the MEPS-HC and MPC is estimated to be $1,980,204.
Occupational Employment Statistics, May 2013 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates United States, U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
Under the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act (NCVIA) (42 U.S.C. 300aa-26), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) develops vaccine information materials that all health care providers are required to give to patients/parents prior to administration of specific vaccines. HHS/CDC seeks written comment on the proposed updated vaccine information statements for inactivated and live attenuated influenza vaccines.
Written comments must be received on or before July 20, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2015-0016, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Skip Wolfe (
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-660), as amended by section 708 of Public Law 103-183, added section 2126 to the Public Health Service Act. Section 2126, codified at 42 U.S.C. 300aa-26, requires the Secretary of Health and Human Services to develop and disseminate vaccine information materials for distribution by all health care providers in the United States to any patient (or to the parent or legal representative in the case of a child) receiving vaccines covered under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP).
Development and revision of the vaccine information materials, also known as Vaccine Information Statements (VIS), have been delegated by the Secretary to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section 2126 requires that the materials be developed, or revised, after notice to the public, with a 60-day comment period, and in consultation with the Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines, appropriate health care provider and parent organizations, and the Food and Drug Administration. The law also requires that the information contained in the materials be based on available data and information, be presented in understandable terms, and include:
(1) A concise description of the benefits of the vaccine,
(2) A concise description of the risks associated with the vaccine,
(3) A statement of the availability of the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program, and
(4) Such other relevant information as may be determined by the Secretary.
The vaccines initially covered under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program were diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella and poliomyelitis vaccines. Since April 15, 1992, any health care provider in the United States who intends to administer one of these covered vaccines is required to provide copies of the relevant vaccine information materials prior to administration of any of these vaccines. Since then, the following vaccines have been added to the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program, requiring use of vaccine information materials for them as well: Hepatitis B,
HHS/CDC is proposing updated versions of the inactivated and live attenuated seasonal influenza vaccine information statements.
The vaccine information materials referenced in this notice are being developed in consultation with the Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines, the Food and Drug Administration, and parent and health care provider groups.
We invite written comment on the proposed vaccine information materials entitled “Influenza (Flu) Vaccine (Inactivated or Recombinant): What you need to know” and “Influenza (Flu) Vaccine (Live, Intranasal): What you need to know.” Copies of the proposed vaccine information materials are available at
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
Under the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act (NCVIA) (42 U.S.C. 300aa-26), the Centers for
Written comments must be received on or before July 20, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2015-0014, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Skip Wolfe (
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-660), as amended by section 708 of Public Law 103-183, added section 2126 to the Public Health Service Act. Section 2126, codified at 42 U.S.C. 300aa-26, requires the Secretary of Health and Human Services to develop and disseminate vaccine information materials for distribution by all health care providers in the United States to any patient (or to the parent or legal representative in the case of a child) receiving vaccines covered under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP).
Development and revision of the vaccine information materials, also known as Vaccine Information Statements (VIS), have been delegated by the Secretary to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section 2126 requires that the materials be developed, or revised, after notice to the public, with a 60-day comment period, and in consultation with the Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines, appropriate health care provider and parent organizations, and the Food and Drug Administration. The law also requires that the information contained in the materials be based on available data and information, be presented in understandable terms, and include:
(1) A concise description of the benefits of the vaccine,
(2) A concise description of the risks associated with the vaccine,
(3) A statement of the availability of the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program, and
(4) Such other relevant information as may be determined by the Secretary.
The vaccines initially covered under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program were diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella and poliomyelitis vaccines. Since April 15, 1992, any health care provider in the United States who intends to administer one of these covered vaccines is required to provide copies of the relevant vaccine information materials prior to administration of any of these vaccines. Since then, the following vaccines have been added to the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program, requiring use of vaccine information materials for them as well: Hepatitis B,
HHS/CDC is proposing an updated version of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) vaccine information statement.
The vaccine information materials referenced in this notice are being developed in consultation with the Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines, the Food and Drug Administration, and parent and health care provider groups.
We invite written comment on the proposed vaccine information materials entitled “Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV13): What You Need to Know.” A copy of the proposed vaccine information materials is available at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by July 20, 2015.
Submit electronic comments on the collection of information to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
Under the PRA, (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
This information collection approval request is for FDA guidance on the procedures for formal meetings between FDA and sponsors or applicants regarding the development and review of PDUFA products. The guidance describes procedures for requesting, scheduling, conducting, and documenting such formal meetings. The guidance provides information on how the Agency will interpret and apply section 119(a) of the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act (FDAMA), specific PDUFA goals for the management of meetings associated with the review of human drug applications for PDUFA products, and provisions of existing regulations describing certain meetings (§§ 312.47 and 312.82 (21 CFR 312.47 and 312.82)).
The guidance describes two collections of information: The submission of a meeting request containing certain information and the submission of an information package in advance of the formal meeting. Agency regulations at §§ 312.47(b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iv), and (b)(2) describe information that should be submitted in support of a request for an end-of-phase 2 meeting and a pre-NDA meeting. The information collection provisions of § 312.47 have been approved by OMB control number 0910-0014. However, the guidance provides additional recommendations for submitting information to FDA in support of a meeting request. As a result, FDA is submitting additional estimates for OMB approval.
Under the guidance, a sponsor or applicant interested in meeting with the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) or the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) should submit a meeting request to the appropriate FDA component as an amendment to the underlying application. FDA regulations (§§ 312.23, 314.50, and 601.2 (21 CFR 312.23, 314.50, and 601.2)) state that information provided to the Agency as part of an investigational new drug application (IND), new drug application (NDA), or biological license application (BLA) must be submitted with an appropriate cover form. Form FDA 1571 must accompany submissions under INDs and Form FDA 356h must accompany submissions under NDAs and BLAs. Both forms have valid OMB control numbers as follows: Form FDA 1571—OMB control number 0910-0014 and Form FDA 356h—OMB control number 0910-0338.
In the guidance document, CDER and CBER ask that a request for a formal meeting be submitted as an amendment to the application for the underlying product under the requirements of §§ 312.23, 314.50, and 601.2; therefore, requests should be submitted to the Agency with the appropriate form attached, either Form FDA 1571 or Form FDA 356h. The Agency recommends that a request be submitted in this manner for two reasons: (1) To ensure that each request is kept in the administrative file with the entire underlying application, and (2) to ensure that pertinent information about the request is entered into the appropriate tracking databases. Use of the information in the Agency's tracking databases enables the Agency to monitor progress on the activities attendant to scheduling and holding a formal meeting and to ensure that appropriate steps will be taken in a timely manner.
Under the guidance, the Agency requests that sponsors and applicants include in meeting requests certain information about the proposed meeting. Such information includes:
• Information identifying and describing the product;
• The type of meeting being requested;
• A brief statement of the purpose of the meeting;
• A list of objectives and expected outcomes from the meeting;
• A preliminary proposed agenda;
• A draft list of questions to be raised at the meeting;
• A list of individuals who will represent the sponsor or applicant at the meeting;
• A list of Agency staff requested to be in attendance;
• The approximate date that the information package will be sent to the Agency; and
• Suggested dates and times for the meeting.
This information will be used by the Agency to determine the utility of the meeting, to identify Agency staff necessary to discuss proposed agenda items, and to schedule the meeting.
A sponsor or applicant submitting an information package to the Agency in advance of a formal meeting should provide summary information relevant to the product and supplementary information pertaining to any issue raised by the sponsor, applicant, or Agency. The Agency recommends that information packages generally include:
• Identifying information about the underlying product;
• A brief statement of the purpose of the meeting;
• A list of objectives and expected outcomes of the meeting;
• A proposed agenda for the meeting;
• A list of specific questions to be addressed at the meeting;
• A summary of clinical data that will be discussed (as appropriate);
• A summary of preclinical data that will be discussed (as appropriate); and
• Chemistry, manufacturing, and controls information that may be discussed (as appropriate).
The purpose of the information package is to provide Agency staff the opportunity to adequately prepare for the meeting, including the review of relevant data concerning the product. Although FDA reviews similar information in the meeting request, the information package should provide updated data that reflect the most current and accurate information available to the sponsor or applicant.
The collection of information described in the guidance reflects the current and past practice of sponsors and applicants to submit meeting requests as amendments to INDs, NDAs, and BLAs and to submit background information prior to a scheduled meeting. Agency regulations currently permit such requests and recommend the submission of an information package before an end-of-phase 2 meeting (§§ 312.47(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(1)(iv)) and a pre-NDA meeting (§ 312.47(b)(2)).
Based on data collected from the review divisions and offices within CDER and CBER, FDA estimates that approximately 1,099 sponsors and applicants (respondents) request approximately 2,366 formal meetings with CDER annually and approximately 175 respondents request approximately 264 formal meetings with CBER annually regarding the development and review of a PDUFA product. The hours per response, which is the estimated number of hours that a respondent would spend preparing the information to be submitted with a meeting request in accordance with the guidance, is estimated to be approximately 10 hours. Based on FDA's experience, the Agency expects it will take respondents this amount of time to gather and copy brief statements about the product and a description of the purpose and details of the meeting.
Based on data collected from the review divisions and offices within CDER and CBER, FDA estimates that approximately 959 respondents submitted approximately 1,901 information packages to CDER annually and approximately 142 respondents submitted approximately 193 information packages to CBER annually prior to a formal meeting regarding the development and review of a PDUFA product. The hours per response, which is the estimated number of hours that a respondent would spend preparing the information package in accordance with the guidance, is estimated to be approximately 18 hours. Based on FDA's experience, the Agency expects it will take respondents this amount of time to gather and copy brief statements about the product, a description of the details for the anticipated meeting, and data and information that generally would already have been compiled for submission to the Agency.
As stated earlier, the guidance provides information on how the Agency will interpret and apply section 119(a) of the FDAMA, specific PDUFA goals for the management of meetings associated with the review of human drug applications for PDUFA products, and provisions of existing regulations describing certain meetings (§§ 312.47 and 312.82). The information collection provisions in § 312.47 concerning end-of-phase 2 meetings and pre-NDA meetings have been approved by OMB control number 0910-0014. However, the guidance provides additional recommendations for submitting information to FDA in support of a meeting request. As a result, FDA is submitting for OMB approval these additional estimates.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by June 19, 2015.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs,
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd.; COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
Section 310(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 337(b)) authorizes a State to enforce certain sections of the FD&C Act in their own name and within their own jurisdiction. However, before doing so, a State must provide notice to FDA according to 21 CFR 100.2. The information required in a letter of notification under § 100.2(d) enables us to identify the food against which a State intends to take action and to advise that State whether Federal enforcement action against the food has been taken or is in process. With certain narrow exceptions, Federal enforcement action precludes State action under the FD&C Act.
In the
We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
The estimated reporting burden for § 100.2(d) is minimal because enforcement notifications are seldom used by States. During the last 3 years, we have not received any new enforcement notifications; therefore, we estimate that one or fewer notifications will be submitted annually. Although we have not received any new enforcement notifications in the last 3 years, we believe these information collection provisions should be extended to provide for the potential future need of a State government to submit enforcement notifications informing us when it intends to take enforcement action under the FD&C Act against a particular food located in the State.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are owned by an agency of the U.S. Government and are available for licensing in the U.S. in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404 to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing.
Licensing information and copies of the U.S. patent applications listed below may be obtained by writing to the indicated licensing contact at the Office of Technology Transfer, National Institutes of Health, 6011 Executive Boulevard, Suite 325, Rockville, Maryland 20852-3804; telephone: 301-496-7057; fax: 301-402-0220. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement will be required to receive copies of the patent applications.
Technology descriptions follow.
• Increased viral titers
• Increased transduction efficiency
• Large scale vector production
• Early-stage
• In vitro data available
• In vivo data available (animal)
The portable CXR is one of the most commonly requested diagnostic medical tests around the world. They are performed nearly daily on some of the sickest patients in hospitals. Paradoxically, it is well documented that portable radiography of the chest is inconsistent and often inadequate.
An upright projection best evaluates effusions, rules out free air, or detects air-fluid levels. Optimally, the images are obtained at similar angles each day, even if not erect, to allow accurate comparisons and assessment of change. It is well documented that portable radiography of the chest is inconsistent and often inadequate. To achieve optimal quality of the exam the technologist attempts the most upright projection; balanced with patient condition and ability to achieve this often impossible task.
• Currently, there is no quantitative marker to indicate degree of the upright position. Prior markers with small ball bearings sinking to a small circle only indicate if the patient is supine or not. This technology introduces a simple dynamic marker that can quantify the angle at a glance for the radiologist to best compare patient condition over time. This device objectively quantifies cassette angle with a ball bearing in a cylindrical tube with markers to indicate upright position in degrees.
• The technology improves performance of CXR, allowing reliable comparisons of patient condition over time. Thus, better therapies can be planned and unnecessary CT (Computerized Tomography) can be prevented.
• The technology improves care for Intensive Care Unit patients, as developing effusion and the need for immediate drainage (as one of many examples) can be more effectively assessed with the present apparatus. A widespread use of the device will save lives through improved diagnosis and comparison of effusions.
• A performance of a visual prototype was demonstrated. The visual prototype was imaged at 5 selected angles with a chest phantom. Initial in-vitro results demonstrate that angles can be quantified to within 30 degrees.
• Improved prototypes with more accuracy are currently being manufactured for to patient use.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) of the Department of Homeland Security will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act: Vessel of Entrance or Clearance Statement (CBP Form 1300). This is a proposed extension of an information collection that was previously approved. CBP is proposing that this information collection be extended with no change to the burden hours or to the information collected. This document is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments should be received on or before June 19, 2015 to be assured of consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to Tracey Denning, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Regulations and Rulings, Office of
This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing- Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street, SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Theodore K. Toon, Director, Office of Multifamily Production, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410, email:
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Colette Pollard, email:
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications to conduct certain activities with endangered species. With some exceptions, the Endangered Species Act (ESA) prohibits activities with listed species unless a Federal permit is issued that allows such activities. The ESA requires that we invite public comment before issuing these permits.
We must receive written data or comments on the applications at the address given below by
Documents and other information submitted with the applications are available for review, subject to the requirements of the Privacy Act and Freedom of Information Act, by any party who submits a written request for a copy of such documents to the following office within 30 days of the date of publication of this notice: U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1875 Century Boulevard, Suite 200, Atlanta, GA 30345 (Attn: Karen Marlowe, Permit Coordinator).
Karen Marlowe, 10(a)(1)(A) Permit Coordinator, telephone 205-726-2667; facsimile 205-726-2479.
The public is invited to comment on the following applications for permits to conduct certain activities with endangered and threatened species under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
If you wish to comment, you may submit comments by any one of the following methods. You may mail comments to the Fish and Wildlife Service's Regional Office (see
Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comments, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comments to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
The applicant requests renewal of her permit to take (enter hibernacula and maternity roosts, capture via mist-net or harp trap, band, radio-tag, collect hair and fecal samples, wing-punch, light-tag, and salvage) Indiana bats (
The applicant requests a permit to take (capture, handle, identify, tag, and release) the gray bat (
The applicant requests an amendment of his current permit to add authorization to conduct surveys for the rayed bean (
The applicant requests renewal of her current permit to take (capture, identify, measure, sex, release) Nashville crayfish (
The applicant requests authorization to take (enter hibernacula, capture with mist nets or harp traps, handle, identify, band, radio-tag) Indiana bats (
The applicant requests renewal and amendment of his current permit to take (enter hibernacula, capture with mist nets or harp traps, handle, identify, band, radio-tag) Indiana bats (
The applicant requests renewal and amendment of his current permit to take (enter hibernacula, capture with mist nets or harp traps, handle, identify, band, radio-tag) Indiana bats (
The applicant requests renewal of the current permit to take (capture, band, translocate, install artificial nest cavities and restrictors, monitor nest cavities) red-cockaded woodpeckers (
The applicant requests authorization to take (capture with mist nets or harp traps, handle, identify, band, and radio-tag) Indiana bats (
The applicant requests authorization to sell in interstate commerce artificially propagated green pitcher plants (
The applicant requests renewal of her current permit to take (survey, collect hatchlings, hold in captivity, examine, and release) leatherback (
Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
In accordance with the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA), the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), and the Framework Agreement for Early Restoration Addressing Injuries Resulting from the
• Via the Web:
• Via U.S. Mail: U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, P.O. Box 49567, Atlanta, GA 30345.
Nanciann Regalado, at
On or about April 20, 2010, the mobile offshore drilling unit
The Trustees are conducting the natural resource damage assessment for the
The Trustees are:
• U.S. Department of the Interior (DOI), as represented by the National Park Service, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and Bureau of Land Management;
• National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), on behalf of the U.S. Department of Commerce;
• U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA);
• U.S. Department of Defense (DOD);
• U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA);
• State of Louisiana Coastal Protection and Restoration Authority, Oil Spill Coordinator's Office, Department of Environmental Quality, Department of Wildlife and Fisheries, and Department of Natural Resources;
• State of Mississippi Department of Environmental Quality;
• State of Alabama Department of Conservation and Natural Resources and Geological Survey of Alabama;
• State of Florida Department of Environmental Protection and Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission; and
• For the State of Texas: Texas Parks and Wildlife Department, Texas General Land Office, and Texas Commission on Environmental Quality.
On April 20, 2011, BP agreed to provide up to $1 billion toward early restoration projects in the Gulf of Mexico to address injuries to natural resources caused by the
The Trustees actively solicited public input on restoration project ideas through a variety of mechanisms, including public meetings, electronic communication, and creation of a Trustee-wide public Web site and database to share information and receive public project submissions. Their key objective in pursuing early restoration is to secure tangible recovery of natural resources and natural resource services for the public's benefit while the longer term process of fully assessing injury and damages is under way. The Trustees released the Phase I ERP/EA in April 2012 and the Phase II ERP/ER in December 2012 after public review of drafts of those documents. After public review, the Trustees released the Phase III ERP/PEIS on June 26, 2014. Subsequently, the Trustees approved the Phase III ERP/PEIS in a Record of Decision on October 31, 2014.
The Trustees are proposing 10 additional early restoration projects in Phase IV to address injuries from the
The Draft Phase IV ERP/EA is being released in accordance with the Oil Pollution Act (OPA), the Natural Resources Damage Assessment (NRDA) regulations found in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 15 CFR 990, the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321
The Trustees are considering 10 projects in the Draft Phase IV ERP/EA. The total estimated cost for proposed Phase IV projects is approximately $134 million. Details on the proposed projects are provided in the Draft Phase IV ERP/EA. The Draft Phase IV ERP/EA also includes a notice of change and supporting analysis for one Phase III Early Restoration Project, “Enhancement of Franklin County Parks and Boat Ramps—Eastpoint Fishing Pier Improvements.”
The proposed restoration projects are intended to continue the process of using early restoration funding to restore natural resources, ecological services, and recreational use services injured or lost as a result of the
Early restoration actions are not intended to provide the full extent of restoration needed to make the public and the environment whole. The Trustees anticipate that additional early restoration projects will be proposed in the future as the early restoration process continues.
As described above, public meetings are scheduled to facilitate the public review and comment process. After the public comment period ends, the Trustees will consider and address the comments received before issuing a Final Phase IV Early Restoration Plan and Environmental Assessments (Final Phase IV ERP/EA). After issuing a Final Phase IV ERP/EA, the Trustees will file negotiated stipulations for approved projects with the court. Approved projects will then proceed to implementation, pending compliance with all applicable State and Federal laws.
The Trustees seek public review and comment on the 10 proposed early restoration project and supporting analysis included in the Draft Phase IV ERP/EA. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time.
The documents comprising the Administrative Record can be viewed electronically at the following location:
The authority of this action is the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (33 U.S.C. 2701
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of availability.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) announces the availability of the Record of Decision (ROD) for the Approved Resource Management Plan (RMP) for the West Eugene Wetlands planning area located in western Oregon. The Oregon/Washington State Director signed the ROD on April 17, 2015, which constitutes the final decision of the BLM and makes the Approved RMP effective immediately.
Copies of the ROD/Approved RMP are available upon request from the Eugene District Manager, Bureau of Land Management, 3106 Pierce Parkway, Suite E, Springfield, OR 97477, or via the internet at:
Panchita Paulete, Planning and Environmental Coordinator, telephone 541-683-6976; address 3106 Pierce Parkway, Suite E; Springfield, OR 97477; email
Interaction with the public regarding this RMP began in 2011. The BLM worked with three cooperating agencies: the US Army Corps of Engineers, the City of Eugene Parks and Open Space Division, and The Confederated Tribes of the Grand Ronde. The RMP establishes direction for approximately 1,340 acres of BLM-administered lands in and near the city of Eugene in Lane County, Oregon; the planning area did not previously have an RMP. The planning area is made up of acquired lands and survey hiatuses. The Approved RMP describes the actions that will meet desired resource conditions for threatened and endangered species and habitat management, while providing other benefits. The Preferred Alternative, described in the October 2011 Draft RMP/Draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS), was modified to increase acreage within the Prairie Restoration Area land use allocation for threatened and endangered species management, to provide increased opportunities for recreation, and to provide for coordinated management in traditional use plant collection and was carried forward as the Proposed RMP in the Final EIS (November 2014). No protests were received on the Proposed RMP/Final EIS.
The Governor of Oregon was provided a formal, 60-day review period to determine if the Proposed RMP/Final EIS was consistent with existing state or local plans, programs, and policies. No inconsistencies were identified.
There are two implementation decisions in the Approved RMP which are appealable under 43 CFR part 4: (a) designation of travel management networks, including identifying the specific roads and trails that are available for public use and the limitations on use of roads and trails and (b) continued application of the
Please consult the appropriate regulations (43 CFR, part 4, subpart E) for further appeal requirements.
40 CFR 1506.6, 40 CFR 1506.10, 43 CFR 1610.2.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
The purpose of this notice is to inform the public and interested State and local government officials of the filing of Plats of Survey in Nevada.
Michael O. Harmening, Chief, Branch of Geographic Sciences, Bureau of Land Management, Nevada State Office, 1340 Financial Blvd., Reno, NV 89502-7147, phone: 775-861-6490. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual during normal business hours. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
1. The Plat of Survey of the following described lands will be officially filed at the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Nevada State Office, Reno, Nevada on the first business day after thirty (30) days from the publication of this notice: This plat, in 3 sheets, representing the dependent resurvey of a portion of the south and west boundaries, a survey of a portion of the subdivisional lines and metes-and-bounds surveys of certain boundary lines in sections 28, 29, 30 and 31, Township 13 North, Range 27 East, Mount Diablo Meridian, under Group No. 941, was accepted May 14, 2015. This survey was executed at the request of the Bureau of Land Management, Carson City District Office, Nevada, to facilitate the conveyance of certain public lands to the Municipality of Yerington, Nevada, as authorized in the National Defense Authorization Act of Fiscal Year 2015 (Pub. L. 113-291).
The survey listed above is now the basic record for describing the lands for all authorized purposes. These records have been placed in the open files in the BLM Nevada State Office and are available to the public as a matter of information. Copies of the survey and related field notes may be furnished to the public upon payment of the appropriate fees.
On October 7, 2014, Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) Christopher B. McNeil issued the attached Recommended Decision (hereinafter, R.D.). Therein, the ALJ found it undisputed that Respondent no longer holds a Texas Pharmacy License and is thus not authorized to dispense controlled substances in the State in which it seeks registration under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA). R.D. at 6. The ALJ thus concluded that Respondent is not a “practitioner” within the meaning of the CSA and is therefore not entitled to be registered. R.D. at 7 (citing 21 U.S.C. 802(21) & 823(f)). Accordingly, the ALJ granted the Government's Motion for Summary Disposition and recommended that I deny its application.
The ALJ did not, however, address the Government's further contention that it was also entitled to summary disposition because Respondent's proposed business model of shipping filled controlled substance prescriptions to a patient's prescribing physician rather than directly to the patient, violates federal law.
As support for its contention, the Government argues that I should reach the issue because it “was fully briefed by the parties,” “there is no dispute as to any material fact,” and “the issue is likely to recur with the Respondent” because its “owner has stated his intent to reapply for a state license and pursue opening the pharmacy.”
While Respondent agrees with the Government,
Respondent's position apparently stems from the Texas Pharmacy Act and a regulation of the Texas Board of Pharmacy which authorize disciplinary action against the holder of a pharmacy license if the Board finds that the holder has “failed to engage in or ceased to engage in the business described in the application for a license.” Tex. Occ. Code § 565.002(7);
However, Respondent does not explain why it could not have opened for business and dispensed non-controlled drugs while it challenged the denial of its application.
Moreover, were I to adopt the Government's position, so long as the Respondent does not hold the requisite state authority and is not entitled to be registered, my decision would be an advisory opinion.
Whether this is deemed to be an issue of mootness, because Respondent once held the requisite state license but chose to surrender it, or ripeness, because Respondent has not obtained a new state license (which is a prerequisite to registration,
I therefore adopt the ALJ's Recommended Decision
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f) and 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that the application of The Main Pharmacy, for a DEA Certificate of Registration as a Retail Pharmacy, be, and it hereby is, denied. This Order is effective immediately.
Christopher B. McNeil, Administrative Law Judge. On August 18, 2013, The Main Pharmacy, the respondent in this case, submitted an application to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) seeking a new DEA retail pharmacy registration that would permit the dispensing of Schedules II through V controlled substances.
On August 18, 2014, the Deputy Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration, Office of Diversion Control, filed an Order to Show Cause proposing to deny the application pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1), (3) and (4) and 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
On September 9, 2014, Respondent, through its Applicant, Nemuel E. Pettie, Esq., filed a timely request for hearing.
I received the Government's Motion for Summary Disposition on September 10, 2014, with proof of service upon Respondent, accompanied by supporting documentation. In my Order of September 10, 2014, I directed the Government to provide evidence to support the allegation that Respondent lacks state authority to handle controlled substances. The factual premise relied upon by the Government in support of its motion is that Respondent does not have a pharmacy license issued by the Texas State Board of Pharmacy, the state in which Respondent seeks to be registered.
The substantial issue raised by the Government rests on an undisputed fact. The Government asserts that Respondent's application must be summarily denied because Respondent does not have a pharmacy license issued by the state in which it intends to operate.
In Respondent's Answer to Movant's Motion for Summary Disposition, Respondent never disputed the Government's contention that The Main Pharmacy was not currently licensed by the State of Texas to operate a pharmacy.
Respondent stated that the Texas State Pharmacy Board requires that a pharmacy be open and in operation within six months of the issuance of its license.
Respondent alternatively argues that the case should not be dismissed under the doctrine of
On August 18, 2014, the Deputy Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration, Office of Diversion Control, filed an Order to Show Cause proposing to deny the application pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1), (3) and (4) and 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
The case before me is presented under a grant of authority to recommend that the Administrator either grant or deny Respondent's application for a DEA retail-pharmacy license. Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 823(f), the DEA may grant such an application only to a pharmacy “practitioner.” Under 21 U.S.C. 802(21), a “practitioner” must be “licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted, by the United States or the jurisdiction in which he practices or does research, to distribute [or] dispense . . . controlled substance[s.]” Given this statutory language, the DEA Administrator does not have the authority under the Controlled Substances Act to grant a registration to a practitioner if that practitioner is not authorized to dispense controlled substances.
Respondent asserted that the Government is barred by the equitable doctrine of “clean hands” from moving for summary disposition.
Therefore, the protection of the public is preeminent, and the Agency is limited in its authority to direct relief under equitable principles.
In a case that has strong parallels to the case at hand,
Respondent's alternative argument, that this is a case “capable of repetition, yet evading review,” does not compel a contrary outcome.
The Government does not directly address the premise that The Main Pharmacy is intended to “cater to accident victims only.”
Given this body of law, the material fact here, indeed the sole fact of consequence, is whether Respondent is authorized by the State of Texas to dispense controlled substances. Where, as here, no material fact is in dispute, there is no need for an evidentiary hearing and summary disposition is appropriate.
In determining whether to grant the Government's Motion for Summary Disposition, I am required to apply the principle of law that holds such a motion may be granted in an administrative proceeding if no material question of fact exists:
It is settled law that when no fact question is involved or the facts are agreed, a plenary, adversary administrative proceeding involving evidence, cross-examination of witnesses, etc., is not obligatory—even though a pertinent statute prescribes a hearing. In such situations, the rationale is that Congress does not intend administrative agencies to perform meaningless tasks (citations omitted).
In this context, I am further guided by prior decisions before the DEA involving certificate holders who lacked licenses to distribute or dispense controlled substances. On the issue of whether an evidentiary hearing is required, “it is well settled that when there is no question of material fact involved, there is no need for a plenary, administrative hearing.”
The sole determinative fact now before me is that Respondent lacks a Texas pharmacy license. In order for a pharmacy to receive a DEA registration authorizing it to dispense controlled substances under 21 U.S.C. 823(f), it must meet the definition of “practitioner” as found in the Controlled Substances Act.
As cited by the Government in its Motion for Summary Disposition, there is substantial authority both through agency precedent and through decisions of courts in review of that precedent, holding that an application for a retail pharmacy DEA registration is dependent upon the applicant having a state license to dispense controlled substances.
I am mindful of the arguments raised by Respondent in its Answer to Movant's Motion, including the fact that Respondent's lack of a pharmacy license is based on Respondent's voluntary withdrawal of its pharmacy license to avoid state sanctions as a result of delays by the DEA.
Some care should be taken to assure the parties that the actions taken in this administrative proceeding conform to constitutional requirements. I have examined the parties' contentions with an eye towards ensuring all tenets of due process have been adhered to. There is, however, no authority for me to evaluate the facts that underlie Respondent's contentions. In the proceedings now before me, the only material question was answered by Respondent in its Request for Hearing. Further, while the Order to Show Cause sets forth a non-exhaustive summary of facts and law relevant to a determination that granting this application would be inconsistent with the public interest under 21 U.S.C. 823(f), the conclusion, order and recommendation that follow are based solely on a finding that Respondent is not a “practitioner” as that term is defined by 21 U.S.C. 802(21), and I make no finding regarding whether granting this application would or would not be inconsistent with the public interest.
I find there is no genuine dispute regarding whether Respondent is a “practitioner” as that term is defined by 21 U.S.C. 802(21), and that based on the record the Government has established that Respondent is not a practitioner and is not authorized to dispense controlled substances in the state in which it seeks to operate under a DEA Certificate of Registration. I find no other material facts at issue, for the reasons set forth in the Government's Motion for Summary Disposition. Accordingly, I GRANT the Government's Motion for Summary Disposition.
Upon this finding, I ORDER that this case be forwarded to the Administrator for final disposition and I RECOMMEND the Administrator DENY Respondent's application for a DEA Certificate of Registration.
On January 24, 2013, I, the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration, issued an Order to Show Cause and Immediate Suspension of Registration (hereinafter, OTSC-ISO or Order) to Keith Ky Ly, D.O. (Respondent), of Mountlake Terrace, Washington. GX 2, at 1. The Order proposed the revocation of Respondent's DEA Certificate of Registration, which authorizes him to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V, as a practitioner, as well as the denial of any pending applications to renew or modify his registration, on the ground that his “continued registration is inconsistent with the public interest, as that term is defined in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).”
More specifically, the OTSC-ISO alleged that on February 2, 2012, law enforcement officers arrested Respondent's girlfriend, who was then driving his vehicle, for driving with a suspended license and that during a search of the vehicle, found “one pound of marijuana, approximately $3,900 cash in a vacuum sealed bag located in [her] purse, $5,000 cash located in a hidden compartment, and three prescription bottles containing controlled substances located in” her backpack.
Next, the OTSC-ISO alleged that law enforcement officers discovered that several premises owned by Respondent were being used as marijuana-grow houses.
Next, the OTSC-ISO alleged that on July 13, 2012, DEA personnel “conducted an inspection and audit at [Respondent's] registered address.”
Finally, the OTSC-ISO alleged that Respondent “failed to make required dispensing reports” to the Washington State Prescription Monitoring Program “on approximately 45 separate occasions from January to July 2012.”
Based on the above, I made a preliminary finding that Respondent “illegally manufactured controlled substances in violation of state and federal law, illegally possessed and distributed highly addictive controlled substances . . . and ha[d] generally failed to maintain effective controls to guard against theft and prevent diversion of controlled substances.”
According to the Declaration of a DEA Diversion Investigator (DI), on January 28, 2013, DEA Special Agents and DIs went to Respondent's registered location and personally served him with the OTSC-ISO, along with “a sample request for hearing form.” DI Declaration, at 9. According to the DI, later that same day, he also hand-delivered a copy of the OTSC-ISO and the hearing request form to Respondent's “attorney at the time.”
The OTSC-ISO plainly advised that: (1) “[w]ithin 30 days after the date of receipt of this Order to Show Cause and Immediate Suspension of Registration, you may file with the DEA a written request for a hearing in the form set forth in 21 CFR 1316.47”; (2) “[i]f you fail to file such a request, the hearing shall be cancelled in accordance with paragraph 3”; (3) “[s]hould you decline to file a request for a hearing . . . you shall be deemed to have waived the right to a hearing and the DEA may cancel such hearing”; (4) “[c]orrespondence concerning this matter, including requests [for a hearing] should be addressed to the Hearing Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges [OALJ] . . . 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152”; and (5) “[m]atters are deemed filed upon receipt by the Hearing Clerk.” GX 2, at 4-5 (citations omitted). Notwithstanding this, Respondent did not file a request for hearing with the Office of Administrative Law Judges until April 4, 2013. GX 4, at 1.
The matter was then assigned to an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ), who ordered that the proceeding be terminated because Respondent had “failed to timely request a hearing and failed to assert good cause for his 36-day delay.”
In the motion, Respondent did “not contest that he was effectively served with a copy of the” OTSC-ISO.
Respondent further asserted that he “discussed the matter with an assistant in his office, who believed the correct place to file the appeal was with the office of the United States Attorney General.”
Next, Respondent contended that on March 14, 2013, he was advised by his then-counsel that the latter “and his partner had decided not to represent [him] in this . . . proceeding,” but that “[t]his was after the request for hearing deadline had expired.”
Respondent asserted that he “was confused about how and where to file his request for a hearing” and that “[t]he source of his confusion came from his
Respondent argued that his case is similar to that of
Respondent also relied on
Based on
The ALJ granted Respondent's motion for reconsideration but then denied his motion to reopen the proceedings. Order Granting Respondent's Motion for Reconsideration and Denying Respondent's Motion to Reopen the Case, at 10 (Order on Reconsideration) (GX 7). While concluding that she had jurisdiction to consider Respondent's motion for reconsideration, the ALJ rejected Respondent's contention that he had shown good cause for his untimely filing.
First, the ALJ rejected Respondent's contention that under
Next, the ALJ rejected Respondent's contention that “good cause” existed to excuse his untimely filing because his former attorney “committed `excusable neglect.' ”
The ALJ found that Respondent was represented by another attorney “at the time [he] was served with the Order to Show Cause,” and that this attorney did not inform him that he would not represent him in the DEA proceeding until after the deadline had passed for filing his hearing request.
Finally, the ALJ rejected Respondent's contention that his “confusion . . . support[ed] a finding of `good cause.' ”
The ALJ thus rejected Respondent's contention that he had shown good cause to excuse his untimely filing.
Thereafter, the Government forwarded a Request for Final Agency Action and the Investigative Record to me. Having reviewed the record, I adopt the ALJ's finding that Respondent did not demonstrate good cause for his failure to file his hearing request within the thirty-day period as required by 21 CFR 1301.43(a).
As the ALJ explained, the OTSC-ISO provided a clear explanation as to the procedure to be followed for filing a hearing request. That procedure required that Respondent or his representative file his hearing request with the “Hearing Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, Drug Enforcement Administration, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152,” and that “[m]atters are deemed filed upon receipt by the Hearing Clerk.” GX 2, at 5.
Moreover, the OTSC-ISO included an attachment entitled: “REQUEST FOR HEARING.”
Also unavailing is Respondent's reliance on
In his affidavit, Respondent asserts that he “sought the advice of and had several conversations with” his former attorney “concerning the OSC and filing an appeal,” and that “[b]ased on these conversations, I `filed' an appeal NOT with the DEA . . . Office of the Administrative Law Judges, but instead with the Office of the Inspector General.” Respondent's Declaration, at 9. To the extent Respondent seeks to rely on the advice he received from his former attorney to support a showing of good cause, his vague assertions do not establish that he was ever told not to comply with the instructions on the OTSC-ISO. Nor does Respondent assert that his former attorney ever agreed to represent him in this matter, let alone that he agreed to file a request for a hearing on Respondent's behalf. To the extent Respondent relies on his own confusion as the reason for his untimely filing,
As for Respondent's assertion that he “discussed the matter . . . with an assistant in [his] office, who believed that the correct place to send the appeal was to the office of the Attorney General,” Resp. Decl., at 9; this begs the question of why he did not discuss where to file his appeal with the attorney (who had also received a copy of the OTSC-ISO) he was then consulting with.
Respondent further argues that “[t]he acceptance and retention by [the DI] of the appeal request . . . was misleading, particularly when he and [another DI] actively encouraged [him] to file his appeal correctly AFTER the appeal period had lapsed” and that [t]his was a source of conflicting guidance for” him.
Accordingly, I hold that Respondent has failed to demonstrate good cause to excuse his failure to timely file his hearing request. I therefore find that Respondent has waived his right to a hearing on the allegations and issue this Decision and Order based on the Investigative Record (including Respondent's Declaration) submitted by the Government. I make the following findings.
Respondent was the holder of DEA Certificate of Registration #BL6283927, pursuant to which he was authorized, prior to the Immediate Suspension of his registration, to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V as a practitioner, at the registered address of 6603 220th Street SW., Mountlake Terrace, Washington 98043. GX 1.
Respondent is also licensed by the State of Washington (as well as by the States of Texas and California) as an Osteopathic Physician. Resp. Declaration, at 1. According to Respondent, he has never been subject to discipline by any state licensing body.
With respect to the Texas Medical Board, on May 20, 2011, Respondent entered into an Agreed Order.
Accordingly, I find that notwithstanding his statement, Respondent has been subject to discipline by a state licensing body. While the basis of the Texas Board's action does not provide a reason under the CSA for DEA to take any action against Respondent's registration, Respondent's statement was nonetheless false and clearly offered to influence the decision of the Agency to grant him a hearing on the allegations. Accordingly, I consider Respondent's lack of candor in assessing the credibility of the various assertions contained in his declaration.
According to the DI, on February 2, 2012, Respondent's girlfriend (TB),
Following the arrest of Respondent's girlfriend, the police apparently impounded his car, and upon searching it, found one pound of marijuana,
As for the cash, Respondent offered two explanations for its source. First, he maintained that the day before, a patient paid him $5000 cash as a deposit for a liposuction procedure. Resp. Decl., at 3. Respondent also produced an unsworn letter from the purported patient to this effect and a form entitled: “SmartLipo & Coolsculpting Price Quote.”
Second, as found above, Respondent maintained that he had withdrawn $5,000 from his bank account on January 24, 2012 to pay for clinic remodeling, and that he had placed the money “in the small hidden compartment space of the car.” Resp. Decl., at 3. To support his claim, Respondent produced a bank statement showing that he made a cash withdrawal of $5,000. Resp. Ex. 3. However, numerous entries in the statement, including Respondent's various balances for both his checking and savings account, are blacked out.
Putting aside that Respondent offered two different stories as for why so much cash was found in his car, I find neither explanation credible. As for the claim that the money was from a patient who had paid $5,000 cash the day before for a procedure, the patient's statement is unsworn and thus lacks even the most basic indicia of reliability. Moreover, on the price quote form, the date of the patient's deposit was clearly written over. Also, even acknowledging that the patient's procedure was likely not covered by insurance, it seems most unlikely that the patient would pay this
As for his second story, it also seems most unlikely that Respondent would pay to remodel his clinic with cash (rather than check or credit card), let alone be carrying that much cash around in his car for nine days. By contrast, carrying large sums of cash is consistent with engaging in the distribution of marijuana.
In his declaration, the DI also asserted that the search of the vehicle found “multiple prescription bottles containing pills,” and that one of the bottles bore a label indicating that the drugs had been prescribed to T.V., “an office employee of” Respondent. DI's Decl., at 2 (citing GX 9). The DI further stated that “[t]wo of the bottles found in the vehicle . . . were unlabeled and contained phentermine and phendimetrazine.”
Respondent did not dispute that drugs were found in TB's backpack. Rather, he asserted that they “belonged to my office manager,” that he had prescribed the drugs “for her liposuction procedure pain a few months prior,” and that the drugs were “left at my house when she visited for [a] dinner party.” Resp. Decl., at 3. Respondent then maintained that “[a]s a medical doctor, I do not encourage nor allow any patients to share medication” and that he “would absolutely terminate my employee if found engaging in sharing medication and would report them to the authorities.”
Consistent with Respondent's admission, the record does include a photograph of a prescription vial; its label lists the patient as a person whose name corresponds with the initials T.V., the drug as hydrocodone/acetaminophen, and Respondent as the prescriber.
Moreover, Government Exhibits 8, 9, 10, 11a, 11b, 13, 14, and 15 each contain the exact same set of eight photographs, although not necessarily in the same order. Providing multiple copies of the exact same set of photographs does not, however, make the first set of photographs any more probative of the facts for which they were offered.
In support of the DI's assertion that two unlabeled vials which contained phentermine and phendimetrazine were also seized, the DI cited Government Exhibit 10, but without regard to the specific page. However, in his declaration, the DI offered no statement to the effect that he participated in the search of Respondent's car, nor otherwise set forth the basis of his knowledge for making this assertion. Nor does the record contain any affidavits or police reports prepared by those officers who did participate in the arrest and search, nor other documents such as an inventory of the search, a chain of custody, and lab test results, which would support the DI's assertion.
Indeed, while Government Exhibit 10 contains eight photographs, in reviewing this matter it is apparent that the exhibit is not limited to the evidence that was seized following the search of Respondent's car, but also contained photographs of evidence that may well have been seized during several of the searches described below. Most significantly, the Exhibit contains two photographs of vials (one showing two vials, the other showing a single vial) which were missing their labels, with no identification of when and from whom the vials were seized. Finally, while at least two of the vials appear to contain tablets (the third vial being murky), the Government provided no evidence (such as lab test results) explaining the basis for the DI's assertion that these vials contained phentermine and phendimetrazine.
As noted above, the Show Cause Order also alleged that state and local law enforcement officers conducted searches of four different premises which Respondent owned, and found marijuana plants at his properties which were located in Renton and Shoreline, Washington, as well as six bags of processed marijuana at the latter property. GX 2, at 2. In addition, the Show Cause Order alleged that marijuana grow documents and “15 grams of processed marijuana” were found at Respondent's personal residence, and that both marijuana grow equipment and marijuana leaves were found at a fourth property he owns.
In his declaration, the DI made various assertions with respect to each of the searches. For example, with respect to the May 30, 2012 search of the Renton residence, the DI stated that the Renton Fire Department had responded to an electrical fire at the premises, which “is owned by” Respondent and “discovered a large marijuana grow,” and that thereafter, “[t]he Renton Police Department executed a search warrant of the residence and seized approximately 700 marijuana plants.” DI Decl., at 2. The DI further stated that Respondent “told law enforcement that he rented the [premises] to [one] Jack Tran,” but that the police “were unable to locate and/or identify Mr. Tran.”
With respect to the July 5, 2012 search of the Shoreline residence, the DI stated that it was owned by Respondent, and that during the search by state and local law enforcement, “approximately 489 marijuana plants and six (6) bags of processed marijuana” were seized.
That being said, the DI's affidavit contains numerous assertions for which there is no foundation to conclude that they are based on the DI's “personal knowledge” as that term is commonly understood. Indeed, many of the DI's assertions regarding the searches of Respondent's properties appear to be based on hearsay statements, the reliability of which cannot be assessed because the DI did not identify the source of the information and the Government did not include various documents (such as police reports, search inventories, and test results) in the record.
More specifically, the DI asserts that TB and three other persons were arrested during the search of the Shoreline residence; that during an interview with law enforcement, TB admitted that she was learning how to grow marijuana; and that two of the persons had loose phentermine tablets in their pockets. Again, the DI offered no statement to the effect that he participated in either the search of the Shoreline residence or the interview of TB. Nor did he set forth any other basis for these assertions.
As for the two marijuana tenders who purportedly possessed loose phentermine, the DI further asserted that “[s]tate law requires the labeling of dispensed medication” and that “[t]he lack of labeled prescription bottles suggests the controlled substances were diverted.” DI's Decl., at 3. This too may be true, but there is no evidence in the record establishing the names of these individuals and that they obtained the controlled substances from Respondent. Indeed, while the DI cited GX 11 as support for his assertion that these individuals possessed phentermine, this exhibit simply contains a series of photographs including two of white tablets (one of which contains a red form which is illegible), various prescription vials (some of which contain pills, others which it is unclear if they do) and bottles containing various drug samples. Even assuming that the white tablets are phentermine (even though there is no evidence they were tested), nothing in the record establishes from whom and when these tablets were seized.
The DI further asserted that L.E. was one of the marijuana tenders arrested during this search, and that using the Washington State Prescription Monitoring Program, “[i]t was discovered . . . that in June 2012, [Respondent] prescribed 30 dosage units of 10/500 mg hydrocodone to L.E.”
Government Exhibit 12 is a copy of a prescription issued by Respondent on June 28, 2012 for thirty (30) tablets of Lortab (hydrocodone/acetaminophen) 10/500.
Regarding the July 6, 2012 search of Respondent's and TB's residence (which is owned by the former), the DI asserted that state and local law enforcement seized “firearms, marijuana grow documents, approximately 15 grams of processed marijuana, and multiple prescription bottles containing pills.” DI Decl., at 4. The DI then stated that Investigators found “an unlabeled” vial, “which contained hydrocodone”; one labeled vial, “which contained clonazepam that [Respondent] prescribed to patient R.M. in 2010”; and two “stock bottles that contained Meridia and diazepam”; even though Respondent “was not, nor has ever been, registered with DEA at his Bothell residence.”
As for the unlabeled prescription bottle which purportedly contained hydrocodone, here again, the DI's Declaration is devoid of any statement that he was present during the search and there is no other evidence establishing that the vials were seized from Respondent's residence. And while GX 13 contains a photograph of two vials, with pills that are barely visible in the vials, there is no photograph of the pills outside of the vials, which might have shown that the pills bore the NDC Code for hydrocodone. Nor is there any evidence establishing that the pills were tested by a laboratory and found to be hydrocodone.
As for the DI's assertion that the police also seized a vial containing clonazepam, here again, there is no evidence either that the DI was present during the search of Respondent's residence or that a vial containing this drug was seized during that search. And while the record contains a photograph of a vial, which bears a label listing Respondent as the prescriber, the drug as clonazepam, and the patient's name corresponding with the initials R.M., there is no evidence establishing that any pills were in the vial, let alone that the pills were clonazepam.
Turning to the DI's assertion that Respondent “also possessed two (2) stock bottles that contained Meridia and diazepam,” here again, there is no evidence establishing that the DI participated in the search of Respondent's residence, or any other evidence establishing that these drugs were seized during that search. To be sure, the Government cites to an exhibit, which contains several photographs, including one which shows six white bottles (several of which are clearly marked as professional samples) which bear the manufacturer's label for such drugs as Viagra, Topiramate, Ultram ER, and Meridia.
Finally, the DI stated that on July 7, 2012, state and local law enforcement executed a search warrant at a fourth residence which is owned by Respondent and located in Marysville, Washington. DI Decl., at 5. The DI further stated that during the search, the officers “seized some marijuana grow equipment and marijuana leaves.”
Regarding the searches of the properties other than his residence, Respondent acknowledged that he owned “three rental properties.” Resp. Decl., at 3. He also acknowledged that
On May 22, 2013, Respondent was indicted in United States District Court for the Western District of Washington and charged with conspiracy to manufacture and distribute marijuana. DI Decl., at 11;
The superseding indictment alleged that Respondent and others conspired to grow marijuana at several residential properties and that Respondent “made at least three of those properties available . . . for the purpose of manufacturing marijuana,” that he “purport[ed] to rent [the houses] to others, knowing that the persons listed as `tenants' for these properties did not, in fact, reside there and/or did not pay rent,” that he and his co-conspirators “set up large-scale marijuana grows for the purpose of manufacturing marijuana within the houses” and “caused the electrical power in these houses to be diverted around the meters, thus stealing power to run the marijuana grows,” and that he and his co-conspirators “recruited and directed others to help grow and harvest the marijuana plants, and maintain the houses and yards at these properties.” Superseding Indictment, at 2,
Respondent went to trial; the jury found him guilty on all counts.
According to the DI's affidavit, on July 13, 2012, DEA Investigators visited Respondent's registered location and upon obtaining his consent, conducted an inspection. DI's Decl., at 6;
The DIs determined that Respondent “failed to take and maintain an initial or biennial inventory of all stocks of controlled substances on hand.”
As part of the record, the Government submitted a copy of Respondent's dispensing log. GX 21. A review of the log corroborates the DI's assertion that many of the entries which record the dispensing of controlled substances lack various items of information required by federal law, including the patient's address and the dispenser's initials.
The DI also asserted that Respondent “failed to maintain or provide any dispensing/administration records for Testosterone and Testim samples located at the registered location.” DI Decl., at 7. The DI further asserted that Respondent did not “maintain[ ] at least four Schedule III-V acquisition invoices and by not recording the dates of receipt on at least five invoices.”
The DIs also conducted an audit of the controlled substances which were located at Respondent's registered location.
The DI then asserted that the “audit revealed large shortages of testosterone, phentermine, phendimetrazine, and a 14% shortage or[sic] hydrocodone.”
The Government also submitted a document which appears to be the aforesaid summary of Respondent's controlled substance purchases from A.F. Hauser between January 1, 2010 and July 24, 2012,
This disparity has a material impact on the accuracy of the audit results. For example, according to the DI's declaration (and the computation chart), Respondent was short more than 6,000 dosage units of phentermine. Yet, according to the summary of Respondent's purchases and the invoices, Respondent only purchased 3,000 dosage units of phentermine during 2012. Thus, if—as stated by the DI—the beginning date of the audit period was January 1, 2012 and zero was assigned as the opening inventory, Respondent could not have been short 6,000 dosage units.
So too, in his declaration, the DI asserted that Respondent was short more than 2,100 phendimetrazine tablets (the same figure listed on the computation chart, which also lists 3,000 dosage units as having been purchased). However, the Government's other evidence shows that Respondent did not purchase any phendimetrazine during 2012.
As for the testosterone, while there is evidence that Respondent also purchased testosterone in February 2012, the data as presented in the computation chart suggests that he purchased 400 10ml bottles and that he could not account for 300 bottles.
With respect to the remaining drugs, there is evidence that Respondent purchased 500 dosage units of hydrocodone during 2012 (GX 19) and was short 71 tablets. GX 23. There is also evidence that at the time of the July 2012 inspection, Respondent had on hand 21 Testim 1% samples. While the DIs concluded that Respondent had an overage of these 21 samples, there is no evidence as to who distributed the samples to him and there is no evidence the DIs asked Respondent for any of the documentation establishing the amount of Testim that was distributed to him.
In his declaration, the DI further asserted that Respondent failed to report to the State of Washington's Prescription Monitoring Program (PMP), “at least 45 occasions from January through July 2012” in which he “dispensed more than a 24-hour supply of controlled substances.” DI Decl., at 8. According to the DI, this was a violation of Washington law.
Regarding this allegation, Respondent stated that he “was not aware of this Washington State law requirement . . . [and] thus cannot have . . . repeatedly failed” to comply or to have shown a “consistent disregard” for this requirement. Resp. Decl., at 8. Respondent then stated that “I am now made fully aware and will comply with the law. This is not an intentional violation.”
Under the CSA, “[a] registration pursuant to section 823 of this title to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance . . . may be suspended or revoked by the Attorney General upon a finding that the registrant . . . has committed such acts as would render his registration under section 823 of this title inconsistent with the public interest as determined under such section.”
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The [registrant's] experience in dispensing, or conducting research with respect to controlled substances.
(3) The [registrant's] conviction record under Federal or State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.
“[T]hese factors are . . . considered in the disjunctive.”
The Government has the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requirements for revocation or suspension pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a) are met. 21 CFR 1301.44(e). This is so even in a non-contested case.
In this matter, I have considered all of the factors. While I find that some of the allegations are not supported by substantial evidence, I nonetheless find that the Government's evidence with respect to factors one, two, three, and four establishes that he has committed acts which render his registration “inconsistent with the public interest.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f). While I have also considered Respondent's declaration with respect to the various allegations, I conclude that he has not presented sufficient evidence to rebut this conclusion. Accordingly, I will affirm the suspension of his registration and
As found above, on September 22, 2014, the Washington Board of Osteopathic Medicine and Surgery issued Respondent an Ex Parte Order of Summary Action, pursuant to which, his authority to practice medicine in the State was suspended. Under the CSA, a practitioner's possession of authority to dispense controlled substances under the laws of the State in which he seeks registration is a prerequisite to obtaining a registration.
Because Respondent is no longer authorized by the State of Washington to practice medicine and dispense controlled substances, he is not authorized to hold a registration in that State. This provides reason alone to deny his application. However, because the Government also seeks a final order based on the allegations of the Order to Show Cause and Immediate Suspension of Registration, I address the evidence with respect to the other public interest factors.
The Government contends that Respondent unlawfully distributed controlled substances to various persons who were arrested during the search of his Shoreline property. Req. for Final Agency Action, at 10 (citing,
Neither of these allegations is proved by substantial evidence. As for the allegation regarding the hydrocodone prescription, as found above, in his Declaration, the DI repeatedly referred to this person as L.E. Yet to support the allegation, the Government offered a copy of a prescription which was issued to a patient whose initials are H.L. and not L.E. Moreover, the Government points to no other evidence that Respondent even prescribed hydrocodone (or any controlled substance for that matter) to a person whose initials are L.E. Thus, the allegation is unsupported by substantial evidence.
As for the allegation that the phentermine was found on two persons who were arrested during the Shoreline search and was distributed to them by Respondent, while the Government produced evidence that Respondent had ordered phentermine from his distributor several months earlier, the evidence offered to establish that phentermine was found on these individuals was limited to the DI's assertion that it was. The DI did not, however, offer any basis for concluding that he personally participated in the search—notwithstanding his assertion that his declaration was based on “personal knowledge”—nor otherwise explain the basis for his statement. Finally, the Government offered no other evidence to prove this assertion such as a police report, an affidavit of the arresting officer, or an inventory of the items found during the search conducted incident to the purported arrest of these individuals. The allegation therefore fails for lack of substantial evidence.
The evidence further shows that Respondent purchased controlled substances including hydrocodone with acetaminophen, phentermine, phendimetrazine, testosterone, and lorazepam, which he dispensed directly to his patients. Under federal law, Respondent was required upon “first engag[ing] in the . . . dispensing of controlled substances, and every second year thereafter, [to] make a complete and accurate record of all stocks thereof on hand.” 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(1). Also, under federal law, because he engaged in the dispensing of the controlled substances, Respondent was required to “maintain, on a current basis, a complete and accurate record of each such substance . . . received, sold, delivered, or otherwise disposed of by him.”
Here, I give no weight to the audit results given the numerous problems found above, including the conflict in the Government's evidence as to what the DIs used as the beginning date for the audit period. Nonetheless, I find that the DI's declaration establishes that during the July 2012 inspection, Respondent could not produce the required inventories for the controlled substances he was handling, and was thus in violation of 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(1).
As both the Agency and the federal courts have explained, recordkeeping is one of the CSA's fundamental features for preventing the diversion of controlled substances.
Respondent's recordkeeping violations alone are sufficiently egregious to support the conclusion that he “has committed such acts [which] render[ed] his registration . . . inconsistent with the public interest.” 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4);
As found above, following a jury trial, on December 19, 2014, Respondent was convicted by the United States District Court on seven felony counts related to the manufacture and distribution of marijuana, including conspiracy to distribute or manufacture marijuana, three counts of manufacturing marijuana, and three counts of maintaining drug involved premises.
With respect to this factor, the Government raises three main allegations. First, based on the various searches, the Government argues that Respondent possessed and was engaged in the manufacture of marijuana, a schedule I controlled substance. Request for Final Agency Action, at 8-9 (citing 21 U.S.C. 841(a)(1), 844(a); 812(c)). Second, the Government alleges that during the search of Respondent's residence, several vials of controlled substances were found including one each of clonazepam and hydrocodone, the latter being in an unlabeled vial, as well as stock bottles of Meridia and diazepam, and that Respondent's possession of the drugs violated federal law because he was not registered at his residence.
As for the latter allegation, Respondent did not dispute that he had failed to report various dispensings to the State's PMP. Resp. Decl., at 8. Rather, he claimed his violations were unintentional because he was unaware of the law but would now comply.
However, this is not a valid defense as the Washington courts follow the traditional rule that ignorance of the law is no excuse.
As for the allegations pertaining to the controlled substances that the police found during the search of Respondent's residence, I conclude that the Government did not provide substantial evidence to support the allegations with respect to any of the four drugs (Meridia, diazepam, clonazepam (in a vial indicating that Respondent had prescribed the drug to R.M.) or hydrocodone (in an unlabeled vial)). With respect to the diazepam, the Government produced absolutely no evidence that the drug was even seized during the search. With respect to the Meridia, the Government's evidence was limited to a photograph of a white professional sample bottle and the DI's unsupported assertion, with no other evidence to establish that the bottle was seized from Respondent's residence, let alone that there were any pills in the bottle when it was seized.
So too, with respect to the hydrocodone and clonazepam, there is no evidence other than photographs and the DI's unsupported assertion that these drugs were seized during the search of Respondent's residence. To be sure, in his declaration, Respondent stated that he prescribed the hydrocodone and clonazepam to his wife for several procedures. However, Respondent explicitly denied having or storing clonazepam or hydrocodone at his home and his statements do not constitute an admission of any part of this allegation. Accordingly, these allegations fail for lack of substantial evidence.
I also find that substantial evidence supports the remaining marijuana-related allegation—that on February 2, 2012, Respondent violated federal law by possessing marijuana, and that he did so with the intent to distribute. Most significantly, it is undisputed that upon the February 2, 2012 arrest of TB, (Respondent's then live-in girlfriend and now wife), who was then driving his car, the police impounded his vehicle and during the subsequent search of the vehicle found one pound of marijuana and $5,000 in cash; the police also found $3,900 in cash in TB's purse.
As found above, the street value of the marijuana was approximately $1,500 to $1,800, and the quantity would provide approximately 900 joints. Respondent denied having any knowledge of the marijuana, asserting that it had been left in his car by LHE, a friend of TB and a purported medical marijuana patient who TB allowed to borrow his car, and provided an unsworn statement from LHE to this effect. However, as I found above, her statement (that she left the marijuana in the car because she was in
Moreover, given the closeness of the relationship between Respondent and TB in that they were living together and that TB also worked for him, I find it implausible that Respondent lacked knowledge of the marijuana. Rather, I find that Respondent had the ability to exercise dominion or control over the marijuana through TB and thus constructively possessed the drug.
So too, Respondent's attempt to explain the presence of the large sum of cash (nearly $9,000) that was found in his car and on his wife's person does not persuade. As for the money which was purportedly paid by a patient the day before as a deposit on a liposuction procedure, as found previously, while the “Price Quote” document indicates that the patient paid a $5,000 cash deposit, the date was clearly written over. And while the purported patient provided a letter to support Respondent, it too was unsworn.
As an additional explanation for why so much money was found in his car, Respondent stated that the money had been withdrawn to pay for remodeling his clinic. To support this claim, Respondent submitted a copy of a bank statement (on which the various balances are blacked out), which documents that he made a withdrawal
I therefore find that both the quantity of the marijuana (which would provide a single person with three joints a day for approximately ten months), and the large amount of cash which was found in Respondent's vehicle, support a finding that the marijuana was intended for distribution.
Based on Respondent's violation of federal law by possessing marijuana with the intent to distribute, as well as his admitted failure to report multiple dispensings of controlled substances to the Washington PMP, I find that factor four also supports a finding that he has committed acts which rendered his registration “inconsistent with the public interest.”
Under Agency precedent, where, as here, “the Government has proved that a registrant has committed acts inconsistent with the public interest, the registrant must ` “present sufficient mitigating evidence to assure the Administrator that [he] can be entrusted with the responsibility carried by such a registration.” ' ”
Moreover, while a registrant must accept responsibility and demonstrate that he will not engage in future misconduct in order to establish that granting his application for registration is consistent with the public interest, DEA has repeatedly held these are not the only factors that are relevant in determining whether to grant or deny an application.
Moreover, as I have noted in several cases, “ `[n]either
As found above, the Government has established that Respondent: 1) committed multiple recordkeeping violations in that he did not have required inventories, was missing invoices, and his dispensing log lacked required information; 2) was engaged in the manufacture and distribution of marijuana; and 3) failed to report multiple dispensings of controlled substances to the Washington PMP. I find that the proven misconduct is sufficiently egregious to affirm the Order of Immediate Suspension and to deny his pending application to renew his registration.
Having carefully reviewed Respondent's declaration, I further find that Respondent has not accepted responsibility for his misconduct. Regarding his recordkeeping violations, Respondent entirely denied that he failed to keep the required inventories and that he was missing various invoices. Moreover, he further claimed that the reason his dispensing log was missing essential information such as patient addresses was because there was no room to make these entries. Yet in DEA's experience, thousands of other registrants who engage in dispensing have no problem complying with the latter requirements.
With respect to the marijuana allegations, Respondent offered the far-fetched story that the marijuana belonged to an acquaintance of his wife, who had borrowed his car to obtain her medical marijuana but who was in such a hurry to return the car that she forgot to retrieve it even though it was her medicine. So too, Respondent's alternative explanations for why thousands of dollars of cash were found in his car defy credulity. Similarly, his claim that he was unaware of the marijuana growing activities which were being conducted at not one, not two, but three of his properties, is clearly disingenuous.
Based on his failure to acknowledge his misconduct, his failure to offer any credible evidence of remedial efforts, and his lack of candor, I conclude that Respondent has failed to present sufficient evidence to rebut the Government's
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f) and 824(a), as well as 28 CFR 0.100(b), I affirm the Order of Immediate Suspension of DEA Certificate of Registration BL6283927, issued to Keith Ky Ly, D.O. I further order that the application of Keith Ky Ly, D.O., to renew his registration, be, and it hereby is, denied. This Order is effective June 19, 2015.
On April 23, 2013, Administrative Law Judge Christopher B. McNeil (hereinafter, ALJ) issued the attached Recommended Decision.
Having reviewed the record in its entirety and the Recommended Decision, I have decided to adopt the ALJ's findings of fact and conclusions of law, except as discussed below. I further adopt the ALJ's recommended order that Respondent's application be denied.
As explained in the ALJ's Recommended Decision, in making the public interest determination, Congress directed the Agency to consider “the applicant's experience in dispensing . . . controlled substances.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f)(2). The evidence showed that Respondent's President and majority owner is Mrs. Ogechi Abalihi, and that while Mrs. Abalihi is a registered nurse, she is not a pharmacist and has no experience working in a retail pharmacy. Moreover, when questioned both during the pre-registration investigation and at the hearing as to whether she was familiar with the federal controlled-substance recordkeeping and security requirements for retail pharmacies, Mrs. Abalihi responded by stating, in essence, that those matters would be addressed by the pharmacist she would retain. Tr. 143-46. In her testimony, Mrs. Abalihi also made clear that she lacks knowledge of these requirements as they pertain to retail pharmacies, stating that “if there's a requirement for me to do anything, know these things, study them, I will do them. But when I applied I was not made to understand that I need to know all this.”
This is truly a remarkable answer, which fully demonstrates why granting Respondent's application “would be inconsistent with the public interest.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f). Notwithstanding that the Order to Show Cause specifically alleged that the Agency's investigation found Mrs. Abalihi “had no knowledge of DEA regulations pertaining to the handling of controlled substances and related security requirements,” ALJ Ex. 1, at 1; she still lacked knowledge of these requirements when she testified
It is indisputable that absent knowledge of the CSA and the Agency's regulations, a registrant cannot properly supervise its pharmacists to protect against the diversion of controlled substances.
I further adopt the ALJ's conclusion that the evidence with respect to factor five—such other conduct which may threaten public health and safety—supports the denial of Respondent's application. More specifically, the ALJ found that both Mrs. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor, who purportedly was to be Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge, made materially false statements to the Investigators when they were questioned regarding who would act as Respondent's pharmacist. However, upon review of the record, including the pleadings, I adopt the ALJ's conclusion only with respect to Ms. Taylor.
The evidence showed that when DEA Diversion Investigators (DI or DIs) asked Mrs. Abalihi who would manage the pharmacy, she stated that Ms. Jacinta Taylor would do so. Tr. 34. Subsequently, the DIs interviewed Ms. Taylor, who is a licensed pharmacist (and the owner of ten percent of Respondent) and who stated that she would be the pharmacist-in-charge at Respondent.
However, during the interview, Ms. Taylor told the DIs that she had a full time position at a Sweetbay Pharmacy in Tampa, and worked between the hours of ten to eight.
The DIs then asked Ms. Taylor who would be Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge given her full time position at Sweetbay and intent to continue working there until Respondent became profitable; Ms. Taylor identified a Ms. Mustafa, a co-worker at Sweetbay.
Ms. Taylor did not testify at the hearing. However, in an affidavit, Ms. Taylor stated that she “was caught `flat footed' ” by the question and “thought” that Ms. Mustafa, “another pharmacist who worked at Sweetbay, . . . might be willing to serve such role.” RX 7, at 2. Ms. Taylor further acknowledged that at the time of the interview, she “had not made formal arrangements for [a] replacement and had not yet asked Ms. Mustafa whether she would be willing to fulfill such role, but thought that Ms. Mustafa would be so willing.”
Notwithstanding her assertion that she was caught flatfooted, Ms. Taylor's affidavit, as well as Ms. Abalihi's testimony, establishes that Taylor had no basis in fact for her statement to the Investigators that Ms. Mustafa would be Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge until Ms. Taylor decided to start working there. Accordingly, Ms. Taylor's statement was false. Moreover, her statement was materially false in that it had the capacity to influence the Agency's decision to grant Respondent's application, because of the obvious need to determine whether those who will actually engage in dispensing activities on behalf of a proposed pharmacy registrant, hold the necessary state license and have not previously violated federal or state laws related to controlled substances.
I do not, however, adopt the ALJ's legal conclusion that Mrs. Abalihi made a material misrepresentation when she subsequently agreed to provide Ms. Mustafa's contact information rather than disclose that she knew nothing about Ms. Mustafa's role with the pharmacy. R.D. at 32. In support of his reasoning, the ALJ explained that “[i]f Ms. Abalihi intended on using contract pharmacists at the start of Allwell's operation, she had an affirmative duty to say so when DEA investigators asked her about the role Ms. Mustafa was to play. By her silence, and by promising to provide contact information for Ms. Mustafa, Ms. Abalihi misled the investigators.”
It may be that Ms. Abalihi misled the investigators, but the record is far from clear on this point. More specifically, while the record establishes that the DI called Ms. Abalihi and asked her about getting contact information for Ms. Mustafa, the record does not establish that the Investigator ever specifically “asked her about the role Ms. Mustafa
Moreover, even as of the date of the hearing, the Agency still does not know who will be Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge. Beyond Ms. Taylor's statement that she did not intend to leave her job at Sweetbay Pharmacy until Respondent is profitable, the evidence further showed that at the time of the hearing, Ms. Taylor had left the Tampa area and was working at a pharmacy in Orlando. RX E; Tr. 156-57. Moreover, Ms. Taylor did not testify at the hearing. Because Respondent has failed to provide material information as to who will be its pharmacist-in-charge and oversee the dispensing of the controlled substances and compliance with the Agency's various regulations, I hold that the Agency had demonstrated that granting its application “would be inconsistent with the public interest.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
In the Show Cause Order, the Government also alleged as a basis for denial of the application that “Mrs. Abalihi's husband participated in [the] unlawful dispensing of controlled substances that were prescribed over the Internet by physicians who did not personally examine the patients” and that “[t]his dispensing occurred while he was a pharmacist at a pharmacy that surrendered its DEA registration in December 2007 because of these illicit dispensing practices.” ALJ Ex. 1, at 1. The Show Cause Order further alleged that Mrs. Abalihi's husband told the Agency's Investigators “that these dispensing practices were lawful and that he intended to apply for a DEA registration to open his own retail pharmacy.”
The parties stipulated that Mrs. Abilihi's husband, Alfred Abilihi “is a registered pharmacist, [and] was a pharmacist at Moon Lake pharmacy who dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful internet prescriptions prior to Moon Lake Pharmacy surrendering its DEA registration on December 17th, 2007.” Tr. 11-12. The evidence shows that on November 29, 2007, a DEA Investigator received an anonymous phone call from a pharmacist who had worked at Moon Lake for one day, GX 6C, at 1; the pharmacist alleged that “the pharmacy was engaging in internet drug trafficking of [h]ydrocodone.” Tr. 74. Accordingly, on December 7, two DIs went to the pharmacy, which was located in New Port Richey, and “after several minutes of examination . . . found that the pharmacy was solely engaged in internet drug trafficking of [h]ydrocodone and some [s]chedule IV drugs such as Xanax and Valium,” in violation of 21 CFR 1306.04(a).
The DI further testified that after “a few minutes of investigation,” he and another DI “discovered that there were two physicians,” one located in Virginia and one located in New York City, “who had sent . . . hundreds of prescriptions for [h]ydrocodone to Moon Lake Pharmacy for filling” and that the purported patients were located “throughout the 50 states of the United States.”
According to the DI, the pharmacy was not open to the public and it “was extremely small, it looked like 600 square feet” with “no seating area for walk-ins.”
The DI identified one Vivian Alberto as the owner of the pharmacy.
Mr. Abalihi testified that he worked for Moon Lake for only “a few days,” before the Investigators showed up and that he had obtained the job through a temporary staffing agency. Tr. 98-99. He further maintained that he did not know that Ms. Alberto was the owner because “she speaks only Spanish” and he does not.
In his testimony, Mr. Abalihi denied telling the Investigators that what he was doing was legal, as well as that he intended to open his own pharmacy.
On cross-examination, Mr. Abalihi repeatedly maintained that he could not remember if he had dispensed prescriptions for hydrocodone or if hydrocodone was the main drug that was being dispensed at Moon Lake.
It depends. If I see a prescription—and I call the doctor and verify that that prescription came there. I don't know if the doctor has met the patient. The onus lies on the doctor to make sure that he sees his patient, and my own is to make sure that the prescription is authentic.
Tr. 114. However, Mr. Abalihi then testified that he did not recall that he ever called and asked a physician if he/she had contact with the patient when he worked at Moon Lake.
Mr. Abalihi also testified that he had tried to subsequently open his own pharmacy, but had withdrawn his application for a DEA registration after his then-attorney advised him that DEA intended to deny his application.
Mr. Abalihi acknowledged that his wife had filed her application after he had withdrawn his application.
Likewise, Mrs. Abalihi asserted that she did not make her husband a co-owner of Respondent because he “had tried in the past” to “open a pharmacy” and was told by his counsel to withdraw his DEA application. Tr. 133. She further asserted that DEA has “blacklisted” her husband.
According to Respondent's Exhibit C, which is a License Verification printout from the Florida Department of Health, Mr. Abalihi has a clear and active pharmacist license in the State of Florida, and has not been subject to discipline or a public complaint. RX C, at 1. Yet the License Verification printout also lists Mr. Abalihi's address of record as 1947 W. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. Blvd. in Tampa, Florida.
The ALJ rejected the Government's contention that Respondent's application should be denied because Mr. Abalihi's “past negative history” in dispensing controlled substances “has a clear nexus” to his wife's application. R.D. at 28-30 (citing Govt's Proposed Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law, and Argument in Respondent to Respondent's Brief, at 10 (citing
The ALJ thus reasoned that
As for Mr. Abalihi's involvement at Moon Lake Pharmacy, the ALJ noted that he shared the same sense as the DIs “that anyone in Mr. Abalihi's position would have had reason to question the legitimacy of the operation” as well as the DIs' “sense of incredulity that Mr. Abalihi would have failed to recognize the illegal nature of what was going on at Moon Lake, even though his stay there was brief.”
I reject the ALJ's conclusion that Mr. Abalihi was not knowingly advancing Moon Lake's criminal enterprise when DEA arrived. Indeed, this conclusion is irreconcilable with the ALJ's finding that there is “sufficient credible evidence to conclude Mr. Abalihi was aware that the practices
Here, in addition to the stipulation that Mr. Abalihi dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful internet prescriptions, a DI testified that upon arriving at the pharmacy and reviewing the prescriptions, he found that the prescriptions were solely for hydrocodone, a schedule III controlled substance, and drugs such as Xanax and Valium, which are schedule IV benzodiazepines. Tr. 75. Most significantly, the evidence showed that the Investigators found that hundreds of prescriptions were being filled that had been written for controlled substances by two physicians, one of whom was located in Virginia and the other New York, and that the patients were located throughout the fifty States of the U.S.
Under 21 CFR 1306.04(a), “[a] prescription for a controlled substance . . . must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of . . . professional practice.” Moreover, while “[t]he responsibility for the proper prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances is upon the prescribing practitioner . . . a corresponding responsibility rests with the pharmacist who fills the prescription.”
Moreover, in 2001, DEA issued a Guidance Document warning of the potential illegality of dispensing controlled substances based on prescriptions which were obtained through the internet and telephone consultations. DEA,
As held in numerous Agency decisions, under the Controlled Substances Act, “it is fundamental that a practitioner must establish a bonafide doctor-patient relationship in order to act `in the usual course of . . . professional practice' and to issue a prescription for a ‘legitimate medical purpose.' ”
Thus, I reject the ALJ's portrayal of Mr. Abalihi as a hapless bystander who was in the wrong place at the wrong time when the DIs arrived at Moon Lake. To the contrary, as the ALJ found, there was “sufficient credible evidence to conclude [that he] was aware that the practices in this pharmacy were illegal.” R.D. at 28. Indeed, the respective locations of the two prescribing physicians and the patients, who were located through the country, made it clear to Mr. Abilihi that the prescriptions lacked a legitimate medical purpose and were issued outside of the usual course of professional practice. 21 CFR 1306.04(a). Moreover, even if it was not immediately apparent to Mr. Abalihi that he was aiding and abetting a criminal enterprise, surely at some point during his first day at Moon Lake a reasonable pharmacist would have reached this conclusion, and in any event, Mr. Abalihi went back to the pharmacy a second day.
In short, the evidence shows that Mr. Abalihi violated his corresponding responsibility and the CSA by filling prescriptions which lacked a legitimate medical purpose and were issued outside of the usual course of professional practice.
Not only did Mr. Abalihi offer no testimony that he had called either of the doctors whose prescriptions he filled while at Moon Lake, his understanding of the scope of his obligations under federal law has been repeatedly rejected by both this Agency and multiple United States Courts of Appeal. As the Fifth Circuit has explained, “[v]erification by the issuing practitioner on request of the pharmacist is evidence that the pharmacist lacks knowledge that the prescription was issued outside the scope of professional practice. But it is not an insurance policy against a fact-finder's concluding that the pharmacist had the requisite knowledge despite a purported but false verification.”
Nor—notwithstanding that it is couched as being based on credibility findings—do I find persuasive the ALJ's conclusion that the link between Mr. Abalihi and Respondent is adequately attenuated because Mrs. Abalihi has kept her husband “apart from [the] ownership and management of” Respondent and Mr. Abalihi “plan[s] to avoid direct involvement with” the pharmacy. R.D. at 29-30. While
Accordingly, the Agency has held that it “may look to who exerts influence over the registrant” in determining whether to deny an application or revoke a registration.
In
So too, in
Moreover, in
Here, the totality of the circumstances leads me to reject the ALJ's conclusion that the link between Mr. Abalihi and Respondent is too attenuated to support (in addition to the other bases set forth above) the denial of the latter's application.
To the extent the ALJ was suggesting that to the deny the application on this basis, the Government must show that Mrs. Abalihi intended to operate Respondent as a pharmacy which filled prescriptions obtained by soliciting customers over the internet and which were issued by physicians who did not establish a valid doctor-patient relationship with the customers, the Government was not required to make such a showing. Rather, it was only required to show that Mr. Abalihi had committed violations of the CSA and that there was reason to believe that he would exert influence or control over Respondent's operation.
Indeed, Mrs. Abalihi admitted that the reason she did not make her husband a co-owner was because of his prior failed attempt to obtain a DEA registration. Tr. 133. So too, while Mr. Alabihi was not made a shareholder of Respondent, he is married to Respondent's principal owner and would thus share, at least indirectly, in any of Respondent's profits.
While I conclude that Mrs. Abalihi submitted the pending application as part of a ruse by the Abalihis to obtain a registration after Mr. Abalihi withdrew his application, and that the Abalihis planned all along for Mr. Abalihi to be Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge, contrary to the ALJ's understanding, the Agency's case law does not require that the Government prove that Mr. Abalihi “intend[ed] to perform a significant role in the operation of” Respondent. R.D. at 29.
Moreover, notwithstanding that Mr. Abalihi was not made a shareholder or officer, Mrs. Abalihi offered no testimony that he would not work at the pharmacy. R.D. at 29. Indeed, Respondent's own evidence shows that Mr. Abalihi listed Respondent as his address of record for his pharmacist license with the Florida Department of Health.
Finally, Ms. Taylor, who Mrs. Abalihi represented as being Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge, told the DIs that she did not intend to leave her then-position at Sweetbay Pharmacy until Respondent was profitable. Moreover, when questioned as to who would be the pharmacist during the interim period, Ms. Taylor gave the name of a person she had never asked. Ms. Taylor, who has since taken a position in Orlando, did not testify in the proceeding, and while she did submit an affidavit, the affidavit contains no statement that she still intends to become Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge. Indeed, Mrs. Abalihi still has not disclosed who will be Respondent's pharmacist-in-charge.
Accordingly, based on the record as a whole, I reject the ALJ's conclusion that the links between the applicant and Mr. Abalihi are sufficiently attenuated to conclude that he will exercise no influence or control over Respondent.
While the Government also alleged that the former pharmacy and its pharmacist had diverted controlled substances, I rejected the allegation for lack of substantial evidence.
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f), as well as 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that the application of Cove, Incorporated, doing business as Allwell Pharmacy, for a DEA Certificate of Registration as a retail pharmacy, be, and it hereby is, denied. This order is effective immediately.
Christopher B. McNeil, Administrative Law Judge. On March 3, 2011, Ogechi E. Abalihi submitted a request on behalf of Cove, Inc., seeking a new retail pharmacy DEA Certificate of Registration, allowing it to dispense controlled substances through a business that would be known as Allwell Pharmacy in Tampa, Florida. On July 26, 2011, finding cause to believe this registration would be inconsistent with the public interest, the Drug Enforcement Administrator, through the Deputy Assistant Administrator, issued an order to show cause why the Administrator should not deny the application. In response, on August 22, 2011, the Respondent requested an extension of the time permitted to file a response, which was granted by DEA Administrative Law Judge Timothy J. Wing. Judge Wing thereafter received what he found to be a waiver of Cove, Inc.'s right to a hearing on the matter and terminated the administrative review Cove had requested.
In her review of the record, the Administrator concluded there were factual disputes that warranted further development and remanded the matter to the Office of Administrative Law Judges, with instructions to permit the parties to present evidence at a hearing to be conducted in Tampa, Florida. At this point, Judge Wing was no longer with the DEA Office of Administrative Law Judges, so Administrative Law Judge Gail Randall issued an order for prehearing statements. On December 3, 2012, prior to the submission of prehearing statements, Chief Administrative Law Judge John J. Mulrooney II reassigned the case from ALJ Randall to the undersigned, and I presided over an evidentiary hearing conducted in Tampa, Florida, on February 13, 2013.
The general issue to be adjudicated by the Administrator, with the assistance of this recommended decision, is whether the record as a whole establishes, by substantial evidence, that Cove, Inc.'s application for a Certificate of Registration with the DEA should be denied as inconsistent with the public interest, as that term is used in 21 U.S.C. § 823(f).
The issue arose after DEA investigators completed an evaluation of the evidence supporting Cove, Inc.'s application. In this evaluation, investigators learned that the 90 percent owner of Cove, Inc., Ogechi Abalihi, R.N., had no experience as a pharmacist and limited knowledge about DEA regulations pertaining to the retail distribution of controlled substances. Investigators also found that the ten percent owner of Cove, Inc., pharmacist Jacinta Taylor, was not planning on being present at the pharmacy until after it became profitable. The investigators noted that Ms. Taylor gave them conflicting information regarding who would serve as Allwell's pharmacist up to the time when Ms. Taylor would participate in the operation of the pharmacy. Investigators also
Based on the information presented to them in the course of Cove, Inc.'s application, the Diversion Investigators concluded that granting Cove, Inc. a Certificate of Registration would be inconsistent with the public interest, prompting the show cause order that would deny this application. The specific issue thus is whether by at least a preponderance of the evidence the Government has established that granting a DEA Certificate of Registration to Cove, Inc. would be inconsistent with the public interest, as that term is used in 21 U.S.C. 823(f)
After carefully considering the testimony elicited at the hearing, examining the admitted exhibits, evaluating the arguments of counsel, and weighing the record as a whole, I have set forth my recommended findings of fact, conclusions of law, and analysis below, recommending that the DEA deny Cove, Inc.'s Application for a Certificate of Registration.
Allwell Pharmacy's proposed DEA-registered location is 1947 W. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. Blvd., Tampa, Florida 33609. The proposed DEA-registered location is not open for business or operating at this time as a pharmacy or other commercial business, but the pharmacy is licensed as a retail pharmacy in the State of Florida and retains a Florida community pharmacy license. Allwell Pharmacy's owner is Cove, Inc., and the corporation has two shareholders: Ogechi E. Abalihi, who owns 90 percent of the company, and Jacinta Taylor, who owns ten percent.
Ms. Abalihi has no experience either as a pharmacist or owning a retail pharmacy, but she does have extensive experience as a Registered Nurse licensed as such since 2001, and throughout such period has worked with controlled substances. Jacinta Taylor has extensive experience working as a Florida-licensed pharmacist, working as a pharmacist and dispensing controlled substances.
Kenneth Boggess has been a Diversion Investigator for the DEA for 26 years.
Investigator Boggess explained that he was involved in evaluating the application submitted by Cove, Inc., the Respondent in this matter.
According to Investigator Boggess, Ms. Abalihi obtained her nursing degree in Lagos, Nigeria, and moved to New York in 1992.
As part of the application investigation, Investigator Boggess said he questioned Ms. Abalihi about her plan to manage the proposed pharmacy. He said when he asked Ms. Abalihi who would actually manage Allwell Pharmacy, she told him it would be managed by the other co-owner, Jacinta Taylor.
During the interview conducted on March 22, 2011, Investigator Boggess questioned Ms. Abalihi about how the proposed pharmacy would maintain its records and maintain compliance with DEA regulations concerning the dispensing of controlled substances.
Investigator Boggess explained that when he questions an applicant about the applicant's knowledge of DEA regulations, he ends the inquiry if it is clear the person knows nothing about those regulations, because “there's no point in badgering someone.”
The following week, Investigator Boggess contacted Jacinta Taylor and met with her on March 30, 2011 at the DEA office in Tampa, along with Investigator Wald.
When Investigator Boggess considered these operating hours, he asked Ms. Taylor about her current employment and the hours she was on duty with that job, as a pharmacist at Sweetbay. According to Investigator Boggess, Ms. Taylor then acknowledged working at Sweetbay on a full-time basis, with hours from 10:00 a.m. until 8:00 p.m.
When he learned that Ms. Taylor intended to use Ms. Mustafa as the interim pharmacist in charge of the applicant pharmacy, Investigator Boggess told Ms. Taylor he would need to interview Ms. Mustafa, given the significant role Ms. Mustafa would be playing with the new pharmacy.
In addition to inquiring of Ms. Abalihi how Cove, Inc. would ensure compliance with DEA controlled substance regulations, Investigator Boggess said he and Investigator Wald were also concerned about the role Alfred Abalihi—Ms. Abalihi's husband—would play in the new pharmacy. Here, both Investigator Wald and Investigator Boggess described an investigation their office conducted four years earlier, involving Moon Lake Pharmacy. According to Investigator Boggess, during the initial interview on March 22, 2011 Investigator Wald told Ms. Abalihi that he had conducted an inspection of Moon Lake Pharmacy back in 2007, and that during this inspection Mr. Abalihi was the pharmacist on duty.
The record reflects that Moon Lake surrendered its DEA Certificate of Registration shortly after this inspection, based on the investigators' charge that the operation was illegal. The record also shows that Mr. Abalihi was then dispatched to serve as a temporary pharmacist at numerous other locations, as an employee of HealthCare Consultants, all without incident or disciplinary action.
Investigator Boggess testified that at the conclusion of the investigation into Cove, Inc.'s application for DEA registration, DEA's Diversion Group Supervisor, Roberta Goralczyk determined that the application should be denied.
Investigator Boggess testified that as of January 2013, when he last drove past Allwell's proposed location, the pharmacy had not opened.
During his visit to David's Pharmacy on January 18, 2013, Investigator Boggess observed a sign on the divider between the pharmacy and the patients indicating that the pharmacy would not dispense oxycodone 15 or 30 mg. tablets.
Investigator Boggess described making similar trips to and receiving similar input from four other nearby pharmacies, including Hillsborough River Compounding Pharmacy, run by Mr. Uba, Care Plus Pharmacy run by Mr. Bakari, CVS Pharmacy, run by Mr. Alicea, and Walgreens Pharmacy, run by Mr. Luu. In these interviews, Investigator Boggess learned that the nearby hospital did not generate many prescriptions for controlled substances.
When asked on cross examination why he waited until 2013 to conduct these interviews with the nearby pharmacies, Investigator Boggess agreed that “the two-year delay is a good question, period, for this whole process,” but that he was working with 30 other applications at the time and the interviews were done when he “finally got around to [them]”.
DEA Diversion Investigator Ira Wald also testified. He stated he has been a Division Investigator for 38 years, having been hired in 1975 and having completed several months of initial training in DEA auditing techniques, legal procedure, and investigative techniques, with periodic refresher courses.
With respect to his concerns about the role Mr. Abalihi might play in the operation of Allwell Pharmacy, Investigator Wald testified that in 2007, after receiving an anonymous call about Moon Lake Pharmacy, he visited
According to Investigator Wald, the pharmacy was small—about 600 square feet in size—and it did not appear it was open to the public, but was instead a compounding site.
When asked during cross examination about Moon Lake's compounding methods, Investigator Wald stated he did not know if compounding in advance based on anticipated need was permitted under Florida law, but knew that federal law forbids advanced compounding absent registration as a manufacturer.
Investigator Wald explained that after meeting with Mr. Abalihi at Moon Lake Pharmacy he arranged to meet with the pharmacy's owner, Vivian Alberto.
Moon Lake Pharmacy surrendered its former DEA registration number, FM0523870, on or about December 17, 2007, because the pharmacy dispensed controlled substances based on illegal Internet prescriptions. The parties have stipulated that Mr. Abalihi was a pharmacist at Moon Lake who dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful Internet prescriptions.
Regarding the initial investigation into Cove, Inc.'s application for a DEA Certificate of Registration for Allwell Pharmacy, Investigator Wald confirmed the testimony of Investigator Boggess regarding standard procedures in these investigations. He said it is normal for his office to quiz new DEA applications on their familiarity with DEA regulations.
Investigator Wald confirmed the salient points addressed by Investigator Boggess. He recalled that during the initial interviews with Ms. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor, he and Investigator Boggess asked about the ownership of Cove, Inc., and about Ms. Abalihi's training, education, and experience with pharmacies in the past, and about how much of her attention she was going to devote to the pharmacy.
Testifying in support of Cove, Inc.'s application, Ogechi E. Abalihi stated that she has a diploma of Nursing from Lagos University Teaching Hospital as well as a diploma in Midwifery from University College Hospital. Ms. Abalihi obtained both degrees in Nigeria, where she worked between 1988 and 1992 as a Registered Nurse.
After moving from Nigeria to New York in 1992, Ms. Abalihi worked with the Health and Hospitals Corporation in Harlem Hospital for about ten years:
Ms. Abalihi said she moved to Tampa in 2001, working both at the Veterans Administration Hospital there and operating a group home, between 2007 and 2010, as the home's Director of Nursing.
Ms. Abalihi testified that through her work as a nurse and through her formal education, she has been trained in dispensing controlled substances: “I inventory controlled substances as a Registered Nurse, and I have knowledge of safekeeping processes with relationship to [the] nursing profession.”
Ms. Abalihi said she applied for a DEA Certificate of Registration in early 2011 so that Cove, Inc. could operate Allwell Pharmacy.
According to Ms. Abalihi, she and Jacinta Taylor own Cove, Inc., with Ms. Taylor owning ten percent and Ms. Abalihi owning 90 percent. Ms. Abalihi is the sole officer and director.
Ms. Abalihi testified that when she was invited to the DEA to discuss her application, Investigator Wald referred to her husband, and told her “there were issues” with a pharmacy he had worked at.
Ms. Abalihi said that at the conclusion of the interview, Investigator Boggess asked when she planned to open the pharmacy, and offered to provide whatever help she needed, leaving her assured that she “had a good interview.”
By her own account, Ms. Abalihi recognized that she lacked the experience needed to operate a pharmacy if the pharmacy dispensed controlled substances. Recognizing this limitation, Ms. Abalihi testified that she would address this by engaging the services of a registered pharmacist to assist in the daily operation of the store. Ms. Abalihi said her familiarity and experience with controlled substances is based wholly on “nursing professional standards”. When asked on cross-examination whether she was “familiar with the record-keeping requirements for controlled substances for a retail pharmacy,” she did not answer the question directly, but stated only “[a]gain, like I said, in terms of controlled substances my experience is with nursing.”
Ms. Abalihi described the arrangement she entered into with the prospective pharmacist, Ms. Taylor. She agreed, during cross examination, that Allwell would have to completely rely on the pharmacist working there in order to ensure compliance with DEA controlled substances regulations.
Ms. Abalihi testified that the business plan for Allwell was to have it open and operational from 9:00 a.m. until 6:00 p.m. Monday through Friday, and from 9:00 a.m. to 1 p.m. on Saturdays, with the pharmacy closed on Sundays.
Ms. Abalihi acknowledged that presently, Ms. Taylor works full time as a pharmacist in Orlando, having moved from Tampa sometime after this application was filed.
When pressed to explain this, Ms. Abalihi denied knowing Ms. Mustafa, denied ever speaking to Ms. Mustafa, and denied that Ms. Taylor said she would be relying on Ms. Mustafa. According to Ms. Abalihi, “[Ms. Taylor] did not say she would be relying on Ms. Mustafa, no. She said the name came to her when this question was thrown to her. She wasn't expecting it, but the name came to her.”
I am thus presented with two significantly different versions of what was said when Diversion Investigators Boggess and Wald questioned Ms. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor. The Diversion Investigators testified that Ms. Taylor indicated she would leave her job at Sweetwater and join the operation of Allwell only when it started to become profitable—not at its inception. Both investigators testified that Ms. Taylor initially told them she would have a coworker, Ms. Mustafa, serve as the pharmacy's pharmacist between the time it began its operation and the time when Ms. Taylor joined the store as its pharmacist. Investigator Boggess testified that in furtherance of this representation, Ms. Abalihi committed to providing him with Ms. Mustafa's contact information—a commitment Ms. Abalihi now denies ever making.
Because the two Diversion Investigators' testimony is internally consistent, is consistent with the evidence as a whole, is consistent with a common sense understanding of the events being described, and does not appear to be tainted with bias or a motivation to prevaricate, and because I do not find other indicia of unreliability, I give substantial weight to the statements of Investigators Boggess and Wald regarding this exchange.
Further, because I find Ms. Abalihi's testimony to be internally contradictory, inconsistent with the evidence as a whole, and inconsistent with that of Ms. Taylor's statements to the investigators and her averments in the affidavit introduced as evidence, and because I find Ms. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor both had a financial interest in claiming that Allwell would have a registered pharmacist on duty in order to obtain a DEA Certificate (even if that was not going to be the case), I do not give substantial weight to Ms. Abalihi's claim that she never committed to giving the investigators contact information for Ms. Mustafa. From this contradictory account, I find Ms. Abalihi compounded the falsehood Ms. Taylor initiated, by failing to disclose the true lack of involvement of Ms. Mustafa in the planned operation of Allwell Pharmacy; and I find that Ms. Taylor falsely stated to the
During her testimony, Ms. Abalihi attempted to minimize the significance of the role Ms. Taylor or Ms. Mustafa would play in the initial stage of Allwell's operation. Ms. Abalihi said that there are agencies (like the one employing her husband) that can cover pharmacies, “so out of the issue of Mustafa as a coverage, a substitute, I don't think it was an issue for running that pharmacy.”
Ms. Abalihi's husband, Alfred Abalihi, also testified in support of Cove, Inc.'s application. Mr. Abalihi stated that while he would not be part of the business operation, he did have experience in the operation of a pharmacy.
Mr. Abalihi said he was aware that his wife was attempting to secure a DEA Certificate of Registration that would permit Cove, Inc. to operate the Allwell Pharmacy but said he was never made an owner of that corporation. According to Mr. Abalihi, “[t]o my understanding I've been made to believe that [the] DEA have [sic] blacklisted me based on the temporary work I did at Moon Lake Pharmacy in 2007.”
Mr. Abalihi explained that he did not know much about Moon Lake's operation and was working there under contract as assigned by his employer, HealthCare Consultants.
Mr. Abalihi said that the DEA agents visited Moon Lake on the last day on this assignment.
Prior to the hearing, the parties stipulated that Mr. Abalihi “dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful Internet prescriptions” while working at Moon Lake Pharmacy.
Mr. Abalihi testified that after this experience, he attempted to open his own pharmacy through Masters Worldwide Ventures, doing business as My Master's Pharmacy.
Mr. Abalihi said he ended this venture at the advice of an attorney, “based on the fact that DEA has told [his lawyer] that they have made up their mind to deny me the license.”
When asked whether he intends to work at or otherwise operate Allwell Pharmacy once it opens for business, Mr. Abalihi responded “No. I just wanted to stay as—to advise my wife how to do things. But I would have loved to work there, but the DEA wouldn't allow me to.”
After hearing her husband's testimony, Ms. Abalihi was asked, on cross examination, “what is your understanding why [the] DEA `blacklisted' Mr. Abalihi”, Ms. Abalihi said she cannot answer the question, nor could she answer the Government's question whether it is her belief that her husband violated any DEA laws.
The Administrator is being asked to grant a Certificate of Registration that would permit Cove, Inc., to dispense controlled substances through a pharmacy to be known as Allwell Pharmacy. When presented with such an application, the Administrator is guided by provisions in the United States Code mandating that she determine whether granting such a Certificate “would be inconsistent with the public interest.”
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant's experience in dispensing, or conducting research with respect to controlled substances.
(3) The applicant's conviction record under Federal or State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.
As correctly noted in the Government's post-hearing brief, an application denial may be based on any one, or any combination, of the five factors cited above.
In this case, the Government does not contend there is a history of professional discipline by a licensing board, nor did it offer evidence of a criminal conviction pertaining to any party, nor did it allege Cove, Inc., or any material party failed to comply with applicable laws relating to controlled substances. Accordingly, Factors One, Three, and Four in 21 U.S.C. 823(f) are not presented as bases for revoking this Certificate.
I would note parenthetically that there is evidence supporting the Respondent's application that neither party directly addresses. There is undisputed evidence that the Respondent obtained the required license from Florida authorities, permitting it to operate a retail pharmacy in Tampa. In a recent DEA adjudication, obtaining such a license was considered by the Administrator as evidence in support of the application under Factor One (“recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority”).
In his Order to Show Cause, the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Diversion Control, identified two factors as the bases for denying Cove, Inc.'s application. First, he referred to Factor Two, noting that Ms. Abalihi “had no prior experience with operating or working at a retail pharmacy and had no knowledge of DEA regulations pertaining to handling of controlled substances and related security requirements.”
In hearings regarding the denial of a proposed DEA Certificate of Registration, “the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such registration pursuant to section 303 or section 1008(c) and (d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 or 958(c) and (d)) are not satisfied.”
The evidence establishes that the applicant did not have personnel with the requisite experience in dispensing controlled substances to support its application. Considering first the experience attributed to Ms. Abalihi, I find the scope of nursing practice does, to some degree, include exposure to regulations pertaining to the distribution of controlled substances. Ms. Abalihi competently testified that in the course of her nursing practice, she has had occasion to deliver controlled substances to persons in her care. Further, there is evidence that as a nurse, Ms. Abalihi has been required to account for controlled substance inventories, and to guard against improper diversion of such inventories.
The scope of this experience, however, leaves material and significant areas of expertise unmet. Pharmacists must conform to the corresponding responsibilities imposed upon them under DEA regulations. These responsibilities are unique to pharmacists, and are not likely to be recognized or met by a person whose sole function is as a Registered Nurse. DEA regulations impose upon pharmacists affirmative obligations regarding the distribution of controlled substances once a prescribing source (such as a doctor or physician's assistant) issues a prescription. Those obligations collectively are referred to as “corresponding responsibilities,” as they impose duties on pharmacies and pharmacists that correspond with those of treating sources.
Driving this corresponding responsibility is the standard, also found in DEA regulations, that a prescription for a controlled substance “must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose,” and that it be prescribed by “an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his professional practice.”
Such deference would create a risk of harm to the public in this case. Diversion Investigator Boggess's testimony regarding the experiences of local pharmacists, and their collective concern about drug-seeking activity involving addictive pain killers like Oxycodone, establishes that there is a clear and present danger posed by persons who present themselves to pharmacies in the area, hoping to obtain drugs by questionable
Further, as a corporate entity, Cove, Inc. itself has no history of experience in the distribution of controlled substances. Allwell Pharmacy would be this corporation's first and only venture into such activity, and neither of its shareholders has ever operated a pharmacy before. The evidence calls into question whether Ms. Taylor would actually participate in the operation of Allwell Pharmacy, at least at the beginning of operations. When this application was presented to the DEA, Ms. Taylor was employed at another pharmacy on a full-time basis, during hours that would have made it impossible for her to be present when Allwell was open for business. When asked to describe her intentions in this regard, Ms. Taylor told the DEA investigators that she planned on working at Allwell only once it became profitable—not at the very beginning. Since then, Ms. Taylor has moved to Orlando, and there is no evidence indicating she has any plans to return to Tampa any time soon.
I am mindful that Ms. Abalihi now disputes the DEA investigators' reports regarding when Ms. Taylor would actually begin work. I am persuaded, however, to attribute greater weight to the testimony on this point provided by Investigator Boggess and Investigator Wald, than I attribute to Ms. Abalihi's version of what was said. It is clear from the record that Ms. Taylor had no clear investment in Cove, Inc. nor in Allwell Pharmacy. As a minority shareholder with no proven financial investment in the company, Ms. Taylor was in no way obligated to quit her job at Sweetbay in order to work at Allwell. The record offers no evidence that Ms. Taylor contributed capital or cash in exchange for receiving her ten percent shares in the corporation.
Further, there is no evidence establishing any kind of agreement between Cove, Inc. and Ms. Taylor requiring her to provide professional services. There is, for example, no evidence that Ms. Taylor faced any adverse consequence should she decide not to end her employment at Sweetbay and begin working at Allwell. Ms. Abalihi's claim that Ms. Taylor would quit her job at Sweetbay in order to accept a position at Allwell is not supported by any competent evidence, and is contradicted by what I find to be credible testimony from the two DEA investigators, to the effect that Ms. Taylor was going to take a “wait and see” approach before lending her expertise to this new enterprise—an approach Ms. Abalihi appears to have endorsed.
This conclusion is buttressed by the evidence regarding the role of Dayla Mustafa. The need for someone to play the role attributed to Ms. Mustafa would arise only upon Ms. Taylor's absence from Allwell during the initial operation of the new pharmacy. The evidence establishes that based on Ms. Taylor's admission that she would not be present initially, and upon the investigators' query, Ms. Taylor offered Ms. Mustafa as the person who would provide the requisite experience initially. The evidence establishes that this was a falsehood—that in fact Ms. Mustafa never agreed to play such a role, and Ms. Taylor came up with the name only because she felt the need to address concerns being raised by the DEA investigators. Ms. Abalihi tacitly confirmed this false representation and compounded the problem when she offered to provide the investigators with Ms. Mustafa's contact information. Thus, the evidence establishes that no one having the requisite knowledge and experience to operate a pharmacy and to conform to DEA diversion control requirements would be present initially.
I do note the Respondent's complaint regarding the practice, attributed to Investigators Boggess and Wald, of asking applicant's questions regarding their familiarity with DEA diversion control regulations.
Given the evidence before me, I cannot endorse the Respondent's claim that “short of being licensed as a practicing pharmacist, Mrs. Abalihi has about as much experience properly handling controlled substances as anyone is likely to have.”
The Government also offered evidence under Factor Two regarding Ms. Abalihi's husband, Alfred Abalihi. In the Order to Show Cause, the Deputy Assistant Administrator reports that Mr. Abalihi “participated in unlawful dispensing of controlled substances” while employed at a pharmacy in 2007.
At the outset, I agree with the Government's skepticism regarding Mr. Abalihi's representation that he did not know Moon Lake's operations were illegal. It may be that current business practices tend to increase reliance on temporary or contract employees, including pharmacists; and that such practices increase the likelihood that the pharmacist will be unaware of the true nature of the pharmacy's operation. It is worth noting that to the extent such a practice exposes the pharmacist to the risk of working in an illegal shop, the pharmacist is not excused from his or her responsibility to act within the law, and must face the consequences of maintaining a blind eye to such an obviously illegal operation. Here, however, I need not rely on any such inference, because I have before me the parties' express stipulation that while at Moon Lake Mr. Abalihi “dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful Internet prescriptions [.]”
Given the very small office in which this compounding and dispensing was occurring, I find sufficient credible evidence to conclude Mr. Abalihi was aware that the
In support of its claim that such a nexus exists and must be recognized, the Government offers as guidance the decision in
The
Regarding factor four, the applicant's past experience in the distribution of chemicals, the DEA investigation revealed that Graham has no previous experience related to handling or distributing listed chemicals. As set forth previously, however, his business partner Snodell surrendered a DEA registration because a DEA and KBI investigation revealed he was distributing large quantities of List I chemical products having reasonable cause to believe the chemical would be used to manufacture a controlled substance. Graham admitted to DEA investigators that Snodell was his source of information concerning the business of distributing listed chemicals. . . . For the above-stated reasons, the Administrator concludes that it would be inconsistent with the public interest to grant the application of Graham.
The agency thus may attribute to a registrant the prior misconduct of third party. The conditions in
In the case presently before the Administrator, on the other hand, Ms. Abalihi presented a business plan that expressly removed Mr. Abalihi from all phases of the proposed pharmacy's operation. The evidence establishes that Mr. Abalihi would not directly participate as an officer or owner of Cove, Inc. While it might be reasonable to be skeptical about the efficacy (or even the existence) of such a line between spouses, the evidence now in the record does not permit me to recognize the kind of nexus that existed in
The Government correctly notes in its brief that Ms. Abalihi has not indicated she would prohibit her husband from working in the pharmacy.
I fully appreciate the Government's concern regarding the events involving Mr. Abalihi during his very short tenure at Moon Lake Pharmacy. I note the skepticism expressed by the investigators, as they recalled the nature of Moon Lake's Internet-based operation. I share their sense that anyone in Mr. Abalihi's position would have had reason to question the legitimacy of the operation, and I share their sense of incredulity that Mr. Abalihi would have failed to recognize the illegal nature of what was going on at Moon Lake, even though his stay there was brief.
The Respondent, however, correctly notes that Mr. Abalihi was not charged with any misconduct arising out of his service at Moon Lake. Mr. Abalihi may have unwisely told the DEA investigators that Moon Lake's operations were legal, but I cannot conclude from that piece of evidence that Mr. Abalihi was knowingly advancing Moon Lake's criminal enterprise when the DEA arrived. Unlike the acknowledged misconduct by Graham's business partner (leading to the partner surrendering his DEA Certificate), here the most we can say for certain is that Mr. Abalihi was the pharmacist who was present when the DEA agents arrived at Moon Lake and brought its operations to an end. While it is true that the parties have stipulated that Mr. Abalihi dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful Internet prescriptions during his short tenure at Moon Lake, Mr. Abalihi's record since then is unblemished and his plan to avoid direct involvement with Allwell and Cove, Inc. adequately attenuates the link between him and the proposed pharmacy.
Having said that, I must note that a core theme presented in support of the Respondent's application has not been established as fact. In its post-hearing brief, the Respondent states that “[o]nce the decision had been made by the DEA that Mr. Abalihi was banned for the rest of his life from ever having an ownership stake in a pharmacy with a DEA registration, the DEA then set a course of blocking anyone relating to Mr. Abalihi from obtaining a DEA registration.”
The record fails to establish why Mr. Abalihi withdrew his request for a DEA Certificate, other than to indicate the action was based on the advice of his attorney. The factual claims on this point appearing in the Order to Show Cause have been supported by substantial evidence, and include the parties' stipulation that Mr. Abalihi improperly dispensed controlled substances while working at Moon Lake Pharmacy. The DEA has in the past recognized the need to evaluate the circumstances that may arise when a husband and wife are involved in a new application for a retail-pharmacy DEA Certificate and when there has been a prior adverse DEA action involving one of the spouses involving another pharmacy.
I reject in its entirety, however, the Respondent's assertion that the DEA's “real motivation” in challenging Cove, Inc.'s application, was “Mr. Abalihi's brief employment at Moon Lake Pharmacy.”
We do not know what was presented to this lawyer during her visits with the DEA, nor do we have the benefit of any documentary evidence supporting her reputed claim that the DEA has deemed Mr. Abalihi ineligible for a Certificate of Registration. We do not, indeed, have documentary evidence that the lawyer said or
I find insufficient evidence to conclude that Mr. Abalihi's relationship with Cove, Inc., through his marriage to Ms. Abalihi, gives rise to a public threat under Factor Two, although Factor Two does serve as a basis for denying this application, given the absence of sufficient relevant experience by Ms. Abalihi, for the reasons set forth above.
Independent of concerns addressed under Factor Two, the evidence also forces the conclusion that conduct attributed to both Ms. Taylor and Ms. Abalihi would threaten the public health and safety, warranting a denial of the application under Factor Five. Here the evidence establishes that Ms. Taylor misled the DEA investigators when she was asked about arrangements to have a pharmacist present when Allwell began its operations. I find there is competent and credible evidence that when asked who would be working at Allwell initially, Ms. Taylor told the investigators the initial pharmacist would be her coworker, Ms. Mustafa. This was not true, and constitutes a material misrepresentation in the application process. Ms. Taylor elected not to testify (indeed there is no evidence suggesting the Respondent requested her to do so), and nothing in her affidavit
Further, when the investigators requested contact information from Ms. Abalihi so they could confirm Ms. Mustafa's role, Ms. Abalihi compounded the misrepresentation and offered to get the requested information, rather than disclose that she knew nothing about Ms. Mustafa's role with the pharmacy. If Ms. Abalihi intended on using contract pharmacists at the start of Allwell's operation, she had an affirmative duty to say so when DEA investigators asked her about the role Ms. Mustafa was to play. By her silence, and by promising to provide contact information for Ms. Mustafa, Ms. Abalihi misled the investigators.
Making a material misrepresentation in the course of an investigation into the operation of the proposed pharmacy creates a risk of harm to the public health and safety. The operation of a pharmacy is a highly regulated enterprise, requiring advanced skill and technical expertise unique to the profession. Lying about who would be present with that skill and expertise casts doubt on the ability of both Ms. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor to protect the public, and suggests they will instead act only in their own self-interest. Upon such evidence, the Government has established by at least preponderance that issuing a Certificate of Registration to the Respondent would be inconsistent with the public interest, under Factor Five.
Where the Government has made out its prima facie case, the burden shifts to the Respondent to show why its continued registration would be consistent with the public interest.
1. On March 3, 2011 and acting on behalf of Cove, Inc., Ogechi E. Abalihi submitted a new application for a DEA retail-pharmacy Certificate of Registration, to operate a pharmacy under the name of Allwell Pharmacy, to be located at 1947 West Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. Boulevard, Tampa, Florida 33609. This pharmacy is not open for business and has never operated as a business, although it has been issued a community pharmacy license by the state of Florida.
2. Cove, Inc. is owned by its 90 percent shareholder and sole officer, Ogechi E. Abalihi, and its ten percent shareholder, Jacinta Taylor.
3. Ms. Abalihi has no experience working in, managing, or owning a pharmacy; has no direct knowledge of DEA controlled substance regulations; has extensive experience as a Registered Nurse; has worked with controlled substances but only in the context of her service as a Registered Nurse; and has proposed a business plan for Allwell Pharmacy that requires the presence of a pharmacist throughout the pharmacy's operating hours, which were 9:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. Mondays through Fridays, and from 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. on Saturdays.
4. Although the Applicant's business plan called for DEA controlled substance regulations to be implemented by a registered pharmacist on duty throughout the pharmacy's operational hours, there was no provision for having a registered pharmacist present during the initial phase of the pharmacy's operation. Instead, the plan called for Ms. Abalihi to operate the pharmacy until it became profitable, at which time Ms. Taylor planned on quitting her full-time job at another pharmacy and becoming an employee at Allwell Pharmacy. Under this plan, until Ms. Taylor actually began working at Allwell Pharmacy, there would be no one with the experience, knowledge, and training needed to ensure compliance with DEA regulations.
5. During the application process and during interviews with DEA Diversion Investigators, both Ms. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor acknowledged the need to have a registered pharmacist present whenever the pharmacy was open. Both Ms. Abalihi and Ms. Taylor misled the Investigators by falsely representing that when it opened, Allwell Pharmacy's staff would include Dalya Mustafa, who is a registered pharmacist and was Ms. Taylor's co-worker. The evidence establishes that there would be no pharmacist present when Allwell Pharmacy began its operations, under the business plan created by Ms. Abalihi.
6. Without the active participation of Ms. Taylor or another person experienced in applying DEA regulations, Cove, Inc. lacked the experience required for its application to be consistent with the public interest.
7. The 90 percent owner of Cove, Inc., Ogechi E. Abalihi is married to a registered pharmacist, Alfred Abalihi. Mr. Abalihi is not an officer, shareholder, or employee of either Cove, Inc., or Allwell Pharmacy. There is insufficient evidence establishing that he would have any direct involvement with either Cove, Inc., or Allwell Pharmacy, just as there is insufficient evidence establishing that he would abstain from such involvement, should the pharmacy become operational.
8. Mr. Abalihi was a pharmacist employed in 2007 by HealthCare Consultants. In the course of his employment at HealthCare Consultants, Mr. Abalihi was directed to provide services as a registered pharmacist at Moon Lake Pharmacy. While providing services as a temporary worker through HealthCare Consultants at Moon Lake Pharmacy, Mr. Abalihi dispensed controlled substances based on unlawful Internet prescriptions prior to Moon Lake Pharmacy surrendering its DEA registration on December 17, 2007.
1. When it proposes to deny a new application for a retail-pharmacy DEA Certificate of Registration, the Government is required to establish by at least a preponderance of the evidence that the pharmacy's initial registration is inconsistent with the public interest. 21 U.S.C. 823(f); 21 CFR 1301.44(d).
2. Five factors must be considered when determining the public interest in this case:
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate state licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant's experience in dispensing, or conducting research with respect to controlled substances.
(3) The applicant's conviction record under federal or state laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable state, federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety. 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
3. In order to establish a basis for denying a new application for a retail-pharmacy Certificate of Registration based on the provisions of 21 U.S.C. 823(f)(2) (Factor Two), the Government must present evidence establishing, by at least a preponderance, that
4. When proposing to deny a retail-pharmacy application under Factor Two based on the prior association and dispensing history of a third party, the Government must demonstrate that the third party's past negative experience in dispensing controlled substances warrants a finding that his or her association with the applicant would be inconsistent with the public interest. Where, as here, the third party is the husband of the applicant's majority shareholder but has no clearly demonstrated role in either the corporation (as a shareholder or an officer), or in the retail pharmacy (as an employee or manager), and where there is insufficient evidence demonstrating the third party's past negative experience will have any impact on the operation of the retail pharmacy, the Government has not met its burden of proving a basis to deny the application under Factor Two.
5. In order to establish a basis for denying a new application for a retail-pharmacy Certificate of Registration based on the provisions of 21 U.S.C. 823 (f)(5) (Factor Five), the Government must present evidence establishing, by at least a preponderance, other conduct (
6. Upon such evidence, the Government has met its burden and has made a prima facie case in support of the proposed order denying the Respondent's application for a retail-pharmacy Certificate of Registration.
7. Upon a review of the record as a whole, including all claims made in the Respondent's post-hearing brief, there is insufficient evidence of remediation. Accordingly, the Government has established cause to deny this application.
As the Government has established its prima facie case by at least a preponderance of the evidence, the Respondent's application for a retail-pharmacy DEA Certificate of Registration should be DENIED.
On April 10, 2013, the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, issued an Order to Show Cause to Farmacia Yani (Respondent), of San Sebastian, Puerto Rico. ALJ Ex. 1. The Show Cause Order proposed the denial of Respondent's application for a DEA Certificate of Registration as a retail pharmacy, on the ground that its registration “would be inconsistent with the public interest, as that term is defined in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).”
The Show Cause Order specifically alleged that on March 27, 2012, Respondent submitted an application for a registration as a retail pharmacy, seeking authority to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V, at a location in San Sebastian, Puerto Rico.
On May 10, 2013, Respondent, through its counsel, requested a hearing on the allegations and the matter was placed on the docket of the Office of Administrative Law Judges. ALJ Ex. 2. Thereafter, an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) proceeded to conduct pre-hearing procedures. ALJ Ex. 3.
In its Supplemental Prehearing Statement, the Government provided notice to Respondent that it intended to elicit testimony from an Agency Diversion Investigator (DI) that Respondent had “filled twenty-nine (29) prescriptions for Suboxone that were written by two doctors who did not possess authority to issue these controlled substances,” that the “prescriptions were written by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva and Dr. Cesar I. Vargas-Quinones,” and that a review of “the DEA registration database . . . found that these two physicians were never registered with DEA as data-waived practitioners, in violation of 21 CFR 1301.28.” ALJ Ex. 7, at 3. The Government also provided notice that it intended to question Respondent's owner “about the circumstances of the pharmacy's prior surrender of its . . . registration, and about her failure to note the previous surrender on Respondent's new application for registration.”
On July 16, 2013, the ALJ conducted an evidentiary hearing in Guaynabo, Puerto Rico.
The same day, the ALJ also issued an Order memorializing these instructions.
On September 26, 2013, the ALJ issued his Recommended Decision (hereinafter, cited as R.D.) Therein, the ALJ found that the Government had established a
Respondent filed Exceptions to the Recommended Decision. Having reviewed Respondent's Exceptions along with the entire record, I find that several of them are well taken and that the ALJ committed multiple prejudicial errors. These include:
(1) Barring Respondent from using a document, which, according to Respondent's offer, was from DEA's Web site, to impeach a Government witness, because it was not submitted in advance of the hearing;
(2) barring Respondent from introducing evidence of an email its principal sent to an Agency Investigator the day after she submitted the application, which according to Respondent's offer, memorialized a phone conversation in which she asked if she had correctly answered an application question, also on the ground that it was not submitted in advance of the hearing, notwithstanding that the Government did not even disclose that it was pursuing the material falsification allegation until one week before the hearing; and
(3) finding that Respondent's principal materially falsified its application based on the answer she gave to Question Four when the Government never provided notice that the answer to this question was at issue in the Show Cause Order, its pre-hearing statements, or its opening statement, nor even questioned her about her answer to this question, even though it called her to testify in its case-in-chief.
Because I reject the ALJ's legal conclusions that Respondent's principal materially falsified its application and that Respondent violated its corresponding responsibility under 21 CFR 1306.04(a) when it dispensed prescriptions issued by a physician whose registration had expired, and these errors solely affect these two allegations, I conclude that a remand is not warranted. While I agree with the ALJ's legal conclusion that Respondent violated federal law when it dispensed Suboxone prescriptions, which were issued to provide maintenance or detoxification treatment and the prescribers lacked the requisite authority to prescribe the drug for this purpose, I do not find that the record as a whole supports the proposed outright denial of the Application. Accordingly, I will order that Respondent be granted a registration subject to conditions set forth in this decision. I make the following findings of fact.
Respondent is a corporation which owns a retail pharmacy located at Carretera 109, Kilometer 26.7, Barrio Culebrina, San Sebastian, Puerto Rico. Tr. 9; GX 1. Ms. Yanira Santiago-Soto is the owner of Respondent and its pharmacist-in-charge. Tr. 106.
Respondent is licensed as a pharmacy by the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico Department of Health; this license does not expire until June 26, 2015. RX D1, at 3. Respondent also holds a controlled substance registration, which was also issued by the Commonwealth's Department of Health.
Respondent previously held DEA Certificate of Registration FF1070894, pursuant to which it was authorized to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V. GX 5, at 1. While this registration was not due to expire until September 30, 2014, on November 30, 2011, Ms. Santiago-Soto surrendered Respondent's registration.
On the application, Respondent was required to answer four questions.
If the applicant is a corporation (other than a corporation whose stock is owned and traded by the public), association, partnership, or pharmacy, has any officer, partner, stockholder or proprietor been convicted of a crime in connection with controlled substance(s) under state or federal law, or ever surrendered or had a federal controlled substance registration revoked, suspended, restricted or denied, or ever had a state professional license or controlled substance registration revoked, suspended, denied, restricted, or placed on probation, or is any such action pending?
Following Ms. Santiago-Soto's submission of Respondent's application, a Diversion Investigator with the Ponce, Puerto Rico DEA Office was assigned to investigate the application. Tr. 40-41. Upon doing so, the DI determined that on November 30, 2011, a search warrant had been executed at Respondent during which various items of evidence, including prescriptions, were seized.
Upon reviewing the data provide by the digital evidence lab, the DI determined that “there were two main violations.”
As for the second set of violations, the DI stated that they involved
The DI further testified that Respondent's application contained a falsification because in answering “[q]uestion [n]umber 3,” Ms. Santiago-Soto failed to disclose that the pharmacy had previously surrendered its registration. Tr. 45. While the DI was not present when Ms. Santiago-Soto surrendered Respondent's registration, he testified that he had read a report that stated that she “voluntarily surrendered the pharmacy's license” and that he had also seen the document that she signed, and that the document said that she “voluntarily surrendered” the registration.
Later, on cross-examination, the DI conceded that the criminal charges which were filed against Ms. Santiago-Soto were voluntarily dismissed with prejudice.
The conclusion, once again, is based on our records, what I see in the records, and it's based on the evidence. Whenever an application is submitted to the DEA, and we are required to analyze this application, and based on the pharmacy's, for example, that the applicant is dispensing controlled substances.
Later in the proceedings, the Government called Respondent's owner in its case-in-chief.
Here again, the ALJ erred in sustaining the objection. Even if Respondent's pre-hearing statements did not disclose that Ms. Santiago-Soto would testify regarding this issue, its pre-hearing statement only limited the scope of what she could testify to on direct examination in Respondent's case-in-chief and had no bearing on the appropriate scope of cross-examination given that Ms. Santiago-Soto was still testifying as a Government witness. Moreover, the Government did not argue that the testimony was beyond the scope of its direct examination.
Respondent's counsel then asked the DI if there was any official Web site or registry where a pharmacist can verify if a DEA number is active.
Respondent's counsel then asked the DI “why the DEA site, as of today, states that you cannot verify a DEA number online?”
Respondent's counsel then asked the DI if, in order to verify a DEA number, one had to pay for a program.
Still later, when asked if “it is the responsibility of the doctor [to have] a valid DEA license when prescribing a controlled substance,” the DI answered: “It is the responsibility of both the doctor and the pharmacist. The pharmacy has the responsibility.”
Respondent's counsel then asked whether he had “any evidence” that Ms. Santiago-Soto “ha[d] acted with the intention or knowledge” in dispensing either Dr. Aguilar's or Dr. Vargas' prescriptions.
Also on redirect, the DI was asked whether part of the process of granting the applications of pharmacies involves “explaining to the pharmacies that they have the burden to verify all prescriptions.”
Still later in his testimony, when no question was pending, the DI proceeded to state that even aside from the Suboxone prescriptions, the 241 prescriptions at issue were suspicious because they were for oxycodone and alprazolam, which are highly abused drugs.
The Government also called Ms. Santiago-Soto as a witness. Tr. 105. Ms. Santiago-Soto acknowledged that she has been Respondent's owner and pharmacist-in-charge since she opened the pharmacy.
Next, the Government asked Ms. Santiago-Soto whether she “believe[d] that it's your duty to verify all prescriptions”; she replied: “That's what I do all the time.”
Well to start with, I'm a pharmacist. And I revise [sic] prescriptions, and I make sure that the indications are correct, are the adequate ones, that they meet all standards and legal requirement [sic], whether they be federal or state laws.
Once all those standards are met, and there is no question surrounding the prescription that might prompt me to call the physician for whatever reasons, then we proceed to dispense it.
Ms. Santiago-Soto then acknowledged that Respondent filled the twenty-nine Suboxone prescriptions issued by Drs. Aguilar-Amieva and Vargas-Quinones and that she was not aware that neither doctor was a DATA-waiver physician.
I verified the exhibit that you . . . gave me. . . And if you take a look at the Suboxone prescriptions, in their majority, they have a diagnosis that is related to the abuse of opioids, or opiates.
Therefore, it was my understanding that these physicians had their license current, including some prescriptions that were invoiced to health insurance plans, and they were paid by these, even after they were reviewed.
So, supposedly, that if the health insurance plan hires a physician, all the credentials should be up to date. And if they didn't come to notice this, and with them being the health insurance plan, when they are usually up to date on everything, then it was my understanding that the prescriptions were okay.
Upon questioning by the Government, Ms. Santiago-Soto acknowledged that a DATA-waiver physician must meet certain requirements and that “not all physicians may prescribe” Suboxone, and that a physician who prescribes Suboxone for this purpose must have an X-number.
Ms. Santiago-Soto testified that she did not become aware of the DATA's requirements until Respondent was audited by a health insurance plan and the buprenorphine prescriptions were discussed with her.
The prescriptions met all legal parameters. The patients would come over to the drug store, and the ones that I did dispense, their reputation wasn't in doubt, in my judgment, because many of them would also bring me prescriptions of their medications that they took for continuous use.
The Government then asked Ms. Santiago-Soto whether she analyzed the prescribing practices of a physician for signs of diversion when filling a prescription.
I don't speak with the doctors. There is a confidentiality law between doctor and patient. I review that the prescription meets the law and that it shouldn't raise the least suspicion possible in me, that this medication is not intended, particularly intended for this patient, for medical use.
Turning to the application, Ms. Santiago-Soto acknowledged that she understood both questions two and three.
. . . . In my judgment, this is simple. When I surrendered my license, it was in a situation where I was under arrest, and I had no other choice but to sign the document that was placed in front of me.
Moreover, at the moment of having to sign the document, an agent came out speaking or yelling, “was her rights read to Yanira Santiago, was her Miranda rights”—and just before I signed that paper that said “surrender,” I had my Miranda rights read. And I was practically signing simultaneously.
Agent [P.N.], from the Ponce DEA, explained to me that I had to sign that surrender because of the criminal charges against me. And not because of what I'm being told of here.
I'm handcuffed, and I had to sign a document that they demand from me to sign because I had no other option. Because, according to what they were saying, I was part of a scheme.
When I proceed to answer this questions [sic] that is posed in the new application and quote/unquote, it puts the words “with cause.”
It's my understanding, as of this day, that I surrendered the license without cause, because it was taken away from me because of my criminal case [an]d not because of what I'm being told here.
Ms. Santiago-Soto then explained that when she filled out the application “that question raised doubts in my mind.”
The Government then asked Ms. Santiago-Soto “if you had to fill this application out again today, what would you put for the Question No. 3?”
I would answer it the same way. I would answer the same thing. Because of the statement “with cause,” if that statement wouldn't have been there, I would have no reason to answer “no.” I would've answered “yes.” Because I surrendered.
But since it stated, in parentheses, “with cause,” that's not my issue. Because I surrendered my DEA license because of the criminal case against me. Not because of this intervention right now, that we're having today.
Throughout her testimony, Ms. Santiago-Soto maintained that she did not voluntarily surrender Respondent's registration, but rather was coerced into surrendering it.
Upon the conclusion of Respondent's cross-examination of Ms. Santiago-Soto, Respondent's counsel attempted to move into evidence a copy of the email which she had sent to the group supervisor and explained that he had shown a copy of the email to the Government.
As found above, the email appears to have been relevant to the issue of whether Ms. Santiago-Soto falsified Respondent's application. And contrary to the ALJ's on the record explanation for denying the motion, there was ample reason for why the document was not “presented ahead of time.” Specifically, the ALJ ignored that the Government did not provide any notice that it intended to litigate the issue of material falsification until its supplemental pre-hearing statement, which it filed one week before the hearing, and on which date Respondent was also required to file its supplemental pre-hearing statement. Moreover, the ALJ's June 18 order did not address what procedure Respondent was required to follow in the event the Government raised an entirely new allegation at this stage of the proceeding.
Ms. Santiago-Soto also testified in Respondent's case-in-chief. Ms. Santiago-Soto testified that prior to her arrest on November 30, 2011, she had been inspected twice by DEA. Tr. 142-43. The first of these inspections occurred on September 2, 2010; the second on September 7, 2011. RXsG & H. While Agency Investigators apparently reviewed the controlled-substance prescriptions and her dispensing records, they never notified her of “any findings or wrongdoings on” the part of Respondent. Tr. 143. Nor did they advise that Dr. Aguilar-Amieva or any other doctor was under investigation.
Ms. Santiago-Soto further testified that there is a “question and answer section” on the DEA diversion Web site which includes a question regarding whether the Agency can verify a DEA registration.
Regarding the allegation that she dispensed prescriptions written by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva, whose registration had expired, Ms. Santiago-Soto explained that she had reviewed the DEA Pharmacist's Manual, and that while the Manual contains extensive information as to what must be provided on a prescription, “[n]owhere in the law am I told that I have to be checking each one of the licenses at every moment.”
However, neither Dr. Aguilar-Amieva nor Dr. Vargas-Quinones appeared on the various lists for the years 2008 through 2013.
However, upon questioning by the ALJ, Ms. Santiago-Soto admitted that if a doctor who voluntarily surrendered his registration was not identified on the Web site, she “wouldn't know” that the doctor did not have the requisite authority.
Following the conclusion of Ms. Santiago-Soto's testimony, Respondent's counsel requested that the ALJ take official notice of various documents, including the Web page containing various questions and answers which Respondent's counsel had previously sought to use to impeach the testimony of the DI to the effect that Ms. Santiago-Soto could have verified whether the physicians were registered by calling DEA. Tr. 162-67. After the ALJ asserted that the document's “relationship to the narrative . . . attributed to” Respondent should have been clear to its counsel when she filed its amended pre-hearing statements, Respondent's counsel again argued that it had no “knowledge that the witness for the DEA would provide testimony . . . under oath, that contradicts the information the DEA provided on that Web page.”
Section 303(f) of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) provides that an application for a practitioner's registration may be denied upon a determination “that the issuance of such registration would be inconsistent with the public interest.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f). In making the public interest determination, the CSA requires the consideration of the following factors:
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant's experience in dispensing . . . controlled substances.
(3) The applicant's conviction record under Federal or State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.
“These factors are . . . considered in the disjunctive.”
So too, I acknowledge that neither Respondent, nor Ms. Santiago-Soto, has been convicted of an offense under either federal or Puerto Rico law “relating to the manufacture, distribution or dispensing of controlled substances.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f)(3). However, while the charges against Ms. Santiago-Soto were dismissed, this finding is not dispositive of the allegations that Respondent filled unlawful prescriptions because this proceeding involves different allegations than those brought in the criminal proceeding and is subject to a lower standard of proof (the preponderance standard) than that applied in a criminal proceeding.
Under Section 304(a)(1), a registration may be revoked or suspended “upon a finding that the registrant . . . has materially falsified any application filed pursuant to or required by this subchapter.” 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1). Under agency precedent, the various grounds for revocation or suspension of an existing registration that Congress enumerated in section 304(a), 21 U.S.C. 824(a), are also properly considered in deciding whether to grant or deny an application under section 303.
In this matter, the Government alleged that Ms. Santiago-Soto materially falsified Respondent's application for registration by failing to disclose that it had previously surrendered its prior registration for cause. Gov. Post-Hearing Br., at 6-9. It also alleged that Respondent's registration is inconsistent with the public interest because it violated 21 U.S.C. 843(a)(2), as well as 21 CFR 1306.04 and 1306.06, when: (1) Between February 2009 and October 2009, it filled 241 prescriptions which were issued by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva, whose registration had been retired by the Agency; and (2) it filled Suboxone prescriptions issued by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva and Dr. Vargas-Quinones to treat narcotic addiction, when neither doctor was authorized under Federal law to do so.
The Government argues that Ms. Santiago-Soto materially falsified Respondent's application for registration because she failed to disclose the November 30, 2011 surrender of its registration. More specifically, the Government contends that Ms. Santiago-Soto materially falsified the application, when she provided a “no” answer to question two, which asked: “Has the applicant ever surrendered (for cause) or had a federal controlled substances registration revoked, suspended,
One of the fundamental tenets of Due Process is that an Agency must provide a Respondent with notice of those acts which the Agency intends to rely on in seeking the revocation of its registration so as to provide a full and fair opportunity to challenge the factual and legal basis for the Agency's action.
“ `Pleadings in administrative proceedings are not judged by the standards applied to an indictment at common law.' ”
“The primary function of notice is to afford [a] respondent an opportunity to prepare a defense by investigating the basis of the complaint and fashioning an explanation that refutes the charge of unlawful behavior.”
“An agency may not base its decision upon an issue the parties tried inadvertently. Implied consent is not established merely because one party introduced evidence relevant to an unpleaded issue and the opposing party failed to object to its introduction. It must appear that the parties understood the evidence to be aimed at the unpleaded issue.”
In its initial Pre-Hearing Statement, the Government again failed to allege that the application was materially false. Nor, in summarizing the testimony of its proposed witnesses therein, did the Government provide notice that it intended to put forward any evidence which would lead Respondent to conclude that the material falsification of its application was an issue in the case.
Instead, the Government did not provide notice that it intended to litigate the issue of whether the application contained a material falsification until its Supplemental Pre-Hearing Statement, which was not filed until one week before the evidence-taking phase of the proceeding convened. Even then, the Supplemental Pre-Hearing Statement did not identify which specific statements on the applications were allegedly false. Rather, the Supplemental Pre-Hearing Statement merely stated that “Ms. Soto will be asked about the circumstances of the pharmacy's prior surrender of its DEA certificate of registration, and about her failure to note the previous surrender on Respondent's new application for registration.” ALJ Ex. 7, at 3. Because the Government's Supplemental Pre-Hearing Statement did not specifically identify which of the various application statements it was alleging to be materially false, only those issues which the record shows were litigated by consent can support a finding (if proved by substantial evidence) that Ms. Santiago-Soto materially falsified the application and the imposition of a sanction.
Notably, while at the evidentiary phase of the hearing the Government made an opening statement, here again, it did not identify the specific statements which were allegedly false. Rather, it confined its opening statement to the following: “Your Honor, the Government seeks a recommendation of a denial of application based on Sections 823 and 824 of the Controlled Substances Act, on the basis of a material falsification on the application, and the fact that Respondent's registration would be inconsistent with the public interest.” Tr. 39.
Moreover, in questioning both the DI and Ms. Santiago-Soto, the Government did not elicit any testimony regarding Question Four. Rather, it focused entirely on the answers Ms. Santiago-Soto had given to Question Two, and, notwithstanding that there was no evidence that the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico had taken any action against either Respondent or Ms. Santiago-Soto, Question Three.
Thus, I hold that the Government provided adequate notice to support a finding that the parties litigated by consent the issue of whether Ms. Santiago-Soto's answer to Question Two was materially false. However, I further hold that the record does not support a finding that the parties litigated by consent whether her answer to Question Four was also materially false.
Turning to the merits of the allegation pertaining to Question Two, the evidence showed that on November 29, 2011, Ms. Santiago-Soto was indicted (along with thirty-two other persons) on two felony counts of violating the Controlled Substance Act, including: (1) By conspiring to possess and dispense, with intent to distribute, various controlled substances, in violation of 21 U.S.C. 841(a)(1), 846, and 860; and (2) by aiding and abetting each other and “knowingly and intentionally possess[ing] and dispens[ing] with intent to distribute various” schedule II through IV controlled substances, “outside the scope of professional practice and not for a legitimate medical purpose,” in violation of 21 U.S.C. 841(a)(1) and 18 U.S.C. 2. RX B, at 1-13.
On November 30, 2011, Ms. Santiago-Soto was arrested early in the morning and taken to her pharmacy where, after receiving the Miranda warnings, she was told by P.N., a DI,
As found above, the DI who testified for the Government did not personally participate in the arrest of Ms. Santiago-Soto and did not witness the events surrounding her execution of the Voluntary Surrender form. Tr. 60-61. Nor did the Government call as a witness any other person who witnessed the execution of the surrender form. Thus, there is no evidence that, at the time she surrendered Respondent's registration, Ms. Santiago-Soto was confronted with any allegations of misconduct aside from those which comprised the criminal case.
Subsequently, the U.S. Attorney moved to dismiss
The Government nonetheless argues that Ms. Santiago-Soto “could not under any reasonable circumstances have answered the relevant liability questions . . . in the negative” and that she “placed undue emphasis on the words `for cause' in liability question #2.” Gov. Post-Hrng. Br., at 7. The Government further notes Ms. Santiago-Soto's claim that she signed the surrender form “under duress.”
I need not decide whether surrendering a registration under duress constitutes a valid defense to a charge of material falsification of Question Two or whether the facts here would support such a defense.
As for the latter contention, Ms. Santiago-Soto was only required to answer Question Two as it was written on the application and not as it otherwise could have been written (such as without those words). Indeed, the Government does not explain how Ms. Santiago-Soto could have “placed undue emphasis on the words `for cause,' ” when those words were part of the question and the application contains no explanation of what the term “surrender for cause” means.
There is no Agency regulation which defines the term “for cause” as it is applied in the context of an application for registration. However, two regulations do define the term in the context of imposing requirements on practitioners in the employment of persons who handle or have access to controlled substances,
However, even if this definition was applied to Respondent's application, it would offer no support to the Government. Here, there is no evidence that Ms. Santiago-Soto was advised that if she did not surrender the registration, Respondent would face an Order to Show Cause. Thus, she did not surrender the registration “in lieu of” a hearing. Moreover, while she had been indicted prior to the surrender, there is no evidence that she surrendered the registration in lieu of facing the criminal charges, which were not dismissed until several months later.
Notably, Ms. Santiago-Soto's testimony that she was told that she had to surrender her registration because of her involvement in a criminal scheme stands unrefuted, and there is no evidence that, at the time of the surrender, she was told by Agency personnel that the Agency was alleging additional violations of the CSA or DEA
Even had I concluded otherwise, I would hold that there are mitigating circumstances that substantially diminish the egregiousness of the alleged misconduct. Ms. Santiago-Soto testified that the day after she submitted the application, she contacted the Diversion Group Supervisor and explained to her that she answered the question “no” and “was unsure if [she] had answered the question correctly” because the question used the words “with cause.” Tr. 126. Ms. Santiago-Soto also testified that the Group Supervisor told her that she did not know, but that she would look into it and get back to her.
While the ALJ acknowledged this testimony in his summary of the testimony,
Thus, it appears that the ALJ rejected Santiago-Soto's testimony regarding the phone call and email to the Group Supervisor because she did not claim to have asked about Question Four. However, to the extent this is an accurate discernment of the ALJ's unexplained reasoning, it not surprising that there is no evidence as to why Ms. Santiago-Soto answered Question Four as she did. This is so because the Government never asked her why she did, nor otherwise adequately put her on notice that her answer to this question was at issue in the proceeding.
In its Post-Hearing Brief, the Government asserts that Ms. Santiago-Soto's “failure to testify on this question supports an adverse inference that she knew the statement was false.” Gov. Post-Hrng. Br., at 8. The Government ignores that it called Ms. Santiago-Soto to testify in its case in chief and could have—but failed to—ask her about her answer to Question Four. Nor did the Government, at any time prior to filing its Post-Hearing Brief, provide notice to Santiago-Soto that her answer to Question Four was at issue. I therefore hold that the Government is not entitled to an adverse inference regarding her answer to Question Four.
This, however, is not the only problematic aspect of the ALJ's failure to adequately explain why he gave no weight to Ms. Santiago-Soto's testimony regarding the phone call she made to the Group Supervisor. As explained above, the ALJ's decision also suggests that he gave no weight to her testimony because the Group Supervisor was not called to testify and the email was not part of the record.
As for the failure to obtain the Group Supervisor's testimony, Respondent was not required to call the Group Supervisor in order to establish that her testimony was credible. As for the ALJ's observation that the email is not part of the record, it should have been (indeed, notwithstanding the Agency's regulation, which requires that an ALJ forward a rejected exhibit to the Administrator's Office, it was not). As found above, the ALJ allowed the Government to delay filing its supplemental prehearing statement until one week before the hearing and imposed the same deadline on Respondent. Moreover, the ALJ failed to provide any direction to Respondent as to what steps it must take in the event the Government raised an entirely new allegation at this state of the proceeding and wished to present evidence to refute the allegation.
As for the ALJ's on-the-record explanation that the email had to be presented “ahead of time, so [he] could evaluate it,” Tr. 138, this begs the question: Evaluate it for what? Even in jury trials (where there is a manifest to need to protect the factfinder from being misled or confused), judges routinely rule from the bench on the admissibility of evidence. And here, where there is no jury, the ALJ could have evaluated this evidence at the same time he evaluated the testimony. Finally, the Government offered no objection to the email; nor could it reasonably claim prejudice given that it waited until one week before the hearing to finally make the allegation. Under these circumstances, I conclude that the ALJ's refusal to admit the email was arbitrary and capricious.
I further reject the ALJ's findings that Ms. Santiago-Soto materially falsified Respondent's application when she provided a “no” answer to Question Two and Four. R.D. at 29, 30-31. I further reject the ALJ's Conclusions of Law with respect to this issue.
With respect to Factors Two and Four, the Government made two allegations. First, it alleged that “from February 2009 to October 2009,” Respondent “filled approximately 241 prescriptions” which were issued by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva, after his registration had been retired by the Agency. Gov. Post-Hrng. Br., at 11. The Government alleged that this “conduct violated 21 U.S.C. 843(a)(2), 21 CFR 1306.04 and 1306.06.”
As found above, the evidence showed that Dr. Hector J. Aguilar-Amieva's registration expired on June 30, 2008 and was retired from the DEA computer system on January 31, 2009. GX 6. The evidence, which was not objected to, further showed that Respondent filled more than two hundred controlled-substance prescriptions which were issued by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva from February 2, 2009 through August 8, 2011.
Except for in limited circumstances which are not implicated here, the Controlled Substances Act requires that “[e]very person who dispenses . . . any controlled substance [ ] shall obtain from the Attorney General a registration issued in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by him.” 21 U.S.C. 822(a)(2).
The issue in this matter, however, is whether liability can be imposed on Respondent because its principal filled Dr. Aguilar-Amieva's prescriptions. As explained above, the Government contends that Respondent's conduct violated section 843(a)(2); the Agency's corresponding responsibility rule,
As explained above, section 843(a)(2) imposes criminal liability on any person who uses, in the course of dispensing a controlled substance, an expired registration number. While no case has been cited by the Government where a pharmacist has been convicted of violating this provision because it filled prescriptions issued by a physician whose registration had expired, given that a prescription provides the lawful authority for a pharmacist to dispense a controlled substance,
As for 21 CFR 1306.04(a), it requires that a controlled substance prescription “be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice” and imposes “a corresponding responsibility” on the pharmacist who fills a prescription which was not issued “in the usual course of professional treatment.” However, here again, the regulation imposes liability only on a “person
While the plain language of both of these provisions requires proof that a pharmacist dispensed a prescription knowing that the issuer lacked the requisite authority, the Government produced no evidence that Ms. Santiago-Soto knew (or was even willfully blind) to the fact that Dr. Aguilar-Amieva did not hold a DEA registration. Indeed, while in its brief the Government argues that Ms. Santiago-Soto admitted that Respondent had filled the prescriptions, Ms. Santiago-Soto expressly denied that she knew that Aguilar-Amieva's registration “had been revoked in January 2009.” Tr. 106-07.
The Government also alleged that Respondent's filling of the 241prescriptions violated 21 CFR 1306.06. In relevant part, this regulation provides that “[a] prescription for a controlled substance may only be filled by a pharmacist, acting in the usual course of his professional practice.” 21 CFR 1306.06. Thus, on its face, this regulation does not require proof of knowledge to sustain a violation.
However, the regulation does require that the Government establish what the standards of pharmacy practice require, through either expert testimony or by reference to federal or state laws, pharmacy board or Agency regulations, or decisional law (whether of administrative bodies or the courts). Here, while the Government's evidence establishes that Respondent dispensed some 241 controlled substance prescriptions over a period of approximately thirty months, which were written by a physician who was not registered, the Government did not put on any expert testimony establishing that pharmacists have a duty to verify the registration status of the prescribers whose prescriptions they fill. Nor did the Government cite to any other rule or decision imposing such a duty.
Notwithstanding that the Government neither produced any evidence establishing that the usual course of professional practice requires that a pharmacist verify the registration status of prescribers, nor cited any law, regulation, or other authority, which imposes such a requirement, the ALJ found that when “she filled these prescriptions[,] Ms. Santiago-Soto failed
It is true that under the Agency's rule, a party is generally required to provide a copy of any proposed exhibit which is being offered as substantive evidence in the matter. However, contrary to the ALJ's understanding, a party is not required to disclose, in advance of the hearing, a document which is being used to impeach a witness. I therefore reject this finding.
As for the NTIS database, the ALJ acknowledged that subscribing to this service is expensive. However, he then opined that “[i]t is no answer to complain that the NTIS program costs a lot of money; nor is it a sufficient legal response to argue that DEA regulations do not require pharmacists to purchase the program.” R.D. at 23. To the extent this comment might be understood as creating an obligation on all pharmacies to subscribe to this service, it is rejected. While it was not fully developed on the record of this proceeding, DEA provides a web tool which allows a registrant to verify the registration of another person or entity.
Contrary to the ALJ's understanding, no Agency regulation requires that a pharmacist ascertain that each prescription presented to him/her has been issued by a practitioner who possesses a valid DEA registration and the Agency expressly disclaimed the existence of such a duty in 2010, when it promulgated its Interim Final Rule on Electronic Prescriptions for Controlled Substances.
In its response (which appears to be missing pertinent text), the Agency stated that it “agrees with those commenters that expressed the view that, when filling a paper prescription, it is not necessary for a pharmacist who receives an electronic prescription for a controlled substance to check the CSA database in every instance to confirm that the prescribing practitioner is properly registered with DEA.”
Moreover, in
The Government does not rely on this theory and no case (until recently) has presented the question of how frequently a pharmacy must re-verify the credentials of prescribers. Nor has the Agency published any guidance to the regulated community setting forth the parameters of this duty. What is clear, however, is that a pharmacy is not required to verify the credentials of the prescriber for every prescription it fills.
Accordingly, I reject the ALJ's reasoning as contrary to the published guidance of the Agency. And because the Government failed to put forward either: (1) any evidence to show that Ms. Santiago-Soto either knew or was willfully blind to the fact that Dr. Aguilar-Amieva was no longer registered, or (2) any evidence or legal authority establishing that Ms. Santiago-Soto acted outside of the usual course of professional practice, I reject the Government's contention that Respondent violated federal law and DEA regulations in filling these prescriptions.
Regarding this allegation, the evidence shows that Respondent filled twenty-nine Suboxone prescriptions, which were issued by Dr. Aguilar-Amieva and Dr. Vargas-Quinones,
A physician who seeks to prescribe Suboxone (or other schedule III through V drugs approved by FDA) for maintenance or detoxification treatment must meet certain conditions (including that the physician either holds various certifications or has training or experience in the management of opiate-dependent patients) and must provide a notification (which includes various certifications) to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, who must then determine (within 45 days from the date of receipt of the notification) whether the physician meets the requirements for a waiver under 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(2)(B). 21 CFR 1301.28(a)-(d). If the practitioner holds “the appropriate registration” and the Secretary either makes “a positive determination” or fails to act within the 45 day period, DEA issues an identification number, which is otherwise known as an X-number to the practitioner.
Moreover, under DEA's regulation:
A prescription may not be issued for “detoxification treatment” or “maintenance treatment,” unless the prescription is for a
So too, pursuant to 21 CFR 1306.05(b), “[a] prescription for a Schedule III, IV, or V narcotic drug approved by FDA specifically for `detoxification treatment' or `maintenance treatment'
The Government contends that Respondent violated,
However, the evidence does establish that Ms. Santiago-Soto violated 21 CFR 1306.05(f) when she filled at least seventeen of these prescriptions.
In her testimony, Ms. Santiago-Soto maintained that she “was not aware” that the X number had to be on the prescription “for that medication in particular,” Tr. 110, and that she “was not aware that buprenorphine [the generic name for Suboxone] fell among the medications that required the X DEA number.”
Accordingly, her testimony does not establish that she made a mistake of fact but rather that she was ignorant of the regulations. This, of course is not a defense.
Indeed, Ms. Santiago-Soto's testimony regarding the allegation was most unpersuasive. More specifically, Ms. Santiago-Soto testified that she had graduated from pharmacy school in 1995, and that the DATA law was passed in 2000, but after 2002, when Suboxone was approved by FDA for the purpose of treating narcotic addiction, “the DEA in Puerto Rico never has provided any orientation or guidance online, or by way of a conference, or through continuing education, or by letters, letting me know, or providing me these kinds of guidelines.” Tr. 110.
However, in 2003, the Agency published in the
As the 2003 Notice of Proposed Rulemaking explained:
[t]he Controlled Substances Act (CSA) and current regulations requires that practitioners who want to conduct maintenance or detoxification treatment using narcotic (opioid) controlled drugs be registered with DEA as narcotic treatment programs (NTPs) in addition to the practitioners' personal registrations. The separate NTP registrations authorize the practitioners to dispense or administer, but not prescribe narcotic (opioid) controlled drugs.
The dispensing of controlled substances is a highly regulated industry, and as a participant in this industry, Ms. Santiago-Soto is properly charged with knowledge of the applicable regulations, including: (1) The requirement that a Suboxone prescription, which has been issued to provide treatment for opiate addiction, can only be issued by a person who meets the requirements of 21 CFR 1301.28; as well as (2) that the prescription must bear either the prescriber's X-number or the good faith statement.
I therefore find that Ms. Santiago-Soto knowingly dispensed the seventeen Suboxone prescriptions which were issued for maintenance or detoxification purposes in violation of federal law by the respective physicians and thus also violated federal law in doing so. 21 CFR 1306.04(c);
However, Ms. Santiago-Soto testified that she had become aware of the DATA of 2000 during an audit by a health insurance plan, which occurred months before she was arrested and surrendered her registration, and that she then went online and familiarized herself with the statute's requirements. Tr. 112. Most significantly, the Government's own evidence shows that Respondent dispensed the last Suboxone prescription on July 3, 2011, nearly five months before Ms. Santiago-Soto was arrested and surrendered its registration.
Thus, while I conclude that the Government has proved that Respondent committed acts which are “inconsistent with the public interest,” 21 US.C. § 823(f), I also find that there are several factors which mitigate the violations.
Under Agency precedent, where, as here, “the Government has proved that a registrant has committed acts inconsistent with the public interest, a registrant must “ `present sufficient mitigating evidence to assure the Administrator that it can be entrusted with the responsibility carried by such a registration.' ” ”
While a registrant must accept responsibility and demonstrate that it will not engage in future misconduct in order to establish that its registration is consistent with the public interest, DEA has repeatedly held these are not the only factors that are relevant in determining the appropriate sanction.
As found above, the only allegation sustainable on the record is that Respondent filled seventeen Suboxone prescriptions that were issued to provide maintenance or detoxification treatment by two physicians who were not DATA-waived physicians. As explained above, I find that Ms. Santiago knowingly violated federal law by dispensing these prescriptions because the purpose of the prescriptions was clearly identified on them and none of the prescriptions had the physician's
Regarding these violations, Respondent's evidence of its acceptance of responsibility was less than unequivocal. While Ms. Santiago-Soto admitted that she was aware that the prescriptions were issued to treat substance abuse patients and that she should have learned about the requirements applicable to the prescribing of Suboxone for this purpose earlier than she did, she also attempted to minimize her misconduct by attributing it to the failure of the DEA office in Puerto Rico to provide any guidance to her regarding the requirements. DEA did, however, publish, in the
Yet, while Ms. Santiago-Soto is presumed to have knowledge of the applicable regulations and thus violated federal law in dispensing those Suboxone prescriptions which bore a diagnosis indicating that they were issued to treat narcotic addiction, the egregiousness of her misconduct is diminished by two factors. First, the violations were limited in scope, as the total amount of the unlawful dispensings was 224 tablets. Second, Ms. Santiago-Soto had determined, prior to the Agency's bringing it to her attention, that the Suboxone prescriptions were illegal, and at the time she surrendered Respondent's registration, had long since ceased the offending practice.
The ALJ further found that there is “scant evidence that Ms. Santiago-Soto has engaged in a course of conduct that would ensure that she remains properly informed about changes in DEA controlled substance regulations.”
It may be that the ALJ actually meant to say that he does not believe that Ms. Santiago-Soto will properly verify that the issuers of Suboxone prescriptions for addiction treatment will have the requisite qualifications. If this was the ALJ's intent, it is refuted by his acknowledgment—one page earlier in his decision—of Ms. Santiago-Soto's testimony that she would subscribe to the NTIS service and that “[t]his would appear to be an effective remedial step [which] possibly could lessen the risk of filling prescriptions for Suboxone if the prescribing provider was not a DATA-waived” physician.
In its Exceptions, Respondent argues that the ALJ's recommended sanction of denial “is drastic and overly broad.” Exceptions at 15. It argues,
“Proceedings under sections 303 and 304 of the CSA are . . . non-punitive.”
I agree with Respondent that the outright denial of its application is not supported by the record and that its application can be granted “after a determined period of additional time,” subject to Respondent meeting various conditions. First, while I acknowledge Ms. Santiago-Soto's testimony as to the steps she took to familiarize herself with the requirements pertaining to the prescribing of Suboxone, she also testified that while she reviews a prescription to ensure that it meets legal requirements and is not suspicious, she does not “speak with the doctors” because “[t]here is a confidentiality law between doctor and patient.” Tr. 117. While the Government did not address the validity of this statement in its post-hearing brief, it is flatly inconsistent with long-standing authority setting forth the scope of a pharmacist's corresponding responsibility under the Controlled Substances Act.
I will further order that Respondent's application be held in abeyance for six months from the date of this order (not the date of publication) at which time, its application shall be granted provided Respondent has provided evidence to DEA that Ms. Santiago-Soto has completed the above-described course and commits no violation of federal or commonwealth controlled substance laws. If, however, Ms. Santiago-Soto fails to provide evidence that she has completed such course within the six-month period, Respondent's application shall be denied.
Upon the granting of the registration, Respondent shall be placed on probation for a period of three years. During the period of the probation, Respondent and its principal shall agree to consent to unannounced inspections by DEA personnel and shall waive its right to require DEA personnel to obtain an Administrative Inspection Warrant prior to conducting an inspection. Ms. Santiago-Soto shall provide a letter to DEA manifesting Respondent's consent to unannounced inspections by DEA and waiving its right to require DEA personnel to obtain an Administrative Inspection Warrant prior to the issuance of its registration.
Respondent shall provide a copy of its controlled substance dispensing log on a quarterly basis to the DEA Ponce Office. Said quarters shall end on March 31st, June 30th, September 30th, and December 31st of each year, and the log shall be provided to the DEA Ponce Office no later than ten (10) calendar
Respondent and Ms. Santiago-Soto shall notify the DEA Ponce Office of any disciplinary action undertaken against its pharmacy license and Puerto Rico controlled substance registration, as well as any action taken against Ms. Santiago-Soto's pharmacist license, including the initiation of any proceeding by the Commonwealth's authorities to suspend or revoke any of the licenses or registration. Such notification shall occur no later than three business days following service on Respondent or Ms. Santiago-Soto of any document initiating such a proceeding, any interim or emergency order of suspension, and any final order.
The above conditions shall terminate upon Respondent's completion of the period of probation, provided Respondent fully complies with each term of its probation. Any violation of these conditions shall constitute an act inconsistent with the public interest and grounds for the suspension or revocation of Respondent's registration.
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f), as well as 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that the Application of Farmacia Yani be, and it hereby is, held in abeyance for a period of six months to begin on the date of this ORDER. I further order that upon the conclusion of the six-month period, the Application of Farmacia Yani shall be granted or denied as set forth above. I also order that in the event that Ms. Santiago-Soto complies with the condition that she complete a course in controlled substance dispensing and the corresponding responsibility, Farmacia Yani's Application shall be granted subject to the probationary conditions set forth above. This ORDER is effective immediately.
On June 24, 2014, Chief Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) John J. Mulrooney, Jr., issued the attached Recommended Decision.
Having reviewed the entire record, including Respondent's Exceptions, I have decided to adopt the ALJ's findings of fact,
I also do not adopt the ALJ's finding that the dispensing event which occurred on March 15, 2011 was based on a hard copy prescription which was dated March 11, 2011, or that the March 11 prescription was presented to different pharmacies on three occasions.
While I adopt the ALJ's finding that the testimony of Malana Diminovich, who testified that the PA had issued the controlled substance prescriptions, was not credible, as explained in my discussion of Respondent's fourth exception, I do not rely on his reasoning to the extent it is based on the suggested inconsistency between Diminovich's testimony that “Respondent was never observed to be under the influence of controlled substances during the time the two worked together” and “that she was aware that . . . Respondent was receiving controlled substance prescriptions from PA Francis.”
In his decision, the ALJ found that “the only evidence received on the issue supports the Respondent's claim that she had an objective medical basis that could arguably have supported the prescribing of controlled substances,”
In any event, the Government's case primarily focused on Respondent's obtaining of controlled substances through fraud or misrepresentation such as by presenting forged prescriptions. Thus, resolution of the allegations does not require proof that Respondent was abusing the controlled substances.
Also, I do not adopt the ALJ's findings related to the dates of the phone call in which Dr. Edmonds confronted Respondent as to whether she was forging prescriptions which were purportedly authorized by PA Francis. In the decision, the ALJ referred to this phone call as occurring in July 2011, following Respondent's positive urinalysis for opiates.
Respondent argues that her rights under the Due Process Clause and the Administrative Procedure Act were violated because in the Show Cause Order, the Government alleged only that Respondent forged eight prescriptions and the ALJ proceeded to rely on “other matters of fact to support” his recommendation. Exceptions, at 2. Respondent does not, however, identify the specific facts of which she believes she was denied adequate notice, but rather, simply asserts that “the matters determined by the ALJ to support findings against Respondent as to factors four and five were not previously raised in the Order to Show Cause.”
To the extent Respondent takes issue with the ALJ's decision because the Show Cause Order alleged only eight instances of forgery rather than the ten instances that the ALJ found proved (as well as the instance in which Respondent filled the first prescription a second time at a second pharmacy), her argument is not well taken. However, to the extent Respondent takes issue with the ALJ's finding that Respondent engaged in conduct actionable under factor five because she attempted to obstruct the pharmacist who questioned her prescription from contacting PA Francis, her argument is well taken.
One of the fundamental tenets of Due Process is that an Agency must provide a Respondent with notice of those acts which the Agency intends to rely on in seeking the revocation of its registration so as to provide a full and fair opportunity to challenge the factual and legal basis for the Agency's action.
However, “ `[p]leadings in administrative proceedings are not judged by the standards applied to an indictment at common law.' ”
“The primary function of notice is to afford [a] respondent an opportunity to prepare a defense by investigating the basis of the complaint and fashioning an explanation that refutes the charge of unlawful behavior.”
“An agency may not base its decision upon an issue the parties tried inadvertently. Implied consent is not established merely because one party introduced evidence relevant to an unpleaded issue and the opposing party failed to object to its introduction. It must appear that the parties understood the evidence to be aimed at the unpleaded issue.”
Here, in the Government's initial prehearing statement, Respondent had notice that the Government intended to prove that all of the “prescriptions purportedly issued by PA Francis . . . after February 14, 2011 were not authorized by” her. ALJ Ex. 4, a 4. Moreover, in advance of the hearing, the Government provided Respondent with both the prescriptions it alleged were fraudulent as well as the search results from the New Mexico Prescription Monitoring Program, which listed each of the prescriptions which were purportedly issued by PA Francis to Respondent. ALJ Ex. 7, at 2. Furthermore, prior to the hearing, the parties engaged in extensive litigation over the admissibility of Government Exhibit 4, the exhibit containing the alleged fraudulent prescriptions, as well as over the PMP report. Finally, at the hearing, each of the prescriptions was offered into evidence and was the subject of testimony by witnesses for both parties, including Respondent who testified that each of the prescriptions had been authorized by PA Francis.
Thus, Respondent clearly had fair notice that the Government was alleging that she had obtained controlled substances on eleven occasions by presenting the first prescription (which was authorized by PA Francis) for filling at a second pharmacy, and by forging ten other prescriptions which were presented and filled by multiple pharmacies. Nor can Respondent claim that she lacked notice as to the legal basis for the allegations, as the Government alleged and argued that her conduct violated 21 U.S.C. 843(a)(3).
As noted above, Respondent also took exception to the ALJ's discussion at pages 62-64 of his decision. Therein, the ALJ concluded that Respondent had engaged in actionable misconduct which may threaten public health and safety,
Review of the Government's Prehearing Statement clearly shows that the Government provided Respondent with notice that it intended to elicit testimony from the pharmacist that he had received a faxed hydrocodone prescription for Respondent but that upon submitting the prescription information to Respondent's insurer, the pharmacy “received an insurance rejection message of `refill too soon'” and that a pharmacy technician had reported to the pharmacist “that the same prescription had been filled the day” before at another pharmacy. ALJ Ex. 4, at 3-4. The Government also provided notice that it intended to elicit testimony from the pharmacist that he “attempted to call PA Francis to verify the prescription, but the call was intercepted by the Respondent,” who told the pharmacist that she did not know the prescription had been sent to the other pharmacy and asked him to cancel the prescription.
Thus, Respondent clearly had notice that her conduct related to this incident would be at issue in the proceeding. Moreover, this conduct is clearly probative of the allegation that Respondent engaged in obtaining controlled substances through fraud, and the Government relied on the pharmacist's testimony in support of its contention that Respondent forged the prescriptions issued under the PA's registration. Gov. Post-Hrng. Br. at 26.
However, at no point in the proceeding did the Government contend that this conduct provided an independent basis to support a finding under factor five. Indeed, while in its
While I agree with the ALJ that engaging in intentional and significant acts to obstruct a pharmacist who is attempting to verify the validity of a prescription constitutes “conduct which may threaten public health and safety,” the Government never advanced this theory in the proceeding. Thus, Respondent was never provided with the opportunity to argue as to why her conduct did not rise to the level of intentional and significant acts such as to warrant sanction under factor five.
However, in light of the extensive evidence that Respondent obtained controlled substances by fraud or deception on eleven occasions and the ALJ's finding that she has not accepted responsibility for her misconduct,
Respondent also takes exception to the ALJ's findings that the prescriptions had resulted in the occurrence of twelve dispensing events, “each signif[ying] an episode wherein Respondent actually obtained prescription narcotics.” Exceptions, at 3 (citing R.D. at 20-28). According to Respondent, this finding is not supported by the record because “there was
This argument is not persuasive. While it is true that a pharmacy's creation of a dispensing label for a filled prescription, as well as its inputting of data which was then submitted to the State's Prescription Monitoring Program, does not establish that the prescription was actually dispensed, Respondent testified that either she or members of her family picked up at least ten of the prescriptions before she attempted to change her story. Tr. 901-03, 921. Moreover, when asked by her counsel if she knew whether “there are some prescriptions waiting for you at some place,” she answered: “No, I don't think so, but.”
Indeed, her attempt to deny that the prescriptions were picked up defies logic, given that at the hearing she maintained that all of the prescriptions had been authorized by the PA (Tr. 822, 899, 910) and were issued to treat a legitimate medical condition (Tr. 903, 922). Nor does it makes sense that having previously presented a prescription, she would, in the absence of having been told that the pharmacy had declined to fill it, then present a further prescription to another pharmacy without first picking up the already filled prescription.
In any event, even if Respondent (or her family) did not actually pick up any of the prescriptions, the evidence would still support a finding that she violated federal law. Here, the ALJ found that Respondent forged the PA's signature on the prescriptions and both the dispensing labels and the PMP report establish that the prescriptions were presented to the pharmacies. Thus, even if Respondent or her family members never picked up any of filled prescriptions, her conduct is still actionable as an attempt to obtain controlled substances by fraud or deception.
Respondent argues that the ALJ abused his discretion because he failed to consider evidence that two persons “had access to the necessary process and information to perform the alleged acts in [her] name without her knowledge and/or agreement.” Exceptions, at 9, 11. Respondent identifies these two persons as her husband, who was also taking hydrocodone, and Ms. Diminovich, Respondent's medical assistant at the clinic.
I reject the exception. Even ignoring the fundamental inconsistency between Respondent's contention and her testimony that the prescriptions were lawfully prescribed to her by PA Francis, the exception is unsupported by anything bordering on substantial evidence.
As for whether Respondent's husband was actually forging the prescriptions, even assuming that he had received hydrocodone prescriptions from PA Francis, no evidence was put forward that he had access to either the electronic medical records system (which included software for creating and printing a prescription) or to PA Francis's prescription pads. Thus, Respondent's theory is pure conjecture.
As for whether Ms. Diminovich was forging the prescriptions, it is true that she had access to the clinic's electronic medical records system. Moreover, it seems possible that she could have had access to the PA's prescription pad. However, while Respondent called Ms. Diminovich as a witness, Diminovich was never asked if she had forged any of the prescriptions; nor was any other evidence put forward that Dimonovich was forging prescriptions and using Respondent's name as the patient. Indeed, consistent with her theory that the prescriptions were authorized by PA Francis, Respondent elicited testimony from Ms. Diminovich that PA Francis “would fill out the script for [Respondent] personally” and either hand it to Respondent or leave it on her desk. Tr. 732. Respondents' theory that Ms. Diminovich was forging and filling the prescriptions and filling them in the former's name is thus not supported by anything more than the evidence that she had access to the clinic's prescribing
Finally, Respondent argues that the ALJ arbitrarily discounted the testimony of Ms. Diminovich and that he ignored “the context” of her testimony. Exceptions, at 11. Respondent also contends that the Government's witnesses, who had “the exact same `issues' in their testimony, were called completely credible by the ALJ provided they blamed” her.
Respondent does not, however, take exception to the ALJ's findings as to her own testimony. Of note, the ALJ found that “Respondent's testimony throughout this hearing was punctuated by internal inconsistencies, implausibility, and chronic equivocation.” R.D. at 46. The ALJ further found that “there were several times where her answers seemed to evolve with objective evidence and dates she was confronted with.”
As for Respondent's contention that the ALJ arbitrarily discounted Ms. Diminovich's testimony, the argument is based largely on her testimony that she observed animosity between Respondent and Dr. Edmond (the co-owner of the clinic), PA Francis, and the clinic's human resources manager. Exceptions, at 11-12. To be sure, in explaining why he gave less weight to Ms. Diminovich's testimony, the ALJ relied on her failure to testify as to whether the animosity pre-dated or post-dated the discovery of the prescriptions at issue.
However, I need not decide whether these two reasons provide a sufficient basis to support the ALJ's credibility determination because the ALJ also explained that “much of Ms. Diminovich's testimony was too vague and lacking in detail to stand up against other record evidence.” R.D. at 31. As the ALJ further explained, while Ms. Diminovich testified that “she saw PA Francis prescribe controlled substances to the Respondent and hand the scripts over, [she] never sa[id] when or how often, and [did] not provide details about a single such event she recalls.”
In short, to resolve the factual dispute as to whether PA Francis had authorized the prescriptions or Respondent was forging them, the ALJ was required to make credibility determinations with respect to the testimony presented by the witnesses for the Government and those for Respondent. Notably, with regard to the testimony of the Government's witnesses, Respondent makes only the conclusory assertion that their testimony raised “the exact same issues” as her witnesses, Exceptions at 11, and fails to cite to any specific portions of their testimony which she asserts lacked credibility. The ALJ was, however, in the best position to observe the demeanor of the witnesses, and having considered the “consistency and inherent probability of the testimony,” I find no reason to reject the ALJ's credibility determinations and findings of fact.
Accordingly, I reject the exception. I further adopt the ALJ's findings of fact and legal conclusions that with the exception of the February 14, 2011 prescription (which she filled that same day), Respondent violated 21 U.S.C. 843(a)(3) on eleven separate occasions by presenting the already-dispensed February 14, 2011 prescription to a second pharmacy for filling, as well as by forging the ten other prescriptions (or presenting the forged prescription to a second pharmacy).
I therefore adopt the ALJ's conclusion of law that the Government has established a
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f), as well as by 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that the application of Jana Marjenhoff, D.O., for a DEA Certificate of Registration as a practitioner, be, and it hereby is, denied. This Order is effective immediately.
Chief Administrative Law Judge John J. Mulrooney, II. On July 13, 2012, the Deputy-Assistant Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) issued an Order to Show Cause (OSC) proposing to deny the application
A hearing was originally conducted in this matter on February 5, 2013, in Arlington, Virginia (First Hearing). However, because the Administrative Law Judge presiding over that hearing unexpectedly retired before issuing a recommended decision, this case was reassigned to another Administrative Law Judge (Second Administrative Law Judge), who conducted a supplemental hearing on April 10, 2013, in Albuquerque, New Mexico (Supplemental Hearing). The Second Administrative Law Judge certified the record and forwarded a recommended decision to the Administrator.
The Administrator reviewed, reversed, and remanded the recommended decision issued by the Second Administrative Law Judge. In an order dated December 12, 2013 (Remand Order), the Administrator remanded the case for a new hearing to be conducted by another Administrative Law Judge,
At a January 14, 2014 on-the-record status hearing conducted in Albuquerque, New Mexico, the Respondent, representing herself
The issue ultimately to be adjudicated by the Administrator in these remanded proceedings, with the assistance of this recommended decision, is whether the record as a whole establishes by substantial evidence that the Respondent's application for registration with the DEA should be denied on the grounds alleged by the Government.
After carefully considering the testimony elicited at the Hearing on Remand, the admitted exhibits, the arguments of the parties,
In its OSC and subsequent prehearing statements, the Government alleges that the COR application filed by the Respondent should be denied as inconsistent with the public interest. In support of the denial it seeks based on the public interest, the Government avers that the Respondent, “from February 2011 through January 2012, . . . forged approximately eight prescriptions for [herself] by using another individual's DEA registration number . . . without that person's knowledge, permission, or consent” in order to obtain controlled substances.
The Government and the Respondent have entered into stipulations regarding the following matters:
(1) Respondent's prior DEA Certificate of Registration was BM1443681. In the absence of any renewal application, it expired by its own terms on January 31, 2006.
(2) Respondent does not currently possess a DEA Certificate of Registration.
(3) On January 17, 2011,
(4) Respondent is licensed as an osteopathic physician in the State of New Mexico pursuant to license number A-1590-10. This license is active.
(5) All medications described in Government Exhibit 6 as being
The Government's case-in-chief rested on the testimony of five witnesses: Physician's Assistant Raphaela Francis, John Alvis, the pharmacist-in-charge (PIC) of a Walmart Pharmacy located in Edgewood, New Mexico, Dr. Jeremy Edmonds, D.O., New Mexico Pharmacy Board (NM Pharmacy Board) Executive Director (Exec. Dir.) Larry Loring, and DEA Diversion Investigator (DI) Randall Bencomo.
Raphaela Francis testified that she is a physician's assistant (PA) who is currently licensed and practicing in New Britain, Connecticut, but that she had previously worked as a PA at the McLeod Medical Center (McLeod Medical) in Moriarty, New Mexico from 2008 until August 2012. Tr. 173-74, 215-16. PA Francis testified that, while working at McLeod Medical, she maintained a DEA COR, and she knew and worked with the Respondent. Tr. 174.
PA Francis stated that her working relationship with the Respondent at the time they worked together at McLeod was a good one, that the Respondent, who “had lots more medical experience,” was a mentor to her, and that Francis never observed behavior that she would classify as drug-seeking, impaired, or erratic from the Respondent at work. Tr. 219, 261. According to PA Francis, on February 14, 2011, the Respondent approached her at work and asked to be placed on her schedule for chronic neck pain. Tr. 175. The Respondent told Francis that she had made arrangements to see a pain management specialist in Albuquerque, but because the pain specialist, Dr. Pamela Black, could not see her for several weeks, she needed a single prescription for pain medication to tide her over for one month. Tr. 175-77, 182-84, 221-22. PA Francis testified that, consistent with McLeod Medical procedures, before she saw the Respondent as a patient, Leilani, the medical assistant assigned to Francis, took an initial medical history on a patient questionnaire, and that the Respondent, who had brought her own x-rays, was added onto Francis's patient schedule for the end of the day. Tr. 178-81, 219. Equipped with the completed patient questionnaire, PA Francis took her own history from the Respondent and reviewed the x-ray films. Tr. 181. Francis testified that she recalled that the x-ray imaging showed that the Respondent's neck had signs of prior surgery. Tr. 181-82, 220. She also remembered that the Respondent was complaining of headaches. Tr. 182. Francis recalled that, in response to her inquiry, the Respondent told her that hydrocodone had been effective for her in the past. Tr. 184. PA Francis's opinion was that, under the circumstances, the hydrocodone requested by the Respondent was appropriate as a short-term (not long-term) measure, so she prepared a prescription and handed it to the Respondent.
According to PA Francis, the Respondent called off work two days after Francis saw her as a patient, telling Dr. Edmonds, the office supervising doctor/facility co-owner, that she had been to a hospital emergency room experiencing abdominal pain that was likely a reaction to the hydrocodone prescribed by Francis. Tr. 189-90, 193. Shortly after his conversation with the Respondent, Dr. Edmonds questioned PA Francis about the prescription and told her that, from that point forward, McLeod Medical employees were no longer permitted to write narcotic prescriptions for other employees. Tr. 192, 239. PA Francis testified that she complied with the new policy from the time it was conveyed to her. Tr. 194.
PA Francis had no more cause to consider her prescription to the Respondent until September 2, 2011, when she received a call from a pharmacist in Moriarty, New Mexico, informing her that a Walmart pharmacist named John Alvis needed to speak with her. Tr. 195-96. When Francis returned the call, Alvis told her he came upon some scrips purportedly written by Francis for the Respondent that he felt were likely forgeries. Tr. 197-99. Alvis went on to say that he was forced to utilize an intermediary pharmacist to contact Francis because multiple telephonic attempts to do so had been intercepted by the Respondent, and he advised Francis to secure a state prescription monitoring program (PMP) report on the Respondent and to contact the NM Pharmacy Board. Tr. 199-200, 202. When Francis queried the PMP system, she was surprised to learn that, although she had written only one controlled substance prescription for the Respondent, the system reflected that twelve had been dispensed. Tr. 200-02.
PA Francis testified that she brought the PMP report to the McLeod Medical human resources (HR) director who, in turn, notified Dr. Edmonds. Tr. 202-03.
Upon reviewing copies of the scrips listed in the PMP report and issued over her name and COR number after the single February 14, 2011 scrip she did write, PA Francis testified that not a single one bore her true signature and that all were forgeries. Tr. 205-06, 261. The witness indicated that she did not personally see anyone create these scrips, but she did know that they were not signed by her. Tr. 261.
Francis explained that, during the time she worked at McLeod Medical, scrips could be generated by hand-writing them on scrip pads or by producing them electronically (e-scrip) from the system that maintained the office medical records. Tr. 207. The e-scrip would be printed out on blue security paper loaded into a printer designated for that purpose and hand-signed by the prescriber. Tr. 207, 211, 226. Through the use of a drop-down list, the medical record system allowed any McLeod Medical employee with prescriber access to create an e-scrip for any patient in the practice over the name of any authorized prescriber in the practice who has seen that patient. Tr. 208, 215, 253-57, 260. Access to the system for prescribing controlled substances is password-protected, but as a McLeod Medical provider, the Respondent had complete access to the system, as did Francis, Dr. Edmonds, and a part-time nurse practitioner named Linda Agnes. Tr. 208-13, 217. The controlled substance scrip can be hand-carried by the patient, faxed to a pharmacy by a McLeod staff member,
There is no indication that PA Francis has anything to gain or lose by the outcome of this adjudication. In light of
The Government also elicited the testimony of John Alvis, the pharmacist-in-charge (PIC) at the Walmart Pharmacy in Edgewood, New Mexico (Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood), where he has worked as a pharmacist for the last twenty-nine years. Tr. 264-65. PIC Alvis testified that he was familiar with the Respondent because she was a local practitioner with whom he had professional contact, and because she and her family had been customers of his pharmacy. Tr. 265-67. In the early afternoon of August 31, 2011, PIC Alvis received a phone call from the Respondent who stated that her daughters were coming by the pharmacy to pick up prescriptions for themselves, and that she hoped to have them also pick up a prescription for her during the same visit. Tr. 266-67. The Respondent explained to Alvis that she would contact PA Francis to “get that [prescription] faxed in right away.” Tr. 267. Alvis also recalled that the Respondent told him that she was having trouble with her insurance and requested that the pharmacy bill her for the prescription in cash, without submitting a claim through her insurance carrier. Tr. 268-69. PIC Alvis testified that, while a request to have several medications picked up at once was not particularly out of the ordinary, a request to refrain from processing a scrip through a customer's insurance company where Medicare billing was not involved was not typical. Tr. 268-70. Alvis described such a request, even regarding Medicare billing, as “fairly rare.” Tr. 270.
Although Alvis apparently voiced no objection to the Respondent's request to process the scrip for cash, owing to the work volume of the day and the speed at which the faxed prescription reached the pharmacy, a staff member allowed the prescription to be electronically submitted as a claim to the Respondent's insurance company. Tr. 270-71. The Respondent's insurance company rejected the claim after determining that the refill was too early, based on medication that had already been dispensed to the patient. Tr. 270, 272. PIC Alvis testified that once he learned from the insurance company notice that the Respondent was attempting to fill a prescription for the same controlled substance too early, he had an obligation to investigate the issue. Tr. 279-80. At PIC Alvis's direction, the pharmacy staff member contacted
Shortly after the phone message was left at McLeod Medical for Francis, the Respondent's daughters (whom Alvis recognized as established customers) arrived at Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood to pick up the Respondent's medication and some other medication. Tr. 282-83. Alvis told the daughters that he needed to check with the prescriber on their mother's prescription, and they left the pharmacy. Tr. 282-84. “Almost immediately” after the Marjenhoff daughters exited the pharmacy, PIC Alvis received a call from the Respondent, who informed Alvis that she understood he was trying to contact Dr. Black about her prescription. Tr. 284. PIC Alvis clarified that he was trying to reach PA Francis and that he had not yet heard back from her. Tr. 284. The Respondent explained to Alvis that there was some “confusion” because the prescription he was inquiring about was also sent to May Pharmacy without her knowledge, and that Alvis should “just disregard this prescription.” Tr. 284-85.
Following Alvis's conversation with the Respondent, a pharmacy staff member received a return call from someone at McLeod Medical, asking if the pharmacy still needed to speak with PA Francis.
PIC Alvis testified that this development deepened his level of concern about the prescription. Tr. 288. Additionally, Alvis compared the faxed scrip with prior, reliable examples on file and concluded that the purported signature of PA Francis on the scrip at issue was not consistent with the signatures found on the prior scrips. Tr. 302-04. The next morning, Alvis telephoned Kenny Romp, the pharmacist at May Pharmacy, who at one time worked for Alvis. Tr. 290-93. Pharmacist Romp indicated that he specifically recalled the prescription in question. He told Alvis that he remembered that the Respondent,
Alvis then devised a plan wherein he enlisted the help of a third local pharmacist, Reid Rowe, to reach out to PA Francis and relay a message that Alvis needed to speak to her privately and directly. Tr. 296-97. Alvis's plan was successful, and, the following day, he finally received a call from PA Francis. Tr. 298-99. Francis apologized for not calling back, and related to Alvis that she had actually been standing next to the Respondent when the pharmacy technician called. Francis explained to Alvis that based on what she heard of the call, she assumed that the matter had been resolved as a benign insurance issue. Tr. 301. When PIC Alvis conveyed the details of the current prescription and asked Francis to verify it and indicate whether he had her authorization to dispense, Francis informed him that she had not written a controlled substance prescription for any McLeod Medical employee since February 14, 2011. Tr. 301-02. When PIC Alvis let Francis know that his pharmacy was in possession of other scrips purportedly authorized by her on behalf of the Respondent and that he questioned the validity of the signatures, PA Francis asked him to provide copies. Tr. 304. Alvis faxed copies of some scrips that had been filled by his pharmacy on the Respondent's behalf over PA Francis's purported signature to the McLeod Medical HR manager. Tr. 305-09. The HR manager, in turn, sent PIC Alvis a copy of a corresponding complaint filed by PA Francis with the NM Board of Osteopathic Medical Examiners regarding the incident, which Alvis forwarded through his internal, corporate channels and to the NM Pharmacy Board. Tr. 309-11, 316. The prescription was then deactivated at Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood and not dispensed. Tr. 335.
PIC Alvis is a witness with no stake in the outcome of the case.
The Government also presented the testimony of Dr. Jeremy Edmonds, D.O. Although Dr. Edmonds testified that is currently employed at Presbyterian Healthcare Services in Albuquerque, during all times relevant in these proceedings, he served as the medical director and co-owner of McLeod Medical and supervised the Respondent and all other staff members at McLeod. Tr. 358-60. Dr. Edmonds also testified that he is on the New Mexico Board of Osteopathic Medicine. Tr. 387.
Dr. Edmonds recalled that, when the Respondent was hired by McLeod Medical, she did not possess a COR. Tr. 382. According to Edmonds, the work-around for this issue was that the Respondent would see patients and “draft up” a controlled substance prescription over her name when necessary, but that Dr. Edmonds or PA Francis would co-sign the scrip and manually fill in their respective COR numbers. Tr. 382-85. Edmonds testified that all providers (including the Respondent) were “practicing primary care [medicine and] all treated very similar problems.” Tr. 386. Consistent with the testimony of PA Francis, Dr. Edmonds explained that prescriptions in the office could be generated by writing on a pad or through the e-scrip system, and that, while all employees had a sign-in password, only providers had the e-scrip access required to produce controlled substance scrips off the system. Tr. 415-21. Non-controlled prescriptions could be electronically signed and forwarded to pharmacies for filling, but controlled substance e-scrips required a manual signature by an authorized prescriber.
Dr. Edmonds, who (like PA Francis) characterized his working relationship with the Respondent as “good,”
Edmonds clarified that this directive, which applied to all controlled substances, was “mandatory” and not optional, and it was disseminated throughout the McLeod Medical staff by the HR manager and was subsequently reduced to writing in the McLeod Medical employee handbook. Tr. 363-64, 393-99, 956-57. Dr. Edmonds
Dr. Edmonds also testified that, about five months later, on July 21, 2011, he was notified that a random urinalysis sample collected from the Respondent two days earlier registered positive for an opiate. Tr. 364-66, 400. Edmonds recalled that on the day of the urinalysis, when the preliminary, in-office screen-test results indicated the presence of opiates, the Respondent approached him and said she felt she was “being singled out.” Tr. 971. Several days later, after receiving the lab confirmation that the Respondent had opiates in her system, Dr. Edmonds sought her out for an explanation. Tr. 963-64, 971. It was at that point (and not before) that the Respondent told Edmonds that she was receiving pain medication from a Dr. Pamela Black, a pain treatment specialist. Tr. 365, 391-92, 963-64, 971. When, in response to Edmonds's request to see the prescription, the Respondent brought him a bottle of morphine with a prescription label dated July 25, 2011 (six days after the urinalysis sample was collected),
Two months after the positive urinalysis result, Dr. Edmonds was informed by the McLeod HR manager that personnel at Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood had advised her that the Respondent had attempted to fill, and may have filled, multiple illegitimate narcotic medication prescriptions over PA Francis's name and DEA COR number. Tr. 368-69. After a meeting with PA Francis and the HR manager where the three consulted a PMP report,
Dr. Edmonds put the Respondent on administrative leave and placed two conditions on the Respondent's continued employment at McLeod Medical. First, she was to enroll in the New Mexico Monitored Treatment Program (MTP), a drug treatment monitoring program designed to evaluate, treat, and monitor physicians and healthcare providers.
I fired [the Respondent] because she created a hostile work environment and eroded the trust between herself and her subordinate, Physician's Assistant Raphaela Francis.
Dr. Edmonds is no longer associated with McLeod Medical. It is clear that he has no stake in the outcome of these proceedings, and his testimony presented as clear, certain, and unequivocal. In this case, the testimony presented by Dr. Edmonds, much of which was corroborated by other testimony in the record, was sufficiently objective, detailed, plausible, and internally consistent to be deemed fully credible in this recommended decision.
NM Pharmacy Board Executive Director (Exec. Dir.) Larry Loring also testified on behalf of the Government at the hearing. Loring testified that, prior to his appointment as the executive director, he had served for twenty-two years as a NM Pharmacy Board inspector. Tr. 440-41. As executive director, his responsibilities at the NM Pharmacy Board include the supervision of the Board's administrative and inspector personnel, as well as the assignment of cases to the inspection staff. Tr. 430-31. Additionally, Exec. Dir. Loring testified that he has been in charge of the New Mexico Prescription Monitoring Program (PMP) since its inception in 2005 until last year, when he hired a
Exec. Dir. Loring testified that he opened an investigation concerning the Respondent based on a phone call he received from PIC Alvis. Tr. 441, 450. When Alvis advised him that he believed he had identified a forged prescription made out on behalf of the Respondent, Loring ran a PMP report querying all controlled substance prescriptions issued by PA Francis where the Respondent is reflected as a patient for a two-year period commencing on October 12, 2010 (PMP/Marjenhoff Report),
On the issue of the PMP/Marjenhoff Report, Exec. Dir. Loring did not know why there was no indication of a controlled substance prescription dispensed at May Pharmacy on August 30, 2011 (the day May Pharmacy partially dispensed the same medication the Respondent was seeking to procure from Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood on August 31, 2011).
Exec. Dir. Loring presented as a thorough, impartial, methodical state regulator.
The Government also presented the testimony of its lead investigator in this matter, Diversion Investigator (DI) Randall Bencomo, a fifteen-year DEA investigator and retired Air Force veteran. Tr. 474. DI Bencomo testified that his contact with this case began with a referral from his supervisor to investigate the Respondent's COR application due to an affirmative response on an application liability question. Tr. 475-77, 632. During the course of his investigation, Bencomo learned that the Respondent had a history of disciplinary action with the Board of Medical Examiners of the State of Iowa (Iowa Medical Board). Tr. 475, 477-78. In August of 2011, DI Bencomo telephonically contacted the Iowa Medical Board and was referred to its Web site (
DI Bencomo also testified that, in the first full week of September 2011, during his investigation of the Respondent's application, he was contacted by and met with PA Francis. Tr. 478. According to DI Bencomo, Francis indicated that she wished to lodge a complaint against the Respondent for forging her name on controlled substance prescriptions. Tr. 478-80. When Francis and Bencomo met, the former brought the PMP report she generated with her and recounted her experience with the Respondent and her interaction with PIC Alvis. Tr. 478-80. Bencomo recalled that PA Francis explained the machinations Alvis was forced to invent to finally contact her at McLeod Medical. Tr. 480-81.
According to Bencomo, utilizing very much the same approach as Exec. Dir. Loring, he contacted the pharmacies set forth in the PMP/Marjenhoff Report and sought documentation that corresponded to the dispensed prescriptions that Francis described as forged. Tr. 481. Bencomo testified that, as he was interacting with the pharmacies listed on the PMP, he came to learn that Exec. Dir. Loring from the NM Pharmacy Board had been pursuing the same documents from the same establishments, and had been provided with original documents by the pharmacies. Tr. 481-82. Bencomo stated that the pharmacies provided him with copies because the originals had already been provided to Exec. Dir. Loring. Tr. 481, 500, 507. DI Bencomo testified that he subsequently contacted Loring and that the latter transferred the original documents he had procured from the pharmacies into Bencomo's custody. Tr. 482-84, 501, 627-29.
DI Bencomo testified that, about a week after he spoke with PA Francis, he also interviewed PIC Alvis at the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood. Tr. 484-85. Bencomo recollected that details supplied by Alvis were consistent with the account provided by to him by PA Francis. Tr. 486.
Among the documents presented by Bencomo was a pair of identical controlled substance scrips that he obtained from two different pharmacies and that reflect that both pharmacies filled the single prescription. Tr. 499; Gov't Ex. 3. Also received into the record were two exhibits containing copies of the documents collected by Exec. Dir. Loring and DI Bencomo from the pharmacies listed in the PMP/Marjenhoff Report.
DI Bencomo's testimony was certainly not without its warts. There were points where his testimony lacked clarity in describing the manner in which he procured and maintained important documentation. He initially testified that he obtained documentation from the Iowa Board by implementing a download from its Web site, but was unable to testify about who he spoke with at the Iowa Board, what they said, when the conversation took place, or the Web site address he was referred to. Tr. 553-54, 556-57. Similarly, DI Bencomo testified that he collected documentation from several pharmacies regarding the Respondent's New Mexico prescriptions, but he was initially unable to tease out which documents were obtained by him and which were provided by Exec. Dir. Loring. Tr. 541-42. DI Bencomo was ultimately able to resolve numerous evidentiary issues, but only after being granted leave in the midst of his testimony to do so. Still, DI Bencomo, whose testimony was largely corroborated by other testimony and evidence, presented as an objective, experienced regulator who clearly has no stake in the outcome of the proceedings, and, taken as a whole, his testimony was sufficiently detailed, plausible, and internally consistent enough to merit full credibility here.
The Government submitted documentary evidence in support of purported misconduct that took place in Iowa (Iowa Misconduct) and New Mexico (New Mexico Misconduct).
The record contains an affidavit executed by the DEA's Chief of the Registration and Program Support Section, Richard A. Boyd, regarding the history of the Respondent's registration with the DEA (DEA Records Affidavit). Gov't Ex. 2. The DEA Records Affidavit states that the Respondent applied
The DEA Records Affidavit also contains language provided by the Respondent in her COR application explaining her liability-question response regarding any prior adverse state license history.
Incident Date: 03/15/2000, Incident Location: Corydon, IA, Incident Nature: Patient was on long-term opioids for Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Had consults from hematology and pain clinic, who suggested above meds. After 1 yr on meds, unknown person sent complaint to Iowa Board of Medicine that patient was “addicted to the pain medicine[.”] IA Board did not inform DEA, as no investigation was needed. Incident Result: I voluntarily took CME course on prescribing controlled substances from Vanderbilt University.
The Government also introduced a copy of the Iowa Board Order/Settlement Agreement entered into by the Respondent and the Iowa Board in 2005, as well as the corresponding IBCD, which set forth the charges. Gov't Ex. 9. The IBO/SA cites the Respondent for “
The Iowa Board Charging Document
According to the testimony of Exec. Dir. Loring, the investigation he conducted on behalf of the NM Pharmacy Board (and ultimately the Government's case here) is structured from the PMP/Marjenhoff Report he generated from his query on the New Mexico PMP. Tr. 441-43, 447-48; Gov't Ex. 6. The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects twelve (12) dispensing events on scrips purportedly authorized by PA Francis that resulted in controlled substances being issued to the Respondent, or members of her family on her behalf, during a two-year period
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated February 14, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg
On the present record, it is undisputed that the Respondent validly received this scrip from PA Francis,
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated February 14, 2011 for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walgreens Pharmacy
A comparison of the copy of the scrip presented during the course of this dispensing event to the scrip presented to the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood in Dispensing Event 1 (two days before Dispensing Event 2) shows that the same scrip was presented in both transactions.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 30-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that only 2 days earlier she had received a 30-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 1). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 4. Thus, by presenting the same scrip twice, over the course of 2 days, the Respondent acquired an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 60 days.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated February 28, 2011 for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at May Pharmacy
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 23-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that only 15 days earlier she had received a 30-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 1), and 13 days earlier she had received yet another 30-day provision of the same medication (Dispensing Event 2). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (one of which was presented twice and the other forged), over the course of the 15 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 60 days (45 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated March 11, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walgreens Pharmacy. Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. DI Bencomo
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 15-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that only 25 days earlier she had received a 30-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 1), 23 days earlier she had received yet another 30-day provision of the same medication (Dispensing Event 2), and 10 days earlier she had received a 23-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 3). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and some of which were forged), over the course of the 25 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 83 days (58 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated March 15, 2011 for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood. Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. A physical copy of a document entitled “Telephonic Prescription,” completed by hand, with an attached corresponding dispensing label, was procured by Exec. Dir. Loring from the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood. Gov't Ex. 8, at 5; Gov't Ex. 4, at 3. Loring testified that, based on his over two-dozen years of experience, a pharmacist must (and it must be a pharmacist, not a technician) complete this type of form when a controlled substance prescription is telephoned into the pharmacy. Tr. 672-74, 704-05. Although the prescription must be taken by a pharmacist and reduced to writing at the pharmacy end, the prescriber can have the prescription phoned in by an authorized administrative person. Tr. 704-05. In reviewing the documents associated with this transaction, Exec. Dir. Loring determined that the paperwork reflects that a controlled substance prescription was telephoned into Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood on March 15, 2011, that, the following day, it was followed up by a fax version of the scrip, and that the dispensing sticker indicates that the medication was processed for dispensing.
The record also contains a hard-copy of a scrip, dated March 11, 2011, with a signature placed above PA Francis's name as the prescriber. Gov't Ex. 8, at 5; Gov't Ex. 4, at 4, 4a. The dispensing label affixed to the hard-copy scrip shares the same transaction number (#4412395), medication/dosage
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261. Further, upon examination, it appears that the March 11 hard-copy scrip, utilized by facsimile to effect this dispensing event, is the same scrip utilized in Dispensing Events 4 (via facsimile) and 6 (via presentation of the original document).
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 15-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that only 29 days earlier she had received a 30-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 1), 27 days earlier she had received another 30-day provision of the same medication (Dispensing Event 2), 14 days earlier she had received a 23-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 3), and 4 days earlier she had received a 15-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 4). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. As of the date of this dispensing event, although only 29 days had elapsed since the first scrip was filled (Dispensing Event 1), the Respondent had accumulated an aggregate amount of medication sufficient to last 98 days (69 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated March 11, 2011 for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walmart Pharmacy
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261. In the opinion of Exec. Dir. Loring, the signature on the scrip was manually signed (
Upon examination, it appears that the scrip utilized to effect this dispensing event is the same scrip utilized via facsimile to consummate Dispensing Events 4 and 5.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 15-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that only 20 days earlier she had received a 23-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 3), 10 days earlier she had received a 15-day provision of the same medication (Dispensing Event 4), and 6 days earlier she had received a 15-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 5). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and most of which were forged), over the course of the 35 days that elapsed from the date of Dispensing Event 1 to this dispensing event, the Respondent had received an aggregate number of medication to last 113 days (78 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated March 31, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at May Pharmacy. Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. Copies of a scrip
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 30-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that 10 days earlier she had received a 15-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 6). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and some of which were forged), over the course of the 45 days that elapsed from the date of Dispensing Event 1 to this dispensing event, the Respondent had received an aggregate number of medication to last 128 days (83 extra dosage days).
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated April 6, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walmart Pharmacy Albuquerque. Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. A copy of a scrip obtained by Exec. Dir. Loring from the Walmart Pharmacy Albuquerque and its corresponding dispensing label shares the same transaction number (#4407973), “issue” date, medication/dosage description under PA Francis's COR number and purported signature, and patient (the Respondent) as this entry in the PMP/Marjenhoff Report. Gov't Ex. 8, at 11-12; Gov't Ex. 4, at 9.
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 15-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that 6 days earlier she had received a 30-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 7). Gov't Ex. 6, at 3, 14. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and most of which were forged), over the course of the 51 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 158 days (107 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated July 8, 2011 for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-500 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood. Gov't Ex. 6, at 2, 13. A copy of a scrip, which was procured from the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood by Exec. Dir. Loring, and corresponding dispensing label share the same transaction number (#4413861), “issue” date, medication
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 30-day supply of the medication. Gov't Ex. 6, at 2, 13. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and most of which were forged), over the course of the 145 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 173 days (28 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated August 4, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-325 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at May Pharmacy. Gov't Ex. 6, at 2, 13. A copy of a scrip and corresponding dispensing label acquired by Exec. Dir. Loring from May Pharmacy shares the same transaction number (#9157693), “issue” date, medication
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 23-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that 26 days earlier she had received a 30-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 9). Gov't Ex. 6, at 2, 13. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and most of which were forged), over the course of the 171 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 203 days (32 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated August 9, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone/Apap 10-325 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at the Walgreens Pharmacy. Gov't Ex. 6, at 2, 13. A copy of a scrip DI Bencomo
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261.
This dispensing event resulted in the Respondent receiving a 22-day supply of the medication, notwithstanding the fact that 5 days earlier she had received a 23-day supply of the same medication (Dispensing Event 10). Gov't Ex. 6, at 2. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and most of which were forged), over the course of the 176 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 226 days (50 extra dosage days) before this prescription was filled.
The PMP/Marjenhoff Report reflects that, on this date, a prescription, dated September 10, 2011 (same date) for Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen 10-325 mg and issued on behalf of the Respondent, was dispensed at CVS Pharmacy
At the hearing, PA Francis testified that she neither signed this scrip nor authorized this prescription. Tr. 205-06, 261. Exec. Dir. Loring testified that, in his opinion, the signature on the scrip was handwritten (
This dispensing event resulted in a 23-day supply of the medication. Gov't Ex. 6, at 2, 13. Thus, even by the terms of the scrips (some of which were presented on multiple occasions and most of which were forged), over the course of the 208 days that elapsed from Dispensing Event 1, the Respondent had received an aggregate amount of medication that should have lasted 248 days (40 extra dosage days)
The Respondent's case-in-chief was presented through her own testimony and the testimony of her former medical assistant at McLeod Medical, Malana Diminovich.
Malana Diminovich testified that she has been a certified medical assistant for eleven years, and currently works at the ABQ Health Partners (ABQ) in Albuquerque, New Mexico. Tr. 719-20. Prior to beginning her current position at ABQ, Ms. Diminovich worked as a medical assistant at McLeod Medical for approximately five years, and left when the McLeod Medical HR manager accused her of forgery. Tr. 720-21, 739. Diminovich explained that she worked as the Respondent's medical assistant and that, during the Respondent's tenure at McLeod Medical, there were approximately six providers, each one of whom generally had two assigned medical assistants. Tr. 721, 739. Ms. Diminovich explained that she worked towards the back of the office in a space she shared with the HR manager, PA Francis, and the Respondent. Tr. 721-22. Diminovich testified that she observed some level of tension between the Respondent and the HR manager, PA Francis, and Dr. Edmonds. Tr. 741-42.
Ms. Diminovich stated that, when they worked together, she knew the Respondent's medical record system passcode and that she had sufficient computer access with that passcode to print out a prescription for controlled substances under the Respondent's name. Tr. 727. She testified that the scrips would then be printed out on blue (security-feature) paper by a printer located in Dr. Edmonds's office towards the front of the building. Tr. 724-26. Diminovich believed that Dr. Edmonds and PA Francis handled most of the patients requiring narcotics prescriptions,
Diminiovich testified that she was aware that PA Francis was prescribing pain medication for the Respondent, and testified that she even remembered being in the room at times when Francis prepared the scrips. Tr. 732-33. She explained that she would see PA Francis write out a prescription and then either hand it to the Respondent or leave it on her desk. Tr. 732. Diminovich even remembered “an occasional time” when, at Francis's direction, she called prescriptions into pharmacies for the Respondent. Tr. 733.
Ms. Diminovich testified that she has been trained as an emergency medical technician (EMT) and that she received training on how to detect when an individual is under the influence of medication. Tr. 735-36. Applying her training as a volunteer EMT to her observations of the Respondent, Diminovich testified that she had no reason to believe that the Respondent was under the influence of narcotics or inappropriately seeking medication. Tr. 733-38.
There are several aspects of Ms. Diminovich's testimony that tend to somewhat diminish the extent to which it can and should be relied upon. Although the witness testified that she observed “animosity” between the Respondent and Dr. Edmonds, PA Francis, and the McLeod Medical HR manager, this testimony is not consistent with other credible evidence of record. Francis and Edmonds both described their working relationship
Similarly, there are issues regarding Diminovich's testimony that, based on her training as an EMT, she is able to competently conclude that the Respondent was never observed to be under the influence of controlled substances during the time the two worked together at McLeod Medical. Tr. 733-34. Diminovich testified to having received some EMT training related to recognizing individuals under the influence of controlled substances. Tr. 735-37. Even if her competence in this area were to be conceded,
Additionally, much of Ms. Diminovich's testimony was too vague and lacking in detail to stand up against other record evidence. She said she saw PA Francis prescribe controlled substances to the Respondent and hand the scrips over, but never says when or how often, and does not provide details about a single such event she recalls. In a similar vein, she says there was animosity, but never provides any timeframe, specific conversations, incidents, or areas of contention. She says that the Respondent did not seem like she was under the influence of medication but disregards the fact that, by every bit of uncontested evidence, the Respondent was receiving powerful controlled medications in significant doses. Additionally, by virtue of the fact that, like the Respondent (by whom she was supervised, and apparently amicably so), Ms. Diminovich left McLeod Medical in the midst of allegations of forgery leveled against her, it would be difficult to view her as a completely impartial witness regarding similar allegations related to her former supervisor during the time when they worked together. Tr. 739. In short, Ms. Diminovich's testimony was lacking in detail, inconsistent with other credible record evidence, and not entirely objective or plausible. While there were certainly credible aspects of her testimony, it must be viewed skeptically to the extent it conflicts with other, more credible record evidence.
The Respondent also testified as a part of her case-in-chief, and, during the course of her testimony, she listed a long and commendable professional history of varied experience in the medical profession, hospital administration, and academia. She explained that she is a licensed doctor of osteopathic medicine (D.O.), and that she is currently employed by the Indian Health Service (IHS) at its Crownpoint, New Mexico facility. Tr. 748-49, 752. Additionally, the Respondent stated that she is also the medical director at Corrections Corporation of America (CCA) in Estancia, New Mexico. Tr. 749.
The Respondent testified that she received her Bachelor of Arts degree in biology and science in 1983 from St. Thomas University in Miami and, in 1987, was awarded her medical degree from Nova Southeastern University, College of Osteopathic Medicine, in Fort Lauderdale. Tr. 750-51. According to the Respondent, she commenced her medical career as a rural health practitioner in Tennessee,
The Respondent testified that once she had recovered sufficiently to return to work, she spent four to five years practicing in Corydon, Iowa. Tr. 755-56. Because of restrictions placed on her license by the Iowa Medical Board,
The Respondent explained that the restrictions put upon her by the Iowa Medical Board were the result of a settlement agreement she entered into with the Board, which placed her state medical license on probation while she completed several requirements. Tr. 763-65; Gov't Ex. 9. These requirements included a monetary fine, a series of continuing education courses, and monitoring by a preceptor doctor. Tr. 765. The Respondent testified that she
At the time when she was hired at McLeod Medical, the Respondent no longer had a DEA COR (a previous COR having expired during the time she was “fed up with medicine”
The Respondent indicated that, contrary to McLeod Medical IT policy, she remained logged onto her computer with her password for an entire day “a few times.” Tr. 789-90. When pressed on how frequently this occurred, the “few times” morphed into “maybe once a week” and, ultimately, to a clarification where she insisted that she had testified to “one or two times a week.” Tr. 790, 792. In any event, it seems that the office IT policy regarding password integrity was not strictly enforced, and that the computer on the Respondent's cubicle
The Respondent acknowledged that, on February 14, 2011, she asked to be placed on PA Francis's patient schedule.
During her testimony, the Respondent provided some details about her efforts to establish herself as a patient at Dr. Black's pain management practice and the difficulties she perceived in getting seen personally by Dr. Black. Tr. 808, 810, 820, 925. The Respondent testified that she contacted Dr. Black's office in July 2011
While Francis's account of her treatment relationship was restricted to the single, February 14, 2011 encounter and another where she administered an anti-nausea injection in the office,
In an additional recollection that exceeded not only Francis's, but even Diminovich's, the Respondent also testified that sometimes Francis authorized Diminovich to administer injections of Toradol.
Regarding the ill-fated phone call where the Respondent called out sick and subsequently met with Dr. Edmonds and PA Francis about employee-to-employee narcotics prescribing, the Respondent categorically denied ever telling anyone at McLeod Medical that she suffered a reaction to the hydrocodone prescribed by Francis on February 14, 2011. By the Respondent's account, she called in sick due to a headache or virus. Tr. 823. In the Respondent's words, “I mean, I didn't think I'd have an adverse reaction to something I'd been on before.” Tr. 823. The Respondent offered no explanation as to why the headache or virus would precipitate a meeting about the evils of controlled substance prescribing between employees, or any possible motivation for Francis to falsely attribute her illness to a medication reaction. The Respondent acknowledged that such a meeting did
The Respondent testified that she saw PA Francis as her primary care provider approximately four to five times.
Regarding her July 2011 positive drug test for opiates conducted by McLeod Medical, the Respondent testified that she had warned Dr. Edmonds to expect a positive result. Tr. 907. This was at some odds with the recollection of Dr. Edmonds, who testified that the Respondent did not indicate prior to the test that she was on opiates
The Respondent related that, one Saturday morning following the positive urinalysis result, she received a phone call at home from Dr. Edmonds. Tr. 831-32. She explained that Dr. Edmonds told her that he had reason to believe that she had been forging prescriptions. Tr. 832. During her testimony, the Respondent took the position that Dr. Edmonds was mistaken in his recollection of their conversation. The Respondent recalled providing an answer with the word “twice” in it, but, according to her, she was responding to Edmonds's inquiry of how many times she had requested controlled substance prescriptions from Francis. Tr. 832-33. The Respondent never explained why, in July 2011, she would answer such a question with the word “twice” when she (and Ms. Diminovich) had previously testified that she was receiving controlled substances from PA Francis on a fairly regular basis since the preceding February, and certainly more than “twice.” In fact, when asked, the Respondent testified that she could not remember how many prescriptions she had received from PA Francis “off the top of [her] head.” Tr. 826. At another point in her testimony, the Respondent acknowledged that she had received “seven or eight” such prescriptions from PA Francis. Tr. 899. Even if it were momentarily assumed,
The Respondent also denied ever admitting on the phone that she had forged prescriptions,
The Respondent presented evidence of a series of nineteen (19) MTP urine drug sample (UDS) test reports for alcohol and controlled substances occurring between October 21, 2011 and March 23, 2012.
Standing in isolation, there is nothing categorically pernicious about rescheduling one (or even several) random urinalysis test(s). As with many issues, it is generally a question of degree. Of eighteen random tests, the Respondent missed and rescheduled six. Resp't Ex. 1. Assuming (as she urges) that the UDS package she provided contains all testing, excluding the “extra” test, this presents a missed test rate of 33% of all randomly-scheduled UDS tests. Although rescheduling one-third of all random tests is by no means an insignificant number, the issue is (once again) less with the substance of her testimony than with its internal consistency. Initially, the Respondent stated that she only missed UDS tests due to inclement weather. Tr. 864. That position later morphed into misses borne of weather and work schedule. Tr. 866, 869, 871-73. The equivocation in her recollection and pattern of testimonial adjustments crafted on the spot to address uncontroverted evidence she was confronted with on the witness stand (such as the rescheduling notes from the UDS reports) diminishes the extent to which her testimony can be credited where it conflicts with other available evidence and testimony—and—she rescheduled one-third of her random urinalysis tests.
Despite her participation in the MTP program, the Respondent was eventually terminated from her employment at McLeod Medical by Dr. Edmonds in October 2011. Tr. 882. Even after losing her job, the Respondent testified that, “to prove a point,” she continued in the MTP program through March 2012 while she was also in the process of “job seeking.”
The Respondent consistently and unambiguously eschewed any wrongdoing on her part. She denied ever presenting the prescription for hydrocodone written by PA Francis on February 14, 2011 to be filled at two different pharmacies,
At the hearing, the Respondent acknowledged that she knew it was wrong for a patient to see multiple prescribers for controlled substances and to fill those prescriptions at multiple pharmacies. Tr. 950-51. In her testimony, the Respondent initially ascribed her use of multiple pharmacies to present controlled substance prescriptions and collect them to convenience borne of the various routes she would take to commute from her home to McLeod Medical and back, based largely on seeking to avoid “snow and ice.” Tr. 828-31. This testimony was singularly unpersuasive and only enhanced in that respect by the fact that ten of the dispensing events in question took place between March and September, and, of that number, four occurred between July and September. Gov't Ex. 6, at 2-3, 13-14. This aspect of the Respondent's testimony was particularly telling on the issue of her credibility when viewed in light of her admissions that she is and was aware and understood that the principal reason that standard pain management contracts with patients include a clause prohibiting the use of multiple pharmacies is to avoid the risk of pharmacy-shopping and doctor-shopping, and that these are by no means new concepts in medical care. Tr. 933-34. The Respondent conceded that even under her view of events, she had been simultaneously utilizing multiple pharmacies and multiple practitioners,
There were multiple additional areas where the Respondent's testimony was problematic. For example, the Respondent adamantly testified at great length that the prescriptions for hydrocodone written after February 14, 2011 were legitimately authorized by PA Francis. Tr. 820-22, 922. However, when she failed the random drug test conducted at McLeod Medical in July
Moreover, at the time her urinalysis was conducted, the Respondent had been presented with a form that would have allowed her to list medications she was taking. Tr. 964. The Respondent did not list any medications on the form. Tr. 958, 964, 966-70. The absence of an appropriate note on the applicable form, and the Respondent's decision not to inform Dr. Edmonds that she was receiving controlled substances from PA Francis at the time the screen test showed positive, as well as her decision to only explain the positive drug test by presenting a prescription bottle dated after the test, all undermine her testimony. On this record, it is far more likely that the Respondent's positive urinalysis test was the result of taking medications procured over PA Francis's forged signatures, and for which the Respondent had no ready, lawful explanation that lent itself to disclosure to Dr. Edmonds.
The Respondent's testimony regarding her relationship with Dr. Black was also confusing, and its apparent contradictions call further into question her credibility as a witness. At first, the Respondent testified that when she first asked to be seen by PA Francis as a patient on February 14, 2011, she had already set up an appointment with Dr. Black. Tr. 801, 808. Then, she stated that she told PA Francis during that initial visit that she had attempted to make an appointment with Dr. Black but that the appointment would be “months down the line.” Tr. 810. This would mean that, notwithstanding the severe pain she claimed she was enduring, the appointment that the Respondent had purportedly set up with Dr. Black's pain practice was scheduled five to six months hence. The Respondent later testified that her initial contact with Dr. Black's office occurred (five months later) in July 2011 when she attempted then to schedule an appointment with her. Tr. 924-25. Even setting aside PA Francis's (credible) recollection that the Respondent told her she would be seeing Dr. Black in several weeks, and only needed medication for one month,
At one point in her testimony, the Respondent was confident that the morphine prescription that resulted in the positive McLeod Medical office UDS was written by Dr. Black. Tr. 932-33. At another point in her testimony, the Respondent was equally resolute that the causal prescription was issued by “Dr. Black's associate.” Tr. 839. This is another in a pattern of testimonial inconsistencies, but regardless of which version reflects reality, for the reasons that follow, neither version is helpful to the Respondent's cause. The Respondent testified that her telephone call to Dr. Black's office to set up an initial appointment took place sometime in July 2011, with the first appointment occurring approximately two weeks later. Tr. 925-26. During that initial visit (which would have to be mid-July at the earliest), she was seen by a PA, who, according to the Respondent, wrote her a prescription for morphine. Tr. 926. The Respondent then stated that she finally met with Dr. Black approximately one month after the first appointment, which, according to the rough timeline of events given by the Respondent at the hearing, would have taken place sometime between mid-August through mid-September 2011. Tr. 926-27. The date of the McLeod Medical urinalysis, however, was July 19, 2011, at least a month prior to her appointment with Dr. Black herself.
The Respondent's timeline is even problematic if that portion of her testimony is credited which holds that it was a prescription from “Dr. Black's associate”
Needless to say, the conflict in the Respondent's timeline of events here does not enhance her credibility. In one telling exchange, the Respondent testified that she did not remember the date of the McLeod urinalysis, and thought that it may have occurred in October of 2011,
During her testimony, the Respondent indicated that all her prescriptions were picked up from the various pharmacies by herself or a member of her family. Tr. 901-03. Later, in response to questioning from her counsel, the
As described above, in addition to being the witness with the most at stake in the outcome of the proceedings, the Respondent's testimony throughout this hearing was punctuated by internal inconsistencies, implausibility, and chronic equivocation. As discussed in great detail,
The Government urges that the Respondent's application for DEA COR be denied because the granting of a COR to the Respondent would be inconsistent with the public interest. Under 21 U.S.C. 823(f),
“[T]hese factors are considered in the disjunctive.”
In the adjudication of an application for a DEA COR, the DEA has the burden of proving that the requirements for registration are not satisfied. 21 CFR 1301.44(d). Where the Government has sustained its burden and established that an applicant has committed acts inconsistent with the public interest, that applicant must present sufficient mitigating evidence to assure the Agency that he or she can be entrusted with the responsibility commensurate with such a registration.
Normal hardships to the practitioner, and even the surrounding community, which are attendant upon the denial of a registration, are not a relevant consideration.
Regarding Factor 1, it is undisputed that the record contains no specific recommendation from authorities in New Mexico, the state where the Respondent seeks to hold a COR. However, the record does contain a settlement agreement and final order from the Board of Medical Examiners of the State of Iowa (Iowa Board).
Although the plain language of the CSA appears to require a recommendation addressed to DEA's COR decision, the Agency has indicated that it has “typically taken a broader view as to the scope of this factor.”
As discussed,
Regarding Factor Three, the record in this case does not contain evidence that the Respondent has been convicted of (or even charged with)
Accordingly, consideration of the record evidence under Factors One and Three weighs neither for nor against the Government's petition to deny the Respondent's COR application.
Regarding Factor 2, in requiring an examination of an applicant's experience in dispensing controlled substances, Congress manifested an acknowledgement that the qualitative manner and the quantitative volume in which an applicant has engaged in the dispensing of controlled substances may be significant factors to be evaluated in reaching a determination as to whether an applicant should be (or continue to be) entrusted with a DEA COR. In some (but not all) cases, viewing an applicant's actions against a backdrop of how her regulated activities have been performed within the scope of her registration can provide a contextual lens to assist in a fair adjudication of whether registration is in the public interest. In this regard, however, the Agency has applied principles of reason, coupled with its own expertise, in the application of this factor. For example, the Agency has taken the reasonable position that this factor can be readily outweighed by acts held to be inconsistent with the public interest.
In addition to Factor 2 (experience in dispensing), Factor 4 (compliance with laws related to controlled substances) is also germane to a correct resolution of the present case. In order to maintain the “closed regulatory system” designed by Congress in the CSA to “prevent the diversion of drugs from legitimate to illicit channels,”
The evidence of record establishes that, in 2011, the Respondent committed controlled substance-related transgressions in New Mexico (New Mexico Misconduct), and, in 2005, was disciplined in Iowa for misconduct that occurred in that state (Iowa Misconduct). The New Mexico Misconduct is relevant under Factor 4, and the Iowa Misconduct is relevant under both Factors 2 and 4.
The CSA provides that it is “unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally . . . to acquire or obtain possession of a controlled substance by misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception, or subterfuge.” 21 U.S.C. 843(a)(3). The evidence presented at the hearing regarding the New Mexico Misconduct shows that the Respondent violated this provision of the CSA on eleven (11) separate occasions.
On February 16, 2011 (Dispensing Event 2), the Respondent improperly presented the same February 14 controlled substance scrip to Walgreens Pharmacy that she had previously presented to Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood (Dispensing Event 1) via facsimile. The scrip, which was validly authorized by PA Francis,
In the same way, the evidence establishes that the Respondent presented the same March 11 scrip to acquire controlled substances at Walgreens Pharmacy (Dispensing Event 4), Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood (Dispensing Event 5), and Walmart Pharmacy Albuquerque (Dispensing Event 6) on March 11, 15, and 21, respectively. Even apart from forged signatures on the scrip (discussed,
The evidence of record also preponderantly establishes that the Respondent, on ten occasions (Dispensing Events 3-12),
The Respondent has also violated New Mexico state law related to controlled substances. Under New Mexico state law,
The controlled substances the Respondent procured under Dispensing Events 3-12 were likewise not obtained pursuant to valid prescriptions under federal and state law. Under the implementing regulations of the CSA, in order for a prescription for controlled substances to be valid, it must be “issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual
Neither were the scrips presented in Dispensing Events 3-12 valid under state law. In New Mexico, a “prescription” is defined as “an order given individually for the person for whom is prescribed a controlled substance, either directly from a licensed practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the pharmacist . . . or indirectly by means of a written order signed by the prescriber.” N.M. Stat. Ann. § 30-31-2(S). Once again, the scrips presented to the pharmacies on these occasions were not authorized or signed by a “licensed practitioner,” and, thus, the Respondent did not obtain the controlled substances dispensed on Dispensing Events 3-12 through a valid prescription. The Respondent's possession of controlled substances violated New Mexico state law because such possession was not “obtained pursuant to a valid prescription,” as defined by federal and state law. N.M. Stat. Ann. § 30-31-23(A).
Additionally, the sheer amount of the controlled substances obtained by the Respondent adds significantly to the equation. During the 208 days the Respondent was presenting bad prescriptions, she received 248-days' worth of medication. The exorbitant quantities of controlled substances she was obtaining, where the dates overlapped and exceeded even the dosages set forth in the forged scrips, eviscerates any rational claim of lack of knowledge.
Thus, the evidence demonstrates that the Respondent, on eleven different occasions, violated both the CSA
The Iowa Misconduct likewise reflects adversely on Factor 4, but also on Factor 2. In the Iowa Board Order/Settlement Agreement, the Respondent and the Iowa Board agreed that the Respondent “inappropriately and repeatedly prescrib[ed] controlled drugs to numerous patients in violation of the laws and rules governing the practice of medicine” and that the Respondent violated Iowa's pain management rule, Iowa Admin. Code r. 653-13.2 (2013), which,
It is worthy of note that while the Iowa proceedings clearly raise issues that are relevant to this determination, the Iowa Board Order/Settlement Agreement, the Government's arguments to the contrary notwithstanding,
While the Agency recognizes the preclusive effect of findings and state law conclusions resulting from state administrative hearings, it has not extended,
While the complex facts in both
In this case, the settlement agreement memorialized by the IBO/SA contains little evidence that the Respondent and the Iowa Board intended that the findings and conclusions discussed therein would have preclusive effect. While the Respondent agreed to “voluntarily waive[ ] any rights to a contested hearing on the allegations,”
Accordingly, on the present record, because the parties to the Iowa Board Order/Settlement Agreement did not manifest the intent that the issues raised in the IBO/SA would preclude the Respondent from re-litigating those issues outside of the Iowa Board's jurisdiction, and because Iowa state law does not apply the doctrine of collateral estoppel to settlement agreements, the findings and conclusions contained in the IBO/SA are not binding upon this tribunal. As such, the parties in this DEA administrative adjudication were not precluded from re-litigating the issues raised in the Iowa Board Order/Settlement Agreement, and this adjudication must and does make appropriate findings.
All that said, it is beyond argument that the IBO/SA was prepared and submitted to the Iowa Board by the Respondent, and, by the terms of the document, constitutes an accepted offer to be disciplined based on the allegations set forth in the Iowa Board Charging Document. Gov't Ex. 9, at 2 ¶ 4, 6, ¶ 14. Thus, by executing the IBO/SA, the Respondent admitted multiple serious episodes of controlled substance prescribing that were effected in violation of Iowa state law and practice standards. Iowa Admin. Code r. 653-13.2.
The explanatory language supplied by the Respondent in her COR application relating to the surrender of her Iowa license was reviewed and accepted by the Respondent at her DEA hearing on the merits. Tr. 936-38. The Respondent accepted the truth of the allegations by: (1) executing the Iowa Board Order/Settlement Agreement; (2) supplying an (albeit incomplete, and arguably misleading) explanation of the incident that contains no factual challenge to the Iowa findings in her COR application;
Even accepting the (unopposed) truth of the Iowa Board's findings through the Respondent's admissions contained therein, neither the documents provided by the Government, nor the testimony of any witness, assign a date for the occurrences for which the Respondent was disciplined by the Board. In her (problematic) COR application explanation, the Respondent lists an “incident date” of March 15, 2000,
Even taking into account that the Iowa Board matter was resolved nine years ago, and six years prior to the commencement of the 2011 misuse of the scrips established in this case, the time is not so long as to have significantly attenuated the nature of the Iowa Misconduct.
Thus, consideration of the record evidence regarding the Iowa Misconduct under Factor 2 (experience in dispensing), and the Iowa and New Mexico Misconduct under Factor 4 (compliance with controlled substances laws), powerfully and persuasively supports the DEA COR denial sought by the Government.
The fifth statutory public interest factor directs consideration of “[s]uch
Similar “catch-all” language is employed by Congress in the CSA related to the Agency's authorization to regulate controlled substance manufacturing and List I chemical distribution, but the language is by no means identical. 21 U.S.C. 823(d)(6), (h)(5). Under the language utilized by Congress in those provisions, the Agency may consider “such
[T]he Government is not required to prove that the [r]espondent's conduct poses a threat to public health and safety to obtain an adverse finding under factor five.
There is no question that Agency precedent has long held that self-abuse of controlled substances is a relevant consideration under Factor 5, even where there is no evidence of malfeasance related to a registrant's prescribing authority.
That is not to say that the record evidence does not impact Factor 5. The preponderant evidence of record establishes that, regarding the New Mexico Misconduct, the Respondent engaged in significant, intentional efforts to circumvent the efforts of PIC Alvis at the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood in his attempt to execute his corresponding responsibility under the DEA regulations. 21 C.F.R. 1306.04(a). At the time she presented a forged controlled substance prescription, the Respondent requested that staff members at the Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood refrain from processing the prescription through her health insurance company, based on her false representation that she was having issues with her health insurance company. Tr. 268-69. During her testimony, the Respondent conceded that she was insured by McLeod Medical and was having no such issues. Tr. 801-02, 946. To the extent that her testimony conflicts with the accounts presented in that regard by both PIC Alvis and PA Francis, her version is not credited.
When a Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood staff member inadvertently processed the prescription through the Respondent's insurance and the claim was declined because the same medication had been dispensed to the Respondent just days ago, it became apparent that her request to refrain from involving her health insurance company was borne of a desire to remain below the radar of the insurance company's
PIC Alvis had his staff make inquiry of the insurance company and PA Francis, the purported prescriber. Tr. 272, 281-82. After PIC Alvis (appropriately) declined to dispense medication to the Respondent's daughters on the presented scrip, the Respondent then attempted to mislead PIC Alvis by telephoning him and posturing that the whole affair was a misunderstanding. Tr. 284-85. Compounding the negative impact of the Respondent's plan to avoid detection, when McLeod Medical staff inquired of Walmart Pharmacy Edgewood as to whether they were still seeking to speak to PA Francis, the Respondent commandeered the call and declared that, since she had spoken with Alvis, the matter was closed. Tr. 285, 288-89.
Admirably, PIC Alvis persevered in his regulatory duty to resolve the anomaly with an appropriate level of care.
Under the regulations, PIC Alvis, as the dispensing pharmacist, bears a “corresponding responsibility” to ensure that controlled substances are dispensed only on “effective” prescriptions. 21 C.F.R. § 1306.04(a). The regulations provide that “to be effective [a controlled substance prescription] must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his professional practice.”
Each DEA COR holder bears a responsibility to assure the integrity of the “closed system”
In this case, balancing the relative merits of the evidence under the public interest factors, the Government has satisfied its
“[T]o rebut the Government's
On the present record, the Respondent has neither accepted responsibility at any level, nor demonstrated persuasive remedial steps. Notwithstanding the strength of the evidence against her, the Respondent has persisted in steadfastly denying the veracity of the Government's New Mexico Misconduct charges regarding the presentation of any multiple-presented and/or forged scrips, as well as the deliberate steps she took in that state to undermine PIC Alvis's conscientious efforts to execute his corresponding responsibility as a DEA registrant pharmacist by intercepting his telephonic efforts to consult with PA Francis. Regarding the Iowa Misconduct, as discussed in more detail,
On the issue of remedial steps, while the Respondent did testify that, after the New Mexico Misconduct, she continued her participation in urine drug screening for a relatively brief time after she was terminated from McLeod Medical,
In evaluating the appropriate sanction, DEA precedent requires consideration of the egregiousness of the established misconduct and the Agency's need to deter similar misconduct on the part of other registrants.
The Iowa misconduct also militates in favor of denying her application. The Respondent “inappropriately and repeatedly prescribe[ed] controlled drugs in violation of the laws and rules governing the practice of medicine [and] engag[ed] in unprofessional conduct.” Gov't Ex. 9, at 2. Even by the terms of the Iowa Board Order/Settlement agreement, the Respondent's controlled substance transgressions extended to multiple patients, and, in these proceedings, the Respondent neither refuted the factual basis of the conduct nor accepted any level of responsibility for them. Indeed, in her COR application, the Respondent's truncated explanation references only a single “patient,” notes that “no investigation [by the Iowa Board] was needed,” and
Based on the present record, this applicant simply cannot be entrusted by DEA with a registration, and, for that reason, it is recommended that her application be
In accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Title 5, United States Code, Appendix, and Title 41, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 101-6.1015, with the concurrence of the Attorney General, I have determined that the reestablishment of the Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Advisory Policy Board (APB) is in the public interest. In connection with the performance of duties imposed upon the FBI by law, I hereby give notice of the reestablishment of the APB Charter.
The APB provides me with general policy recommendations with respect to the philosophy, concept, and operational principles of the various criminal justice information systems managed by the FBI's CJIS Division.
The APB includes representatives from local and state criminal justice agencies; tribal law enforcement representatives; members of the judicial, prosecutorial, and correctional sectors of the criminal justice community, as well as one individual representing a national security agency; a representative of the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Council; a representative of federal agencies participating in the CJIS Division Systems; and representatives of criminal justice professional associations (
The APB functions solely as an advisory body in compliance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The Charter has been filed in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
On May 14, 2015, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Central District of California in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit under the Clean Water Act and the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act. The United States' complaint seeks injunctive relief and civil penalties for violations of regulations that govern discharges of pollutants to a publicly owned treatment works and the storage, disposal, and management of hazardous wastes at Anaplex's electroplating facility in Paramount, California. The consent decree requires the defendant to undertake a rinsewater use evaluation, implement ongoing pollution monitoring, report on hazardous waste handling measures, and pay a $142,200 civil penalty.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $13.50 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addresses section below on or before July 20, 2015.
Andrew R. Davis, Chief of the Division of Interpretations and Standards, Office of Labor-Management Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-5609, Washington, DC 20210,
Please use only one method of transmission (mail or submission via
Congress enacted the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959, as amended (LMRDA), to provide for the disclosure of information on the financial transactions and administrative practices of labor organizations. The statute also provides, under certain circumstances, for reporting by labor organization officers and employees, employers, labor relations consultants, and surety companies. Section 208 of the LMRDA authorizes the Secretary to issue rules and regulations prescribing the form of the required reports. The reporting provisions were devised to implement a basic tenet of the LMRDA: The guarantee of democratic procedures and safeguards within labor organizations, which are designed to protect the basic rights of union members.
Pursuant to section 201 of the LMRDA, the Department established annual financial disclosure reports: the Form LM-2, LM-3, and LM-4. These reports detail the receipts, disbursements, assets, and liabilities of covered labor organizations during their previous fiscal year. The Form LM-2 is the most detailed report, for those labor organizations with $250,000 or more in total annual receipts. The Form LM-3 is available for those labor organizations with fewer than $250,000 in total annual receipts, and the Form LM-4 is available for those labor organizations with fewer than $10,000 in total annual receipts.
Section 205 of the LMRDA provides that the reports are public information. Filers submit the reports to the Department's Office of Labor-Management Standards (OLMS), pursuant to the OLMS Information Collection Request (ICR), OMB # 1245-0003 (Form LM-1, LM-2, LM-3, LM-4, Simplified Annual Report, LM-10, LM-15, LM-15A, LM-16, LM-20, LM-21, LM-30, and S-1). Currently, filers can submit the Forms LM-2, LM-3, LM-4, and LM-30 electronically through the OLMS free and web-based Electronic Forms System (EFS).
In response to requests from union members, the media, members of Congress, and other interested parties for Internet access to reports filed by unions under the LMRDA, OLMS developed a Web site (
The legal authority for this notice is set forth in 35 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2), and sections 203 and 208 of the LMRDA, 29 U.S.C. 432, 438. Section 208 of the LMRDA provides that the Secretary of Labor shall have authority to issue, amend, and rescind rules and regulations prescribing the form and publication of reports required to be filed under Title II of the Act and such other reasonable rules and regulations as he may find necessary to prevent the circumvention or evasion of the reporting requirements. 29 U.S.C. 438. The Secretary has delegated his authority under the LMRDA to the Director of the Office of Labor-Management Standards and permits re-delegation of such authority.
The Department seeks to amend ICR 1245-0003, as well as the Forms LM-3 and LM-4 instructions, to require mandatory electronic filing of these reports, as well as modify the Form LM-2 hardship exemption process to correspond with that proposed for the Form LM-3 and LM-4 reports, which would only permit temporary hardship exemption submissions, not continuing. The Department believes that reasonable changes must be made to the means by which the forms required under LMRDA Title II are filed. The most efficient way to provide meaningful access to this information by interested members of the public is to require that the reports filed by small and medium-sized labor organizations be filed in electronic form. This change will benefit the filers, union members, and the public, as well as the Department.
First, EFS provides significant advantages for filers. Electronic forms
Second, EFS offers numerous benefits for the public. In contrast to the efficiency of e-filing, paper reports must be scanned and processed for data entry before they can be posted online for disclosure, which delays their availability for public review. Mandatory e-filing would therefore result in more immediate availability of the reports on the OLMS public disclosure Web site, and improve the efficiency of OLMS in processing the reports and in reviewing them for reporting compliance. Mandatory e-filing will also improve accessibility to the LM-3 and LM-4 forms for people with disabilities. Under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act, federal agencies must ensure that members of the public who are disabled and who are seeking information or services from a Federal agency “have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of the information and data by such members of the public who are not individuals with disabilities.”
Third, mandatory e-filing will save the Department resources. Currently, only the Form LM-2 must be submitted to OLMS electronically, and there has been good compliance with this submission requirement. Requiring Form LM-3 and LM-4 reports to be filed electronically using a web-based system provided by OLMS and making the submitted reports available on the Web site will decrease the number of requests for reports that must be handled manually, freeing OLMS staff for other compliance assistance and enforcement work. Furthermore, electronic filing of Form LM-3 and LM-4 reports will enable OLMS to more efficiently sort, review, and analyze data that can be used more effectively for enforcement and compliance assistance purposes.
Section IV (How to File), Form LM-2 and Form LM-3 Section XI (Completing Form LM-2 or LM-3), and Form LM-4 Section IX (Completing Form LM-4): The instructions in these sections will change to implement mandatory electronic filing. Mandatory electronic filing will minimize the burdens for unions that file the Forms LM-3 or LM-4, and increase efficiency for the Department of Labor as it processes the reports and makes the reports available to union members and the public. The web-based software will pre-populate certain data, perform many calculations, and help ensure the accuracy and completeness of the forms. A union will be permitted to file a paper format Form LM-3 or LM-4, however, if it claims a temporary hardship exemption. Such process will enable the filer to submit a paper report by the required due date, with an electronic report submitted within ten business days after their required due date. The hardship exemption procedures are modeled after the existing procedures used by Form LM-2 filers, although the Department proposes just a temporary hardship exemption, not a continuing hardship exemption, as Form LM-2 filers have utilized. The Department notes that the continuing hardship exemption process derives from the Department's initial electronic filing system, which was not web-based and required the purchase of a digital signature. The creation of EFS eliminated the problems and costs associated with the prior system, and the Department therefore does not consider the continuing hardship exemption portion of the process to be necessary. The Department therefore also proposes an amendment to the Form LM-2 instructions, eliminating the continuing portion of the hardship exemption process, leaving just the temporary hardship exemption. The temporary hardship exemption process is explained in the instructions to the forms that accompany this notice. The Department invites comments regarding any alternative procedures that might better address problems associated with mandatory electronic filing of the Forms LM-3 and LM-4.
While no other changes to any other forms covered by this ICR are contemplated at this time, the agency seeks comments on any aspect of this information collection. Those comments will be used to revise and extend OMB authorization under the PRA for this information collection.
II. Review Focus: The Department is particularly interested in comments which:
* Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
* evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
* enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
* minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other
The Department seeks to revise this information collection to provide for electronic filing. The information collected by OLMS is used by union members to help self-govern their unions, by workers making decisions regarding their collective bargaining rights, by the general public, and as research material for both outside researchers and within the Department. The information is also used to assist the Department and other government agencies in detecting improper practices on the part of labor organizations, their officers and/or representatives, and is used by Congress in oversight and legislative functions.
The Department does not anticipate any changes to its burden estimates, as provided in its most recent extension request for OMB #1245-0003.
The total burden for the Labor Organization and Auxiliary Reports information collection is summarized as follows:
Type of Review: Revision.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record. The Department notes that it has a pending rulemaking concerning two of the reports included in the Labor Organization and Auxiliary Reports information collection: The Form LM-10 Employer Report and the Form LM-20 Agreement and Activities Report filed by labor relations consultants. See 76 FR 37292. The Department received comments on those information collections during the rulemaking, and it will respond to such comments in any final rule issued, as well as in any separate request for amendment to the information collection submitted to OMB in the context of that rulemaking.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal for completion of a Prerequisite Verification Form for applicants requesting enrollment in Outreach Training Program trainer courses to become an authorized Outreach Training Program trainer and the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Outreach Training Program Requirements (dated February 2013).
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by July 20, 2015.
Theda Kenney or Todd Owen, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork
The information collection requirements in the Outreach Training Program Requirements (dated February 2013) provide OTI Education Centers with the ability to determine the training and occupational safety and health experience of an applicant to become an authorized Outreach Training Program trainer to conduct the 10- and 30-hour Outreach Training Program classes for construction, general industry, and maritime, and the disaster site worker class.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on applicants who apply to become authorized Outreach Training Program trainers; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
The Agency is requesting approval of the OTI Education Center Prerequisite Verification Form. The information collected in the Prerequisite Verification Form will be used by the OTI Education Centers to determine whether an applicant has met the prerequisite requirements of training and occupational safety and health-related experience to become an authorized Outreach Training Program trainer. Collecting this information prior to allowing an applicant to enroll in the Outreach Training Program trainer courses and become an authorized Outreach Training Program trainer ensures the validity of the Outreach Training Program and reduces the potential for individuals who are inexperienced in the occupational safety and health profession from conducting training through the Outreach Training Program. The Prerequisite Verification Form is provided to all applicants wishing to enroll in the Outreach Training Program trainer courses prior to their enrollment. Applicants are required to have five (5) years of occupational safety and health experience in the construction industry, general industry, or the maritime industry and to have completed the required OSHA standards course prior to their enrollment in the Outreach Training Program trainer course. Upon successful completion of the Outreach Training Program trainer course the applicant is authorized to conduct 10- and 30-hour Outreach Training Program classes in construction, general industry, or maritime, or disaster site worker classes and to provide students with Outreach Training Program class completion cards.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice.
NARA gives public notice that it has submitted to OMB for approval the information collection described in this notice. We invite the public to comment on the proposed information collection pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Submit any written comments to OMB at the address below on or before June 19, 2015.
Send comments to Mr. Nicholas A. Fraser, Desk Officer for NARA, by mail to Office of Management and Budget; New Executive Office Building; Washington, DC 20503; by fax to 202-395-5167, or by email to
Contact Tamee Fechhelm by telephone at 301-837-1694 or by fax at 301-713-7409 with requests for additional information or copies of the proposed information collection and supporting statement.
Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), NARA invites the public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed information collections. NARA published a notice of proposed collection for this information collection on December 24, 2014 (79 FR 77534 and 77535). We received no comments. We have submitted the described information collection to OMB for approval. In response to this notice, comments and suggestions should address one or more of the following points: (a) Whether the proposed information collection is necessary for NARA to properly perform its functions; (b) NARA's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection and its accuracy; (c) ways NARA could enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information it collects; (d) ways NARA could minimize the burden on respondents of collecting the information, including through information technology; and (e) whether this collection affects small businesses. In this notice, NARA solicits comments concerning the following information collection:
Abstract: The NHPRC posts grant announcements to their Web site and to grants.gov (
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Approval of indirect transfer of control.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission has approved the indirect transfer of control of Western Nuclear, Inc. (WNI) and Materials License No. SUA-56 from Phelps Dodge Corporation (PDC) to Freeport-McMoRan Copper & Gold, Inc. (Freeport). License No. SUA-56 is for WNI's former Split Rock Conventional Uranium Mill Site near Jeffrey City, Wyoming. The WNI's parent company, PDC (currently named Freeport-McMoRan Corporation), was previously acquired in a reverse triangular merger by Freeport. On March 12, 2007, WNI informed the NRC that PDC would be acquired by Freeport. On March 19, 2007, Freeport acquired the entire interest in PDC, and Freeport now owns 100 percent of PDC. On July 22, 2009, WNI requested NRC approval of an indirect transfer of control with respect to its Materials License No. SUA-56. The NRC has determined that, although the licensee was required to obtain NRC consent prior to the indirect transfer of control, the indirect transfer of control of the license is otherwise consistent with applicable provisions of law and NRC regulations. Therefore, the NRC has approved the indirect transfer of control.
May 20, 2015.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2009-0434 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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•
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Dominick Orlando, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6749, email:
The WNI is the holder of NRC Materials License No. SUA-56 for its former Split Rock Conventional Uranium Mill Site near Jeffrey City, Wyoming. The WNI has been an NRC licensee since 1958. The Split Rock Site ceased active uranium recovery operations in 1987 and has been engaging in final site reclamation activities since then. In 1971, WNI became a wholly owned subsidiary of PDC.
On March 12, 2007, WNI informed the NRC that the PDC would be acquired by Freeport (ADAMS Accession No. ML071080087). On September 5, 2007, WNI informed the NRC that the acquisition of WNI by Freeport had occurred (ADAMS Accession No. ML072710031). By letter dated July 22, 2009, WNI submitted a request to the NRC for Consent to Indirect License Transfer of NRC Materials License No. SUA-56 (ADAMS Accession No. ML092100247). On October 13, 2009, the NRC issued a notice of application for indirect change of control and provided interested individuals an opportunity to request a hearing (74 FR 52510).
On December 30, 2009, the NRC requested additional information from WNI on the indirect change of control (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML093480467 and ML093480453). The WNI responded on May 7, 2010 (the NRC staff was unable to locate this response in ADAMS and a copy was provided by WNI on January 13, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15036A423)). On July 27, 2010, the NRC requested additional information from WNI on the indirect change of control (ADAMS Accession No. ML102040700). On June 24, 2011, WNI provided information in response to the request for additional information (ADAMS Accession No. ML111860086). On December 2, 2014, the NRC requested additional information from WNI on the indirect change of control (ADAMS Accession No. ML14301A290). The WNI responded to the NRC's request on January 13, 2015 (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML15036A423).
The WNI's Materials License No. SUA-56 was issued under part 40 of Title 10 of the
The NRC staff reviews requests for license transfers using the guidance in NUREG 1556, Volume 15, “Consolidated Guidance About Materials Licenses-Guidance About Changes of Control and About Bankruptcy Involving Byproduct, Source, or Special Nuclear Materials Licenses,” dated November 2000 (NUREG 1556, Vol. 15) (ADAMS Accession No. ML003778305). The purpose of the review is to determine whether the licensee, under the transaction, would continue to meet the regulatory requirements necessary to establish adequate financial assurance for decommissioning as required by 10 CFR part 40. As discussed in NUREG-1556, Volume 15, the NRC uses the term “change of control” rather than the statutory term “transfer” to describe the variety of events that could require prior notification and written consent of the NRC. The central issue is whether the authority over the license has changed. The WNI's request for consent to indirect change of control describes an indirect change of control resulting from a merger between PDC, WNI's former parent company, and Freeport. Following the merger, WNI became a wholly owned subsidiary of Freeport and, as such, the transfer requires NRC consent.
The NRC staff reviewed WNI's request for consent to an indirect change in control of its 10 CFR part 40 license using the guidance in NUREG 1556, Vol. 15. The NRC staff finds that the information submitted by WNI sufficiently describes and documents the commitments made by Freeport is consistent with the guidance in NUREG-1556, Vol. 15. An environmental assessment for this action is not required because this action is categorically excluded under 10 CFR 51.22(c)(21).
Based on the review summarized above, the NRC has approved the indirect change of control, although the licensee was required to obtain NRC consent prior to the indirect change of control occurring. The licensee has further committed in its next parent company guarantee submission to provide a parent company guarantee issued by Freeport to cover the remaining site reclamation costs. The WNI's request meets the requirements of 10 CFR 40.46(b)(1) and (2) as the request includes the identity and technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee, and WNI has committed to provide revised financial assurance for decommissioning, during the next parent company guarantee submittal, naming Freeport as parent company guarantor for the reclamation costs at the Split Rock Site.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an exemption in response to an April 11, 2014, request from Dominion Nuclear Connecticut, Inc., requesting an exemption to use a different fuel rod cladding material (M5
May 20, 2015.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0125 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
• Federal Rulemaking Web site: Go to
• NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS): You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at
• NRC's PDR: You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Richard V. Guzman, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1030, email:
Dominion Nuclear Connecticut, Inc. (the licensee) is the holder of Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-65, which authorizes operation of Millstone Power Station, Unit 2 (MPS2), a pressurized water reactor. The license provides, among other things, that the facility is subject to all rules, regulations, and orders of the NRC now or hereafter in effect.
The MPS2 shares the site with Millstone Power Station, Unit 1, a permanently defueled boiling water reactor nuclear unit, and Millstone Power Station, Unit 3, a pressurized water reactor. The facility is located in Waterford, Connecticut, approximately 3.2 miles west southwest of New London, Connecticut. This exemption applies to MPS2 only. The other units, Units 1 and 3, are not covered by this exemption.
Pursuant to section 50.12 of Title 10 of the
The exemption request relates solely to the cladding material specified in these regulations (
Pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12, the Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 50 when: (1) The exemptions are authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to public health or safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security; and (2) when special circumstances are present. Under 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii), special circumstances include, among other things, when application of the specific regulation in the particular circumstance would not serve, or is not necessary to achieve, the underlying purpose of the rule.
Special circumstances, in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii), are present whenever application of the regulation in the particular circumstances is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule. The underlying purpose of 10 CFR 50.46 and appendix K to 10 CFR part 50 is to establish acceptance criteria for ECCS performance to provide reasonable assurance of safety in the event of a loss-of-coolant accident (LOCA). Although the regulations in 10 CFR 50.46 and appendix K to 10 CFR part 50 are not expressly applicable to M5 alloy cladding, the evaluations described in the following sections of this exemption show that the purpose of the regulations are met by this exemption, in that the effectiveness of the ECCS will not be affected by a change from Zircaloy or ZIRLO® clad fuel rod to M5 clad fuel rod. Normal reload safety analyses will confirm that there is no adverse impact on ECCS performance. Thus, a strict application of the rule (which would preclude the applicability of ECCS performance acceptance criteria to, and the use of, M5 fuel cladding material) is not necessary to achieve the underlying purposes of 10 CFR 50.46 and appendix K to 10 CFR part 50. The purpose of these regulations is achieved through application of the requirements to the use of M5 fuel rod clad material. Therefore, the special circumstances required by 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii) for the granting of an exemption exist.
This exemption would allow the use of M5 fuel rod cladding material for future reload operations at MPS2. As stated above, 10 CFR 50.12 allows the NRC to grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 50 provided that special circumstances are present. As described above, the NRC staff has determined that special circumstances exist to grant the requested exemption. In addition, granting the exemption will not result in a violation any part of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or the Commission's regulations. Therefore, the exemption is authorized by law.
Section 10 CFR 50.46 requires that each boiling or pressurized light-water nuclear power reactor fueled with uranium dioxide pellets within cylindrical Zircaloy or ZIRLO® cladding must be provided with an ECCS that must be designed so that its calculated cooling performance following a postulated LOCA conforms to the criteria set forth in paragraph (B) of this section. The underlying purpose of 10 CFR 50.46 is to establish acceptance criteria for adequate ECCS performance.
The NRC-approved topical report BAW-10227(P)-A, “Evaluation of Advanced Cladding and Structural Material (M5) in PWR Reactor Fuel” (ADAMS Accession No. ML003686365) has demonstrated that predicted chemical, mechanical, and material performance characteristics of the M5
The NRC-approved topical Report BAW-10240(P)-A, Revision 0, “Incorporation of M5 Properties in Framatome-ANP Approved Methods” (ADAMS Accession No. ML042800314) describes the incorporation of the NRC-approved M5 material properties in a set of mechanical analyses, small-break loss-of-coolant accident (SBLOCA) and non-LOCA methodologies. This topical report demonstrates that the effectiveness of the ECCS will not be affected by changing the cladding from Zircaloy to M5 alloy.
The objective of 10 CFR 50.46(b)(2) and (b)(3), and appendix K to 10 CFR part 50, paragraph I.A.5 is to ensure that cladding oxidation and hydrogen generation are appropriately limited during a LOCA and conservatively accounted for in a plant's ECCS evaluation model. Paragraph I.A.5 of appendix K requires that the Baker-Just equation be used in the ECCS evaluation model to determine the rate of energy release, cladding oxidation, and hydrogen generation. Based on the above, the NRC staff concludes that the intent of 10 CFR 50.46 and appendix K to 10 CFR part 50 will continue to be satisfied for the planned operation of MPS2 with M5 alloy fuel cladding and fuel assembly material.
The M5 cladding material is similar in design to Zircaloy, the current cladding material used at MPS2. Thus, the change in cladding material from Zircaloy to M5 will not require any change to the security and control of special nuclear material. The licensee will continue to be required to handle and control special nuclear material in these assemblies in accordance with its approved procedures. This change to reactor core internals is adequately controlled by NRC requirements and is not related to security issues. Therefore, the NRC staff determined that this exemption does not impact, and thus is consistent with, the common defense and security.
The NRC staff determined that the exemption discussed herein meets the eligibility criteria for the categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9) because it is related to a requirement concerning the installation or use of a facility component located within the restricted area, as defined in 10 CFR part 20, and issuance of this exemption involves: (i) no significant hazards consideration, (ii) no significant change in the types or a significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, and (iii) no significant increase in individual or cumulative occupational radiation exposure. Therefore, in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with the NRC's consideration of this exemption request. The basis for the NRC staff's determination is discussed as follows with an evaluation against each of the requirements in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9)(i)-(iii).
The NRC staff evaluated whether the exemption involves no significant hazards consideration using the standards described in 10 CFR 50.92(c), as presented below:
1. Does the proposed exemption involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed exemption would allow the use of M5 fuel rod cladding material in the MPS2 reactor. The NRC approved topical reports cited above demonstrate that M5 alloy has similar properties as the currently licensed Zircaloy. The fuel cladding itself is not a postulated initiator of previously evaluated accidents; thus, fuel cladding material does not affect the probability of occurrence of any accident. The consequences of none of the previously evaluated accidents were affected by fuel cladding material, and M5, likewise, is not expected to have any effect on the consequences of any previously evaluated accidents.
Therefore, the proposed exemption does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed exemption create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The use of M5 fuel rod cladding material will not result in changes in the operation or configuration of the facility. The above cited topical reports demonstrated that the material properties of M5 are similar to those of standard Zircaloy. Therefore, M5 fuel rod cladding material will perform similarly to those fabricated from standard Zircaloy. The fuel cladding itself is not a postulated initiator of previously evaluated accidents and does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident.
Therefore, the proposed exemption does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed exemption involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed exemption will not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety because it has been demonstrated that the material properties of the M5 alloy are not significantly different from those of standard Zircaloy. M5 alloy is expected to perform similarly to standard Zircaloy for all normal operating and accident scenarios. Use of M5 alloy does not require changing any of the current regulatory acceptance criteria, or relaxation of the methods of analysis.
Therefore, the proposed exemption does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
Based on the above evaluation of the standards set forth in 10 CFR 50.92(c), the NRC staff concludes that the proposed exemption involves no significant hazards consideration. Accordingly, the requirements of 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9)(i) are met.
The proposed exemption would allow the use of M5 fuel rod cladding material in the MPS2 reactor. M5 alloy has similar material properties and performance characteristics as the currently licensed Zircaloy cladding. Thus, the use of M5 fuel rod cladding material will not significantly change the types of effluents that may be released offsite, or significantly increase the amount of effluents that may be released offsite. Therefore, the requirements of 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9)(ii) are met.
The proposed exemption would allow the use of M5 fuel rod cladding material in the reactors. M5 alloy has similar material properties and performance characteristics as the currently licensed Zircaloy cladding. Thus, the use of M5 fuel rod cladding material will not significantly increase individual occupational radiation exposure, or
Based on the above, the NRC staff concludes that the proposed exemption meets the eligibility criteria for the categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with the NRC's proposed issuance of this exemption.
Accordingly, the Commission has determined that, pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12, the exemption is authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and is consistent with the common defense and security. Also, special circumstances pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii) are present. Therefore, the Commission hereby grants Dominion Nuclear Connecticut, Inc., an exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 50.46 and Appendix K to 10 CFR part 50, to allow the application of those criteria to, and the use of, M5 fuel rod cladding material at MPS2.
This exemption is effective upon issuance.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning a modification to a Global Expedited Package Services 3 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On May 13, 2015, the Postal Service filed notice that it has agreed to a Modification to the existing Global Expedited Package Services 3 negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Modification and supporting financial information under seal. Notice at 1. The Postal Service seeks to incorporate by reference the Application for Non-Public Treatment originally filed in this docket for the protection of information that it has filed under seal.
The Modification adds a new paragraph to Article 5 addressing the use of permit imprints, adds a new paragraph to Article 5 (text under seal), revises the minimum commitment in Article 11, and replaces Annex 2 (price charts).
The Commission invites comments on whether the changes presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than May 21, 2015. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Lyudmila Y. Bzhilyanskaya to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2015-9 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Lyudmila Y. Bzhilyanskaya to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding.
3. Comments are due no later than May 21, 2015.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Notice of Request for Information
Advanced sequencing technologies have illuminated vast networks of microorganisms that drive essential functions in all environments on Earth. The study of these communities of microorganisms, or microbiomes, is nascent, and the potential of microbiome research has only begun to be tapped. Primary to achieving this potential is a functional understanding of microbiomes, which would be greatly advanced by addressing fundamental questions common to all fields of microbiome research; developing platform technologies useful to all fields; and identifying gaps in training or fields of research that should be addressed. The Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP) is interested in developing an effort to unify and focus microbiome research across sectors. The views of stakeholders—academic and industry researchers, private companies, and charitable foundations—are important to inform an understanding of current and future needs in diverse fields.
Responses must be received by June 15, 2015, to be considered.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Elizabeth Stulberg at
The purpose of this RFI is to solicit feedback from industry, academia, research laboratories, and other stakeholder groups on both the overarching questions that unite all microbiome research and the tools, technologies, and training that are needed to answer these questions. OSTP is specifically interested in information that corresponds to the mission statements of multiple Federal agencies, private sector interests, and current White House Policy Initiatives. In particular, respondents may wish to address the following topics:
• What are the most pressing, fundamental questions in microbiome research, common to most or all fields?
• Over the next ten years, what are the most important research gaps that must be addressed to advance this field?
• What tools, platform technologies, or technological advances would propel microbiome research from correlative to predictive?
• What crucial types of scientific and technical training will be needed to take advantage of harnessing the microbiome's potential?
• What fields of microbiome research are currently underfunded or underrepresented?
• What specific steps could be taken by the federal government, research institutes, universities, and philanthropies to encourage multi-disciplinary microbiome research?
• Is there any additional information, not requested above, that you believe OSTP should consider in identifying crucial areas of microbiome research?
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The ISE proposes to amend the Schedule of Fees to introduce a new “Retail” designation for Priority Customer orders. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Schedule of Fees to introduce a new “Retail” designation for Priority Customer orders. A “Priority Customer” is a person or entity that is not a broker/dealer in securities, and does not place more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s), as defined in Rule 100(a)(37A). This market participant type is one of six currently recognized for purposes of determining applicable fees and rebates, along with: Market Maker,
In particular, the Exchange proposes to introduce a new “Retail” designation for Priority Customer orders for the purpose of determining applicable fees and rebates. As proposed, a Retail order is a Priority Customer order that originates from a natural person, provided that no change is made to the terms of the order with respect to price or side of market and the order does not originate from a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology. The proposed definition of a Retail order is designed to mirror a similar concept introduced by the New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”), NYSE Amex (“Amex”), and other equities exchanges to promote price improvement for orders submitted by retail investors.
NYSE and Amex define a “Retail Order” as an agency order or a riskless principal order that meets the criteria of FINRA Rule 5320.03 that originates from a natural person and is submitted to the Exchange by a Retail Member Organization, provided that no change is made to the terms of the order with respect to price or side of market and the order does not originate from a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
Specifically, the proposed rule change will allow the Exchange to potentially offer more favorable fees and rebates to Retail orders that originate from natural persons. Currently, the Exchange distinguishes between orders executed for two categories of Public Customer:
The equities markets already provide benefits to order flow that originates from a natural person and not a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology. The Exchange believes that the proposed definition of a Retail order is appropriate as it is substantially similar to the definition already used in the equities context, and is therefore already familiar to market participants. The Exchange notes, however, that unlike equities exchanges such as NYSE and Amex, it is not proposing any market structure changes at this time to accompany the introduction of a Retail designation for Priority Customer orders. All Priority Customer orders will continue to benefit from the current market structure benefits that they receive on the Exchange. In addition, Priority Customer orders other than Retail orders will continue to benefit from pricing that is generally more favorable than pricing adopted for Professional Customer and non-Customer orders.
By adopting a definition of Retail order, the Exchange hopes to be able to offer potentially more favorable fees and rebates to retail investors. The Exchange believes that this will advance the goals identified when the Exchange first introduced the Priority Customer designation, by providing genuine retail investors with the best prices available on the Exchange. In this regard, the Exchange notes that the fees and rebates for Retail orders will initially be the same as fees and rebates for other Priority Customer orders; however, the Exchange will introduce additional pricing advantages for Retail orders at a later date pursuant to a proposed rule change filed with the Commission.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from members or other interested parties.
The Exchange believes that the foregoing proposed rule change may take effect upon filing with the Commission pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an Email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a Closed Meeting on Tuesday, May 19, 2015 at 3:30 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the Closed Meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (5), (7), 9(ii) and (10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the Closed Meeting.
Commissioner Stein, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the Closed Meeting in closed session, and determined that Commission business required consideration earlier than one week from today. No earlier notice of this Meeting was practicable.
The subject matter of the Closed Meeting will be:
Institution of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 17a-6 permits national securities exchanges, national securities associations, registered clearing agencies, and the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (“MSRB”) (collectively, “SROs”) to destroy or convert to microfilm or other recording media records maintained under Rule 17a-1, if they have filed a record destruction plan with the Commission and the Commission has declared such plan effective.
There are currently 29 SROs: 18 national securities exchanges, 1 national securities association, the MSRB, and 9 registered clearing agencies. Of the 29 SROs, only 2 SRO respondents have filed a record destruction plan with the Commission. The staff calculates that the preparation and filing of a new record destruction plan should take 160 hours. Further, any existing SRO record destruction plans may require revision, over time, in response to, for example, changes in document retention technology, which the Commission estimates will take much less than the 160 hours estimated for a new plan. The Commission estimates that each SRO that has filed a destruction plan will spend approximately 30 hours per year making required revisions. Thus, the
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Rule 6.42 governing Exchange liability and payments to Permit Holders
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
C2 proposes to amend Rule 6.42 to eliminate any implication of liability with respect to the Exchange and its subsidiaries or affiliates, or any of their directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents, (including the Exchange, collectively, “Covered Persons”) for losses arising out of the use or enjoyment of Exchange facilities. The proposed rule change is consistent with and supplements existing law, and would ensure that self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) can operate within the sphere of their regulatory duties without fear of endless, costly litigation and potential catastrophic loss.
Under C2's proposal, although the Exchange would not be liable for losses, it would have the discretion to compensate Permit Holders for losses alleged to have resulted from the Exchange's failure to correctly process an order or quote due to the acts or omissions of the Exchange or due to the failure of its systems or facilities (each, a “Loss Event”), up to specified limits. The proposed rule change would also establish timeframes within which Permit Holders would be required to bring requests for compensation (and provide supporting documentation), provide factors the Exchange may consider in determining whether to provide compensation in response to such requests, and establish that the Exchange's determinations on compensation are final and not appealable. The proposed rule change would also provide that claims arising under a previous version of Rule 6.42 for losses occurring more than one year prior to July 1, 2015 (the “Effective Date”) would not be considered valid, and that claims for any losses occurring prior to the Effective Date must be brought within one month of the Effective Date to be considered valid. Specific changes to Exchange Rules are discussed below.
The proposed rule change would change the title of Rule 6.42 from “Exchange Liability” to “Exchange Liability Disclaimers and Limitations.” The proposed amendment to the Rule title would clarify that the Rule does not impose liability on the Exchange, but
Proposed amendments to Rule 6.42(a) would clarify that “contractors” are included within the term “Covered Persons,” and are therefore included within the General Disclaimer. This proposed change is needed because the Exchange at times contracts with outside firms to provide products and services to the Exchange for use by Permit Holders in connection with regulated business conducted on or through the Exchange and that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange and/or the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities. C2 notes that this proposed rule change is consistent with the exclusion from liability for contractors found in EDGA Rule 11.14, BOX Rule 7230 and ISE Rule 705. Proposed amendments to Rule 6.42(a) would also clarify that “other officials” of the Exchange or “any subsidiaries or affiliates of the Exchange” are included within the term “Covered Persons,” and are therefore included within the General Disclaimer. We note that this proposed rule change to include other officials and subsidiaries is consistent with the existing provisions of Rule 6.44.
The proposed rule change would also clarify that implicit in the General Disclaimer is the Exchange's disclaimer of any warranties, express or implied, with respect to the use or enjoyment of facilities afforded by the Exchange, including without limitation, of any data provided by the Exchange. The current language of the rule states that the Exchange does not warrant “the use of any data transmitted or disseminated by or on behalf of the Exchange or any reporting authority designated by the Exchange, including but not limited to reports of transactions in or quotations for securities traded on the Exchange or underlying securities, or reports of interest rate measures or index values or related data.” Under the proposed rule change, the Exchange would make explicit that the General Disclaimer is intended to contain within it a disclaimer of any warranties as to the use or enjoyment of the facilities offered by the Exchange. The proposed rule change would thereby clarify that such use or enjoyment of Exchange facilities by Permit Holders is provided “as is,” without specific warranties of merchantability or of fitness for a particular purpose. For the avoidance of doubt, the explicit list of the types of data for which the Exchange disclaims any warranties would also include, without limitation, “any current or closing index value, any current or closing value of interest rate options, or any report of transactions in or quotations for options or other securities, including underlying securities.”
The proposed rule change would also clarify that all limitations on liability and disclaimers within paragraph (a) of Rule 6.42 are in addition to, and not in limitation of, any limitations on liability otherwise existing under law. This proposed rule change is intended to ensure that the protection of Rule 6.42 does not circumscribe protections that otherwise would exist under the principles of law.
Currently, Rule 6.42(b) provides that whenever custody of an unexecuted order is transmitted by a Permit Holder to or through the Exchange's System or to any other automated facility of the Exchange whereby the Exchange assumes responsibility for the transmission or execution of the order, and provided that the Exchange has acknowledged receipt of such order, the Exchange's liability for the negligent acts or omissions of its employees or for the failure of its systems or facilities shall not exceed certain limits set forth in Rule 6.42(b). The Exchange first proposes to provide that Rule 6.42(b) applies to quotes as well as unexecuted orders. Additionally, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the word “automated” from “automated facility of the Exchange”, as not all facilities of the Exchange may be considered automated and the Exchange did not intend to restrict the scope of rule as such. The Exchange also seeks to amend Rule 6.42(b) to explicitly provide that, although the Exchange would not be liable with respect to regulated Exchange business for losses that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange and/or the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities, as provided in Rule 6.42(a),
Neither the Exchange nor any of its directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents, nor any subsidiaries or affiliates of the Exchange or any of their directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents (“Covered Persons”) shall be liable to Participants or to persons associated therewith for any loss, expense, damages or claims that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange, any interruption in or failure or unavailability of any such facilities, or any action taken or omitted to be taken in respect to the business of the Exchange except to the extent such loss, expense, damages or claims are attributable to the willful misconduct, gross negligence, bad faith or fraudulent or criminal acts of the Exchange or its officers, employees or agents acting within the scope of their authority. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, and subject to the same exception, no Covered Person shall have any liability to any person or entity for any loss, expense, damages or claims that result from any error, omission or delay in calculating or disseminating any current or closing index value, any current or closing value of interest rate options, or any reports of transactions in or quotations for options or other securities, including underlying securities. The Exchange makes no warranty, express or implied, as to results to be obtained by any person or entity from the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange, including without limitation, of any data transmitted or disseminated by or on behalf of the Exchange or any reporting authority designated by the Exchange, including but not limited to any data described in the preceding sentence, and the Exchange makes no express or implied warranties of merchantability or fitness for a particular purpose or use with respect to any such data. The foregoing limitations of liability and disclaimers shall be in addition to, and not in limitation of, the provisions of Article Eighth
Proposed new Rule 6.42(c) would establish timeframes within which a valid request for compensation must be brought under the Rule. Under the proposed rule change, notice of all requests would be required to be in writing and to be submitted to the Exchange no later than 12:00 p.m. Central Time on the next business day following the Loss Event giving rise to such request. All requests would be required to be in writing and to be submitted, along with supporting documentation, by 5:00 p.m. Central Time on the third business day following the Loss Event giving rise to each such request.
The proposed provisions of new Rule 6.42(c) would benefit Permit Holders by providing them with clear timeframes within which to submit notices of requests, requests for compensation, and supporting documentation. The proposed changes would also provide the Exchange with certainty as to the deadlines by which notices of requests and completed requests would be required to be submitted in order for the Exchange to consider them for compensation under Rule 6.42.
Currently, Rule 6.42(c) provides that if all of the claims cannot be fully satisfied because in the aggregate they exceed the applicable maximum amount of liability provided in paragraph (b) [of Rule 6.42] [sic], then such maximum amount would be allocated among all such claims arising on a single trading day or during a single calendar month, as applicable, written notice of which has been given to the Exchange no later than the opening of trading on the next business day following the day on which the use or enjoyment of Exchange facilities giving rise to the claim occurred, based upon the proportion that each claim bears to the sum of all such claims. The Exchange proposes to amend existing Rule 6.42(c), which would be renumbered to Rule 6.42(d), to state that, “if all of the timely requests submitted pursuant to paragraph (c) [of Rule 6.42] that are granted cannot be fully satisfied because in the aggregate they exceed the applicable maximum amount of payments authorized in paragraph (b) [of Rule 6.42], then such maximum amount shall be allocated among all such requests arising on a single trading day or during a single calendar month, as applicable, based upon the proportion that each such request bears to the sum of all such requests.” The Exchange notes that it is proposing to replace the term “claim” with the term “request”, as well as replace the reference to “liability” with “payments authorized” to eliminate any implication of liability with respect to the Exchange and other Covered Person resulting from the use or enjoyment of the facilities offered by the Exchange, any interruption in or failure or unavailability or any such facilities, or any action taken or omitted to be taken in respect of the business of the Exchange.
Additionally, the Exchange notes that proposed Rule 6.42(d) would continue to provide a fair way of allocating the limited payment that the rule would permit the Exchange to make when the total amount of eligible requests exceed that maximum amount. The proposal would also revise the timeframe in which requests for payment must be made by a Permit Holder.
Proposed new Rule 6.42(e) would provide that the Exchange, in determining whether to make payment in response to a request for compensation, may determine whether the amount requested should be reduced based on the actions or inactions of the requesting Permit Holder. The proposed rule change would permit the Exchange to consider, without limitation, whether the actions or inactions of the Permit Holder contributed to the Loss Event; whether the Permit Holder made appropriate efforts to mitigate its loss; whether the Permit Holder realized any gains as a result of a Loss Event; whether the
The Exchange represents that the determination to compensate a Permit Holder will be made on an equitable and non-discriminatory basis and without regard to the Exchange capacity of the Permit Holder, such as whether the Permit Holder is a Designated Primary Market-Maker. Additionally, the Exchange represents that the Exchange will maintain a record of Permit Holder requests including documentation detailing the Exchange's findings and details for approving or denying requests in accordance with its obligations under Section 17 of the Act.
Proposed new Rule 6.42(f) would provide that all determinations by the Exchange pursuant to Rule 6.42 shall be final and not subject to appeal under Chapter XIX of the Exchange Rules.
Proposed new paragraph 6.42(g) would establish July 1, 2105, as the Effective Date of revised Rule 6.42. Under proposed paragraph 6.42(g), claims for liability under prior versions of Rule 6.42 would not be considered valid if brought with respect to any acts, omissions or transactions occurring more than one year prior to the Effective Date, or if brought more than one month after the Effective Date. Proposed Rule 6.42(g) would thereby provide certainty to the Exchange as to any expense it might incur due to losses arising due to Loss Events that occurred prior to the Effective Date of the proposed rule change, while also putting Permit Holders on notice that they must file any claims for such losses by a date certain.
The proposed rule change would delete existing interpretation .01 under Rule 6.42. Interpretation .01 disclaims The Options Clearing Corporation liability to Permit Holders and their associated persons with respect to their use, non-use or inability to use the linkage that was part of the old Options Intermarket Linkage Plan (the “Old Linkage”). Because the Old Linkage is no longer operable, interpretation .01 is no longer necessary.
The proposed rule change would make conforming changes to Exchange Rules 2.2 and 6.44. Rule 2.2 requires a Permit Holder who fails to prevail in lawsuit or other legal proceeding instituted against the Exchange or certain related parties to pay for the Exchange's reasonable costs of defending such lawsuit or proceeding if those costs exceed $50,000. Rule 6.44 limits the legal proceedings a Permit Holder may bring against the Exchange and certain related persons for actions or omissions.
Under the proposed amendments to Rule 2.2, contractors would be included within the list of related parties protected by that rule, just as they would be included as Covered Persons under proposed Rule 6.42. As stated above, this proposed change is necessary because the Exchange at times contracts with outside firms to provide products or services to Permit Holders in connection with regulated business conducted on or through the Exchange and that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange and/or the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities.
In addition, under the proposed amendments to Rule 2.2, other officials and contractors of the Exchange and any subsidiaries and affiliates of the Exchange and any such subsidiaries' and affiliates' directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents would be explicitly identified/included within the list of related parties protected by the rule,
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”)
The proposal would also permit the Exchange to compensate Permit Holders for their losses incurred due to a Loss Event, even though the Exchange would not have legal liability for those losses. The proposed rule change would therefore facilitate the ability of the Exchange to make discretionary payments to redress a situation in which Permit Holders suffer losses due to a Loss Event. As stated above, the Exchange represents that the determination to compensate a Permit Holder will be made on an equitable and non-discriminatory basis without regard to the Exchange capacity of the Permit Holder, such as whether the Permit Holder is a Designated Primary Market-Maker. The Exchange therefore believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act, and Section 6(b)(5) of the Act in particular, in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange also believes these policies would promote fairness in the national market system. The proposed rule change would allow C2 to address Permit Holder requests for compensation under various circumstances and would allow C2 to act in a fashion similar to many of its competitors. As stated above, several exchanges have substantially similar rules to those proposed here, and the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would place C2 in a similar position to address Permit Holder requests.
The Exchange believes that this proposed rule change does not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As stated above, the Exchange believes that these policies would promote fairness in the national market system. The proposed rule change would allow C2 to address Permit Holder requests for compensation under various circumstances and would allow C2 to act in a fashion similar to many of its competitors. In addition, as stated above, several exchanges have substantially similar rules to those proposed here, except as otherwise noted, and the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would place C2 in a similar position to address Permit Holder requests.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become operative on May 1, 2015. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to make a number of changes to Section I of the BOX Fee Schedule (Exchange Fees).
First, the Exchange proposes to amend certain fees and credits in the pricing model outlined in Section I.A. (Non-Auction Transactions).
Specifically, the Exchange proposes to lower the Maker and Taker credits for Public Customers interacting with Professional Customers/Broker Dealers or Market Makers in both Penny Pilot and Non-Penny Pilot Classes. Here, the Exchange proposes to lower the credit Public Customers receive when interacting with Professional Customers, Broker Dealers or Market Makers, regardless of whether they are adding or removing liquidity to $0.10 from $0.22 (Penny Pilot Classes) and to $0.45 from $0.57 (Non-Penny Pilot Classes).
The Exchange also proposes to raise the Maker and Taker fees for Professional Customers or Broker Dealers in both Penny Pilot and Non-Penny Pilot Classes. Specifically, when a Professional Customer or Broker Dealer interacts with a Public Customer in a Penny Pilot Class, the Exchange proposes to raise this fee to $0.60 from $0.55 (making liquidity) and to $0.64 from $0.59 (taking liquidity). For Non-Penny Pilot Classes the Exchange proposes to raise the fees in this same type of interaction to $0.95 from $0.90 (making liquidity) and to $0.99 from $0.94 (taking liquidity). For when a Professional Customer or Broker Dealer interacts with another Professional Customer or Broker Dealer in Penny Pilot Classes, the Exchange proposes to raise these fees to $0.25 from $0.20 (making liquidity) and to $0.40 from $0.35 (taking liquidity). For Non-Penny Pilot Classes the Exchange proposes to raise the fees in this same type of interaction to $0.35 from $0.30 (making liquidity) and to $0.40 from $0.35 (taking liquidity). For when a Professional Customer or Broker Dealer interacts with a Market Maker in Penny Pilot Classes, the Exchange proposes to raise these fees to $0.25 from $0.20 (making liquidity) and to $0.44 from $0.39 (taking liquidity). For Non-Penny Pilot Classes the Exchange proposes to raise the fees in this same type of interaction to $0.35 from $0.30 (making liquidity) and $0.44 from $0.39 (taking liquidity).
Finally, the Exchange proposes to lower fees to $0.00 from $0.10 for Market Makers interacting with other Market Makers in both Penny Pilot Classes and Non-Penny Pilot Classes.
These transactions will remain exempt from the Liquidity Fees and Credits outlined in Section II of the BOX
For example, if a Public Customer submitted an order to the BOX Book in a Penny Pilot Class (making liquidity), the Public Customer would now be credited $0.10 if the order interacted with a Market Maker's order and the Market Maker (taking liquidity) would be charged $0.55. To expand on this example, if the Market Maker instead submitted an order to the BOX Book in a Penny Pilot Class (making liquidity), the Market Maker would be charged $0.51 if the order interacted with a Public Customer's order and the Public Customer (taking liquidity) would again be credited $0.10.
In Section I.A.1., the Tiered Volume Rebate for Non-Auction Transactions, the Exchange gives a per contract rebate to Market Makers and Public Customers based on their average daily volume (“ADV”) considering all transactions executed on BOX by the Market Maker or Public Customer, respectively, as calculated at the end of each month. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to adjust the volume tiers and contract rebates in the Market Maker Monthly ADV section, as well certain contract rebates in the Public Customer Monthly ADV section. The new per contract rebate for Market Makers and Public Customers in Non-Auction Transactions as set forth in Section I.A.1. of the BOX Fee Schedule will now be as follows:
The Exchange then proposes to amend Section I.B. (Auction Transactions)
The Exchange now proposes to adopt a flat $0.25 fee for Facilitation and Solicitation Orders
With this, the Exchange then proposes to amend the language in the Section I.B.1. tiered fee schedule to remove all references to the Facilitation and Solicitation Orders and specify that the tiered fee schedule will now only be applicable to Initiating Participants submitting Primary Improvement Orders through the PIP. Additionally, each Initiating Participant's monthly ADV will now only be based on the total contract quantity of Primary Improvement Orders submitted to the PIP as calculated at the end of each month.
Finally, the Exchange is proposing to make additional non-substantive changes to the Fee Schedule. Specifically, the Exchange is renumbering certain footnotes, headings and internal references to accommodate the above proposed changes to the Fee Schedule.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5)of the Act,
The Exchange believes amending the Non-Auction Transaction fees and credits is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The fee structure for Non-Auction Transactions has been well received by Participants and the industry since it was adopted last year,
The Exchange also believes it is equitable, reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess fees and credits according to the account type of the Participant originating the order and the contra party. This fee structure has been in place on the Exchange since last year and the Exchange is simply adjusting certain fees and credits within the structure.
The Exchange believes that the proposed fees and credits for Public Customers in Non-Auction Transactions are reasonable. Under the proposed fee structure Public Customers will either pay a Maker fee of $0.00 (when interacting with another Public Customer) or receive a Maker/Taker credit of $0.10 for Penny Pilot classes and $0.45 for Non-Penny Pilot classes when interacting with a Professional Customer, Broker Dealer or Market Maker. The Exchange believes the credits listed above are reasonable as they are in line with the current fees assessed by other competing exchanges.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to give Public Customers a credit when their orders execute against a non-Public Customer and, accordingly, charge non-Public Customers a higher fee when their orders execute against a Public Customer. The securities markets generally, and BOX in particular, have historically aimed to improve markets for investors and develop various features within the market structure for Public Customer benefit. Similar to the payment for order flow and other pricing models that have been adopted by the Exchange and other exchanges to attract Public Customer order flow, the Exchange increases fees to non-Public Customers in order to provide incentives for Public Customers. The Exchange believes that providing incentives for Non-Auction Transactions by Public Customers is reasonable and, ultimately, will benefit all Participants trading on the Exchange by attracting Public Customer order flow.
The Exchange believes that charging Professional Customers and Broker Dealers higher fees than Public Customers for Non-Auction Transactions is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Professional Customers, while Public Customers by virtue of not being Broker Dealers, generally engage in trading activity more similar to Broker Dealer proprietary trading accounts. The Exchange believes that the higher level of trading activity from these Participants will draw a greater amount of BOX system resources, which the Exchange aims to recover its costs by assessing Professional Customers and Broker Dealers higher fees for transactions.
The Exchange also believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for BOX Market Makers to be assessed lower fees than Professional Customers and Broker Dealers for Non-Auction Transactions because of the significant contributions to overall market quality that Market Makers provide. Specifically, Market Makers can provide higher volumes of liquidity and lowering their fees will help attract a higher level of Market Maker order flow to the BOX Book and create liquidity, which the Exchange believes will ultimately benefit all Participants trading on BOX.
The Exchange believes that the proposed fees and credits for Professional Customers, Broker Dealers and Market Makers in Non-Auction Transactions are reasonable. Under the proposed fee structure, a Professional Customer or Broker Dealer making liquidity and interacting with a Professional Customer, Broker Dealer or Market Marker will either be charged a fee of $0.25 for Penny Pilot Classes or $0.35 for Non-Penny Pilot Classes. If the Professional Customer or Broker Dealer is instead taking liquidity in either Penny Pilot or Non-Penny Pilot Classes, it will be charged $0.40 if it interacts with a Professional Customer or Broker Dealer and $0.44 if it interacts with a Market Maker. The Exchange believes the fees listed above are reasonable as they are in line with the current fees assessed by other competing exchanges.
Similarly, in the proposed fee structure a Market Maker making liquidity in both Penny Pilot and Non-Penny Pilot Classes will now always be charged a fee of $0.00 for interacting with a Professional Customer/Broker Dealer or Market Maker. The Exchange believes the fees listed above are reasonable as they are in line with what is currently charged by the industry.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for Professional Customers and Broker Dealers to be charged higher fees for both making and taking liquidity when interacting with Public Customers. A Professional Customer or Broker Dealer interacting with a Public Customer will now be charged a $0.60 Maker fee or $0.64 Taker fee for Penny Pilot Classes and a $0.95 Maker fee or $0.99 Taker fee for Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange believes they are reasonable as they are in line when compared to similar fees in the options industry.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for Professional Customers, Broker Dealers and Market Makers to be charged a higher fee for orders removing liquidity when compared to the fee they receive for orders that add liquidity. Charging a lower fee for orders that add liquidity will promote liquidity on the Exchange and ultimately benefit all participants on BOX. Further, the concept of incentivizing orders that add liquidity over orders that remove liquidity is commonly accepted within the industry as part of the “Make/Take” liquidity model.
The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to charge the Professional Customer or Broker Dealer more for taking liquidity against a Market Maker than they are charged for taking liquidity against other Professional Customers or Broker Dealers. As stated above, the Exchange proposes to provide certain incentives to Market Makers because of the high volumes of liquidity they can provide and increasing fees for Professional Customers and Broker Dealers taking liquidity will allow the Exchange to offer these incentives, ultimately benefiting all Participants trading on BOX.
Finally, the Exchange also believes it is reasonable to charge Professional Customers and Broker Dealers less for certain executions in Penny Pilot issues compared to Non-Penny Pilot issues because these classes are typically more actively traded; assessing lower fees will further incentivize order flow in Penny Pilot issues on the Exchange, ultimately benefiting all Participants trading on BOX. Additionally, the Exchange believes it is reasonable to give a greater credit to Public Customers for Non-Auction Transactions in Non-Penny Pilot issues as compared to Penny Pilot issues. Since these classes have wider spreads and are less actively traded, giving a larger credit will further incentivize Public Customers to trade in these classes, ultimately benefitting all Participants trading on BOX.
BOX believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to adjust the tiered volume based rebates for Market Makers and Public Customers in all Non-Auction Transactions. The volume thresholds and applicable rebates are meant to incentivize Public Customers and Market Makers to direct order flow to the Exchange to obtain the benefit of the rebate, which will in turn benefit all market participants by increasing liquidity on the Exchange. Other exchanges employ similar incentive programs;
The Exchange continues to believe it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to only have these rebate structures for Public Customers and Market Makers in Non-Auction transactions. The practice of incentivizing increased Public Customer order flow is common in the options markets. With this proposal, Public Customers benefit from the opportunity to obtain a higher rebate. Further, Market Makers can provide high volumes of liquidity and lowering their Non-Auction Transaction fees will potentially help attract a higher level of Market Maker order flow and create liquidity, which the Exchange believes will ultimately benefit all Participants trading on BOX.
The Exchange believes that establishing a flat $0.25 fee for all Facilitation and Solicitation Orders is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. While the proposal will potentially raise the fees for certain Participants submitting Facilitation and Solicitation Orders, the Exchange believes the fee is reasonable as it is equal to highest fee that Participants are currently charged for these Orders under the volume based tier schedule in Section I.B.1., and will also be capped at $25,000 for each Participant per month. Further, the fee cap will act as a volume based discount for any Participants who meet the cap each month. The Exchange believes the fee cap is reasonable as it is lower than similar fee caps at other options exchanges.
Finally, the Exchange believes that removing references to Facilitation and Solicitation Orders in the Tiered Fee Schedule in Section I.B.1. is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes it is reasonable because Facilitation and Solicitation Orders will no longer be charged according to this section of the fee schedule, and therefore it is appropriate to both remove these references and specify that the monthly ADV will be now only be based on the total Primary Improvement Order contract quantity submitted to the PIP as calculated at the end of the month. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to remove these references as they apply equally to all Participants on BOX.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
The Exchange believes that the proposed adjustments to fees and rebates in the Non-Auction Transactions fee structure will not impose a burden on competition among various Exchange Participants. Rather, BOX believes that the changes will result in the Participants being charged appropriately for these transactions and are designed to enhance competition in Non-Auction transactions on BOX. Submitting an order is entirely voluntary and Participants can determine which type of order they wish to submit, if any, to the Exchange. Further, the Exchange believes that this proposal will enhance competition between exchanges because it is designed to allow the Exchange to better compete with other exchanges for order flow.
The Exchange believes that adopting a flat fee for Facilitation and Solicitation Orders will not impose a burden on competition because all Participants will be affected to the same extent, with the exception of Public Customers who cannot submit these Orders in the BOX trading system.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to update the public disclosure of the sources of data that BX utilizes when performing (1) order handling and execution; (2) order routing; and (3) related compliance processes.
The text of the proposed rule change is below. Proposed new language is italicized; proposed deletions are bracketed.
[BX shall publicly disclose the proprietary and network processor feeds utilized by the System for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, as well as for the regulatory compliance processes related to those functions. This information shall be displayed on
(b) Not applicable.
(c) Not applicable.
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
In her June 5, 2014 market structure speech, the Chair requested that all national securities exchanges review and disclose their policies and procedures governing the market data used when performing important exchange functions.
We believe there is a need for clarity regarding whether (1) the SIP data feeds, (2) proprietary data feeds, or (3) a combination thereof, are used by the exchanges for purposes of (1) order handling and execution (
BX fully supports the Commission's efforts to provide more clarity in this area. Through this proposed rule change, BX is publicly clarifying on a market-by-market basis the specific network processor and proprietary data feeds that BX utilizes for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, and for performing the regulatory compliance checks related to each of those functions. These complex practices are governed by a few, simple principles that are designed to ensure that BX has the most accurate view of the trading interest available across multiple markets, and to maximize the synchronization of the many exchange functions that depend upon the calculation of an accurate NBBO and top-of-book for each market. These principles are:
1. BX uses a proprietary data feed from each exchange that provides a reliable proprietary data feed. Where no reliable proprietary data feed is available, BX uses the network processor feed;
2. Where BX uses a proprietary data feed for an exchange quote, it also maintains access to the network processor feed as a back-up in the event a specific proprietary feed become [sic] unavailable or unusable for any reason;
3. BX uses the same proprietary data feed when performing order handling, routing, and execution functions, and also when the execution and routing system performs internal compliance checks related to those functions; and
4. BX acquires and processes all proprietary and network processor feeds via the same technological configuration (
5. BX calculates the National Best Bid and Offer (“NBBO”) and top-of-book for each exchange at a single point within the BX System, and then distributes that data simultaneously to numerous applications performing order handling, routing, execution, and internal compliance functions throughout the BX System.
6. BX aggregates odd-lot orders, including those in its own and affiliated markets, when calculating the NBBO based upon a direct feed from an away exchange. BX processes odd-lot orders from each exchange direct feed in the same manner that that exchange aggregates odd-lots when reporting its own quotations to the SIP.
7. BX utilizes the NBBO and top-of-book calculations described above for the handling of orders that use those reference points, including all variations of midpoint orders, pegged orders, and price-to-comply orders described in BX Rule 4751(f), as well as Retail Price Improving Orders described in BX Rule 4780(a).
8. When calculating the NBBO, the BX System does not utilize feedback from other venues when calculating the NBBO. The BX System assumes that a protected quotation to which it has routed an order has been executed and can be removed from the NBBO; it does not await or respond to execution reports from such routing activity.
As of the date of this filing, BX utilizes the following data feeds for the handling, execution and routing of orders, as well as for performing related compliance checks:
BX uses these feeds to calculate the NBBO via an application called the “NMSFeed.” The NMSFeed consumes the BX Protected Quote Service (“NPQS”), which provides an internal view of that exchange's own market data as BX ITCH, plus the proprietary and network processor market data feeds listed above. The NMSFeed calculates a Regulation NMS-Compliant “Best Bid or Offer” (“Compliant BBO”), and then delivers that information throughout the BX System, including to the “OUCH” order entry ports,
Upon receipt of an update to a protected quote for a specific venue, the NMSFeed updates its quote for that venue, recalculates the consolidated BBO based upon the update, and recalculates the Compliant BBO after applying BX's own BBO. Any portion of a quote that crosses BX's BBO is ignored for purposes of calculating the NBBO. BX odd lot orders at the same price are aggregated and considered in the NBBO calculation if the sum is greater than or equal to a round lot. Otherwise, they are not considered in the NBBO calculation. Out of the remaining quotes, the most aggressive remaining bid and offer (excluding BX
The BX Routing and Special Handling System (“RASH”) utilizes the Compliant BBO to determine if and when an order with special processing directives is marketable either against one or more orders in either the Core Matching System or a remote trading venue. RASH also receives market data feeds from certain venues not displaying protected quotes in the national market system for use in “BDRK” and “BCST” routing strategies set forth in BX Rule 4758(a)(1)(A)(xiii) [sic] and (xiv) [sic], respectively. RASH maintains a number of routing processes, or Routers, unique to each venue that the System accesses. These Routers maintain a limited set of details for orders that are configured as routable by the user, while also monitoring the current best bid and best offer prices on each exchange.
The BX System includes internal compliance applications related to locked and crossed markets, trade throughs, limit-up/limit-down, and Regulation SHO compliance. Each of these applications utilizes the Compliant BBO to ensure compliance with applicable regulations. BX operates a separate real-time surveillance system that is external to the execution systems and that monitors the execution system's compliance with applicable rules and regulations. The real-time surveillance system utilizes a “mirrored” version of the internal NMSFeed in various realtime surveillance patterns, including (1) Lock/Cross, which detects lock/cross events across all markets, regardless of whether or not BX is a participant in the event; (2) Trade Through, which detects potential trade through events for all three NASDAQ equity markets; and (3) RegSho, which detects potential RegSho violations, alerting when a trade executes at or below the NBB at the time of order entry while the stock is in a RegSho restricted state.
BX believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange believes that its proposal to describe the Exchange's use of data feeds removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and protects investors and the public interest because it provides additional specificity and transparency. The Exchange's proposal will enable investors to better assess the quality of the Exchange's execution and routing services. The proposal does not change the operation of the Exchange or its use of data feeds; rather it describes how, and for what purposes, the Exchange uses the quotes disseminated from data feeds to calculate the NBBO for a security for purposes of Regulation NMS, Regulation SHO and various order types that update based on changes to the applicable NBBO. The Exchange believes the additional transparency into the operation of the Exchange as described in the proposal will remove
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. To the contrary, the Exchange believes the proposal would enhance competition because describing the Exchange's use of data feeds enhances transparency and enables investors to better assess the quality of the Exchange's execution and routing services.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Rule 6.7 governing Exchange liability and payments to Trading Permit Holders in connection with certain types of losses that Trading Permit Holders may allege arose out of business conducted on or through the Exchange or in connection with the use of the Exchange's facilities. The Exchange also proposes conforming changes to Rules 2.24 and 6.7A, and the elimination of Rule 7.11. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
CBOE proposes to amend Rule 6.7 to eliminate any implication of liability with respect to the Exchange and its subsidiaries or affiliates, or any of their directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents, (including the Exchange, collectively, “Covered Persons”) for losses arising out of the use or enjoyment of Exchange facilities. The proposed rule change is consistent with and supplements existing law, and would ensure that self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) can operate within the sphere of their regulatory duties without fear of endless, costly litigation and potential catastrophic loss.
Under CBOE's proposal, although the Exchange would not be liable for losses, it would have the discretion to compensate Trading Permit Holders for losses alleged to have resulted from the Exchange's failure to correctly process an order or quote due to the acts or omissions of the Exchange or due to the failure of its systems or facilities (each, a “Loss Event”), up to specified limits. The proposed rule change would also establish timeframes within which Trading Permit Holders would be required to bring requests for compensation (and provide supporting documentation), provide factors the Exchange may consider in determining whether to provide compensation in response to such requests, and establish that the Exchange's determinations on compensation are final and not appealable. The proposed rule change would also provide that claims arising under a previous version of Rule 6.7 for losses occurring more than one year prior July 1, 2015 (the “Effective Date”) would not be considered valid, and that claims for any losses occurring prior to the Effective Date must be brought within one month of the Effective Date to be considered valid. Specific changes to Exchange Rules are discussed below.
The proposed rule change would change the title of Rule 6.7 from “Exchange Liability” to “Exchange Liability Disclaimers and Limitations.” The proposed amendment to the Rule title would clarify that the Rule does not impose liability on the Exchange, but rather disclaims Exchange liability for any losses that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange, any interruption in or failure or unavailability of any such facilities, or any action taken or omitted to be taken in respect to the business of the Exchange, the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities (the “General Disclaimer”).
Proposed amendments to Rule 6.7(a) would clarify that “contractors” are included within the term “Covered Persons,” and are therefore included within the General Disclaimer. This proposed change is needed because the Exchange at times contracts with outside firms to provide products and services to the Exchange for use by Trading Permit Holders in connection with regulated business conducted on or through the Exchange and that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange and/or the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities. The Exchange notes that this proposed rule change is consistent with the exclusion from liability for contractors found in EDGA Rule 11.14, BOX Rule 7230 and ISE Rule 705. Proposed amendments to Rule 6.7(a) would also clarify that “other officials” of the Exchange or “any subsidiaries or affiliates of the Exchange” are included within the term “Covered Persons,” and are therefore included within the General Disclaimer. We note that this proposed rule change to include other officials and subsidiaries is consistent with the existing provisions of Rule 6.7A.
The proposed rule change would also clarify that implicit in the General Disclaimer is the Exchange's disclaimer of any warranties, express or implied, with respect to the use or enjoyment of facilities afforded by the Exchange, including without limitation, of any data provided by the Exchange. The current language of the rule states that the Exchange does not warrant “the use of any data transmitted or disseminated by or on behalf of the Exchange or any reporting authority designated by the Exchange, including but not limited to reports of transactions in or quotations for securities traded on the Exchange or underlying securities, or reports of interest rate measures or index values or related data.” Under the proposed rule change, the Exchange would make explicit that the General Disclaimer is intended to contain within it a disclaimer of any warranties as to the use or enjoyment of the facilities offered by the Exchange. The proposed rule change would thereby clarify that such use or enjoyment of Exchange facilities by Trading Permit Holders is provided “as is,” without specific warranties of merchantability or of fitness for a particular purpose. For the avoidance of doubt, the explicit list of the types of data for which the Exchange disclaims any warranties would also include, without limitation, “any current or closing index value, any current or closing value of interest rate options, or any report of transactions in or quotations for options or other securities, including underlying securities.”
The proposed rule change would also clarify that all limitations on liability and disclaimers within paragraph (a) of Rule 6.7 are in addition to, and not in limitation of, any limitations on liability otherwise existing under law. This proposed rule change is intended to ensure that the protection of Rule 6.7 does not circumscribe protections that otherwise would exist under the principles of law.
Currently, Rule 6.7(b) provides that whenever custody of an unexecuted order is transmitted by a Trading Permit Holder to or through the Exchange's systems or to any other automated facility of the Exchange whereby the Exchange assumes responsibility for the transmission or execution of the order, and provided that the Exchange has acknowledged receipt of such order, the Exchange's liability for the negligent acts or omissions of its employees or for the failure of its systems or facilities shall not exceed certain limits set forth in Rule 6.7(b). The Exchange first proposes to provide that Rule 6.42(b) applies to quotes as well as unexecuted orders. Additionally, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the word “automated” from “automated facility of the Exchange”, as not all facilities of the Exchange may be considered automated and the Exchange did not intend to restrict the scope of rule as such. The Exchange also seeks to amend Rule 6.7(b) to explicitly provide that, although the Exchange would not be liable with respect to regulated Exchange business for losses that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange and/or the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities, as provided in Rule 6.7(a),
Neither the Exchange nor any of its directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents, nor any subsidiaries or affiliates of the Exchange or any of their directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents (“Covered Persons”) shall be liable to the Trading Permit Holders or to persons associated therewith for any loss, expense, damages or claims that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange, any interruption in or failure or unavailability of any such facilities, or any action taken or omitted to be taken in respect to the business of the Exchange except to the extent such loss, expense, damages or claims are attributable to the willful misconduct, gross negligence, bad faith or fraudulent or criminal acts of the Exchange or its officers, employees or agents acting within the scope of their authority. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, and subject to the same exception, no Covered Person shall have any liability to any person or entity for any loss, expense, damages or claims that result from any error, omission or delay in calculating or disseminating any current or closing index value, any current or closing value of interest rate options, or any reports of transactions in or quotations for options or other securities, including underlying securities. The Exchange makes no warranty, express or implied, as to results to be obtained by any person or entity from the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange, including without limitation, of any data transmitted or disseminated by or on behalf of the Exchange or any reporting authority designated by the Exchange, including but not limited to any data described in the preceding sentence, and the Exchange makes no express or implied warranties of merchantability or fitness for a particular purpose or use with respect to any such data. The foregoing limitations of liability and disclaimers shall be in addition to, and not in limitation of, the provisions of Article Eighth of the Exchange's Certificate of Incorporation or any limitations otherwise available under law.
Proposed new Rule 6.7(c) would establish timeframes within which a valid request for compensation must be brought under the Rule. Under the proposed rule change, notice of all requests would be required to be in writing and to be submitted to the Exchange no later than 12:00 p.m. Central Time on the next business day following the Loss Event giving rise to such request. All requests would be required to be in writing and to be submitted, along with supporting documentation, by 5:00 p.m. Central Time on the third business day following the Loss Event giving rise to each such request.
The proposed provisions of new Rule 6.7(c) would benefit Trading Permit Holders by providing them with clear timeframes within which to submit notices of requests, requests for compensation, and supporting documentation. The proposed changes would also provide the Exchange with certainty as to the deadlines by which notices of requests and completed requests would be required to be submitted in order for the Exchange to consider them for compensation under Rule 6.7.
Currently, Rule 6.7(c) provides that if all of the claims cannot be fully satisfied because in the aggregate they exceed the applicable maximum amount of liability provided for in paragraph (b) [of Rule 6.7] [sic], then such maximum amount would be allocated among all such claims arising on a single trading day or during a single calendar month, as applicable, written notice of which has been given to the Exchange no later than the opening of trading on the next business day following the day on which the use or enjoyment of Exchange facilities giving rise to the claim occurred, based upon the proportion that each claim bears to the sum of all such claims. The Exchange proposes to amend existing Rule 6.7(c), which would be renumbered to Rule 6.7(d), to state that, “if all of the timely requests submitted pursuant to paragraph (c) [of Rule 6.7] that are granted cannot be fully satisfied because in the aggregate they exceed the applicable maximum amount of payments authorized in paragraph (b) [of Rule 6.7], then such maximum amount shall be allocated among all such requests arising on a single trading day or during a single calendar month, as applicable, based upon the proportion that each such request bears to the sum of all such requests.”
The Exchange notes that it is proposing to replace the term “claim” with the term “request”, as well as replace the reference to “liability” with “payments authorized” to eliminate any implication of liability with respect to the Exchange and other Covered Person resulting from the use or enjoyment of the facilities offered by the Exchange, any interruption in or failure or unavailability or any such facilities, or any action taken or omitted to be taken in respect of the business of the Exchange.
Additionally, the Exchange notes that proposed Rule 6.7(d) would continue to provide a fair way of allocating the limited payment that the rule would permit the Exchange to make when the total amount of eligible requests exceed that maximum amount. The proposal would also revise the timeframe in which requests for payment must be made by a Trading Permit Holder.
Proposed new Rule 6.7(e) would provide that the Exchange, in determining whether to make payment in response to a request for compensation, may determine whether the amount requested should be reduced based on the actions or inactions of the requesting Trading Permit Holder. The proposed rule change would permit the Exchange to consider, without limitation, whether the actions or inactions of the Trading Permit Holder contributed to the Loss Event; whether the Trading Permit Holder made appropriate efforts to mitigate its loss; whether the Trading Permit Holder realized any gains as a result of a Loss Event; whether the losses of the Trading Permit Holder, if any, were offset by hedges of positions either on the Exchange or on another affiliated or unaffiliated market; and whether the Trading Permit Holder provided sufficient information to document the request and as demanded by the Exchange. Proposed Rule 6.7(e) would therefore provide reasonable factors that the Exchange may consider in determining whether to pay compensation in response to a request and in determining the amount of any such compensation.
The Exchange represents that the determination to compensate a Trading Permit Holder will be made on an equitable and non-discriminatory basis and without regard to the Exchange capacity of the Trading Permit Holder (including whether the Trading Permit Holder is a Designated Primary Market-Maker). Additionally, the Exchange represents that the Exchange will maintain a record of Trading Permit Holder requests including documentation detailing the Exchange's findings and details for approving or denying requests in accordance with its obligations under Section 17 of the Act.
Proposed new Rule 6.7(f) would provide that all determinations by the Exchange pursuant to Rule 6.7 shall be final and not subject to appeal under
Proposed new paragraph 6.7(g) would establish July 1, 2015 as the Effective Date of revised Rule 6.7. Under proposed paragraph 6.7(g), claims for liability under prior versions of Rule 6.7 would not be considered valid if brought with respect to any acts, omissions or transactions occurring more than one year prior to the Effective Date, or if brought more than one month after the Effective Date. Proposed Rule 6.7(g) would thereby provide certainty to the Exchange as to any expense it might incur due to Loss Events that occurred prior to the Effective Date of the proposed rule change, while also putting Trading Permit Holders on notice that they must file any claims for such losses by a date certain.
The proposed rule change would delete existing Interpretations .01-.04 under Rule 6.7. Interpretation .01 states that Rule 7.11 governs the liability of the Exchange for claims arising out of the errors or omissions of an Order Book Official or his or her assistants or clerks or a PAR Official or his or her assistants or clerks. Under the proposed rule change, Rule 7.11 (as well as cross-references to Rule 7.11)
Interpretation .02 is reserved and would therefore be deleted. Interpretation .03 states that the provision of Exchange liability in paragraph (b) of current Rule 6.7 for certain orders routed through the Exchange's Order Routing System or E-Book shall not apply. Because the proposed rule change would eliminate Exchange liability under paragraph (b), the interpretation would no longer be necessary.
Interpretation .04 disclaims The Options Clearing Corporation liability to Trading Permit Holders and their associated persons with respect to their use, non-use or inability to use the linkage that was part of the old Options Intermarket Linkage Plan (the “Old Linkage”). Because the Old Linkage is no longer operable, interpretation .04 is no longer necessary.
The proposed rule change would make conforming changes to Exchange Rules 2.24 and 6.7A. Rule 2.24 requires a Trading Permit Holder who fails to prevail in a lawsuit or other legal proceeding instituted against the Exchange or certain related parties to pay for the Exchange's reasonable costs of defending such lawsuit or proceeding if those costs exceed $50,000. Rule 6.7A limits the legal proceedings a Trading Permit Holder may bring against the Exchange and certain related persons for actions or omissions.
Under the proposed amendments to Rules 2.24, contractors would be included within the list of related parties protected by that rule, just as they would be included as Covered Persons under proposed Rule 6.7. As stated above, this proposed change is necessary because the Exchange at times contracts with outside firms to provide products or services to Trading Permit Holders in connection with regulated business conducted on or through the Exchange and that arise out of the use or enjoyment of the facilities afforded by the Exchange and/or the calculation or dissemination of specified values, or quotes or transaction reports for options or other securities.
In addition, under the proposed amendments to Rule 2.24, other officials and contractors of the Exchange and any subsidiaries and affiliates of the Exchange and any such subsidiaries' and affiliates' directors, officers, committee members, other officials, employees, contractors, or agents would be explicitly identified/included within the list of related parties protected by the rule,
The proposed rule change would also delete Rule 7.11 in its entirety. Rule
Under the proposed rule change, Rule 6.7 would govern the liability of the Exchange for claims arising out of any errors or omissions by agents of the Exchange, which would include Order Book Officials, PAR Officials and their respective assistants or clerks. Rule 7.11 therefore would be rendered superfluous. The Exchange does note that, with the elimination of Rule 7.11, both the Exchange's reciprocal right to bring a claim against Trading Permit Holders and the arbitration process for disputed claims will be eliminated. The Exchange no longer believes it is necessary to single out the errors or omissions of Order Book Officials and PAR Officials in the manner described under Rule 7.11 as compared to other errors and omissions that are subject to Rule 6.7.
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”)
The proposal would also permit the Exchange to compensate Trading Permit Holders for their losses incurred due to a Loss Event, even though the Exchange would not have legal liability for those losses. The proposed rule change would therefore facilitate the Exchange's ability to make discretionary payments to redress a situation in which Trading Permit Holders suffer losses due to a Loss Event. As stated above, the Exchange represents that the determination to compensate a Trading Permit Holder will be made on an equitable and non-discriminatory basis without regard to the Exchange capacity of the Trading Permit Holder, including whether the Trading Permit Holder is a Designated Primary Market-Maker. The Exchange therefore believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act, and Section 6(b)(5) of the Act in particular, in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange also believes that these policies would promote fairness in the national market system. The proposed rule change would allow CBOE to address Trading Permit Holder requests for compensation under various circumstances and would allow CBOE to act in a fashion similar to many of its competitors. As stated above, several exchanges have substantially similar rules to those proposed here, and the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would place CBOE in a similar position to address Trading Permit Holder requests.
Finally, the Exchange believes that as Rule 6.7 will now govern the liability of the Exchange for claims arising out of any errors or omissions by agents of the Exchange (which would include Order Book Officials, PAR Officials and their respective assistants or clerks), Rule 7.11 is superfluous and unnecessary to maintain in the rules. Additionally, the Exchange no longer believes it is necessary to single out the errors or omissions of Order Book Officials and PAR Officials in the manner described under Rule 7.11 as compared to other errors and omissions that are subject to Rule 6.7. The Exchange notes that although the Exchange's reciprocal right to bring a claim against Trading Permit Holders and the arbitration process for disputed claims will be eliminated, such language is no longer necessary.
The Exchange believes that this proposed rule change does not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As stated above, the Exchange believes that these policies would promote fairness in the national market system. The proposed rule change would allow CBOE to address Trading Permit Holder requests for compensation under various circumstances and would allow CBOE to act in a fashion similar to many of its competitors. In addition, as stated above, several exchanges have substantially similar rules to those proposed here, except as otherwise noted, and the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would place CBOE in a similar position to address Trading Permit Holder requests.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to update the public disclosure of the sources of data that PSX, the PHLX equities facility, utilizes when performing (1) order handling and execution; (2) order routing; and (3) related compliance processes.
The text of the proposed rule change is below. Proposed new language is italicized; proposed deletions are bracketed.
[Phlx shall publicly disclose the proprietary and network processor feeds utilized by the System for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, as well as for the regulatory compliance processes related to those functions. This information shall be displayed on
(b) Not applicable.
(c) Not applicable.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
In her June 5, 2014 market structure speech, the Chair requested that all national securities exchanges review and disclose their policies and procedures governing the market data used when performing important exchange functions.
We believe there is a need for clarity regarding whether (1) the SIP data feeds, (2) proprietary data feeds, or (3) a combination thereof, are used by the exchanges for purposes of (1) order handling and execution (
PHLX fully supports the Commission's efforts to provide more clarity in this area. Through this proposed rule change, PHLX is publicly clarifying on a market-by-market basis the specific network processor and proprietary data feeds that PHLX utilizes for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, and for performing the regulatory compliance checks related to each of those functions. These complex practices are governed by a few, simple principles that are designed to ensure that PHLX has the most accurate view of the trading interest available across multiple markets, and to maximize the synchronization of the many exchange functions that depend upon the calculation of an accurate NBBO and top-of-book for each market. These principles are:
1. PHLX uses a proprietary data feed from each exchange that provides a reliable proprietary data feed. Where no reliable proprietary data feed is available, PHLX uses the network processor feed;
2. Where PHLX uses a proprietary data feed for an exchange quote, it also maintains access to the network processor feed as a back-up in the event a specific proprietary feed become [sic] unavailable or unusable for any reason;
3. PHLX uses the same proprietary data feed when performing order handling, routing, and execution functions, and also when the execution and routing system performs internal compliance checks related to those functions; and
4. PHLX acquires and processes all proprietary and network processor feeds via the same technological configuration
5. PHLX calculates the National Best Bid and Offer (“NBBO”) and top-of-book for each exchange at a single point within the PHLX System, and then distributes that data simultaneously to numerous applications performing order handling, routing, execution, and internal compliance functions throughout the PHLX System.
6. PHLX aggregates odd-lot orders, including those in its own and affiliated markets, when calculating the NBBO based upon a direct feed from an away exchange. PHLX processes odd-lot orders from each exchange direct feed in the same manner that that exchange aggregates odd-lots when reporting its own quotations to the SIP.
7. PHLX utilizes the NBBO and top-of-book calculations described above for the handling of orders that use those reference points, including all variations of midpoint orders, pegged orders, and price-to-comply orders described in PHLX Rule 3301(f).
8. When calculating the NBBO, the PHLX System does not utilize feedback from other venues when calculating the NBBO. The PHLX System assumes that a protected quotation to which it has routed an order has been executed and can be removed from the NBBO; it does not await or respond to execution reports from such routing activity. As of the date of this filing, PHLX utilizes the following data feeds for the handling, execution and routing of orders, as well as for performing related compliance checks:
PHLX uses these feeds to calculate the NBBO via an application called the “NMSFeed.” The NMSFeed consumes the PHLX Protected Quote Service (“NPQS”), which provides an internal view of that exchange's own market data as PHLX ITCH, plus the proprietary and network processor market data feeds listed above. The NMSFeed calculates a Regulation NMS-Compliant “Best Bid or Offer” (“Compliant BBO”), and then delivers that information throughout the PHLX System, including to the “OUCH” order entry ports,
Upon receipt of an update to a protected quote for a specific venue, the NMSFeed updates its quote for that venue, recalculates the consolidated BBO based upon the update, and recalculates the Compliant BBO after applying PHLX's own BBO. Any portion of a quote that crosses PHLX's BBO is ignored for purposes of calculating the NBBO. PHLX odd lot orders at the same price are aggregated and considered in the NBBO calculation if the sum is greater than or equal to a round lot. Otherwise, they are not considered in the NBBO calculation. Out of the remaining quotes, the most aggressive remaining bid and offer (excluding PHLX
The PHLX Routing and Special Handling System (“RASH”) utilizes the Compliant BBO to determine if and when an order with special processing directives is marketable either against one or more orders in either the Core Matching System or a remote trading venue. RASH also receives market data feeds from certain venues not displaying protected quotes in the national market system for use in “XDRK” and “XCST” routing strategies set forth in PHLX Rule 3308(a)(1)(A)(xiii) [sic] and (xiv) [sic], respectively. RASH maintains a number of routing processes, or Routers, unique to each venue that the System accesses. These Routers maintain a limited set of details for orders that are configured as routable by the user, while also monitoring the current best bid and best offer prices on each exchange.
The PHLX System includes internal compliance applications related to locked and crossed markets, trade throughs, limit-up/limit-down, and Regulation SHO compliance. Each of these applications utilizes the Compliant BBO to ensure compliance with applicable regulations.
PHLX operates a separate real-time surveillance system that is external to the execution systems and that monitors the execution system's compliance with applicable rules and regulations. The real-time surveillance system utilizes a “mirrored” version of the internal NMSFeed in various realtime surveillance patterns, including (1) Lock/Cross, which detects lock/cross events across all markets, regardless of whether or not PHLX is a participant in the event; (2) Trade Through, which detects potential trade through events for all three NASDAQ equity markets; and (3) RegSho, which detects potential RegSho violations, alerting when a trade executes at or below the NBB at the time
PHLX believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange believes that its proposal to describe the Exchange's use of data feeds removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and protects investors and the public interest because it provides additional specificity and transparency. The Exchange's proposal will enable investors to better assess the quality of the Exchange's execution and routing services. The proposal does not change the operation of the Exchange or its use of data feeds; rather it describes how, and for what purposes, the Exchange uses the quotes disseminated from data feeds to calculate the NBBO for a security for purposes of Regulation NMS, Regulation SHO and various order types that update based on changes to the applicable NBBO. The Exchange believes the additional transparency into the operation of the Exchange as described in the proposal will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. To the contrary, the Exchange believes the proposal would enhance competition because describing the Exchange's use of data feeds enhances transparency and enables investors to better assess the quality of the Exchange's execution and routing services.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposed to amend its rules related to Trading Permit Holder requirements and direct access to the Exchange's Hybrid Trading System (the “System”). The text of the proposed rule change is provided below.
[(a) ]A Trading Permit Holder that does not maintain an office in the United States responsible for preparing and maintaining financial and other reports required to be filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission and the Exchange must:
([i]
([ii]
([iii]
(a)-(b) No change.
.01 No change.
(a)-(c) No change.
(d) The Hybrid Trading System shall be available for entry and execution of orders only to Trading Permit Holders
(e)-(f) No change.
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its rules related to Trading Permit Holder requirements and direct access to the System. The Exchange recently launched Extended Trading Hours.
Rules 3.2 and 3.3 set forth qualifications for individuals and organizations, respectively, to become Trading Permit Holders. For an individual to be a Trading Permit Holder, Rule 3.2 requires the individual to (i) be at least 21 years of age, (ii) be registered as a broker or dealer pursuant to Section 15 of the Act or be associated with a Trading Permit Holder organization that is registered as a broker or dealer pursuant to Section 15 of the Act, and (iii) meet the other qualification requirements for being a Trading Permit Holder under the Exchange's bylaws and rules. Similarly, for an organization to be a Trading Permit Holder, Rule 3.3 requires the organization to (i) be a corporation, partnership, or limited liability company, (ii) be registered as a broker or dealer pursuant to Section 15 of the Act, and (iii) meet the other qualification requirements for being a Trading Permit Holder under the Exchange's bylaws and rules. Each individual and organization must be approved to engage in an authorized trading function.
Rule 3.4 imposes additional qualifications on Trading Permit Holders that do not maintain an office in the United States responsible for preparing and maintaining financial and other reports required to be filed with the Commission and the Exchange. Under Rule 3.4, these foreign Trading Permit Holders must (i) prepare all such reports, and maintain a general ledger chart of account and any description thereof, in English and U.S. dollars, (ii) reimburse the Exchange for any expense incurred in connection with examination of the Trading Permit Holder to the extent that such expenses exceed the cost of examining a Trading Permit Holder located within the United States, and (iii) ensure the availability of an individual fluent in English knowledgeable in securities and financial matters to assist the representatives of the Exchange during examinations.
Proposed Rule 3.4A(a) provides that in addition to the qualifications set forth in Rules 3.2 through 3.4, a Trading Permit Holder applicant:
• Must be domiciled in (with respect to individuals), or organized under the laws of (with respect to organizations), a jurisdiction expressly approved by the Exchange.
• will be subject to the jurisdiction of the federal courts of the United States and the courts of the state of Illinois; and
• prior to acting as agent for a customer, must be able to provide information regarding the customer and the customer's trading activities to the Exchange in response to a regulatory request for information pursuant to the Rules. To the extent an individual or organization is required by an applicable law, rule or regulation to obtain written consent from a customer to permit the provision of this information to the Exchange, the applicant must obtain such consent.
CBOE intends to initially notify market participants of approved jurisdictions by Regulatory Circular (which are publicly available on CBOE's Web site). CBOE also intends to have a Web page that lists then-currently approved jurisdictions. To the extent CBOE no longer intends to issue Regulatory Circulars to announce changes to the list of approved jurisdictions and only update the Web page, CBOE will issue a Regulatory Circular stating that fact.
The Exchange believes the proposed Trading Permit Holder qualifications in
• Proposed Rule 3.4A(a)(i) is intended to ensure that the Exchange can comply with applicable regulatory requirements in jurisdictions in which Trading Permit Holders are located and obtain the information necessary to perform its self-regulatory obligations. With respect to the factors the Exchange will consider when determining whether to approve a jurisdiction, the Exchange needs sufficient information to monitor Trading Permit Holders' compliance with the Rules and the Act.
○ The Exchange understands that laws in certain jurisdictions may limit market participants' ability to share, or a foreign entity's ability to access, certain information. In order to perform its self-regulatory obligations, CBOE needs to ensure it has a complete audit trail and sufficient access to information with respect to all Trading Permit Holders. Proposed paragraphs (a)(i)(A) and (B) are intended to ensure that CBOE will be able to obtain this information regarding a Trading Permit Holder to properly conduct its surveillances and other regulatory functions.
○ Additionally, the Exchange understands that certain jurisdictions require a foreign exchange to receive certain authorization to permit direct access (including exchange membership) to an exchange. Proposed paragraph (a)(i)(C) is intended to ensure CBOE's compliance with all applicable laws, rules and regulations, including such restrictions on exchange membership.
○ Legal and regulatory requirements related to the securities industry, including exchanges, and international business relationships are constantly changing, which changes could impact a Trading Permit Holder applicant's ability to comply with the Rules and the Act or the Exchange's ability to permit Trading Permit Holders from a particular jurisdiction. For example, a country may adopt telecommunication laws that restrict market participants from complying with Exchange system requirements to establish a connection. A jurisdiction may also impose obligations on CBOE as a foreign exchange that may conflict with its self-regulatory obligations under the Act or may not have a regulatory framework in place that the Exchange believes provides sufficient local oversight and protection over market participants. Additionally, the Exchange believes it may be reasonable to consider other factors when determining whether to approve a jurisdiction, such as if necessary to maintain a fair and orderly market or to address other circumstances. For example, the U.S. government may restrict U.S. businesses from doing business in a jurisdiction, or may not officially recognize the government of another jurisdiction. CBOE believes it is reasonable to comply with these governmental restrictions and not approve any such jurisdiction. Proposed paragraph (a)(i)(D) provides CBOE with the flexibility to consider these changes or circumstances when determining whether to approve a jurisdiction.
○ The proposed rule change that permits CBOE to limit the categories or activities of a Trading Permit Holder from a jurisdiction or impose conditions will allow the Exchange to comply with any laws, rules or regulations in a jurisdiction that may permit only certain activities on the Exchange by market participants in that jurisdiction. For example, local laws or regulations may restrict market participants from quoting as market-makers or from submitting orders as agent for customers. In such a case, this rule change permits the Exchange to comply with such laws or regulations while permitting Trading Permit Holders from a jurisdiction on a restricted basis.
• Proposed Rule 3.4A(a)(ii) will ensure CBOE can enforce the Rules and any agreements it has with Trading Permit Holders in U.S. and Illinois courts.
• The Exchange understands that certain jurisdictions have privacy laws that restrict broker-dealers from sharing certain information regarding their customers. CBOE believes such information is necessary to regulate its market. Similar to proposed Rule 3.4A(a)(i)(A) and (B), proposed Rule 3.4A(a)(iii) is intended to ensure CBOE has a complete audit trail and sufficient access to information with respect to all Trading Permit Holders and the orders they represent on the Exchange (including those from customers) in order to properly conduct its surveillances and other regulatory functions.
The Exchange also believes these additional requirements for all Trading Permit Holders are objective and nondiscriminatory. Proposed Rule 3.4A(a) sets forth explicit requirements that all Trading Permit Holder applicants must satisfy. With respect to approved jurisdictions, the Exchange will consider all of the factors included in proposed Rule 3.4A(a)(i) for all jurisdictions in the same manner. The Exchange's consideration of the factors in subparagraph (A) through (C) generally will include reviews of the applicable laws, rules and regulations of a jurisdiction in consideration to determine whether those factors can be satisfied in that jurisdiction. Proposed Rule 3.4A(a)(i)(D) explicitly states that the Exchange will determine “other factors” objectively, and CBOE will consider them in the same manner for all jurisdictions it considers. The proposed rule change that indicates the Exchange may limit approval to categories of Trading Permit Holders or activities in a jurisdiction or impose other conditions specifies that such limits or conditions will be imposed on all applicants from the same jurisdiction, and the Exchange represents it will determine in the same manner for all jurisdictions whether to impose any such limits or conditions on Trading Permit Holders from a jurisdiction.
The proposed change to Rule 6.23A provides that persons with authorized access to the System (Trading Permit Holders, persons associated with Trading Permit Holders and Sponsored Users)
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, proposed Rule 3.4A, which imposes additional qualifications on Trading Permit Holder applicants, including the requirement that the Exchange may determine in which jurisdiction Trading Permit Holder applicants may be domiciled in or organized under (and the ability of the Exchange to determine that a Trading Permit Holder no longer complies with this proposed requirement), is similar to Section 6(c)(3)(C) of the Act. That section of the Act allows the Exchange to deny persons from becoming associated with Trading Permit Holders if they are unable to supply the Exchange with such information with respect to its relationship and dealings with such persons or entities and unable to permit the Exchange to examine their books and records due to the jurisdiction (and any applicable laws, rules and regulations of that jurisdiction) in which they are domiciled or under the laws of which they are organized. While that Section of the Act applies to associated persons and not Trading Permit Holders, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to impose those requirements on Trading Permit Holders as well to ensure it has access to sufficient information to perform its self-regulatory obligations. Additionally, the Rules (which have been approved by the Commission and deemed to be in accordance with the Act) currently provide that an applicant must meet the qualification requirements under the Exchange's Bylaws and Rules (including obtaining a Trading Permit)
The Exchange believes the additional qualifications set forth in proposed Rule 3.4A are reasonable and consistent with these current rules. Please see the “Purpose” section above (beginning on page 29) for a discussion regarding the reasonability of these qualifications. The Exchange notes that the membership qualifications, and reasons an exchange may deny membership to a party, set forth in Section 6(b) and (c) of the Act are not meant to be exhaustive, and that it is reasonable for an Exchange to have requirements for exchange membership beyond those contained in the Act.
The proposed changes to Rules 6.20A and 6.23A regarding access are similar to current Rule 6.23A(e) (previously approved by the Commission as consistent with the Act), which permits the Exchange to impose specific requirements related to connectivity to the Exchange. As discussed above, while the proposed rule change is not a technical specification, the access location requirement is part of the entire process a Trading Permit Holder must satisfy in order to establish a connection with the Exchange. Additionally, requiring Sponsored Users to satisfy the requirements in proposed Rule 3.4A(a) is consistent with Rule 6.20A(b)(1)(C), which provides that a Sponsored User will be bound by and comply with Exchange Rules as if the Sponsored User were a Trading Permit Holder. The proposed rule change makes explicit in the Rules that proposed Rule 3.4A(a) is one of those rules to which the Sponsored User must agree to be bound. Additionally, the proposed rule change to require the Sponsoring Trading
This proposed rule change will promote compliance by the Exchange with regulatory requirements of governments and regulatory authorities outside of the United States related to exchange memberships and access, which promotes just and equitable principles of trade and fosters cooperation and coordinates with other regulatory authorities. The proposed rule change enhances the Exchange's ability to satisfy its self-regulatory obligations by ensuring it is able to receive sufficient information to conduct its surveillances and investigations, which prevents fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices and removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, which ultimately protects investors.
Additionally, this proposed rule change is not unfairly discriminatory, as the proposed additional qualifications and access requirements will apply to all Trading Permit Holders and applicants. When determining whether to approve a jurisdiction, the Exchange will consider the proposed factors in the same manner for each jurisdiction. The Exchange believes that individuals or organizations within a specific jurisdiction are similarly situated, and thus it may allow individuals or organizations from one jurisdiction to become Trading Permit Holders but not from another based on the objective criteria set forth in the proposed rule. The objective criteria will ensure that the Exchange determines approved jurisdictions in a fair, reasonable manner that is not unfairly discriminatory. Please see the “Purpose” section above (beginning on page 32) for additional discussion regarding how the proposed qualifications, including factors to be considered when the Exchange is determining whether to approve a jurisdiction, will be applied in an objective and nondiscriminatory manner.
The proposed changes to Rule 3.4 are nonsubstantive and merely intended to eliminate any potential confusion resulting from the mislettering of the paragraphs of that rule.
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change imposes additional Trading Permit Holder qualifications and access requirements for CBOE, and thus does not raise any competitive issues. The proposed Trading Permit Holder qualifications and access requirements apply equally to all Trading Permit Holders and individuals and organizations seeking to become Trading Permit Holders. As discussed above, the Exchange will consider all factors in an objective and nondiscriminatory manner. The proposed rule change is intended to promote compliance by the Exchange with regulatory requirements of governments and regulatory authorities outside of the United States and enhance the Exchange's ability to satisfy its self-regulatory obligations and regulate its markets.
The Exchange notes that current Trading Permit Holders are all domiciled in or organized under the laws of the United States and satisfy these requirements (and thus need to take no additional action). Any potential burden that these qualifications and requirements may impose on Trading Permit Holders and applicants are far outweighed the Exchange's need to receive sufficient information to conduct its surveillances and investigations in order to ensure it can continue to effectively regulate its markets, which enhanced regulation will ultimately benefit all market participants. Please see the “Purpose” and “Statutory Basis” sections above (beginning on pages 29 and 35, respectively) for additional discussion regarding the reasonableness and objectivity of the proposed rule change.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
B. institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
ISE Gemini proposes to amend the Schedule of Fees to introduce a new “Retail” designation for Priority Customer orders. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Schedule of Fees to introduce a new “Retail” designation for Priority Customer orders. A “Priority Customer” is a person or entity that is not a broker/dealer in securities, and does not place more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s), as defined in Rule 100(a)(37A). This market participant type is one of six currently recognized for purposes of determining applicable fees and rebates, along with: Market Maker,
In particular, the Exchange proposes to introduce a new “Retail” designation for Priority Customer orders for the purpose of determining applicable fees and rebates. As proposed, a Retail order is a Priority Customer order that originates from a natural person, provided that no change is made to the terms of the order with respect to price or side of market and the order does not originate from a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology. The proposed definition of a Retail order is designed to mirror a similar concept introduced by the New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”), NYSE Amex (“Amex”), and other equities exchanges to promote price improvement for orders submitted by retail investors.
NYSE and Amex define a “Retail Order” as an agency order or a riskless principal order that meets the criteria of FINRA Rule 5320.03 that originates from a natural person and is submitted to the Exchange by a Retail Member Organization, provided that no change is made to the terms of the order with respect to price or side of market and the order does not originate from a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
Specifically, the proposed rule change will allow the Exchange to potentially offer more favorable fees and rebates to Retail orders that originate from natural
The equities markets already provide benefits to order flow that originates from a natural person and not a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology. The Exchange believes that the proposed definition of a Retail order is appropriate as it is substantially similar to the definition already used in the equities context, and is therefore already familiar to market participants. The Exchange notes, however, that unlike equities exchanges such as NYSE and Amex, it is not proposing any market structure changes at this time to accompany the introduction of a Retail designation for Priority Customer orders. All Priority Customer orders will continue to benefit from the current market structure benefits that they receive on the Exchange. In addition, Priority Customer orders other than Retail orders will continue to benefit from pricing that is generally more favorable than pricing adopted for Professional Customer and non-Customer orders.
By adopting a definition of Retail order, the Exchange hopes to be able to offer potentially more favorable fees and rebates to retail investors. The Exchange believes that this will advance the goals identified when the Exchange first introduced the Priority Customer designation, by providing genuine retail investors with the best prices available on the Exchange. In this regard, the Exchange notes that the fees and rebates for Retail orders will initially be the same as fees and rebates for other Priority Customer orders; however, the Exchange will introduce additional pricing advantages for Retail orders at a later date pursuant to a proposed rule change filed with the Commission.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from members or other interested parties.
The Exchange believes that the foregoing proposed rule change may take effect upon filing with the Commission pursuant to Section19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an Email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The proposed rule change consists of amendments to NSCC's Rules & Procedures (“Rules”) in order to clarify those Rules relating to the process by which NSCC Members submit buy-ins within NSCC's Continuous Net Settlement (“CNS”) system, as more fully described below.
In its filing with the Commission, NSCC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. NSCC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
One of NSCC's core services as a central counterparty is trade clearance and settlement through CNS, where compared and recorded transactions in eligible securities for a particular settlement date are netted by issue into one net long (buy) or net short (sell) position. As a continuous net system, those positions are further netted with positions of the same issue that remain open after their originally scheduled settlement date, so that trades or miscellaneous activity scheduled to settle on any day are netted with fail positions to result in a single deliver or receive obligation for each Member for each issue in which it has activity. Currently, under NSCC's Rules, a Member with a long position at the end of the day may submit to NSCC a Notice of Intention to Buy-In (“Buy-In Notice”) specifying a quantity of securities (not exceeding such long position) (“Buy-In Position”) that it intends to purchase to satisfy the fail that resulted in that long position, or “buy-in”.
The CNS position of a long Member that submits a Buy-In Notice can change during the Buy-In Period as a result of settling trades or miscellaneous activity.
This process by which a Buy-In Notice would be updated to reflect settling trades or miscellaneous activity is not currently described in NSCC's Rules. As such, NSCC is proposing to update Rule 11, Section 7 of its Rules in order to describe the effect of settling trades or miscellaneous activity on a Member's Buy-In Position. Pursuant to this proposed rule change, NSCC's Rules will make clear that any portion of a Member's Buy-In Position would be considered complete and satisfied if, at any time during the Buy-in Period that Member's CNS long position is reduced to less than the outstanding Buy-In Position, or its Buy-In Position is reduced such that the Member is either flat or short in that security. If the entire Buy-In Position is considered complete and satisfied, it will be removed from the system. The proposed rule change would also make a technical correction to Procedure X, as marked on Exhibit 5 hereto.
The proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder, in particular Section 17A(b)(3)(F)
The proposed rule change will not have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not yet been solicited or received. NSCC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by NSCC.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to modify the “Options Pricing” section of its fee schedule, effective immediately, in order to modify pricing charged by the Exchange's options platform (“BATS Options”) including: (i) add a new standard rate and a fee code NM
Currently, the Exchange offers a rebate of $0.65 per contract for Market Maker orders that add liquidity in non-Penny Pilot Securities. The Exchange is proposing to create a new fee code NM and to change the standard rate for Market Maker orders that add liquidity in non-Penny Pilot Securities to a rebate of $0.42 per contract. Such orders will be eligible for the enhanced rebates available under the NBBO Setter Tiers, the Quoting Incentive Program Tiers, and the new Market Maker Non-Penny Pilot Add Volume Tiers proposed below. The Exchange is not proposing to change pricing for Professional
As described above, the Exchange currently provides a rebate of $0.65 per contract for Market Maker orders that add liquidity in non-Penny Pilot Securities, which it proposes to change to $0.42 per contract. The Exchange is also proposing to add new footnote 7 to its fee schedule entitled “Market Maker Non-Penny Pilot Add Volume Tiers” in order to offer enhanced rebates for Market Maker orders in non-Penny Pilot Securities to Members that meet certain thresholds. Specifically, the Exchange is proposing to: (i) Provide a rebate of $0.45 per contract where the Member has an ADV
The Exchange currently maintains a presence in two third-party data centers: (i) The primary data center where the Exchange's business is primarily conducted on a daily basis, and (ii) a secondary data center, which is predominantly maintained for business continuity purposes. The Exchange currently assesses fees to Members and non-Members of $1,000 for any 1G physical port connection at either data center and of $2,500 for any 10G physical port connection at either data center. The Exchange also provides market participants with the ability to access the Exchange's network through another data center entry point, or Point of Presence (“PoP”), at a data center other than the Exchange's primary or secondary data center.
The Exchange proposes to simplify its pricing structure by imposing a uniform rate for physical ports regardless of the data center in which the port connection is made. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to charge $1,000 per month for all 1G physical port connections and $2,500 per month for all 10G physical ports in any location where the Exchange offers the ability to connect to Exchange systems, including the secondary data center and any PoP location.
In conjunction with the changes proposed above, the Exchange is proposing to make certain corresponding changes, including: (i) Add fee code NM references in footnotes 4 and 5; (ii) removing the reference to “MM” (short for Market Maker) from the description in fee code NA; and (iii) remove the words “Market Maker Add Volume” from both Market Maker Add Volume Tier 1 and Tier 2 in footnote 6.
The Exchange is proposing to add references to the fee codes PA and PF in footnote 5. While the Fee Codes and Associated Fees table indicates that footnote 5 applies to both fee codes PA and PF, the fee codes are not included in the footnote itself as fee codes to which the footnote is applicable.
As noted above, the Exchange proposes to implement the amendments to its fee schedule effective immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6 of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposed reduction of the standard rebate for Market Maker orders in non-Penny Pilot Securities that add liquidity is a reasonable, fair and equitable allocation of fees and rebates because it will provide Members with a greater incentive to increase their participation on BATS Options in order to receive a higher rebate by meeting any of the enhanced rebate tiers for which the orders are eligible, including the NBBO Setter Tiers, the Quoting Incentive Program Tiers, and the Market Maker Non-Penny Pilot Add Volume Tiers proposed herein. Finally, while adjusting the standard rebate of $0.65 per contract to remove liquidity to $0.42 per share will obviously result in a
Volume-based rebates and fees such as the ones currently maintained on BATS Options have been widely adopted by equities and options exchanges and are equitable because they are open to all Members on an equal basis and provide additional benefits or discounts that are reasonably related to the value to an exchange's market quality associated with higher levels of market activity, such as higher levels of liquidity provision and/or growth patterns, and introduction of higher volumes of orders into the price and volume discovery processes. The Exchange believes that the proposed addition of Market Maker Non-Penny Pilot Add Volume Tiers is a reasonable, fair and equitable allocation of fees and rebates because it will provide Members with a greater incentive to increase their participation on BATS Options in order to receive a higher rebate, which will result in enhanced market quality for all Members.
The Exchange reiterates that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels to be excessive.
The Exchange believes that providing uniform rates for all 1G and 10G physical connections to Exchange is reasonable because such change represents a reduction in fees for any Member that connects to the Exchange at a PoP location and no change to fees for any Member located in the Exchange's primary or secondary data center. The Exchange also believes that the proposal is equitably allocated and not unreasonably discriminatory because, as proposed, market participants will be able to access the Exchange at uniform rates regardless of whether such access is at the Exchange's primary or secondary data center location or another location where the Exchange offers access.
Finally, the Exchange believes that the corresponding and clarifying changes discussed above are non-substantive and would contribute to the protection of investors and the public interest by helping to avoid confusion with respect the Exchange fee schedule.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. With respect to the proposed new rebates for Market Maker orders that add liquidity in non-Penny Pilot Securities, particularly the enhanced rebates available under the Market Maker Non-Penny Pilot Add Volume Tiers, the Exchange does not believe that any such changes burden competition, but instead, that they enhance competition, as they are intended to increase the competitiveness of BATS Options. As stated above, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if the deem fee structures to be unreasonable or excessive.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed change to physical port fees represents a significant departure from previous pricing offered by the Exchange or pricing offered by the Exchange's competitors. Rather, as described above, the Exchange is simply normalizing its fees for physical access to the Exchange regardless of the location where a physical connection is made. The offering is consistent with the Exchange's own economic incentives to facilitate as many market participants as possible in connecting to its market. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed change will impair the ability of Members or competing venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On March 16, 2015, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (“CBOE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend its rules regarding the handling and processing of stock-option orders represented in open outcry on the floor of the Exchange. As described in more detail below, the Exchange proposes to amend CBOE Rule 6.48 to allow Trading Permit Holders (“TPHs”) or PAR Officials
The Exchange represents that for any order whose stock component is routed via PAR to an Exchange-designated broker-dealer for execution at a stock trading venue, the Exchange-designated broker-dealer would be responsible for the proper execution, trade reporting, and submission to clearing of the stock trade that is part of the stock-option order.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will support more efficient stock-option order execution, streamline the steps required for open-outcry stock-option order trading, and enhance the Exchange's audit trail by creating a more robust record of the stock component of stock-option order executions on the floor of the Exchange.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
60-day notice and request for comments.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) intends to request approval, from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the new collection of information described below. The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, required federal agencies to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before July 20, 2015.
Send all comments to Melinda Edwards, Program Analyst, Office of Business Development, Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street, 8th Floor, Washington, DC 20416.
Melinda Edwards, Program Analyst, Office of Business Development,
In accordance with 13 CFR 124.604, as part of its annual review submission, each Participant owned by a Tribe, ANC, NHO or CDC must submit to SBA information showing how they have provided benefits to their members and communities. This data includes information relating to funded cultural programs, employment assistance, jobs, scholarships, internships, subsistence activities, and other services provided.
SBA is requesting comments on (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
Small Business Administration.
30-day notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), which requires
Submit comments on or before June 19, 2015.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030,
Small Business Administration (SBA) Forms 856 and 856A are used by SBA examiners as part of their examination of licensed small business investment companies (SBICs). This information collection obtains representations from an SBIC's management regarding certain obligations, transactions and relationships of the SBIC and helps SBA to evaluate the SBIC's financial condition and compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
Comments may be submitted on (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Kentucky (FEMA-4218-DR), dated 05/12/2015.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 05/12/2015, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
Anderson, Bell, Bourbon, Boyd, Breathitt, Bullitt, Butler, Calloway, Carter, Casey, Clay, Daviess, Elliott, Estill, Fleming, Floyd, Franklin, Fulton, Gallatin, Grant, Greenup, Hancock, Harrison, Hart, Jackson, Johnson, Knott, Knox, Larue, Lawrence, Lee, Leslie, Letcher, Lewis, Magoffin, Marshall, Martin, Mason, Menifee, Metcalfe, Morgan, Nicholas, Ohio, Owen, Owsley, Perry, Pike, Powell, Robertson, Rockcastle, Rowan, Spencer, Trigg, Washington, Webster, Whitley, Woodford.
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14310B and for economic injury is 14311B.
(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers 59002 and 59008)
Notice of request for public comment and submission to OMB of proposed collection of information.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
Submit comments directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) up to June 19, 2015.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
•
•
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests
We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The Department of State Bureau of Population, Refugees, and Migration (PRM) is responsible for coordinating and managing the U.S. Refugee Admissions Program (USRAP). PRM coordinates within the Department of State, as well as with the Department of Homeland Security's U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (DHS/USCIS), in carrying out this responsibility. A critical part of the State Department's responsibility is determining which individuals, from among millions of refugees worldwide, will have access to U.S. resettlement consideration. PRM and DHS/USCIS are now assisting with the preparation of a White House directive to initiate an in-country program to provide a means for certain persons who are lawfully present in the United States to claim a relationship with child(ren) in Honduras, El Salvador, and Guatemala and to assist the U.S. Department of State in determining whether those child(ren) are qualified to apply for access to the USRAP for family reunification purposes. This form also assists DHS/USCIS to verify parent-child relationships during refugee case adjudication. The main purpose of the DS-7699 is for the U.S. based parent to provide biographical information about his/her child(ren) in the qualifying countries who may subsequently seek access to the USRAP for verification by the U.S. government.
This information collection currently involves the limited use of electronic techniques. Parents (respondents) in the United States will work closely with a resettlement agency during the completion of the AOR to ensure that the information is accurate. Anchor parents may visit any resettlement agency to complete an AOR. Sometimes respondents do not have strong English-language skills and benefit from having a face-to-face meeting with resettlement agency staff. The DS-7699 form will be available electronically and responses will be completed electronically. Completed AORs will be printed out for ink signature by the respondents as well. The electronic copy will be submitted electronically to the Refugee Processing Center (RPC) for downloading into the Worldwide Refugee Admissions Processing System (WRAPS), with the signed paper copy remaining with PRM's Reception and Placement Agency partners.
Notice of meetings of the United States-Peru Environmental Affairs Council, Environmental Cooperation Commission, and Sub-Committee on Forest Sector Governance, and request for comments.
The Department of State and the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) are providing notice that the United States and Peru intend to hold the seventh meeting of the Sub-Committee on Forest Sector Governance (the “Sub-Committee”), the fifth meeting of the Environmental Affairs Council (the “Council”), and the third meeting of the Environmental Cooperation Commission (the “Commission”) on June 8-9, 2015. The public sessions for the Council, Commission and Sub-Committee will be held on June 9, at 3:00 p.m. All meetings will take place in Lima, Peru at the Ministry of Foreign Trade and Tourism (MINCETUR), Calle Uno Oeste N 050 Urb. Corpac, San Isidro, Lima, Conference Rooms 1&2.
The purpose of the meetings is to review implementation of: Chapter 18 (Environment) of the United States-Peru Trade Promotion Agreement (PTPA); the PTPA Annex on Forest Sector Governance (Annex 18.3.4); and the United States-Peru Environmental Cooperation Agreement (ECA). The United States and Peru will also approve a new 2015-2018 Environmental Cooperation Work Program under the ECA.
The Department of State and USTR invite interested organizations and members of the public to attend the public session, and to submit written comments or suggestions regarding implementation of Chapter 18, Annex 18.3.4, and the ECA, and any issues that should be discussed at the meetings. If you would like to attend the public sessions, please notify Rachel Kastenberg and Laura Buffo at the email addresses listed below under the heading
In preparing comments, submitters are encouraged to refer to:
• Chapter 18 of the PTPA, including Annex 18.3.4,
• the Final Environmental Review of the PTPA,
• the ECA
These and other useful documents are available at:
The public sessions of the Council, Sub-Committee and Commission meetings will be held on June 9, 2015, beginning at 3:00 p.m., at the Ministry of Foreign Trade and Tourism (MINCETUR), Calle Uno Oeste N 050 Urb. Corpac, San Isidro, Lima, Conference Rooms 1&2. Comments and suggestions are requested in writing no later than June 2, 2015.
Written comments and suggestions should be submitted to both:
(1) Rachel Kastenberg, Office of Environmental Quality and Transboundary Issues, U.S. Department of State, by electronic mail at
(2) Laura Buffo, Office of Environment and Natural Resources, Office of the United States Trade Representative, by electronic mail at
Rachel Kastenberg, Telephone (202) 736-7111 or Laura Buffo, Telephone (202) 395-9424.
The PTPA entered into force on February 1, 2009. Article 18.6 of the PTPA establishes an Environmental Affairs Council, which is required to meet at least once a year or as otherwise agreed by the Parties to discuss the implementation of Chapter 18. Annex 18.3.4 of the PTPA establishes a Sub-Committee on Forest Sector Governance. The Sub-Committee is a specific forum for the Parties to exchange views and share information on any matter arising under the PTPA Annex on Forest Sector Governance. The ECA entered into force on August 23, 2009. Article III of the ECA establishes an Environmental Cooperation Commission and makes the Commission responsible for developing a Work Program. Chapter 18 of the PTPA and Article VI of the ECA require that meetings of the Council and Commission respectively include a public session, unless the Parties otherwise agree. At its first meeting, the Sub-Committee on Forest Sector Governance committed to hold a public session after each Sub-Committee meeting.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission.
Notice.
This notice lists the projects approved by rule by the Susquehanna River Basin Commission during the period set forth in
April 1-30, 2015.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission, 4423 North Front Street, Harrisburg, PA 17110-1788.
Jason E. Oyler, Regulatory Counsel, telephone: (717) 238-0423, ext. 1312; fax: (717) 238-2436; email:
This notice lists the projects, described below, receiving approval for the consumptive use of water pursuant to the Commission's approval by rule process set forth in 18 CFR 806.22(f) for the time period specified above:
1. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Redmond, ABR-201007005.R1, Meshoppen Township, Wyoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
2. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: EDF NEW, ABR-201007125.R1, Mehoopany Township, Wyoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
3. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Warren, ABR-201008010.R1, Windham Township, Wyoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
4. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Lambert Farms, ABR-201008011.R1, Forks Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
5. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Joanclark, ABR-201008025.R1, Fox Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
6. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Roundtop, ABR-201008067.R1, Colley Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
7. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: George, ABR-201008101.R1, Windham Township, Wyoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
8. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Bedford, ABR-201008139.R1, Elkland Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
9. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Benspond, ABR-201008146.R1, Elkland Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
10. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Fremar, ABR-201008147.R1, Fox Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
11. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Hottenstein, ABR-201008148.R1, Forks Township, Sullivan County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
12. EXCO Resources (PA), LLC Pad ID: Litke (14H, 15H, 16H), ABR-20090431.R1, Burnside Township, Centre County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 5.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
13. EXCO Resources (PA), LLC Pad ID: COP Tract 706 (Pad 8) ABR-201008059.R1, Burnside Township, Centre County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 8.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
14. XTO Energy Inc., Pad ID: MARQUARDT UNIT 8517H, ABR-20100417.R1, Penn Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
15. XTO Energy Inc., Pad ID: Everbe Farms 8518H, ABR-20100533.R1, Franklin Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 3, 2015.
16. Anadarko E&P Onshore LLC, Pad ID: COP Tr 685 A, ABR-20100541.R1, Cummings Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to
17. Anadarko E&P Onshore LLC, Pad ID: COP Tr 728 Pad A, ABR-20100631.R1, Watson Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
18. Anadarko E&P Onshore LLC, Pad ID: David C Duncan Pad A, ABR-20100635.R1, Cascade Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
19. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Barnes, ABR-201007048.R1, Smithfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
20. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Scheffler, ABR-201007102.R1, Standing Stone Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
21. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Champluvier, ABR-201007105.R1, Tuscarora Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
22. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Covington, ABR-201007123.R1, Sheshequin Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
23. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Felter-NEW, ABR-201008026.R1, Wyalusing Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
24. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Atgas, ABR-201008066.R1, Leroy Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
25. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Ammerman, ABR-201008099.R1, Litchfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
26. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Dave, ABR-201008107.R1, Albany Stone Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
27. Seneca Resources, Pad ID: CRV Pad C09-D, ABR-201504001, Shippen Township, Cameron County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
28. Range Resources—Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Cornwall South Unit, ABR-201504002, Lewis Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 5.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
29. Range Resources—Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Cornhill A Well Pad, ABR-201504003, Cogan House Township, Lycoming County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 5.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
30. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: 808 Thomas, ABR-20100344.R1, Elkland Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.990 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
31. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: Cummings 823, ABR-20100350.R1, Chatham Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
32. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: Bartlett 531, ABR-20100351.R1, Richmond Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 8, 2015.
33. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: ChambersO P1, ABR-201504004, Harford Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.250 mgd; Approval Date: April 13, 2015.
34. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: DeckerT P1, ABR-201504005, Harford Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.250 mgd; Approval Date: April 13, 2015.
35. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Lattimer, ABR-201008038.R1, Litchfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 13, 2015.
36. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Moore Farm, ABR-201008050.R1, Canton Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 13, 2015.
37. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Thall, ABR-201008140.R1, Albany Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 13, 2015.
38. EQT Production Company, Pad ID: Phoenix C, ABR-201006114.R1, Duncan Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 14, 2015.
39. EQT Production Company, Pad ID: Phoenix E, ABR-201008130.R1, Duncan Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 14, 2015.
40. EQT Production Company, Pad ID: Phoenix H, ABR-201010058.R1, Morris Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 14, 2015.
41. EQT Production Company, Pad ID: Phoenix R, ABR-201011057.R1, Duncan Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 14, 2015.
42. EQT Production Company, Pad ID: Longhorn C-1 (WDV1), ABR-201011061.R1, Jay Township, Elk County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 14, 2015.
43. EQT Production Company, Pad ID: Phoenix S, ABR-201012009.R1, Duncan Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 14, 2015.
44. SWEPI, LP, Pad ID: Kjelgaard, ABR-20090902.R1, Gaines Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.990 mgd; Approval Date: April 16, 2015.
45. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Wilcox Pad F, ABR-20090505.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 17, 2015.
46. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: J. Pino Pad G, ABR-20090717.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 17, 2015.
47. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: D.M. Pino Pad H, ABR-20090933.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 17, 2015.
48. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Marvin 1V Pad, ABR-20090934.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 5.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 17, 2015.
49. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Rich Valley 1V Pad, ABR-20091227.R1, Shippen Township, Cameron County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 5.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 17, 2015.
50. Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation, Pad ID: WarrinerR P4, ABR-201008123.R1, Dimock Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 3.575 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
51. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Aikens, ABR-201008068.R1, Litchfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
52. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Donna, ABR-201008096.R1, Terry Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
53. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Clarke, ABR-201008145.R1, Overton Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
54. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Balent NEW, ABR-201008149.R1, Wysox Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
55. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: McCabe, ABR-201008157.R1, Towanda Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
56. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Wolf, ABR-201008158.R1, Athens Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 20, 2015.
57. EOG Resources, Inc., Pad ID: GUINAN 2H, ABR-20091117.R1, Springfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 1.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 22, 2015.
58. EOG Resources, Inc., Pad ID: HOPPAUGH 3H, ABR-20091121.R1, Springfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 1.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 22, 2015.
59. EOG Resources, Inc., Pad ID: HARKNESS 3H, ABR-20091221.R1, Springfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 1.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 22, 2015.
60. EOG Resources, Inc., Pad ID: BEARDSLEE 2H Pad, ABR-201008085.R1, Springfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 22, 2015.
61. EOG Resources, Inc., Pad ID: GROSS 1H Pad, ABR-201008098.R1, Springfield Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 22, 2015.
62. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Wolfinger, ABR-20091229.R1, Shippen Township, Cameron County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 5.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
63. SWN Production Company LLC, Pad ID: NR-25 NOWICKI, ABR-201504006, Oakland Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
64. SWN Production Company LLC, Pad ID: NR-05 BAC Realty, ABR-201504007, New Milford Township, Susquehanna County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.999 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
65. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Strope, ABR-201007035.R1, Ulster Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
66. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Burleigh, ABR-201009067.R1, Wyalusing Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
67. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Foster, ABR-201009093.R1, Wysox Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
68. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Curtis New, ABR-201009100.R1, Asylum Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 27, 2015.
69. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: DCNR 595 Pad E, ABR-20100307.R1, Blossburg Borough, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
70. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Wivell Pad 1, ABR-20100607.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
71. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Valldes Pad C, ABR-20100620.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
72. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Warren Pad B, ABR-20100621.R1, Richmond Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
73. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Lehmann Pad K, ABR-201007115.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
74. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: DCNR Tract 595 Pad I, ABR-201008043.R1, Bloss Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
75. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: DCNR Tract 595 Pad F, ABR-201008044.R1, Bloss Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
76. Seneca Resources Corporation, Pad ID: Covington Pad L, ABR-201008065.R1, Covington Township, Tioga County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 4.000 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
77. Chesapeake Appalachia, LLC, Pad ID: Wygrala, ABR-201009072.R1, Wysox Township, Bradford County, Pa.; Consumptive Use of Up to 7.500 mgd; Approval Date: April 29, 2015.
Public Law 91-575, 84 Stat. 1509
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before June 9, 2015.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2015-0615 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Sandra K. Long, 202-267-4714, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Request for public comment.
The FAA hereby provides notice of intent to release approximately 64.32 acres of airport property at Fort Lauderdale Executive Airport, Fort Lauderdale, FL, from the conditions, reservations, and restrictions as contained in a Quitclaim Deed agreement between the FAA and the City of Fort Lauderdale, FL, dated March 11, 1947. The release of property will allow the City of Fort Lauderdale to dispose of the property for other than aeronautical purposes. The property is located within Tract 1 of F-X-E Plat (Parcels 19B, 25, 26 and 27) at the northwest corner of W. Commercial Boulevard (S.R. 870) and NW. 12th Avenue. The parcels are currently designated as non-aeronautical land use. The property will be released of its federal obligations for commercial land use. The fair market value of these parcels have been determined to be $12,085,000.
Comments are due on or before June 19, 2015.
Documents are available for review at Fort Lauderdale Executive Airport, 6000 NW 21st Avenue, Fort Lauderdale, FL 33309; and the FAA Airports District Office, 5950 Hazeltine National Drive, Suite 400, Orlando, FL 32822. Written comments on the Sponsor's request must be delivered or mailed to: Marisol C. Elliott, Program Manager, Orlando Airports District Office, 5950 Hazeltine National Drive, Suite 400, Orlando, FL 32822-5024. Documents reflecting the Sponsor's request are available for inspection by appointment only at Fort Lauderdale Executive Airport and by contacting the FAA at the address listed above.
Marisol C. Elliott, Program Manager, Orlando Airports District Office, 5950 Hazeltine National Drive, Suite 400, Orlando, FL 32822-5024.
Section 125 of The Wendell H. Ford Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century (AIR-21) requires the FAA to provide an opportunity for public notice and comment prior to the “waiver” or “modification” of a sponsor's Federal obligation to use certain airport land for non-aeronautical purposes.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew the exemptions from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for 19 individuals. FMCSA has statutory authority to exempt individuals from the vision requirement if the exemptions granted will not compromise safety. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemption renewals will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers.
This decision is effective June 6, 2015. Comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) numbers: Docket No. [Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0025], using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
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Charles A. Horan, III, Director, Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, 202-366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may renew an exemption from the vision requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce, for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The procedures for requesting an exemption (including renewals) are set out in 49 CFR part 381.
This notice addresses 19 individuals who have requested renewal of their exemptions in accordance with FMCSA procedures. FMCSA has evaluated these 19 applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period. They are:
Glenn Blanton (OH), Matthew J. Buersken (MN), Mark E. Haukom (MN), Wesley D. Hogue (AR), Anthony Lang (NH), Jason C. Laub (NH), Edward J. Lavin (CT), Wayne D. Litwiller, Sr. (IL), James McClure (NC), Luther A. McKinney (VA), Steven J. McLain (TN), Enes Milanovic (MI), Donie L. Rhoads (MT), Leo D. Roy (NH), Steven Schaumberg (NJ), Merreo A. Stewart (MN), James B. Taflinger, Sr. (VA), Ronald W. Thompson (WI), Roy J. Ware (GA)
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) that each individual has a physical examination every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provides a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file and retains a copy of the certification on his/her person while driving for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. Each exemption will be valid for two years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application for additional two year periods. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 19 applicants has satisfied the entry conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (78 FR 20376; 78 FR 34141). Each of these 19 applicants has requested renewal of the exemption and has submitted evidence showing that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement specified at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and that the vision impairment is stable. In addition, a review of each record of safety while driving with the respective vision deficiencies over the past two years indicates each applicant continues to meet the vision exemption requirements.
These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to drive safely in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of two years is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2013-0025), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, got to
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) announces its decision to grant Virginia Tech Transportation Institute's (VTTI) exemption application to allow the placement of camera-based data acquisition systems (DAS) at the bottom of windshields on commercial motor vehicles (CMVs). The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) require antennas, transponders, and similar devices to be located not more than 6 inches below the upper edge of the windshield, outside the area swept by the windshield wipers, and outside the driver's sight lines to the road and highway signs and signals. As part of a National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) research program, VTTI is coordinating development and installation of the DASs in up to 150 CMVs. The exemption will enable VTTI and NHTSA to conduct research on the reliability of collision avoidance systems for CMVs. FMCSA believes that mounting the DASs at the bottom of the windshield would maintain a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety achieved without the exemption.
This exemption is effective May 20, 2015 and ends
Mr. Mike Huntley, Vehicle and Roadside Operations Division, Office of Carrier, Driver, and Vehicle Safety, MC-PSV, (202) 366-5370, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001.
For access to the docket to read background documents, including those referenced in this document, or to read comments received, go to:
• Regulations.gov,
• Docket Management Facility, Room W12-140, DOT Building, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590. You may view the docket online by visiting the facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday except Federal holidays.
To view comments filed in this docket, go to
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by compliance with the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
VTTI applied for an exemption from 49 CFR 393.60(e)(1) to allow the installation of DASs at the bottom of the windshield on CMVs (80 FR 8750, Feb. 18, 2015). A copy of the application is included in the docket referenced at the beginning of this notice.
Section 393.60(e)(1) of the FMCSRs prohibits the obstruction of the driver's field of view by devices mounted at the top of the windshield. Antennas, transponders and similar devices (devices) must not be mounted more than 152 mm (6 inches) below the upper edge of the windshield. These devices must be located outside the area swept by the windshield wipers and outside the driver's sight lines to the road and highway signs and signals.
VTTI applied for the exemption because it wants to install DASs in up to 150 CMVs operating throughout the United States in support of research being conducted on behalf of NHTSA. VTTI contends that it must be able to mount the DASs lower than allowed under 49 CFR 393.60(e)(1) “because the safety equipment must have a clear forward facing view of the road, and low enough to accurately scan facial features for detection of impaired driving.” VTTI wants to mount the DASs and necessary brackets at the bottom of the windshield, preferably 3 inches or less above of the bottom of the wiper sweep and out of the driver's sightlines to the road and highway signs and signals, to the extent practicable.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 31315(a) and 49 CFR part 381, subpart B, the FMCSA granted VTTI a 90-day waiver on January 26, 2015 to allow the placement of the DASs at the bottom of windshields on CMVs, outside of the area permitted by section 393.60 of the FMCSRs. This waiver is effective from January 26, 2015, through April 25, 2015. Up to 150 DASs have been installed in CMVs operated by 7 carriers.
During the waiver period, motor carriers participating in the NHTSA research program must ensure that the DASs are mounted within three inches of the bottom of the driver side windshield wiper sweep, and out of the driver's sightlines to the road and highway signs and signals as much as practicable. Vehicles participating in the study must carry a copy of the waiver in the vehicle. A copy of the FMCSA waiver letter to VTTI is included in the docket referenced at the beginning of this notice.
FMCSA published a notice of the exemption application in the
The FMCSA has evaluated the VTTI exemption application. The Agency believes that granting the temporary exemption to allow the placement of the DASs and necessary mounting brackets at the bottom of the windshield, within and/or below 3 inches of the bottom of the windshield wiper sweep, will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than the level of safety achieved without the exemption. FMCSA does not believe there will be any degradation in the safety performance of motor carriers utilizing the exemption during the 2-year exemption period because (1) there is nothing in available technical information to indicate that the DASs would obstruct drivers' views of the roadway, highway signs and surrounding traffic; (2) generally, trucks and buses have an elevated seating position which greatly improves the forward visual field of the driver, making any impairment of available sight lines minimal; and (3) the location three inches or less above the bottom of the driver's-side windshield wiper sweep, and out of the driver's sightline, is reasonable and enforceable at roadside. Without the exemption, NHTSA would be unable to test this innovative onboard safety monitoring system.
The Agency hereby grants the exemption for a two-year period, beginning May 20, 2015 and ending
1. USDOT #32052 Crosby Trucking Service Inc. in Mount Sydney. VA.
2. USDOT #369138 Rush Trucking Corporation in Wayne, MI.
3. USDOT #1977980 Kuperus Trucking Inc. in Jenison, MI.
4. USDOT #282628 Stagecoach Cartage and Distribution, LP in El Paso, TX.
5. USDOT #184405 J & M Tank Lines Inc. in Birmingham, AL.
6. USDOT #1243338 P&S Transportation LLC in Ensley, AL.
7. USDOT #75827 Modular Transport Company in Wyoming, MI.
These motor carriers must ensure that the DASs are mounted within and/or below 3 inches of the bottom of the driver side windshield wiper sweep, and out of the driver's sightlines to the road and highway signs and signals as much as practicable.
The exemption is valid for two years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if (1) motor carriers and/or commercial motor vehicles fail to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).
Interested parties possessing information that would demonstrate that motor carriers using the DASs are not achieving the requisite statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any such information and, if safety is being compromised or if the continuation of the exemption is not consistent with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 27 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemptions will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these CMV drivers.
The exemptions were granted April 7, 2015. The exemptions expire on April 7, 2017.
Charles A. Horan, III, Director, Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at
On March 6, 2015, FMCSA published a notice of receipt of exemption applications from certain individuals, and requested comments from the public (80 FR 12248). That notice listed 27 applicants' case histories. The 27 individuals applied for exemptions from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), for drivers who operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also
The vision requirement in the FMCSRs provides:
A person is physically qualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber (49 CFR 391.41(b)(10)).
FMCSA recognizes that some drivers do not meet the vision requirement but have adapted their driving to accommodate their vision limitation and demonstrated their ability to drive safely. The 27 exemption applicants listed in this notice are in this category. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons, including macular scar, globe laceration, retinal detachment, amblyopia, enucleation, cancerous choroid, Coats' Disease, macular degeneration, alternating esotropia, optic nerve atrophy, esotropia, degenerated optic nerve, refractive amblyopia, retinal scarring, full-thickness macular hole, Behcet's panuveities, primary open angle glaucoma, keratopathy, keratectomy, optic nerve compression, complete loss of vision, and retinal vascular occlusion. In most cases, their eye conditions were not recently developed. Fifteen of the applicants were either born with their vision impairments or have had them since childhood.
The twelve individuals that sustained their vision conditions as adults have had it for a range of five to 19 years.
Although each applicant has one eye which does not meet the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), each has at least 20/40 corrected vision in the other eye, and in a doctor's opinion, has sufficient vision to perform all the tasks necessary to operate a CMV. Doctors' opinions are supported by the applicants' possession of valid commercial driver's licenses (CDLs) or non-CDLs to operate CMVs. Before issuing CDLs, States subject drivers to knowledge and skills tests designed to evaluate their qualifications to operate a CMV.
All of these applicants satisfied the testing requirements for their State of residence. By meeting State licensing requirements, the applicants demonstrated their ability to operate a CMV, with their limited vision, to the satisfaction of the State.
While possessing a valid CDL or non-CDL, these 27 drivers have been authorized to drive a CMV in intrastate commerce, even though their vision disqualified them from driving in interstate commerce. They have driven CMVs with their limited vision in careers ranging from four to 50 years. In the past three years, one of drivers was involved in a crash and one was convicted of a moving violation in a CMV.
The qualifications, experience, and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the March 6, 2015 notice (80 FR 12248).
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. Without the exemption, applicants will continue to be restricted to intrastate driving. With the exemption, applicants can drive in interstate commerce. Thus, our analysis focuses on whether an equal or greater level of safety is likely to be achieved by permitting each of these drivers to drive in interstate commerce as opposed to restricting him or her to driving in intrastate commerce.
To evaluate the effect of these exemptions on safety, FMCSA considered the medical reports about the applicants' vision as well as their driving records and experience with the vision deficiency.
To qualify for an exemption from the vision requirement, FMCSA requires a person to present verifiable evidence that he/she has driven a commercial vehicle safely with the vision deficiency for the past 3 years. Recent driving performance is especially important in evaluating future safety, according to several research studies designed to correlate past and future driving performance. Results of these studies support the principle that the best predictor of future performance by a driver is his/her past record of crashes and traffic violations. Copies of the studies may be found at Docket Number FMCSA-1998-3637.
FMCSA believes it can properly apply the principle to monocular drivers, because data from the Federal Highway Administration's (FHWA) former waiver study program clearly demonstrate the driving performance of experienced monocular drivers in the program is better than that of all CMV drivers collectively (See 61 FR 13338, 13345, March 26, 1996). The fact that experienced monocular drivers demonstrated safe driving records in the waiver program supports a conclusion that other monocular drivers, meeting the same qualifying conditions as those required by the waiver program, are also likely to have adapted to their vision deficiency and will continue to operate safely.
The first major research correlating past and future performance was done in England by Greenwood and Yule in 1920. Subsequent studies, building on that model, concluded that crash rates for the same individual exposed to certain risks for two different time periods vary only slightly (See Bates and Neyman, University of California Publications in Statistics, April 1952). Other studies demonstrated theories of predicting crash proneness from crash history coupled with other factors. These factors—such as age, sex, geographic location, mileage driven and conviction history—are used every day by insurance companies and motor vehicle bureaus to predict the probability of an individual experiencing future crashes (See Weber, Donald C., “Accident Rate Potential: An Application of Multiple Regression Analysis of a Poisson Process,” Journal of American Statistical Association, June 1971). A 1964 California Driver Record Study prepared by the California Department of Motor Vehicles concluded that the best overall crash predictor for both concurrent and nonconcurrent events is the number of single convictions. This study used 3 consecutive years of data, comparing the experiences of drivers in the first 2 years with their experiences in the final year.
Applying principles from these studies to the past 3-year record of the 27 applicants, one driver was involved in a crash, and one was convicted of a moving violation in a CMV. All the applicants achieved a record of safety while driving with their vision impairment, demonstrating the likelihood that they have adapted their driving skills to accommodate their condition. As the applicants' ample driving histories with their vision deficiencies are good predictors of future performance, FMCSA concludes their ability to drive safely can be projected into the future.
We believe that the applicants' intrastate driving experience and history
We recognize that the vision of an applicant may change and affect his/her ability to operate a CMV as safely as in the past. As a condition of the exemption, therefore, FMCSA will impose requirements on the 27 individuals consistent with the grandfathering provisions applied to drivers who participated in the Agency's vision waiver program.
Those requirements are found at 49 CFR 391.64(b) and include the following: (1) That each individual be physically examined every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must have a copy of the certification when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
FMCSA received no comments in this proceeding.
Based upon its evaluation of the 27 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), subject to the requirements cited above (49 CFR 391.64(b)):
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
If the exemption is still effective at the end of the 2-year period, the person may apply to FMCSA for a renewal under procedures in effect at that time.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew the exemptions from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for 15 individuals. FMCSA has statutory authority to exempt individuals from the vision requirement if the exemptions granted will not compromise safety. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemption renewals will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers.
This decision is effective June 13, 2015. Comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) numbers: Docket No. [Docket No. FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2007-27515], using any of the following methods:
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Charles A. Horan, III, Director, Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, 202-366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may renew an exemption from the vision requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce, for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The procedures for requesting an exemption (including renewals) are set out in 49 CFR part 381.
This notice addresses 15 individuals who have requested renewal of their exemptions in accordance with FMCSA procedures. FMCSA has evaluated these 15 applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period. They are:
Roosevelt Bell, Jr. (NC), David K. Boswell (TN), Melvin M. Carter (WA), Bernabe V. Cerda (TX), Michael S. Crawford (IL), Rex A. Dyer (VT), Patrick J. Goebel (IA), Thomas A. Gotto (IA), Wilbur J. Johnson (VA), Kenneth C. Reeves (OR), Charles J. Rowsey (NC), Thomas E. Summers, Sr. (OH), Jon C. Thompson (TX), Daniel E. Watkins (FL), Tommy N. Whitworth (TX).
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) that each individual has a physical examination every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provides a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file and retains a copy of the certification on his/her person while driving for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. Each exemption will be valid for two years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application for additional two year periods. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 15 applicants has satisfied the entry conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (68 FR 19598; 68 FR 33570; 70 FR 17504; 70 FR 25878; 70 FR 30997; 72 FR 21313; 72 FR 27624; 72 FR 28093; 72 FR 32703; 74 FR 23472; 76 FR 32017; 78 FR 32708). Each of these 15 applicants has requested renewal of the exemption and has submitted evidence showing that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement specified at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and that the vision impairment is stable. In addition, a review of each record of safety while driving with the respective vision deficiencies over the past two years indicates each applicant continues to meet the vision exemption requirements.
These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to drive safely in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of two years is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2007-27515), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, got to
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Office of Hazardous Materials Safety, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, (PHMSA), DOT.
List of Applications for Special Permits.
In accordance with the procedures governing the application for, and the processing of, special permits from the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Material Regulations (49 CFR part 107, subpart B), notice is hereby given that the Office of Hazardous Materials Safety has received the application described herein. Each mode of transportation for which a particular special permit is requested is indicated by a number in the “Nature of Application” portion of the table below as follows: 1—Motor vehicle, 2—Rail freight, 3—Cargo vessel, 4—Cargo aircraft only, 5—Passenger-carrying aircraft.
Comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
Comments should refer to the application number and be submitted in triplicate. If confirmation of receipt of comments is desired, include a self-addressed stamped postcard showing the special permit number.
Copies of the applications are available for inspection in the Records Center, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue Southeast, Washington, DC or at
This notice of receipt of applications for special permit is published in accordance with Part 107 of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (49 U.S.C. 5117(b); 49 CFR 1.53(b)).
Office of Hazardous Materials Safety, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
List of Application for Modification of Special Permits.
In accordance with the procedures governing the application for, and the processing of, special permits from the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Material Regulations (49 CFR part 107, subpart B), notice is hereby given that the Office of Hazardous Materials Safety has received the applications described herein. This notice is abbreviated to expedite docketing and public notice. Because the sections affected, modes of transportation, and the nature of application have been shown in earlier
Comments must be received on or before June 4, 2015.
Comments should refer to the application number and be submitted in triplicate. If confirmation of receipt of comments is desired, include a self-addressed stamped postcard showing the special permit number.
Copies of the applications are available for inspection in the Records Center, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue Southeast, Washington, DC or at
This notice of receipt of applications for modification of special permit is published in accordance with Part 107 of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (49 U.S.C. 5117(b); 49 CFR 1.53(b)).
Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before June 19, 2015 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission may be obtained by emailing
Office of General Counsel, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Office of General Counsel (OGC), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before July 20, 2015.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Dana Raffaelli at (202) 461-7699 or FAX (202) 273-6404.
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501—3521), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, OGC invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of OGC's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of OGC's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Organizations requesting cancellation of a representative's accreditation based on misconduct or incompetence or resignation to avoid cancellation of accreditation based upon misconduct or incompetence, are required to inform VA of the specific reason for the cancellation request. VA will use the information collected to determine whether service organizations representatives continue to meet regulatory eligibility requirements to ensure claimants have qualified representatives to assist in the preparation, presentation and prosecution of their claims for benefits. VA is modifying the collection to include an optional request to permit the organization to provide an email address and phone number in which the representative may be reached. VA believes that the additional contact information pertaining to the organization will be helpful in that it provides an additional means of communication between VA and the organization as well as provides an additional way that Veterans and their family may contact the representative. The organization may choose to provide a general phone number and email address for the organization,
By direction of the Secretary.
Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization (OSDBU), The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).
Notice.
VA OSDBU is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before July 20, 2015.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Milagros Ortiz (202) 461-4279 or Fax (202) 461-4301.
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, OMB invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of OMB's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of OMB's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
By direction of the Secretary.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of an incidental harassment authorization.
NMFS is issuing an Incidental Harassment Authorization in response to a request from SAExploration Inc. (SAE) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to an oil and gas exploration seismic survey program in Cook Inlet, Alaska between May 13, 2015 and May 12, 2016.
Electronic copies of the IHA, application, and associated Environmental Assessment (EA) and Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) may be obtained by writing to Jolie Harrison, Division Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service, 1315 East West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910, telephoning the contact listed below (see
Sara Young, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth. NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.”
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild [Level A harassment]; or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering [Level B harassment].
On October 28, 2014, we received a request from SAE for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to seismic surveys in Cook Inlet, Alaska. After further correspondence and revisions by the applicant, we determined that the application was adequate and complete on January 12, 2015. On March 20, 2015, NMFS published a notice in the
SAE proposes to conduct oil and gas exploration seismic surveys. The activity will occur between May 13, 2015 and May 12, 2016, for a period of 160 days. The following specific aspects of the activity are likely to result in the take of marine mammals: Operation of seismic airguns in arrays of 440 in
SAE plans to conduct 3D seismic surveys over multiple years in the marine waters of both upper and lower Cook Inlet. This authorization will cover activities occurring between May 13, 2015 and May 12, 2016. The ultimate survey area is divided into two units (upper and lower Cook Inlet). The total potential survey area is 3,934 square kilometers (1,519 square miles); however, only a portion (currently unspecified) of this area will ultimately be surveyed, and no more than 777 square kilometers (300 square miles) in a given year. The exact location of where the 2015 survey will be conducted is not known at this time, and probably will not be known until late spring 2015 when SAE's clients have finalized their data acquisition needs.
The components of the project include laying recording sensors (nodes) on the ocean floor, operating seismic source vessels towing active air gun arrays, and retrieval of nodes. There will also be additional boat activity associated with crew transfer, recording support, and additional monitoring for marine mammals. The primary seismic source for offshore recording consists of a 2 × 880-cubic-inch tri-cluster array for a total of 1,760-cubic-inches (although a 440-cubic-inch array may be used in very shallow water locations as necessary). Each of the arrays will be deployed in a configuration outlined in Appendix A of the application. The arrays will be centered approximately 15 meters (50 feet) behind the source vessel stern, at a depth of 4 meters (12 feet), and towed along predetermined source lines at speeds between 7.4 and 9.3 kilometers per hour (4 and 5 knots). Two vessels with full arrays will be operating simultaneously in an alternating shot mode; one vessel shooting while the other is recharging. Shot intervals are expected to be about 16 seconds for each array resulting in an overall shot interval of 8 seconds considering the two alternating arrays. Operations are expected to occur 24 hours a day, with actual daily shooting to total about 12 hours. An acoustical positioning (or pinger) system will be used to position and interpolate the location of the nodes. A vessel-mounted transceiver calculates the position of the nodes by measuring the range and bearing from the transceiver to a small acoustic transponder fitted to every third node. The transceiver uses sonar to interrogate the transponders, which respond with short pulses that are used in measuring the range and bearing.
The request for incidental harassment authorization is primarily for the 2015 Cook Inlet open water season. The plan is to conduct seismic surveys in the Upper Cook unit sometime between May 13, 2015 through May 12, 2016. The northern border of the seismic survey area depicted in Figure 1 takes into account the restriction that no activity occur between April 15 to October 15 in waters within 16 kilometers (10 miles) of the Susitna Delta (defined as the nearshore area between the mouths of the Beluga and the Little Susitna rivers). A small wedge of the upper Cook unit falls within 16 kilometers of the Beluga River mouth, but survey here will occur after October 15, taking into account any timing restrictions with nearshore beluga habitat. The seismic acquisition in lower Cook unit will initially begin in late August or mid-September, and run until December 15 taking into account any self-imposed location/timing restrictions to avoid encounters with sea otters or Steller's eiders. The exact survey dates in a given unit will depend on ice conditions, timing restrictions, and other factors. If the upper Cook Inlet seismic surveys are delayed by spring ice conditions, some survey may occur in lower Cook Inlet from March to May to maximize use of the seismic fleet. Actual data acquisition is expected to occur for only 2 to 3 hours at a time during each of the 3 to 4 daily slack tides. Thus, it is expected that the air guns will operate an average of about 8 to 10 total hours per day. It is estimated that it will take 160 days to complete both the upper and lower Cook units, and that no more than 777 square kilometers (300 square miles) of survey area will be shot in 2015.
The area of Cook Inlet that SAE plans to operate in has been divided into two subsections: Upper and Lower Cook Inlet. Upper Cook (2,126 square kilometers; 821 square miles) begins at the line delineating Cook Inlet beluga whale (
The Notice of Proposed IHA (80 FR 14913, March 20, 2015) contains a full detailed description of the 3D seismic survey, including the recording system, sensor positioning, and seismic source. That information has not changed and is therefore not repeated here.
A Notice of Proposed IHA was published in the
All of the public comment letters received on the Notice of Proposed IHA (80 FR 14913, March 20, 2015) are available on the internet at:
Our analysis indicates that issuance of this IHA will not contribute to or worsen the observed decline of the Cook Inlet beluga whale population. Additionally, the ESA Biological Opinion determined that the issuance of an IHA is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the Cook Inlet beluga whales or the western distinct population segment of Steller sea lions or destroy or adversely modify Cook Inlet beluga whale critical habitat. The Biological Opinion also outlined Terms and Conditions and Reasonable and Prudent Measures to reduce impacts, which have been incorporated into the IHA. Therefore, based on the analysis of potential effects, the parameters of the seismic survey, and the rigorous mitigation and monitoring program, NMFS determined that the activity would have a negligible impact on the population.
Moreover, the seismic survey would take only small numbers of marine mammals relative to their population sizes. The number of belugas likely to be taken represent less than 9.6% of the population. As described in the proposed IHA
In addition, cumulative effects were addressed in the EA and Biological Opinion prepared for this action. The cumulative effects section of the EA has been expanded from the draft EA to discuss potential effects in greater detail. These documents, as well as the Alaska Marine Stock Assessments and the most recent abundance estimate for Cook Inlet beluga whales (Shelden
Moreover, the model (or other numerical methods for estimating take) does not take into consideration the rigorous mitigation protocols that will be implemented by SAE to reduce the number of actual Level B harassment takes of Cook Inlet beluga whales. As mentioned previously, the IHA contains a condition restricting SAE's airgun operations within 10 mi (16 km) of the mean higher high water line of the Susitna Delta from April 15 through October 15. During this time, a significant portion of the Cook Inlet beluga whale population occurs in this area for feeding and calving. This setback distance includes the entire 160 dB radius of 5.9 mi (9.5 km) predicted for the full airgun array plus an additional 4.1 mi (6.5 km) of buffer, thus reducing the number of animals that may be exposed to Level B harassment thresholds. SAE is also required to shut down the airguns if any beluga whale is
Survey duration was appropriately considered in the estimations by multiplying density by area of ensonification by number of survey days. NMFS does not calculate takes on an hourly basis, and, additionally, the multiple hours surveyed within a day are reflected in the area of ensonification, which considers the distance they can move within a day and is therefore larger than what would be covered in one hour. Additionally, as NMFS has used the density estimate from NMFS aerial surveys, multiplied by the area ensonified per day, multiplied by the number of days, this calculation produces the number instances of exposure during the survey. This is likely an overestimate of individuals taken by Level B harassment, as a single individual can be exposed on multiple days over the course of the survey, especially when a small patch of area is shot over a duration of five days. While protected species observers (PSOs) cannot detect every single animal within the Level B harassment zone, monitoring reports from similar activities indicate that sightings did not exceed anticipated estimates.
The comment that NMFS disregarded the best available evidence on the potential for temporary and permanent threshold shift on mid- and high-frequency cetaceans and on pinnipeds does not contain any specific recommendations. We acknowledge there is more recent information available bearing on the relevant exposure levels for assessing temporary and permanent hearing impacts. (See NMFS'
(1) Field testing and use of alternative technologies, such as vibroseis and gravity gradiometry, to reduce or eliminate the need for airguns and delaying seismic acquisition in higher density areas until the alternative technology of marine vibroseis becomes available: SAE requested takes of marine mammals incidental to the seismic survey operations described in the IHA application, which identified airgun arrays as the technique SAE would employ to acquire seismic data. It would be inappropriate for NMFS to change the specified activity and it is beyond the scope of the request for takes incidental to SAE's operation of airguns and other active acoustic sources.
SAE knows of no current technology scaled for industrial use that is reliable enough to meet the environmental challenges of operating in Cook Inlet. SAE is aware that many prototypes are currently in development, and may ultimately incorporate these new technologies into their evaluation process as they enter commercial viability. However, none of these technologies are currently ready for use on a large scale in Cook Inlet. As this technology is developed, SAE will evaluate its utility for operations in the Cook Inlet environment.
(2) Required use of the lowest practicable source level in conducting airgun activity: SAE determined that the 1760 in
(3) Seasonal exclusions around river mouths, including early spring (pre-April 14) exclusions around the Beluga River and Susitna Delta, and avoidance of other areas that have a higher probability of beluga occurrence: NMFS has required a 10 mile (16 km) exclusion zone around the Susitna Delta (which includes the Beluga River) in this IHA. This mitigation mirrors a measure in the Incidental Take Statement for the 2012 and 2013 Biological Opinions. Seismic survey operations involving the use of airguns will be prohibited in this area between April 15 and October 15. In both the MMPA and ESA analysis, NMFS determined that this date range is sufficient to protect Cook Inlet beluga whales and the critical habitat in the Susitna Delta. While data indicate that belugas may use this part of the inlet year round, peak use occurs from early May to late September. NMFS added a 2-week buffer on both ends of this peak usage period to add extra protection to feeding and calving belugas. (In addition, the Alaska Department of Fish and Game (ADF&G) prohibits the use of airguns within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the mouth of any stream listed by the ADF&G on the Catalogue of Waters Important for the Spawning, Rearing, or Migration of Anadromous Fishes. See additional explanation in “Mitigation Measures Considered but not Required” section, later in this document.)
(4) Limitation of the mitigation airgun to the longest shot interval necessary to carry out its intended purpose: This general comment contained no specific recommendations. SAE requires shot intervals of 50m at a speed of 4-5 knots to obtain the information from their survey. However NMFS has added a mitigation measure that SAE reduce the shot interval for the mitigation gun to one shot per minute.
(5) Immediate suspension of airgun activity, pending investigation, if any beluga strandings occur within or within an appropriate distance of the survey area. The IHA requires SAE to immediately cease activities and report unauthorized takes of marine mammals, such as live stranding, injury, serious injury, or mortality. NMFS will review the circumstances of SAE's unauthorized take and determine if additional mitigation measures are needed before activities can resume to minimize the likelihood of further unauthorized take and to ensure MMPA compliance. SAE may not resume activities until notified by NMFS. Separately the IHA includes measures if injured or dead marine mammals are sighted and the cause cannot be easily determined. In those cases, NMFS will review the circumstances of the stranding event while SAE continues with operations.
(6) Establishment of a larger exclusion zone for beluga whales that is not predicated on the detection of whale aggregations or cow-calf pairs: Both the proposed IHA notice and the issued IHA contain a requirement for SAE to delay the start of airgun use or shutdown the airguns if a beluga whale is visually sighted or detected by passive acoustic monitoring approaching or within the 160-dB disturbance zone until the animal(s) are no longer present within the 160-dB zone. The measure applies to the sighting of any beluga whale, not just sightings of groups or cow-calf pairs.
(1) Use of advance aerial surveys to redirect activity is not required for this action. Aerial surveys for this project could be used for monitoring the disturbance zone to the 160dB level (6.83 km). However, exposures that occur in this zone, or Level B takes, are already accounted for in the take estimation section below. Visual observers, which are already known to be effective in this environment, will adhere to strict standards for preventing animals from entering the 180dB/190dB injury exclusion zone, as well as monitoring for animals that may be traveling in the direction of or approaching the injury exclusion zone. The prohibitive cost of daily aerial surveys for a survey area of only 777km
(2) The passive acoustic monitoring plan for Apache Alaska Corporation's 2012 survey anticipated the use of a bottom-mounted telemetry buoy to broadcast acoustic measurements using a radio-system link back to a monitoring vessel. Although a buoy was deployed during the first week of surveying under the 2012 IHA, it was not successful. Upon deployment, the buoy immediately turned upside down due to the strong current in Cook Inlet. After retrieval, the buoy was not redeployed and the survey used a single omni-directional hydrophone lowered from the side of the mitigation vessel. During the entire 2012 survey season, Apache's PAM equipment yielded only six confirmed marine mammal detections, one of which was a Cook Inlet beluga whale. The single Cook Inlet beluga whale detection did not, however, result in a shutdown procedure.
Additionally, Joint Base Elmendorf-Fort Richardson, the National Marine Mammal Laboratory, and Alaska Department of Fish & Game conducted a 2012 study (Gillespie
• The PAM system was able to reliably detect all whales approaching or entering the river but still performs less well than a human observer;
• Sounds from vessels in Cook Inlet (
• PAMbouys could be a navigational hazard in Cook Inlet for commercial, subsistence, and sport fishing, as well as the commercial vessel traffic traveling through Cook Inlet;
• The limited testing in a very small area should not become the new standard of monitoring in the entire Cook Inlet. The tide, vessel traffic, bathymetry, and substrate of Cook Inlet are far more complex than the study area;
• It appears the hydrophone must be hardwired to the shore which is not practical for mobile marine seismic operations;
• Currently, deployment of the system is done by walking tripods onto the mudflats. This is not feasible for the vast majority of the SAE project area. Walking onto the mudflats in parts of Cook Inlet also poses a safety risk;
• The study found considerable investment would be necessary to develop an ice and debris proof mounting system. Other issues with hydrophone configuration include: At extreme low tides, the hydrophone was uncovered and therefore not usable; the hydrophone had to be located in such a position so that it could be occasionally visually inspected; hydrophone battery supply has to constantly be checked; the costs and practicalities of long-term hydrophone mounting and data transmission have not been determined.; and only one hydrophone was tested, and SAE would need several hydrophones;
• Observer sightings and acoustic detections of belugas generally corresponded with one another. Thus PAMBuoys would be simply duplicating PSO and aerial efforts;
• The wireless modem that transmits the acoustic data to the “base station” was only tested to 3.2 km; and
• The study did not conclude anything about the detection range of the system, except that it was greater than 400 m.
NMFS has been made aware of an over-the-side hydrophone that has successfully detected belugas in Eagle River, Alaska. Upon beginning operations, SAE has 30 days to acquire a hydrophone that covers a frequency range of 0.1-160 kHz to allow detecting both social and echolocation signals, with a system sensitivity in the range −165 to −185 dB re1 V/μPa, and floor noise spectra similar to Beaufort Sea State 0. SAE will use this hydrophone during nighttime ramp-ups from the mitigation airgun to detect beluga whales, humpbacks, and Steller sea lions that may be within the 160dB disturbance zone.
(3) A post-activity monitoring period of 30 minutes has been added as a requirement for this activity. This monitoring period after the cessation of airgun operations can provide useful observations to compare the behavior and abundance of animals during different scenarios of various noise levels. This change has been noted in the Authorization text.
In a similar comment, the NRDC expressed concern over the number of activities proposed in the same area for the same season referencing applications for: Furie, Bluecrest, Buccaneer, and Apache.
The portion of the statute cited by the MMC refers to the need to require mitigation measures to ensure that the specified activity for which take is authorized in that particular authorization “effects the least practicable impact.” SAE proposed and NMFS has required a rigorous mitigation and monitoring plan to ensure that SAE's program meets that standard. Moreover, NMFS will not issue IHAs to other applicants if the negligible impact standard cannot be met.
Lastly, there are no applications being processed for Furie or Buccaneer. Apache does not anticipate conducting seismic activity in the 2015 season. Additionally, the activities proposed by Bluecrest are not seismic surveys and in a far southerly portion of the Inlet, with no overlap with SAE's activities.
(1) The regulatory text referenced by NRDC in their comments, 40 CFR 1506.1, states that “While work on a required program environmental impact statement is in progress and the action is not covered by an existing program statement, agencies shall not undertake in the interim any major Federal action covered by the program which may significantly affect the quality of the human environment.” NRDC is likely referencing NMFS'
(2) The No Action alternative in NMFS' draft EA for this activity was written to reflect a situation in which NMFS did not authorize the activity and the survey went forward without mitigation and monitoring. However, after further consideration, NMFS has decided to modify the No Action alternative to represent a situation in which NMFS did not issue an authorization and the applicant did not conduct their proposed activity. These changes are reflected in the Final EA.
(3) The third alternative in the EA is a scenario that includes all of the mitigation measures of the preferred alternative, as well as additional cutting edge technologies that have been suggested by commenters in previous authorizations, including NRDC. However, this alternative does not contain the more detailed analysis requested by NRDC because many of the included technologies are not viable at this time. Many are still in the developmental or preliminary testing phase, or do not currently have guidelines pertaining to appropriate operating conditions around marine mammals, such as unmanned aerial vehicles. The No Action alternative and the Preferred alternative both contain more in-depth analyses as appropriate.
Marine mammals most likely to be found in the upper Cook activity area are the beluga whale (
Although there is considerable distributional overlap in the humpback whale stocks that use Alaska, the whales seasonally found in lower Cook Inlet are probably of the Central North Pacific stock. Listed as endangered under the Endangered Species Act (ESA), this stock has recently been estimated at 7,469, with the portion of the stock that feeds in the Gulf of Alaska estimated at 2,845 animals (Allen and Angliss 2014). The Central North Pacific stock winters in Hawaii and summers from British Columbia to the Aleutian Islands (Calambokidis
Humpback use of Cook Inlet is largely confined to lower Cook Inlet. They have been regularly seen near Kachemak Bay during the summer months (Rugh
Minke whales are the smallest of the rorqual group of baleen whales reaching lengths of up to 35 feet. They are also the most common of the baleen whales, although there are no population estimates for the North Pacific, although estimates have been made for some portions of Alaska. Zerbini
During Cook Inlet-wide aerial surveys conducted from 1993 to 2004, minke whales were encountered only twice (1998, 1999), both times off Anchor Point 16 miles northwest of Homer. A minke whale was also reported off Cape Starichkof in 2011 (A. Holmes, pers. comm.) and 2013 (E. Fernandez and C. Hesselbach, pers. comm.), suggesting this location is regularly used by minke whales, including during the winter. Recently, several minke whales were recorded off Cape Starichkof in early summer 2013 during exploratory drilling conducted there (Owl Ridge 2014). There are no records north of Cape Starichkof, and this species is unlikely to be seen in upper Cook Inlet. There is a chance of encountering this
Each spring, the Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale migrates 8,000 kilometers (5,000 miles) northward from breeding lagoons in Baja California to feeding grounds in the Bering and Chukchi seas, reversing their travel again in the fall (Rice and Wolman 1971). Their migration route is for the most part coastal until they reach the feeding grounds. A small portion of whales do not annually complete the full circuit, as small numbers can be found in the summer feeding along the Oregon, Washington, British Columbia, and Alaskan coasts (Rice
Human exploitation reduced this stock to an estimated “few thousand” animals (Jones and Schwartz 2002). However, by the late 1980s, the stock was appearing to reach carrying capacity and estimated to be at 26,600 animals (Jones and Schwartz 2002). By 2002, that stock had been reduced to about 16,000 animals, especially following unusually high mortality events in 1999 and 2000 (Allen and Angliss 2014). The stock has continued to grow since then and is currently estimated at 19,126 animals with a minimum estimate of 18,017 (Carretta
The Cook Inlet beluga whale Distinct Population Segment (DPS) is a small geographically isolated population that is separated from other beluga populations by the Alaska Peninsula. The population is genetically (mtDNA) distinct from other Alaska populations suggesting the Peninsula is an effective barrier to genetic exchange (O'Corry-Crowe
The Cook Inlet beluga DPS was originally estimated at 1,300 whales in 1979 (Calkins 1989) and has been the focus of management concerns since experiencing a dramatic decline in the 1990s. Between 1994 and 1998 the stock declined 47 percent which was attributed to overharvesting by subsistence hunting. Subsistence hunting was estimated to annually remove 10 to 15 percent of the population during this period. Only five belugas have been harvested since 1999, yet the population has continued to decline, with the most recent estimate at only 312 animals (Allen and Angliss 2014). NMFS listed the population as “depleted” in 2000 as a consequence of the decline, and as “endangered” under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) in 2008 when the population failed to recover following a moratorium on subsistence harvest. In April 2011, NMFS designated critical habitat for the beluga under the ESA (Figure 3). The most recent aerial survey, conducted in 2014, suggests that the Cook Inlet population of belugas is comprised of 340 individuals (Shelden
Prior to the decline, this DPS was believed to range throughout Cook Inlet and occasionally into Prince William Sound and Yakutat (Nemeth
Harbor porpoise are small (1.5 meters length), relatively inconspicuous toothed whales. The Gulf of Alaska Stock is distributed from Cape Suckling to Unimak Pass and was most recently estimated at 31,046 animals (Allen and Angliss 2014). They are found primarily in coastal waters less than 100 meters (100 meters) deep (Hobbs and Waite 2010) where they feed on Pacific herring (
Although they have been frequently observed during aerial surveys in Cook Inlet, most sightings are of single animals, and are concentrated at Chinitna and Tuxedni bays on the west side of lower Cook Inlet (Rugh
Dall's porpoise are widely distributed throughout the North Pacific Ocean including Alaska, although they are not found in upper Cook Inlet and the shallower waters of the Bering, Chukchi, and Beaufort Seas (Allen and Angliss 2014). Compared to harbor porpoise, Dall's porpoise prefer the deep offshore and shelf slope waters. The Alaskan population has been estimated at 83,400 animals (Allen and Angliss 2014), making it one of the more common cetaceans in the state. Dall's porpoise have been observed in lower Cook Inlet, including Kachemak Bay and near Anchor Point (Owl Ridge 2014), but sightings there are rare. There is a remote chance that Dall's porpoise might be encountered during seismic operations along the Kenai Peninsula.
Two different stocks of killer whales inhabit the Cook Inlet region of Alaska: The Alaska Resident Stock and the Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, Bering Sea Transient Stock (Allen and Angliss 2014). The resident stock is estimated at
Killer whales are occasionally observed in lower Cook Inlet, especially near Homer and Port Graham (Shelden
The Western Stock of the Steller sea lion is defined as all populations west of longitude 144 °W. to the western end of the Aleutian Islands. The most recent estimate for this stock is 45,649 animals (Allen and Angliss 2014), considerably less than that estimated 140,000 animals in the 1950s (Merrick
Steller sea lions inhabit lower Cook Inlet, especially in the vicinity of Shaw Island and Elizabeth Island (Nagahut Rocks) haulout sites (Rugh
The upper reaches of Cook Inlet may not provide adequate foraging conditions for sea lions for establishing a major haul out presence. Steller sea lions feed largely on walleye pollock (
With more than 150,000 animals state-wide (Allen and Angliss 2014), harbor seals are one of the more common marine mammal species in Alaskan waters. They are most commonly seen hauled out at tidal flats and rocky areas. Harbor seals feed largely on schooling fish such a walleye pollock, Pacific cod, salmon, Pacific herring, eulachon, and squid. Although harbor seals may make seasonal movements in response to prey, they are resident to Alaska and do not migrate.
The Cook Inlet/Shelikof Stock, ranging from approximately Anchorage down along the south side of the Alaska Peninsula to Unimak Pass, has been recently estimated at a stable 22,900 (Allen and Angliss 2014). Large numbers concentrate at the river mouths and embayments of lower Cook Inlet, including the Fox River mouth in Kachemak Bay (Rugh
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components (
Operating active acoustic sources, such as airgun arrays, has the potential for adverse effects on marine mammals. The majority of anticipated impacts will be from the use of acoustic sources.
When considering the influence of various kinds of sound on the marine environment, it is necessary to understand that different kinds of marine life are sensitive to different frequencies of sound. Based on available behavioral data, audiograms have been
• Low frequency cetaceans (13 species of mysticetes): functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 Hz and 30 kHz; (Ketten and Mountain 2009; Tubelli
• Mid-frequency cetaceans (32 species of dolphins, six species of larger toothed whales, and 19 species of beaked and bottlenose whales): Functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz; (Southall
• High frequency cetaceans (eight species of true porpoises, six species of river dolphins, Kogia, the franciscana, and four species of cephalorhynchids): Functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 200 Hz and 180 kHz; (Southall
• Phocid pinnipeds in Water: Functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 75 Hz and 100 kHz; (Hemilä
• Otariid pinnipeds in Water: Functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 100 Hz and 40 kHz. (Reichmuth
As mentioned previously in this document, nine marine mammal species (seven cetacean and two pinniped species) are likely to occur in the seismic survey area. Of the seven cetacean species likely to occur in SAE's project area, three classified as a low-frequency cetaceans (humpback, minke, gray whale), two are classified as mid-frequency cetaceans (beluga and killer whales), and two are classified as a high-frequency cetaceans (Dall's and harbor porpoise) (Southall
The effects of sounds from airgun pulses might include one or more of the following: Tolerance, masking of natural sounds, behavioral disturbance, and temporary or permanent hearing impairment or non-auditory effects (Richardson
The biological significance of many of these behavioral disturbances is difficult to predict. The consequences of behavioral modification to individual fitness can range from none up to potential changes to growth, survival, or reproduction, depending on the context, duration, and degree of behavioral modification. Examples of behavioral modifications that could impact growth, survival or reproduction include: Drastic changes in diving/surfacing/swimming patterns that lead to stranding (such as those associated with beaked whale strandings related to exposure to military mid-frequency tactical sonar); longer-term abandonment of habitat that is specifically important for feeding, reproduction, or other critical needs, or significant disruption of feeding or social interaction resulting in substantive energetic costs, inhibited breeding, or prolonged or permanent cow-calf separation.
The onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise depends on both external factors (characteristics of noise sources and their paths) and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography) and is also difficult to predict (Southall
Toothed whales. Few systematic data are available describing reactions of toothed whales to noise pulses. However, systematic work on sperm whales (Tyack
Seismic operators and marine mammal observers sometimes see dolphins and other small toothed whales near operating airgun arrays, but, in general, there seems to be a tendency for most delphinids to show some limited avoidance of seismic vessels operating large airgun systems. However, some dolphins seem to be attracted to the seismic vessel and floats, and some ride the bow wave of the seismic vessel even when large arrays of airguns are firing. Nonetheless, there have been indications that small toothed whales sometimes move away or maintain a somewhat greater distance from the vessel when a large array of airguns is operating than when it is
Captive bottlenose dolphins and (of more relevance in this project) beluga whales exhibit changes in behavior when exposed to strong pulsed sounds similar in duration to those typically used in seismic surveys (Finneran
Observers stationed on seismic vessels operating off the United Kingdom from 1997-2000 have provided data on the occurrence and behavior of various toothed whales exposed to seismic pulses (Stone, 2003; Gordon
Reactions of toothed whales to large arrays of airguns are variable and, at least for delphinids, seem to be confined to a smaller radius than has been observed for mysticetes. However, based on the limited existing evidence, belugas should not necessarily generally be grouped with delphinids in the “less responsive” category.
Pinnipeds. Pinnipeds are not likely to show a strong avoidance reaction to the airgun sources used. Visual monitoring from seismic vessels has shown only slight (if any) avoidance of airguns by pinnipeds and only slight (if any) changes in behavior. Monitoring work in the Alaskan Beaufort Sea during 1996-2001 provided considerable information regarding the behavior of Arctic ice seals exposed to seismic pulses (Harris
Masking occurs when anthropogenic sounds and signals (that the animal utilizes) overlap at both spectral and temporal scales. For the airgun sound generated from the seismic surveys, sound will consist of low frequency (under 500 Hz) pulses with extremely short durations (less than one second). Lower frequency man-made sounds are more likely to affect detection of potentially important natural sounds such as surf and prey noise, or communication calls for low frequency specialists. There is little concern regarding masking near the sound source due to the brief duration of these pulses and relatively longer silence between air gun shots (approximately 12 seconds). However, at long distances (over tens of kilometers away), due to multipath propagation and reverberation, the durations of airgun pulses can be “stretched” to seconds with long decays (Madsen
This could affect communication signals used by low frequency mysticetes when they occur near the noise band and thus reduce the communication space of animals (
Redundancy and context can also facilitate detection of weak signals. These phenomena may help marine mammals detect weak sounds in the presence of natural or manmade noise. Most masking studies in marine mammals present the test signal and the masking noise from the same direction. The sound localization abilities of marine mammals suggest that, if signal and noise come from different directions, masking would not be as severe as the usual types of masking studies might suggest (Richardson
These data demonstrating adaptations for reduced masking pertain mainly to the very high frequency echolocation signals of toothed whales. There is less information about the existence of corresponding mechanisms at moderate or low frequencies or in other types of marine mammals. For example, Zaitseva
The following physiological mechanisms are thought to play a role in inducing auditory TS: Effects to sensory hair cells in the inner ear that reduce their sensitivity, modification of the chemical environment within the sensory cells, residual muscular activity in the middle ear, displacement of certain inner ear membranes, increased blood flow, and post-stimulatory reduction in both efferent and sensory neural output (Southall
PTS is considered auditory injury (Southall
Although the published body of scientific literature contains numerous theoretical studies and discussion papers on hearing impairments that can occur with exposure to a loud sound, only a few studies provide empirical information on the levels at which noise-induced loss in hearing sensitivity occurs in nonhuman animals. For marine mammals, published data are limited to the captive bottlenose dolphin, beluga, harbor porpoise, and Yangtze finless porpoise (Finneran
Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
Given the higher level of sound necessary to cause PTS as compared with TTS, it is considerably less likely that PTS would occur during the seismic surveys in Cook Inlet. Cetaceans generally avoid the immediate area around operating seismic vessels, as do some other marine mammals. Some pinnipeds show avoidance reactions to airguns, but their avoidance reactions are generally not as strong or consistent as those of cetaceans, and occasionally they seem to be attracted to operating seismic vessels (NMFS, 2010).
Classic stress responses begin when an animal's central nervous system perceives a potential threat to its homeostasis. That perception triggers stress responses regardless of whether a stimulus actually threatens the animal; the mere perception of a threat is sufficient to trigger a stress response (Moberg, 2000; Sapolsky
In the case of many stressors, an animal's first and most economical (in terms of biotic costs) response is behavioral avoidance of the potential stressor or avoidance of continued exposure to a stressor. An animal's second line of defense to stressors involves the sympathetic part of the autonomic nervous system and the classical “fight or flight” response, which includes the cardiovascular system, the gastrointestinal system, the exocrine glands, and the adrenal medulla to produce changes in heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal activity that humans commonly associate with “stress.” These responses have a relatively short duration and may or may not have significant long-term effects on an animal's welfare.
An animal's third line of defense to stressors involves its neuroendocrine or sympathetic nervous systems; the system that has received the most study has been the hypothalmus-pituitary-adrenal system (also known as the HPA axis in mammals or the hypothalamus-pituitary-interrenal axis in fish and some reptiles). Unlike stress responses associated with the autonomic nervous system, virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction (Moberg, 1987; Rivier, 1995), altered metabolism (Elasser
The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and distress is the biotic cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose a risk to the animal's welfare. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy resources must be diverted from other biotic functions, which impair those functions that experience the diversion. For example, when mounting a stress response diverts energy away from growth in young animals, those animals may experience stunted growth. When mounting a stress response diverts energy from a fetus, an animal's reproductive success and fitness will suffer. In these cases, the animals will have entered a pre-pathological or pathological state which is called “distress” (sensu Seyle, 1950) or “allostatic loading” (sensu McEwen and Wingfield, 2003). This pathological state will last until the animal replenishes its biotic reserves sufficient to restore normal function. Note that these examples involved a long-term (days or weeks) stress response due to exposure to stimuli.
Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses have also been documented fairly well through controlled experiment; because this physiology exists in every vertebrate that has been studied, it is not surprising that stress responses and their costs have been documented in both laboratory and free-living animals (for examples see, Holberton
For example, Jansen (1998) reported on the relationship between acoustic exposures and physiological responses that are indicative of stress responses in humans (
Hearing is one of the primary senses marine mammals use to gather information about their environment and communicate with conspecifics. Although empirical information on the effects of sensory impairment (TTS, PTS, and acoustic masking) on marine mammals remains limited, we assume
In general, very little is known about the potential for strong, anthropogenic underwater sounds to cause non-auditory physical effects in marine mammals. Such effects, if they occur at all, would presumably be limited to short distances and to activities that extend over a prolonged period. The available data do not allow identification of a specific exposure level above which non-auditory effects can be expected (Southall
However, in past IHA notices for seismic surveys, commenters have referenced two stranding events allegedly associated with seismic activities, one off Baja California and a second off Brazil. NMFS has addressed this concern several times, including in the
Beluga whale strandings in Cook Inlet are not uncommon; however, these events often coincide with extreme tidal fluctuations (“spring tides”) or killer whale sightings (Shelden
Active acoustic sources other than the airguns will be used for SAE's oil and gas exploration seismic survey program in Cook Inlet. The specifications for the pingers (source levels and frequency ranges) were provided earlier in this document. In general, pingers are known to cause behavioral disturbance and are commonly used to deter marine mammals from commercial fishing gear or fish farms. Due to the potential to change marine mammal behavior, shut downs described for airguns will also be applied to pinger use.
Vessel activity and noise associated with vessel activity will temporarily increase in the action area during SAE's seismic survey as a result of the operation of nine vessels. To minimize the effects of vessels and noise associated with vessel activity, SAE will follow NMFS's Marine Mammal Viewing Guidelines and Regulations and will alter heading or speed if a marine mammal gets too close to a vessel. In addition, vessels will be operating at slow speed (4-5 knots) when conducting surveys and in a purposeful manner to and from work sites in as direct a route as possible. Marine mammal monitoring observers and passive acoustic devices will alert vessel captains as animals are detected to ensure safe and effective measures are applied to avoid coming into direct contact with marine mammals. Therefore, NMFS neither anticipates nor authorizes takes of marine mammals from ship strikes.
Odontocetes, such as beluga whales, killer whales, and harbor porpoises, often show tolerance to vessel activity; however, they may react at long distances if they are confined by ice, shallow water, or were previously harassed by vessels (Richardson
There are few data published on pinniped responses to vessel activity, and most of the information is anecdotal (Richardson
Although some of SAE's equipment contains cables or lines, the risk of entanglement is extremely remote. Additionally, mortality from entanglement is not anticipated. The
The primary potential impacts to marine mammal habitat and other marine species are associated with elevated sound levels produced by airguns and other active acoustic sources. However, other potential impacts to the surrounding habitat from physical disturbance are also possible. This section describes the potential impacts to marine mammal habitat from the specified activity. Because the marine mammals in the area feed on fish and/or invertebrates there is also information on the species typically preyed upon by the marine mammals in the area. As noted earlier, upper Cook Inlet is an important feeding and calving area for the Cook Inlet beluga whale and critical habitat has been designated for this species in the seismic survey area.
Fish are the primary prey species for marine mammals in upper Cook Inlet. Beluga whales feed on a variety of fish, shrimp, squid, and octopus (Burns and Seaman, 1986). Common prey species in Knik Arm include salmon, eulachon and cod. Harbor seals feed on fish such as pollock, cod, capelin, eulachon, Pacific herring, and salmon, as well as a variety of benthic species, including crabs, shrimp, and cephalopods. Harbor seals are also opportunistic feeders with their diet varying with season and location. The preferred diet of the harbor seal in the Gulf of Alaska consists of pollock, octopus, capelin, eulachon, and Pacific herring (Calkins, 1989). Other prey species include cod, flat fishes, shrimp, salmon, and squid (Hoover, 1988). Harbor porpoises feed primarily on Pacific herring, cod, whiting (hake), pollock, squid, and octopus (Leatherwood
With regard to fish as a prey source for cetaceans and pinnipeds, fish are known to hear and react to sounds and to use sound to communicate (Tavolga
Fishes produce sounds that are associated with behaviors that include territoriality, mate search, courtship, and aggression. It has also been speculated that sound production may provide the means for long distance communication and communication under poor underwater visibility conditions (Zelick
Since objects in the water scatter sound, fish are able to detect these objects through monitoring the ambient noise. Therefore, fish are probably able to detect prey, predators, conspecifics, and physical features by listening to environmental sounds (Hawkins, 1981). There are two sensory systems that enable fish to monitor the vibration-based information of their surroundings. The two sensory systems, the inner ear and the lateral line, constitute the acoustico-lateralis system.
Although the hearing sensitivities of very few fish species have been studied to date, it is becoming obvious that the intra- and inter-specific variability is considerable (Coombs, 1981). Nedwell
Fish are sensitive to underwater impulsive sounds due to swim bladder resonance. As the pressure wave passes through a fish, the swim bladder is rapidly squeezed as the high pressure wave, and then the under pressure component of the wave, passes through the fish. The swim bladder may repeatedly expand and contract at the high sound pressure levels, creating pressure on the internal organs surrounding the swim bladder.
Literature relating to the impacts of sound on marine fish species can be divided into the following categories: (1) Pathological effects; (2) physiological effects; and (3) behavioral effects. Pathological effects include lethal and sub-lethal physical damage to fish; physiological effects include primary and secondary stress responses; and behavioral effects include changes in exhibited behaviors of fish. Behavioral changes might be a direct reaction to a detected sound or a result of the anthropogenic sound masking natural sounds that the fish normally detect and to which they respond. The three types of effects are often interrelated in complex ways. For example, some physiological and behavioral effects could potentially lead to the ultimate pathological effect of mortality. Hastings and Popper (2005) reviewed what is known about the effects of sound on fishes and identified studies needed to address areas of uncertainty relative to measurement of sound and the responses of fishes. Popper
The level of sound at which a fish will react or alter its behavior is usually well above the detection level. Fish have been found to react to sounds when the sound level increased to about 20 dB above the detection level of 120 dB (Ona, 1988); however, the response threshold can depend on the time of year and the fish's physiological condition (Engas
Investigations of fish behavior in relation to vessel noise (Olsen
Carlson (1994), in a review of 40 years of studies concerning the use of underwater sound to deter salmonids from hazardous areas at hydroelectric dams and other facilities, concluded that salmonids were able to respond to low-frequency sound and to react to sound sources within a few feet of the source. He speculated that the reason that underwater sound had no effect on salmonids at distances greater than a few feet is because they react to water particle motion/acceleration, not sound pressures. Detectable particle motion is produced within very short distances of a sound source, although sound pressure waves travel farther.
SAE's seismic survey requires the deployment of a submersible recording system in the inter-tidal and marine zones. An autonomous “nodal” (
In addition, seismic noise will radiate throughout the water column from airguns and pingers until it dissipates to background levels. No studies have demonstrated that seismic noise affects the life stages, condition, or amount of food resources (fish, invertebrates, eggs) used by marine mammals, except when exposed to sound levels within a few meters of the seismic source or in few very isolated cases. NMFS has also required a seasonal closure near the Susitna River Delta from April 15 to October 15, which is an essential foraging location for Cook Inlet belugas. Where fish or invertebrates did respond to seismic noise, the effects were temporary and of short duration. Consequently, disturbance to fish species due to the activities associated with the seismic survey (i.e, placement and retrieval of nodes and noise from sound sources) will be short term and fish will be expected to return to their pre-disturbance behavior once seismic survey activities cease.
Based on the preceding discussion, the activity is not expected to have any habitat-related effects that could cause significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations.
In order to issue an incidental take authorization (ITA) under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (where relevant).
For the mitigation measures, SAE listed the following protocols to be implemented during its seismic survey program in Cook Inlet.
SAE will conduct both daytime and nighttime operations. Nighttime operations will be initiated only if a “mitigation airgun” (typically the 10 in
SAE will establish exclusion zones to avoid Level A harassment (“injury exclusion zone”) of all marine mammals and to avoid Level B harassment (“disturbance exclusion zone”) of any beluga whales or groups of five or more killer whales or harbor porpoises detected within the designated zones. The injury exclusion zone will correspond to the area around the source within which received levels equal or exceed 180 dB re 1 µPa [rms] for cetaceans and 190 dB re 1 µPa [rms] for pinnipeds, and SAE will shut down or power down operations if any marine mammals are seen approaching or entering this zone (more detail below). The disturbance exclusion zone will correspond to the area around the source within which received levels equal or exceed 160 dB re 1 µPa [rms] and SAE will implement power down and/or shutdown measures, as appropriate, if any beluga whales, humpback whales, Steller sea lions, or group of five or more killer whales or harbor porpoises are seen entering or approaching the disturbance exclusion zone.
A power down is the immediate reduction in the number of operating energy sources from a full array firing to a mitigation airgun. A shutdown is the immediate cessation of firing of all energy sources. The arrays will be immediately powered down whenever a marine mammal is sighted approaching close to or within the applicable exclusion zone of the full arrays but is outside the applicable exclusion zone of the single source. If a marine mammal is sighted within the applicable exclusion zone of the single energy source, the entire array will be shutdown (
Visual monitoring by qualified PSOs will continue for 30 minutes after a shutdown or at the end of a period of seismic surveying to monitor for animals returning to the previously ensonified area.
A ramp-up of an airgun array provides a gradual increase in sound levels, and involves a step-wise increase in the number and total volume of air guns firing until the full volume is achieved. The purpose of a ramp-up (or “soft start”) is to “warn” cetaceans and pinnipeds in the vicinity of the airguns and to provide the time for them to leave the area and thus avoid any potential injury or impairment of their hearing abilities.
During the seismic survey, the seismic operator will ramp up the airgun array slowly at a rate of no more than 6 dB per 5-minute period. Ramp-up is used at the start of airgun operations, after a power- or shut-down, and after any period of greater than 10 minutes in duration without airgun operations (“extended shutdown”).
A full ramp-up after a shutdown will not begin until there has been a minimum of 30 minutes of observation of the applicable exclusion zone by PSOs to assure that no marine mammals are present. The entire exclusion zone must be visible during the 30-minute lead-in to a full ramp up. If the entire exclusion zone is not visible, then ramp-up from a cold start cannot begin. If a marine mammal(s) is sighted within the injury exclusion zone during the 30-minute watch prior to ramp-up, ramp-up will be delayed until the marine mammal(s) is sighted outside of the zone or the animal(s) is not sighted for at least 15-30 minutes: 15 minutes for small odontocetes and pinnipeds (
If a marine mammal is detected outside the injury exclusion zone and, based on its position and the relative motion, is likely to enter that zone, the vessel's speed and/or direct course may, when practical and safe, be changed to avoid the marine mammal and also minimize the effect on the seismic program. This can be used in coordination with a power down procedure. The marine mammal activities and movements relative to the seismic and support vessels will be closely monitored to ensure that the marine mammal does not approach within the applicable exclusion radius. If the mammal appears likely to enter the exclusion radius, further mitigative actions will be taken,
The following are additional protective measures for beluga whales and groups of five or more killer whales and harbor porpoises. Specifically, a 160-dB vessel monitoring zone will be established and monitored in Cook Inlet during all seismic surveys. If a beluga whale or groups of five or more killer whales and/or harbor porpoises are visually sighted approaching or within the 160-dB disturbance zone, survey activity will not commence until the animals are no longer present within the 160-dB disturbance zone. Whenever any beluga whales or groups of five or more killer whales and/or harbor porpoises are detected approaching or within the 160-dB disturbance zone, the airguns may be powered down before the animal is within the 160-dB disturbance zone, as an alternative to a complete shutdown. If a power down is not sufficient, the sound source(s) will be shut-down until the animals are no longer present within the 160-dB zone.
In addition to the mitigation measures above, NMFS requires implementation of the following mitigation measures.
SAE will not operate airguns within 10 miles (16 km) of the mean higher high water (MHHW) line of the Susitna Delta (Beluga River to the Little Susitna River) between April 15 and October 15. The purpose of this mitigation measure is to protect beluga whales in the designated critical habitat in this area that is important for beluga whale feeding and calving during the spring and fall months. The range of the setback required by NMFS was designated to protect this important habitat area and also to create an effective buffer where sound does not encroach on this habitat. This seasonal exclusion will be in effect from April 15-October 15. Activities may occur within this area from October 16-April 14.
A “mitigation airgun” (10in
When nighttime operations ramp up from the mitigation airgun, SAE will be required to use passive acoustic monitoring for at least 30 minutes prior to ramp-up to detect beluga whales, humpback whales, and Steller sea lions that may be within the 160dB disturbance zone. The support vessel must remain sufficiently distant from the seismic source vessel to ensure that beluga whales, if present and vocalizing, can be detected. Passive acoustic monitoring must continue throughout seismic operations occurring between local sunset and sunrise.
NMFS requires that SAE must suspend seismic operations if a live marine mammal stranding is reported in Cook Inlet coincident to, or within 72 hours of, seismic survey activities involving the use of airguns (regardless of any suspected cause of the stranding). The shutdown must occur if the animal is within a distance two times that of the 160 dB isopleth of the largest airgun array configuration in use. This distance was chosen to create an additional buffer beyond the distance at which animals would typically be considered harassed, as animals involved in a live stranding event are likely compromised, with potentially increased susceptibility to stressors, and the goal is to decrease the likelihood that they are further disturbed or impacted by the seismic survey, regardless of what the original cause of the stranding event was. Shutdown procedures will remain in effect until NMFS determines and advises SAE that all live animals involved in the stranding have left the area (either of their own volition or following herding by responders).
Finally, NMFS requires that if any marine mammal species are encountered during seismic activities for which take is not authorized, and are likely to be exposed to sound pressure levels (SPLs) greater than or equal to 160 dB re 1 µPa (rms), then SAE must alter speed or course, power down or shut down the sound source to avoid take of those species.
NMFS has carefully evaluated SAE's mitigation measures and considered a range of other measures in the context of ensuring that NMFS prescribes the
• The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measures are expected to minimize adverse impacts to marine mammals;
• The proven or likely efficacy of the specific measure to minimize adverse impacts as planned; and
• The practicability of the measure for applicant implementation.
Any mitigation measure(s) prescribed by NMFS should be able to accomplish, have a reasonable likelihood of accomplishing (based on current science), or contribute to the accomplishment of one or more of the general goals listed below:
1. Avoidance or minimization of injury or death of marine mammals wherever possible (goals 2, 3, and 4 may contribute to this goal).
2. A reduction in the numbers of marine mammals (total number or number at biologically important time or location) exposed to received levels of seismic airguns, or other activities expected to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing harassment takes only).
3. A reduction in the number of times (total number or number at biologically important time or location) individuals would be exposed to received levels of seismic airguns or other activities expected to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing harassment takes only).
4. A reduction in the intensity of exposures (either total number or number at biologically important time or location) to received levels of seismic airguns or other activities expected to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing the severity of harassment takes only).
5. Avoidance or minimization of adverse effects to marine mammal habitat, paying special attention to the food base, activities that block or limit passage to or from biologically important areas, permanent destruction of habitat, or temporary destruction/disturbance of habitat during a biologically important time.
6. For monitoring directly related to mitigation—an increase in the probability of detecting marine mammals, thus allowing for more effective implementation of the mitigation.
Based on our evaluation of the applicant's mitigation measures, as well as other measures considered by NMFS, NMFS has determined that the mitigation measures provide the means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammals species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
Vessel-based monitoring for marine mammals will be done by experienced PSOs throughout the period of marine survey activities. PSOs will monitor the occurrence and behavior of marine mammals near the survey vessel during all daylight periods (nautical dawn to nautical dusk) during operation and during most daylight periods when airgun operations are not occurring. PSO duties will include watching for and identifying marine mammals, recording their numbers, distances, and reactions to the survey operations, and documenting observed “take by harassment” as defined by NMFS.
A minimum number of seven PSOs (two per source vessel and two per support vessel, with one additional PSO on the mitigation vessel to operate the hydrophone) will be required onboard the survey vessel to meet the following criteria: (1) 100 percent monitoring coverage during all periods of survey operations in daylight (nautical twilight-dawn to nautical twilight-dusk; (2) maximum of 4 consecutive hours on watch per PSO; and (3) maximum of 12 hours of watch time per day per PSO.
PSO teams will consist of NMFS-approved field biologists. An experienced field crew leader will supervise the PSO team onboard the survey vessel. SAE will have PSOs aboard three vessels: the two source vessels and one support vessel (
The observer(s) will watch for marine mammals from the best available vantage point on the source and support vessels, typically the flying bridge. The observer(s) will scan systematically with the unaided eye and 7x50 reticle binoculars, assisted by 40x80 long-range binoculars.
All observations will be recorded in a standardized format. When a mammal sighting is made, the following information about the sighting will be recorded:
• Species, group size, age/size/sex categories (if determinable), sighting cue, behavior when first sighted and after initial sighting, time of sighting, heading (if consistent), bearing and distance from the PSO, direction and speed relative to vessel, apparent reaction to activities (
• Time, location, speed, activity of the vessel (
• The positions of other vessel(s) in the vicinity of the PSO location.
The ship's position, speed of support vessels, and water temperature, water depth, sea state, ice cover, visibility, and sun glare will also be recorded at the start and end of each observation watch, every 30 minutes during a watch, and whenever there is a change in any of those variables.
In addition to the vessel-based PSOs, SAE will utilize shore-based monitoring daily in the event of summer seismic activity occurring nearshore to Cook Inlet beluga Critical Habitat Area 1, to visually monitor for marine mammals. The shore-based PSOs will scan the area prior to, during, and after the airgun operations and will be in contact with the vessel-based PSOs via radio to communicate sightings of marine mammals approaching or within the project area. This communication will allow the vessel-based observers to go on a “heightened” state of alert regarding occurrence of marine mammals in the area and aid in timely implementation of mitigation measures.
Immediate reports will be submitted to NMFS if 25 belugas are detected in the Level B disturbance exclusion zone to evaluate and make necessary adjustments to monitoring and mitigation. If the number of detected
SAE will submit a weekly field report to NMFS Headquarters as well as the Alaska Regional Office, no later than close of business each Thursday during the weeks when in-water seismic survey activities take place. The weekly field reports will summarize species detected (number, location, distance from seismic vessel, behavior), in-water activity occurring at the time of the sighting (discharge volume of array at time of sighting, seismic activity at time of sighting, visual plots of sightings, and number of power downs and shutdowns), behavioral reactions to in-water activities, and the number of marine mammals exposed.
Monthly reports will be submitted to NMFS for all months during which in-water seismic activities take place. The monthly report will contain and summarize the following information:
• Dates, times, locations, heading, speed, weather, sea conditions (including Beaufort sea state and wind force), and associated activities during all seismic operations and marine mammal sightings.
• Species, number, location, distance from the vessel, and behavior of any sighted marine mammals, as well as associated seismic activity (number of power-downs and shutdowns), observed throughout all monitoring activities.
• An estimate of the number (by species) of: (i) Pinnipeds that have been exposed to the seismic activity (based on visual observation) at received levels greater than or equal to 160 dB re 1 µPa (rms) and/or 190 dB re 1 µPa (rms) with a discussion of any specific behaviors those individuals exhibited; and (ii) cetaceans that have been exposed to the seismic activity (based on visual observation) at received levels greater than or equal to 160 dB re 1 µPa (rms) and/or 180 dB re 1 µPa (rms) with a discussion of any specific behaviors those individuals exhibited.
• A description of the implementation and effectiveness of the: (i) Terms and conditions of the Biological Opinion's Incidental Take Statement (ITS); and (ii) mitigation measures of the IHA. For the Biological Opinion, the report shall confirm the implementation of each Term and Condition, as well as any conservation recommendations, and describe their effectiveness for minimizing the adverse effects of the action on ESA-listed marine mammals.
SAE will submit an annual report to NMFS's Permits and Conservation Division within 90 days after the end of operations on the water or at least 90 days prior to requiring a subsequent authorization, whichever comes first. The annual report will include:
• Summaries of monitoring effort (
• Analyses of the effects of various factors influencing detectability of marine mammals (
• Species composition, occurrence, and distribution of marine mammal sightings, including date, water depth, numbers, age/size/gender categories (if determinable), group sizes, and ice cover.
• Analyses of the effects of survey operations.
• Sighting rates of marine mammals during periods with and without seismic survey activities (and other variables that could affect detectability), such as: (i) Initial sighting distances versus survey activity state; (ii) closest point of approach versus survey activity state; (iii) observed behaviors and types of movements versus survey activity state; (iv) numbers of sightings/individuals seen versus survey activity state; (v) distribution around the source vessels versus survey activity state; and (vi) numbers of animals detected in the 160 dB harassment (disturbance exclusion) zone.
NMFS will review the draft annual report. SAE must then submit a final annual report to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, within 30 days after receiving comments from NMFS on the draft annual report. If NMFS has no comment on the draft annual report, the draft report shall be considered to be the final report.
In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this Authorization, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury or mortality (
• Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the incident;
• Name and type of vessel involved;
• Vessel's speed during and leading up to the incident;
• Description of the incident;
• Status of all sound source use in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
• Water depth;
• Environmental conditions (
• Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
• Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
• Fate of the animal(s); and
• Photographs or video footage of the animal(s) (if equipment is available).
Activities shall not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS shall work with SAE to determine what is necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. SAE may not resume their activities until notified by NMFS via letter or email, or telephone.
In the event that SAE discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead PSO determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
In the event that SAE discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead PSO determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the authorized activities (
While SAE has previously applied for Authorizations for work in Cook Inlet, Alaska, work was not conducted upon receiving the Authorization. SAE has previously conducted work under Incidental Harassment Authorizations in the Beaufort Sea.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild; or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering [Level B harassment]. Only take by Level B behavioral harassment is anticipated as a result of the seismic survey program with mitigation measures. Anticipated impacts to marine mammals are associated with noise propagation from the sound sources (
SAE requests authorization to take nine marine mammal species by Level B harassment. These nine marine mammal species are: Cook Inlet beluga whale; humpback whale; minke whale; killer whale; harbor porpoise; Dall's porpoise; gray whale; harbor seal; and Steller sea lion.
For impulse sounds, such as those produced by airgun(s) used in the seismic survey, NMFS uses the 160 dB re 1 μPa (rms) isopleth to indicate the onset of Level B harassment. The current Level A (injury) harassment threshold is 180 dB (rms) for cetaceans and 190 dB (rms) for pinnipeds. The NMFS annual aerial survey data from 2002-2012 was used to derive density estimates for each species (number of individuals/km
To estimate potential takes by Level B harassment for this Authorization, as well as for mitigation radii to be implemented by PSOs, ranges to the 160 dB (rms), 180 dB, and 190 dB isopleths were estimated at three different water depths (5 m, 25 m, and 45 m) . The distances to this threshold for the nearshore survey locations are provided in Table 4 in SAE's application. The distances to the thresholds provided in Table 4 in SAE's application correspond to the broadside and endfire directions.
Compared to the airguns, the relevant isopleths for the positioning pinger are quite small. The distances to the 190, 180, and 160 dB (rms) isopleths are 1 m, 3 m, and 25 m (3.3, 10, and 82 ft), respectively.
SAE used one method to estimate densities for Cook Inlet beluga whales and another method for the other marine mammals in the area expected to be taken by harassment. Both methods are described in this document.
In similar fashion to a previous IHA issued to Apache, SAE used a habitat-based model developed by Goetz
Densities of other marine mammal species in the project area were estimated from the annual aerial surveys conducted by NMFS for Cook Inlet beluga whale between 2000 and 2012 in June (Rugh
Table 5 in SAE's application provides a summary of the results of NMFS aerial survey data collected in June from 2000 to 2012. To estimate density of marine mammals, total number of individuals (other species) observed for the entire survey area by year (surveys usually last several days) was divided by the approximate total area surveyed for each year (density = individuals/km
As a result of discussions with NMFS, SAE has used the NMML model (Goetz
Based on information using Goetz
In order to estimate when that level is reached, SAE is using a formula based on the total potential area of each seismic survey project zone (including the 160 dB buffer) and the average density of beluga whales for each zone. Daily take is calculated as the product of a daily ensonified area times the density in that area. Then daily take is summed across all the days of the survey until the survey approaches 30 takes.
SAE will limit surveying in the seismic survey area (Zones 1 and 2 presented in Figures 1 and 2 of SAE's application) to ensure a maximum of 30 beluga takes during the open water season. In order to ensure that SAE does not exceed 30 beluga whale takes, the following equation is being used:
This formula also allows SAE to have flexibility to prioritize survey locations in response to local weather, ice, and operational constraints. SAE may choose to survey portions of a zone or a zone in its entirety, and the analysis in this Authorization takes this into account. Using this formula, if SAE surveys the entire area of Zone 1 (1,319 km
Operations are required to cease once SAE has conducted seismic data acquisition in an area where multiplying the applicable density by the total ensonified area out to the 160-dB isopleth equaled 30 beluga whales, using the equation provided above. If 30 belugas are visually observed before the calculation reaches 30 belugas, SAE is also required to cease survey activity.
Although the density for humpback whales in Cook Inlet according to NMML surveys is 0.0024 animals per km
The density estimate used in the Authorization for Steller sea lions included NMFS data that includes animals at sea lion haulouts that are within Cook Inlet, but are well south of the action area. An anomalous sighting of 20 animals occurred along the southern edge of the action area, far from any known haulouts or rookeries (such a large congregation of Steller sea lions far from haulouts or rookeries is unusual) which is included in NMFS' revised estimate of Steller sea lion take, but does not include animals observed outside of the action area. Based on monitoring reports of other seismic activities in Cook Inlet, there are typically one or two Steller sea lions within the action area per year. Two individuals were observed by Apache PSOs in 2014 and three groups totaling about four animals were observed in 2012. Because of this data, NMFS has revised its take estimate to 25 individuals, which will account for what one may expect seismic vessels implementing mitigation measures to encounter in a year, but allows for the possibility that the survey may encounter an anomalously large group such as was observed by NMFS aerial observers near the southern portion of the action area in 2006.
While the NMML survey data reports an average density of 0.008281 Steller sea lions per km
As noted above, using the daily ensonified area × number of survey days × density method results in a reasonable estimate of the instances of take, but likely significantly overestimates the number of individual animals expected to be taken. With most species, even this overestimated number is still very small, and additional analysis is not really necessary to ensure minor impacts. However, because of the number and density of harbor seals in the area, a more accurate understanding of the number of individuals likely taken is necessary to fully analyze the impacts and ensure that the total number of harbor seals taken is small.
As described below, we believe that the modeled number of estimated instances of take referenced above may actually be high, based on monitoring results from the area. The density estimate from NMFS aerial surveys includes harbor seal haulouts far south of the action area that may never move to an ensonified area. Further, we believe that we can reasonably estimate the comparative number of individual harbor seals that will likely be taken, based both on monitoring data, operational information, and an a general understanding of harbor seal habitat use.
Using the daily ensonified area × number of survey days × density formula (based on surveying 6.7 source lines per day), the number of instances of exposure above the 160-dB threshold estimated for SAE's activity in Cook Inlet is 19,315. However, when we examine monitoring data from previous activities, it is clear this number is an overestimate—compared to both aerial and vessel based observation efforts. Apache's monitoring report from 2012 details that they saw 2,474 harbor seals from 29 aerial flights (over 29 days) in the vicinity of the survey during the month of June, which is the peak month for harbor seal haulout. In surveying the literature, correction factors to account for harbor seals in water based on land counts vary from 1.2 to 1.65 (CITE). Using the most conservative factor of 1.65 (allowing us to consider that some of the other individuals on land may have entered the water at other points in day), if Apache saw 2,474 seals hauled out then there were an estimated 1,500 seals in the water during those 29 days. If, because there were only 29 surveys, we conservatively multiply by 5.5 to estimate the number of seals that might have been seen if the aerial surveys were conducted for 160 days, this yields an estimate of 8,250 instances of seal exposure in the water, which is far less than the estimated 19,315. That the number of potential instances of exposure is likely less than 19,315 is also supported by the visual observations from PSOs on board vessels. PSOs sighted a total of 285 seals in water over 147 days of activity which would rise to about 310 is adjusted to reflect 160 days of effort. Given the size of the disturbance zone for these activities, it is likely that not all harbor seals that were exposed were seen by PSOs, however 310 is still far less than the estimate of 19,315 given by the density calculations.
Further, based on the residential nature of harbor seals and the number of patches SAE plans to shoot, it is possible to reasonably estimate the number of individual harbor seals exposed, given the instances of exposures. Based on an estimate of 32 patches in 160 days, SAE will shoot one patch in 5 days. If seals are generally returning to haulouts in the survey area over the 5 days of any given patch shoot, than any given seal in the area could be exposed a minimum of one day and a maximum of all five days, with an average of 3 days. If the original exposure estimate using density is 19,315 exposures, then when divided by three (the average number of times an animal could be exposed during the shooting of one patch), the expected number of individuals exposed is 6,438, which is approximately 28% of the population. This number is also likely an overestimate given that adjoining patches may be shot, meaning the same seals could be exposed over multiple patches. Given these multiple methods, as well as the behavioral preferences of harbor seals for haulouts in certain parts of the Inlet (Montgomery
The estimated takes of other Cook Inlet marine mammals that may be potentially harassed during the seismic surveys was calculated by multiplying the following:
• Average density estimates (derived from NMFS aerial surveys from 2000-2012 and presented in Table 3 in this document)
• the area ensonified by levels ≥160 dB re μPa rms in one day (calculated using the total ensonified area per day of 414.92 km
• the number of potential survey days (160).
This equation provides the number of instances of take that will occur in the duration of the survey, but overestimates the number of individual animals taken because not every exposure on every successive day is expected to be a new individual. Especially with resident species, re-
SAE anticipates that a crew will collect seismic data for 8-10 hours per day over approximately 160 days over the course of 8 to 9 months each year. It is assumed that over the course of these 160 days, no more than 777 km
Table 4 outlines the density estimates used to estimate Level B harassment takes, the requested Level B harassment take levels, the abundance of each species in Cook Inlet, the percentage of each species or stock estimated to be taken, and current population trends.
Negligible impact is “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival” (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, the discussion of our analyses applies to all the species listed in Table 4, divided in some places by group, given than the anticipated effects of the seismic survey on marine mammals are expected to be relatively similar in nature. Where there is information about the size, status, or structure of any species or stock that would lead to a different analysus (
Given the required mitigation and related monitoring, no injuries or mortalities are anticipated to occur as a result of SAE's seismic survey in Cook Inlet, and none are authorized. Additionally, animals in the area are not expected to incur hearing impairment (
The addition of nine vessels, and noise due to vessel operations associated with the seismic survey, is not outside the present experience of marine mammals in Cook Inlet, although levels may increase locally. Given the large number of vessels in Cook Inlet and the apparent habituation to vessels by Cook Inlet beluga whales and the other marine mammals that may occur in the area, vessel activity and noise is not expected to have effects that could cause significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations.
Cook Inlet beluga whales, the western DPS of Steller sea lions, and Central North Pacific humpback whales are listed as endangered under the ESA. These stocks are also considered depleted under the MMPA. The estimated annual rate of decline for Cook Inlet beluga whales was 0.6 percent between 2002 and 2012. Steller sea lion trends for the western stock are variable throughout the region with some decreasing and others remaining stable or even indicating slight increases. The Central North Pacific population of humpbacks is known to be increasing, with different techniques predicting abundance increases between 4.9 to 7 percent annually. The other seven species that may be taken by harassment during SAE's seismic survey program are not listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA nor as depleted under the MMPA.
Cetaceans. Odontocete (including Cook Inlet beluga whales, killer whales, and harbor porpoises) reactions to seismic energy pulses are usually thought to be limited to shorter distances from the airgun(s) than are those of mysticetes, in part because odontocete low-frequency hearing is assumed to be less sensitive than that of mysticetes. Belugas in the Canadian Beaufort Sea in summer appear to be
Potential impacts to marine mammal habitat were discussed previously in this document (see the “Anticipated Effects on Habitat” section). Although some disturbance is possible to food sources of marine mammals, the impacts are anticipated to be minor enough as to not affect annual rates of recruitment or survival of marine mammals in the area. Based on the size of Cook Inlet where feeding by marine mammals occurs versus the localized area of the marine survey activities, any missed feeding opportunities in the direct project area will be minor based on the fact that other feeding areas exist elsewhere. Taking into account the mitigation measures that are planned, effects on cetaceans are generally expected to be restricted to avoidance of a limited area around the survey operation and short-term changes in behavior, falling within the MMPA definition of “Level B harassment”. Animals are not expected to permanently abandon any area that is surveyed, and any behaviors that are interrupted during the activity are expected to resume once the activity ceases. Only a small portion of marine mammal habitat will be affected at any time, and other areas within Cook Inlet will be available for necessary biological functions.
In addition, of specific importance to belugas, NMFS seasonally restricts seismic survey operations in the area known to be important for beluga whale feeding, calving, or nursing. The primary location for these biological life functions occurs in the Susitna Delta region of upper Cook Inlet. NMFS proposes to implement a 16 km (10 mi) seasonal exclusion from seismic survey operations in this region from April 15-October 15. The highest concentrations of belugas are typically found in this area from early May through September each year. NMFS has incorporated a 2-week buffer on each end of this seasonal use timeframe to account for any anomalies in distribution and marine mammal usage. Additionally, in the event that a beluga is seen outside of the seasonal restricted area and buffer, seismic operations are required to shut down if a beluga is seen anywhere in the 160dB disturbance zone.
Mitigation measures such as controlled vessel speed, dedicated marine mammal observers, speed and course alterations, and shutdowns or power downs when marine mammals are seen within defined ranges designed both to avoid injury and disturbance will further reduce short-term reactions and minimize any effects on hearing sensitivity. In all cases, the effects of the seismic survey are expected to be short-term, with no lasting biological consequence. Therefore, the exposure of cetaceans to SAE's seismic survey activity, operation is not anticipated to have an adverse effect on annual rates of recruitment or survival of the affected species or stocks of cetaceans, and therefore will have a negligible impact on them.
Pinnipeds (harbor seals, Steller sea lions). Some individual pinnipeds may be exposed to sound from the seismic surveys more than once during the timeframe of the project. Taking into account the mitigation measures that are planned, effects on pinnipeds are generally expected to be restricted to avoidance of a limited area around the survey operation and short-term changes in behavior, falling within the MMPA definition of “Level B harassment.” Animals are not expected to permanently abandon any area that is surveyed, and any behaviors that are interrupted during the activity are expected to resume once the activity ceases. Only a small portion of pinniped habitat will be affected at any time, and other areas within Cook Inlet will be available for necessary biological functions. In addition, the area where the survey will take place is not known to be an important location where pinnipeds haul out. The closest known haul-out site is located on Kalgin Island, which is about 22 km from the McArther River. More recently, some large congregations of harbor seals have been observed hauling out in upper Cook Inlet. However, mitigation measures, such as vessel speed, course alteration, and visual monitoring, and restrictions will be implemented to help reduce impacts to the animals. Therefore, the exposure of pinnipeds to sounds produced by this phase of SAE's seismic survey is not anticipated to have an adverse effect on annual rates of recruitment or survival on those pinniped species or stocks, and therefore will have a negligible impact.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that SAE's seismic survey will have a negligible impact on the affected marine mammal species or stocks.
The requested takes authorized annually represent 9.6 percent of the Cook Inlet beluga whale population of approximately 312 animals (Allen and Angliss, 2014), 2.34 percent of the Alaska resident stock and 15.9 percent of the Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Island and Bering Sea stock of killer whales (1,123 residents and 345 transients), 0.70 percent of the Gulf of Alaska stock of approximately 31,046 harbor porpoises, 0.067 percent of the 7,469 Central North Pacific humpback whales, 0.06 percent of the 1,233 Alaska minke whales, 0.016 percent of the 83,400 Gulf of Alaska Dall's porpoise, and 0.033 percent of the eastern North Pacific stock of approximately 19,126 gray whales. The take requests presented for harbor seals represent 25 percent of the Cook Inlet/Shelikof stock of approximately 22,900 animals. The requested takes for Steller sea lions represent 0.055 percent of the U.S. portion of the western stock of approximately 45,649 animals. These take estimates represent the percentage of each species or stock that could be taken by Level B behavioral harassment.
NMFS finds that any incidental take reasonably likely to result from the effects of the activity, as authorized to be mitigated through this IHA, will be limited to small numbers relative to the affected species or stocks. In addition to the quantitative methods used to estimate take, NMFS also considered qualitative factors that further support the “small numbers” determination, including: (1) The seasonal distribution and habitat use patterns of Cook Inlet beluga whales, which suggest that for much of the time only a small portion of the population will be accessible to impacts from SAE's activity, as most animals are found in the Susitna Delta region of Upper Cook Inlet from early May through September; (2) other cetacean species and Steller sea lions are not common in the seismic survey area; (3) the mitigation requirements, which provide spatio-temporal
The subsistence harvest of marine mammals transcends the nutritional and economic values attributed to the animal and is an integral part of the cultural identity of the region's Alaska Native communities. Inedible parts of the whale provide Native artisans with materials for cultural handicrafts, and the hunting itself perpetuates Native traditions by transmitting traditional skills and knowledge to younger generations (NOAA, 2007).
The Cook Inlet beluga whale has traditionally been hunted by Alaska Natives for subsistence purposes. For several decades prior to the 1980s, the Native Village of Tyonek residents were the primary subsistence hunters of Cook Inlet beluga whales. During the 1980s and 1990s, Alaska Natives from villages in the western, northwestern, and North Slope regions of Alaska either moved to or visited the south central region and participated in the yearly subsistence harvest (Stanek, 1994). From 1994 to 1998, NMFS estimated 65 whales per year (range 21-123) were taken in this harvest, including those successfully taken for food and those struck and lost. NMFS concluded that this number was high enough to account for the estimated 14 percent annual decline in the population during this time (Hobbs
On October 15, 2008, NMFS published a final rule that established long-term harvest limits on Cook Inlet beluga whales that may be taken by Alaska Natives for subsistence purposes (73 FR 60976). That rule prohibits harvest for a 5-year interval period if the average stock abundance of Cook Inlet beluga whales over the prior five-year interval is below 350 whales. Harvest levels for the current 5-year planning interval (2013-2017) are zero because the average stock abundance for the previous five-year period (2008-2012) was below 350 whales. Based on the average abundance over the 2002-2007 period, no hunt occurred between 2008 and 2012 (NMFS, 2008a). The Cook Inlet Marine Mammal Council, which managed the Alaska Native Subsistence fishery with NMFS, was disbanded by a unanimous vote of the Tribes' representatives on June 20, 2012. At this time, no harvest is expected in 2015 or, likely, in 2016.
Data on the harvest of other marine mammals in Cook Inlet are lacking. Some data are available on the subsistence harvest of harbor seals, harbor porpoises, and killer whales in Alaska in the marine mammal stock assessments. However, these numbers are for the Gulf of Alaska including Cook Inlet, and they are not indicative of the harvest in Cook Inlet.
There is a low level of subsistence hunting for harbor seals in Cook Inlet. Seal hunting occurs opportunistically among Alaska Natives who may be fishing or travelling in the upper Inlet near the mouths of the Susitna River, Beluga River, and Little Susitna River. Some data are available on the subsistence harvest of harbor seals, harbor porpoises, and killer whales in Alaska in the marine mammal stock assessments. However, these numbers are for the Gulf of Alaska including Cook Inlet, and they are not indicative of the harvest in Cook Inlet. Some detailed information on the subsistence harvest of harbor seals is available from past studies conducted by the Alaska Department of Fish & Game (Wolfe
Section 101(a)(5)(D) also requires NMFS to determine that the taking will not have an unmitigable adverse effect on the availability of marine mammal species or stocks for subsistence use. NMFS has defined “unmitigable adverse impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity: (1) That is likely to reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by: (i) Causing the marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas; (ii) Directly displacing subsistence users; or (iii) Placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence hunters; and (2) That cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met.
The primary concern is the disturbance of marine mammals through the introduction of anthropogenic sound into the marine environment during the seismic survey. Marine mammals could be behaviorally harassed and either become more difficult to hunt or temporarily abandon traditional hunting grounds. The other anthropogenic activities proposed for Cook Inlet in the 2015 open water season that require an Authorization are spread throughout the Inlet and not concentrated in the area of SAE's activity, lessening the concern about spatial overlap. However, the seismic survey will not have any impacts to beluga harvests as none currently occur in Cook Inlet. Additionally, subsistence harvests of other marine mammal species are limited in Cook Inlet.
Regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(12) require IHA applicants for activities that take place in Arctic waters to provide a Plan of Cooperation or information that identifies what measures have been taken and/or will be taken to minimize adverse effects on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence purposes. The entire upper Cook unit and a portion of the lower Cook unit falls north of 60° N, or within the region NMFS has designated as an Arctic subsistence use area. There are several villages in SAE's project area that have traditionally hunted marine mammals, primarily harbor seals. Tyonek is the only tribal village in upper Cook Inlet with a tradition of hunting marine
Villages in lower Cook Inlet adjacent to SAE's seismic area (Kenai, Salamatof, and Ninilchik) have either not traditionally hunted beluga whales, or at least not in recent years, and rarely do they harvest sea lions. Between 1992 and 2008, the only reported sea lion harvests from this area were two Steller sea lions taken by hunters from Kenai (Wolfe
SAE has identified the following features that are intended to reduce impacts to subsistence users:
• In-water seismic activities will follow mitigation procedures to minimize effects on the behavior of marine mammals and, therefore, opportunities for harvest by Alaska Native communities.
SAE and NMFS recognize the importance of ensuring that ANOs and federally recognized tribes are informed, engaged, and involved during the permitting process and will continue to work with the ANOs and tribes to discuss operations and activities.
From mid-March through April 2015, SAE met with the following communities and organizations: Nikiski, Ninilchik Native Association Inc., Tyonek Native Corporation, Tyonek Village, Ninilchik, Nikiski Facilities Group, and United Cook Inlet Drift Association. These meetings were meant to inform the audience about the project as well as listen to concerns and comments. There will also be a review of permit stipulations and a permit matrix developed for the crews. The means of communications and contacts list is developed and implemented into the project, found in SAE's Plan of Cooperation. The use of PSOs/MMO's on board the vessels will ensure that appropriate precautions are taken to avoid harassment of marine mammals. If a conflict does occur with project activities involving subsistence or fishing, the project manager will immediately contact the affected party to resolve the conflict. If avoidance is not possible, the project manager will initiate communication with the Operations Supervisor to resolve the issue and plan an alternative course of action. The communications will involve the Permits Manager and the Anchorage Office of SAE.
The project will not have any effect on beluga whale harvests because no beluga harvest will take place in 2015. Additionally, the seismic survey area is not an important native subsistence site for other subsistence species of marine mammals, and Cook Inlet contains a relatively small proportion of marine mammals utilizing Cook Inlet; thus, the number harvested is expected to be extremely low. The timing and location of subsistence harvest of Cook Inlet harbor seals may coincide with SAE's project, but because this subsistence hunt is conducted opportunistically and at such a low level (NMFS, 2013c), SAE's program is not expected to have an impact on the subsistence use of harbor seals. Moreover, the survey will result in only temporary disturbances. Accordingly, the specified activity will not impact the availability of these other marine mammal species for subsistence uses.
NMFS anticipates that any effects from SAE's seismic survey on marine mammals, especially harbor seals and Cook Inlet beluga whales, which are or have been taken for subsistence uses, will be short-term, site specific, and limited to inconsequential changes in behavior and mild stress responses. NMFS does not anticipate that the authorized taking of affected species or stocks will reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by: (1) Causing the marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas; (2) directly displacing subsistence users; or (3) placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence hunters; and that cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met. Based on the description of the specified activity, the measures described to minimize adverse effects on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence purposes, and the required mitigation and monitoring measures, NMFS has determined that there will not be an unmitigable adverse impact on subsistence uses from SAE's activities.
There are three marine mammal species listed as endangered under the ESA with confirmed or possible occurrence in the project area: The Cook Inlet beluga whale, the western DPS of Steller sea lion, and the Central North Pacific humpback whale. In addition, the action could occur within 10 miles of designated critical habitat for the Cook Inlet beluga whale. NMFS's Permits and Conservation Division has initiated consultation with NMFS' Alaska Region Protected Resources Division under section 7 of the ESA. This consultation concluded on May 7, 2015, when a Biological Opinion was issued. The Biological Opinion determined that the issuance of an IHA is not likely to jeapordize the continued existence of the Cook Inlet beluga whales, Central North Pacific humpback whales, or western distinct population segment of Steller sea lions or destroy or adversely modify Cook Inlet beluga whale critical habitat. Finally, the Alaska region issued an Incidental Take Statement (ITS) for Cook Inlet beluga whales, humpback whales, and Steller sea lions. The ITS contains reasonable and prudent measures implemented by the terms and conditions to minimize the effect of this take.
NMFS prepared an EA that includes an analysis of potential environmental effects associated with NMFS' issuance of an IHA to SAE to take marine mammals incidental to conducting a 3D seismic survey program in Cook Inlet, Alaska. NMFS has finalized the EA and prepared a FONSI for this action. Therefore, preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement is not necessary.
As a result of these determinations, NMFS has issued an IHA to SAE for the take of marine mammals incidental to conducting a seismic survey program in Cook Inlet, Alaska, from May 13, 2015 through May 12, 2016, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |